Public Act 0180 99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB2755 Enrolled LRB099 08043 RPS 28187 b

Public Act 099-0180

AN ACT concerning regulation.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

ARTICLE I. SHORT TITLE, PRIOR LAW, AND DEFINITIONS

Section 1-101. Short title. This Act may be cited as the MC/DD Act.

Section 1-101.05. Prior law.

(a) This Act provides for the licensure of medically complex for the developmentally disabled facilities. On and after the effective date of this Act, long-term care for under age 22 facilities shall be known and licensed as medically complex for the developmentally disabled facilities under this Act instead of the ID/DD Community Care Act. On the effective date of this Act, any long-term care for under age 22 facility that holds a valid license on the effective date of this Act shall be granted a license as a medically complex for the developmentally disabled facility and shall not be licensed as a long-term care for under age 22 facility under the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(b) If any other Act of the General Assembly changes, adds, or repeals a provision of the ID/DD Community Care Act that is the same as or substantially similar to a provision of this Act, then that change, addition, or repeal in the ID/DD Community Care Act shall be construed together with this Act until July 1, 2015 and not thereafter.

(c) Nothing in this Act affects the validity or effect of any finding, decision, or action made or taken by the Department or the Director under the ID/DD Community Care Act before the effective date of this Act with respect to a facility subject to licensure under this Act. That finding, decision, or action shall continue to apply to the facility on and after the effective date of this Act. Any finding, decision, or action with respect to the facility made or taken on or after the effective date of this Act shall be made or taken as provided in this Act.

Section 1-102. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the terms defined in this Article have the meanings ascribed to them herein.

Section 1-103. Abuse. "Abuse" means any physical or mental injury or sexual assault inflicted on a resident other than by accidental means in a facility.

Section 1-104. Access. "Access" means the right to:

(1) Enter any facility;

(2) Communicate privately and without restriction with any resident who consents to the communication;

(3) Seek consent to communicate privately and without restriction with any resident;

(4) Inspect the clinical and other records of a resident with the express written consent of the resident; or

(5) Observe all areas of the facility except the living area of any resident who protests the observation.

Section 1-105. Administrator. "Administrator" means a person who is charged with the general administration and supervision of a facility and licensed, if required, under the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, as now or hereafter amended.

Section 1-106. Affiliate. "Affiliate" means:

(1) With respect to a partnership, each partner thereof.

(2) With respect to a corporation, each officer, director and stockholder thereof.

(3) With respect to a natural person: any person related in the first degree of kinship to that person; each partnership and each partner thereof of which that person or any affiliate of that person is a partner; and each corporation in which that person or any affiliate of that person is an officer, director or stockholder.

Section 1-107. Applicant. "Applicant" means any person making application for a license.

Section 1-108.1. Complaint classification. "Complaint classification" means the Department shall categorize reports about conditions, care or services in a facility into one of three groups after an investigation:

(1) "An invalid report" means any report made under this Act for which it is determined after an investigation that no credible evidence of abuse, neglect or other deficiency relating to the complaint exists;

(2) "A valid report" means a report made under this Act if an investigation determines that some credible evidence of the alleged abuse, neglect or other deficiency relating to the complaint exists; and

(3) "An undetermined report" means a report made under this Act in which it was not possible to initiate or complete an investigation on the basis of information provided to the Department.

Section 1-109. Department. "Department" means the Department of Public Health.

Section 1-110. Director. "Director" means the Director of Public Health or his or her designee.

Section 1-111. Discharge. "Discharge" means the full release of any resident from a facility.

Section 1-111.05. Distressed facility. "Distressed facility" means a facility determined by the Department to be a distressed facility pursuant to Section 3-304.2 of this Act.

Section 1-112. Emergency. "Emergency" means a situation, physical condition or one or more practices, methods or operations which present imminent danger of death or serious physical or mental harm to residents of a facility.

Section 1-113. Facility. "MC/DD facility" or "facility" means a medically complex for the developmentally disabled facility, whether operated for profit or not, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care or nursing for 3 or more persons not related to the applicant or owner by blood or marriage.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(2) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefore, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) Any "facility for child care" as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) Any "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) Any "community residential alternative" as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;

(6) Any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well recognized church or religious denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(7) Any facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) Any facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act;

(9) Any ID/DD facility under the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(10) Any "supportive residence" licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(11) Any "supportive living facility" in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(12) Any assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(13) An Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or

(14) A home, institution, or other place operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs.

Section 1-114. Guardian. "Guardian" means a person appointed as a guardian of the person or guardian of the estate, or both, of a resident under the "Probate Act of 1975", as now or hereafter amended.

Section 1-114.001. Habilitation. "Habilitation" means an effort directed toward increasing a person's level of physical, mental, social, or economic functioning. Habilitation may include, but is not limited to, diagnosis, evaluation, medical services, residential care, day care, special living arrangements, training, education, employment services, protective services, and counseling.

Section 1-114.01. Identified offender. "Identified offender" means a person who meets any of the following criteria:

(1) Has been convicted of, found guilty of, adjudicated delinquent for, found not guilty by reason of insanity for, or found unfit to stand trial for any felony offense listed in Section 25 of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act, except for the following:

(i) a felony offense described in Section 10-5 of the Nurse Practice Act;

(ii) a felony offense described in Section 4, 5, 6, 8, or 17.02 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act;

(iii) a felony offense described in Section 5, 5.1, 5.2, 7, or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a felony offense described in Section 401, 401.1, 404, 405, 405.1, 407, or 407.1 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; and

(v) a felony offense described in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(2) Has been convicted of, adjudicated delinquent for, found not guilty by reason of insanity for, or found unfit to stand trial for, any sex offense as defined in subsection (c) of Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(3) Is any other resident as determined by the Department of State Police.

Section 1-114.1. Immediate family. "Immediate family" means the spouse, an adult child, a parent, an adult brother or sister, or an adult grandchild of a person.

Section 1-114.005. High-risk designation. "High-risk designation" means a designation of a provision of the Illinois Administrative Code that has been identified by the Department through rulemaking to be inherently necessary to protect the health, safety, and welfare of a resident.

Section 1-115. Licensee. "Licensee" means the individual or entity licensed by the Department to operate the facility.

Section 1-116. Maintenance. "Maintenance" means food, shelter and laundry services.

Section 1-116.5. Misappropriation of a resident's property. "Misappropriation of a resident's property" means the deliberate misplacement, exploitation, or wrongful temporary or permanent use of a resident's belongings or money without the resident's consent.

Section 1-117. Neglect. "Neglect" means a failure in a facility to provide adequate medical or personal care or maintenance, which failure results in physical or mental injury to a resident or in the deterioration of a resident's physical or mental condition.

Section 1-118. Nurse. "Nurse" means a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse as defined in the Nurse Practice Act.

Section 1-119. Owner. "Owner" means the individual, partnership, corporation, association or other person who owns a facility. In the event a facility is operated by a person who leases the physical plant, which is owned by another person, "owner" means the person who operates the facility, except that if the person who owns the physical plant is an affiliate of the person who operates the facility and has significant control over the day to day operations of the facility, the person who owns the physical plant shall incur jointly and severally with the owner all liabilities imposed on an owner under this Act.

Section 1-120. Personal care. "Personal care" means assistance with meals, dressing, movement, bathing or other personal needs or maintenance, or general supervision and oversight of the physical and mental well being of an individual, who is incapable of maintaining a private, independent residence or who is incapable of managing his or her person whether or not a guardian has been appointed for such individual.

Section 1-120.3. Provisional admission period.

"Provisional admission period" means the time between the admission of an identified offender as defined in Section 1-114.01 of this Act and 3 days following the admitting facility's receipt of an Identified Offender Report and Recommendation in accordance with Section 2-201.6 of this Act.

Section 1-121. Reasonable hour. "Reasonable hour" means any time between the hours of 10 a.m. and 8 p.m. daily.

Section 1-122. Resident. "Resident" means a person receiving personal or medical care, including, but not limited to, habilitation, psychiatric services, therapeutic services, and assistance with activities of daily living from a facility.

Section 1-123. Resident's representative. "Resident's representative" means a person other than the owner, or an agent or employee of a facility not related to the resident, designated in writing by a resident to be his or her representative, or the resident's guardian, or the parent of a minor resident for whom no guardian has been appointed.

Section 1-125. Stockholder. "Stockholder" of a corporation means any person who, directly or indirectly, beneficially owns, holds or has the power to vote, at least 5% of any class of securities issued by the corporation.

Section 1-125.1. Student intern. "Student intern" means any person whose total term of employment in any facility during any 12-month period is equal to or less than 90 continuous days, and whose term of employment is either:

(1) an academic credit requirement in a high school or undergraduate institution, or

(2) immediately succeeds a full quarter, semester or trimester of academic enrollment in either a high school or undergraduate institution, provided that such person is registered for another full quarter, semester or trimester of academic enrollment in either a high school or undergraduate institution which quarter, semester or trimester will commence immediately following the term of employment.

Section 1-126. Title XVIII. "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the federal Social Security Act as now or hereafter amended.

Section 1-127. Title XIX. "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act as now or hereafter amended.

Section 1-128. Transfer. "Transfer" means a change in status of a resident's living arrangements from one facility to another facility.

Section 1-128.5. Type "AA" violation. A "Type 'AA' violation" means a violation of this Act or of the rules promulgated thereunder that creates a condition or occurrence relating to the operation and maintenance of a facility that proximately caused a resident's death.

Section 1-129. Type "A" violation. A "Type 'A' violation" means a violation of this Act or of the rules promulgated thereunder which creates a condition or occurrence relating to the operation and maintenance of a facility that (i) creates a substantial probability that the risk of death or serious mental or physical harm to a resident will result therefrom or (ii) has resulted in actual physical or mental harm to a resident.

Section 1-130. Type "B" violation. A "Type 'B' violation" means a violation of this Act or of the rules promulgated thereunder which (i) creates a condition or occurrence relating to the operation and maintenance of a facility that is more likely than not to cause more than minimal physical or mental harm to a resident or (ii) is specifically designated as a Type "B" violation in this Act.

Section 1-132. Type "C" violation. A "Type 'C' violation" means a violation of this Act or of the rules promulgated thereunder that creates a condition or occurrence relating to the operation and maintenance of a facility that creates a substantial probability that less than minimal physical or mental harm to a resident will result therefrom.

ARTICLE II. RIGHTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES

PART 1. RESIDENT RIGHTS

Section 2-101. Constitutional and legal rights. No resident shall be deprived of any rights, benefits, or privileges guaranteed by law, the Constitution of the State of Illinois, or the Constitution of the United States solely on account of his or her status as a resident of a facility.

Section 2-101.1. Spousal impoverishment. All new residents and their spouses shall be informed on admittance of their spousal impoverishment rights as defined at Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as now or hereafter amended and at Section 303 of Title III of the Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988 (P.L. 100-360).

Section 2-102. Financial affairs. A resident shall be permitted to manage his or her own financial affairs unless he or she or his or her guardian or if the resident is a minor, his or her parent, authorizes the administrator of the facility in writing to manage such resident's financial affairs under Section 2-201 of this Act.

Section 2-103. Personal property. A resident shall be permitted to retain and use or wear his or her personal property in his or her immediate living quarters, unless deemed medically inappropriate by a physician and so documented in the resident's clinical record. If clothing is provided to the resident by the facility, it shall be of a proper fit.

The facility shall provide adequate storage space for the personal property of the resident. The facility shall provide a means of safeguarding small items of value for its residents in their rooms or in any other part of the facility so long as the residents have daily access to such valuables. The facility shall make reasonable efforts to prevent loss and theft of residents' property. Those efforts shall be appropriate to the particular facility and may include, but are not limited to, staff training and monitoring, labeling property, and frequent property inventories. The facility shall develop procedures for investigating complaints concerning theft of residents' property and shall promptly investigate all such complaints.

Section 2-104. Medical treatment; records.

(a) A resident shall be permitted to retain the services of his or her own personal physician at his or her own expense or under an individual or group plan of health insurance, or under any public or private assistance program providing such coverage. However, the facility is not liable for the negligence of any such personal physician. Every resident shall be permitted to obtain from his or her own physician or the physician attached to the facility complete and current information concerning his or her medical diagnosis, treatment and prognosis in terms and language the resident can reasonably be expected to understand. Every resident shall be permitted to participate in the planning of his or her total care and medical treatment to the extent that his or her condition permits. No resident shall be subjected to experimental research or treatment without first obtaining his or her informed, written consent. The conduct of any experimental research or treatment shall be authorized and monitored by an institutional review board appointed by the Director. The membership, operating procedures and review criteria for the institutional review board shall be prescribed under rules and regulations of the Department and shall comply with the requirements for institutional review boards established by the federal Food and Drug Administration. No person who has received compensation in the prior 3 years from an entity that manufactures, distributes, or sells pharmaceuticals, biologics, or medical devices may serve on the institutional review board.

The institutional review board may approve only research or treatment that meets the standards of the federal Food and Drug Administration with respect to (i) the protection of human subjects and (ii) financial disclosure by clinical investigators. The Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman and the State Protection and Advocacy organization shall be given an opportunity to comment on any request for approval before the board makes a decision. Those entities shall not be provided information that would allow a potential human subject to be individually identified, unless the board asks the Ombudsman for help in securing information from or about the resident. The board shall require frequent reporting of the progress of the approved research or treatment and its impact on residents, including immediate reporting of any adverse impact to the resident, the resident's representative, the Office of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman, and the State Protection and Advocacy organization. The board may not approve any retrospective study of the records of any resident about the safety or efficacy of any care or treatment if the resident was under the care of the proposed researcher or a business associate when the care or treatment was given, unless the study is under the control of a researcher without any business relationship to any person or entity who could benefit from the findings of the study.

No facility shall permit experimental research or treatment to be conducted on a resident or give access to any person or person's records for a retrospective study about the safety or efficacy of any care or treatment without the prior written approval of the institutional review board. No administrator, or person licensed by the State to provide medical care or treatment to any person may assist or participate in any experimental research on or treatment of a resident, including a retrospective study, that does not have the prior written approval of the board. Such conduct shall be grounds for professional discipline by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

The institutional review board may exempt from ongoing review research or treatment initiated on a resident before the individual's admission to a facility and for which the board determines there is adequate ongoing oversight by another institutional review board. Nothing in this Section shall prevent a facility, any facility employee, or any other person from assisting or participating in any experimental research on or treatment of a resident if the research or treatment began before the person's admission to a facility, until the board has reviewed the research or treatment and decided to grant or deny approval or to exempt the research or treatment from ongoing review.

(b) All medical treatment and procedures shall be administered as ordered by a physician. All new physician orders shall be reviewed by the facility's director of nursing or charge nurse designee within 24 hours after such orders have been issued to assure facility compliance with such orders.

According to rules adopted by the Department, every woman resident of child bearing age shall receive routine obstetrical and gynecological evaluations as well as necessary prenatal care.

(c) Every resident shall be permitted to refuse medical treatment and to know the consequences of such action, unless such refusal would be harmful to the health and safety of others and such harm is documented by a physician in the resident's clinical record. The resident's refusal shall free the facility from the obligation to provide the treatment.

(d) Every resident, resident's guardian, or parent if the resident is a minor shall be permitted to inspect and copy all his or her clinical and other records concerning his or her care and maintenance kept by the facility or by his or her physician. The facility may charge a reasonable fee for duplication of a record.

Section 2-104.1. Transfer of facility ownership after license suspension or revocation. Whenever ownership of a private facility is transferred to another private owner following a final order for a suspension or revocation of the facility's license, the new owner, if the Department so determines, shall thoroughly evaluate the condition and needs of each resident as if each resident were being newly admitted to the facility. The evaluation shall include a review of the medical record and the conduct of a physical examination of each resident which shall be performed within 30 days after the transfer of ownership.

Section 2-104.2. Do Not Resuscitate Orders. Every facility licensed under this Act shall establish a policy for the implementation of physician orders limiting resuscitation such as those commonly referred to as "Do Not Resuscitate" orders. This policy may only prescribe the format, method of documentation and duration of any physician orders limiting resuscitation. Any orders under this policy shall be honored by the facility. The Department of Public Health Uniform DNR/POLST form or a copy of that form or a previous version of the uniform form shall be honored by the facility.

Section 2-105. Privacy. A resident shall be permitted respect and privacy in his or her medical and personal care program. Every resident's case discussion, consultation, examination and treatment shall be confidential and shall be conducted discreetly, and those persons not directly involved in the resident's care must have the resident's permission to be present.

Section 2-106. Restraints and confinements.

(a) For purposes of this Act:

(i) A physical restraint is any manual method or physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached or adjacent to a resident's body that the resident cannot remove easily and restricts freedom of movement or normal access to one's body. Devices used for positioning, including but not limited to bed rails, gait belts, and cushions, shall not be considered to be restraints for purposes of this Section.

(ii) A chemical restraint is any drug used for discipline or convenience and not required to treat medical symptoms. The Department shall by rule, designate certain devices as restraints, including at least all those devices which have been determined to be restraints by the United States Department of Health and Human Services in interpretive guidelines issued for the purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act.

(b) Neither restraints nor confinements shall be employed for the purpose of punishment or for the convenience of any facility personnel. No restraints or confinements shall be employed except as ordered by a physician who documents the need for such restraints or confinements in the resident's clinical record. Each facility licensed under this Act must have a written policy to address the use of restraints and seclusion. The Department shall establish by rule the provisions that the policy must include, which, to the extent practicable, should be consistent with the requirements for participation in the federal Medicare program. Each policy shall include periodic review of the use of restraints.

(c) A restraint may be used only with the informed consent of the resident, the resident's guardian, or other authorized representative. A restraint may be used only for specific periods, if it is the least restrictive means necessary to attain and maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental or psychosocial well being, including brief periods of time to provide necessary life saving treatment. A restraint may be used only after consultation with appropriate health professionals, such as occupational or physical therapists, and a trial of less restrictive measures has led to the determination that the use of less restrictive measures would not attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental or psychosocial well being. However, if the resident needs emergency care, restraints may be used for brief periods to permit medical treatment to proceed unless the facility has notice that the resident has previously made a valid refusal of the treatment in question.

(d) A restraint may be applied only by a person trained in the application of the particular type of restraint.

(e) Whenever a period of use of a restraint is initiated, the resident shall be advised of his or her right to have a person or organization of his or her choosing, including the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, notified of the use of the restraint. A recipient who is under guardianship may request that a person or organization of his or her choosing be notified of the restraint, whether or not the guardian approves the notice. If the resident so chooses, the facility shall make the notification within 24 hours, including any information about the period of time that the restraint is to be used. Whenever the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission is notified that a resident has been restrained, it shall contact the resident to determine the circumstances of the restraint and whether further action is warranted.

(f) Whenever a restraint is used on a resident whose primary mode of communication is sign language, the resident shall be permitted to have his or her hands free from restraint for brief periods each hour, except when this freedom may result in physical harm to the resident or others.

(g) The requirements of this Section are intended to control in any conflict with the requirements of Sections 1-126 and 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

Section 2-106.1. Drug treatment.

(a) A resident shall not be given unnecessary drugs. An unnecessary drug is any drug used in an excessive dose, including in duplicative therapy; for excessive duration; without adequate monitoring; without adequate indications for its use; or in the presence of adverse consequences that indicate the drugs should be reduced or discontinued. The Department shall adopt, by rule, the standards for unnecessary drugs contained in interpretive guidelines issued by the United States Department of Health and Human Services for the purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act.

(b) Psychotropic medication shall not be administered without the informed consent of the resident, the resident's guardian, or other authorized representative. "Psychotropic medication" means medication that is used for or listed as used for antipsychotic, antidepressant, antimanic, or antianxiety behavior modification or behavior management purposes in the latest editions of the AMA Drug Evaluations or the Physician's Desk Reference. The Department shall adopt, by rule, a protocol specifying how informed consent for psychotropic medication may be obtained or refused. The protocol shall require, at a minimum, a discussion between (1) the resident or the resident's authorized representative and (2) the resident's physician, a registered pharmacist who is not a dispensing pharmacist for the facility where the resident lives, or a licensed nurse about the possible risks and benefits of a recommended medication and the use of standardized consent forms designated by the Department. Each form developed by the Department (i) shall be written in plain language, (ii) shall be able to be downloaded from the Department's official website, (iii) shall include information specific to the psychotropic medication for which consent is being sought, and (iv) shall be used for every resident for whom psychotropic drugs are prescribed. In addition to creating those forms, the Department shall approve the use of any other informed consent forms that meet criteria developed by the Department.

In addition to any other requirement prescribed by law, a facility that is found to have violated this subsection or the federal certification requirement that informed consent be obtained before administering a psychotropic medication shall for 3 years after the notice of violation be required to (A) obtain the signatures of 2 licensed health care professionals on every form purporting to give informed consent for the administration of a psychotropic medication, certifying the personal knowledge of each health care professional that the consent was obtained in compliance with the requirements of this subsection or (B) videotape or make a digital video record of the procedures followed by the facility to comply with the requirements of this subsection.

(c) The requirements of this Section are intended to control in a conflict with the requirements of Sections 2-102 and 2-107.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code with respect to the administration of psychotropic medication.

Section 2-106a. Resident identification wristlet. No identification wristlets shall be employed except as ordered by a physician who documents the need for such mandatory identification in the resident's clinical record. When identification bracelets are required, they must identify the resident's name, and the name and address of the facility issuing the identification wristlet.

Section 2-107. Abuse or neglect; duty to report. An owner, licensee, administrator, employee or agent of a facility shall not abuse or neglect a resident. It is the duty of any facility employee or agent who becomes aware of such abuse or neglect to report it as provided in the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act.

Section 2-108. Communications; visits; married residents. Every resident shall be permitted unimpeded, private and uncensored communication of his or her choice by mail, public telephone or visitation.

(a) The administrator shall ensure that correspondence is conveniently received and mailed, and that telephones are reasonably accessible.

(b) The administrator shall ensure that residents may have private visits at any reasonable hour unless such visits are not medically advisable for the resident as documented in the resident's clinical record by the resident's physician.

(c) The administrator shall ensure that space for visits is available and that facility personnel knock, except in an emergency, before entering any resident's room.

(d) Unimpeded, private and uncensored communication by mail, public telephone and visitation may be reasonably restricted by a physician only in order to protect the resident or others from harm, harassment or intimidation, provided that the reason for any such restriction is placed in the resident's clinical record by the physician and that notice of such restriction shall be given to all residents upon admission. However, all letters addressed by a resident to the Governor, members of the General Assembly, Attorney General, judges, state's attorneys, officers of the Department, or licensed attorneys at law shall be forwarded at once to the persons to whom they are addressed without examination by facility personnel. Letters in reply from the officials and attorneys mentioned above shall be delivered to the recipient without examination by facility personnel.

(e) The administrator shall ensure that married residents residing in the same facility be allowed to reside in the same room within the facility unless there is no room available in the facility or it is deemed medically inadvisable by the residents' attending physician and so documented in the residents' medical records.

Section 2-109. Religion. A resident shall be permitted the free exercise of religion. Upon a resident's request, and if necessary at the resident's expense, the administrator shall make arrangements for a resident's attendance at religious services of the resident's choice. However, no religious beliefs or practices, or attendance at religious services, may be imposed upon any resident.

Section 2-110. Access to residents.

(a) Any employee or agent of a public agency, any representative of a community legal services program or any other member of the general public shall be permitted access at reasonable hours to any individual resident of any facility, but only if there is neither a commercial purpose nor effect to such access and if the purpose is to do any of the following:

(1) Visit, talk with and make personal, social and legal services available to all residents;

(2) Inform residents of their rights and entitlements and their corresponding obligations, under federal and State laws, by means of educational materials and discussions in groups and with individual residents;

(3) Assist residents in asserting their legal rights regarding claims for public assistance, medical assistance and social security benefits, as well as in all other matters in which residents are aggrieved. Assistance may include counseling and litigation; or

(4) Engage in other methods of asserting, advising and representing residents so as to extend to them full enjoyment of their rights.

(a-5) If a resident of a licensed facility is an identified offender, any federal, State, or local law enforcement officer or county probation officer shall be permitted reasonable access to the individual resident to verify compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act or to verify compliance with applicable terms of probation, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release.

