Public Act 0642 99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB5540 Enrolled LRB099 16003 AMC 40320 b

Public Act 099-0642

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2016 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 98-1174 through 99-492 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.36 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.36)

Sec. 4.36. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2026. The following Acts are Act is repealed on January 1, 2026:

The Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair Braiding, and Nail Technology Act of 1985.

The Collection Agency Act.

The Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act.

The Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act.

The Illinois Dental Practice Act.

The Illinois Roofing Industry Licensing Act.

The Illinois Physical Therapy Act.

The Professional Geologist Licensing Act.

The Respiratory Care Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-26, eff. 7-10-15; 99-204, eff. 7-30-15; 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 99-229, eff. 8-3-15; 99-230, eff. 8-3-15; 99-427, eff. 8-21-15; 99-469, eff. 8-26-15; 99-492, eff. 12-31-15; revised 12-29-15.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.26 rep.)

Section 7. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by repealing Section 4.26.

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Section 5-45 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/5-45) (from Ch. 127, par. 1005-45)

Sec. 5-45. Emergency rulemaking.

(a) "Emergency" means the existence of any situation that any agency finds reasonably constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, or welfare.

(b) If any agency finds that an emergency exists that requires adoption of a rule upon fewer days than is required by Section 5-40 and states in writing its reasons for that finding, the agency may adopt an emergency rule without prior notice or hearing upon filing a notice of emergency rulemaking with the Secretary of State under Section 5-70. The notice shall include the text of the emergency rule and shall be published in the Illinois Register. Consent orders or other court orders adopting settlements negotiated by an agency may be adopted under this Section. Subject to applicable constitutional or statutory provisions, an emergency rule becomes effective immediately upon filing under Section 5-65 or at a stated date less than 10 days thereafter. The agency's finding and a statement of the specific reasons for the finding shall be filed with the rule. The agency shall take reasonable and appropriate measures to make emergency rules known to the persons who may be affected by them.

(c) An emergency rule may be effective for a period of not longer than 150 days, but the agency's authority to adopt an identical rule under Section 5-40 is not precluded. No emergency rule may be adopted more than once in any 24 month period, except that this limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24 month period does not apply to (i) emergency rules that make additions to and deletions from the Drug Manual under Section 5-5.16 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or the generic drug formulary under Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, (ii) emergency rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board before July 1, 1997 to implement portions of the Livestock Management Facilities Act, (iii) emergency rules adopted by the Illinois Department of Public Health under subsections (a) through (i) of Section 2 of the Department of Public Health Act when necessary to protect the public's health, (iv) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (n) of this Section, (v) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (o) of this Section, or (vi) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (c-5) of this Section. Two or more emergency rules having substantially the same purpose and effect shall be deemed to be a single rule for purposes of this Section.

(c-5) To facilitate the maintenance of the program of group health benefits provided to annuitants, survivors, and retired employees under the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971, rules to alter the contributions to be paid by the State, annuitants, survivors, retired employees, or any combination of those entities, for that program of group health benefits, shall be adopted as emergency rules. The adoption of those rules shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(d) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 1999 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 90-587 or 90-588 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 1999 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (d). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (d) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(e) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2000 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 91-24 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2000 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (e). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (e) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(f) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2001 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 91-712 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2001 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (f). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (f) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(g) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2002 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 92-10 this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2002 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (g). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (g) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(h) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2003 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 92-597 this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2003 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (h). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (h) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(i) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2004 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 93-20 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2004 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (i). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (i) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(j) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2005 budget as provided under the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (j). The Department of Public Aid may also adopt rules under this subsection (j) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (j) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(k) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2006 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 94-48 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2006 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (k). The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may also adopt rules under this subsection (k) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Prescription Drug Discount Program Act (now the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Act), and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (k) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(l) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2007 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2007, including rules effective July 1, 2007, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (l) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(m) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2008 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2008, including rules effective July 1, 2008, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (m) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(n) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2010 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 96-45 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2010 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (n) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (n) shall apply only to rules promulgated during Fiscal Year 2010.

(o) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2011 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 96-958 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2011 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (o) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (o) applies only to rules promulgated on or after the effective date of Public Act 96-958 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly through June 30, 2011.

(p) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 97-689, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 97-689 may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (p) by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The 150-day limitation of the effective period of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p), and the effective period may continue through June 30, 2013. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (p) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(q) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Articles 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12 of Public Act 98-104 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, emergency rules to implement any provision of Articles 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12 of Public Act 98-104 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (q) by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (q). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (q) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(r) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 98-651 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, emergency rules to implement Public Act 98-651 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (r) by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (r). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (r) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(s) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Sections 5-5b.1 and 5A-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, emergency rules to implement any provision of Section 5-5b.1 or Section 5A-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (s) by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (s) shall apply only to those rules adopted prior to July 1, 2015. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any emergency rule adopted under this subsection (s) shall only apply to payments made for State fiscal year 2015. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (s) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(t) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Article II of Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Article II of Public Act 99-6 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly to the Emergency Telephone System Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (t) by the Department of State Police. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (t) shall apply only to those rules adopted prior to July 1, 2016. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (t). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (t) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(u) (t) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the Burn Victims Relief Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of the Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (u) (t) by the Department of Insurance. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (u) (t) shall apply only to those rules adopted prior to December 31, 2015. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (u) (t) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 99-2, eff. 3-26-15; 99-6, eff. 1-1-16; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-455, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-15-15.)

Section 15. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.

(8) Security procedures, school building safety and security, and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals for a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(27) (Blank).

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards of the United States of America.

(30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and 3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

(33) Those meetings meeting or portions of meetings of the advisory committee and peer review subcommittee created under Section 320 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act during which specific controlled substance prescriber, dispenser, or patient information is discussed.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-235, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 20. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 7, 7.5, and 11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7) (from Ch. 116, par. 207)

Sec. 7. Exemptions.

(1) When a request is made to inspect or copy a public record that contains information that is exempt from disclosure under this Section, but also contains information that is not exempt from disclosure, the public body may elect to redact the information that is exempt. The public body shall make the remaining information available for inspection and copying. Subject to this requirement, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) Information specifically prohibited from disclosure by federal or State law or rules and regulations implementing federal or State law.

(b) Private information, unless disclosure is required by another provision of this Act, a State or federal law or a court order.

(b-5) Files, documents, and other data or databases maintained by one or more law enforcement agencies and specifically designed to provide information to one or more law enforcement agencies regarding the physical or mental status of one or more individual subjects.

(c) Personal information contained within public records, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, unless the disclosure is consented to in writing by the individual subjects of the information. "Unwarranted invasion of personal privacy" means the disclosure of information that is highly personal or objectionable to a reasonable person and in which the subject's right to privacy outweighs any legitimate public interest in obtaining the information. The disclosure of information that bears on the public duties of public employees and officials shall not be considered an invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records in the possession of any public body created in the course of administrative enforcement proceedings, and any law enforcement or correctional agency for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that disclosure would:

(i) interfere with pending or actually and reasonably contemplated law enforcement proceedings conducted by any law enforcement or correctional agency that is the recipient of the request;

(ii) interfere with active administrative enforcement proceedings conducted by the public body that is the recipient of the request;

(iii) create a substantial likelihood that a person will be deprived of a fair trial or an impartial hearing;

(iv) unavoidably disclose the identity of a confidential source, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, or persons who file complaints with or provide information to administrative, investigative, law enforcement, or penal agencies; except that the identities of witnesses to traffic accidents, traffic accident reports, and rescue reports shall be provided by agencies of local government, except when disclosure would interfere with an active criminal investigation conducted by the agency that is the recipient of the request;

(v) disclose unique or specialized investigative techniques other than those generally used and known or disclose internal documents of correctional agencies related to detection, observation or investigation of incidents of crime or misconduct, and disclosure would result in demonstrable harm to the agency or public body that is the recipient of the request;

(vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel or any other person; or

(vii) obstruct an ongoing criminal investigation by the agency that is the recipient of the request.

(d-5) A law enforcement record created for law enforcement purposes and contained in a shared electronic record management system if the law enforcement agency that is the recipient of the request did not create the record, did not participate in or have a role in any of the events which are the subject of the record, and only has access to the record through the shared electronic record management system.

(e) Records that relate to or affect the security of correctional institutions and detention facilities.

(e-5) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials are available in the library of the correctional facility where the inmate is confined.

(e-6) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information.

(e-7) Records requested by persons committed to the Department of Corrections if those materials are available through an administrative request to the Department of Corrections.

(f) Preliminary drafts, notes, recommendations, memoranda and other records in which opinions are expressed, or policies or actions are formulated, except that a specific record or relevant portion of a record shall not be exempt when the record is publicly cited and identified by the head of the public body. The exemption provided in this paragraph (f) extends to all those records of officers and agencies of the General Assembly that pertain to the preparation of legislative documents.

(g) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person or business where the trade secrets or commercial or financial information are furnished under a claim that they are proprietary, privileged or confidential, and that disclosure of the trade secrets or commercial or financial information would cause competitive harm to the person or business, and only insofar as the claim directly applies to the records requested.

The information included under this exemption includes all trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by a public body, including a public pension fund, from a private equity fund or a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund as a result of either investing or evaluating a potential investment of public funds in a private equity fund. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the aggregate financial performance information of a private equity fund, nor to the identity of the fund's managers or general partners. The exemption contained in this item does not apply to the identity of a privately held company within the investment portfolio of a private equity fund, unless the disclosure of the identity of a privately held company may cause competitive harm.

Nothing contained in this paragraph (g) shall be construed to prevent a person or business from consenting to disclosure.

(h) Proposals and bids for any contract, grant, or agreement, including information which if it were disclosed would frustrate procurement or give an advantage to any person proposing to enter into a contractor agreement with the body, until an award or final selection is made. Information prepared by or for the body in preparation of a bid solicitation shall be exempt until an award or final selection is made.

(i) Valuable formulae, computer geographic systems, designs, drawings and research data obtained or produced by any public body when disclosure could reasonably be expected to produce private gain or public loss. The exemption for "computer geographic systems" provided in this paragraph (i) does not extend to requests made by news media as defined in Section 2 of this Act when the requested information is not otherwise exempt and the only purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, welfare, or legal rights of the general public.

(j) The following information pertaining to educational matters:

(i) test questions, scoring keys and other examination data used to administer an academic examination;

(ii) information received by a primary or secondary school, college, or university under its procedures for the evaluation of faculty members by their academic peers;

(iii) information concerning a school or university's adjudication of student disciplinary cases, but only to the extent that disclosure would unavoidably reveal the identity of the student; and

(iv) course materials or research materials used by faculty members.

(k) Architects' plans, engineers' technical submissions, and other construction related technical documents for projects not constructed or developed in whole or in part with public funds and the same for projects constructed or developed with public funds, including but not limited to power generating and distribution stations and other transmission and distribution facilities, water treatment facilities, airport facilities, sport stadiums, convention centers, and all government owned, operated, or occupied buildings, but only to the extent that disclosure would compromise security.

(l) Minutes of meetings of public bodies closed to the public as provided in the Open Meetings Act until the public body makes the minutes available to the public under Section 2.06 of the Open Meetings Act.

(m) Communications between a public body and an attorney or auditor representing the public body that would not be subject to discovery in litigation, and materials prepared or compiled by or for a public body in anticipation of a criminal, civil or administrative proceeding upon the request of an attorney advising the public body, and materials prepared or compiled with respect to internal audits of public bodies.

(n) Records relating to a public body's adjudication of employee grievances or disciplinary cases; however, this exemption shall not extend to the final outcome of cases in which discipline is imposed.

(o) Administrative or technical information associated with automated data processing operations, including but not limited to software, operating protocols, computer program abstracts, file layouts, source listings, object modules, load modules, user guides, documentation pertaining to all logical and physical design of computerized systems, employee manuals, and any other information that, if disclosed, would jeopardize the security of the system or its data or the security of materials exempt under this Section.

(p) Records relating to collective negotiating matters between public bodies and their employees or representatives, except that any final contract or agreement shall be subject to inspection and copying.

(q) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to determine the qualifications of an applicant for a license or employment.

(r) The records, documents, and information relating to real estate purchase negotiations until those negotiations have been completed or otherwise terminated. With regard to a parcel involved in a pending or actually and reasonably contemplated eminent domain proceeding under the Eminent Domain Act, records, documents and information relating to that parcel shall be exempt except as may be allowed under discovery rules adopted by the Illinois Supreme Court. The records, documents and information relating to a real estate sale shall be exempt until a sale is consummated.

(s) Any and all proprietary information and records related to the operation of an intergovernmental risk management association or self-insurance pool or jointly self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool. Insurance or self insurance (including any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool) claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications.

(t) Information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of a public body responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions or insurance companies, unless disclosure is otherwise required by State law.

(u) Information that would disclose or might lead to the disclosure of secret or confidential information, codes, algorithms, programs, or private keys intended to be used to create electronic or digital signatures under the Electronic Commerce Security Act.

(v) Vulnerability assessments, security measures, and response policies or plans that are designed to identify, prevent, or respond to potential attacks upon a community's population or systems, facilities, or installations, the destruction or contamination of which would constitute a clear and present danger to the health or safety of the community, but only to the extent that disclosure could reasonably be expected to jeopardize the effectiveness of the measures or the safety of the personnel who implement them or the public. Information exempt under this item may include such things as details pertaining to the mobilization or deployment of personnel or equipment, to the operation of communication systems or protocols, or to tactical operations.

(w) (Blank).

(x) Maps and other records regarding the location or security of generation, transmission, distribution, storage, gathering, treatment, or switching facilities owned by a utility, by a power generator, or by the Illinois Power Agency.

(y) Information contained in or related to proposals, bids, or negotiations related to electric power procurement under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act that is determined to be confidential and proprietary by the Illinois Power Agency or by the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(z) Information about students exempted from disclosure under Sections 10-20.38 or 34-18.29 of the School Code, and information about undergraduate students enrolled at an institution of higher education exempted from disclosure under Section 25 of the Illinois Credit Card Marketing Act of 2009.

(aa) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(bb) Records and information provided to a mortality review team and records maintained by a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(cc) Information regarding interments, entombments, or inurnments of human remains that are submitted to the Cemetery Oversight Database under the Cemetery Care Act or the Cemetery Oversight Act, whichever is applicable.

(dd) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public Aid Code.

(ee) The names, addresses, or other personal information of persons who are minors and are also participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations.

(ff) The names, addresses, or other personal information of participants and registrants in programs of park districts, forest preserve districts, conservation districts, recreation agencies, and special recreation associations where such programs are targeted primarily to minors.

(gg) Confidential information described in Section 1-100 of the Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.

(hh) The report submitted to the State Board of Education by the School Security and Standards Task Force under item (8) of subsection (d) of Section 2-3.160 of the School Code and any information contained in that report.

(ii) Records requested by persons committed to or detained by the Department of Human Services under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or committed to the Department of Corrections under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act if those materials: (i) are available in the library of the facility where the individual is confined; (ii) include records from staff members' personnel files, staff rosters, or other staffing assignment information; or (iii) are available through an administrative request to the Department of Human Services or the Department of Corrections.

(jj) (ii) Confidential information described in Section 5-535 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(1.5) Any information exempt from disclosure under the Judicial Privacy Act shall be redacted from public records prior to disclosure under this Act.

(2) A public record that is not in the possession of a public body but is in the possession of a party with whom the agency has contracted to perform a governmental function on behalf of the public body, and that directly relates to the governmental function and is not otherwise exempt under this Act, shall be considered a public record of the public body, for purposes of this Act.

(3) This Section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as stated in this Section or otherwise provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-578, eff. 8-27-13; 98-695, eff. 7-3-14; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-346, eff. 1-1-16; revised 1-11-16.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) (bb) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; 98-1045, eff. 8-25-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-14-15.)

(5 ILCS 140/11) (from Ch. 116, par. 211)

Sec. 11. (a) Any person denied access to inspect or copy any public record by a public body may file suit for injunctive or declaratory relief.

(b) Where the denial is from a public body of the State, suit may be filed in the circuit court for the county where the public body has its principal office or where the person denied access resides.

(c) Where the denial is from a municipality or other public body, except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, suit may be filed in the circuit court for the county where the public body is located.

(d) The circuit court shall have the jurisdiction to enjoin the public body from withholding public records and to order the production of any public records improperly withheld from the person seeking access. If the public body can show that exceptional circumstances exist, and that the body is exercising due diligence in responding to the request, the court may retain jurisdiction and allow the agency additional time to complete its review of the records.

(e) On motion of the plaintiff, prior to or after in camera inspection, the court shall order the public body to provide an index of the records to which access has been denied. The index shall include the following:

(i) A description of the nature or contents of each document withheld, or each deletion from a released document, provided, however, that the public body shall not be required to disclose the information which it asserts is exempt; and

(ii) A statement of the exemption or exemptions claimed for each such deletion or withheld document.

(f) In any action considered by the court, the court shall consider the matter de novo, and shall conduct such in camera examination of the requested records as it finds appropriate to determine if such records or any part thereof may be withheld under any provision of this Act. The burden shall be on the public body to establish that its refusal to permit public inspection or copying is in accordance with the provisions of this Act. Any public body that asserts that a record is exempt from disclosure has the burden of proving that it is exempt by clear and convincing evidence.

(g) In the event of noncompliance with an order of the court to disclose, the court may enforce its order against any public official or employee so ordered or primarily responsible for such noncompliance through the court's contempt powers.

(h) Except as to causes the court considers to be of greater importance, proceedings arising under this Section shall take precedence on the docket over all other causes and be assigned for hearing and trial at the earliest practicable date and expedited in every way.

(i) If a person seeking the right to inspect or receive a copy of a public record prevails in a proceeding under this Section, the court shall award such person reasonable attorney's attorneys' fees and costs. In determining what amount of attorney's fees is reasonable, the court shall consider the degree to which the relief obtained relates to the relief sought. The changes contained in this subsection apply to an action filed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-542) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(j) If the court determines that a public body willfully and intentionally failed to comply with this Act, or otherwise acted in bad faith, the court shall also impose upon the public body a civil penalty of not less than $2,500 nor more than $5,000 for each occurrence. In assessing the civil penalty, the court shall consider in aggravation or mitigation the budget of the public body and whether the public body has previously been assessed penalties for violations of this Act. The changes contained in this subsection apply to an action filed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-542) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 25. The State Records Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(5 ILCS 160/9) (from Ch. 116, par. 43.12)

Sec. 9. The head of each agency shall establish, and maintain an active, continuing program for the economical and efficient management of the records of the agency.

Such program:

(1) shall provide for effective controls over the creation, maintenance, and use of records in the conduct of current business and shall ensure that agency electronic records, as specified in Section 5-135 of the Electronic Commerce Security Act, are retained in a trustworthy manner so that the records, and the information contained in the records, are accessible and usable for reference for the duration of the retention period; all computer tape or disk maintenance and preservation procedures must be fully applied and, if equipment or programs providing access to the records are updated or replaced, the existing data must remain accessible in the successor format for the duration of the approved retention period;

(2) shall provide for cooperation with the Secretary in appointing a records officer and in applying standards, procedures, and techniques to improve the management of records, promote the maintenance and security of records deemed appropriate for preservation, and facilitate the segregation and disposal of records of temporary value; and

(3) shall provide for compliance with the provisions of this Act and the rules and regulations issued thereunder.