(b) All persons entering a facility under this Section shall promptly notify appropriate facility personnel of their presence. They shall, upon request, produce identification to establish their identity. No such person shall enter the immediate living area of any resident without first identifying himself or herself and then receiving permission from the resident to enter. The rights of other residents present in the room shall be respected. A resident may terminate at any time a visit by a person having access to the resident's living area under this Section.

(c) This Section shall not limit the power of the Department or other public agency otherwise permitted or required by law to enter and inspect a facility.

(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this Section, the administrator of a facility may refuse access to the facility to any person if the presence of that person in the facility would be injurious to the health and safety of a resident or would threaten the security of the property of a resident or the facility, or if the person seeks access to the facility for commercial purposes. Any person refused access to a facility may within 10 days request a hearing under Section 3-703. In that proceeding, the burden of proof as to the right of the facility to refuse access under this Section shall be on the facility.

Section 2-111. Discharge. A resident may be discharged from a facility after he or she gives the administrator, a physician, or a nurse of the facility written notice of his or her desire to be discharged. If a guardian has been appointed for a resident or if the resident is a minor, the resident shall be discharged upon written consent of his or her guardian or if the resident is a minor, his or her parent unless there is a court order to the contrary. In such cases, upon the resident's discharge, the facility is relieved from any responsibility for the resident's care, safety or well being.

Section 2-112. Grievances. A resident shall be permitted to present grievances on behalf of himself or herself or others to the administrator, the DD Facility Advisory Board established under Section 2-204 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, the residents' advisory council, State governmental agencies or other persons without threat of discharge or reprisal in any form or manner whatsoever. The administrator shall provide all residents or their representatives with the name, address, and telephone number of the appropriate State governmental office where complaints may be lodged.

Section 2-113. Labor. A resident may refuse to perform labor for a facility.

Section 2-114. Unlawful discrimination. No resident shall be subjected to unlawful discrimination as defined in Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act by any owner, licensee, administrator, employee, or agent of a facility. Unlawful discrimination does not include an action by any owner, licensee, administrator, employee, or agent of a facility that is required by this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

Section 2-115. Right to notification of violations.

Residents and their guardians or other resident representatives, if any, shall be notified of any violation of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder pursuant to Section 2-217 of this Act, or of violations of the requirements of Titles XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act or rules promulgated thereunder, with respect to the health, safety, or welfare of the resident.

PART 2. RESPONSIBILITIES

Section 2-201. Residents' funds. To protect the residents' funds, the facility:

(1) Shall at the time of admission provide, in order of priority, each resident, or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, with a written statement explaining to the resident and to the resident's spouse (a) their spousal impoverishment rights, as defined at Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and at Section 303 of Title III of the Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988 (P.L. 100-360), and (b) the resident's rights regarding personal funds and listing the services for which the resident will be charged. The facility shall obtain a signed acknowledgment from each resident or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, that such person has received the statement.

(2) May accept funds from a resident for safekeeping and managing, if it receives written authorization from, in order of priority, the resident or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any; such authorization shall be attested to by a witness who has no pecuniary interest in the facility or its operations, and who is not connected in any way to facility personnel or the administrator in any manner whatsoever.

(3) Shall maintain and allow, in order of priority, each resident or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, access to a written record of all financial arrangements and transactions involving the individual resident's funds.

(4) Shall provide, in order of priority, each resident, or the resident's guardian, if any, or the resident's representative, if any, or the resident's immediate family member, if any, with a written itemized statement at least quarterly, of all financial transactions involving the resident's funds.

(5) Shall purchase a surety bond, or otherwise provide assurance satisfactory to the Departments of Public Health and Financial and Professional Regulation that all residents' personal funds deposited with the facility are secure against loss, theft, and insolvency.

(6) Shall keep any funds received from a resident for safekeeping in an account separate from the facility's funds, and shall at no time withdraw any part or all of such funds for any purpose other than to return the funds to the resident upon the request of the resident or any other person entitled to make such request, to pay the resident his or her allowance, or to make any other payment authorized by the resident or any other person entitled to make such authorization.

(7) Shall deposit any funds received from a resident in excess of $100 in an interest bearing account insured by agencies of, or corporations chartered by, the State or federal government. The account shall be in a form which clearly indicates that the facility has only a fiduciary interest in the funds and any interest from the account shall accrue to the resident. The facility may keep up to $100 of a resident's money in a non-interest-bearing account or petty cash fund, to be readily available for the resident's current expenditures.

(8) Shall return to the resident, or the person who executed the written authorization required in subsection (2) of this Section, upon written request, all or any part of the resident's funds given the facility for safekeeping, including the interest accrued from deposits.

(9) Shall (a) place any monthly allowance to which a resident is entitled in that resident's personal account, or give it to the resident, unless the facility has written authorization from the resident or the resident's guardian or if the resident is a minor, his parent, to handle it differently, (b) take all steps necessary to ensure that a personal needs allowance that is placed in a resident's personal account is used exclusively by the resident or for the benefit of the resident, and (c) where such funds are withdrawn from the resident's personal account by any person other than the resident, require such person to whom funds constituting any part of a resident's personal needs allowance are released, to execute an affidavit that such funds shall be used exclusively for the benefit of the resident.

(10) Unless otherwise provided by State law, upon the death of a resident, shall provide the executor or administrator of the resident's estate with a complete accounting of all the resident's personal property, including any funds of the resident being held by the facility.

(11) If an adult resident is incapable of managing his or her funds and does not have a resident's representative, guardian, or an immediate family member, shall notify the Office of the State Guardian of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission.

(12) If the facility is sold, shall provide the buyer with a written verification by a public accountant of all residents' monies and properties being transferred, and obtain a signed receipt from the new owner.

Section 2-201.5. Screening prior to admission.

(a) All persons age 18 or older seeking admission to a facility must be screened to determine the need for facility services prior to being admitted, regardless of income, assets, or funding source. In addition, any person who seeks to become eligible for medical assistance from the Medical Assistance Program under the Illinois Public Aid Code to pay for services while residing in a facility must be screened prior to receiving those benefits. Screening for facility services shall be administered through procedures established by administrative rule. Screening may be done by agencies other than the Department as established by administrative rule.

(a-1) Any screening shall also include an evaluation of whether there are residential supports and services or an array of community services that would enable the person to live in the community. The person shall be told about the existence of any such services that would enable the person to live safely and humanely in the least restrictive environment, that is appropriate, that the individual or guardian chooses, and the person shall be given the assistance necessary to avail himself or herself of any available services.

(b) In addition to the screening required by subsection (a), a facility shall, within 24 hours after admission, request a criminal history background check pursuant to the Uniform Conviction Information Act for all persons age 18 or older seeking admission to the facility. Background checks conducted pursuant to this Section shall be based on the resident's name, date of birth, and other identifiers as required by the Department of State Police. If the results of the background check are inconclusive, the facility shall initiate a fingerprint-based check, unless the fingerprint-based check is waived by the Director of Public Health based on verification by the facility that the resident is completely immobile or that the resident meets other criteria related to the resident's health or lack of potential risk which may be established by Departmental rule. A waiver issued pursuant to this Section shall be valid only while the resident is immobile or while the criteria supporting the waiver exist. The facility shall provide for or arrange for any required fingerprint-based checks. If a fingerprint-based check is required, the facility shall arrange for it to be conducted in a manner that is respectful of the resident's dignity and that minimizes any emotional or physical hardship to the resident.

(c) If the results of a resident's criminal history background check reveal that the resident is an identified offender as defined in Section 1-114.01 of this Act, the facility shall do the following:

(1) Immediately notify the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, in collaboration with the Department of Public Health, that the resident is an identified offender.

(2) Within 72 hours, arrange for a fingerprint-based criminal history record inquiry to be requested on the identified offender resident. The inquiry shall be based on the subject's name, sex, race, date of birth, fingerprint images, and other identifiers required by the Department of State Police. The inquiry shall be processed through the files of the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to locate any criminal history record information that may exist regarding the subject. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish to the Department of State Police, pursuant to an inquiry under this paragraph (2), any criminal history record information contained in its files. The facility shall comply with all applicable provisions contained in the Uniform Conviction Information Act. All name-based and fingerprint-based criminal history record inquiries shall be submitted to the Department of State Police electronically in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The Department of State Police may charge the facility a fee for processing name-based and fingerprint-based criminal history record inquiries. The fee shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The fee shall not exceed the actual cost of processing the inquiry.

(d) The Department shall develop and maintain a de-identified database of residents who have injured facility staff, facility visitors, or other residents, and the attendant circumstances, solely for the purposes of evaluating and improving resident pre-screening and assessment procedures (including the Criminal History Report prepared under Section 2-201.6 of this Act) and the adequacy of Department requirements concerning the provision of care and services to residents. A resident shall not be listed in the database until a Department survey confirms the accuracy of the listing. The names of persons listed in the database and information that would allow them to be individually identified shall not be made public. Neither the Department nor any other agency of State government may use information in the database to take any action against any individual, licensee, or other entity unless the Department or agency receives the information independent of this subsection (d). All information collected, maintained, or developed under the authority of this subsection (d) for the purposes of the database maintained under this subsection (d) shall be treated in the same manner as information that is subject to Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Section 2-201.6. Criminal History Report.

(a) The Department of State Police shall prepare a Criminal History Report when it receives information, through the criminal history background check required pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 2-201.5 or through any other means, that a resident of a facility is an identified offender.

(b) The Department of State Police shall complete the Criminal History Report within 10 business days after receiving any information described under subsection (a) of this Act that a resident is an identified offender.

(c) The Criminal History Report shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

(1) Copies of the identified offender's parole, mandatory supervised release, or probation orders.

(2) An interview with the identified offender.

(3) A detailed summary of the entire criminal history of the offender, including arrests, convictions, and the date of the identified offender's last conviction relative to the date of admission to a facility.

(4) If the identified offender is a convicted or registered sex offender, then a review of any and all sex offender evaluations conducted on that offender. If there is no sex offender evaluation available, then the Department of State Police shall arrange, through the Department of Public Health, for a sex offender evaluation to be conducted on the identified offender. If the convicted or registered sex offender is under supervision by the Illinois Department of Corrections or a county probation department, then the sex offender evaluation shall be arranged by and at the expense of the supervising agency. All evaluations conducted on convicted or registered sex offenders under this Act shall be conducted by sex offender evaluators approved by the Sex Offender Management Board.

(d) The Department of State Police shall provide the Criminal History Report to a licensed forensic psychologist. The licensed forensic psychologist shall prepare an Identified Offender Report and Recommendation after (i) consideration of the Criminal History Report, (ii) consultation with the facility administrator or the facility medical director, or both, regarding the mental and physical condition of the identified offender, and (iii) reviewing the facility's file on the identified offender, including all incident reports, all information regarding medication and medication compliance, and all information regarding previous discharges or transfers from other facilities. The Identified Offender Report and Recommendation shall detail whether and to what extent the identified offender's criminal history necessitates the implementation of security measures within the facility. If the identified offender is a convicted or registered sex offender, or if the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation reveals that the identified offender poses a significant risk of harm to others within the facility, then the offender shall be required to have his or her own room within the facility.

(e) The licensed forensic psychologist shall complete the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation within 14 business days after receiving the Criminal History Report and shall promptly provide the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation to the Department of State Police, which shall provide the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation to the following:

(1) The facility within which the identified offender resides.

(2) The Chief of Police of the municipality in which the facility is located.

(3) The State of Illinois Long Term Care Ombudsman.

(4) The Department of Public Health.

(f) The Department of Public Health shall keep a continuing record of all residents determined to be identified offenders as defined in Section 1-114.01 and shall report the number of identified offender residents annually to the General Assembly.

(g) The facility shall incorporate the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation into the identified offender's individual program plan created pursuant to 42 CFR 483.440(c).

(h) If, based on the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation, a facility determines that it cannot manage the identified offender resident safely within the facility, then it shall commence involuntary transfer or discharge proceedings pursuant to Section 3-402.

(i) Except for willful and wanton misconduct, any person authorized to participate in the development of a Criminal History Report or Identified Offender Report and Recommendation is immune from criminal or civil liability for any acts or omissions as the result of his or her good faith effort to comply with this Section.

Section 2-202. Contract required.

(a) Before a person is admitted to a facility, or at the expiration of the period of previous contract, or when the source of payment for the resident's care changes from private to public funds or from public to private funds, a written contract shall be executed between a licensee and the following in order of priority:

(1) the person, or if the person is a minor, his parent or guardian; or

(2) the person's guardian, if any, or agent, if any, as defined in Section 2-3 of the Illinois Power of Attorney Act; or

(3) a member of the person's immediate family.

An adult person shall be presumed to have the capacity to contract for admission to a facility unless he or she has been adjudicated a "disabled person" within the meaning of Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, or unless a petition for such an adjudication is pending in a circuit court of Illinois.

If there is no guardian, agent or member of the person's immediate family available, able or willing to execute the contract required by this Section and a physician determines that a person is so disabled as to be unable to consent to placement in a facility, or if a person has already been found to be a "disabled person", but no order has been entered allowing residential placement of the person, that person may be admitted to a facility before the execution of a contract required by this Section; provided that a petition for guardianship or for modification of guardianship is filed within 15 days of the person's admission to a facility, and provided further that such a contract is executed within 10 days of the disposition of the petition.

No adult shall be admitted to a facility if he or she objects, orally or in writing, to such admission, except as otherwise provided in Chapters III and IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or Section 11a-14.1 of the Probate Act of 1975.

Before a licensee enters a contract under this Section, it shall provide the prospective resident and his or her guardian, if any, with written notice of the licensee's policy regarding discharge of a resident whose private funds for payment of care are exhausted.

(b) A resident shall not be discharged or transferred at the expiration of the term of a contract, except as provided in Sections 3-401 through 3-423.

(c) At the time of the resident's admission to the facility, a copy of the contract shall be given to the resident, his or her guardian, if any, and any other person who executed the contract.

(d) A copy of the contract for a resident who is supported by nonpublic funds other than the resident's own funds shall be made available to the person providing the funds for the resident's support.

(e) The original or a copy of the contract shall be maintained in the facility and be made available upon request to representatives of the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(f) The contract shall be written in clear and unambiguous language and shall be printed in not less than 12-point type. The general form of the contract shall be prescribed by the Department.

(g) The contract shall specify:

(1) the term of the contract;

(2) the services to be provided under the contract and the charges for the services;

(3) the services that may be provided to supplement the contract and the charges for the services;

(4) the sources liable for payments due under the contract;

(5) the amount of deposit paid; and

(6) the rights, duties and obligations of the resident, except that the specification of a resident's rights may be furnished on a separate document which complies with the requirements of Section 2-211.

(h) The contract shall designate the name of the resident's representative, if any. The resident shall provide the facility with a copy of the written agreement between the resident and the resident's representative which authorizes the resident's representative to inspect and copy the resident's records and authorizes the resident's representative to execute the contract on behalf of the resident required by this Section.

(i) The contract shall provide that if the resident is compelled by a change in physical or mental health to leave the facility, the contract and all obligations under it shall terminate on 7 days' notice. No prior notice of termination of the contract shall be required, however, in the case of a resident's death. The contract shall also provide that in all other situations, a resident may terminate the contract and all obligations under it with 30 days' notice. All charges shall be prorated as of the date on which the contract terminates, and, if any payments have been made in advance, the excess shall be refunded to the resident. This provision shall not apply to life care contracts through which a facility agrees to provide maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his life nor to continuing care contracts through which a facility agrees to supplement all available forms of financial support in providing maintenance and care for a resident throughout the remainder of his or her life.

(j) In addition to all other contract specifications contained in this Section admission contracts shall also specify:

(1) whether the facility accepts Medicaid clients;

(2) whether the facility requires a deposit of the resident or his or her family prior to the establishment of Medicaid eligibility;

(3) in the event that a deposit is required, a clear and concise statement of the procedure to be followed for the return of such deposit to the resident or the appropriate family member or guardian of the person; and

(4) that all deposits made to a facility by a resident, or on behalf of a resident, shall be returned by the facility within 30 days of the establishment of Medicaid eligibility, unless such deposits must be drawn upon or encumbered in accordance with Medicaid eligibility requirements established by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(k) It shall be a business offense for a facility to knowingly and intentionally both retain a resident's deposit and accept Medicaid payments on behalf of that resident.

Section 2-203. Residents' advisory council. Each facility shall establish a residents' advisory council. The administrator shall designate a member of the facility staff to coordinate the establishment of, and render assistance to, the council.

(a) The composition of the residents' advisory council shall be specified by Department regulation, but no employee or affiliate of a facility shall be a member of any council.

(b) The council shall meet at least once each month with the staff coordinator who shall provide assistance to the council in preparing and disseminating a report of each meeting to all residents, the administrator, and the staff.

(c) Records of the council meetings will be maintained in the office of the administrator.

(d) The residents' advisory council may communicate to the administrator the opinions and concerns of the residents. The council shall review procedures for implementing resident rights, facility responsibilities and make recommendations for changes or additions which will strengthen the facility's policies and procedures as they affect residents' rights and facility responsibilities.

(e) The council shall be a forum for:

(1) Obtaining and disseminating information;

(2) Soliciting and adopting recommendations for facility programing and improvements; and

(3) Early identification and for recommending orderly resolution of problems.

(f) The council may present complaints as provided in Section 3-702 on behalf of a resident to the Department, the DD Facility Advisory Board established under Section 2-204 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or to any other person it considers appropriate.

Section 2-205. Disclosure of information to public. The following information is subject to disclosure to the public from the Department or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services:

(1) Information submitted under Sections 3-103 and 3-207 except information concerning the remuneration of personnel licensed, registered, or certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation (as successor to the Department of Professional Regulation) and monthly charges for an individual private resident;

(2) Records of license and certification inspections, surveys, and evaluations of facilities, other reports of inspections, surveys, and evaluations of resident care, whether a facility is designated a distressed facility and the basis for the designation, and reports concerning a facility prepared pursuant to Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act, subject to the provisions of the Social Security Act;

(3) Cost and reimbursement reports submitted by a facility under Section 3-208, reports of audits of facilities, and other public records concerning costs incurred by, revenues received by, and reimbursement of facilities; and

(4) Complaints filed against a facility and complaint investigation reports, except that a complaint or complaint investigation report shall not be disclosed to a person other than the complainant or complainant's representative before it is disclosed to a facility under Section 3-702, and, further, except that a complainant or resident's name shall not be disclosed except under Section 3-702. The Department shall disclose information under this Section in accordance with provisions for inspection and copying of public records required by the Freedom of Information Act. However, the disclosure of information described in subsection (1) shall not be restricted by any provision of the Freedom of Information Act.

Section 2-206. Confidentiality of records.

(a) The Department shall respect the confidentiality of a resident's record and shall not divulge or disclose the contents of a record in a manner which identifies a resident, except upon a resident's death to a relative or guardian, or under judicial proceedings. This Section shall not be construed to limit the right of a resident to inspect or copy the resident's records.

(b) Confidential medical, social, personal, or financial information identifying a resident shall not be available for public inspection in a manner which identifies a resident.

Section 2-207. Directories for public health regions; information concerning facility costs and policies.

(a) Each year the Department shall publish a Directory for each public health region listing facilities to be made available to the public and be available at all Department offices. The Department may charge a fee for the Directory. The Directory shall contain, at a minimum, the following information:

(1) The name and address of the facility;

(2) The number and type of licensed beds;

(3) The name of the cooperating hospital, if any;

(4) The name of the administrator;

(5) The facility telephone number; and

(6) Membership in a provider association and accreditation by any such organization.

(b) Detailed information concerning basic costs for care and operating policies shall be available to the public upon request at each facility. However, a facility may refuse to make available any proprietary operating policies to the extent such facility reasonably believes such policies may be revealed to a competitor.

Section 2-208. Notice of imminent death, unusual incident, abuse, or neglect.

(a) A facility shall immediately notify the identified resident's next of kin, guardian, resident's representative, and physician of the resident's death or when the resident's death appears to be imminent. A facility shall immediately notify the Department by telephone of a resident's death within 24 hours after the resident's death. The facility shall notify the Department of the death of a facility's resident that does not occur in the facility immediately upon learning of the death. A facility shall promptly notify the coroner or medical examiner of a resident's death in a manner and form to be determined by the Department after consultation with the coroner or medical examiner of the county in which the facility is located. In addition to notice to the Department by telephone, the Department shall require the facility to submit written notification of the death of a resident within 72 hours after the death, including a report of any medication errors or other incidents that occurred within 30 days of the resident's death. A facility's failure to comply with this Section shall constitute a Type "B" violation.

(b) A facility shall immediately notify the resident's next of kin, guardian, or resident representative of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect involving the resident. A facility shall immediately notify the Department by telephone of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect required to be reported pursuant to State law or administrative rule. In addition to notice to the Department by telephone, the Department shall require the facility to submit written notification of any unusual incident, abuse, or neglect within one day after the unusual incident, abuse, or neglect occurring. A facility's failure to comply with this Section shall constitute a Type "B" violation. For purposes of this Section, "unusual incident" means serious injury; unscheduled hospital visit for treatment of serious injury; 9-1-1 calls for emergency services directly relating to a resident threat; or stalking of staff or person served that raises health or safety concerns.

Section 2-209. Number of residents. A facility shall admit only that number of residents for which it is licensed.

Section 2-210. Policies and procedures. A facility shall establish written policies and procedures to implement the responsibilities and rights provided in this Article. The policies shall include the procedure for the investigation and resolution of resident complaints as set forth under Section 3-702. The policies and procedures shall be clear and unambiguous and shall be available for inspection by any person. A summary of the policies and procedures, printed in not less than 12-point type, shall be distributed to each resident and representative.

Section 2-211. Explanation of rights. Each resident and resident's guardian or other person acting for the resident shall be given a written explanation, prepared by the Office of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman, of all the rights enumerated in Part 1 of this Article and in Part 4 of Article III. For residents of facilities participating in Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act, the explanation shall include an explanation of residents' rights enumerated in that Act. The explanation shall be given at the time of admission to a facility or as soon thereafter as the condition of the resident permits, but in no event later than 48 hours after admission, and again at least annually thereafter. At the time of the implementation of this Act each resident shall be given a written summary of all the rights enumerated in Part 1 of this Article.

If a resident is unable to read such written explanation, it shall be read to the resident in a language the resident understands. In the case of a minor or a person having a guardian or other person acting for him or her, both the resident and the parent, guardian or other person acting for the resident shall be fully informed of these rights.

Section 2-212. Staff familiarity with rights and responsibilities. The facility shall ensure that its staff is familiar with and observes the rights and responsibilities enumerated in this Article.

Section 2-213. Vaccinations.

(a) A facility shall annually administer or arrange for administration of a vaccination against influenza to each resident, in accordance with the recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention that are most recent to the time of vaccination, unless the vaccination is medically contraindicated or the resident has refused the vaccine. Influenza vaccinations for all residents age 65 and over shall be completed by November 30 of each year or as soon as practicable if vaccine supplies are not available before November 1. Residents admitted after November 30, during the flu season, and until February 1 shall, as medically appropriate, receive an influenza vaccination prior to or upon admission or as soon as practicable if vaccine supplies are not available at the time of the admission, unless the vaccine is medically contraindicated or the resident has refused the vaccine. In the event that the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention determines that dates of administration other than those stated in this Act are optimal to protect the health of residents, the Department is authorized to develop rules to mandate vaccinations at those times rather than the times stated in this Act. A facility shall document in the resident's medical record that an annual vaccination against influenza was administered, arranged, refused or medically contraindicated.

(b) A facility shall administer or arrange for administration of a pneumococcal vaccination to each resident, in accordance with the recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, who has not received this immunization prior to or upon admission to the facility, unless the resident refuses the offer for vaccination or the vaccination is medically contraindicated. A facility shall document in each resident's medical record that a vaccination against pneumococcal pneumonia was offered and administered, arranged, refused, or medically contraindicated.

Section 2-214. Consumer Choice Information Reports.

(a) Every facility shall complete a Consumer Choice Information Report and shall file it with the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman electronically as prescribed by the Office. The Report shall be filed annually and upon request of the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman. The Consumer Choice Information Report must be completed by the facility in full.

(b) A violation of any of the provisions of this Section constitutes an unlawful practice under the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act. All remedies, penalties, and authority granted to the Attorney General by the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act shall be available to him or her for the enforcement of this Section.

(c) The Department of Public Health shall include verification of the submission of a facility's current Consumer Choice Information Report when conducting an inspection pursuant to Section 3-212.

Section 2-216. Notification of identified offenders. If identified offenders are residents of the licensed facility, the licensed facility shall notify every resident or resident's guardian in writing that such offenders are residents of the licensed facility. The licensed facility shall also provide notice to its employees and to visitors to the facility that identified offenders are residents.

Section 2-217. Notification of violations. When the Department issues any notice pursuant to Section 3-119, 3-119.1, 3-301, 3-303, 3-307, or 3-702 of this Act or a notice of federal Medicaid certification deficiencies, the facility shall provide notification of the violations and deficiencies within 10 days after receiving a notice described within this Section to every resident and the resident's representative or guardian identified or referred to anywhere within the Department notice or the CMS 2567 as having received care or services that violated State or federal standards. The notification shall include a Department-prescribed notification letter as determined by rule and a copy of the notice and CMS 2567, if any, issued by the Department. A facility's failure to provide notification pursuant to this Section to a resident and the resident's representative or guardian, if any, shall constitute a Type "B" violation.

Section 2-218. Minimum staffing. Facility staffing shall be based on all the needs of the residents and comply with Department rules as set forth under Section 3-202 of this Act. Facilities shall provide each resident, regardless of age, no less than 4.0 hours of nursing and personal care time each day. The Department shall establish by rule the amount of registered or other licensed nurse and professional care time from the total 4.0 nursing and personal care time that shall be provided each day. A facility's failure to comply with this Section shall constitute a Type "B" violation.

ARTICLE III. LICENSING, ENFORCEMENT, VIOLATIONS, PENALTIES,

AND REMEDIES

PART 1. LICENSING

Section 3-101. Licensure system. The Department shall establish a comprehensive system of licensure for facilities in accordance with this Act for the purposes of:

(1) Protecting the health, welfare, and safety of residents; and

(2) Assuring the accountability for reimbursed care provided in certified facilities participating in a federal or State health program.

Section 3-102. Necessity of license. No person may establish, operate, maintain, offer or advertise a facility within this State unless and until he or she obtains a valid license therefore as hereinafter provided, which license remains unsuspended, unrevoked and unexpired. No public official or employee may place any person in, or recommend that any person be placed in, or directly or indirectly cause any person to be placed in any facility which is being operated without a valid license.

Section 3-102.1. Denial of Department access to facility. If the Department is denied access to a facility or any other place which it reasonably believes is required to be licensed as a facility under this Act, it shall request intervention of local, county or State law enforcement agencies to seek an appropriate court order or warrant to examine or interview the residents of such facility. Any person or entity preventing the Department from carrying out its duties under this Section shall be guilty of a violation of this Act and shall be subject to such penalties related thereto.

Section 3-103. Application for license; financial statement. The procedure for obtaining a valid license shall be as follows:

(1) Application to operate a facility shall be made to the Department on forms furnished by the Department.

(2) All license applications shall be accompanied with an application fee. The fee for an annual license shall be $995. Facilities that pay a fee or assessment pursuant to Article V-C of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall be exempt from the license fee imposed under this item (2). The fee for a 2-year license shall be double the fee for the annual license set forth in the preceding sentence. The fees collected shall be deposited with the State Treasurer into the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund, which has been created as a special fund in the State treasury. This special fund is to be used by the Department for expenses related to the appointment of monitors and receivers as contained in Sections 3-501 through 3-517. At the end of each fiscal year, any funds in excess of $1,000,000 held in the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund shall be deposited in the State's General Revenue Fund. The application shall be under oath and the submission of false or misleading information shall be a Class A misdemeanor. The application shall contain the following information:

(a) The name and address of the applicant if an individual, and if a firm, partnership, or association, of every member thereof, and in the case of a corporation, the name and address thereof and of its officers and its registered agent, and in the case of a unit of local government, the name and address of its chief executive officer;

(b) The name and location of the facility for which a license is sought;

(c) The name of the person or persons under whose management or supervision the facility will be conducted;

(d) The number and type of residents for which maintenance, personal care, or nursing is to be provided; and

(e) Such information relating to the number, experience, and training of the employees of the facility, any management agreements for the operation of the facility, and of the moral character of the applicant and employees as the Department may deem necessary.

(3) Each initial application shall be accompanied by a financial statement setting forth the financial condition of the applicant and by a statement from the unit of local government having zoning jurisdiction over the facility's location stating that the location of the facility is not in violation of a zoning ordinance. An initial application for a new facility shall be accompanied by a permit as required by the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act. After the application is approved, the applicant shall advise the Department every 6 months of any changes in the information originally provided in the application.

(4) Other information necessary to determine the identity and qualifications of an applicant to operate a facility in accordance with this Act shall be included in the application as required by the Department in regulations.

Section 3-104. Licensing and regulation by municipality. Any city, village or incorporated town may by ordinance provide for the licensing and regulation of a facility or any classification of such facility, as defined herein, within such municipality, provided that the ordinance requires compliance with at least the minimum requirements established by the Department under this Act. The licensing and enforcement provisions of the municipality shall fully comply with this Act, and the municipality shall make available information as required by this Act. Such compliance shall be determined by the Department subject to review as provided in Section 3-703. Section 3-703 shall also be applicable to the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the municipality under this Act.

Section 3-105. Reports by municipality. Any city, village or incorporated town which has or may have ordinances requiring the licensing and regulation of facilities with at least the minimum standards established by the Department under this Act, shall make such periodic reports to the Department as the Department deems necessary. This report shall include a list of those facilities licensed by such municipality, the number of beds of each facility and the date the license of each facility is effective.

Section 3-106. Issuance of license to holder of municipal license.

(a) Upon receipt of notice and proof from an applicant or licensee that he has received a license or renewal thereof from a city, village or incorporated town, accompanied by the required license or renewal fees, the Department shall issue a license or renewal license to such person. The Department shall not issue a license hereunder to any person who has failed to qualify for a municipal license. If the issuance of a license by the Department antedates regulatory action by a municipality, the municipality shall issue a local license unless the standards and requirements under its ordinance or resolution are greater than those prescribed under this Act.

(b) In the event that the standards and requirements under the ordinance or resolution of the municipality are greater than those prescribed under this Act, the license issued by the Department shall remain in effect pending reasonable opportunity provided by the municipality, which shall be not less than 60 days, for the licensee to comply with the local requirements. Upon notice by the municipality, or upon the Department's own determination that the licensee has failed to qualify for a local license, the Department shall revoke such license.

Section 3-107. Inspection; fees. The Department and the city, village or incorporated town shall have the right at any time to visit and inspect the premises and personnel of any facility for the purpose of determining whether the applicant or licensee is in compliance with this Act or with the local ordinances which govern the regulation of the facility. The Department may survey any former facility which once held a license to ensure that the facility is not again operating without a license. Municipalities may charge a reasonable license or renewal fee for the regulation of facilities, which fees shall be in addition to the fees paid to the Department.

Section 3-107.1. Access by law enforcement officials and agencies. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, the Attorney General, the State's Attorneys and various law enforcement agencies of this State and its political subdivisions shall have full and open access to any facility pursuant to Article 108 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 in the exercise of their investigatory and prosecutorial powers in the enforcement of the criminal laws of this State. Furthermore, the Attorney General, the State's Attorneys and law enforcement agencies of this State shall inform the Department of any violations of this Act of which they have knowledge. Disclosure of matters before a grand jury shall be made in accordance with Section 112-6 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

Section 3-108. Cooperation with State agencies. The Department shall coordinate the functions within State government affecting facilities licensed under this Act and shall cooperate with other State agencies which establish standards or requirements for facilities to assure necessary, equitable, and consistent State supervision of licensees without unnecessary duplication of survey, evaluation, and consultation services or complaint investigations. The Department shall cooperate with the Department of Human Services in regard to facilities containing more than 20% of residents for whom the Department of Human Services has mandated follow up responsibilities under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act. The Department shall cooperate with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in regard to facilities where recipients of public aid are residents. The Department shall immediately refer to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation (as successor to the Department of Professional Regulation) for investigation any credible evidence of which it has knowledge that an individual licensed by that Department has violated this Act or any rule issued under this Act. The Department shall enter into agreements with other State Departments, agencies or commissions to effectuate the purpose of this Section.

Section 3-109. Issuance of license based on Director's findings. Upon receipt and review of an application for a license made under this Article and inspection of the applicant facility under this Article, the Director shall issue a license if he or she finds:

(1) That the individual applicant, or the corporation, partnership or other entity if the applicant is not an individual, is a person responsible and suitable to operate or to direct or participate in the operation of a facility by virtue of financial capacity, appropriate business or professional experience, a record of compliance with lawful orders of the Department and lack of revocation of a license during the previous 5 years and is not the owner of a facility designated pursuant to Section 3-304.2 as a distressed facility;

(2) That the facility is under the supervision of an administrator who is licensed, if required, under the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, as now or hereafter amended; and

(3) That the facility is in substantial compliance with this Act, and such other requirements for a license as the Department by rule may establish under this Act.

Section 3-110. Contents and period of license.

(a) Any license granted by the Director shall state the maximum bed capacity for which it is granted, the date the license was issued, and the expiration date. Except as provided in subsection (b), such licenses shall normally be issued for a period of one year. However, the Director may issue licenses or renewals for periods of not less than 6 months nor more than 18 months for facilities with annual licenses and not less than 18 months nor more than 30 months for facilities with 2-year licenses in order to distribute the expiration dates of such licenses throughout the calendar year, and fees for such licenses shall be prorated on the basis of the portion of a year for which they are issued. Each license shall be issued only for the premises and persons named in the application and shall not be transferable or assignable.

The Department shall require the licensee to comply with the requirements of a court order issued under Section 3-515, as a condition of licensing.

(b) A license for a period of 2 years shall be issued to a facility if the facility:

(1) has not received a Type "AA" violation within the last 12 months;

(1.5) has not received a Type "A" violation within the last 24 months;

(2) has not received a Type "B" violation within the last 24 months;

(3) has not had an inspection, survey, or evaluation that resulted in the issuance of 10 or more administrative warnings in the last 24 months;

(4) has not had an inspection, survey, or evaluation that resulted in an administrative warning issued for a violation of Sections 3-401 through 3-413 in the last 24 months;

(5) has not been issued an order to reimburse a resident for a violation of Article II under subsection (6) of Section 3-305 in the last 24 months; and

(6) has not been subject to sanctions or decertification for violations in relation to patient care of a facility under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act within the last 24 months.

If a facility with a 2-year license fails to meet the conditions in items (1) through (6) of this subsection, in addition to any other sanctions that may be applied by the Department under this Act, the facility's 2-year license shall be replaced by a one year license until such time as the facility again meets the conditions in items (1) through (6) of this subsection.

Section 3-111. Issuance or renewal of license after notice of violation. The issuance or renewal of a license after notice of a violation has been sent shall not constitute a waiver by the Department of its power to rely on the violation as the basis for subsequent license revocation or other enforcement action under this Act arising out of the notice of violation.

Section 3-112. Transfer of ownership; license.

(a) Whenever ownership of a facility is transferred from the person named in the license to any other person, the transferee must obtain a new probationary license. The transferee shall notify the Department of the transfer and apply for a new license at least 30 days prior to final transfer. The Department may not approve the transfer of ownership to an owner of a facility designated pursuant to Section 3-304.2 of this Act as a distressed facility.

(b) The transferor shall notify the Department at least 30 days prior to final transfer. The transferor shall remain responsible for the operation of the facility until such time as a license is issued to the transferee.

Section 3-113. Transferee; conditional license. The license granted to the transferee shall be subject to the plan of correction submitted by the previous owner and approved by the Department and any conditions contained in a conditional license issued to the previous owner. If there are outstanding violations and no approved plan of correction has been implemented, the Department may issue a conditional license and plan of correction as provided in Sections 3-311 through 3-317.

Section 3-114. Transferor liable for penalties. The transferor shall remain liable for all penalties assessed against the facility which are imposed for violations occurring prior to transfer of ownership.

Section 3-115. License renewal application. At least 120 days but not more than 150 days prior to license expiration, the licensee shall submit an application for renewal of the license in such form and containing such information as the Department requires. If the application is approved, the license shall be renewed in accordance with Section 3-110. The renewal application for a facility shall not be approved unless the applicant has provided to the Department an accurate disclosure document in accordance with the Alzheimer's Disease and Related Dementias Special Care Disclosure Act. If application for renewal is not timely filed, the Department shall so inform the licensee.

Section 3-116. Probationary license. If the applicant has not been previously licensed or if the facility is not in operation at the time application is made, the Department shall issue only a probationary license. A probationary license shall be valid for 120 days unless sooner suspended or revoked under Section 3-119. Within 30 days prior to the termination of a probationary license, the Department shall fully and completely inspect the facility and, if the facility meets the applicable requirements for licensure, shall issue a license under Section 3-109. If the Department finds that the facility does not meet the requirements for licensure but has made substantial progress toward meeting those requirements, the license may be renewed once for a period not to exceed 120 days from the expiration date of the initial probationary license.

Section 3-117. Denial of license; grounds. An application for a license may be denied for any of the following reasons:

(1) Failure to meet any of the minimum standards set forth by this Act or by rules and regulations promulgated by the Department under this Act.

(2) Conviction of the applicant, or if the applicant is a firm, partnership or association, of any of its members, or if a corporation, the conviction of the corporation or any of its officers or stockholders, or of the person designated to manage or supervise the facility, of a felony, or of 2 or more misdemeanors involving moral turpitude, during the previous 5 years as shown by a certified copy of the record of the court of conviction.

(3) Personnel insufficient in number or unqualified by training or experience to properly care for the proposed number and type of residents.

(4) Insufficient financial or other resources to operate and conduct the facility in accordance with standards promulgated by the Department under this Act.

(5) Revocation of a facility license during the previous 5 years, if such prior license was issued to the individual applicant, a controlling owner or controlling combination of owners of the applicant; or any affiliate of the individual applicant or controlling owner of the applicant and such individual applicant, controlling owner of the applicant or affiliate of the applicant was a controlling owner of the prior license; provided, however, that the denial of an application for a license pursuant to this subsection must be supported by evidence that such prior revocation renders the applicant unqualified or incapable of meeting or maintaining a facility in accordance with the standards and rules promulgated by the Department under this Act.

(6) That the facility is not under the direct supervision of a full time administrator, as defined by regulation, who is licensed, if required, under the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

(7) That the facility is in receivership and the proposed licensee has not submitted a specific detailed plan to bring the facility into compliance with the requirements of this Act and with federal certification requirements, if the facility is certified, and to keep the facility in such compliance.

(8) The applicant is the owner of a facility designated pursuant to Section 3-304.2 of this Act as a distressed facility.

Section 3-118. Notice of denial; request for hearing. Immediately upon the denial of any application or reapplication for a license under this Article, the Department shall notify the applicant in writing. Notice of denial shall include a clear and concise statement of the violations of Section 3-117 on which denial is based and notice of the opportunity for a hearing under Section 3-703. If the applicant desires to contest the denial of a license, it shall provide written notice to the Department of a request for a hearing within 10 days after receipt of the notice of denial. The Department shall commence the hearing under Section 3-703.

Section 3-119. Suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew license.

(a) The Department, after notice to the applicant or licensee, may suspend, revoke or refuse to renew a license in any case in which the Department finds any of the following:

(1) There has been a substantial failure to comply with this Act or the rules and regulations promulgated by the Department under this Act. A substantial failure by a facility shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following:

(A) termination of Medicare or Medicaid certification by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services; or

(B) a failure by the facility to pay any fine assessed under this Act after the Department has sent to the facility and licensee at least 2 notices of assessment that include a schedule of payments as determined by the Department, taking into account extenuating circumstances and financial hardships of the facility.

(2) Conviction of the licensee, or of the person designated to manage or supervise the facility, of a felony, or of 2 or more misdemeanors involving moral turpitude, during the previous 5 years as shown by a certified copy of the record of the court of conviction.

(3) Personnel is insufficient in number or unqualified by training or experience to properly care for the number and type of residents served by the facility.

(4) Financial or other resources are insufficient to conduct and operate the facility in accordance with standards promulgated by the Department under this Act.

(5) The facility is not under the direct supervision of a full time administrator, as defined by regulation, who is licensed, if required, under the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

(6) The facility has committed 2 Type "AA" violations within a 2-year period.

(7) The facility has committed a Type "AA" violation while the facility is listed as a "distressed facility".

(b) Notice under this Section shall include a clear and concise statement of the violations on which the nonrenewal or revocation is based, the statute or rule violated and notice of the opportunity for a hearing under Section 3-703.

(c) If a facility desires to contest the nonrenewal or revocation of a license, the facility shall, within 10 days after receipt of notice under subsection (b) of this Section, notify the Department in writing of its request for a hearing under Section 3-703. Upon receipt of the request the Department shall send notice to the facility and hold a hearing as provided under Section 3-703.

(d) The effective date of nonrenewal or revocation of a license by the Department shall be any of the following:

(1) Until otherwise ordered by the circuit court, revocation is effective on the date set by the Department in the notice of revocation, or upon final action after hearing under Section 3-703, whichever is later.

(2) Until otherwise ordered by the circuit court, nonrenewal is effective on the date of expiration of any existing license, or upon final action after hearing under Section 3-703, whichever is later; however, a license shall not be deemed to have expired if the Department fails to timely respond to a timely request for renewal under this Act or for a hearing to contest nonrenewal under paragraph (c).

(3) The Department may extend the effective date of license revocation or expiration in any case in order to permit orderly removal and relocation of residents.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

Section 3-119.1. Ban on new admissions.

(a) Upon a finding by the Department that there has been a substantial failure to comply with this Act or the rules and regulations promulgated by the Department under this Act, including, without limitation, the circumstances set forth in subsection (a) of Section 3-119 of this Act, or if the Department otherwise finds that it would be in the public interest or the interest of the health, safety, and welfare of facility residents, the Department may impose a ban on new admissions to any facility licensed under this Act. The ban shall continue until such time as the Department determines that the circumstances giving rise to the ban no longer exist.

(b) The Department shall provide notice to the facility and licensee of any ban imposed pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section. The notice shall provide a clear and concise statement of the circumstances on which the ban on new admissions is based and notice of the opportunity for a hearing. If the Department finds that the public interest or the health, safety, or welfare of facility residents imperatively requires immediate action and if the Department incorporates a finding to that effect in its notice, then the ban on new admissions may be ordered pending any hearing requested by the facility. Those proceedings shall be promptly instituted and determined. The Department shall promulgate rules defining the circumstances under which a ban on new admissions may be imposed.

PART 2. GENERAL PROVISIONS

Section 3-201. Medical treatment; no prescription by Department. The Department shall not prescribe the course of medical treatment provided to an individual resident by the resident's physician in a facility.

Section 3-202. Standards for facilities. The Department shall prescribe minimum standards for facilities. These standards shall regulate:

(1) Location and construction of the facility, including plumbing, heating, lighting, ventilation, and other physical conditions which shall ensure the health, safety, and comfort of residents and their protection from fire hazard;

(2) To the extent this Act has not established minimum staffing requirements within this Act, the numbers and qualifications of all personnel, including management and nursing personnel, having responsibility for any part of the care given to residents; specifically, the Department shall establish staffing ratios for facilities which shall specify the number of staff hours per resident of care that are needed for professional nursing care for various types of facilities or areas within facilities;

(3) All sanitary conditions within the facility and its surroundings, including water supply, sewage disposal, food handling, and general hygiene, which shall ensure the health and comfort of residents;

(4) Diet related to the needs of each resident based on good nutritional practice and on recommendations which may be made by the physicians attending the resident;

(5) Equipment essential to the health and welfare of the residents;

(6) A program of habilitation and rehabilitation for those residents who would benefit from such programs;

(7) A program for adequate maintenance of physical plant and equipment;

(8) Adequate accommodations, staff and services for the number and types of residents for whom the facility is licensed to care, including standards for temperature and relative humidity within comfort zones determined by the Department based upon a combination of air temperature, relative humidity and air movement. Such standards shall also require facility plans that provide for health and comfort of residents at medical risk as determined by the attending physician whenever the temperature and relative humidity are outside such comfort zones established by the Department. The standards must include a requirement that areas of a facility used by residents of the facility be air-conditioned and heated by means of operable air-conditioning and heating equipment. The areas subject to this air-conditioning and heating requirement include, without limitation, bedrooms or common areas such as sitting rooms, activity rooms, living rooms, community rooms, and dining rooms;

(9) Development of evacuation and other appropriate safety plans for use during weather, health, fire, physical plant, environmental and national defense emergencies; and

(10) Maintenance of minimum financial or other resources necessary to meet the standards established under this Section, and to operate and conduct the facility in accordance with this Act.

Section 3-202.1. Weather or hazard alert system. The Department shall develop and implement a system of alerting and educating facilities and their personnel as to the existence or possibility of weather or other hazardous circumstances which may endanger resident health or safety and designating any precautions to prevent or minimize such danger. The Department may assist any facility experiencing difficulty in dealing with such emergencies. The Department may provide for announcement to the public of the dangers posed to facility residents by such existing or potential weather or hazardous circumstances.

Section 3-202.2a. Comprehensive resident care plan. A facility, with the participation of the resident and the resident's guardian or resident's representative, as applicable, must develop and implement a comprehensive care plan for each resident that includes measurable objectives and timetables to meet the resident's medical, nursing, mental health, psychosocial, and habilitation needs that are identified in the resident's comprehensive assessment that allows the resident to attain or maintain the highest practicable level of independent functioning and provide for discharge planning to the least restrictive setting based on the resident's care needs. The assessment shall be developed with the active participation of the resident and the resident's guardian or resident's representative, as applicable.

Section 3-202.3. Identified offenders as residents. No later than 30 days after the effective date of this Act, the Department shall file with the Illinois Secretary of State's Office, pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, emergency rules regarding the provision of services to identified offenders. The emergency rules shall provide for, or include, but not be limited to the following:

(1) A process for the identification of identified offenders.

(2) A required risk assessment of identified offenders.

(3) A requirement that a licensed facility be required, within 10 days of the filing of the emergency rules, to compare its residents against the Illinois Department of Corrections and Illinois State Police registered sex offender databases.

(4) A requirement that the licensed facility notify the Department within 48 hours of determining that a resident or residents of the licensed facility are listed on the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois State Police registered sex offender databases.

(5) The care planning of identified offenders, which shall include, but not be limited to, a description of the security measures necessary to protect facility residents from the identified offender, including whether the identified offender should be segregated from other facility residents.

(6) For offenders serving terms of probation for felony offenses, parole, or mandatory supervised release, the facility shall acknowledge the terms of release as imposed by the court or Illinois Prisoner Review Board.

(7) The discharge planning for identified offenders.

Section 3-202.4. Feasibility of segregating identified offenders. The Department shall determine the feasibility of requiring identified offenders that seek admission to a licensed facility to be segregated from other residents.

Section 3-202.5. Facility plan review; fees.

(a) Before commencing construction of a new facility or specified types of alteration or additions to an existing facility involving major construction, as defined by rule by the Department, with an estimated cost greater than $100,000, architectural drawings and specifications for the facility shall be submitted to the Department for review and approval. A facility may submit architectural drawings and specifications for other construction projects for Department review according to subsection (b) that shall not be subject to fees under subsection (d). Review of drawings and specifications shall be conducted by an employee of the Department meeting the qualifications established by the Department of Central Management Services class specifications for such an individual's position or by a person contracting with the Department who meets those class specifications. Final approval of the drawings and specifications for compliance with design and construction standards shall be obtained from the Department before the alteration, addition, or new construction is begun.