If an agency has delegated its authority to retain records to another agency, then the delegate agency shall maintain the same, or a more diligent, record retention methodology and record retention period as the original agency's program. If the delegate is from the legislative or judicial branch, then the delegate may use the same record retention methodology and record retention period that the delegate uses for similar records.

(Source: P.A. 97-932, eff. 8-10-12; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 30. The Filing of Copies Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 165/2) (from Ch. 116, par. 102)

Sec. 2. In order to be acceptable for filing, reproduced copies shall conform to the following standards:

(a) be Be facsimiles of the official form, produced by photo-offset, photoengraving, photocopying, or other similar reproduction process;

(b) be Be on paper of substantially the same weight and texture and of a quality at least as good as that used in the official form;

(c) substantially Substantially duplicate the colors of the official form;

(d) have Have a high degree of legibility, both as to the original form and as to matter filled in; the . The agency with which a report is required to be filed may reject any illegible reproduction and reject any process which fails to meet this standard;

(e) be Be on paper perforated in the same manner as the official form; and

(f) be Be of the same size as the official form, both as to the dimensions of the paper and the image produced.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 2551; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 35. The Intergovernmental Cooperation Act is amended by changing Section 3.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 220/3.5) (from Ch. 127, par. 743.5)

Sec. 3.5. Any expenditure of funds by a public agency organized pursuant to an intergovernmental agreement in accordance with the provisions of this Act and consisting of 5 public agencies or less, except for an intergovernmental risk management association, self-insurance pool or self-administered health and accident cooperative or pool, shall be in accordance with the Illinois Purchasing Act if the State is a party to the agreement, and shall be in accordance with any law or ordinance applicable to the public agency with the largest population which is a party to the agreement if the State is not a party to the agreement. If the State is not a party to the agreement and there is no such applicable law or ordinance, all purchases shall be subject to the provisions of the Governmental Joint Purchasing Act "An Act authorizing certain governmental units to purchase personal property, supplies and services jointly", approved August 15, 1961, as amended. Such self-insurance or insurance pools may enter into reinsurance agreements for the protection of their members.

(Source: P.A. 84-1431; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 40. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 10-10, 11-6, and 19-12.1 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/10-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Within 24 hours after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or proposed question of public policy, as the case may be, and the objector's petition, the chairman of the electoral board other than the State Board of Elections shall send a call by registered or certified mail to each of the members of the electoral board, and to the objector who filed the objector's petition, and either to the candidate whose certificate of nomination or nomination papers are objected to or to the principal proponent or attorney for proponents of a question of public policy, as the case may be, whose petitions are objected to, and shall also cause the sheriff of the county or counties in which such officers and persons reside to serve a copy of such call upon each of such officers and persons, which call shall set out the fact that the electoral board is required to meet to hear and pass upon the objections to nominations made for the office, designating it, and shall state the day, hour and place at which the electoral board shall meet for the purpose, which place shall be in the county court house in the county in the case of the County Officers Electoral Board, the Municipal Officers Electoral Board, the Township Officers Electoral Board or the Education Officers Electoral Board, except that the Municipal Officers Electoral Board, the Township Officers Electoral Board, and the Education Officers Electoral Board may meet at the location where the governing body of the municipality, township, or community college district, respectively, holds its regularly scheduled meetings, if that location is available; provided that voter records may be removed from the offices of an election authority only at the discretion and under the supervision of the election authority. In those cases where the State Board of Elections is the electoral board designated under Section 10-9, the chairman of the State Board of Elections shall, within 24 hours after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions for a proposed amendment to Article IV of the Constitution or proposed statewide question of public policy, send a call by registered or certified mail to the objector who files the objector's petition, and either to the candidate whose certificate of nomination or nomination papers are objected to or to the principal proponent or attorney for proponents of the proposed Constitutional amendment or statewide question of public policy and shall state the day, hour, and place at which the electoral board shall meet for the purpose, which place may be in the Capitol Building or in the principal or permanent branch office of the State Board. The day of the meeting shall not be less than 3 nor more than 5 days after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or nomination papers and the objector's petition by the chairman of the electoral board.

The electoral board shall have the power to administer oaths and to subpoena and examine witnesses and, at the request of either party and only upon a vote by a majority of its members, may authorize the chairman to issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of such books, papers, records and documents as may be evidence of any matter under inquiry before the electoral board, in the same manner as witnesses are subpoenaed in the Circuit Court.

Service of such subpoenas shall be made by any sheriff or other person in the same manner as in cases in such court and the fees of such sheriff shall be the same as is provided by law, and shall be paid by the objector or candidate who causes the issuance of the subpoena. In case any person so served shall knowingly neglect or refuse to obey any such subpoena, or to testify, the electoral board shall at once file a petition in the circuit court of the county in which such hearing is to be heard, or has been attempted to be heard, setting forth the facts, of such knowing refusal or neglect, and accompanying the petition with a copy of the citation and the answer, if one has been filed, together with a copy of the subpoena and the return of service thereon, and shall apply for an order of court requiring such person to attend and testify, and forthwith produce books and papers, before the electoral board. Any circuit court of the state, excluding the judge who is sitting on the electoral board, upon such showing shall order such person to appear and testify, and to forthwith produce such books and papers, before the electoral board at a place to be fixed by the court. If such person shall knowingly fail or refuse to obey such order of the court without lawful excuse, the court shall punish him or her by fine and imprisonment, as the nature of the case may require and may be lawful in cases of contempt of court.

The electoral board on the first day of its meeting shall adopt rules of procedure for the introduction of evidence and the presentation of arguments and may, in its discretion, provide for the filing of briefs by the parties to the objection or by other interested persons.

In the event of a State Electoral Board hearing on objections to a petition for an amendment to Article IV of the Constitution pursuant to Section 3 of Article XIV of the Constitution, or to a petition for a question of public policy to be submitted to the voters of the entire State, the certificates of the county clerks and boards of election commissioners showing the results of the random sample of signatures on the petition shall be prima facie valid and accurate, and shall be presumed to establish the number of valid and invalid signatures on the petition sheets reviewed in the random sample, as prescribed in Section 28-11 and 28-12 of this Code. Either party, however, may introduce evidence at such hearing to dispute the findings as to particular signatures. In addition to the foregoing, in the absence of competent evidence presented at such hearing by a party substantially challenging the results of a random sample, or showing a different result obtained by an additional sample, this certificate of a county clerk or board of election commissioners shall be presumed to establish the ratio of valid to invalid signatures within the particular election jurisdiction.

The electoral board shall take up the question as to whether or not the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions are in proper form, and whether or not they were filed within the time and under the conditions required by law, and whether or not they are the genuine certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions which they purport to be, and whether or not in the case of the certificate of nomination in question it represents accurately the decision of the caucus or convention issuing it, and in general shall decide whether or not the certificate of nomination or nominating papers or petitions on file are valid or whether the objections thereto should be sustained and the decision of a majority of the electoral board shall be final subject to judicial review as provided in Section 10-10.1. The electoral board must state its findings in writing and must state in writing which objections, if any, it has sustained. A copy of the decision shall be served upon the parties to the proceedings in open proceedings before the electoral board. If a party does not appear for receipt of the decision, the decision shall be deemed to have been served on the absent party on the date when a copy of the decision is personally delivered or on the date when a copy of the decision is deposited in the United Unites States mail, in a sealed envelope or package, with postage prepaid, addressed to each party affected by the decision or to such party's attorney of record, if any, at the address on record for such person in the files of the electoral board.

Upon the expiration of the period within which a proceeding for judicial review must be commenced under Section 10-10.1, the electoral board shall, unless a proceeding for judicial review has been commenced within such period, transmit, by registered or certified mail, a certified copy of its ruling, together with the original certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions and the original objector's petition, to the officer or board with whom the certificate of nomination or nomination papers or petitions, as objected to, were on file, and such officer or board shall abide by and comply with the ruling so made to all intents and purposes.

(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; 98-691, eff. 7-1-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; revised 10-14-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/11-6) (from Ch. 46, par. 11-6)

Sec. 11-6. Within 60 days after July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-691) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, each election authority shall transmit to the principal office of the State Board of Elections and publish on any website maintained by the election authority maps in electronic portable document format (PDF) (.PDF) showing the current boundaries of all the precincts within its jurisdiction. Whenever election precincts in an election jurisdiction have been redivided or readjusted, the county board or board of election commissioners shall prepare maps in electronic portable document format (PDF) (.PDF) showing such election precinct boundaries no later than 90 days before the next scheduled election. The maps shall show the boundaries of all political subdivisions and districts. The county board or board of election commissioners shall immediately forward copies thereof to the chairman of each county central committee in the county, to each township, ward, or precinct committeeman, and each local election official whose political subdivision is wholly or partly in the county and, upon request, shall furnish copies thereof to each candidate for political or public office in the county and shall transmit copies thereof to the principal office of the State Board of Elections and publish copies thereof on any website maintained by the election authority.

(Source: P.A. 98-691, eff. 7-1-14; revised 10-14-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's voter's identification card for persons with disabilities card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for voters with physical disabilities, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other vote by mail ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 45. The Secretary of State Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10a as follows:

(15 ILCS 310/10a) (from Ch. 124, par. 110a)

Sec. 10a. Jurisdiction A - classification and pay. For positions in the Office of the Secretary of State with respect to the classification and pay:

(1) For the preparation, maintenance, and revision by the Director, subject to approval by the Commission, of a position classification plan for all positions subject to this Act, based upon similarity of duties performed, responsibilities assigned, and conditions of employment so that the same schedule of pay may be equitably applied to all positions in the same class. Unless the Commission disapproves such classification plan or any revision thereof within 30 calendar days, the Director shall allocate every such position to one of the classes in the plan. Any employee affected by the allocation of a position to a class shall after filing with the Director of Personnel within 30 calendar days of the allocation a request for reconsideration thereof in such manner and form as the Director may prescribe, be given a reasonable opportunity to be heard by the Director. If the employee does not accept the decision of the Director he may, within 15 calendar days after receipt of the reconsidered decision, appeal to the Merit Commission.

(2) For a pay plan to be prepared by the Director for all employees subject to this Act. Such pay plan may include provisions for uniformity of starting pay, an increment plan, area differentials, a delay not to exceed one year in the reduction of the pay of employees whose positions are reduced in rank or grade by reallocation because of a loss of duties or responsibilities after their appointments to such positions, prevailing rates of wages in those classifications in which employers are now paying or may hereafter pay such rates of wage and other provisions. Such pay plan shall become effective only after it has been approved by the Secretary of State. Amendments to the pay plan will be made in the same manner. Such pay plan shall provide that each employee shall be paid at one of the rates set forth in the pay plan for the class of position in which he is employed. Such pay plan shall provide for a fair and reasonable compensation for far services rendered.

(Source: P.A. 80-13; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 50. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 4, and 14C as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/2) (from Ch. 124, par. 22)

Sec. 2. Administration and powers and duties of the Administrator.

(a) The Secretary of State is the Administrator of this Act, and he is charged with the duty of observing, administering and enforcing the provisions of this Act.

(b) The Secretary is vested with the powers and duties for the proper administration of this Act as follows:

1. He shall organize the administration of this Act as he may deem necessary and appoint such subordinate officers, clerks and other employees as may be necessary.

2. From time to time, he may make, amend or rescind rules and regulations as may be in the public interest to implement the Act.

3. He may prescribe or provide suitable forms as necessary, including such forms as are necessary to establish that an applicant for an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card is a "person with a disability" as defined in Section 4A of this Act, and establish that an applicant for a State identification card is a "homeless person" as defined in Section 1A of this Act.

4. He may prepare under the seal of the Secretary of State certified copies of any records utilized under this Act and any such certified copy shall be admissible in any proceeding in any court in like manner as the original thereof.

5. Records compiled under this Act shall be maintained for 6 years, but the Secretary may destroy such records with the prior approval of the State Records Commission.

6. He shall examine and determine the genuineness, regularity and legality of every application filed with him under this Act, and he may in all cases investigate the same, require additional information or proof or documentation from any applicant.

7. He shall require the payment of all fees prescribed in this Act, and all such fees received by him shall be placed in the Road Fund of the State treasury except as otherwise provided in Section 12 of this Act. Whenever any application to the Secretary for an identification card under this Act is accompanied by any fee, as required by law, and the application is denied after a review of eligibility, which may include facial recognition comparison, the applicant shall not be entitled to a refund of any fees paid.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-14-15.)

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of expedited identification card requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant, a determination of disability from an advanced practice nurse, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-14-15.)

(15 ILCS 335/14C) (from Ch. 124, par. 34C)

Sec. 14C. Making false application or affidavit.

(a) It is a violation of this Section for any person:

1. To display or present any document for the purpose of making application for an Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card knowing that such document contains false information concerning the identity of the applicant;

2. To accept or allow to be accepted any document displayed or presented for the purpose of making application for an Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card knowing that such document contains false information concerning the identity identify of the applicant;

3. To knowingly make any false affidavit or swear or affirm falsely to any matter or thing required by the terms of this Act to be sworn to or affirmed.

(b) Sentence.

1. Any person convicted of a violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

2. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(c) This Section does not prohibit any lawfully authorized investigative, protective, law enforcement or other activity of any agency of the United States, State of Illinois or any other state or political subdivision thereof.

(d) The Secretary of State may confiscate any suspected fraudulent, fictitious, or altered documents submitted by an applicant in support of an application for an Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 55. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-23)

Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.

(a) Reports of drug overdose.

(1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse shall publish annually a report on drug overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose. The report shall also provide information on interventions that would be effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose and shall include an analysis of drug overdose information reported to the Department of Public Health pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code, Section 6.14g of the Hospital Licensing Act, and subsection (j) of Section 22-30 of the School Code.

(2) The report may include:

(A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.

(B) Trends in emergency room utilization related to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room utilization.

(C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and emergency services and the cost impact of emergency services utilization.

(D) Suggested improvements in data collection.

(E) A description of other interventions effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(F) A description of efforts undertaken to educate the public about unused medication and about how to properly dispose of unused medication, including the number of registered collection receptacles in this State, mail-back programs, and drug take-back events.

(b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.

(1) The Director may establish a program to provide for the production and publication, in electronic and other formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response literature. The Director may develop and disseminate curricula for use by professionals, organizations, individuals, or committees interested in the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital staff, families and associates of drug users, peace officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to information regarding drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response, literature produced by the Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall provide information and resources for substance abuse treatment.

The Director may establish or authorize programs for prescribing, dispensing, or distributing opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may include the prescribing of opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose to a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist.

(2) The Director may provide advice to State and local officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, programs promoting the disposal of unused prescription drugs, trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose crisis.

(c) Grants.

(1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, universities, community-based organizations, and faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner the Director prescribes.

(2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the necessity for overdose prevention projects in various settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to develop interventions that will be effective and viable in their local areas.

(3) The Director shall give preference for grants to proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving interventions and responses, provide information to drug users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give preference to proposals that include one or more of the following elements:

(A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a potentially fatal drug overdose.

(B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response education projects in drug treatment centers, outreach programs, and other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(C) Drug overdose recognition and response training, including rescue breathing, in drug treatment centers and for other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(D) The production and distribution of targeted or mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and response, the potential dangers of keeping unused prescription drugs in the home, and methods to properly dispose of unused prescription drugs.

(E) Prescription and distribution of opioid antagonists.

(F) The institution of education and training projects on drug overdose response and treatment for emergency services and law enforcement personnel.

(G) A system of parent, family, and survivor education and mutual support groups.

(4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private foundations, the federal government, and other sources to fund the grants under this Section and to fund an evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.

(d) Health care professional prescription of opioid antagonists.

(1) A health care professional who, acting in good faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or dispenses an opioid antagonist to: (a) a patient who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is capable of administering the drug in an emergency, or (b) a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to: (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute or (ii) any criminal liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to administer an opioid antagonist may in an emergency administer without fee an opioid antagonist if the person has received the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be (i) liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute, or (ii) subject to any criminal prosecution or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid antagonist to a patient shall ensure that the patient receives the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided by the health care professional or a community-based organization, substance abuse program, or other organization with which the health care professional establishes a written agreement that includes a description of how the organization will provide patient information, how employees or volunteers providing information will be trained, and standards for documenting the provision of patient information to patients. Provision of patient information shall be documented in the patient's medical record or through similar means as determined by agreement between the health care professional and the organization. The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in consultation with statewide organizations representing physicians, pharmacists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care professionals, community-based organizations, substance abuse programs, and other organizations training materials in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the provision of such patient information.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection:

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant prescriptive authority, a licensed advanced practice nurse prescriptive authority, or an advanced practice nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act, or a pharmacist licensed to practice pharmacy under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

"Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, may be in a position to assist another individual during an overdose and who has received patient information as required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the indications for and administration of an opioid antagonist.

"Patient information" includes information provided to the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid antagonist dosage and administration; the importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist; and other issues as necessary.

(e) Drug overdose response policy.

(1) Every State and local government agency that employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must possess opioid antagonists and must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and administration of such opioid antagonists and to provide training in the administration of opioid antagonists. A State or local government agency that employs a fireman as defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act but does not respond to emergency medical calls or provide medical services shall be exempt from this subsection.

(2) Every publicly or privately owned ambulance, special emergency medical services vehicle, non-transport vehicle, or ambulance assist vehicle, as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, which responds to requests for emergency services or transports patients between hospitals in emergency situations must possess opioid antagonists.

(3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and (2) to possess opioid antagonists may also apply to the Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid antagonists and training programs on the administration of opioid antagonists.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 60. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5007)

Sec. 7. Placement of children; considerations.

(a) In placing any child under this Act, the Department shall place the child, as far as possible, in the care and custody of some individual holding the same religious belief as the parents of the child, or with some child care facility which is operated by persons of like religious faith as the parents of such child.

(a-5) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall place the child with the child's sibling or siblings under Section 7.4 of this Act unless the placement is not in each child's best interest, or is otherwise not possible under the Department's rules. If the child is not placed with a sibling under the Department's rules, the Department shall consider placements that are likely to develop, preserve, nurture, and support sibling relationships, where doing so is in each child's best interest.

(b) In placing a child under this Act, the Department may place a child with a relative if the Department determines that the relative will be able to adequately provide for the child's safety and welfare based on the factors set forth in the Department's rules governing relative placements, and that the placement is consistent with the child's best interests, taking into consideration the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

When the Department first assumes custody of a child, in placing that child under this Act, the Department shall make reasonable efforts to identify, locate, and provide notice to all adult grandparents and other adult relatives of the child who are ready, willing, and able to care for the child. At a minimum, these efforts shall be renewed each time the child requires a placement change and it is appropriate for the child to be cared for in a home environment. The Department must document its efforts to identify, locate, and provide notice to such potential relative placements and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that a placement with any identified relative is not in the child's best interests or that the relative does not meet the requirements to be a relative caregiver, as set forth in Department rules or by statute, the Department must document the basis for that decision and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If, pursuant to the Department's rules, any person files an administrative appeal of the Department's decision not to place a child with a relative, it is the Department's burden to prove that the decision is consistent with the child's best interests.