(b) The Department shall inform an applicant in writing within 10 working days after receiving drawings and specifications and the required fee, if any, from the applicant whether the applicant's submission is complete or incomplete. Failure to provide the applicant with this notice within 10 working days shall result in the submission being deemed complete for purposes of initiating the 60 day review period under this Section. If the submission is incomplete, the Department shall inform the applicant of the deficiencies with the submission in writing. If the submission is complete the required fee, if any, has been paid, the Department shall approve or disapprove drawings and specifications submitted to the Department no later than 60 days following receipt by the Department. The drawings and specifications shall be of sufficient detail, as provided by Department rule, to enable the Department to render a determination of compliance with design and construction standards under this Act. If the Department finds that the drawings are not of sufficient detail for it to render a determination of compliance, the plans shall be determined to be incomplete and shall not be considered for purposes of initiating the 60 day review period. If a submission of drawings and specifications is incomplete, the applicant may submit additional information. The 60 day review period shall not commence until the Department determines that a submission of drawings and specifications is complete or the submission is deemed complete. If the Department has not approved or disapproved the drawings and specifications within 60 days, the construction, major alteration, or addition shall be deemed approved. If the drawings and specifications are disapproved, the Department shall state in writing, with specificity, the reasons for the disapproval. The entity submitting the drawings and specifications may submit additional information in response to the written comments from the Department or request a reconsideration of the disapproval. A final decision of approval or disapproval shall be made within 45 days of the receipt of the additional information or reconsideration request. If denied, the Department shall state the specific reasons for the denial.

(c) The Department shall provide written approval for occupancy pursuant to subsection (g) and shall not issue a violation to a facility as a result of a licensure or complaint survey based upon the facility's physical structure if:

(1) the Department reviewed and approved or deemed approved the drawings and specifications for compliance with design and construction standards;

(2) the construction, major alteration, or addition was built as submitted;

(3) the law or rules have not been amended since the original approval; and

(4) the conditions at the facility indicate that there is a reasonable degree of safety provided for the residents.

(d) (Blank).

(e) All fees received by the Department under this Section shall be deposited into the Health Facility Plan Review Fund, a special fund created in the State Treasury. Moneys shall be appropriated from that Fund to the Department only to pay the costs of conducting reviews under this Section, under Section 3-202.5 of the Nursing Home Care Act, or under Section 3-202.5 of the ID/DD Community Care Act. None of the moneys in the Health Facility Plan Review Fund shall be used to reduce the amount of General Revenue Fund moneys appropriated to the Department for facility plan reviews conducted pursuant to this Section.

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall conduct an on site inspection of the completed project no later than 30 days after notification from the applicant that the project has been completed and all certifications required by the Department have been received and accepted by the Department. The Department shall provide written approval for occupancy to the applicant within 5 working days of the Department's final inspection, provided the applicant has demonstrated substantial compliance as defined by Department rule. Occupancy of new major construction is prohibited until Department approval is received, unless the Department has not acted within the time frames provided in this subsection (g), in which case the construction shall be deemed approved. Occupancy shall be authorized after any required health inspection by the Department has been conducted.

(h) The Department shall establish, by rule, a procedure to conduct interim on site review of large or complex construction projects.

(i) The Department shall establish, by rule, an expedited process for emergency repairs or replacement of like equipment.

(j) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to maintenance, upkeep, or renovation that does not affect the structural integrity of the building, does not add beds or services over the number for which the facility is licensed, and provides a reasonable degree of safety for the residents.

Section 3-203. Standards for persons with developmental disability or emotional or behavioral disorder. In licensing any facility for persons with a developmental disability or persons suffering from emotional or behavioral disorders, the Department shall consult with the Department of Human Services in developing minimum standards for such persons.

Section 3-204. License classifications. In addition to the authority to prescribe minimum standards, the Department may adopt license classifications of facilities according to the levels of service, and if license classification is adopted the applicable minimum standards shall define the classification. In adopting classification of the license of facilities, the Department may give recognition to the classification of services defined or prescribed by federal statute or federal rule or regulation. More than one classification of the license may be issued to the same facility when the prescribed minimum standards and regulations are met.

Section 3-205. Municipalities; license classifications. Where licensing responsibilities are performed by a city, village or incorporated town, the municipality shall use the same classifications as the Department; and a facility may not be licensed for a different classification by the Department than by the municipality.

Section 3-206. Curriculum for training nursing assistants and aides. The Department shall prescribe a curriculum for training nursing assistants, habilitation aides, and child care aides.

(a) No person, except a volunteer who receives no compensation from a facility and is not included for the purpose of meeting any staffing requirements set forth by the Department, shall act as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide in a facility, nor shall any person, under any other title, not licensed, certified, or registered to render medical care by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, assist with the personal, medical, or nursing care of residents in a facility, unless such person meets the following requirements:

(1) Be at least 16 years of age, of temperate habits and good moral character, honest, reliable and trustworthy.

(2) Be able to speak and understand the English language or a language understood by a substantial percentage of the facility's residents.

(3) Provide evidence of employment or occupation, if any, and residence for 2 years prior to his or her present employment.

(4) Have completed at least 8 years of grade school or provide proof of equivalent knowledge.

(5) Begin a current course of training for nursing assistants, habilitation aides, or child care aides, approved by the Department, within 45 days of initial employment in the capacity of a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide at any facility. Such courses of training shall be successfully completed within 120 days of initial employment in the capacity of nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide at a facility. Nursing assistants, habilitation aides, and child care aides who are enrolled in approved courses in community colleges or other educational institutions on a term, semester or trimester basis, shall be exempt from the 120-day completion time limit. The Department shall adopt rules for such courses of training. These rules shall include procedures for facilities to carry on an approved course of training within the facility.

The Department may accept comparable training in lieu of the 120-hour course for student nurses, foreign nurses, military personnel, or employees of the Department of Human Services.

The facility shall develop and implement procedures, which shall be approved by the Department, for an ongoing review process, which shall take place within the facility, for nursing assistants, habilitation aides, and child care aides.

At the time of each regularly scheduled licensure survey, or at the time of a complaint investigation, the Department may require any nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide to demonstrate, either through written examination or action, or both, sufficient knowledge in all areas of required training. If such knowledge is inadequate the Department shall require the nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide to complete inservice training and review in the facility until the nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide demonstrates to the Department, either through written examination or action, or both, sufficient knowledge in all areas of required training; and

(6) Be familiar with and have general skills related to resident care.

(a-0.5) An educational entity, other than a secondary school, conducting a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide training program shall initiate a criminal history record check in accordance with the Health Care Worker Background Check Act prior to entry of an individual into the training program. A secondary school may initiate a criminal history record check in accordance with the Health Care Worker Background Check Act at any time during or after a training program.

(a-1) Nursing assistants, habilitation aides, or child care aides seeking to be included on the registry maintained under Section 3-206.01 of this Act must authorize the Department of Public Health or its designee to request a criminal history record check in accordance with the Health Care Worker Background Check Act and submit all necessary information. An individual may not newly be included on the registry unless a criminal history record check has been conducted with respect to the individual.

(b) Persons subject to this Section shall perform their duties under the supervision of a licensed nurse or other appropriately trained, licensed, or certified personnel.

(c) It is unlawful for any facility to employ any person in the capacity of nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide, or under any other title, not licensed by the State of Illinois to assist in the personal, medical, or nursing care of residents in such facility unless such person has complied with this Section.

(d) Proof of compliance by each employee with the requirements set out in this Section shall be maintained for each such employee by each facility in the individual personnel folder of the employee. Proof of training shall be obtained only from the health care worker registry.

(e) Each facility shall obtain access to the health care worker registry's web application, maintain the employment and demographic information relating to each employee, and verify by the category and type of employment that each employee subject to this Section meets all the requirements of this Section.

(f) Any facility that is operated under Section 3-803 shall be exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(g) Each skilled nursing and intermediate care facility that admits persons who are diagnosed as having Alzheimer's disease or related dementias shall require all nursing assistants, habilitation aides, or child care aides, who did not receive 12 hours of training in the care and treatment of such residents during the training required under paragraph (5) of subsection (a), to obtain 12 hours of in house training in the care and treatment of such residents. If the facility does not provide the training in house, the training shall be obtained from other facilities, community colleges or other educational institutions that have a recognized course for such training. The Department shall, by rule, establish a recognized course for such training.

The Department's rules shall provide that such training may be conducted in house at each facility subject to the requirements of this subsection, in which case such training shall be monitored by the Department. The Department's rules shall also provide for circumstances and procedures whereby any person who has received training that meets the requirements of this subsection shall not be required to undergo additional training if he or she is transferred to or obtains employment at a different facility or a facility other than those licensed under this Act but remains continuously employed as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide. Individuals who have performed no nursing, nursing-related services, or habilitation services for a period of 24 consecutive months shall be listed as inactive and as such do not meet the requirements of this Section. Licensed sheltered care facilities shall be exempt from the requirements of this Section.

Section 3-206.01. Health care worker registry.

(a) The Department shall establish and maintain a registry of all individuals who (i) have satisfactorily completed the training required by Section 3-206, (ii) have begun a current course of training as set forth in Section 3-206, or (iii) are otherwise acting as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide. The registry shall include the individual's name, his or her current address, Social Security number, and whether the individual has any of the disqualifying convictions listed in Section 25 of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act from the date and location of the training course completed by the individual, and the date of the individual's last criminal records check. Any individual placed on the registry is required to inform the Department of any change of address within 30 days. A facility shall not employ an individual as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide, or newly hired as an individual who may have access to a resident, a resident's living quarters, or a resident's personal, financial, or medical records, unless the facility has inquired of the Department's health care worker registry as to information in the registry concerning the individual. The facility shall not employ an individual as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide if that individual is not on the registry unless the individual is enrolled in a training program under paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-206 of this Act.

If the Department finds that a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, child care aide, or an unlicensed individual, has abused or neglected a resident or an individual under his or her care, or misappropriated property of a resident or an individual under his or her care in a facility, the Department shall notify the individual of this finding by certified mail sent to the address contained in the registry. The notice shall give the individual an opportunity to contest the finding in a hearing before the Department or to submit a written response to the findings in lieu of requesting a hearing. If, after a hearing or if the individual does not request a hearing, the Department finds that the individual abused a resident, neglected a resident, or misappropriated resident property in a facility, the finding shall be included as part of the registry as well as a clear and accurate summary statement from the individual, if he or she chooses to make such a statement. The Department shall make the following information in the registry available to the public: an individual's full name; the date an individual successfully completed a nurse aide training or competency evaluation; and whether the Department has made a finding that an individual has been guilty of abuse or neglect of a resident or misappropriation of resident's property. In the case of inquiries to the registry concerning an individual listed in the registry, any information disclosed concerning such a finding shall also include disclosure of the individual's statement in the registry relating to the finding or a clear and accurate summary of the statement.

(b) The Department shall add to the health care worker registry records of findings as reported by the Inspector General or remove from the health care worker registry records of findings as reported by the Department of Human Services, under subsection (s) of Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act.

Section 3-206.02. Designation on registry for offense.

(a) The Department, after notice to the nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide, may designate that the Department has found any of the following:

(1) The nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide has abused a resident.

(2) The nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide has neglected a resident.

(3) The nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide has misappropriated resident property.

(4) The nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide has been convicted of (i) a felony, (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or (iii) any crime that is directly related to the duties of a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide.

(b) Notice under this Section shall include a clear and concise statement of the grounds denoting abuse, neglect, or theft and notice of the opportunity for a hearing to contest the designation.

(c) The Department may designate any nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide on the registry who fails (i) to file a return, (ii) to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or (iii) to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until the time the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied.

(c-1) The Department shall document criminal background check results pursuant to the requirements of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

(d) At any time after the designation on the registry pursuant to subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section, a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide may petition the Department for removal of a designation of neglect on the registry. The Department may remove the designation of neglect of the nursing assistant, habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide on the registry unless, after an investigation and a hearing, the Department determines that removal of designation is not in the public interest.

Section 3-206.03. Resident attendants.

(a) As used in this Section, "resident attendant" means an individual who assists residents in a facility with the following activities:

(1) eating and drinking; and

(2) personal hygiene limited to washing a resident's hands and face, brushing and combing a resident's hair, oral hygiene, shaving residents with an electric razor, and applying makeup.

The term "resident attendant" does not include an individual who:

(1) is a licensed health professional or a registered dietitian;

(2) volunteers without monetary compensation;

(3) is a nurse assistant; or

(4) performs any nursing or nursing related services for residents of a facility.

(b) A facility may employ resident attendants to assist the nurse aides with the activities authorized under subsection (a). The resident attendants shall not count in the minimum staffing requirements under rules implementing this Act.

(c) A facility may not use on a full time or other paid basis any individual as a resident attendant in the facility unless the individual:

(1) has completed a training and competency evaluation program encompassing the tasks the individual provides; and

(2) is competent to provide feeding, hydration, and personal hygiene services.

(d) The training and competency evaluation program may be facility based. It may include one or more of the following units:

(1) A feeding unit that is a maximum of 5 hours in length.

(2) A hydration unit that is a maximum of 3 hours in length.

(3) A personal hygiene unit that is a maximum of 5 hours in length. These programs must be reviewed and approved by the Department every 2 years.

(e) (Blank).

(f) A person seeking employment as a resident attendant is subject to the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

Section 3-206.04. Transfer of ownership following suspension or revocation; discussion with new owner. Whenever ownership of a private facility is transferred to another private owner following a final order for a suspension or revocation of the facility's license, the Department shall discuss with the new owner all noted problems associated with the facility and shall determine what additional training, if any, is needed for the direct care staff.

Section 3-206.05. Registry checks for employees.

(a) Within 60 days after the effective date of this Act, the Department shall require all facilities to conduct required registry checks on employees at the time of hire and annually thereafter during employment. The required registries to be checked are the Health Care Worker Registry, the Department of Children and Family Services' State Central Register, and the Illinois Sex Offender Registry. A person may not be employed if he or she is found to have disqualifying convictions or substantiated cases of abuse or neglect. At the time of the annual registry checks, if a current employee's name has been placed on a registry with disqualifying convictions or disqualifying substantiated cases of abuse or neglect, then the employee must be terminated. Disqualifying convictions or disqualifying substantiated cases of abuse or neglect are defined for the Department of Children and Family Services Central Register by the Department of Children and Family Services' standards for background checks in Part 385 of Title 89 of the Illinois Administrative Code. Disqualifying convictions or disqualifying substantiated cases of abuse or neglect are defined for the Health Care Worker Registry by the Health Care Worker Background Check Act and within this Act. A facility's failure to conduct the required registry checks will constitute a Type "B" violation.

(b) In collaboration with the Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services, the Department shall establish a waiver process from the prohibition of employment or termination of employment requirements in subsection (a) of this Section for any applicant or employee listed under the Department of Children and Family Services' State Central Register seeking to be hired or maintain his or her employment with a facility under this Act. The waiver process for applicants and employees outlined under Section 40 of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act shall remain in effect for individuals listed on the Health Care Worker Registry.

Section 3-207. Statement of ownership.

(a) As a condition of the issuance or renewal of the license of any facility, the applicant shall file a statement of ownership. The applicant shall update the information required in the statement of ownership within 10 days of any change.

(b) The statement of ownership shall include the following:

(1) The name, address, telephone number, occupation or business activity, business address and business telephone number of the person who is the owner of the facility and every person who owns the building in which the facility is located, if other than the owner of the facility, which is the subject of the application or license; and if the owner is a partnership or corporation, the name of every partner and stockholder of the owner;

(2) The name and address of any facility, wherever located, any financial interest in which is owned by the applicant, if the facility were required to be licensed if it were located in this State; and

(3) Other information necessary to determine the identity and qualifications of an applicant or licensee to operate a facility in accordance with this Act as required by the Department in regulations.

(c) The information in the statement of ownership shall be public information and shall be available from the Department.

Section 3-208. Annual financial statement.

(a) Each licensee shall file annually, or more often as the Director shall by rule prescribe an attested financial statement. The Director may order an audited financial statement of a particular facility by an auditor of the Director's choice, provided the cost of such audit is paid by the Department.

(b) No public funds shall be expended for the maintenance of any resident in a facility which has failed to file the financial statement required under this Section and no public funds shall be paid to or on behalf of a facility which has failed to file a statement.

(c) The Director of Public Health and the Director of Healthcare and Family Services shall promulgate under Sections 3-801 and 3-802, one set of regulations for the filing of these financial statements, and shall provide in these regulations for forms, required information, intervals and dates of filing and such other provisions as they may deem necessary.

(d) The Director of Public Health and the Director of Healthcare and Family Services shall seek the advice and comments of other State and federal agencies which require the submission of financial data from facilities licensed under this Act and shall incorporate the information requirements of these agencies so as to impose the least possible burden on licensees. No other State agency may require submission of financial data except as expressly authorized by law or as necessary to meet requirements of federal statutes or regulations. Information obtained under this Section shall be made available, upon request, by the Department to any other State agency or legislative commission to which such information is necessary for investigations or required for the purposes of State or federal law or regulation.

Section 3-209. Posting of information. Every facility shall conspicuously post for display in an area of its offices accessible to residents, employees, and visitors the following:

(1) Its current license;

(2) A description, provided by the Department, of complaint procedures established under this Act and the name, address, and telephone number of a person authorized by the Department to receive complaints;

(3) A copy of any order pertaining to the facility issued by the Department or a court; and

(4) A list of the material available for public inspection under Section 3-210.

Section 3-210. Materials for public inspection.

A facility shall retain the following for public inspection:

(1) A complete copy of every inspection report of the facility received from the Department during the past 5 years;

(2) A copy of every order pertaining to the facility issued by the Department or a court during the past 5 years;

(3) A description of the services provided by the facility and the rates charged for those services and items for which a resident may be separately charged;

(4) A copy of the statement of ownership required by Section 3-207;

(5) A record of personnel employed or retained by the facility who are licensed, certified or registered by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation (as successor to the Department of Professional Regulation);

(6) A complete copy of the most recent inspection report of the facility received from the Department; and

(7) A copy of the current Consumer Choice Information Report required by Section 2-214.

Section 3-211. No State or federal funds to unlicensed facility. No State or federal funds which are appropriated by the General Assembly or which pass through the General Revenue Fund or any special fund in the State Treasury shall be paid to a facility not having a license issued under this Act.

Section 3-212. Inspection of facility by Department; report.

(a) The Department, whenever it deems necessary in accordance with subsection (b), shall inspect, survey and evaluate every facility to determine compliance with applicable licensure requirements and standards. Submission of a facility's current Consumer Choice Information Report required by Section 2-214 shall be verified at the time of inspection. An inspection should occur within 120 days prior to license renewal. The Department may periodically visit a facility for the purpose of consultation. An inspection, survey, or evaluation, other than an inspection of financial records, shall be conducted without prior notice to the facility. A visit for the sole purpose of consultation may be announced. The Department shall provide training to surveyors about the appropriate assessment, care planning, and care of persons with mental illness (other than Alzheimer's disease or related disorders) to enable its surveyors to determine whether a facility is complying with State and federal requirements about the assessment, care planning, and care of those persons.

(a-1) An employee of a State or unit of local government agency charged with inspecting, surveying, and evaluating facilities who directly or indirectly gives prior notice of an inspection, survey, or evaluation, other than an inspection of financial records, to a facility or to an employee of a facility is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. An inspector or an employee of the Department who intentionally prenotifies a facility, orally or in writing, of a pending complaint investigation or inspection shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Superiors of persons who have prenotified a facility shall be subject to the same penalties, if they have knowingly allowed the prenotification. A person found guilty of prenotifying a facility shall be subject to disciplinary action by his or her employer. If the Department has a good faith belief, based upon information that comes to its attention, that a violation of this subsection has occurred, it must file a complaint with the Attorney General or the State's Attorney in the county where the violation took place within 30 days after discovery of the information.

(a-2) An employee of a State or unit of local government agency charged with inspecting, surveying, or evaluating facilities who willfully profits from violating the confidentiality of the inspection, survey, or evaluation process shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and that conduct shall be deemed unprofessional conduct that may subject a person to loss of his or her professional license. An action to prosecute a person for violating this subsection (a-2) may be brought by either the Attorney General or the State's Attorney in the county where the violation took place.

(b) In determining whether to make more than the required number of unannounced inspections, surveys and evaluations of a facility the Department shall consider one or more of the following: previous inspection reports; the facility's history of compliance with standards, rules and regulations promulgated under this Act and correction of violations, penalties or other enforcement actions; the number and severity of complaints received about the facility; any allegations of resident abuse or neglect; weather conditions; health emergencies; other reasonable belief that deficiencies exist.

(b-1) The Department shall not be required to determine whether a facility certified to participate in the Medicare program under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, or the Medicaid program under Title XIX of the Social Security Act, and which the Department determines by inspection under this Section or under Section 3-702 of this Act to be in compliance with the certification requirements of Title XVIII or XIX, is in compliance with any requirement of this Act that is less stringent than or duplicates a federal certification requirement. In accordance with subsection (a) of this Section or subsection (d) of Section 3-702, the Department shall determine whether a certified facility is in compliance with requirements of this Act that exceed federal certification requirements. If a certified facility is found to be out of compliance with federal certification requirements, the results of an inspection conducted pursuant to Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act may be used as the basis for enforcement remedies authorized and commenced, with the Department's discretion to evaluate whether penalties are warranted, under this Act. Enforcement of this Act against a certified facility shall be commenced pursuant to the requirements of this Act, unless enforcement remedies sought pursuant to Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act exceed those authorized by this Act. As used in this subsection, "enforcement remedy" means a sanction for violating a federal certification requirement or this Act.

(c) Upon completion of each inspection, survey and evaluation, the appropriate Department personnel who conducted the inspection, survey or evaluation shall submit a copy of their report to the licensee upon exiting the facility, and shall submit the actual report to the appropriate regional office of the Department. Such report and any recommendations for action by the Department under this Act shall be transmitted to the appropriate offices of the associate director of the Department, together with related comments or documentation provided by the licensee which may refute findings in the report, which explain extenuating circumstances that the facility could not reasonably have prevented, or which indicate methods and timetables for correction of deficiencies described in the report. Without affecting the application of subsection (a) of Section 3-303, any documentation or comments of the licensee shall be provided within 10 days of receipt of the copy of the report. Such report shall recommend to the Director appropriate action under this Act with respect to findings against a facility. The Director shall then determine whether the report's findings constitute a violation or violations of which the facility must be given notice. Such determination shall be based upon the severity of the finding, the danger posed to resident health and safety, the comments and documentation provided by the facility, the diligence and efforts to correct deficiencies, correction of the reported deficiencies, the frequency and duration of similar findings in previous reports and the facility's general inspection history. The Department shall determine violations under this subsection no later than 90 days after completion of each inspection, survey and evaluation.

(d) The Department shall maintain all inspection, survey and evaluation reports for at least 5 years in a manner accessible to and understandable by the public.

(e) The Department shall conduct a revisit to its licensure and certification surveys, consistent with federal regulations and guidelines.

Section 3-213. Periodic reports to Department. The Department shall require periodic reports and shall have access to and may reproduce or photocopy at its cost any books, records, and other documents maintained by the facility to the extent necessary to carry out this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act. The Department shall not divulge or disclose the contents of a record under this Section in violation of Section 2-206 or as otherwise prohibited by this Act.

Section 3-214. Consent to Department inspection. Any holder of a license or applicant for a license shall be deemed to have given consent to any authorized officer, employee or agent of the Department to enter and inspect the facility in accordance with this Article. Refusal to permit such entry or inspection shall constitute grounds for denial, nonrenewal or revocation of a license as provided in Section 3-117 or 3-119 of this Act.

Section 3-215. Annual report on facility by Department. The Department shall make at least one report on each facility in the State annually, unless the facility has been issued a 2-year license under subsection (b) of Section 3-110 for which the report shall be made every 2 years. All conditions and practices not in compliance with applicable standards within the report period shall be specifically stated. If a violation is corrected or is subject to an approved plan of correction, the same shall be specified in the report. The Department shall send a copy to any person on receiving a written request. The Department may charge a reasonable fee to cover copying costs.

Section 3-216. Fire inspections; authority.

(a) (Blank).

(b) For facilities licensed under this Act, the Office of the State Fire Marshal shall provide the necessary fire inspection to comply with licensing requirements. The Office of the State Fire Marshal may enter into an agreement with another State agency to conduct this inspection if qualified personnel are employed by that agency. Code enforcement inspection of the facility by the local authority shall only occur if the local authority having jurisdiction enforces code requirements that are more stringent than those enforced by the State Fire Marshal. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a local fire authority from conducting fire incident planning activities.

PART 3. VIOLATIONS AND PENALTIES

Section 3-301. Notice of violation of Act or rules. If after receiving the report specified in subsection (c) of Section 3-212 the Director or his or her designee determines that a facility is in violation of this Act or of any rule promulgated thereunder, the Director or his or her designee shall serve a notice of violation upon the licensee within 10 days thereafter. Each notice of violation shall be prepared in writing and shall specify the nature of the violation, and the statutory provision or rule alleged to have been violated. The notice shall inform the licensee of any action the Department may take under the Act, including the requirement of a facility plan of correction under Section 3-303; placement of the facility on a list prepared under Section 3-304; assessment of a penalty under Section 3-305; a conditional license under Sections 3-311 through 3-317; or license suspension or revocation under Section 3-119. The Director or his or her designee shall also inform the licensee of rights to a hearing under Section 3-703.

Section 3-302. Each day a separate violation. Each day the violation exists after the date upon which a notice of violation is served under Section 3-301 shall constitute a separate violation for purposes of assessing penalties or fines under Section 3-305. The submission of a plan of correction pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 3-303 does not prohibit or preclude the Department from assessing penalties or fines pursuant to Section 3-305 for those violations found to be valid except as provided under Section 3-308 in relation to Type "B" violations. No penalty or fine may be assessed for a condition for which the facility has received a variance or waiver of a standard.

Section 3-303. Correction of violations; hearing.

(a) The situation, condition or practice constituting a Type "AA" violation or a Type "A" violation shall be abated or eliminated immediately unless a fixed period of time, not exceeding 15 days, as determined by the Department and specified in the notice of violation, is required for correction.

(b) At the time of issuance of a notice of a Type "B" violation, the Department shall request a plan of correction which is subject to the Department's approval. The facility shall have 10 days after receipt of notice of violation in which to prepare and submit a plan of correction. The Department may extend this period up to 30 days where correction involves substantial capital improvement. The plan shall include a fixed time period not in excess of 90 days within which violations are to be corrected. If the Department rejects a plan of correction, it shall send notice of the rejection and the reason for the rejection to the facility. The facility shall have 10 days after receipt of the notice of rejection in which to submit a modified plan. If the modified plan is not timely submitted, or if the modified plan is rejected, the facility shall follow an approved plan of correction imposed by the Department.

(c) If the violation has been corrected prior to submission and approval of a plan of correction, the facility may submit a report of correction in place of a plan of correction. Such report shall be signed by the administrator under oath.

(d) Upon a licensee's petition, the Department shall determine whether to grant a licensee's request for an extended correction time. Such petition shall be served on the Department prior to expiration of the correction time originally approved. The burden of proof is on the petitioning facility to show good cause for not being able to comply with the original correction time approved.

(e) If a facility desires to contest any Department action under this Section it shall send a written request for a hearing under Section 3-703 to the Department within 10 days of receipt of notice of the contested action. The Department shall commence the hearing as provided under Section 3-703. Whenever possible, all action of the Department under this Section arising out of a violation shall be contested and determined at a single hearing. Issues decided after a hearing may not be reheard at subsequent hearings under this Section.

Section 3-303.1. Waiver of facility's compliance with rule or standard. Upon application by a facility, the Director may grant or renew the waiver of the facility's compliance with a rule or standard for a period not to exceed the duration of the current license or, in the case of an application for license renewal, the duration of the renewal period. The waiver may be conditioned upon the facility taking action prescribed by the Director as a measure equivalent to compliance. In determining whether to grant or renew a waiver, the Director shall consider the duration and basis for any current waiver with respect to the same rule or standard and the validity and effect upon patient health and safety of extending it on the same basis, the effect upon the health and safety of residents, the quality of resident care, the facility's history of compliance with the rules and standards of this Act and the facility's attempts to comply with the particular rule or standard in question. The Department may provide, by rule, for the automatic renewal of waivers concerning physical plant requirements upon the renewal of a license. The Department shall renew waivers relating to physical plant standards issued pursuant to this Section at the time of the indicated reviews, unless it can show why such waivers should not be extended for the following reasons:

(a) the condition of the physical plant has deteriorated or its use substantially changed so that the basis upon which the waiver was issued is materially different; or

(b) the facility is renovated or substantially remodeled in such a way as to permit compliance with the applicable rules and standards without substantial increase in cost. A copy of each waiver application and each waiver granted or renewed shall be on file with the Department and available for public inspection. The Director shall annually review such file and recommend to the DD Facility Advisory Board established under Section 2-204 of the ID/DD Community Care Act any modification in rules or standards suggested by the number and nature of waivers requested and granted and the difficulties faced in compliance by similarly situated facilities.

Section 3-303.2. Administrative warning.

(a) If the Department finds a situation, condition or practice which violates this Act or any rule promulgated thereunder which does not constitute a Type "AA", Type "A", Type "B", or Type "C" violation, the Department shall issue an administrative warning. Any administrative warning shall be served upon the facility in the same manner as the notice of violation under Section 3-301. The facility shall be responsible for correcting the situation, condition or practice; however, no written plan of correction need be submitted for an administrative warning, except for violations of Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder. A written plan of correction is required to be filed for an administrative warning issued for violations of Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder.

(b) If, however, the situation, condition or practice which resulted in the issuance of an administrative warning, with the exception of administrative warnings issued pursuant to Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder, is not corrected by the next on site inspection by the Department which occurs no earlier than 90 days from the issuance of the administrative warning, a written plan of correction must be submitted in the same manner as provided in subsection (b) of Section 3-303.

Section 3-304. Quarterly list of facilities against which Department has taken action.

(a) The Department shall prepare on a quarterly basis a list containing the names and addresses of all facilities against which the Department during the previous quarter has:

(1) sent a notice under Section 3-307 regarding a penalty assessment under subsection (1) of Section 3-305;

(2) sent a notice of license revocation under Section 3-119;

(3) sent a notice refusing renewal of a license under Section 3-119;

(4) sent a notice to suspend a license under Section 3-119;

(5) issued a conditional license for violations that have not been corrected under Section 3-303 or penalties or fines described under Section 3-305 have been assessed under Section 3-307 or 3-308;

(6) placed a monitor under subsections (a), (b) and (c) of Section 3-501 and under subsection (d) of such Section where license revocation or nonrenewal notices have also been issued;

(7) initiated an action to appoint a receiver;

(8) recommended to the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, or the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, the decertification for violations in relation to patient care of a facility pursuant to Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(b) In addition to the name and address of the facility, the list shall include the name and address of the person or licensee against whom the action has been initiated, a self explanatory summary of the facts which warranted the initiation of each action, the type of action initiated, the date of the initiation of the action, the amount of the penalty sought to be assessed, if any, and the final disposition of the action, if completed.

(c) The list shall be available to any member of the public upon oral or written request without charge.

Section 3-304.1. Public computer access to information.

(a) The Department must make information regarding nursing homes in the State available to the public in electronic form on the World Wide Web, including all of the following information:

(1) who regulates facilities licensed under this Act;

(2) information in the possession of the Department that is listed in Sections 3-210 and 3-304;

(3) deficiencies and plans of correction;

(4) enforcement remedies;

(5) penalty letters;

(6) designation of penalty monies;

(7) the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' Health Care Financing Administration special projects or federally required inspections;

(8) advisory standards;

(9) deficiency free surveys;

(10) enforcement actions and enforcement summaries; and

(11) distressed facilities.

(b) No fee or other charge may be imposed by the Department as a condition of accessing the information.

(c) The electronic public access provided through the World Wide Web shall be in addition to any other electronic or print distribution of the information.

(d) The information shall be made available as provided in this Section in the shortest practicable time after it is publicly available in any other form.

Section 3-304.2. Designation of distressed facilities.

(a) The Department shall, by rule, adopt criteria to identify facilities that are distressed and shall publish this list quarterly. No facility shall be identified as a distressed facility unless it has committed violations or deficiencies that have actually harmed residents.

(b) The Department shall notify each facility and licensee of its distressed designation and of the calculation on which it is based.

(c) A distressed facility may contract with an independent consultant meeting criteria established by the Department. If the distressed facility does not seek the assistance of an independent consultant, then the Department shall place a monitor or a temporary manager in the facility, depending on the Department's assessment of the condition of the facility.

(d) A facility that has been designated a distressed facility may contract with an independent consultant to develop and assist in the implementation of a plan of improvement to bring and keep the facility in compliance with this Act and, if applicable, with federal certification requirements. A facility that contracts with an independent consultant shall have 90 days to develop a plan of improvement and demonstrate a good faith effort at implementation, and another 90 days to achieve compliance and take whatever additional actions are called for in the improvement plan to maintain compliance in this subsection (d). "Independent" consultant means an individual who has no professional or financial relationship with the facility, any person with a reportable ownership interest in the facility, or any related parties. In this subsection (d), "related parties" has the meaning attributed to it in the instructions for completing Medicaid cost reports.

(e) A distressed facility that does not contract with a consultant shall be assigned a monitor or a temporary manager at the Department's discretion. The cost of the temporary manager shall be paid by the Department. The authority afforded the temporary manager shall be determined through rulemaking.

If a distressed facility that contracts with an independent consultant but does not, in a timely manner, develop an adequate plan of improvement or comply with the plan of improvement, then the Department may place a monitor in the facility.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the authority of the Department to place a monitor in a distressed facility if otherwise justified by law.

(f) The Department shall by rule establish a mentor program for owners of distressed facilities. That a mentor program does not exist, or that a mentor is not available to assist a distressed facility, shall not delay or prevent the imposition of any penalties on a distressed facility, authorized by this Act.

Section 3-305. Penalties or fines. The license of a facility which is in violation of this Act or any rule adopted thereunder may be subject to the penalties or fines levied by the Department as specified in this Section.

(1) A licensee who commits a Type "AA" violation as defined in Section 1-128.5 is automatically issued a conditional license for a period of 6 months to coincide with an acceptable plan of correction and assessed a fine of up to $25,000 per violation. For a facility licensed to provide care to fewer than 100 residents, but no less than 17 residents, the fine shall be up to $18,500 per violation. For a facility licensed to provide care to fewer than 17 residents, the fine shall be up to $12,500 per violation.

(1.5) A licensee who commits a Type "A" violation as defined in Section 1-129 is automatically issued a conditional license for a period of 6 months to coincide with an acceptable plan of correction and assessed a fine of up to $12,500 per violation. For a facility licensed to provide care to fewer than 100 residents, but no less than 17 residents, the fine shall be up to $10,000 per violation. For a facility licensed to provide care to fewer than 17 residents, the fine shall be up to $6,250 per violation.

(2) A licensee who commits a Type "B" violation as defined in Section 1-130 shall be assessed a fine of up to $1,100 per violation. For a facility licensed to provide care to fewer than 100 residents, but no less than 17 residents, the fine shall be up to $750 per violation. For a facility licensed to provide care to fewer than 17 residents, the fine shall be up to $550 per violation.

(2.5) A licensee who commits 8 or more Type "C" violations as defined in Section 1-132 in a single survey shall be assessed a fine of up to $250 per violation. A facility licensed to provide care to fewer than 100 residents, but no less than 17 residents, that commits 8 or more Type "C" violations in a single survey, shall be assessed a fine of up to $200 per violation. A facility licensed to provide care to fewer than 17 residents, that commits 8 or more Type "C" violations in a single survey, shall be assessed a fine of up to $175 per violation.

(3) A licensee who commits a Type "AA" or Type "A" violation as defined in Section 1-128.5 or 1-129 which continues beyond the time specified in paragraph (a) of Section 3-303 which is cited as a repeat violation shall have its license revoked and shall be assessed a fine of 3 times the fine computed under subsection (1).

(4) A licensee who fails to satisfactorily comply with an accepted plan of correction for a Type "B" violation or an administrative warning issued pursuant to Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder shall be automatically issued a conditional license for a period of not less than 6 months. A second or subsequent acceptable plan of correction shall be filed. A fine shall be assessed in accordance with subsection (2) when cited for the repeat violation. This fine shall be computed for all days of the violation, including the duration of the first plan of correction compliance time.

(5) (Blank).

(6) When the Department finds that a provision of Article II has been violated with regard to a particular resident, the Department shall issue an order requiring the facility to reimburse the resident for injuries incurred, or $100, whichever is greater. In the case of a violation involving any action other than theft of money belonging to a resident, reimbursement shall be ordered only if a provision of Article II has been violated with regard to that or any other resident of the facility within the 2 years immediately preceding the violation in question.

(7) For purposes of assessing fines under this Section, a repeat violation shall be a violation which has been cited during one inspection of the facility for which an accepted plan of correction was not complied with or a new citation of the same rule if the licensee is not substantially addressing the issue routinely throughout the facility.

(8) If an occurrence results in more than one type of violation as defined in this Act (that is, a Type "AA", Type "A", Type "B", or Type "C" violation), then the maximum fine that may be assessed for that occurrence is the maximum fine that may be assessed for the most serious type of violation charged. For purposes of the preceding sentence, a Type "AA" violation is the most serious type of violation that may be charged, followed by a Type "A", Type "B", or Type "C" violation, in that order.

(9) If any facility willfully makes a misstatement of fact to the Department or willfully fails to make a required notification to the Department and that misstatement or failure delays the start of a survey or impedes a survey, then it will constitute a Type "B" violation. The minimum and maximum fines that may be assessed pursuant to this subsection (9) shall be 3 times those otherwise specified for any facility.

(10) If the Department finds that a facility has violated a provision of the Illinois Administrative Code that has a high-risk designation or that a facility has violated the same provision of the Illinois Administrative Code 3 or more times in the previous 12 months, then the Department may assess a fine of up to 2 times the maximum fine otherwise allowed.

Section 3-306. Factors to be considered in determining penalty. In determining whether a penalty is to be imposed and in determining the amount of the penalty to be imposed, if any, for a violation, the Director shall consider the following factors:

(1) The gravity of the violation, including the probability that death or serious physical or mental harm to a resident will result or has resulted; the severity of the actual or potential harm, and the extent to which the provisions of the applicable statutes or regulations were violated;

(2) The reasonable diligence exercised by the licensee and efforts to correct violations;

(3) Any previous violations committed by the licensee; and

(4) The financial benefit to the facility of committing or continuing the violation.

Section 3-307. Assessment of penalties; notice. The Director may directly assess penalties provided for under Section 3-305 of this Act. If the Director determines that a penalty should be assessed for a particular violation or for failure to correct it, the Director shall send a notice to the facility. The notice shall specify the amount of the penalty assessed, the violation, the statute or rule alleged to have been violated, and shall inform the licensee of the right to hearing under Section 3-703 of this Act. If the violation is continuing, the notice shall specify the amount of additional assessment per day for the continuing violation.

Section 3-308. Time of assessment; plan of correction. In the case of a Type "AA" or Type "A" violation, a penalty may be assessed from the date on which the violation is discovered. In the case of a Type "B" or Type "C" violation or an administrative warning issued pursuant to Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder, the facility shall submit a plan of correction as provided in Section 3-303. In the case of a Type "B" violation or an administrative warning issued pursuant to Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder, a penalty shall be assessed on the date of notice of the violation, but the Director may reduce the amount or waive such payment for any of the following reasons:

(a) The facility submits a true report of correction within 10 days;

(b) The facility submits a plan of correction within 10 days and subsequently submits a true report of correction within 15 days thereafter;

(c) The facility submits a plan of correction within 10 days which provides for a correction time that is less than or equal to 30 days and the Department approves such plan; or

(d) The facility submits a plan of correction for violations involving substantial capital improvements which provides for correction within the initial 90 day limit provided under Section 3-303. The Director shall consider the following factors in determinations to reduce or waive such penalties:

(1) The violation has not caused actual harm to a resident;

(2) The facility has made a diligent effort to correct the violation and to prevent its recurrence;

(3) The facility has no record of a pervasive pattern of the same or similar violations; and

(4) The facility has a record of substantial compliance with this Act and the regulations promulgated hereunder.

If a plan of correction is approved and carried out for a Type "C" violation, the fine provided under Section 3-305 shall be suspended for the time period specified in the approved plan of correction. If a plan of correction is approved and carried out for a Type "B" violation or an administrative warning issued pursuant to Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder, with respect to a violation that continues after the date of notice of violation, the fine provided under Section 3-305 shall be suspended for the time period specified in the approved plan of correction.

If a good faith plan of correction is not received within the time provided by Section 3-303, a penalty may be assessed from the date of the notice of the Type "B" or "C" violation or an administrative warning issued pursuant to Sections 3-401 through 3-413 or the rules promulgated thereunder served under Section 3-301 until the date of the receipt of a good faith plan of correction, or until the date the violation is corrected, whichever is earlier. If a violation is not corrected within the time specified by an approved plan of correction or any lawful extension thereof, a penalty may be assessed from the date of notice of the violation, until the date the violation is corrected.

Section 3-309. Contesting assessment of penalty. A facility may contest an assessment of a penalty by sending a written request to the Department for hearing under Section 3-703. Upon receipt of the request the Department shall hold a hearing as provided under Section 3-703. Instead of requesting a hearing pursuant to Section 3-703, a facility may, within 10 business days after receipt of the notice of violation and fine assessment, transmit to the Department 65% of the amount assessed for each violation specified in the penalty assessment.

Section 3-310. Collection of penalties. All penalties shall be paid to the Department within 10 days of receipt of notice of assessment or, if the penalty is contested under Section 3-309, within 10 days of receipt of the final decision, unless the decision is appealed and the order is stayed by court order under Section 3-713. A facility choosing to waive the right to a hearing under Section 3-309 shall submit a payment totaling 65% of the original fine amount along with the written waiver. A penalty assessed under this Act shall be collected by the Department and shall be deposited with the State Treasurer into the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund. If the person or facility against whom a penalty has been assessed does not comply with a written demand for payment within 30 days, the Director shall issue an order to do any of the following:

(1) Direct the State Treasurer or Comptroller to deduct the amount of the fine from amounts otherwise due from the State for the penalty, including any payments to be made from the Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability established under Section 5C-7 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and remit that amount to the Department;

(2) Add the amount of the penalty to the facility's licensing fee; if the licensee refuses to make the payment at the time of application for renewal of its license, the license shall not be renewed; or

(3) Bring an action in circuit court to recover the amount of the penalty.

Section 3-311. Issuance of conditional license in addition to penalties. In addition to the right to assess penalties under this Act, the Director may issue a conditional license under Section 3-305 to any facility if the Director finds that either a Type "A" or Type "B" violation exists in such facility. The issuance of a conditional license shall revoke any license held by the facility.

Section 3-312. Plan of correction required before issuance of conditional license. Prior to the issuance of a conditional license, the Department shall review and approve a written plan of correction. The Department shall specify the violations which prevent full licensure and shall establish a time schedule for correction of the deficiencies. Retention of the license shall be conditional on the timely correction of the deficiencies in accordance with the plan of correction.

Section 3-313. Notice of issuance of conditional license. Written notice of the decision to issue a conditional license shall be sent to the applicant or licensee together with the specification of all violations of this Act and the rules promulgated thereunder which prevent full licensure and which form the basis for the Department's decision to issue a conditional license and the required plan of correction. The notice shall inform the applicant or licensee of its right to a full hearing under Section 3-315 to contest the issuance of the conditional license.

Section 3-315. Hearing on conditional license or plan of correction. If the applicant or licensee desires to contest the basis for issuance of a conditional license, or the terms of the plan of correction, the applicant or licensee shall send a written request for hearing to the Department within 10 days after receipt by the applicant or licensee of the Department's notice and decision to issue a conditional license. The Department shall hold the hearing as provided under Section 3-703.

Section 3-316. Period of conditional license. A conditional license shall be issued for a period specified by the Department, but in no event for more than one year. The Department shall periodically inspect any facility operating under a conditional license. If the Department finds substantial failure by the facility to timely correct the violations which prevented full licensure and formed the basis for the Department's decision to issue a conditional license in accordance with the required plan of correction, the conditional license may be revoked as provided under Section 3-119.

Section 3-318. Business offenses.

(a) No person shall:

(1) Intentionally fail to correct or interfere with the correction of a Type "AA", Type "A", or Type "B" violation within the time specified on the notice or approved plan of correction under this Act as the maximum period given for correction, unless an extension is granted and the corrections are made before expiration of extension;

(2) Intentionally prevent, interfere with, or attempt to impede in any way any duly authorized investigation and enforcement of this Act;

(3) Intentionally prevent or attempt to prevent any examination of any relevant books or records pertinent to investigations and enforcement of this Act;

(4) Intentionally prevent or interfere with the preservation of evidence pertaining to any violation of this Act or the rules promulgated under this Act;

(5) Intentionally retaliate or discriminate against any resident or employee for contacting or providing information to any state official, or for initiating, participating in, or testifying in an action for any remedy authorized under this Act;

(6) Willfully file any false, incomplete or intentionally misleading information required to be filed under this Act, or willfully fail or refuse to file any required information; or

(7) Open or operate a facility without a license.

(b) A violation of this Section is a business offense, punishable by a fine not to exceed $10,000, except as otherwise provided in subsection (2) of Section 3-103 as to submission of false or misleading information in a license application.

(c) The State's Attorney of the county in which the facility is located, or the Attorney General, shall be notified by the Director of any violations of this Section.

Section 3-320. Review under Administrative Review Law. All final administrative decisions of the Department under this Act are subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

PART 4. DISCHARGE AND TRANSFER

Section 3-401. Involuntary transfer or discharge of resident. A facility may involuntarily transfer or discharge a resident only for one or more of the following reasons:

(a) for medical reasons;

(b) for the resident's physical safety;

(c) for the physical safety of other residents, the facility staff or facility visitors; or

(d) for either late payment or nonpayment for the resident's stay, except as prohibited by Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. For purposes of this Section, "late payment" means non-receipt of payment after submission of a bill. If payment is not received within 45 days after submission of a bill, a facility may send a notice to the resident and responsible party requesting payment within 30 days. If payment is not received within such 30 days, the facility may thereupon institute transfer or discharge proceedings by sending a notice of transfer or discharge to the resident and responsible party by registered or certified mail. The notice shall state, in addition to the requirements of Section 3-403 of this Act, that the responsible party has the right to pay the amount of the bill in full up to the date the transfer or discharge is to be made and then the resident shall have the right to remain in the facility. Such payment shall terminate the transfer or discharge proceedings. This subsection does not apply to those residents whose care is provided for under the Illinois Public Aid Code. The Department shall adopt rules setting forth the criteria and procedures to be applied in cases of involuntary transfer or discharge permitted under this Section.

Section 3-401.1. Medical assistance recipients.

(a) A facility participating in the Medical Assistance Program is prohibited from failing or refusing to retain as a resident any person because he or she is a recipient of or an applicant for the Medical Assistance Program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(a-5) A facility of which only a distinct part is certified to participate in the Medical Assistance Program may refuse to retain as a resident any person who resides in a part of the facility that does not participate in the Medical Assistance Program and who is unable to pay for his or her care in the facility without Medical Assistance only if:

(1) the facility, no later than at the time of admission and at the time of the resident's contract renewal, explains to the resident (unless he or she is incompetent), and to the resident's representative, and to the person making payment on behalf of the resident for the resident's stay, in writing, that the facility may discharge the resident if the resident is no longer able to pay for his or her care in the facility without Medical Assistance; and

(2) the resident (unless he or she is incompetent), the resident's representative, and the person making payment on behalf of the resident for the resident's stay, acknowledge in writing that they have received the written explanation.

(a-10) For the purposes of this Section, a recipient or applicant shall be considered a resident in the facility during any hospital stay totaling 10 days or less following a hospital admission. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall recoup funds from a facility when, as a result of the facility's refusal to readmit a recipient after hospitalization for 10 days or less, the recipient incurs hospital bills in an amount greater than the amount that would have been paid by that Department for care of the recipient in the facility. The amount of the recoupment shall be the difference between the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' payment for hospital care and the amount that Department would have paid for care in the facility.

(b) A facility which violates this Section shall be guilty of a business offense and fined not less than $500 nor more than $1,000 for the first offense and not less than $1,000 nor more than $5,000 for each subsequent offense.

Section 3-402. Notice of involuntary transfer or discharge. Involuntary transfer or discharge of a resident from a facility shall be preceded by the discussion required under Section 3-408 and by a minimum written notice of 21 days, except in one of the following instances:

(a) When an emergency transfer or discharge is ordered by the resident's attending physician because of the resident's health care needs.

(b) When the transfer or discharge is mandated by the physical safety of other residents, the facility staff, or facility visitors, as documented in the clinical record. The Department shall be notified prior to any such involuntary transfer or discharge. The Department shall immediately offer transfer, or discharge and relocation assistance to residents transferred or discharged under this subparagraph (b), and the Department may place relocation teams as provided in Section 3-419 of this Act.