When the Department determines that the child requires placement in an environment, other than a home environment, the Department shall continue to make reasonable efforts to identify and locate relatives to serve as visitation resources for the child and potential future placement resources, except when the Department determines that those efforts would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests.

If the Department determines that efforts to identify and locate relatives would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are inappropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

When the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are appropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible future placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination, maintain the documentation in the child's case file, create a visitation or transition plan, or both, and incorporate the visitation or transition plan, or both, into the child's case plan. For the purpose of this subsection, any determination as to the child's best interests shall include consideration of the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department may not place a child with a relative, with the exception of certain circumstances which may be waived as defined by the Department in rules, if the results of a check of the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) identifies a prior criminal conviction of the relative or any adult member of the relative's household for any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) murder;

(1.1) solicitation of murder;

(1.2) solicitation of murder for hire;

(1.3) intentional homicide of an unborn child;

(1.4) voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.5) involuntary manslaughter;

(1.6) reckless homicide;

(1.7) concealment of a homicidal death;

(1.8) involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.9) reckless homicide of an unborn child;

(1.10) drug-induced homicide;

(2) a sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45;

(3) kidnapping;

(3.1) aggravated unlawful restraint;

(3.2) forcible detention;

(3.3) aiding and abetting child abduction;

(4) aggravated kidnapping;

(5) child abduction;

(6) aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(7) criminal sexual assault;

(8) aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(8.1) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(9) criminal sexual abuse;

(10) aggravated sexual abuse;

(11) heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05;

(12) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05;

(13) tampering with food, drugs, or cosmetics;

(14) drug-induced infliction of great bodily harm as described in Section 12-4.7 or subdivision (g)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(15) aggravated stalking;

(16) home invasion;

(17) vehicular invasion;

(18) criminal transmission of HIV;

(19) criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability as described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a;

(20) child abandonment;

(21) endangering the life or health of a child;

(22) ritual mutilation;

(23) ritualized abuse of a child;

(24) an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses.

For the purpose of this subsection, "relative" shall include any person, 21 years of age or over, other than the parent, who (i) is currently related to the child in any of the following ways by blood or adoption: grandparent, sibling, great-grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, first cousin, second cousin, godparent, great-uncle, or great-aunt; or (ii) is the spouse of such a relative; or (iii) is the child's step-father, step-mother, or adult step-brother or step-sister; or (iv) is a fictive kin; "relative" also includes a person related in any of the foregoing ways to a sibling of a child, even though the person is not related to the child, when the child and its sibling are placed together with that person. For children who have been in the guardianship of the Department, have been adopted, and are subsequently returned to the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department, a "relative" may also include any person who would have qualified as a relative under this paragraph prior to the adoption, but only if the Department determines, and documents, that it would be in the child's best interests to consider this person a relative, based upon the factors for determining best interests set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. A relative with whom a child is placed pursuant to this subsection may, but is not required to, apply for licensure as a foster family home pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969; provided, however, that as of July 1, 1995, foster care payments shall be made only to licensed foster family homes pursuant to the terms of Section 5 of this Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision under this subsection to the contrary, a fictive kin with whom a child is placed pursuant to this subsection shall apply for licensure as a foster family home pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 within 6 months of the child's placement with the fictive kin. The Department shall not remove a child from the home of a fictive kin on the basis that the fictive kin fails to apply for licensure within 6 months of the child's placement with the fictive kin, or fails to meet the standard for licensure. All other requirements established under the rules and procedures of the Department concerning the placement of a child, for whom the Department is legally responsible, with a relative shall apply. By June 1, 2015, the Department shall promulgate rules establishing criteria and standards for placement, identification, and licensure of fictive kin.

For purposes of this subsection, "fictive kin" means any individual, unrelated by birth or marriage, who is shown to have close personal or emotional ties with the child or the child's family prior to the child's placement with the individual.

The provisions added to this subsection (b) by Public Act 98-846 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall become operative on and after June 1, 2015.

(c) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In rejecting placement of a child with an identified relative, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In evaluating the best interests of the child, the Department shall take into consideration the factors set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall consider the individual needs of the child and the capacity of the prospective foster or adoptive parents to meet the needs of the child. When a child must be placed outside his or her home and cannot be immediately returned to his or her parents or guardian, a comprehensive, individualized assessment shall be performed of that child at which time the needs of the child shall be determined. Only if race, color, or national origin is identified as a legitimate factor in advancing the child's best interests shall it be considered. Race, color, or national origin shall not be routinely considered in making a placement decision. The Department shall make special efforts for the diligent recruitment of potential foster and adoptive families that reflect the ethnic and racial diversity of the children for whom foster and adoptive homes are needed. "Special efforts" shall include contacting and working with community organizations and religious organizations and may include contracting with those organizations, utilizing local media and other local resources, and conducting outreach activities.

(c-1) At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of Section 5, so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

(d) The Department may accept gifts, grants, offers of services, and other contributions to use in making special recruitment efforts.

(e) The Department in placing children in adoptive or foster care homes may not, in any policy or practice relating to the placement of children for adoption or foster care, discriminate against any child or prospective adoptive or foster parent on the basis of race.

(Source: P.A. 98-846, eff. 1-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-340, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 65. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 605-817 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-817) (was 20 ILCS 605/46.19k)

Sec. 605-817. Family loan program.

(a) From amounts appropriated for such purpose, the Department in consultation with the Department of Human Services shall solicit proposals to establish programs to be known as family loan programs. Such programs shall provide small, no-interest loans to custodial parents with income below 200% of the federal poverty level and an who are working or enrolled in a post-secondary education program, to aid in covering the costs of unexpected expenses that could interfere with their ability to maintain employment or continue education. Loans awarded through a family loan program may be paid directly to a third party on behalf of a loan recipient and in either case shall not constitute income or resources for the purposes of public assistance and care so long as the funds are used for the intended purpose.

(b) The Director shall enter into written agreements with not-for-profit organizations or local government agencies to administer loan pools. Agreements shall be entered into with no more than 4 organizations or agencies, no more than one of which shall be located in the city of Chicago.

(c) Program sites shall be approved based on the demonstrated ability of the organization or governmental agency to secure funding from private or public sources sufficient to establish a loan pool to be maintained through repayment agreements entered into by eligible low-income families. Funds awarded by the Department to approved program sites shall be used for the express purposes of covering staffing and administration costs associated with administering the loan pool.

(Source: P.A. 91-372, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 70. The Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 805-305 as follows:

(20 ILCS 805/805-305) (was 20 ILCS 805/63a23)

Sec. 805-305. Campsites and housing facilities. The Department has the power to provide facilities for overnight tent and trailer campsites camp sites and to provide suitable housing facilities for student and juvenile overnight camping groups. The Department of Natural Resources may regulate, by administrative order, the fees to be charged for tent and trailer camping units at individual park areas based upon the facilities available. However, for campsites with access to showers or electricity, any Illinois resident who is age 62 or older or has a Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act shall be charged only one-half of the camping fee charged to the general public during the period Monday through Thursday of any week and shall be charged the same camping fee as the general public on all other days. For campsites without access to showers or electricity, no camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois who has a Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For campsites without access to showers or electricity, no camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois who is age 62 or older for the use of a campsite camp site unit during the period Monday through Thursday of any week. No camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois who is a veteran with a disability or a former prisoner of war, as defined in Section 5 of the Department of Veterans Affairs Act. No camping fee authorized by this Section shall be charged to any resident of Illinois after returning from service abroad or mobilization by the President of the United States as an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces, the Illinois National Guard, or the Reserves of the United States Armed Forces for the amount of time that the active duty member spent in service abroad or mobilized if the person (i) applies for a pass at the Department office in Springfield within 2 years after returning and provides acceptable verification of service or mobilization to the Department or (ii) applies for a pass at a Regional Office of the Department within 2 years after returning and provides acceptable verification of service or mobilization to the Department; any portion of a year that the active duty member spent in service abroad or mobilized shall count as a full year. Nonresidents shall be charged the same fees as are authorized for the general public regardless of age. The Department shall provide by regulation for suitable proof of age, or either a valid driver's license or a "Golden Age Passport" issued by the federal government shall be acceptable as proof of age. The Department shall further provide by regulation that notice of these reduced admission fees be posted in a conspicuous place and manner.

Reduced fees authorized in this Section shall not apply to any charge for utility service.

For the purposes of this Section, "acceptable verification of service or mobilization" means official documentation from the Department of Defense or the appropriate Major Command showing mobilization dates or service abroad dates, including: (i) a DD-214, (ii) a letter from the Illinois Department of Military Affairs for members of the Illinois National Guard, (iii) a letter from the Regional Reserve Command for members of the Armed Forces Reserve, (iv) a letter from the Major Command covering Illinois for active duty members, (v) personnel records for mobilized State employees, and (vi) any other documentation that the Department, by administrative rule, deems acceptable to establish dates of mobilization or service abroad.

For the purposes of this Section, the term "service abroad" means active duty service outside of the 50 United States and the District of Columbia, and includes all active duty service in territories and possessions of the United States.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 75. The Recreational Trails of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 34 as follows:

(20 ILCS 862/34)

Sec. 34. Exception from display of Off-Highway Vehicle Usage Stamps. The operator of an off-highway vehicle shall not be required to display an Off-Highway Vehicle Usage Stamp if the off-highway vehicle is:

(1) owned and used by the United States, the State of Illinois, another state, or a political subdivision thereof, but these off-highway vehicles shall prominently display the name of the owner on the off-highway vehicle;

(2) operated on lands where the operator, his or her immediate family, or both are the sole owners of the land; this exception shall not apply to clubs, associations, or lands leased for hunting or recreational purposes;

(3) used only on local, national, or international competition circuits in events for which written permission has been obtained by the sponsoring or sanctioning body from the governmental unit having jurisdiction over the location of any event held in this State;

(4) (blank);

(5) used on an off-highway vehicle grant assisted site and the off-highway vehicle displays an a Off-Highway Vehicle Access decal;

(6) used in conjunction with a bona fide commercial business, including, but not limited to, agricultural and livestock production;

(7) a golf cart, regardless of whether the golf cart is currently being used for golfing purposes;

(8) displaying a valid motor vehicle registration issued by the Secretary of State or any other state;

(9) operated by an individual who either possesses an Illinois Identification Card issued to the operator by the Secretary of State that lists a Class P2 (or P2O or any successor classification) or P2A disability or an original or photocopy of a valid motor vehicle disability placard issued to the operator by the Secretary of State, or is assisting a person with a disability who has a Class P2 (or P2O or any successor classification) or P2A disability while using the same off-highway vehicle as the individual with a disability; or

(10) used only at commercial riding parks.

For the purposes of this Section, "golf cart" means a machine specifically designed for the purposes of transporting one or more persons and their golf clubs.

For the purposes of this Section, "local, national, or international competition circuit" means any competition circuit sponsored or sanctioned by an international, national, or state organization, including, but not limited to, the American Motorcyclist Association, or sponsored, sanctioned, or both by an affiliate organization of an international, national, or state organization which sanctions competitions, including trials or practices leading up to or in connection with those competitions.

For the purposes of this Section, "commercial riding parks" mean commercial properties used for the recreational operation of off-highway vehicles by the paying members of the park or paying guests.

(Source: P.A. 98-820, eff. 8-1-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 80. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Sections 1-17 and 1-42 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-17)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Adult student with a disability" means an adult student, age 18 through 21, inclusive, with an Individual Education Program, other than a resident of a facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services in accordance with the Child Care Act of 1969. For purposes of this definition, "through age 21, inclusive", means through the day before the student's 22nd birthday.

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health care worker registry" or "registry" means the health care worker registry created by the Nursing Home Care Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person having a developmental disability.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior. Sexual abuse also includes (i) an employee's actions that result in the sending or showing of sexually explicit images to an individual via computer, cellular phone, electronic mail, portable electronic device, or other media with or without contact with the individual or (ii) an employee's posting of sexually explicit images of an individual online or elsewhere whether or not there is contact with the individual.

"Sexually explicit images" includes, but is not limited to, any material which depicts nudity, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse, or which contains explicit and detailed verbal descriptions or narrative accounts of sexual excitement, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, and financial exploitation.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit or written response compliance check, fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting to law enforcement.

(1) Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Department of State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Department of State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(2) Reporting allegations of adult students with disabilities. Upon receipt of a reportable allegation regarding an adult student with a disability, the Department's Office of the Inspector General shall determine whether the allegation meets the criteria for the Domestic Abuse Program under the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act. If the allegation is reportable to that program, the Office of the Inspector General shall initiate an investigation. If the allegation is not reportable to the Domestic Abuse Program, the Office of the Inspector General shall make an expeditious referral to the respective law enforcement entity. If the alleged victim is already receiving services from the Department, the Office of the Inspector General shall also make a referral to the respective Department of Human Services' Division or Bureau.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order.

(n) Written responses and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Reconsideration requests. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General reconsider or clarify its finding based upon additional information.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30 day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health care worker registry.

(1) Reporting to the registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's health care worker registry, a public registry, the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse, financial exploitation, or egregious neglect of an individual.

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of abuse or neglect, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or egregious neglect is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the registry.

(6) Removal from registry. At any time after the report to the registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving health care worker registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or care of persons with developmental disabilities. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or a parent of a person with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that a patient is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to a patient in contravention of that patient's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the patient's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to a patient be considered abuse under this Section if the patient has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-711, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-323, eff. 8-7-15; revised 10-19-15.)

(20 ILCS 1305/1-42)

Sec. 1-42. Department Ambassador. Subject to appropriation, as part of a pilot program, the Department shall designate one or more officials or employees to serve as Department Ambassadors Ambassador. Department Ambassadors shall serve as a liaison between the Department and the public and shall have the following duties: (i) to inform the public about services available through the Department, (ii) to assist the public in accessing those services, (iii) to review the Department's methods of disseminating information, and (iv) to recommend and implement more efficient practices of providing services and information to the public where possible.

(Source: P.A. 98-1065, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 85. The Burn Victims Relief Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1410/15)

Sec. 15. Rulemaking. The Department of Insurance may adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Act. In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of this Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of this Act may be adopted by the Department in accordance with subsection (u) (t) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-455, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-26-15.)

Section 90. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-15)

Sec. 2105-15. General powers and duties.

(a) The Department has, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the following powers and duties:

(1) To authorize examinations in English to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants to exercise the profession, trade, or occupation for which the examination is held.

(2) To prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and wholly impartial method of examination of candidates to exercise the respective professions, trades, or occupations.

(3) To pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licenses, certificates, and authorities, whether by examination, by reciprocity, or by endorsement.

(4) To prescribe rules and regulations defining, for the respective professions, trades, and occupations, what shall constitute a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, and to determine the reputability and good standing of a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, by reference to a compliance with those rules and regulations; provided, that no school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution that refuses admittance to applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex, sexual orientation, or national origin shall be considered reputable and in good standing.

(5) To conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to licenses, certificates, or authorities of persons exercising the respective professions, trades, or occupations and to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to those licenses, certificates, or authorities.

The Department shall issue a monthly disciplinary report.

The Department shall deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the aforementioned persons have established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or other appropriate governmental agency of this State. Additionally, beginning June 1, 1996, any license issued by the Department may be suspended or revoked if the Department, after the opportunity for a hearing under the appropriate licensing Act, finds that the licensee has failed to make satisfactory repayment to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for a delinquent or defaulted loan. For the purposes of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

The Department shall refuse to issue or renew a license to, or shall suspend or revoke a license of, any person who, after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding. However, the Department may issue a license or renewal upon compliance with the subpoena or warrant.

The Department, without further process or hearings, shall revoke, suspend, or deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to a person who is certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as being more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order or who is certified by a court as being in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days. The Department may, however, issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or if the person is determined by the court to be in compliance with the Non-Support Punishment Act. The Department may implement this paragraph as added by Public Act 89-6 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement this paragraph shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(6) To transfer jurisdiction of any realty under the control of the Department to any other department of the State Government or to acquire or accept federal lands when the transfer, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(7) To formulate rules and regulations necessary for the enforcement of any Act administered by the Department.

(8) To exchange with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Professional Regulation shall not be liable under any federal or State law to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this paragraph (8) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (8).

(8.5) To accept continuing education credit for mandated reporter training on how to recognize and report child abuse offered by the Department of Children and Family Services and completed by any person who holds a professional license issued by the Department and who is a mandated reporter under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this paragraph.

(9) To perform other duties prescribed by law.

(a-5) Except in cases involving default on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State or in cases involving delinquency in complying with a child support order or violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act and notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing Act or administrative rule, no person or entity whose license, certificate, or authority has been revoked as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department may apply for restoration of that license, certification, or authority until 3 years after the effective date of the revocation.

(b) The Department may, when a fee is payable to the Department for a wall certificate of registration provided by the Department of Central Management Services, require that portion of the payment for printing and distribution costs be made directly or through the Department to the Department of Central Management Services for deposit into the Paper and Printing Revolving Fund. The remainder shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(c) For the purpose of securing and preparing evidence, and for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities, recoupment of investigative costs, and other activities directed at suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled substances, including those activities set forth in Sections 504 and 508 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Director and agents appointed and authorized by the Director may expend sums from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund that the Director deems necessary from the amounts appropriated for that purpose. Those sums may be advanced to the agent when the Director deems that procedure to be in the public interest. Sums for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities and other activities as set forth in this Section shall be advanced to the agent who is to make the purchase from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund on vouchers signed by the Director. The Director and those agents are authorized to maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any State banking corporation or corporations organized under or subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and withdrawal of moneys to be used for the purposes set forth in this Section; provided, that no check may be written nor any withdrawal made from any such account except upon the written signatures of 2 persons designated by the Director to write those checks and make those withdrawals. Vouchers for those expenditures must be signed by the Director. All such expenditures shall be audited by the Director, and the audit shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management Services for approval.

(d) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400), the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files that is necessary to fulfill the request.

(e) The provisions of this Section do not apply to private business and vocational schools as defined by Section 15 of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall deny any license application or renewal authorized under any licensing Act administered by the Department to any person who has failed to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirement of any such tax Act are satisfied; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue. For the purpose of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Department of Revenue that includes a certification, signed by its Director or designee, attesting to the amount of the unpaid tax liability or the years for which a return was not filed, or both, is prima facie evidence of the licensee's failure to comply with the tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order by certified and regular mail to the licensee's last known address as registered with the Department. The notice shall advise the licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department receives, from the licensee, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Any suspension imposed under this subsection (g) shall be terminated by the Department upon notification from the Illinois Department of Revenue that the licensee is in compliance with all tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department may promulgate rules for the administration of this subsection (g).

(h) The Department may grant the title "Retired", to be used immediately adjacent to the title of a profession regulated by the Department, to eligible retirees. For individuals licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the title "Retired" may be used in the profile required by the Patients' Right to Know Act. The use of the title "Retired" shall not constitute representation of current licensure, registration, or certification. Any person without an active license, registration, or certificate in a profession that requires licensure, registration, or certification shall not be permitted to practice that profession.

(i) Within 180 days after December 23, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-852), the Department shall promulgate rules which permit a person with a criminal record, who seeks a license or certificate in an occupation for which a criminal record is not expressly a per se bar, to apply to the Department for a non-binding, advisory opinion to be provided by the Board or body with the authority to issue the license or certificate as to whether his or her criminal record would bar the individual from the licensure or certification sought, should the individual meet all other licensure requirements including, but not limited to, the successful completion of the relevant examinations.

(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-850, eff. 1-1-15; 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 99-330, eff. 8-10-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 95. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 2310-685 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-685)

Sec. 2310-685. Health care facility; policy to encourage participation in capital projects.

(a) A health care facility shall develop a policy to encourage the participation of minority-owned, women-owned, veteran-owned, and small business enterprises in capital projects undertaken by the health care facility.

(b) A health care system may develop a system-wide policy in order to comply with the requirement of subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) The policy required under this Section must be developed no later than 6 months after January 1, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-315) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(d) This Section does not apply to health care facilities with 100 or fewer beds, health care facilities located in a county with a total census population of less than 3,000,000, or health care facilities owned or operated by a unit of local government or the State or federal government.

(e) For the purpose of this Section, "health care facility" has the same meaning as set forth in the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-315, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-28-15.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-690)

Sec. 2310-690 2310-685. Cytomegalovirus public education.

(a) In this Section:

"CMV" means cytomegalovirus.

"Health care provider" means any physician, hospital facility, or other person that is licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care services.

(b) The Department shall develop or approve and publish informational materials for women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants regarding:

(1) the incidence of CMV;

(2) the transmission of CMV to pregnant women and women who may become pregnant;

(3) birth defects caused by congenital CMV;

(4) methods of diagnosing congenital CMV; and

(5) available preventive measures to avoid the infection of women who are pregnant or may become pregnant.

(c) The Department shall publish the information required under subsection (b) on its Internet website.

(d) The Department shall publish information to:

(1) educate women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants about CMV; and

(2) raise awareness of CMV among health care providers who provide care to expectant mothers or infants.

(e) The Department may solicit and accept the assistance of any relevant medical associations or community resources, including faith-based resources, to promote education about CMV under this Section.

(f) If a newborn infant fails the 2 initial hearing screenings in the hospital, then the hospital performing that screening shall provide to the parents of the newborn infant information regarding: (i) birth defects caused by congenital CMV; (ii) testing opportunities and options for CMV, including the opportunity to test for CMV before leaving the hospital; and (iii) early intervention services. Health care providers may use the materials developed by the Department for distribution to parents of newborn infants.

(Source: P.A. 99-424, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-28-15.)

Section 100. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is amended by changing Section 52 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2407/52)

Sec. 52. Applicability; definitions. In accordance with Section 6071 of the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (P.L. 109-171), as used in this Article:

"Departments". The term "Departments" means for the purposes of this Act, the Department of Human Services, the Department on Aging, Department of Healthcare and Family Services and Department of Public Health, unless otherwise noted.

"Home and community-based long-term care services". The term "home and community-based long-term care services" means, with respect to the State Medicaid program, a service aid, or benefit, home and community-based services, including, but not limited to, home health and personal care services, that are provided to a person with a disability, and are voluntarily accepted, as part of his or her long-term care that: (i) is provided under the State's qualified home and community-based program or that could be provided under such a program but is otherwise provided under the Medicaid program; (ii) is delivered in a qualified residence; and (iii) is necessary for the person with a disability to live in the community.

"ID/DD community care facility". The term "ID/DD community care facility", for the purposes of this Article, means a skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care facility subject to licensure by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act, an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities (ICF-DDs), and a State-operated developmental center or mental health center, whether publicly or privately owned.

"Money Follows the Person" Demonstration. Enacted by the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005, the Money Follows the Person (MFP) Rebalancing Demonstration is part of a comprehensive, coordinated strategy to assist states, in collaboration with stakeholders, to make widespread changes to their long-term care support systems. This initiative will assist states in their efforts to reduce their reliance on institutional care while developing community-based long-term care opportunities, enabling the elderly and people with disabilities to fully participate in their communities.

"Public funds" mean any funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the Departments of Human Services, on Aging, of Healthcare and Family Services and of Public Health for settings and services as defined in this Article.

"Qualified residence". The term "qualified residence" means, with respect to an eligible individual: (i) a home owned or leased by the individual or the individual's authorized representative (as defined by P.L. 109-171); (ii) an apartment with an individual lease, with lockable access and egress, and which includes living, sleeping, bathing, and cooking areas over which the individual or the individual's family has domain and control; or (iii) a residence, in a community-based residential setting, in which no more than 4 unrelated individuals reside. Where qualified residences are not sufficient to meet the demand of eligible individuals, time-limited exceptions to this definition may be developed through administrative rule.

"Self-directed services". The term "self-directed services" means, with respect to home and community-based long-term services for an eligible individual, those services for the individual that are planned and purchased under the direction and control of the individual or the individual's authorized representative, including the amount, duration, scope, provider, and location of such services, under the State Medicaid program consistent with the following requirements:

(a) Assessment: there is an assessment of the needs, capabilities, and preference of the individual with respect to such services.

(b) Individual service care or treatment plan: based on the assessment, there is development jointly with such individual or individual's authorized representative, a plan for such services for the individual that (i) specifies those services, if any, that the individual or the individual's authorized representative would be responsible for directing; (ii) identifies the methods by which the individual or the individual's authorized representative or an agency designated by an individual or representative will select, manage, and dismiss providers of such services.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 11-3-15.)

Section 105. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement and sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) offenses which are Class A misdemeanors under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) the sealing of the records of an arrest which results in the petitioner being charged with a felony offense or records of a charge not initiated by arrest for a felony offense unless:

(i) the charge is amended to a misdemeanor and is otherwise eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c);

(ii) the charge is brought along with another charge as a part of one case and the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, and another charge brought in the same case results in a disposition for a misdemeanor offense that is eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c) or a disposition listed in paragraph (i), (iii), or (iv) of this subsection;

(iii) the charge results in first offender probation as set forth in subsection (c)(2)(E);

(iv) the charge is for a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F) or the charge is amended to a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F);

(v) the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without conviction; or

(vi) the charge results in a conviction, but the conviction was reversed or vacated.

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when:

(A) He or she has never been convicted of a criminal offense; and

(B) Each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions for the following offenses:

(i) Class 4 felony convictions for:

Prostitution under Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of cannabis under Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act.

Possession of a controlled substance under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

Offenses under the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

Offenses under the Steroid Control Act.

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession of burglary tools under Section 19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(ii) Class 3 felony convictions for:

Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Possession with intent to manufacture or deliver a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, if not waived.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(B)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 98-133, eff. 1-1-14; 98-142, eff. 1-1-14; 98-163, eff. 8-5-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; 98-635, eff. 1-1-15; 98-637, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1009, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-378, eff. 1-1-16; 99-385, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-15-15.)

Section 110. The Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2705-565 and 2705-605 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-565)

Sec. 2705-565. North Chicago property; study; conveyance.

(a) The Department shall perform a study of property owned by the Department consisting of approximately 160 acres located in North Chicago, south of IL Route 137, between IL Route 43 and US Route 41. The study shall include, but not be limited to, a survey of the property for the purpose of delineating jurisdictional wetlands in accordance with the Interagency Wetland Policy Act of 1989 and identifying threatened and endangered species in accordance with the Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act, for the purpose of identifying property no longer needed for highway purposes.

(b) Upon completion of the study and for a period ending 3 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, the City of North Chicago shall have an exclusive option to purchase for public purposes those portions of the property no longer needed for highway purposes for a consideration, which may be de minimis minimus, negotiated by the parties. The Department of Transportation is authorized to convey the excess property to the City of North Chicago pursuant to this Section within 3 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, but may not otherwise convey or transfer the property during that period.

(c) Any conveyance to the City of North Chicago under this Section shall provide (i) that title to the property reverts to the State of Illinois if the property ceases to be used for public purposes and (ii) the City of North Chicago may lease the property but may not convey its ownership of the property to any party, other than the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 94-1045, eff. 7-24-06; revised 10-19-15.)

(20 ILCS 2705/2705-605)

Sec. 2705-605. Construction projects; notification of the public.

(a) The Department shall develop and publish a policy for the notification of members of the public prior to the commencement of construction projects which impact their communities. The policy shall include procedures for ensuring that the public is informed of construction projects, excluding emergency projects, which are estimated to require the closure of a street or lane of traffic for a period longer than 5 consecutive business days. The policy shall include procedures for the notification of local public officials and affected businesses of affected communities and shall provide the local public officials the opportunity to request a meeting with the Department prior to the initiation of the closure.

(b) The policy shall be completed and published on the Department's Internet website by January 1, 2013.

(c) The Department shall work with affected stakeholders, including residents, businesses, and other community members, before and during construction by considering various methods to mitigate and reduce project impacts to better serve those directly impacted by the improvement. Those methods could include, but need not be limited to, detour routing and temporary signage.

(Source: P.A. 97-992, eff. 1-1-13; 98-412, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 115. The Department of Veterans Affairs Act is amended by changing Section 2.01 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2805/2.01) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 67.01)

Sec. 2.01. Veterans Home admissions.

(a) Any honorably discharged veteran is entitled to admission to an Illinois Veterans Home if the applicant meets the requirements of this Section.

(b) The veteran must:

(1) have served in the armed forces of the United States at least 1 day in World War II, the Korean Conflict, the Viet Nam Campaign, or the Persian Gulf Conflict between the dates recognized by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs or between any other present or future dates recognized by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs as a war period, or have served in a hostile fire environment and has been awarded a campaign or expeditionary medal signifying his or her service, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(2) have served and been honorably discharged or retired from the armed forces of the United States for a service connected disability or injury, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(3) have served as an enlisted person at least 90 days on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, excluding service on active duty for training purposes only, and entered active duty before September 8, 1980, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(4) have served as an officer at least 90 days on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, excluding service on active duty for training purposes only, and entered active duty before October 17, 1981, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(5) have served on active duty in the armed forces of the United States for 24 months of continuous service or more, excluding active duty for training purposes only, and enlisted after September 7, 1980, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(6) have served as a reservist in the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard and the service included being called to federal active duty, excluding service on active duty for training purposes only, and who completed the term, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care;

(7) have been discharged for reasons of hardship or released from active duty due to a reduction in the United States armed forces prior to the completion of the required period of service, regardless of the actual time served, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care; or

(8) have served in the National Guard or Reserve Forces of the United States and completed 20 years of satisfactory service, be otherwise eligible to receive reserve or active duty retirement benefits, and have been an Illinois resident for at least one year before applying for admission for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary care only.

(c) The veteran must have service accredited to the State of Illinois or have been a resident of this State for one year immediately preceding the date of application.

(d) For admission to the Illinois Veterans Homes at Anna and Quincy, the veteran must have developed a disability by disease, wounds, or otherwise and because of the disability be incapable of earning a living.

(e) For admission to the Illinois Veterans Homes at LaSalle and Manteno, the veteran must have developed a disability by disease, wounds, or otherwise and, for purposes of eligibility for nursing home care, require nursing care because of the disability.

(f) An individual who served during a time of conflict as set forth in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) subsection (a)(1) of this Section has preference over all other qualifying candidates, for purposes of eligibility for domiciliary or nursing home care at any Illinois Veterans Home.

(g) A veteran or spouse, once admitted to an Illinois Veterans Home facility, is considered a resident for interfacility purposes.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-314, eff. 8-7-15; revised 10-19-15.)

Section 120. The Historic Preservation Agency Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3405/16) (from Ch. 127, par. 2716)

Sec. 16. The Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency shall have the following additional powers:

(a) To hire agents and employees necessary to carry out the duties and purposes of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency.

(b) To take all measures necessary to erect, maintain, preserve, restore, and conserve all State Historic Sites and State Memorials, except when supervision and maintenance is otherwise provided by law. This authorization includes the power, with the consent of the Board, to enter into contracts, acquire and dispose of real and personal property, and enter into leases of real and personal property. The Agency has the power to acquire, for purposes authorized by law, any real property in fee simple subject to a life estate in the seller in not more than 3 acres of the real property acquired, subject to the restrictions that the life estate shall be used for residential purposes only and that it shall be non-transferable.

(c) To provide recreational facilities, including campsites camp sites, lodges and cabins, trails, picnic areas, and related recreational facilities, at all sites under the jurisdiction of the Agency.

(d) To lay out, construct, and maintain all needful roads, parking areas, paths or trails, bridges, camp or lodge sites, picnic areas, lodges and cabins, and any other structures and improvements necessary and appropriate in any State historic site or easement thereto; and to provide water supplies, heat and light, and sanitary facilities for the public and living quarters for the custodians and keepers of State historic sites.

(e) To grant licenses and rights-of-way within the areas controlled by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency for the construction, operation, and maintenance upon, under or across the property, of facilities for water, sewage, telephone, telegraph, electric, gas, or other public service, subject to the terms and conditions as may be determined by the Agency.

(f) To authorize the officers, employees, and agents of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency, for the purposes of investigation and to exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested and that may be vested in it, to enter and cross all lands and waters in this State, doing no damage to private property.

(g) To transfer jurisdiction of or exchange any realty under the control of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency to any other Department of the State Government, or to any agency of the Federal Government, or to acquire or accept Federal lands, when any transfer, exchange, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(h) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments and memorials erected by the State, except when the supervision and maintenance of public monuments and memorials is otherwise provided by law.

(i) To accept, hold, maintain, and administer, as trustee, property given in trust for educational or historic purposes for the benefit of the People of the State of Illinois and to dispose, with the consent of the Board, of any property under the terms of the instrument creating the trust.

(j) To lease concessions on any property under the jurisdiction of the Agency for a period not exceeding 25 years and to lease a concession complex at Lincoln's New Salem State Historic Site for which a cash incentive has been authorized under Section 5.1 of the Historic Preservation Agency Act for a period not to exceed 40 years. All leases, for whatever period, shall be made subject to the written approval of the Governor. All concession leases extending for a period in excess of 10 years, will contain provisions for the Agency to participate, on a percentage basis, in the revenues generated by any concession operation.

The Agency is authorized to allow for provisions for a reserve account and a leasehold account within Agency concession lease agreements for the purpose of setting aside revenues for the maintenance, rehabilitation, repair, improvement, and replacement of the concession facility, structure, and equipment of the Agency that are part of the leased premises.

The lessee shall be required to pay into the reserve account a percentage of gross receipts, as set forth in the lease, to be set aside and expended in a manner acceptable to the Agency by the concession lessee for the purpose of ensuring that an appropriate amount of the lessee's moneys are provided by the lessee to satisfy the lessee's incurred responsibilities for the operation of the concession facility under the terms and conditions of the concession lease.

The lessee account shall allow for the amortization of certain authorized expenses that are incurred by the concession lessee but that are not an obligation of the lessee under the terms and conditions of the lease agreement. The Agency may allow a reduction of up to 50% of the monthly rent due for the purpose of enabling the recoupment of the lessee's authorized expenditures during the term of the lease.

(k) To sell surplus agricultural products grown on land owned by or under the jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency, when the products cannot be used by the Agency.

(l) To enforce the laws of the State and the rules and regulations of the Agency in or on any lands owned, leased, or managed by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency.

(m) To cooperate with private organizations and agencies of the State of Illinois by providing areas and the use of staff personnel where feasible for the sale of publications on the historic and cultural heritage of the State and craft items made by Illinois craftsmen. These sales shall not conflict with existing concession agreements. The Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency is authorized to negotiate with the organizations and agencies for a portion of the monies received from sales to be returned to the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency's Historic Sites Fund for the furtherance of interpretive and restoration programs.

(n) To establish local bank or savings and loan association accounts, upon the written authorization of the Director, to temporarily hold income received at any of its properties. The local accounts established under this Section shall be in the name of the Historic Preservation Agency and shall be subject to regular audits. The balance in a local bank or savings and loan association account shall be forwarded to the Agency for deposit with the State Treasurer on Monday of each week if the amount to be deposited in a fund exceeds $500.

No bank or savings and loan association shall receive public funds as permitted by this Section, unless it has complied with the requirements established under Section 6 of the Public Funds Investment Act.

(o) To accept, with the consent of the Board, offers of gifts, gratuities, or grants from the federal government, its agencies, or offices, or from any person, firm, or corporation.

(p) To make reasonable rules and regulations as may be necessary to discharge the duties of the Agency.

(q) With appropriate cultural organizations, to further and advance the goals of the Agency.

(r) To make grants for the purposes of planning, survey, rehabilitation, restoration, reconstruction, landscaping, and acquisition of Illinois properties (i) designated individually in the National Register of Historic Places, (ii) designated as a landmark under a county or municipal landmark ordinance, or (iii) located within a National Register of Historic Places historic district or a locally designated historic district when the Director determines that the property is of historic significance whenever an appropriation is made therefor by the General Assembly or whenever gifts or grants are received for that purpose and to promulgate regulations as may be necessary or desirable to carry out the purposes of the grants.

Grantees may, as prescribed by rule, be required to provide matching funds for each grant. Grants made under this subsection shall be known as Illinois Heritage Grants.

Every owner of a historic property, or the owner's agent, is eligible to apply for a grant under this subsection.

(s) To establish and implement a pilot program for charging admission to State historic sites. Fees may be charged for special events, admissions, and parking or any combination; fees may be charged at all sites or selected sites. All fees shall be deposited into the Illinois Historic Sites Fund. The Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency shall have the discretion to set and adjust reasonable fees at the various sites, taking into consideration various factors, including, but not limited to: cost of services furnished to each visitor, impact of fees on attendance and tourism, and the costs expended collecting the fees. The Agency shall keep careful records of the income and expenses resulting from the imposition of fees, shall keep records as to the attendance at each historic site, and shall report to the Governor and General Assembly by January 31 after the close of each year. The report shall include information on costs, expenses, attendance, comments by visitors, and any other information the Agency may believe pertinent, including:

(1) Recommendations as to whether fees should be continued at each State historic site.

(2) How the fees should be structured and imposed.

(3) Estimates of revenues and expenses associated with each site.

(t) To provide for overnight tent and trailer campsites and to provide suitable housing facilities for student and juvenile overnight camping groups. The Historic Sites and Preservation Division of the Agency shall charge rates similar to those charged by the Department of Conservation for the same or similar facilities and services.