Section 3-403. Contents of notice; right to hearing. The notice required by Section 3-402 shall be on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain all of the following:

(a) The stated reason for the proposed transfer or discharge;

(b) The effective date of the proposed transfer or discharge;

(c) A statement in not less than 12 point type, which reads: "You have a right to appeal the facility's decision to transfer or discharge you. If you think you should not have to leave this facility, you may file a request for a hearing with the Department of Public Health within 10 days after receiving this notice. If you request a hearing, it will be held not later than 10 days after your request, and you generally will not be transferred or discharged during that time. If the decision following the hearing is not in your favor, you generally will not be transferred or discharged prior to the expiration of 30 days following receipt of the original notice of the transfer or discharge. A form to appeal the facility's decision and to request a hearing is attached. If you have any questions, call the Department of Public Health at the telephone number listed below.";

(d) A hearing request form, together with a postage paid, preaddressed envelope to the Department; and

(e) The name, address, and telephone number of the person charged with the responsibility of supervising the transfer or discharge.

Section 3-404. Request for hearing; effect on transfer. A request for a hearing made under Section 3-403 shall stay a transfer pending a hearing or appeal of the decision, unless a condition which would have allowed transfer or discharge in less than 21 days as described under paragraphs (a) and (b) of Section 3-402 develops in the interim.

Section 3-405. Copy of notice in resident's record; copy to Department. A copy of the notice required by Section 3-402 shall be placed in the resident's clinical record and a copy shall be transmitted to the Department, the resident, and the resident's representative.

Section 3-406. Medical assistance recipient; transfer or discharge as result of action by Department of Healthcare and Family Services. When the basis for an involuntary transfer or discharge is the result of an action by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services with respect to a recipient of assistance under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and a hearing request is filed with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the 21-day written notice period shall not begin until a final decision in the matter is rendered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or a court of competent jurisdiction and notice of that final decision is received by the resident and the facility.

Section 3-407. Nonpayment as basis for transfer or discharge. When nonpayment is the basis for involuntary transfer or discharge, the resident shall have the right to redeem up to the date that the discharge or transfer is to be made and then shall have the right to remain in the facility.

Section 3-408. Discussion of planned transfer or discharge. The planned involuntary transfer or discharge shall be discussed with the resident, the resident's representative and person or agency responsible for the resident's placement, maintenance, and care in the facility. The explanation and discussion of the reasons for involuntary transfer or discharge shall include the facility administrator or other appropriate facility representative as the administrator's designee. The content of the discussion and explanation shall be summarized in writing and shall include the names of the individuals involved in the discussions and made a part of the resident's clinical record.

Section 3-409. Counseling services. The facility shall offer the resident counseling services before the transfer or discharge of the resident.

Section 3-410. Request for hearing on transfer or discharge. A resident subject to involuntary transfer or discharge from a facility, the resident's guardian or if the resident is a minor, his or her parent shall have the opportunity to file a request for a hearing with the Department within 10 days following receipt of the written notice of the involuntary transfer or discharge by the facility.

Section 3-411. Hearing; time. The Department of Public Health, when the basis for involuntary transfer or discharge is other than action by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services with respect to the Title XIX Medicaid recipient, shall hold a hearing at the resident's facility not later than 10 days after a hearing request is filed, and render a decision within 14 days after the filing of the hearing request.

Section 3-412. Conduct of hearing. The hearing before the Department provided under Section 3-411 shall be conducted as prescribed under Section 3-703. In determining whether a transfer or discharge is authorized, the burden of proof in this hearing rests on the person requesting the transfer or discharge.

Section 3-413. Time for leaving facility. If the Department determines that a transfer or discharge is authorized under Section 3-401, the resident shall not be required to leave the facility before the 34th day following receipt of the notice required under Section 3-402, or the 10th day following receipt of the Department's decision, whichever is later, unless a condition which would have allowed transfer or discharge in less than 21 days as described under paragraphs (a) and (b) of Section 3-402 develops in the interim.

Section 3-414. Continuation of medical assistance funding. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall continue Title XIX Medicaid funding during the appeal, transfer, or discharge period for those residents who are recipients of assistance under Title XIX of the Social Security Act affected by Section 3-401.

Section 3-415. Transfer or discharge by Department; grounds. The Department may transfer or discharge any resident from any facility required to be licensed under this Act when any of the following conditions exist:

(a) Such facility is operating without a license;

(b) The Department has suspended, revoked or refused to renew the license of the facility as provided under Section 3-119;

(c) The facility has requested the aid of the Department in the transfer or discharge of the resident and the Department finds that the resident consents to transfer or discharge;

(d) The facility is closing or intends to close and adequate arrangement for relocation of the resident has not been made at least 30 days prior to closure; or

(e) The Department determines that an emergency exists which requires immediate transfer or discharge of the resident.

Section 3-416. Transfer or discharge by Department; likelihood of serious harm. In deciding to transfer or discharge a resident from a facility under Section 3-415, the Department shall consider the likelihood of serious harm which may result if the resident remains in the facility.

Section 3-417. Relocation assistance. The Department shall offer transfer or discharge and relocation assistance to residents transferred or discharged under Sections 3-401 through 3-415, including information on available alternative placements. Residents shall be involved in planning the transfer or discharge and shall choose among the available alternative placements, except that where an emergency makes prior resident involvement impossible the Department may make a temporary placement until a final placement can be arranged. Residents may choose their final alternative placement and shall be given assistance in transferring to such place. No resident may be forced to remain in a temporary or permanent placement. Where the Department makes or participates in making the relocation decision, consideration shall be given to proximity to the resident's relatives and friends. The resident shall be allowed 3 visits to potential alternative placements prior to removal, except where medically contraindicated or where the need for immediate transfer or discharge requires reduction in the number of visits.

Section 3-418. Transfer or discharge plans. The Department shall prepare resident transfer or discharge plans to assure safe and orderly removals and protect residents' health, safety, welfare and rights. In nonemergencies, and where possible in emergencies, the Department shall design and implement such plans in advance of transfer or discharge.

Section 3-419. Relocation teams. The Department may place relocation teams in any facility from which residents are being discharged or transferred for any reason, for the purpose of implementing transfer or discharge plans.

Section 3-420. Transfer or discharge by Department; notice. In any transfer or discharge conducted under Sections 3-415 through 3-418 the Department shall do the following:

(a) Provide written notice to the facility prior to the transfer or discharge. The notice shall state the basis for the order of transfer or discharge and shall inform the facility of its right to an informal conference prior to transfer or discharge under this Section, and its right to a subsequent hearing under Section 3-422. If a facility desires to contest a nonemergency transfer or discharge, prior to transfer or discharge it shall, within 4 working days after receipt of the notice, send a written request for an informal conference to the Department. The Department shall, within 4 working days from the receipt of the request, hold an informal conference in the county in which the facility is located. Following this conference, the Department may affirm, modify or overrule its previous decision. Except in an emergency, transfer or discharge may not begin until the period for requesting a conference has passed or, if a conference is requested, until after a conference has been held.

(b) Provide written notice to any resident to be removed, to the resident's representative, if any, and to a member of the resident's family, where practicable, prior to the removal. The notice shall state the reason for which transfer or discharge is ordered and shall inform the resident of the resident's right to challenge the transfer or discharge under Section 3-422. The Department shall hold an informal conference with the resident or the resident's representative prior to transfer or discharge at which the resident or the representative may present any objections to the proposed transfer or discharge plan or alternative placement.

Section 3-421. Notice of emergency. In any transfer or discharge conducted under subsection (e) of Section 3-415, the Department shall notify the facility and any resident to be removed that an emergency has been found to exist and removal has been ordered, and shall involve the residents in removal planning if possible. Following emergency removal, the Department shall provide written notice to the facility, to the resident, to the resident's representative, if any, and to a member of the resident's family, where practicable, of the basis for the finding that an emergency existed and of the right to challenge removal under Section 3-422.

Section 3-422. Hearing to challenge transfer or discharge. Within 10 days following transfer or discharge, the facility or any resident transferred or discharged may send a written request to the Department for a hearing under Section 3-703 to challenge the transfer or discharge. The Department shall hold the hearing within 30 days of receipt of the request. The hearing shall be held at the facility from which the resident is being transferred or discharged, unless the resident or resident's representative, requests an alternative hearing site. If the facility prevails, it may file a claim against the State under the Court of Claims Act for payments lost less expenses saved as a result of the transfer or discharge. No resident transferred or discharged may be held liable for the charge for care which would have been made had the resident remained in the facility. If a resident prevails, the resident may file a claim against the State under the Court of Claims Act for any excess expenses directly caused by the order to transfer or discharge. The Department shall assist the resident in returning to the facility if assistance is requested.

Section 3-423. Closure of facility; notice. Any owner of a facility licensed under this Act shall give 90 days' notice prior to voluntarily closing a facility or closing any part of a facility, or prior to closing any part of a facility if closing such part will require the transfer or discharge of more than 10% of the residents. Such notice shall be given to the Department, to any resident who must be transferred or discharged, to the resident's representative, and to a member of the resident's family, where practicable. Notice shall state the proposed date of closing and the reason for closing. The facility shall offer to assist the resident in securing an alternative placement and shall advise the resident on available alternatives. Where the resident is unable to choose an alternate placement and is not under guardianship, the Department shall be notified of the need for relocation assistance. The facility shall comply with all applicable laws and regulations until the date of closing, including those related to transfer or discharge of residents. The Department may place a relocation team in the facility as provided under Section 3-419.

PART 5. MONITORS AND RECEIVERSHIP

Section 3-501. Monitor or receiver for facility; grounds.

The Department may place an employee or agent to serve as a monitor in a facility or may petition the circuit court for appointment of a receiver for a facility, or both, when any of the following conditions exist:

(a) The facility is operating without a license;

(b) The Department has suspended, revoked or refused to renew the existing license of the facility;

(c) The facility is closing or has informed the Department that it intends to close and adequate arrangements for relocation of residents have not been made at least 30 days prior to closure;

(d) The Department determines that an emergency exists, whether or not it has initiated revocation or nonrenewal procedures, if because of the unwillingness or inability of the licensee to remedy the emergency the Department believes a monitor or receiver is necessary;

(e) The Department is notified that the facility is terminated or will not be renewed for participation in the federal reimbursement program under either Title XVIII or Title XIX of the Social Security Act. As used in subsection (d) and Section 3-503, "emergency" means a threat to the health, safety or welfare of a resident that the facility is unwilling or unable to correct;

(f) The facility has been designated a distressed facility by the Department and does not have a consultant employed pursuant to subsection (f) of Section 3-304.2 of this Act and an acceptable plan of improvement, or the Department has reason to believe the facility is not complying with the plan of improvement. Nothing in this paragraph (f) shall preclude the Department from placing a monitor in a facility if otherwise justified by law; or

(g) At the discretion of the Department when a review of facility compliance history, incident reports, or reports of financial problems raises a concern that a threat to resident health, safety, or welfare exists.

Section 3-502. Placement of monitor by Department. In any situation described in Section 3-501, the Department may place a qualified person to act as monitor in the facility. The monitor shall observe operation of the facility, assist the facility by advising it on how to comply with the State regulations, and shall report periodically to the Department on the operation of the facility. Once a monitor has been placed, the Department may retain the monitor until it is satisfied that the basis for the placement is resolved and the threat to the health, safety, or welfare of a resident is not likely to recur.

Section 3-503. Emergency; petition for receiver. Where a resident, a resident's representative or a resident's next of kin believes that an emergency exists each of them, collectively or separately, may file a verified petition to the circuit court in the county in which the facility is located for an order placing the facility under the control of a receiver.

Section 3-504. Hearing on petition for receiver; grounds for appointment of receiver. The court shall hold a hearing within 5 days of the filing of the petition. The petition and notice of the hearing shall be served on the owner, administrator or designated agent of the facility as provided under the Civil Practice Law, or the petition and notice of hearing shall be posted in a conspicuous place in the facility not later than 3 days before the time specified for the hearing, unless a different period is fixed by order of the court. The court shall appoint a receiver if it finds that:

(a) The facility is operating without a license;

(b) The Department has suspended, revoked or refused to renew the existing license of a facility;

(c) The facility is closing or has informed the Department that it intends to close and adequate arrangements for relocation of residents have not been made at least 30 days prior to closure; or

(d) An emergency exists, whether or not the Department has initiated revocation or nonrenewal procedures, if because of the unwillingness or inability of the licensee to remedy the emergency the appointment of a receiver is necessary.

Section 3-505. Emergency; time for hearing. If a petition filed under Section 3-503 alleges that the conditions set out in subsection 3-504(d) exist within a facility, the court may set the matter for hearing at the earliest possible time. The petitioner shall notify the licensee, administrator of the facility, or registered agent of the licensee prior to the hearing. Any form of written notice may be used. A receivership shall not be established ex parte unless the court determines that the conditions set out in subsection 3-504(d) exist in a facility; that the licensee cannot be found; and that the petitioner has exhausted all reasonable means of locating and notifying the licensee, administrator or registered agent.

Section 3-506. Appointment of receiver. The court may appoint any qualified person as a receiver, except it shall not appoint any owner or affiliate of the facility which is in receivership as its receiver. The Department shall maintain a list of such persons to operate facilities which the court may consider. The court shall give preference to licensed nursing home administrators in appointing a receiver.

Section 3-507. Health, safety, and welfare of residents. The receiver shall make provisions for the continued health, safety and welfare of all residents of the facility.

Section 3-508. Receiver's powers and duties. A receiver appointed under this Act:

(a) Shall exercise those powers and shall perform those duties set out by the court.

(b) Shall operate the facility in such a manner as to assure safety and adequate health care for the residents.

(c) Shall have the same rights to possession of the building in which the facility is located and of all goods and fixtures in the building at the time the petition for receivership is filed as the owner would have had if the receiver had not been appointed, and of all assets of the facility. The receiver shall take such action as is reasonably necessary to protect or conserve the assets or property of which the receiver takes possession, or the proceeds from any transfer thereof, and may use them only in the performance of the powers and duties set forth in this Section and by order of the court.

(d) May use the building, fixtures, furnishings and any accompanying consumable goods in the provision of care and services to residents and to any other persons receiving services from the facility at the time the petition for receivership was filed. The receiver shall collect payments for all goods and services provided to residents or others during the period of the receivership at the same rate of payment charged by the owners at the time the petition for receivership was filed.

(e) May correct or eliminate any deficiency in the structure or furnishings of the facility which endangers the safety or health of residents while they remain in the facility, provided the total cost of correction does not exceed $3,000. The court may order expenditures for this purpose in excess of $3,000 on application from the receiver after notice to the owner and hearing.

(f) May let contracts and hire agents and employees to carry out the powers and duties of the receiver under this Section.

(g) Except as specified in Section 3-510, shall honor all leases, mortgages and secured transactions governing the building in which the facility is located and all goods and fixtures in the building of which the receiver has taken possession, but only to the extent of payments which, in the case of a rental agreement, are for the use of the property during the period of the receivership, or which, in the case of a purchase agreement, come due during the period of the receivership.

(h) Shall have full power to direct and manage and to discharge employees of the facility, subject to any contract rights they may have. The receiver shall pay employees at the same rate of compensation, including benefits, that the employees would have received from the owner. Receivership does not relieve the owner of any obligation to employees not carried out by the receiver.

(i) Shall, if any resident is transferred or discharged, follow the procedures set forth in Part 4 of this Article.

(j) Shall be entitled to and shall take possession of all property or assets of residents which are in the possession of a facility or its owner. The receiver shall preserve all property, assets and records of residents of which the receiver takes possession and shall provide for the prompt transfer of the property, assets and records to the new placement of any transferred resident.

(k) Shall report to the court on any actions he has taken to bring the facility into compliance with this Act or with Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act that he believes should be continued when the receivership is terminated in order to protect the health, safety or welfare of the residents.

Section 3-509. Payment for goods or services provided by receiver.

(a) A person who is served with notice of an order of the court appointing a receiver and of the receiver's name and address shall be liable to pay the receiver for any goods or services provided by the receiver after the date of the order if the person would have been liable for the goods or services as supplied by the owner. The receiver shall give a receipt for each payment and shall keep a copy of each receipt on file. The receiver shall deposit amounts received in a separate account and shall use this account for all disbursements.

(b) The receiver may bring an action to enforce the liability created by subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A payment to the receiver of any sum owing to the facility or its owner shall discharge any obligation to the facility to the extent of the payment.

Section 3-510. Receiver's avoidance of obligations; reasonable rental, price, or rate of interest to be paid by receiver.

(a) A receiver may petition the court that he or she not be required to honor any lease, mortgage, secured transaction or other wholly or partially executory contract entered into by the owner of the facility if the rent, price or rate of interest required to be paid under the agreement was substantially in excess of a reasonable rent, price or rate of interest at the time the contract was entered into, or if any material provision of the agreement was unreasonable.

(b) If the receiver is in possession of real estate or goods subject to a lease, mortgage or security interest which the receiver has obtained a court order to avoid under subsection (a) of this Section, and if the real estate or goods are necessary for the continued operation of the facility under this Section, the receiver may apply to the court to set a reasonable rental, price or rate of interest to be paid by the receiver during the duration of the receivership. The court shall hold a hearing on the application within 15 days. The receiver shall send notice of the application to any known persons who own the property involved at least 10 days prior to the hearing. Payment by the receiver of the amount determined by the court to be reasonable is a defense to any action against the receiver for payment or for possession of the goods or real estate subject to the lease, security interest or mortgage involved by any person who received such notice, but the payment does not relieve the owner of the facility of any liability for the difference between the amount paid by the receiver and the amount due under the original lease, security interest or mortgage involved.

Section 3-511. Insufficient funds collected; reimbursement of receiver by Department. If funds collected under Sections 3-508 and 3-509 are insufficient to meet the expenses of performing the powers and duties conferred on the receiver, or if there are insufficient funds on hand to meet those expenses, the Department may reimburse the receiver for those expenses from funds appropriated for its ordinary and contingent expenses by the General Assembly after funds contained in the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund have been exhausted.

Section 3-512. Receiver's compensation. The court shall set the compensation of the receiver, which will be considered a necessary expense of a receivership under Section 3-516.

Section 3-513. Action against receiver.

(a) In any action or special proceeding brought against a receiver in the receiver's official capacity for acts committed while carrying out powers and duties under this Article, the receiver shall be considered a public employee under the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(b) A receiver may be held liable in a personal capacity only for the receiver's own gross negligence, intentional acts or breach of fiduciary duty.

(c) The court may require a receiver to post a bond.

Section 3-514. License to facility in receivership. Other provisions of this Act notwithstanding, the Department may issue a license to a facility placed in receivership. The duration of a license issued under this Section is limited to the duration of the receivership.

Section 3-515. Termination of receivership. The court may terminate a receivership:

(a) If the time period specified in the order appointing the receiver elapses and is not extended;

(b) If the court determines that the receivership is no longer necessary because the conditions which gave rise to the receivership no longer exist; or the Department grants the facility a new license, whether the structure of the facility, the right to operate the facility, or the land on which it is located is under the same or different ownership; or

(c) If all of the residents in the facility have been transferred or discharged. Before terminating a receivership, the court may order the Department to require any licensee to comply with the recommendations of the receiver made under subsection (k) of Section 3-508. A licensee may petition the court to be relieved of this requirement.

Section 3-516. Accounting by receiver; Department's lien.

(a) Within 30 days after termination, the receiver shall give the court a complete accounting of all property of which the receiver has taken possession, of all funds collected, and of the expenses of the receivership.

(b) If the operating funds collected by the receiver under Sections 3-508 and 3-509 exceed the reasonable expenses of the receivership, the court shall order payment of the surplus to the owner, after reimbursement of funds drawn from the contingency fund under Section 3-511. If the operating funds are insufficient to cover the reasonable expenses of the receivership, the owner shall be liable for the deficiency. Payment recovered from the owner shall be used to reimburse the contingency fund for amounts drawn by the receiver under Section 3-511.

(c) The Department shall have a lien for any payment made under Section 3-511 upon any beneficial interest, direct or indirect, of any owner in the following property:

(1) The building in which the facility is located;

(2) Any fixtures, equipment or goods used in the operation of the facility;

(3) The land on which the facility is located; or

(4) The proceeds from any conveyance of property described in subparagraphs (1), (2) or (3) above, made by the owner within one year prior to the filing of the petition for receivership.

(d) The lien provided by this Section is prior to any lien or other interest which originates subsequent to the filing of a petition for receivership under this Article, except for a construction or mechanic's lien arising out of work performed with the express consent of the receiver.

(e) The receiver shall, within 60 days after termination of the receivership, file a notice of any lien created under this Section. If the lien is on real property, the notice shall be filed with the recorder. If the lien is on personal property, the lien shall be filed with the Secretary of State. The notice shall specify the name of the person against whom the lien is claimed, the name of the receiver, the dates of the petition for receivership and the termination of receivership, a description of the property involved and the amount claimed. No lien shall exist under this Article against any person, on any property, or for any amount not specified in the notice filed under this subsection (e).

Section 3-517. Civil and criminal liability during receivership. Nothing in this Act shall be deemed to relieve any owner, administrator or employee of a facility placed in receivership of any civil or criminal liability incurred, or any duty imposed by law, by reason of acts or omissions of the owner, administrator, or employee prior to the appointment of a receiver; nor shall anything contained in this Act be construed to suspend during the receivership any obligation of the owner, administrator, or employee for payment of taxes or other operating and maintenance expenses of the facility nor of the owner, administrator, employee or any other person for the payment of mortgages or liens. The owner shall retain the right to sell or mortgage any facility under receivership, subject to approval of the court which ordered the receivership.

PART 6. DUTIES

Section 3-601. Liability for injury to resident. The owner and licensee are liable to a resident for any intentional or negligent act or omission of their agents or employees which injures the resident.

Section 3-602. Damages for violation of resident's rights. The licensee shall pay the actual damages and costs and attorney's fees to a facility resident whose rights, as specified in Part 1 of Article II of this Act, are violated.

Section 3-603. Action by resident. A resident may maintain an action under this Act for any other type of relief, including injunctive and declaratory relief, permitted by law.

Section 3-604. Class action; remedies cumulative. Any damages recoverable under Sections 3-601 through 3-607, including minimum damages as provided by these Sections, may be recovered in any action which a court may authorize to be brought as a class action pursuant to the Civil Practice Law. The remedies provided in Sections 3-601 through 3-607, are in addition to and cumulative with any other legal remedies available to a resident. Exhaustion of any available administrative remedies shall not be required prior to commencement of suit hereunder.

Section 3-605. Amount of damages; no effect on medical assistance eligibility. The amount of damages recovered by a resident in an action brought under Sections 3-601 through 3-607 shall be exempt for purposes of determining initial or continuing eligibility for medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, as now or hereafter amended, and shall neither be taken into consideration nor required to be applied toward the payment or partial payment of the cost of medical care or services available under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

Section 3-606. Waiver of resident's right to bring action prohibited. Any waiver by a resident or his or her legal representative of the right to commence an action under Sections 3-601 through 3-607, whether oral or in writing, shall be null and void, and without legal force or effect.

Section 3-607. Trial by jury. Any party to an action brought under Sections 3-601 through 3-607 shall be entitled to a trial by jury and any waiver of the right to a trial by a jury, whether oral or in writing, prior to the commencement of an action, shall be null and void, and without legal force or effect.

Section 3-608. Retaliation against resident prohibited. A licensee or its agents or employees shall not transfer, discharge, evict, harass, dismiss, or retaliate against a resident, a resident's representative, or an employee or agent who makes a report under Section 2-107, brings or testifies in an action under Sections 3-601 through 3-607, or files a complaint under Section 3-702, because of the report, testimony, or complaint.

Section 3-609. Immunity from liability for making report. Any person, institution or agency, under this Act, participating in good faith in the making of a report, or in the investigation of such a report shall not be deemed to have violated any privileged communication and shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or any other proceedings, civil or criminal as a consequence of making such report. The good faith of any persons required to report, or permitted to report, cases of suspected resident abuse or neglect under this Act, shall be presumed.

Section 3-610. Duty to report violations.

(a) A facility employee or agent who becomes aware of abuse or neglect of a resident prohibited by Section 2-107 shall immediately report the matter to the Department and to the facility administrator. A facility administrator who becomes aware of abuse or neglect of a resident prohibited by Section 2-107 shall immediately report the matter by telephone and in writing to the resident's representative, and to the Department. Any person may report a violation of Section 2-107 to the Department.

(b) A facility employee or agent who becomes aware of another facility employee or agent's theft or misappropriation of a resident's property must immediately report the matter to the facility administrator. A facility administrator who becomes aware of a facility employee or agent's theft or misappropriation of a resident's property must immediately report the matter by telephone and in writing to the resident's representative, to the Department, and to the local law enforcement agency. Neither a licensee nor its employees or agents may dismiss or otherwise retaliate against a facility employee or agent who reports the theft or misappropriation of a resident's property under this subsection.

Section 3-611. Employee as perpetrator of abuse. When an investigation of a report of suspected abuse of a recipient indicates, based upon credible evidence, that an employee of a facility is the perpetrator of the abuse, that employee shall immediately be barred from any further contact with residents of the facility, pending the outcome of any further investigation, prosecution or disciplinary action against the employee.

Section 3-612. Resident as perpetrator of abuse. When an investigation of a report of suspected abuse of a resident indicates, based upon credible evidence, that another resident of the facility is the perpetrator of the abuse, that resident's condition shall be immediately evaluated to determine the most suitable therapy and placement for the resident, considering the safety of that resident as well as the safety of other residents and employees of the facility.

PART 7. COMPLAINT, HEARING, AND APPEAL

Section 3-701. Public nuisance; action for injunction. The operation or maintenance of a facility in violation of this Act, or of the rules and regulations promulgated by the Department, is declared a public nuisance inimical to the public welfare. The Director in the name of the people of the State, through the Attorney General, or the State's Attorney of the county in which the facility is located, or in respect to any city, village or incorporated town which provides for the licensing and regulation of any or all such facilities, the Director or the mayor or president of the Board of Trustees, as the case may require, of the city, village or incorporated town, in the name of the people of the State, through the Attorney General or State's attorney of the county in which the facility is located, may, in addition to other remedies herein provided, bring action for an injunction to restrain such violation or to enjoin the future operation or maintenance of any such facility.

Section 3-702. Request for investigation of violation.

(a) A person who believes that this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act may have been violated may request an investigation. The request may be submitted to the Department in writing, by telephone, by electronic means, or by personal visit. An oral complaint shall be reduced to writing by the Department. The Department shall make available, through its website and upon request, information regarding the oral and phone intake processes and the list of questions that will be asked of the complainant. The Department shall request information identifying the complainant, including the name, address and telephone number, to help enable appropriate follow up. The Department shall act on such complaints via on-site visits or other methods deemed appropriate to handle the complaints with or without such identifying information, as otherwise provided under this Section. The complainant shall be informed that compliance with such request is not required to satisfy the procedures for filing a complaint under this Act. The Department must notify complainants that complaints with less information provided are far more difficult to respond to and investigate.

(b) The substance of the complaint shall be provided in writing to the licensee, owner or administrator no earlier than at the commencement of an on-site inspection of the facility which takes place pursuant to the complaint.

(c) The Department shall not disclose the name of the complainant unless the complainant consents in writing to the disclosure or the investigation results in a judicial proceeding, or unless disclosure is essential to the investigation. The complainant shall be given the opportunity to withdraw the complaint before disclosure. Upon the request of the complainant, the Department may permit the complainant or a representative of the complainant to accompany the person making the on-site inspection of the facility.

(d) Upon receipt of a complaint, the Department shall determine whether this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act has been or is being violated. The Department shall investigate all complaints alleging abuse or neglect within 7 days after the receipt of the complaint except that complaints of abuse or neglect which indicate that a resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be investigated within 24 hours after receipt of the complaint. All other complaints shall be investigated within 30 days after the receipt of the complaint. The Department employees investigating a complaint shall conduct a brief, informal exit conference with the facility to alert its administration of any suspected serious deficiency that poses a direct threat to the health, safety or welfare of a resident to enable an immediate correction for the alleviation or elimination of such threat. Such information and findings discussed in the brief exit conference shall become a part of the investigating record but shall not in any way constitute an official or final notice of violation as provided under Section 3-301. All complaints shall be classified as "an invalid report", "a valid report", or "an undetermined report". For any complaint classified as "a valid report", the Department must determine within 30 working days if any rule or provision of this Act has been or is being violated.

(d-1) The Department shall, whenever possible, combine an on site investigation of a complaint in a facility with other inspections in order to avoid duplication of inspections.

(e) In all cases, the Department shall inform the complainant of its findings within 10 days of its determination unless otherwise indicated by the complainant, and the complainant may direct the Department to send a copy of such findings to another person. The Department's findings may include comments or documentation provided by either the complainant or the licensee pertaining to the complaint. The Department shall also notify the facility of such findings within 10 days of the determination, but the name of the complainant or residents shall not be disclosed in this notice to the facility. The notice of such findings shall include a copy of the written determination; the correction order, if any; the warning notice, if any; the inspection report; or the State licensure form on which the violation is listed.

(f) A written determination, correction order, or warning notice concerning a complaint, together with the facility's response, shall be available for public inspection, but the name of the complainant or resident shall not be disclosed without his or her consent.

(g) A complainant who is dissatisfied with the determination or investigation by the Department may request a hearing under Section 3-703. The facility shall be given notice of any such hearing and may participate in the hearing as a party. If a facility requests a hearing under Section 3-703 which concerns a matter covered by a complaint, the complainant shall be given notice and may participate in the hearing as a party. A request for a hearing by either a complainant or a facility shall be submitted in writing to the Department within 30 days after the mailing of the Department's findings as described in subsection (e) of this Section. Upon receipt of the request the Department shall conduct a hearing as provided under Section 3-703.

(g-5) The Department shall conduct an annual review and make a report concerning the complaint process that includes the number of complaints received, the breakdown of anonymous and non-anonymous complaints and whether the complaints were substantiated or not, the total number of substantiated complaints, and any other complaint information requested by the DD Facility Advisory Board. This report shall be provided to the DD Facility Advisory Board. The DD Facility Advisory Board shall review the report and suggest any changes deemed necessary to the Department for review and action, including how to investigate and substantiate anonymous complaints.

(h) Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(8) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

Section 3-703. Hearing to contest decision; applicable provisions. Any person requesting a hearing pursuant to Sections 2-110, 3-115, 3-118, 3-119, 3-119.1, 3-301, 3-303, 3-309, 3-410, 3-422 or 3-702 to contest a decision rendered in a particular case may have such decision reviewed in accordance with Sections 3-703 through 3-712.

Section 3-704. Hearing; notice; commencement. A request for a hearing by aggrieved persons shall be taken to the Department as follows:

(a) Upon the receipt of a request in writing for a hearing, the Director or a person designated in writing by the Director to act as a hearing officer shall conduct a hearing to review the decision.

(b) Before the hearing is held, notice of the hearing shall be sent by the Department to the person making the request for the hearing and to the person making the decision which is being reviewed. In the notice the Department shall specify the date, time and place of the hearing which shall be held not less than 10 days after the notice is mailed or delivered. The notice shall designate the decision being reviewed. The notice may be served by delivering it personally to the parties or their representatives or by mailing it by certified mail to the parties' addresses.

(c) The Department shall commence the hearing within 30 days of the receipt of request for hearing. The hearing shall proceed as expeditiously as practicable, but in all cases shall conclude within 90 days of commencement.

Section 3-705. Subpoenas. The Director or hearing officer may compel by subpoena or subpoena duces tecum the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books and papers, and administer oaths to witnesses.

Section 3-706. Appearance at hearing; depositions; record. The Director or hearing officer shall permit any party to appear in person and to be represented by counsel at the hearing, at which time the applicant or licensee shall be afforded an opportunity to present all relevant matter in support of his position. In the event of the inability of any party or the Department to procure the attendance of witnesses to give testimony or produce books and papers, any party or the Department may take the deposition of witnesses in accordance with the provisions of the laws of this State. All testimony taken at a hearing shall be reduced to writing, and all such testimony and other evidence introduced at the hearing shall be a part of the record of the hearing.

Section 3-707. Findings of fact; decision. The Director or hearing officer shall make findings of fact in such hearing, and the Director shall render his or her decision within 30 days after the termination of the hearing, unless additional time not to exceed 90 days is required by him or her for a proper disposition of the matter. When the hearing has been conducted by a hearing officer, the Director shall review the record and findings of fact before rendering a decision. All decisions rendered by the Director shall be binding upon and complied with by the Department, the facility or the persons involved in the hearing, as appropriate to each case.

Section 3-708. Rules of evidence and procedure. The Director or hearing officer shall not be bound by common law or statutory rules of evidence, or by technical or formal rules of procedure, but shall conduct hearings in the manner best calculated to result in substantial justice.

Section 3-709. Service of subpoenas; witness fees. All subpoenas issued by the Director or hearing officer may be served as provided for in civil actions. The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the same as the fees for witnesses before the circuit court and shall be paid by the party to such proceeding at whose request the subpoena is issued. If such subpoena is issued at the request of the Department or by a person proceeding in forma pauperis the witness fee shall be paid by the Department as an administrative expense.

Section 3-710. Compelling obedience to subpoena. In cases of refusal of a witness to attend or testify or to produce books or papers, concerning any matter upon which he might be lawfully examined, the circuit court of the county wherein the hearing is held, upon application of any party to the proceeding, may compel obedience by a proceeding for contempt as in cases of a like refusal to obey a similar order of the court.

Section 3-711. Record of hearing; transcript. The Department, at its expense, shall provide a stenographer to take the testimony, or otherwise record the testimony, and preserve a record of all proceedings under this Section. The notice of hearing, the complaint and all other documents in the nature of pleadings and written motions filed in the proceedings, the transcript of testimony, and the findings and decision shall be the record of the proceedings. The Department shall furnish a transcript of such record to any person interested in such hearing upon payment therefor of 70 cents per page for each original transcript and 25 cents per page for each certified copy thereof. However, the charge for any part of such transcript ordered and paid for previous to the writing of the original record shall be 25 cents per page.

Section 3-712. Certification of record; fee. The Department shall not be required to certify any record or file any answer or otherwise appear in any proceeding for judicial review under Section 3-713 of this Act unless there is filed with the complaint a receipt from the Department acknowledging payment of the costs of furnishing and certifying the record, which cost shall be computed at the rate of 95 cents per page of such record. Failure on the part of the plaintiff to file such receipt in Court shall be grounds for dismissal of the action; provided, however, that persons proceeding in forma pauperis with the approval of the circuit court shall not be required to pay these fees.

Section 3-713. Judicial review; stay of enforcement of Department's decision.

(a) Final administrative decisions after hearing shall be subject to judicial review exclusively as provided in the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, except that any petition for judicial review of Department action under this Act shall be filed within 15 days after receipt of notice of the final agency determination. The term "administrative decision" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(b) The court may stay enforcement of the Department's final decision or toll the continuing accrual of a penalty under Section 3-305 if a showing is made that there is a substantial probability that the party seeking review will prevail on the merits and will suffer irreparable harm if a stay is not granted, and that the facility will meet the requirements of this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act during such stay. Where a stay is granted the court may impose such conditions on the granting of the stay as may be necessary to safeguard the lives, health, rights, safety and welfare of residents, and to assure compliance by the facility with the requirements of this Act, including an order for transfer or discharge of residents under Sections 3-401 through 3-423 or for appointment of a receiver under Sections 3-501 through 3-517.

(c) Actions brought under this Act shall be set for trial at the earliest possible date and shall take precedence on the court calendar over all other cases except matters to which equal or superior precedence is specifically granted by law.

Section 3-714. Remedies cumulative. The remedies provided by this Act are cumulative and shall not be construed as restricting any party from seeking any remedy, provisional or otherwise, provided by law for the benefit of the party, from obtaining additional relief based upon the same facts.

PART 8. MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS

Section 3-801. Rules and regulations. The Department shall have the power to adopt rules and regulations to carry out the purpose of this Act.

Section 3-801.1. Access to records of resident with developmental disabilities. Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act to the contrary, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of "An Act in relation to the protection and advocacy of the rights of persons with developmental disabilities, and amending Acts therein named", enacted by the 84th General Assembly, shall have access to the records of a person with developmental disabilities who resides in a facility, subject to the limitations of this Act. The agency shall also have access for the purpose of inspection and copying, to the records of a person with developmental disabilities who resides in any such facility if (1) a complaint is received by such agency from or on behalf of the person with a developmental disability, and (2) such person does not have a guardian or the State or the designee of the State is the guardian of such person. The designated agency shall provide written notice to the person with developmental disabilities and the State guardian of the nature of the complaint based upon which the designated agency has gained access to the records. No record or the contents of any record shall be redisclosed by the designated agency unless the person with developmental disabilities and the State guardian are provided 7 days' advance written notice, except in emergency situations, of the designated agency's intent to redisclose such record, during which time the person with developmental disabilities or the State guardian may seek to judicially enjoin the designated agency's redisclosure of such record on the grounds that such redisclosure is contrary to the interests of the person with developmental disabilities. If a person with developmental disabilities resides in such a facility and has a guardian other than the State or the designee of the State, the facility director shall disclose the guardian's name, address, and telephone number to the designated agency at the agency's request.

Upon request, the designated agency shall be entitled to inspect and copy any records or other materials which may further the agency's investigation of problems affecting numbers of persons with developmental disabilities. When required by law any personally identifiable information of persons with a developmental disability shall be removed from the records. However, the designated agency may not inspect or copy any records or other materials when the removal of personally identifiable information imposes an unreasonable burden on the facility. For the purposes of this Section, "developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability of a person which:

(A) is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or combination of mental and physical impairments;

(B) is manifested before the person attains age 22;

(C) is likely to continue indefinitely;

(D) results in substantial functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity: (i) self care, (ii) receptive and expressive language, (iii) learning, (iv) mobility, (v) self direction, (vi) capacity for independent living, and (vii) economic self sufficiency; and

(E) reflects the person's need for combination and sequence of special, interdisciplinary or generic care, treatment or other services which are of lifelong or extended duration and are individually planned and coordinated.

Section 3-801.05. Rules adopted under prior law. The Department shall adopt rules to implement the changes concerning licensure of facilities under this Act instead of under the ID/DD Community Care Act. Until the Department adopts those rules, the rules adopted under the ID/DD Community Care Act that apply to long-term care for under age 22 facilities subject to licensure under the ID/DD Community Care Act shall apply to medically complex for the developmentally disabled facilities under this Act.

Section 3-802. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act are hereby expressly adopted and shall apply to all administrative rules and procedures of the Department under this Act.

Section 3-803. Treatment by prayer or spiritual means. Nothing in this Act or the rules and regulations adopted pursuant thereto shall be construed as authorizing the medical supervision, regulation, or control of the remedial care or treatment of residents in any facility conducted for those who rely upon treatment by prayer or spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well recognized church or religious denomination.

Section 3-804. Report to General Assembly. The Department shall report to the General Assembly by April 1 of each year upon the performance of its inspection, survey and evaluation duties under this Act, including the number and needs of the Department personnel engaged in such activities. The report shall also describe the Department's actions in enforcement of this Act, including the number and needs of personnel so engaged. The report shall also include the number of valid and invalid complaints filed with the Department within the last calendar year.

Section 3-808. Protocol for sexual assault victims; MC/DD facility. The Department shall develop a protocol for the care and treatment of residents who have been sexually assaulted in a MC/DD facility or elsewhere.

Section 3-808.5. Facility fraud, abuse, or neglect prevention and reporting.

(a) A facility licensed to provide care to 17 or more residents that receives Medicaid funding shall prominently display in its lobby, in its dining areas, and on each floor of the facility information approved by the Illinois Medicaid Fraud Control Unit on how to report fraud, abuse, and neglect. A facility licensed to provide care to fewer than 17 residents that receives Medicaid funding shall prominently display in the facility so as to be easily seen by all residents, visitors, and employees information approved by the Illinois Medicaid Fraud Control Unit on how to report fraud, abuse, and neglect. In addition, information regarding the reporting of fraud, abuse, and neglect shall be provided to each resident at the time of admission and to the resident's guardian or resident's representative.

(b) Any owner or licensee of a facility licensed under this Act shall be responsible for the collection and maintenance of any and all records required to be maintained under this Section and any other applicable provisions of this Act and as a provider under the Illinois Public Aid Code, and shall be responsible for compliance with all of the disclosure requirements under this Section. All books and records and other papers and documents that are required to be kept, and all records showing compliance with all of the disclosure requirements to be made pursuant to this Section, shall be kept by the licensee and available at the facility and shall, at all times during business hours, be subject to inspection by any law enforcement or health oversight agency or its duly authorized agents or employees.

(c) Any report of abuse and neglect of residents made by any individual in whatever manner, including, but not limited to, reports made under Sections 2-107 and 3-610 of this Act, or as provided under the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act, that is made to an administrator, a director of nursing, or any other person with management responsibility at a facility must be disclosed to the owners and licensee of the facility within 24 hours of the report. The owners and licensee of a facility shall maintain all records necessary to show compliance with this disclosure requirement.

(d) Any person with an ownership interest in a facility licensed by the Department must, within 30 days after the effective date of this Act, disclose the existence of any ownership interest in any vendor who does business with the facility. The disclosures required by this subsection (d) shall be made in the form and manner prescribed by the Department. Licensed facilities that receive Medicaid funding shall submit a copy of the disclosures required by this subsection (d) to the Illinois Medicaid Fraud Control Unit. The owners and licensee of a facility shall maintain all records necessary to show compliance with this disclosure requirement.

(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 3-318 of this Act and in addition thereto, any person, owner, or licensee who willfully fails to keep and maintain, or willfully fails to produce for inspection, books and records, or willfully fails to make the disclosures required by this Section, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this Section shall be punishable as a Class 4 felony.

(f) Any owner or licensee who willfully files or willfully causes to be filed a document with false information with the Department, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or the Illinois Medicaid Fraud Control Unit or any other law enforcement agency is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Section 3-810. Whistleblower protection.

(a) In this Section, "retaliatory action" means the reprimand, discharge, suspension, demotion, denial of promotion or transfer, or change in the terms and conditions of employment of any employee of a facility that is taken in retaliation for the employee's involvement in a protected activity as set forth in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(b) A facility shall not take any retaliatory action against an employee of the facility, including a nursing home administrator, because the employee does any of the following:

(1) Discloses or threatens to disclose to a supervisor or to a public body an activity, inaction, policy, or practice implemented by a facility that the employee reasonably believes is in violation of a law, rule, or regulation.

(2) Provides information to or testifies before any public body conducting an investigation, hearing, or inquiry into any violation of a law, rule, or regulation by a nursing home administrator.

(3) Assists or participates in a proceeding to enforce the provisions of this Act.

(c) A violation of this Section may be established only upon a finding that (1) the employee of the facility engaged in conduct described in subsection (b) of this Section and (2) this conduct was a contributing factor in the retaliatory action alleged by the employee. There is no violation of this Section, however, if the facility demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same unfavorable personnel action in the absence of that conduct.

(d) The employee of the facility may be awarded all remedies necessary to make the employee whole and to prevent future violations of this Section. Remedies imposed by the court may include, but are not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Reinstatement of the employee to either the same position held before the retaliatory action or to an equivalent position.

(2) Two times the amount of back pay.

(3) Interest on the back pay.

(4) Reinstatement of full fringe benefits and seniority rights.

(5) Payment of reasonable costs and attorney's fees.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to diminish the rights, privileges, or remedies of an employee of a facility under any other federal or State law, rule, or regulation or under any employment contract.

Section 5. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 3-3, 4-6.3, 4-10, 5-9, 5-16.3, 6-50.3, 6-56, 19-4, 19-12.1, and 19-12.2 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/3-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 3-3)

Sec. 3-3. Every honorably discharged soldier or sailor who is an inmate of any soldiers' and sailors' home within the State of Illinois, any person who is a resident of a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, or any person who is a resident of a community-integrated living arrangement, as defined in Section 3 of the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act, for 30 days or longer, and who is a citizen of the United States and has resided in this State and in the election district 30 days next preceding any election shall be entitled to vote in the election district in which any such home or community-integrated living arrangement in which he is an inmate or resident is located, for all officers that now are or hereafter may be elected by the people, and upon all questions that may be submitted to the vote of the people: Provided, that he shall declare upon oath, that it was his bona fide intention at the time he entered said home or community-integrated living arrangement to become a resident thereof.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-6.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-6.3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 4-6.3. The county clerk may establish a temporary place of registration for such times and at such locations within the county as the county clerk may select. However, no temporary place of registration may be in operation during the 27 days preceding an election. Notice of the time and place of registration under this Section shall be published by the county clerk in a newspaper having a general circulation in the county not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 4-6.2.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 4-6.3. The county clerk may establish a temporary place of registration for such times and at such locations within the county as the county clerk may select. Notice of the time and place of registration under this Section shall be published by the county clerk in a newspaper having a general circulation in the county not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 4-6.2.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 4-10. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered, unless he applies in person to a registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the registration officers or a deputy registration officer, county clerk, or clerk in the office of the county clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your name, place of residence, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The registration officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of any precinct registration and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified he shall forthwith notify such applicant in writing to appear before the county clerk to complete his registration. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as incomplete if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct and whose registration card is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the county clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, ...., did on (insert date) make application to the board of registry of the .... precinct of the township of .... (or to the county clerk of .... county) and that said board or clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct. That I reside in said precinct, that I intend to reside in said precinct, and am a duly qualified voter of said precinct and am entitled to be registered to vote in said precinct at the next election.

(Signature of applicant) ............................."

All such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or to his duly authorized representative by the applicant, in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day after the days on which the 1969 and 1970 precinct re-registrations are held but not on any day within 27 days preceding the ensuing general election and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 4-7 all such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or his duly authorized representative by the applicant in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day prior to 27 days preceding the ensuing general election. Such application shall be heard by the county clerk or his duly authorized representative at the time the application is presented. If the applicant for registration has registered with the county clerk, such application may be presented to and heard by the county clerk or by his duly authorized representative upon the dates specified above or at any time prior thereto designated by the county clerk.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article, or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided this information.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of ...........)

)ss County of ..........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 4-8 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 10-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 4-10. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered, unless he applies in person to a registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the registration officers or a deputy registration officer, county clerk, or clerk in the office of the county clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your name, place of residence, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The registration officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of any precinct registration and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified he shall forthwith notify such applicant in writing to appear before the county clerk to complete his registration. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as incomplete if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct and whose registration card is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the county clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, ...., did on (insert date) make application to the board of registry of the .... precinct of the township of .... (or to the county clerk of .... county) and that said board or clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct. That I reside in said precinct, that I intend to reside in said precinct, and am a duly qualified voter of said precinct and am entitled to be registered to vote in said precinct at the next election.

(Signature of applicant) ............................."

All such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or to his duly authorized representative by the applicant, in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day after the days on which the 1969 and 1970 precinct re-registrations are held but not on any day within 27 days preceding the ensuing general election and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 4-7 all such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or his duly authorized representative by the applicant in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day prior to 27 days preceding the ensuing general election. Such application shall be heard by the county clerk or his duly authorized representative at the time the application is presented. If the applicant for registration has registered with the county clerk, such application may be presented to and heard by the county clerk or by his duly authorized representative upon the dates specified above or at any time prior thereto designated by the county clerk.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article, or by simultaneous application for registration by mail and vote by mail ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided this information.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of ...........)

)ss County of ..........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 4-8 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 10-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-9) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-9)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 5-9. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered unless he applies in person to registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the Deputy Registrars, the Judge of Registration, or an Officer of Registration, County Clerk, or clerk in the office of the County Clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your place of residence, name, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The Registration Officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of precinct registration, and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified, he shall forthwith in writing notify such applicant to appear before the County Clerk to furnish further proof of his qualifications. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "Incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as "incomplete" if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct in such township, city, village or incorporated town and whose registration is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the County Clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, .........., did on (insert date) make application to the Board of Registry of the ........ precinct of ........ ward of the City of .... or of the ......... District ......... Town of .......... (or to the County Clerk of .............) and ............ County; that said Board or Clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct, that I reside in said precinct (or that I intend to reside in said precinct), am a duly qualified voter and entitled to vote in said precinct at the next election.