(u) To engage in marketing activities designed to promote the sites and programs administered by the Agency. In undertaking these activities, the Agency may take all necessary steps with respect to products and services, including, but not limited to, retail sales, wholesale sales, direct marketing, mail order sales, telephone sales, advertising and promotion, purchase of product and materials inventory, design, printing and manufacturing of new products, reproductions, and adaptations, copyright and trademark licensing and royalty agreements, and payment of applicable taxes. In addition, the Agency shall have the authority to sell advertising in its publications and printed materials. All income from marketing activities shall be deposited into the Illinois Historic Sites Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-140, eff. 1-1-08; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 125. The Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3860/20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 20. Powers and duties of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority. The Authority has the following powers, together with all powers incidental or necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act:

(1) The Authority shall create and administer the ILHIE using information systems and processes that are secure, are cost effective, and meet all other relevant privacy and security requirements under State and federal law.

(2) The Authority shall establish and adopt standards and requirements for the use of health information and the requirements for participation in the ILHIE by persons or entities including, but not limited to, health care providers, payors, and local health information exchanges.

(3) The Authority shall establish minimum standards for accessing the ILHIE to ensure that the appropriate security and privacy protections apply to health information, consistent with applicable federal and State standards and laws. The Authority shall have the power to suspend, limit, or terminate the right to participate in the ILHIE for non-compliance or failure to act, with respect to applicable standards and laws, in the best interests of patients, users of the ILHIE, or the public. The Authority may seek all remedies allowed by law to address any violation of the terms of participation in the ILHIE.

(4) The Authority shall identify barriers to the adoption of electronic health records systems, including researching the rates and patterns of dissemination and use of electronic health record systems throughout the State. The Authority shall make the results of the research available on its website.

(5) The Authority shall prepare educational materials and educate the general public on the benefits of electronic health records, the ILHIE, and the safeguards available to prevent unauthorized disclosure of health information.

(6) The Authority may appoint or designate an institutional review board in accordance with federal and State law to review and approve requests for research in order to ensure compliance with standards and patient privacy and security protections as specified in paragraph (3) of this Section.

(7) The Authority may enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of its powers under this Act. The Authority's expenditures of private funds are exempt from the Illinois Procurement Code, pursuant to Section 1-10 of that Act. Notwithstanding this exception, the Authority shall comply with the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(8) The Authority may solicit and accept grants, loans, contributions, or appropriations from any public or private source and may expend those moneys, through contracts, grants, loans, or agreements, on activities it considers suitable to the performance of its duties under this Act.

(9) The Authority may determine, charge, and collect any fees, charges, costs, and expenses from any healthcare provider or entity in connection with its duties under this Act. Moneys collected under this paragraph (9) shall be deposited into the Health Information Exchange Fund.

(10) The Authority may, under the direction of the Executive Director, employ and discharge staff, including administrative, technical, expert, professional, and legal staff, as is necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes of this Act. The Authority may establish and administer standards of classification regarding compensation, benefits, duties, performance, and tenure for that staff and may enter into contracts of employment with members of that staff for such periods and on such terms as the Authority deems desirable. All employees of the Authority are exempt from the Personnel Code as provided by Section 4 of the Personnel Code.

(11) The Authority shall consult and coordinate with the Department of Public Health to further the Authority's collection of health information from health care providers for public health purposes. The collection of public health information shall include identifiable information for use by the Authority or other State agencies to comply with State and federal laws. Any identifiable information so collected shall be privileged and confidential in accordance with Sections 8-2101, 8-2102, 8-2103, 8-2104, and 8-2105 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(12) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange, shall be exempt from inspection and copying under the Freedom of Information Act. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(13) To address gaps in the adoption of, workforce preparation for, and exchange of electronic health records that result in regional and socioeconomic disparities in the delivery of care, the Authority may evaluate such gaps and provide resources as available, giving priority to healthcare providers serving a significant percentage of Medicaid or uninsured patients and in medically underserved or rural areas.

(Source: P.A. 96-1331, eff. 7-27-10; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 130. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Sections 12 and 14.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1162)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria, procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of project reviewed and which are required to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care services identified through the comprehensive health planning process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects on access to safety net services.

(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans required to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and updated need determinations when new census data become available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act, facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or nursing homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall include among the information requested a list of all services provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.

In developing health care facility plans, the State Board shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) The size, composition and growth of the population of the area to be served;

(b) The number of existing and planned facilities offering similar programs;

(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;

(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as alternatives or substitutes;

(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the operation of the facility;

(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment of multi-institutional systems where feasible;

(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed construction or modification; and

(h) In the case of health care facilities established by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the members of such religious body or denomination may be considered to be public need.

The health care facility plans which are developed and adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.

(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure and cost reporting. Beginning no later than January 1, 2013, the Department of Public Health shall produce a written annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the development of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning. The Chairman of the State Board and the State Board Administrator shall also receive a copy of the annual report.

(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes enumerated in this Act.

(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review, standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of any existing health services being rendered by health care facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.

(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards, and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of applications for permits for projects of construction or modification of a health care facility, which projects are classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in nature.

Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-31), substantive projects shall include no more than the following:

(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement facility located on the same site as the original facility and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the capital expenditure minimum, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 120 days;

(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service within an existing healthcare facility or (2) discontinuation of a service within an existing healthcare facility, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or

(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of a health care facility by an increase in the total number of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.

The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full Board.

Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days from the date the application is declared to be complete.

(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and modifications which are emergent in nature and must be undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from public hearing requirements of this Act.

(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60 days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.

(10.5) Provide its rationale when voting on an item before it at a State Board meeting in order to comply with subsection (b) of Section 3-108 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant or an adversely affected party to the Board. Requests for a written decision shall be made within 15 days after the Board meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action is scheduled by the Board. The transcript of the State Board meeting shall be incorporated into the Board's final decision. The staff of the Board shall prepare a written copy of the final decision and the Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal record. The Board shall consider, for approval, the written draft of the final decision no later than the next scheduled Board meeting. The written decision shall identify the applicable criteria and factors listed in this Act and the Board's regulations that were taken into consideration by the Board when coming to a final decision. If the Board denies or fails to approve an application for permit or exemption, the Board shall include in the final decision a detailed explanation as to why the application was denied and identify what specific criteria or standards the applicant did not fulfill.

(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in any public hearing, after the appointment of a majority of the members to the Board.

(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and request changes to, draft rules and standards.

(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly inform the general public about the opportunity for public hearings and public hearing procedures.

(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a different business line and service model from other regulated facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms, development of alternative services, and current trends in long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care and the review of related projects. The Subcommittee shall make recommendations to the Board no later than January 1, 2016 and every January thereafter pursuant to the Subcommittee's responsibility for the continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care. In consultation with other experts from the health field of long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in design models reflective of the changing long-term care marketplace and consumer preferences and submit its recommendations to the Chairman of the Board no later than January 1, 2017. The Subcommittee shall evaluate, and make recommendations to the State Board regarding, the buying, selling, and exchange of beds between long-term care facilities within a specified geographic area or drive time. The Board shall file the proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by no later than September 30, 2011. The Subcommittee shall be provided a reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards, procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as provided under Section 12.3 of this Act.

The Chairman of the Board shall appoint voting members of the Subcommittee, who shall serve for a period of 3 years, with one-third of the terms expiring each January, to be determined by lot. Appointees shall include, but not be limited to, recommendations from each of the 3 statewide long-term care associations, with an equal number to be appointed from each. Compliance with this provision shall be through the appointment and reappointment process. All appointees serving as of April 1, 2015 shall serve to the end of their term as determined by lot or until the appointee voluntarily resigns, whichever is earlier.

One representative from the Department of Public Health, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department on Aging, and the Department of Human Services may each serve as an ex-officio non-voting member of the Subcommittee. The Chairman of the Board shall select a Subcommittee Chair, who shall serve for a period of 3 years.

(16) Prescribe the format of the State Board Staff Report. A State Board Staff Report shall pertain to applications that include, but are not limited to, applications for permit or exemption, applications for permit renewal, applications for extension of the obligation period, applications requesting a declaratory ruling, or applications under the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act. State Board Staff Reports shall compare applications to the relevant review criteria under the Board's rules.

(17) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. An application for the re-establishment of a facility in connection with the relocation of the facility shall not be granted unless the applicant has a contractual relationship with at least one hospital to provide emergency and inpatient mental health services required by facility consumers, and at least one community mental health agency to provide oversight and assistance to facility consumers while living in the facility, and appropriate services, including case management, to assist them to prepare for discharge and reside stably in the community thereafter. No new facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall be established after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) except in connection with the relocation of an existing facility to a new location. An application for a new location shall not be approved unless there are adequate community services accessible to the consumers within a reasonable distance, or by use of public transportation, so as to facilitate the goal of achieving maximum individual self-care and independence. At no time shall the total number of authorized beds under this Act in facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 exceed the number of authorized beds on June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651).

(Source: P.A. 98-414, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-1086, eff. 8-26-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-114, eff. 7-23-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-277, eff. 8-5-15; revised 10-15-15.)

(20 ILCS 3960/14.1)

Sec. 14.1. Denial of permit; other sanctions.

(a) The State Board may deny an application for a permit or may revoke or take other action as permitted by this Act with regard to a permit as the State Board deems appropriate, including the imposition of fines as set forth in this Section, for any one or a combination of the following:

(1) The acquisition of major medical equipment without a permit or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(2) The establishment, construction, modification, or change of ownership of a health care facility without a permit or exemption or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(3) The violation of any provision of this Act or any rule adopted under this Act.

(4) The failure, by any person subject to this Act, to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days after a formal written request for the information.

(5) The failure to pay any fine imposed under this Section within 30 days of its imposition.

(a-5) For facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the ID/DD Community Care Act. For facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the MC/DD Act. For facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for: (i) actions specified under item (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of Section 3-117 of the Nursing Home Care Act; (ii) actions specified under item (a)(6) of Section 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act; or (iii) actions within the preceding 5 years constituting a substantial and repeated failure to comply with the Nursing Home Care Act or the rules and regulations adopted by the Department under that Act. The State Board shall not deny a permit on account of any action described in this subsection (a-5) without also considering all such actions in the light of all relevant information available to the State Board, including whether the permit is sought to substantially comply with a mandatory or voluntary plan of correction associated with any action described in this subsection (a-5).

(b) Persons shall be subject to fines as follows:

(1) A permit holder who fails to comply with the requirements of maintaining a valid permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed 1% of the approved permit amount plus an additional 1% of the approved permit amount for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(2) A permit holder who alters the scope of an approved project or whose project costs exceed the allowable permit amount without first obtaining approval from the State Board shall be fined an amount not to exceed the sum of (i) the lesser of $25,000 or 2% of the approved permit amount and (ii) in those cases where the approved permit amount is exceeded by more than $1,000,000, an additional $20,000 for each $1,000,000, or fraction thereof, in excess of the approved permit amount.

(2.5) A permit holder who fails to comply with the post-permit and reporting requirements set forth in Section 5 shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues. This fine shall continue to accrue until the date that (i) the post-permit requirements are met and the post-permit reports are received by the State Board or (ii) the matter is referred by the State Board to the State Board's legal counsel. The accrued fine is not waived by the permit holder submitting the required information and reports. Prior to any fine beginning to accrue, the Board shall notify, in writing, a permit holder of the due date for the post-permit and reporting requirements no later than 30 days before the due date for the requirements. This paragraph (2.5) takes effect 6 months after August 27, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1115).

(3) A person who acquires major medical equipment or who establishes a category of service without first obtaining a permit or exemption, as the case may be, shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 for each such acquisition or category of service established plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(4) A person who constructs, modifies, establishes, or changes ownership of a health care facility without first obtaining a permit or exemption shall be fined an amount not to exceed $25,000 plus an additional $25,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(5) A person who discontinues a health care facility or a category of service without first obtaining a permit or exemption shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues. For purposes of this subparagraph (5), facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, are exempt from this permit requirement. However, facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act must comply with Section 3-423 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 3-423 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, or Section 3-423 of the MC/DD Act and must provide the Board and the Department of Human Services with 30 days' written notice of their intent to close. Facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act also must provide the Board and the Department of Human Services with 30 days' written notice of their intent to reduce the number of beds for a facility.

(6) A person subject to this Act who fails to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days of a formal written request shall be fined an amount not to exceed $1,000 plus an additional $1,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the information is not received by the State Board or Agency.

(b-5) The State Board may accept in-kind services instead of or in combination with the imposition of a fine. This authorization is limited to cases where the non-compliant individual or entity has waived the right to an administrative hearing or opportunity to appear before the Board regarding the non-compliant matter.

(c) Before imposing any fine authorized under this Section, the State Board shall afford the person or permit holder, as the case may be, an appearance before the State Board and an opportunity for a hearing before a hearing officer appointed by the State Board. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10. Requests for an appearance before the State Board must be made within 30 days after receiving notice that a fine will be imposed.

(d) All fines collected under this Act shall be transmitted to the State Treasurer, who shall deposit them into the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Fund.

(e) Fines imposed under this Section shall continue to accrue until: (i) the date that the matter is referred by the State Board to the Board's legal counsel; or (ii) the date that the health care facility becomes compliant with the Act, whichever is earlier.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-114, eff. 7-23-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-14-15.)

Section 135. The Illinois Holocaust and Genocide Commission Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5010/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 10. Composition of the Commission.

(a) The Commission is composed of 22 members as follows:

(1) 19 public members appointed by the Governor, one of whom which shall be a student; and

(2) 3 ex officio members as follows:

(A) the State Superintendent of Education;

(B) the Executive Director of the Board of Higher Education; and

(C) the Director of Veterans' Affairs.

(b) The President and Minority Leader of the Senate shall each designate a member or former member of the Senate and the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives shall each designate a member or former member of the House of Representatives to advise the Commission.

(Source: P.A. 98-793, eff. 7-28-14; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 140. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.866 and 5.867 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.866)

Sec. 5.866. The Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-6, eff. 6-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.867)

Sec. 5.867. The Illinois Secure Choice Administrative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-1150, eff. 6-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.868)

Sec. 5.868 5.866. The Illinois ABLE Accounts Administrative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-145, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.869)

Sec. 5.869 5.866. The Women's Business Ownership Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-233, eff. 8-3-15; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.870)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017)

Sec. 5.870 5.866. The U.S.S. Illinois Commissioning Fund. This Section is repealed on December 31, 2017.

(Source: P.A. 99-423, eff. 8-20-15; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.871)

Sec. 5.871 5.866. The George Bailey Memorial Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-455, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.872)

Sec. 5.872 5.866. The Parity Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 9-29-15.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.873)

Sec. 5.873 5.867. The Autism Care Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-423, eff. 8-20-15; revised 9-29-15.)

Section 145. The Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 4f as follows:

(30 ILCS 575/2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2016)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

(A) For the purpose of this Act, the following terms shall have the following definitions:

(1) "Minority person" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is any of the following:

(a) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(b) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(c) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black or African American".

(d) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(e) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

(2) "Female" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is of the female gender.

(2.05) "Person with a disability" means a person who is a citizen or lawful resident of the United States and is a person qualifying as a person with a disability under subdivision (2.1) of this subsection (A).

(2.1) "Person with a disability" means a person with a severe physical or mental disability that:

(a) results from:

amputation,

arthritis,

autism,

blindness,

burn injury,

cancer,

cerebral palsy,

Crohn's disease,

cystic fibrosis,

deafness,

head injury,

heart disease,

hemiplegia,

hemophilia,

respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction,

an intellectual disability,

mental illness,

multiple sclerosis,

muscular dystrophy,

musculoskeletal disorders,

neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy,

paraplegia,

quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions,

sickle cell anemia,

ulcerative colitis,

specific learning disabilities, or

end stage renal failure disease; and

(b) substantially limits one or more of the person's major life activities.

Another disability or combination of disabilities may also be considered as a severe disability for the purposes of item (a) of this subdivision (2.1) if it is determined by an evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause a comparable degree of substantial functional limitation similar to the specific list of disabilities listed in item (a) of this subdivision (2.1).

(3) "Minority owned business" means a business which is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own it.

(4) "Female owned business" means a business which is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by one or more females; and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the females who own it.

(4.1) "Business owned by a person with a disability" means a business that is at least 51% owned by one or more persons with a disability and the management and daily business operations of which are controlled by one or more of the persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".

(4.2) "Council" means the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities created under Section 5 of this Act.

(5) "State contracts" means all contracts entered into by the State, any agency or department thereof, or any public institution of higher education, including community college districts, regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, which are not subject to federal reimbursement. "State contracts" does not include contracts awarded by a retirement system, pension fund, or investment board subject to Section 1-109.1 of the Illinois Pension Code. This definition shall control over any existing definition under this Act or applicable administrative rule.

"State construction contracts" means all State contracts entered into by a State agency or public institution of higher education for the repair, remodeling, renovation or construction of a building or structure, or for the construction or maintenance of a highway defined in Article 2 of the Illinois Highway Code.

(6) "State agencies" shall mean all departments, officers, boards, commissions, institutions and bodies politic and corporate of the State, but does not include the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, municipalities or other local governmental units, or other State constitutional officers.

(7) "Public institutions of higher education" means the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Chicago State University, Eastern Illinois University, Governors State University, Illinois State University, Northeastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, the public community colleges of the State, and any other public universities, colleges, and community colleges now or hereafter established or authorized by the General Assembly.

(8) "Certification" means a determination made by the Council or by one delegated authority from the Council to make certifications, or by a State agency with statutory authority to make such a certification, that a business entity is a business owned by a minority, female, or person with a disability for whatever purpose. A business owned and controlled by females shall be certified as a "female owned business". A business owned and controlled by females who are also minorities shall be certified as both a "female owned business" and a "minority owned business".

(9) "Control" means the exclusive or ultimate and sole control of the business including, but not limited to, capital investment and all other financial matters, property, acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters, officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring, operating responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and dividend matters, financial transactions and rights of other shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real, substantial and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall include the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the business and to make the day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy, management and operations. Control shall be exemplified by possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the particular business and control shall not include simple majority or absentee ownership.

(10) "Business" means a business that has annual gross sales of less than $75,000,000 as evidenced by the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Council for certification for a particular contract if the firm can demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on businesses owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of minorities, females, or persons with disabilities.

(B) When a business is owned at least 51% by any combination of minority persons, females, or persons with disabilities, even though none of the 3 classes alone holds at least a 51% interest, the ownership requirement for purposes of this Act is considered to be met. The certification category for the business is that of the class holding the largest ownership interest in the business. If 2 or more classes have equal ownership interests, the certification category shall be determined by the business.

(Source: P.A. 98-95, eff. 7-17-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-462, eff. 8-25-15; revised 10-16-15.)

(30 ILCS 575/4f)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2016)

Sec. 4f. Award of State contracts.

(1) It is hereby declared to be the public policy of the State of Illinois to promote and encourage each State agency and public institution of higher education to use businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities in the area of goods and services, including, but not limited to, insurance services, investment management services, information technology services, accounting services, architectural and engineering services, and legal services. Furthermore, each State agency and public institution of higher education shall utilize such firms to the greatest extent feasible within the bounds of financial and fiduciary prudence, and take affirmative steps to remove any barriers to the full participation of such firms in the procurement and contracting opportunities afforded.

(a) When a State agency or public institution of higher education, other than a community college, awards a contract for insurance services, for each State agency or public institution of higher education, it shall be the aspirational goal to use insurance brokers owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined by this Act, for not less than 20% of the total annual premiums or fees.

(b) When a State agency or public institution of higher education, other than a community college, awards a contract for investment services, for each State agency or public institution of higher education, it shall be the aspirational goal to use emerging investment managers owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined by this Act, for not less than 20% of the total funds under management. Furthermore, it is the aspirational goal that not less than 20% of the direct asset managers of the State funds be minorities, females, and persons with disabilities.

(c) When a State agency or public institution of higher education, other than a community college, awards contracts for information technology services, accounting services, architectural and engineering services, and legal services, for each State agency and public institution of higher education, it shall be the aspirational goal to use such firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined by this Act and lawyers who are minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined by this Act, for not less than 20% of the total dollar amount of State contracts.

(d) When a community college awards a contract for insurance services, investment services, information technology services, accounting services, architectural and engineering services, and legal services, it shall be the aspirational goal of each community college to use businesses owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as defined in this Act for not less than 20% of the total amount spent on contracts for these services collectively. When a community college awards contracts for investment services, contracts awarded to investment managers who are not emerging investment managers as defined in this Act shall not be considered businesses owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities for the purposes of this Section.

(2) As used in this Section:

"Accounting services" means the measurement, processing and communication of financial information about economic entities including, but is not limited to, financial accounting, management accounting, auditing, cost containment and auditing services, taxation and accounting information systems.

"Architectural and engineering services" means professional services of an architectural or engineering nature, or incidental services, that members of the architectural and engineering professions, and individuals in their employ, may logically or justifiably perform, including studies, investigations, surveying and mapping, tests, evaluations, consultations, comprehensive planning, program management, conceptual designs, plans and specifications, value engineering, construction phase services, soils engineering, drawing reviews, preparation of operating and maintenance manuals, and other related services.

"Emerging investment manager" means an investment manager or claims consultant having assets under management below $10 billion or otherwise adjudicating claims.

"Information technology services" means, but is not limited to, specialized technology-oriented solutions by combining the processes and functions of software, hardware, networks, telecommunications, web designers, cloud developing resellers, and electronics.

"Insurance broker" means an insurance brokerage firm, claims administrator, or both, that procures, places all lines of insurance, or administers claims with annual premiums or fees of at least $5,000,000 but not more than $10,000,000.

"Legal services" means work performed by a lawyer including, but not limited to, contracts in anticipation of litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations.

(3) Each State agency and public institution institutions of higher education shall adopt policies that identify its plan and implementation procedures for increasing the use of service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities.

(4) Except as provided in subsection (5), the Council shall file no later than March 1 of each year an annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly. The report filed with the General Assembly shall be filed as required in Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act. This report shall: (i) identify the service firms used by each State agency and public institution of higher education, (ii) identify the actions it has undertaken to increase the use of service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities, including encouraging non-minority owned firms to use other service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities as subcontractors when the opportunities arise, (iii) state any recommendations made by the Council to each State agency and public institution of higher education to increase participation by the use of service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities, and (iv) include the following:

(A) For insurance services: the names of the insurance brokers or claims consultants used, the total of risk managed by each State agency and public institution of higher education by insurance brokers, the total commissions, fees paid, or both, the lines or insurance policies placed, and the amount of premiums placed; and the percentage of the risk managed by insurance brokers, the percentage of total commission, fees paid, or both, the lines or insurance policies placed, and the amount of premiums placed with each by the insurance brokers owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(B) For investment management services: the names of the investment managers used, the total funds under management of investment managers; the total commissions, fees paid, or both; the total and percentage of funds under management of emerging investment managers owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities, including the total and percentage of total commissions, fees paid, or both by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(C) The names of service firms, the percentage and total dollar amount paid for professional services by category by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(D) The names of service firms, the percentage and total dollar amount paid for services by category to firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(E) The total number of contracts awarded for services by category and the total number of contracts awarded to firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities by each State agency and public institution of higher education.

(5) For community college districts, the Business Enterprise Council shall only report the following information for each community college district: (i) the name of the community colleges in the district, (ii) the name and contact information of a person at each community college appointed to be the single point of contact for vendors owned by minorities, females, or persons with disabilities, (iii) the policy of the community college district concerning certified vendors, (iv) the certifications recognized by the community college district for determining whether a business is owned or controlled by a minority, female, or person with a disability, (v) outreach efforts conducted by the community college district to increase the use of certified vendors, (vi) the total expenditures by the community college district in the prior fiscal year in the divisions of work specified in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of subsection (1) of this Section and the amount paid to certified vendors in those divisions of work, and (vii) the total number of contracts entered into for the divisions of work specified in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of subsection (1) of this Section and the total number of contracts awarded to certified vendors providing these services to the community college district. The Business Enterprise Council shall not make any utilization reports under this Act for community college districts for Fiscal Year 2015 and Fiscal Year 2016, but shall make the report required by this subsection for Fiscal Year 2017 and for each fiscal year thereafter. The Business Enterprise Council shall report the information in items (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this subsection beginning in September of 2016. The Business Enterprise Council may collect the data needed to make its report from the Illinois Community College Board.

(6) The status of the utilization of services shall be discussed at each of the regularly scheduled Business Enterprise Council meetings. Time shall be allotted for the Council to receive, review, and discuss the progress of the use of service firms owned by minorities, females, and persons with disabilities by each State agency and public institution institutions of higher education; and any evidence regarding past or present racial, ethnic, or gender-based discrimination which directly impacts a State agency or public institution institutions of higher education contracting with such firms. If after reviewing such evidence the Council finds that there is or has been such discrimination against a specific group, race or sex, the Council shall establish sheltered markets or adjust existing sheltered markets tailored to address the Council's specific findings for the divisions of work specified in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of subsection (1) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-462, eff. 8-25-15; revised 10-15-15.)

Section 150. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Section 8.39 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.39)

Sec. 8.39. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 99-176, 99-180, 99-228, or 99-466 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Student Transfer Achievement Reform Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-176, eff. 7-29-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-228, eff. 1-1-16; 99-316, eff. 1-1-16; 99-466, eff. 8-26-15; revised 10-9-15.)

Section 155. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 304 and 507DDD as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/304) (from Ch. 120, par. 3-304)

Sec. 304. Business income of persons other than residents.

(a) In general. The business income of a person other than a resident shall be allocated to this State if such person's business income is derived solely from this State. If a person other than a resident derives business income from this State and one or more other states, then, for tax years ending on or before December 30, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, such person's business income shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying the income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of the property factor (if any), the payroll factor (if any) and 200% of the sales factor (if any), and the denominator of which is 4 reduced by the number of factors other than the sales factor which have a denominator of zero and by an additional 2 if the sales factor has a denominator of zero. For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by this Section, persons other than residents who derive business income from this State and one or more other states shall compute their apportionment factor by weighting their property, payroll, and sales factors as provided in subsection (h) of this Section.

(1) Property factor.

(A) The property factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the average value of the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business in this State during the taxable year and the denominator of which is the average value of all the person's real and tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the trade or business during the taxable year.

(B) Property owned by the person is valued at its original cost. Property rented by the person is valued at 8 times the net annual rental rate. Net annual rental rate is the annual rental rate paid by the person less any annual rental rate received by the person from sub-rentals.

(C) The average value of property shall be determined by averaging the values at the beginning and ending of the taxable year but the Director may require the averaging of monthly values during the taxable year if reasonably required to reflect properly the average value of the person's property.

(2) Payroll factor.

(A) The payroll factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total amount paid in this State during the taxable year by the person for compensation, and the denominator of which is the total compensation paid everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Compensation is paid in this State if:

(i) The individual's service is performed entirely within this State;

(ii) The individual's service is performed both within and without this State, but the service performed without this State is incidental to the individual's service performed within this State; or

(iii) Some of the service is performed within this State and either the base of operations, or if there is no base of operations, the place from which the service is directed or controlled is within this State, or the base of operations or the place from which the service is directed or controlled is not in any state in which some part of the service is performed, but the individual's residence is in this State.

(iv) Compensation paid to nonresident professional athletes.

(a) General. The Illinois source income of a nonresident individual who is a member of a professional athletic team includes the portion of the individual's total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team during the taxable year which the number of duty days spent within this State performing services for the team in any manner during the taxable year bears to the total number of duty days spent both within and without this State during the taxable year.

(b) Travel days. Travel days that do not involve either a game, practice, team meeting, or other similar team event are not considered duty days spent in this State. However, such travel days are considered in the total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart (iv):

(1) The term "professional athletic team" includes, but is not limited to, any professional baseball, basketball, football, soccer, or hockey team.

(2) The term "member of a professional athletic team" includes those employees who are active players, players on the disabled list, and any other persons required to travel and who travel with and perform services on behalf of a professional athletic team on a regular basis. This includes, but is not limited to, coaches, managers, and trainers.

(3) Except as provided in items (C) and (D) of this subpart (3), the term "duty days" means all days during the taxable year from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete. Duty days shall be counted for the year in which they occur, including where a team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete, occurs during more than one tax year.

(A) Duty days shall also include days on which a member of a professional athletic team performs service for a team on a date that does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional "caravans"). Performing a service for a professional athletic team includes conducting training and rehabilitation activities, when such activities are conducted at team facilities.

(B) Also included in duty days are game days, practice days, days spent at team meetings, promotional caravans, preseason training camps, and days served with the team through all post-season games in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete.

(C) Duty days for any person who joins a team during the period from the beginning of the professional athletic team's official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes, or is scheduled to compete, shall begin on the day that person joins the team. Conversely, duty days for any person who leaves a team during this period shall end on the day that person leaves the team. Where a person switches teams during a taxable year, a separate duty-day calculation shall be made for the period the person was with each team.

(D) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is not compensated and is not performing services for the team in any manner, including days when such member of a professional athletic team has been suspended without pay and prohibited from performing any services for the team, shall not be treated as duty days.

(E) Days for which a member of a professional athletic team is on the disabled list and does not conduct rehabilitation activities at facilities of the team, and is not otherwise performing services for the team in Illinois, shall not be considered duty days spent in this State. All days on the disabled list, however, are considered to be included in total duty days spent both within and without this State.

(4) The term "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" means the total compensation received during the taxable year for services performed:

(A) from the beginning of the official pre-season training period through the last game in which the team competes or is scheduled to compete during that taxable year; and

(B) during the taxable year on a date which does not fall within the foregoing period (e.g., participation in instructional leagues, the "All Star Game", or promotional caravans).

This compensation shall include, but is not limited to, salaries, wages, bonuses as described in this subpart, and any other type of compensation paid during the taxable year to a member of a professional athletic team for services performed in that year. This compensation does not include strike benefits, severance pay, termination pay, contract or option year buy-out payments, expansion or relocation payments, or any other payments not related to services performed for the team.

For purposes of this subparagraph, "bonuses" included in "total compensation for services performed as a member of a professional athletic team" subject to the allocation described in Section 302(c)(1) are: bonuses earned as a result of play (i.e., performance bonuses) during the season, including bonuses paid for championship, playoff or "bowl" games played by a team, or for selection to all-star league or other honorary positions; and bonuses paid for signing a contract, unless the payment of the signing bonus is not conditional upon the signee playing any games for the team or performing any subsequent services for the team or even making the team, the signing bonus is payable separately from the salary and any other compensation, and the signing bonus is nonrefundable.

(3) Sales factor.

(A) The sales factor is a fraction, the numerator of which is the total sales of the person in this State during the taxable year, and the denominator of which is the total sales of the person everywhere during the taxable year.

(B) Sales of tangible personal property are in this State if:

(i) The property is delivered or shipped to a purchaser, other than the United States government, within this State regardless of the f. o. b. point or other conditions of the sale; or

(ii) The property is shipped from an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage in this State and either the purchaser is the United States government or the person is not taxable in the state of the purchaser; provided, however, that premises owned or leased by a person who has independently contracted with the seller for the printing of newspapers, periodicals or books shall not be deemed to be an office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of storage for purposes of this Section. Sales of tangible personal property are not in this State if the seller and purchaser would be members of the same unitary business group but for the fact that either the seller or purchaser is a person with 80% or more of total business activity outside of the United States and the property is purchased for resale.

(B-1) Patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property.

(i) Gross receipts from the licensing, sale, or other disposition of a patent, copyright, trademark, or similar item of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), are in this State to the extent the item is utilized in this State during the year the gross receipts are included in gross income.

(ii) Place of utilization.

(I) A patent is utilized in a state to the extent that it is employed in production, fabrication, manufacturing, or other processing in the state or to the extent that a patented product is produced in the state. If a patent is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts of the licensee or purchaser from sales or leases of items produced, fabricated, manufactured, or processed within that state using the patent and of patented items produced within that state, divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the patent is utilized.

(II) A copyright is utilized in a state to the extent that printing or other publication originates in the state. If a copyright is utilized in more than one state, the extent to which it is utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal to the gross receipts from sales or licenses of materials printed or published in that state divided by the total of such gross receipts for all states in which the copyright is utilized.

(III) Trademarks and other items of intangible personal property governed by this paragraph (B-1) are utilized in the state in which the commercial domicile of the licensee or purchaser is located.

(iii) If the state of utilization of an item of property governed by this paragraph (B-1) cannot be determined from the taxpayer's books and records or from the books and records of any person related to the taxpayer within the meaning of Section 267(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 267, the gross receipts attributable to that item shall be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor.

(B-2) Gross receipts from the license, sale, or other disposition of patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar items of intangible personal property, other than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item (3), may be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor only if gross receipts from licenses, sales, or other disposition of such items comprise more than 50% of the taxpayer's total gross receipts included in gross income during the tax year and during each of the 2 immediately preceding tax years; provided that, when a taxpayer is a member of a unitary business group, such determination shall be made on the basis of the gross receipts of the entire unitary business group.

(B-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, except as provided in subsections (ii) through (vii), receipts from the sale of telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service are in this State if the customer's service address is in this State.

(i) For purposes of this subparagraph (B-5), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Ancillary services" means services that are associated with or incidental to the provision of "telecommunications services", including but not limited to "detailed telecommunications billing", "directory assistance", "vertical service", and "voice mail services".

"Air-to-Ground Radiotelephone service" means a radio service, as that term is defined in 47 CFR 22.99, in which common carriers are authorized to offer and provide radio telecommunications service for hire to subscribers in aircraft.

"Call-by-call Basis" means any method of charging for telecommunications services where the price is measured by individual calls.

"Communications Channel" means a physical or virtual path of communications over which signals are transmitted between or among customer channel termination points.

"Conference bridging service" means an "ancillary service" that links two or more participants of an audio or video conference call and may include the provision of a telephone number. "Conference bridging service" does not include the "telecommunications services" used to reach the conference bridge.

"Customer Channel Termination Point" means the location where the customer either inputs or receives the communications.

"Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an "ancillary service" of separately stating information pertaining to individual calls on a customer's billing statement.

"Directory assistance" means an "ancillary service" of providing telephone number information, and/or address information.

"Home service provider" means the facilities based carrier or reseller with which the customer contracts for the provision of mobile telecommunications services.

"Mobile telecommunications service" means commercial mobile radio service, as defined in Section 20.3 of Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations as in effect on June 1, 1999.

"Place of primary use" means the street address representative of where the customer's use of the telecommunications service primarily occurs, which must be the residential street address or the primary business street address of the customer. In the case of mobile telecommunications services, "place of primary use" must be within the licensed service area of the home service provider.

"Post-paid telecommunication service" means the telecommunications service obtained by making a payment on a call-by-call basis either through the use of a credit card or payment mechanism such as a bank card, travel card, credit card, or debit card, or by charge made to a telephone number which is not associated with the origination or termination of the telecommunications service. A post-paid calling service includes telecommunications service, except a prepaid wireless calling service, that would be a prepaid calling service except it is not exclusively a telecommunication service.

"Prepaid telecommunication service" means the right to access exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Prepaid Mobile telecommunication service" means a telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize mobile wireless service as well as other non-telecommunication services, including but not limited to ancillary services, which must be paid for in advance that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with use in a known amount.

"Private communication service" means a telecommunication service that entitles the customer to exclusive or priority use of a communications channel or group of channels between or among termination points, regardless of the manner in which such channel or channels are connected, and includes switching capacity, extension lines, stations, and any other associated services that are provided in connection with the use of such channel or channels.

"Service address" means:

(a) The location of the telecommunications equipment to which a customer's call is charged and from which the call originates or terminates, regardless of where the call is billed or paid;

(b) If the location in line (a) is not known, service address means the origination point of the signal of the telecommunications services first identified by either the seller's telecommunications system or in information received by the seller from its service provider where the system used to transport such signals is not that of the seller; and

(c) If the locations in line (a) and line (b) are not known, the service address means the location of the customer's place of primary use.

"Telecommunications service" means the electronic transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, or any other information or signals to a point, or between or among points. The term "telecommunications service" includes such transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing applications are used to act on the form, code or protocol of the content for purposes of transmission, conveyance or routing without regard to whether such service is referred to as voice over Internet protocol services or is classified by the Federal Communications Commission as enhanced or value added. "Telecommunications service" does not include:

(a) Data processing and information services that allow data to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and delivered by an electronic transmission to a purchaser when such purchaser's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the processed data or information;

(b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a customer's premises;

(c) Tangible personal property;

(d) Advertising, including but not limited to directory advertising.

(e) Billing and collection services provided to third parties;

(f) Internet access service;

(g) Radio and television audio and video programming services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of transmission, conveyance and routing of such services by the programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video programming services shall include but not be limited to cable service as defined in 47 USC 522(6) and audio and video programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service providers, as defined in 47 CFR 20.3;

(h) "Ancillary services"; or

(i) Digital products "delivered electronically", including but not limited to software, music, video, reading materials or ring tones.

"Vertical service" means an "ancillary service" that is offered in connection with one or more "telecommunications services", which offers advanced calling features that allow customers to identify callers and to manage multiple calls and call connections, including "conference bridging services".

"Voice mail service" means an "ancillary service" that enables the customer to store, send or receive recorded messages. "Voice mail service" does not include any "vertical services" that the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the "voice mail service".

(ii) Receipts from the sale of telecommunications service sold on an individual call-by-call basis are in this State if either of the following applies:

(a) The call both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) The call either originates or terminates in this State and the service address is located in this State.

(iii) Receipts from the sale of postpaid telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the origination point of the telecommunication signal, as first identified by the service provider's telecommunication system or as identified by information received by the seller from its service provider if the system used to transport telecommunication signals is not the seller's, is located in this State.

(iv) Receipts from the sale of prepaid telecommunications service or prepaid mobile telecommunications service at retail are in this State if the purchaser obtains the prepaid card or similar means of conveyance at a location in this State. Receipts from recharging a prepaid telecommunications service or mobile telecommunications service is in this State if the purchaser's billing information indicates a location in this State.

(v) Receipts from the sale of private communication services are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of receipts from charges imposed at each channel termination point in this State.

(b) 100% of receipts from charges for the total channel mileage between each channel termination point in this State.

(c) 50% of the total receipts from charges for service segments when those segments are between 2 customer channel termination points, 1 of which is located in this State and the other is located outside of this State, which segments are separately charged.

(d) The receipts from charges for service segments with a channel termination point located in this State and in two or more other states, and which segments are not separately billed, are in this State based on a percentage determined by dividing the number of customer channel termination points in this State by the total number of customer channel termination points.

(vi) Receipts from charges for ancillary services for telecommunications service sold to customers at retail are in this State if the customer's primary place of use of telecommunications services associated with those ancillary services is in this State. If the seller of those ancillary services cannot determine where the associated telecommunications are located, then the ancillary services shall be based on the location of the purchaser.

(vii) Receipts to access a carrier's network or from the sale of telecommunication services or ancillary services for resale are in this State as follows:

(a) 100% of the receipts from access fees attributable to intrastate telecommunications service that both originates and terminates in this State.

(b) 50% of the receipts from access fees attributable to interstate telecommunications service if the interstate call either originates or terminates in this State.

(c) 100% of the receipts from interstate end user access line charges, if the customer's service address is in this State. As used in this subdivision, "interstate end user access line charges" includes, but is not limited to, the surcharge approved by the federal communications commission and levied pursuant to 47 CFR 69.

(d) Gross receipts from sales of telecommunication services or from ancillary services for telecommunications services sold to other telecommunication service providers for resale shall be sourced to this State using the apportionment concepts used for non-resale receipts of telecommunications services if the information is readily available to make that determination. If the information is not readily available, then the taxpayer may use any other reasonable and consistent method.

(B-7) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, receipts from the sale of broadcasting services are in this State if the broadcasting services are received in this State. For purposes of this paragraph (B-7), the following terms have the following meanings:

"Advertising revenue" means consideration received by the taxpayer in exchange for broadcasting services or allowing the broadcasting of commercials or announcements in connection with the broadcasting of film or radio programming, from sponsorships of the programming, or from product placements in the programming.

"Audience factor" means the ratio that the audience or subscribers located in this State of a station, a network, or a cable system bears to the total audience or total subscribers for that station, network, or cable system. The audience factor for film or radio programming shall be determined by reference to the books and records of the taxpayer or by reference to published rating statistics provided the method used by the taxpayer is consistently used from year to year for this purpose and fairly represents the taxpayer's activity in this State.

"Broadcast" or "broadcasting" or "broadcasting services" means the transmission or provision of film or radio programming, whether through the public airwaves, by cable, by direct or indirect satellite transmission, or by any other means of communication, either through a station, a network, or a cable system.

"Film" or "film programming" means the broadcast on television of any and all performances, events, or productions, including but not limited to news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of video tape, disc, or any other type of format or medium. Each episode of a series of films produced for television shall constitute separate "film" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

"Radio" or "radio programming" means the broadcast on radio of any and all performances, events, or productions, including but not limited to news, sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary, commercial, educational, or artistic works, either live or through the use of an audio tape, disc, or any other format or medium. Each episode in a series of radio programming produced for radio broadcast shall constitute a separate "radio programming" notwithstanding that the series relates to the same principal subject and is produced during one or more tax periods.

(i) In the case of advertising revenue from broadcasting, the customer is the advertiser and the service is received in this State if the commercial domicile of the advertiser is in this State.

(ii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration received from the recipient of the broadcast, the portion of the service that is received in this State is measured by the portion of the recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the fee or other remuneration for such service that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total of those fees or other remuneration received from recipients in Illinois. For purposes of this paragraph, a taxpayer may determine the location of the recipients of its broadcast using the address of the recipient shown in its contracts with the recipient or using the billing address of the recipient in the taxpayer's records.

(iii) In the case where film or radio programming is broadcast by a station, a network, or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration from the person providing the programming, the portion of the broadcast service that is received by such station, network, or cable system in this State is measured by the portion of recipients of the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly, the amount of revenue related to such an arrangement that is included in the Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the total fee or other total remuneration from the person providing the programming related to that broadcast multiplied by the Illinois audience factor for that broadcast.

(iv) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is a network or station to a customer for broadcast in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that customer the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(v) In the case where film or radio programming is provided by a taxpayer that is not a network or station to another person for broadcasting in exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that person, the broadcasting service is received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the revenue from such customers who receive the broadcasting service in Illinois.

(B-8) Gross receipts from winnings under the Illinois Lottery Law from the assignment of a prize under Section 13.1 13-1 of the Illinois Lottery Law are received in this State. This paragraph (B-8) applies only to taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013.

(C) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), and (B-8) are in this State if:

(i) The income-producing activity is performed in this State; or

(ii) The income-producing activity is performed both within and without this State and a greater proportion of the income-producing activity is performed within this State than without this State, based on performance costs.

(C-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1), (B-2), (B-5), and (B-7), are in this State if any of the following criteria are met:

(i) Sales from the sale or lease of real property are in this State if the property is located in this State.

(ii) Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Sales from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(iii) In the case of interest, net gains (but not less than zero) and other items of income from intangible personal property, the sale is in this State if:

(a) in the case of a taxpayer who is a dealer in the item of intangible personal property within the meaning of Section 475 of the Internal Revenue Code, the income or gain is received from a customer in this State. For purposes of this subparagraph, a customer is in this State if the customer is an individual, trust or estate who is a resident of this State and, for all other customers, if the customer's commercial domicile is in this State. Unless the dealer has actual knowledge of the residence or commercial domicile of a customer during a taxable year, the customer shall be deemed to be a customer in this State if the billing address of the customer, as shown in the records of the dealer, is in this State; or

(b) in all other cases, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed in this State or, if the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed both within and without this State, if a greater proportion of the income-producing activity of the taxpayer is performed within this State than in any other state, based on performance costs.

(iv) Sales of services are in this State if the services are received in this State. For the purposes of this section, gross receipts from the performance of services provided to a corporation, partnership, or trust may only be attributed to a state where that corporation, partnership, or trust has a fixed place of business. If the state where the services are received is not readily determinable or is a state where the corporation, partnership, or trust receiving the service does not have a fixed place of business, the services shall be deemed to be received at the location of the office of the customer from which the services were ordered in the regular course of the customer's trade or business. If the ordering office cannot be determined, the services shall be deemed to be received at the office of the customer to which the services are billed. If the taxpayer is not taxable in the state in which the services are received, the sale must be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of the sales factor. The Department shall adopt rules prescribing where specific types of service are received, including, but not limited to, publishing, and utility service.

(D) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995, the following items of income shall not be included in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor: dividends; amounts included under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code; and Subpart F income as defined in Section 952 of the Internal Revenue Code. No inference shall be drawn from the enactment of this paragraph (D) in construing this Section for taxable years ending before December 31, 1995.

(E) Paragraphs (B-1) and (B-2) shall apply to tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999, provided that a taxpayer may elect to apply the provisions of these paragraphs to prior tax years. Such election shall be made in the form and manner prescribed by the Department, shall be irrevocable, and shall apply to all tax years; provided that, if a taxpayer's Illinois income tax liability for any tax year, as assessed under Section 903 prior to January 1, 1999, was computed in a manner contrary to the provisions of paragraphs (B-1) or (B-2), no refund shall be payable to the taxpayer for that tax year to the extent such refund is the result of applying the provisions of paragraph (B-1) or (B-2) retroactively. In the case of a unitary business group, such election shall apply to all members of such group for every tax year such group is in existence, but shall not apply to any taxpayer for any period during which that taxpayer is not a member of such group.

(b) Insurance companies.

(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (2), business income of an insurance company for a taxable year shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this subsection, the term "direct premiums written" means the total amount of direct premiums written, assessments and annuity considerations as reported for the taxable year on the annual statement filed by the company with the Illinois Director of Insurance in the form approved by the National Convention of Insurance Commissioners or such other form as may be prescribed in lieu thereof.

(2) Reinsurance. If the principal source of premiums written by an insurance company consists of premiums for reinsurance accepted by it, the business income of such company shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of (i) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State, plus (ii) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, and the denominator of which is the sum of (iii) direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk everywhere, plus (iv) premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, premiums written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in this State, whether or not otherwise determinable, may, at the election of the company, be determined on the basis of the proportion which premiums written for reinsurance accepted from companies commercially domiciled in Illinois bears to premiums written for reinsurance accepted from all sources, or, alternatively, in the proportion which the sum of the direct premiums written for insurance upon property or risk in this State by each ceding company from which reinsurance is accepted bears to the sum of the total direct premiums written by each such ceding company for the taxable year. The election made by a company under this paragraph for its first taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall be binding for that company for that taxable year and for all subsequent taxable years, and may be altered only with the written permission of the Department, which shall not be unreasonably withheld.

(c) Financial organizations.

(1) In general. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For the purposes of this subsection, the business income of a financial organization from sources within this State is the sum of the amounts referred to in subparagraphs (A) through (E) following, but excluding the adjusted income of an international banking facility as determined in paragraph (2):

(A) Fees, commissions or other compensation for financial services rendered within this State;

(B) Gross profits from trading in stocks, bonds or other securities managed within this State;

(C) Dividends, and interest from Illinois customers, which are received within this State;

(D) Interest charged to customers at places of business maintained within this State for carrying debit balances of margin accounts, without deduction of any costs incurred in carrying such accounts; and

(E) Any other gross income resulting from the operation as a financial organization within this State. In computing the amounts referred to in paragraphs (A) through (E) of this subsection, any amount received by a member of an affiliated group (determined under Section 1504(a) of the Internal Revenue Code but without reference to whether any such corporation is an "includible corporation" under Section 1504(b) of the Internal Revenue Code) from another member of such group shall be included only to the extent such amount exceeds expenses of the recipient directly related thereto.

(2) International Banking Facility. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008:

(A) Adjusted Income. The adjusted income of an international banking facility is its income reduced by the amount of the floor amount.

(B) Floor Amount. The floor amount shall be the amount, if any, determined by multiplying the income of the international banking facility by a fraction, not greater than one, which is determined as follows:

(i) The numerator shall be:

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the financial organization's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, as reported for its branches, agencies and offices within the state on its "Consolidated Report of Condition", Schedule A, Lines 2.c., 5.b., and 7.a., which was filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities, for the year 1980, minus

The average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of such loans (other than loans of an international banking facility), as reported by the financial institution for its branches, agencies and offices within the state, on the corresponding Schedule and lines of the Consolidated Report of Condition for the current taxable year, provided, however, that in no case shall the amount determined in this clause (the subtrahend) exceed the amount determined in the preceding clause (the minuend); and

(ii) the denominator shall be the average aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the international banking facility's loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers (except where secured primarily by real estate) and to foreign governments and other foreign official institutions, which were recorded in its financial accounts for the current taxable year.

(C) Change to Consolidated Report of Condition and in Qualification. In the event the Consolidated Report of Condition which is filed with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities is altered so that the information required for determining the floor amount is not found on Schedule A, lines 2.c., 5.b. and 7.a., the financial institution shall notify the Department and the Department may, by regulations or otherwise, prescribe or authorize the use of an alternative source for such information. The financial institution shall also notify the Department should its international banking facility fail to qualify as such, in whole or in part, or should there be any amendment or change to the Consolidated Report of Condition, as originally filed, to the extent such amendment or change alters the information used in determining the floor amount.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, the business income of a financial organization shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its gross receipts from sources in this State or otherwise attributable to this State's marketplace and the denominator of which is its gross receipts everywhere during the taxable year. "Gross receipts" for purposes of this subparagraph (3) means gross income, including net taxable gain on disposition of assets, including securities and money market instruments, when derived from transactions and activities in the regular course of the financial organization's trade or business. The following examples are illustrative:

(i) Receipts from the lease or rental of real or tangible personal property are in this State if the property is located in this State during the rental period. Receipts from the lease or rental of tangible personal property that is characteristically moving property, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are from sources in this State to the extent that the property is used in this State.

(ii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from assets in the nature of loans that are secured primarily by real estate or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the security is located in this State.

(iii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from consumer loans that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the debtor is a resident of this State.

(iv) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on disposition, and other receipts from commercial loans and installment obligations that are not secured by real or tangible personal property are from sources in this State if the proceeds of the loan are to be applied in this State. If it cannot be determined where the funds are to be applied, the income and receipts are from sources in this State if the office of the borrower from which the loan was negotiated in the regular course of business is located in this State. If the location of this office cannot be determined, the income and receipts shall be excluded from the numerator and denominator of the sales factor.

(v) Interest income, fees, gains on disposition, service charges, merchant discount income, and other receipts from credit card receivables are from sources in this State if the card charges are regularly billed to a customer in this State.

(vi) Receipts from the performance of services, including, but not limited to, fiduciary, advisory, and brokerage services, are in this State if the services are received in this State within the meaning of subparagraph (a)(3)(C-5)(iv) of this Section.

(vii) Receipts from the issuance of travelers checks and money orders are from sources in this State if the checks and money orders are issued from a location within this State.

(viii) Receipts from investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities are included in the receipts factor as follows:

(1) Interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero) and other income from investment assets and activities from trading assets and activities shall be included in the receipts factor. Investment assets and activities and trading assets and activities include but are not limited to: investment securities; trading account assets; federal funds; securities purchased and sold under agreements to resell or repurchase; options; futures contracts; forward contracts; notional principal contracts such as swaps; equities; and foreign currency transactions. With respect to the investment and trading assets and activities described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph, the receipts factor shall include the amounts described in such subparagraphs.

(A) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest from federal funds sold and securities purchased under resale agreements exceeds interest expense on federal funds purchased and securities sold under repurchase agreements.

(B) The receipts factor shall include the amount by which interest, dividends, gains and other income from trading assets and activities, including but not limited to assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book, and foreign currency transactions, exceed amounts paid in lieu of interest, amounts paid in lieu of dividends, and losses from such assets and activities.

(2) The numerator of the receipts factor includes interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities and from trading assets and activities described in paragraph (1) of this subsection that are attributable to this State.

(A) The amount of interest, dividends, net gains (but not less than zero), and other income from investment assets and activities in the investment account to be attributed to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying all such income from such assets and activities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(B) The amount of interest from federal funds sold and purchased and from securities purchased under resale agreements and securities sold under repurchase agreements attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection from such funds and such securities by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such funds and such securities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such funds and such securities.

(C) The amount of interest, dividends, gains, and other income from trading assets and activities, including but not limited to assets and activities in the matched book, in the arbitrage book and foreign currency transactions (but excluding amounts described in subparagraphs (A) or (B) of this paragraph), attributable to this State and included in the numerator is determined by multiplying the amount described in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection by a fraction, the numerator of which is the gross income from such trading assets and activities which are properly assigned to a fixed place of business of the taxpayer within this State and the denominator of which is the gross income from all such assets and activities.

(D) Properly assigned, for purposes of this paragraph (2) of this subsection, means the investment or trading asset or activity is assigned to the fixed place of business with which it has a preponderance of substantive contacts. An investment or trading asset or activity assigned by the taxpayer to a fixed place of business without the State shall be presumed to have been properly assigned if:

(i) the taxpayer has assigned, in the regular course of its business, such asset or activity on its records to a fixed place of business consistent with federal or state regulatory requirements;

(ii) such assignment on its records is based upon substantive contacts of the asset or activity to such fixed place of business; and

(iii) the taxpayer uses such records reflecting assignment of such assets or activities for the filing of all state and local tax returns for which an assignment of such assets or activities to a fixed place of business is required.

(E) The presumption of proper assignment of an investment or trading asset or activity provided in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection may be rebutted upon a showing by the Department, supported by a preponderance of the evidence, that the preponderance of substantive contacts regarding such asset or activity did not occur at the fixed place of business to which it was assigned on the taxpayer's records. If the fixed place of business that has a preponderance of substantive contacts cannot be determined for an investment or trading asset or activity to which the presumption in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection does not apply or with respect to which that presumption has been rebutted, that asset or activity is properly assigned to the state in which the taxpayer's commercial domicile is located. For purposes of this subparagraph (E), it shall be presumed, subject to rebuttal, that taxpayer's commercial domicile is in the state of the United States or the District of Columbia to which the greatest number of employees are regularly connected with the management of the investment or trading income or out of which they are working, irrespective of where the services of such employees are performed, as of the last day of the taxable year.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(c-1) Federally regulated exchanges. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012, business income of a federally regulated exchange shall, at the option of the federally regulated exchange, be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is its business income from sources within this State, and the denominator of which is its business income from all sources. For purposes of this subsection, the business income within this State of a federally regulated exchange is the sum of the following:

(1) Receipts attributable to transactions executed on a physical trading floor if that physical trading floor is located in this State.

(2) Receipts attributable to all other matching, execution, or clearing transactions, including without limitation receipts from the provision of matching, execution, or clearing services to another entity, multiplied by (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2012 but before December 31, 2013, 63.77%; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2013, 27.54%.

(3) All other receipts not governed by subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (c-1), to the extent the receipts would be characterized as "sales in this State" under item (3) of subsection (a) of this Section.

"Federally regulated exchange" means (i) a "registered entity" within the meaning of 7 U.S.C. Section 1a(40)(A), (B), or (C), (ii) an "exchange" or "clearing agency" within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. Section 78c (a)(1) or (23), (iii) any such entities regulated under any successor regulatory structure to the foregoing, and (iv) all taxpayers who are members of the same unitary business group as a federally regulated exchange, determined without regard to the prohibition in Section 1501(a)(27) of this Act against including in a unitary business group taxpayers who are ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of this Section; provided that this subparagraph (iv) shall apply only if 50% or more of the business receipts of the unitary business group determined by application of this subparagraph (iv) for the taxable year are attributable to the matching, execution, or clearing of transactions conducted by an entity described in subparagraph (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph.

In no event shall the Illinois apportionment percentage computed in accordance with this subsection (c-1) for any taxpayer for any tax year be less than the Illinois apportionment percentage computed under this subsection (c-1) for that taxpayer for the first full tax year ending on or after December 31, 2013 for which this subsection (c-1) applied to the taxpayer.

(d) Transportation services. For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing transportation services shall be apportioned to this State in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2):

(1) Such business income (other than that derived from transportation by pipeline) shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of 1 passenger or 1 net ton of freight the distance of 1 mile for a consideration. Where a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Interstate Commerce Commission, in the case of transportation by railroad, and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(2) Such business income derived from transportation by pipeline shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For the purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation by pipeline of 1 barrel of oil, 1,000 cubic feet of gas, or of any specified quantity of any other substance, the distance of 1 mile for a consideration.

(3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from providing transportation services other than airline services shall be apportioned to this State by using a fraction, (a) the numerator of which shall be (i) all receipts from any movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that both originates and terminates in this State, plus (ii) that portion of the person's gross receipts from movements or shipments of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline) that originates in one state or jurisdiction and terminates in another state or jurisdiction, that is determined by the ratio that the miles traveled in this State bears to total miles everywhere and (b) the denominator of which shall be all revenue derived from the movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than by airline). Where a taxpayer is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall first be determined separately for passenger miles and freight miles. Then an average of the passenger miles fraction and the freight miles fraction shall be weighted to reflect the taxpayer's:

(A) relative railway operating income from total passenger and total freight service, as reported to the Surface Transportation Board, in the case of transportation by railroad; and

(B) relative gross receipts from passenger and freight transportation, in case of transportation other than by railroad.

(4) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, business income derived from furnishing airline transportation services shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of one passenger or one net ton of freight the distance of one mile for a consideration. If a person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the person's relative gross receipts from passenger and freight airline transportation.

(e) Combined apportionment. Where 2 or more persons are engaged in a unitary business as described in subsection (a)(27) of Section 1501, a part of which is conducted in this State by one or more members of the group, the business income attributable to this State by any such member or members shall be apportioned by means of the combined apportionment method.

(f) Alternative allocation. If the allocation and apportionment provisions of subsections (a) through (e) and of subsection (h) do not, for taxable years ending before December 31, 2008, fairly represent the extent of a person's business activity in this State, or, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, fairly represent the market for the person's goods, services, or other sources of business income, the person may petition for, or the Director may, without a petition, permit or require, in respect of all or any part of the person's business activity, if reasonable:

(1) Separate accounting;

(2) The exclusion of any one or more factors;

(3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors which will fairly represent the person's business activities or market in this State; or

(4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an equitable allocation and apportionment of the person's business income.

(g) Cross reference. For allocation of business income by residents, see Section 301(a).

(h) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, the apportionment factor of persons who apportion their business income to this State under subsection (a) shall be equal to:

(1) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 1999, 16 2/3% of the property factor plus 16 2/3% of the payroll factor plus 66 2/3% of the sales factor;

(2) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999 and before December 31, 2000, 8 1/3% of the property factor plus 8 1/3% of the payroll factor plus 83 1/3% of the sales factor;

(3) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2000, the sales factor.

If, in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 1998 and before December 31, 2000, the denominator of the payroll, property, or sales factor is zero, the apportionment factor computed in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection for that year shall be divided by an amount equal to 100% minus the percentage weight given to each factor whose denominator is equal to zero.

(Source: P.A. 97-507, eff. 8-23-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 98-478, eff. 1-1-14; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-19-15.)

(35 ILCS 5/507DDD)

Sec. 507DDD. Special Olympics Illinois and Special Children's Checkoff. For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, the Department shall print on its standard individual income tax form a provision indicating that if the taxpayer wishes to contribute to the Special Olympics Illinois and Special Children's Charities Checkoff Fund as authorized by Public Act 99-423 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, he or she may do so by stating the amount of the contribution (not less than $1) on the return and that the contribution will reduce the taxpayer's refund or increase the amount of payment to accompany the return. Failure to remit any amount of increased payment shall reduce the contribution accordingly. This Section shall not apply to an amended return. For the purpose of this Section, the Department of Revenue must distribute the moneys as provided in subsection 21.9(b) of the Illinois Lottery Law: (i) 75% of the moneys to Special Olympics Illinois to support the statewide training, competitions, and programs for future Special Olympics athletes; and (ii) 25% of the moneys to Special Children's Charities to support the City of Chicago-wide training, competitions, and programs for future Special Olympics athletes.

(Source: P.A. 99-423, eff. 8-20-15; revised 10-20-15.)

Section 160. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 165. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a person with a disability, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-122), "prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-16-15.)

Section 170. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 9-195, 15-168, 15-169, 15-172, and 15-175 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/9-195)

Sec. 9-195. Leasing of exempt property.

(a) Except as provided in Sections 15-35, 15-55, 15-60, 15-100, 15-103, 15-160, and 15-185, when property which is exempt from taxation is leased to another whose property is not exempt, and the leasing of which does not make the property taxable, the leasehold estate and the appurtenances shall be listed as the property of the lessee thereof, or his or her assignee. Taxes on that property shall be collected in the same manner as on property that is not exempt, and the lessee shall be liable for those taxes. However, no tax lien shall attach to the exempt real estate. The changes made by Public Act 90-562 this amendatory Act of 1997 and by Public Act 91-513 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly are declaratory of existing law and shall not be construed as a new enactment. The changes made by Public Acts 88-221 and 88-420 that are incorporated into this Section by Public Act 88-670 this amendatory Act of 1993 are declarative of existing law and are not a new enactment.

(b) The provisions of this Section regarding taxation of leasehold interests in exempt property do not apply to any leasehold interest created pursuant to any transaction described in subsection (e) of Section 15-35, subsection (c-5) of Section 15-60, subsection (b) of Section 15-100, Section 15-103, Section 15-160, or Section 15-185 of this Code , or Section 6c of the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-219, eff. 7-31-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-168)

Sec. 15-168. Homestead exemption for persons with disabilities.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption is granted to persons with disabilities in the amount of $2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to be deducted from the property's value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable for paying the real estate taxes on the property.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of the property or have a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. In the case of a leasehold interest in property, the lease must be for a single family residence.

A person who has a disability during the taxable year is eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of residence. If a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "person with a disability" means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months. Persons with disabilities filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of disability in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall constitute proof of disability for purposes of this Act. Issuance of an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a person with a disability for purposes of this Act. A person with a disability not covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not presenting an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a physician designated by the Department, and his status as a person with a disability determined using the same standards as used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required examination shall be borne by the claimant.

(c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person with a disability. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable by contract with the owner or owners of record for paying the apportioned property taxes on the property of the cooperative or life care facility. In the case of a life care facility, the person with a disability must be liable for paying the apportioned property taxes under a life care contract as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building. A leasehold interest does not meet this requirement. If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the cooperative association or management firm shall credit the savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax liability of the qualifying person with a disability. The chief county assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the qualified person with a disability is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption according to guidelines established by the Department. After a person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall provide to each person granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed designation with the county collector, who shall issue the duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person with a disability in the manner required by the chief county assessment officer.

(e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-20-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-169)

Sec. 15-169. Homestead exemption for veterans with disabilities.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption, limited to the amounts set forth in subsections (b) and (b-3), is granted for property that is used as a qualified residence by a veteran with a disability.

(b) For taxable years prior to 2015, the amount of the exemption under this Section is as follows:

(1) for veterans with a service-connected disability of at least (i) 75% for exemptions granted in taxable years 2007 through 2009 and (ii) 70% for exemptions granted in taxable year 2010 and each taxable year thereafter, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the annual exemption is $5,000; and

(2) for veterans with a service-connected disability of at least 50%, but less than (i) 75% for exemptions granted in taxable years 2007 through 2009 and (ii) 70% for exemptions granted in taxable year 2010 and each taxable year thereafter, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the annual exemption is $2,500.

(b-3) For taxable years 2015 and thereafter:

(1) if the veteran has a service connected disability of 30% or more but less than 50%, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the annual exemption is $2,500;

(2) if the veteran has a service connected disability of 50% or more but less than 70%, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the annual exemption is $5,000; and

(3) if the veteran has a service connected disability of 70% or more, as certified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the property is exempt from taxation under this Code.

(b-5) If a homestead exemption is granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility operated by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person who qualified for the homestead exemption.

(c) The tax exemption under this Section carries over to the benefit of the veteran's surviving spouse as long as the spouse holds the legal or beneficial title to the homestead, permanently resides thereon, and does not remarry. If the surviving spouse sells the property, an exemption not to exceed the amount granted from the most recent ad valorem tax roll may be transferred to his or her new residence as long as it is used as his or her primary residence and he or she does not remarry.

(c-1) Beginning with taxable year 2015, nothing in this Section shall require the veteran to have qualified for or obtained the exemption before death if the veteran was killed in the line of duty.

(d) The exemption under this Section applies for taxable year 2007 and thereafter. A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-168 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(e) Each taxpayer who has been granted an exemption under this Section must reapply on an annual basis. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence. The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption provided by this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable methods. The determination must be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department.

(f) For the purposes of this Section:

"Qualified residence" means real property, but less any portion of that property that is used for commercial purposes, with an equalized assessed value of less than $250,000 that is the primary residence of a veteran with a disability. Property rented for more than 6 months is presumed to be used for commercial purposes.

"Veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces on active duty or State active duty, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces and who has received an honorable discharge.

(Source: P.A. 98-1145, eff. 12-30-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-375, eff. 8-17-15; revised 10-9-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; revised 10-21-15.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-175)

Sec. 15-175. General homestead exemption.

(a) Except as provided in Sections 15-176 and 15-177, homestead property is entitled to an annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here with relation to cooperatives, to a reduction in the equalized assessed value of homestead property equal to the increase in equalized assessed value for the current assessment year above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, up to the maximum reduction set forth below. If however, the 1977 equalized assessed value upon which taxes were paid is subsequently determined by local assessing officials, the Property Tax Appeal Board, or a court to have been excessive, the equalized assessed value which should have been placed on the property for 1977 shall be used to determine the amount of the exemption.

(b) Except as provided in Section 15-176, the maximum reduction before taxable year 2004 shall be $4,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $3,500 in all other counties. Except as provided in Sections 15-176 and 15-177, for taxable years 2004 through 2007, the maximum reduction shall be $5,000, for taxable year 2008, the maximum reduction is $5,500, and, for taxable years 2009 through 2011, the maximum reduction is $6,000 in all counties. For taxable years 2012 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is $7,000 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $6,000 in all other counties. If a county has elected to subject itself to the provisions of Section 15-176 as provided in subsection (k) of that Section, then, for the first taxable year only after the provisions of Section 15-176 no longer apply, for owners who, for the taxable year, have not been granted a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption under Section 15-172 or a long-time occupant homestead exemption under Section 15-177, there shall be an additional exemption of $5,000 for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less.

(c) In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if, based on the most recent assessment, the equalized assessed value of the homestead property for the current assessment year is greater than the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, the owner of the property shall automatically receive the exemption granted under this Section in an amount equal to the increase over the 1977 assessment up to the maximum reduction set forth in this Section.

(d) If in any assessment year beginning with the 2000 assessment year, homestead property has a pro-rata valuation under Section 9-180 resulting in an increase in the assessed valuation, a reduction in equalized assessed valuation equal to the increase in equalized assessed value of the property for the year of the pro-rata valuation above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977 shall be applied to the property on a proportionate basis for the period the property qualified as homestead property during the assessment year. The maximum proportionate homestead exemption shall not exceed the maximum homestead exemption allowed in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days the property qualified as homestead property.

(e) The chief county assessment officer may, when considering whether to grant a leasehold exemption under this Section, require the following conditions to be met:

(1) that a notarized application for the exemption, signed by both the owner and the lessee of the property, must be submitted each year during the application period in effect for the county in which the property is located;

(2) that a copy of the lease must be filed with the chief county assessment officer by the owner of the property at the time the notarized application is submitted;

(3) that the lease must expressly state that the lessee is liable for the payment of property taxes; and

(4) that the lease must include the following language in substantially the following form:

"Lessee shall be liable for the payment of real estate taxes with respect to the residence in accordance with the terms and conditions of Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code (35 ILCS 200/15-175). The permanent real estate index number for the premises is (insert number), and, according to the most recent property tax bill, the current amount of real estate taxes associated with the premises is (insert amount) per year. The parties agree that the monthly rent set forth above shall be increased or decreased pro rata (effective January 1 of each calendar year) to reflect any increase or decrease in real estate taxes. Lessee shall be deemed to be satisfying Lessee's liability for the above mentioned real estate taxes with the monthly rent payments as set forth above (or increased or decreased as set forth herein).".

In addition, if there is a change in lessee, or if the lessee vacates the property, then the chief county assessment officer may require the owner of the property to notify the chief county assessment officer of that change.

This subsection (e) does not apply to leasehold interests in property owned by a municipality.

(f) "Homestead property" under this Section includes residential property that is occupied by its owner or owners as his or their principal dwelling place, or that is a leasehold interest on which a single family residence is situated, which is occupied as a residence by a person who has an ownership interest therein, legal or equitable or as a lessee, and on which the person is liable for the payment of property taxes. For land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building which is a life care facility as defined in Section 15-170 and considered to be a cooperative under Section 15-170, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value shall be limited to the increase in the value above the equalized assessed value of the property for 1977, up to the maximum reduction set forth above, multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person or persons who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. For purposes of this Section, the term "life care facility" has the meaning stated in Section 15-170.

"Household", as used in this Section, means the owner, the spouse of the owner, and all persons using the residence of the owner as their principal place of residence.

"Household income", as used in this Section, means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income", as used in this Section, has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, except that "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

(g) In a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(h) Where married persons maintain and reside in separate residences qualifying as homestead property, each residence shall receive 50% of the total reduction in equalized assessed valuation provided by this Section.

(i) In all counties, the assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption and the amount of the exemption by application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department, provided that the taxpayer applying for an additional general exemption under this Section shall submit to the chief county assessment officer an application with an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and, if married, the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall issue guidelines establishing a method for verifying the accuracy of the affidavits filed by applicants under this paragraph. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Additional General Homestead Exemption.

(i-5) This subsection (i-5) applies to counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants. In the event of a sale of homestead property, the homestead exemption shall remain in effect for the remainder of the assessment year of the sale. Upon receipt of a transfer declaration transmitted by the recorder pursuant to Section 31-30 of the Real Estate Transfer Tax Law for property receiving an exemption under this Section, the assessor shall mail a notice and forms to the new owner of the property providing information pertaining to the rules and applicable filing periods for applying or reapplying for homestead exemptions under this Code for which the property may be eligible. If the new owner fails to apply or reapply for a homestead exemption during the applicable filing period or the property no longer qualifies for an existing homestead exemption, the assessor shall cancel such exemption for any ensuing assessment year.

(j) In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, in the event of a sale of homestead property the homestead exemption shall remain in effect for the remainder of the assessment year of the sale. The assessor or chief county assessment officer may require the new owner of the property to apply for the homestead exemption for the following assessment year.

(k) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-7, eff. 4-23-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-164, eff. 7-28-15; revised 8-25-15.)

Section 175. The Electricity Excise Tax Law is amended by changing Section 2-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 640/2-10)

Sec. 2-10. Election and registration to be self-assessing purchaser. Any purchaser for non-residential electric use may elect to register with the Department as a self-assessing purchaser and to pay the tax imposed by Section 2-4 directly to the Department, at the rate stated in that Section for self-assessing purchasers, rather than paying the tax to such purchaser's delivering supplier. The election by a purchaser to register as a self-assessing purchaser may not be revoked by the purchaser for at least 2 years thereafter. A purchaser who revokes his or her registration as a self-assessing purchaser shall not thereafter be permitted to register as a self-assessing purchaser within the succeeding 2 years. A self-assessing purchaser shall renew his or her registration every 2 years, or the registration shall be deemed to be revoked.

Application for a certificate of registration as a self-assessing purchaser shall be made to the Department upon forms furnished by the Department and shall contain any reasonable information the Department may require. The self-assessing purchaser shall be required to disclose the name of the delivering supplier or suppliers and each account numbers for which the self-assessing purchaser elects to pay the tax imposed by Section 2-4 directly to the Department. Upon receipt of the application for a certificate of registration in proper form and payment of a an non-refundable biennial fee of $200, the Department shall issue to the applicant a certificate of registration that permits the person to whom it was issued to pay the tax incurred under this Law directly to the Department for a period of 2 years. The Department shall notify the delivering supplier or suppliers that the applicant has been registered as a self-assessing purchaser for the accounts listed by the self-assessing purchaser. A certificate of registration under this Section shall be renewed upon application and payment of a non-refundable biennial $200 fee, subject to revocation as provided by this Law, for additional 2-year periods from the date of its expiration unless otherwise notified by the Department.

Upon notification by the Department that an applicant has been registered as a self-assessing purchaser, the delivering supplier is no longer required to collect the tax imposed by this Act for the accounts specifically listed by the self-assessing purchaser, until the delivering supplier is notified by the Department as set forth below that the self-assessing purchaser's certificate of registration has been expired, revoked, or denied.

The Department may deny a certificate of registration to any applicant if the owner, any partner, any manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of the applicant, is or has been the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer, of another self-assessing purchaser that is in default for moneys due under this Law.

Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department under this Section may, within 20 days after notice of such decision, protest and request a hearing, whereupon the Department shall give notice to such person of the time and place fixed for such hearing and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Law and then issue its final administrative decision in the matter to such person. In the absence of such a protest within 20 days, the Department's decision shall become final without any further determination being made or notice given. Upon the expiration, revocation, or denial of a certificate of registration as a self-assessing purchaser, the Department of Revenue shall provide written notice of the expiration, revocation, or denial of the certificate to the self-assessing purchaser's delivering supplier or suppliers.

(Source: P.A. 90-561, eff. 8-1-98; 90-624, eff. 7-10-98; revised 10-13-15.)

Section 180. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 7-172.1 and 16-152 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/7-172.1) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 7-172.1)

Sec. 7-172.1. Actions to enforce payments by municipalities and instrumentalities.

(a) If any participating municipality or participating instrumentality fails to transmit to the Fund contributions required of it under this Article or contributions collected by it from its participating employees for the purposes of this Article for more than 60 days after the payment of such contributions is due, the Fund, after giving notice to such municipality or instrumentality, may certify to the State Comptroller the amounts of such delinquent payments in accordance with any applicable rules of the Comptroller, and the Comptroller shall deduct the amounts so certified or any part thereof from any payments of State funds to the municipality or instrumentality involved and shall remit the amount so deducted to the Fund. If State funds from which such deductions may be made are not available, the Fund may proceed against the municipality or instrumentality to recover the amounts of such delinquent payments in the appropriate circuit court.

(b) If any participating municipality fails to transmit to the Fund contributions required of it under this Article or contributions collected by it from its participating employees for the purposes of this Article for more than 60 days after the payment of such contributions is due, the Fund, after giving notice to such municipality, may certify the fact of such delinquent payment to the county treasurer of the county in which such municipality is located, who shall thereafter remit the amounts collected from the tax levied by the municipality under Section 7-171 directly to the Fund.

(c) If reports furnished to the Fund by the municipality or instrumentality involved are inadequate for the computation of the amounts of such delinquent payments, the Fund may provide for such audit of the records of the municipality or instrumentality as may be required to establish the amounts of such delinquent payments. The municipality or instrumentality shall make its records available to the Fund for the purpose of such audit. The cost of such audit shall be added to the amount of the delinquent payments and shall be recovered by the Fund from the municipality or instrumentality at the same time and in the same manner as the delinquent payments are recovered.

(Source: P.A. 99-8, eff. 7-9-15; 99-239, eff. 8-3-15; revised 10-8-15.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-152) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-152)

(Text of Section WITH the changes made by P.A. 98-599, which has been held unconstitutional)

Sec. 16-152. Contributions by members.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (a-5), each member shall make contributions for membership service to this System as follows:

(1) Effective July 1, 1998, contribut