...........................

(Signature of Applicant)"

All such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant, in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and five o'clock p.m., on Monday and Tuesday of the third week subsequent to the weeks in which the 1961 and 1962 precinct re-registrations are to be held, and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 5-17 of this Article, all such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and nine o'clock p.m. on Monday and Tuesday of the third week prior to the date on which such election is to be held.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided this information.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of .........)

)ss County of ........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois for 6 months and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 5-7 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 10-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 5-9. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered unless he applies in person to registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the Deputy Registrars, the Judge of Registration, or an Officer of Registration, County Clerk, or clerk in the office of the County Clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your place of residence, name, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The Registration Officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of precinct registration, and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified, he shall forthwith in writing notify such applicant to appear before the County Clerk to furnish further proof of his qualifications. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "Incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as "incomplete" if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct in such township, city, village or incorporated town and whose registration is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the County Clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, .........., did on (insert date) make application to the Board of Registry of the ........ precinct of ........ ward of the City of .... or of the ......... District ......... Town of .......... (or to the County Clerk of .............) and ............ County; that said Board or Clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct, that I reside in said precinct (or that I intend to reside in said precinct), am a duly qualified voter and entitled to vote in said precinct at the next election.

...........................

(Signature of Applicant)"

All such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant, in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and five o'clock p.m., on Monday and Tuesday of the third week subsequent to the weeks in which the 1961 and 1962 precinct re-registrations are to be held, and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 5-17 of this Article, all such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and nine o'clock p.m. on Monday and Tuesday of the third week prior to the date on which such election is to be held.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous application for registration by mail and vote by mail ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided this information.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of .........)

)ss County of ........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois for 6 months and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 5-7 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 10-1-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-16.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-16.3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 5-16.3. The county clerk may establish temporary places of registration for such times and at such locations within the county as the county clerk may select. However, no temporary place of registration may be in operation during the 27 days preceding an election. Notice of time and place of registration at any such temporary place of registration under this Section shall be published by the county clerk in a newspaper having a general circulation in the county not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 5-16.2.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 5-16.3. The county clerk may establish temporary places of registration for such times and at such locations within the county as the county clerk may select. Notice of time and place of registration at any such temporary place of registration under this Section shall be published by the county clerk in a newspaper having a general circulation in the county not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 5-16.2.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-50.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-50.3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 6-50.3. The board of election commissioners may establish temporary places of registration for such times and at such locations as the board may select. However, no temporary place of registration may be in operation during the 27 days preceding an election. Notice of the time and place of registration at any such temporary place of registration under this Section shall be published by the board of election commissioners in a newspaper having a general circulation in the city, village or incorporated town not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by employees of the board of election commissioners or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 6-50.2.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 6-50.3. The board of election commissioners may establish temporary places of registration for such times and at such locations as the board may select. Notice of the time and place of registration at any such temporary place of registration under this Section shall be published by the board of election commissioners in a newspaper having a general circulation in the city, village or incorporated town not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by employees of the board of election commissioners or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 6-50.2.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-56) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-56)

Sec. 6-56. Not more than 30 nor less than 28 days before any election under this Article, all owners, managers, administrators or operators of hotels, lodging houses, rooming houses, furnished apartments or facilities licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, which house 4 or more persons, outside the members of the family of such owner, manager, administrator or operator, shall file with the board of election commissioners a report, under oath, together with one copy thereof, in such form as may be required by the board of election commissioners, of the names and descriptions of all lodgers, guests or residents claiming a voting residence at the hotels, lodging houses, rooming houses, furnished apartments, or facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act under their control. In counties having a population of 500,000 or more such report shall be made on forms mailed to them by the board of election commissioners. The board of election commissioners shall sort and assemble the sworn copies of the reports in numerical order according to ward and according to precincts within each ward and shall, not later than 5 days after the last day allowed by this Article for the filing of the reports, maintain one assembled set of sworn duplicate reports available for public inspection until 60 days after election days. Except as is otherwise expressly provided in this Article, the board shall not be required to perform any duties with respect to the sworn reports other than to mail, sort, assemble, post and file them as hereinabove provided.

Except in such cases where a precinct canvass is being conducted by the Board of Election Commissioners prior to a Primary or Election, the board of election commissioners shall compare the original copy of each such report with the list of registered voters from such addresses. Every person registered from such address and not listed in such report or whose name is different from any name so listed, shall immediately after the last day of registration be sent a notice through the United States mail, at the address appearing upon his registration record card, requiring him to appear before the board of election commissioners on one of the days specified in Section 6-45 of this Article and show cause why his registration should not be cancelled. The provisions of Sections 6-45, 6-46 and 6-47 of this Article shall apply to such hearing and proceedings subsequent thereto.

Any owner, manager or operator of any such hotel, lodging house, rooming house or furnished apartment who shall fail or neglect to file such statement and copy thereof as in this Article provided, may, upon written information of the attorney for the election commissioners, be cited by the election commissioners or upon the complaint of any voter of such city, village or incorporated town, to appear before them and furnish such sworn statement and copy thereof and make such oral statements under oath regarding such hotel, lodging house, rooming house or furnished apartment, as the election commissioners may require. The election commissioners shall sit to hear such citations on the Friday of the fourth week preceding the week in which such election is to be held. Such citation shall be served not later than the day preceding the day on which it is returnable.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-4. Mailing or delivery of ballots; time. Immediately upon the receipt of such application either by mail or electronic means, not more than 40 days nor less than 5 days prior to such election, or by personal delivery not more than 40 days nor less than one day prior to such election, at the office of such election authority, it shall be the duty of such election authority to examine the records to ascertain whether or not such applicant is lawfully entitled to vote as requested, including a verification of the applicant's signature by comparison with the signature on the official registration record card, and if found so to be entitled to vote, to post within one business day thereafter the name, street address, ward and precinct number or township and district number, as the case may be, of such applicant given on a list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively to be kept by such election authority for such purpose in a conspicuous, open and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of such election authority, and in such a manner that such list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission therefor. Within one day after posting the name and other information of an applicant for an absentee ballot, the election authority shall transmit by electronic means pursuant to a process established by the State Board of Elections that name and other posted information to the State Board of Elections, which shall maintain those names and other information in an electronic format on its website, arranged by county and accessible to State and local political committees. Within 2 business days after posting a name and other information on the list within its office, the election authority shall mail, postage prepaid, or deliver in person in such office an official ballot or ballots if more than one are to be voted at said election. Mail delivery of Temporarily Absent Student ballot applications pursuant to Section 19-12.3 shall be by nonforwardable mail. However, for the consolidated election, absentee ballots for certain precincts may be delivered to applicants not less than 25 days before the election if so much time is required to have prepared and printed the ballots containing the names of persons nominated for offices at the consolidated primary. The election authority shall enclose with each absentee ballot or application written instructions on how voting assistance shall be provided pursuant to Section 17-14 and a document, written and approved by the State Board of Elections, enumerating the circumstances under which a person is authorized to vote by absentee ballot pursuant to this Article; such document shall also include a statement informing the applicant that if he or she falsifies or is solicited by another to falsify his or her eligibility to cast an absentee ballot, such applicant or other is subject to penalties pursuant to Section 29-10 and Section 29-20 of the Election Code. Each election authority shall maintain a list of the name, street address, ward and precinct, or township and district number, as the case may be, of all applicants who have returned absentee ballots to such authority, and the name of such absent voter shall be added to such list within one business day from receipt of such ballot. If the absentee ballot envelope indicates that the voter was assisted in casting the ballot, the name of the person so assisting shall be included on the list. The list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively, shall be kept by each election authority in a conspicuous, open, and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of the election authority and in a manner that the list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission for viewing.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of the voters to whom it has issued absentee ballots. The list shall be maintained for each precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. Prior to the opening of the polls on election day, the election authority shall deliver to the judges of election in each precinct the list of registered voters in that precinct to whom absentee ballots have been issued by mail.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of voters to whom it has issued temporarily absent student ballots. The list shall be maintained for each election jurisdiction within which such voters temporarily abide. Immediately after the close of the period during which application may be made by mail or electronic means for absentee ballots, each election authority shall mail to each other election authority within the State a certified list of all such voters temporarily abiding within the jurisdiction of the other election authority.

In the event that the return address of an application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector is that of a facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, within the jurisdiction of the election authority, and the applicant is a registered voter in the precinct in which such facility is located, the ballots shall be prepared and transmitted to a responsible judge of election no later than 9 a.m. on the Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the election as designated by the election authority under Section 19-12.2. Such judge shall deliver in person on the designated day the ballot to the applicant on the premises of the facility from which application was made. The election authority shall by mail notify the applicant in such facility that the ballot will be delivered by a judge of election on the designated day.

All applications for absentee ballots shall be available at the office of the election authority for public inspection upon request from the time of receipt thereof by the election authority until 30 days after the election, except during the time such applications are kept in the office of the election authority pursuant to Section 19-7, and except during the time such applications are in the possession of the judges of election.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-4. Mailing or delivery of ballots; time. Immediately upon the receipt of such application either by mail or electronic means, not more than 90 days nor less than 5 days prior to such election, or by personal delivery not more than 90 days nor less than one day prior to such election, at the office of such election authority, it shall be the duty of such election authority to examine the records to ascertain whether or not such applicant is lawfully entitled to vote as requested, including a verification of the applicant's signature by comparison with the signature on the official registration record card, and if found so to be entitled to vote, to post within one business day thereafter the name, street address, ward and precinct number or township and district number, as the case may be, of such applicant given on a list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively to be kept by such election authority for such purpose in a conspicuous, open and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of such election authority, and in such a manner that such list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission therefor. Within one day after posting the name and other information of an applicant for a vote by mail ballot, the election authority shall transmit by electronic means pursuant to a process established by the State Board of Elections that name and other posted information to the State Board of Elections, which shall maintain those names and other information in an electronic format on its website, arranged by county and accessible to State and local political committees. Within 2 business days after posting a name and other information on the list within its office, but no sooner than 40 days before an election, the election authority shall mail, postage prepaid, or deliver in person in such office an official ballot or ballots if more than one are to be voted at said election. Mail delivery of Temporarily Absent Student ballot applications pursuant to Section 19-12.3 shall be by nonforwardable mail. However, for the consolidated election, vote by mail ballots for certain precincts may be delivered to applicants not less than 25 days before the election if so much time is required to have prepared and printed the ballots containing the names of persons nominated for offices at the consolidated primary. The election authority shall enclose with each vote by mail ballot or application written instructions on how voting assistance shall be provided pursuant to Section 17-14 and a document, written and approved by the State Board of Elections, informing the vote by mail voter of the required postage for returning the application and ballot, and enumerating the circumstances under which a person is authorized to vote by vote by mail ballot pursuant to this Article; such document shall also include a statement informing the applicant that if he or she falsifies or is solicited by another to falsify his or her eligibility to cast a vote by mail ballot, such applicant or other is subject to penalties pursuant to Section 29-10 and Section 29-20 of the Election Code. Each election authority shall maintain a list of the name, street address, ward and precinct, or township and district number, as the case may be, of all applicants who have returned vote by mail ballots to such authority, and the name of such vote by mail voter shall be added to such list within one business day from receipt of such ballot. If the vote by mail ballot envelope indicates that the voter was assisted in casting the ballot, the name of the person so assisting shall be included on the list. The list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively, shall be kept by each election authority in a conspicuous, open, and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of the election authority and in a manner that the list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission for viewing.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of the voters to whom it has issued vote by mail ballots. The list shall be maintained for each precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. Prior to the opening of the polls on election day, the election authority shall deliver to the judges of election in each precinct the list of registered voters in that precinct to whom vote by mail ballots have been issued by mail.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of voters to whom it has issued temporarily absent student ballots. The list shall be maintained for each election jurisdiction within which such voters temporarily abide. Immediately after the close of the period during which application may be made by mail or electronic means for vote by mail ballots, each election authority shall mail to each other election authority within the State a certified list of all such voters temporarily abiding within the jurisdiction of the other election authority.

In the event that the return address of an application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector is that of a facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, within the jurisdiction of the election authority, and the applicant is a registered voter in the precinct in which such facility is located, the ballots shall be prepared and transmitted to a responsible judge of election no later than 9 a.m. on the Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the election as designated by the election authority under Section 19-12.2. Such judge shall deliver in person on the designated day the ballot to the applicant on the premises of the facility from which application was made. The election authority shall by mail notify the applicant in such facility that the ballot will be delivered by a judge of election on the designated day.

All applications for vote by mail ballots shall be available at the office of the election authority for public inspection upon request from the time of receipt thereof by the election authority until 30 days after the election, except during the time such applications are kept in the office of the election authority pursuant to Section 19-7, and except during the time such applications are in the possession of the judges of election.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's disabled voter's identification card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for physically disabled voters, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other absentee ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's disabled voter's identification card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for physically disabled voters, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other vote by mail ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.2) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-12.2. Voting by physically incapacitated electors who have made proper application to the election authority not later than 5 days before the regular primary and general election of 1980 and before each election thereafter shall be conducted on the premises of (i) federally operated veterans' homes, hospitals, and facilities located in Illinois or (ii) facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act for the sole benefit of residents of such homes, hospitals, and facilities. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center. Such voting shall be conducted during any continuous period sufficient to allow all applicants to cast their ballots between the hours of 9 a.m. and 7 p.m. either on the Friday, Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the regular election. This absentee voting on one of said days designated by the election authority shall be supervised by two election judges who must be selected by the election authority in the following order of priority: (1) from the panel of judges appointed for the precinct in which such home, hospital, or facility is located, or from a panel of judges appointed for any other precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority in the same ward or township, as the case may be, in which the home, hospital, or facility is located or, only in the case where a judge or judges from the precinct, township or ward are unavailable to serve, (3) from a panel of judges appointed for any other precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. The two judges shall be from different political parties. Not less than 30 days before each regular election, the election authority shall have arranged with the chief administrative officer of each home, hospital, or facility in his or its election jurisdiction a mutually convenient time period on the Friday, Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the election for such voting on the premises of the home, hospital, or facility and shall post in a prominent place in his or its office a notice of the agreed day and time period for conducting such voting at each home, hospital, or facility; provided that the election authority shall not later than noon on the Thursday before the election also post the names and addresses of those homes, hospitals, and facilities from which no applications were received and in which no supervised absentee voting will be conducted. All provisions of this Code applicable to pollwatchers shall be applicable herein. To the maximum extent feasible, voting booths or screens shall be provided to insure the privacy of the voter. Voting procedures shall be as described in Article 17 of this Code, except that ballots shall be treated as absentee ballots and shall not be counted until the close of the polls on the following day. After the last voter has concluded voting, the judges shall seal the ballots in an envelope and affix their signatures across the flap of the envelope. Immediately thereafter, the judges shall bring the sealed envelope to the office of the election authority who shall deliver such ballots to the election authority's central ballot counting location prior to the closing of the polls on the day of election. The judges of election shall also report to the election authority the name of any applicant in the home, hospital, or facility who, due to unforeseen circumstance or condition or because of a religious holiday, was unable to vote. In this event, the election authority may appoint a qualified person from his or its staff to deliver the ballot to such applicant on the day of election. This staff person shall follow the same procedures prescribed for judges conducting absentee voting in such homes, hospitals, or facilities and shall return the ballot to the central ballot counting location before the polls close. However, if the home, hospital, or facility from which the application was made is also used as a regular precinct polling place for that voter, voting procedures heretofore prescribed may be implemented by 2 of the election judges of opposite party affiliation assigned to that polling place during the hours of voting on the day of the election. Judges of election shall be compensated not less than $25.00 for conducting absentee voting in such homes, hospitals, or facilities.

Not less than 120 days before each regular election, the Department of Public Health shall certify to the State Board of Elections a list of the facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act. The lists shall indicate the approved bed capacity and the name of the chief administrative officer of each such home, hospital, or facility, and the State Board of Elections shall certify the same to the appropriate election authority within 20 days thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-1171)

Sec. 19-12.2. Voting by physically incapacitated electors who have made proper application to the election authority not later than 5 days before the regular primary and general election of 1980 and before each election thereafter shall be conducted on the premises of (i) federally operated veterans' homes, hospitals, and facilities located in Illinois or (ii) facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act for the sole benefit of residents of such homes, hospitals, and facilities. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center. Such voting shall be conducted during any continuous period sufficient to allow all applicants to cast their ballots between the hours of 9 a.m. and 7 p.m. either on the Friday, Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the regular election. This vote by mail voting on one of said days designated by the election authority shall be supervised by two election judges who must be selected by the election authority in the following order of priority: (1) from the panel of judges appointed for the precinct in which such home, hospital, or facility is located, or from a panel of judges appointed for any other precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority in the same ward or township, as the case may be, in which the home, hospital, or facility is located or, only in the case where a judge or judges from the precinct, township or ward are unavailable to serve, (3) from a panel of judges appointed for any other precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. The two judges shall be from different political parties. Not less than 30 days before each regular election, the election authority shall have arranged with the chief administrative officer of each home, hospital, or facility in his or its election jurisdiction a mutually convenient time period on the Friday, Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the election for such voting on the premises of the home, hospital, or facility and shall post in a prominent place in his or its office a notice of the agreed day and time period for conducting such voting at each home, hospital, or facility; provided that the election authority shall not later than noon on the Thursday before the election also post the names and addresses of those homes, hospitals, and facilities from which no applications were received and in which no supervised vote by mail voting will be conducted. All provisions of this Code applicable to pollwatchers shall be applicable herein. To the maximum extent feasible, voting booths or screens shall be provided to insure the privacy of the voter. Voting procedures shall be as described in Article 17 of this Code, except that ballots shall be treated as vote by mail ballots and shall not be counted until the close of the polls on the following day. After the last voter has concluded voting, the judges shall seal the ballots in an envelope and affix their signatures across the flap of the envelope. Immediately thereafter, the judges shall bring the sealed envelope to the office of the election authority who shall deliver such ballots to the election authority's central ballot counting location prior to the closing of the polls on the day of election. The judges of election shall also report to the election authority the name of any applicant in the home, hospital, or facility who, due to unforeseen circumstance or condition or because of a religious holiday, was unable to vote. In this event, the election authority may appoint a qualified person from his or its staff to deliver the ballot to such applicant on the day of election. This staff person shall follow the same procedures prescribed for judges conducting vote by mail voting in such homes, hospitals, or facilities and shall return the ballot to the central ballot counting location before the polls close. However, if the home, hospital, or facility from which the application was made is also used as a regular precinct polling place for that voter, voting procedures heretofore prescribed may be implemented by 2 of the election judges of opposite party affiliation assigned to that polling place during the hours of voting on the day of the election. Judges of election shall be compensated not less than $25.00 for conducting vote by mail voting in such homes, hospitals, or facilities.

Not less than 120 days before each regular election, the Department of Public Health shall certify to the State Board of Elections a list of the facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act. The lists shall indicate the approved bed capacity and the name of the chief administrative officer of each such home, hospital, or facility, and the State Board of Elections shall certify the same to the appropriate election authority within 20 days thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15.)

Section 10. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by changing Sections 4.04 and 4.08 as follows:

(20 ILCS 105/4.04) (from Ch. 23, par. 6104.04)

Sec. 4.04. Long Term Care Ombudsman Program. The purpose of the Long Term Care Ombudsman Program is to ensure that older persons and persons with disabilities receive quality services. This is accomplished by providing advocacy services for residents of long term care facilities and participants receiving home care and community-based care. Managed care is increasingly becoming the vehicle for delivering health and long-term services and supports to seniors and persons with disabilities, including dual eligible participants. The additional ombudsman authority will allow advocacy services to be provided to Illinois participants for the first time and will produce a cost savings for the State of Illinois by supporting the rebalancing efforts of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act.

(a) Long Term Care Ombudsman Program. The Department shall establish a Long Term Care Ombudsman Program, through the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman ("the Office"), in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended. The Long Term Care Ombudsman Program is authorized, subject to sufficient appropriations, to advocate on behalf of older persons and persons with disabilities residing in their own homes or community-based settings, relating to matters which may adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of such individuals.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section, unless the context requires otherwise:

(1) "Access" means the right to:

(i) Enter any long term care facility or assisted living or shared housing establishment or supportive living facility;

(ii) Communicate privately and without restriction with any resident, regardless of age, who consents to the communication;

(iii) Seek consent to communicate privately and without restriction with any participant or resident, regardless of age;

(iv) Inspect the clinical and other records of a participant or resident, regardless of age, with the express written consent of the participant or resident;

(v) Observe all areas of the long term care facility or supportive living facilities, assisted living or shared housing establishment except the living area of any resident who protests the observation; and

(vi) Subject to permission of the participant or resident requesting services or his or her representative, enter a home or community-based setting.

(2) "Long Term Care Facility" means (i) any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act, as now or hereafter amended; and (ii) any skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility which meets the requirements of Section 1819(a), (b), (c), and (d) or Section 1919(a), (b), (c), and (d) of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a), (b), (c), and (d) and 42 U.S.C. 1396r(a), (b), (c), and (d)); (iii) and any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended; and (iv) any facility as defined by Section 1-113 of MC/DD Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(2.5) "Assisted living establishment" and "shared housing establishment" have the meanings given those terms in Section 10 of the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

(2.7) "Supportive living facility" means a facility established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(2.8) "Community-based setting" means any place of abode other than an individual's private home.

(3) "State Long Term Care Ombudsman" means any person employed by the Department to fulfill the requirements of the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman as required under the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended, and Departmental policy.

(3.1) "Ombudsman" means any designated representative of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman Program; provided that the representative, whether he is paid for or volunteers his ombudsman services, shall be qualified and designated by the Office to perform the duties of an ombudsman as specified by the Department in rules and in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended.

(4) "Participant" means an older person aged 60 or over or an adult with a disability aged 18 through 59 who is eligible for services under any of the following:

(i) A medical assistance waiver administered by the State.

(ii) A managed care organization providing care coordination and other services to seniors and persons with disabilities.

(5) "Resident" means an older person aged 60 or over or an adult with a disability aged 18 through 59 who resides in a long-term care facility.

(c) Ombudsman; rules. The Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman shall be composed of at least one full-time ombudsman and shall include a system of designated regional long term care ombudsman programs. Each regional program shall be designated by the State Long Term Care Ombudsman as a subdivision of the Office and any representative of a regional program shall be treated as a representative of the Office.

The Department, in consultation with the Office, shall promulgate administrative rules in accordance with the provisions of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended, to establish the responsibilities of the Department and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman and the designated regional Ombudsman programs. The administrative rules shall include the responsibility of the Office and designated regional programs to investigate and resolve complaints made by or on behalf of residents of long term care facilities, supportive living facilities, and assisted living and shared housing establishments, and participants residing in their own homes or community-based settings, including the option to serve residents and participants under the age of 60, relating to actions, inaction, or decisions of providers, or their representatives, of such facilities and establishments, of public agencies, or of social services agencies, which may adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of such residents and participants. The Office and designated regional programs may represent all residents and participants, but are not required by this Act to represent persons under 60 years of age, except to the extent required by federal law. When necessary and appropriate, representatives of the Office shall refer complaints to the appropriate regulatory State agency. The Department, in consultation with the Office, shall cooperate with the Department of Human Services and other State agencies in providing information and training to designated regional long term care ombudsman programs about the appropriate assessment and treatment (including information about appropriate supportive services, treatment options, and assessment of rehabilitation potential) of the participants they serve.

The State Long Term Care Ombudsman and all other ombudsmen, as defined in paragraph (3.1) of subsection (b) must submit to background checks under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act and receive training, as prescribed by the Illinois Department on Aging, before visiting facilities, private homes, or community-based settings. The training must include information specific to assisted living establishments, supportive living facilities, shared housing establishments, private homes, and community-based settings and to the rights of residents and participants guaranteed under the corresponding Acts and administrative rules.

(c-5) Consumer Choice Information Reports. The Office shall:

(1) In collaboration with the Attorney General, create a Consumer Choice Information Report form to be completed by all licensed long term care facilities to aid Illinoisans and their families in making informed choices about long term care. The Office shall create a Consumer Choice Information Report for each type of licensed long term care facility. The Office shall collaborate with the Attorney General and the Department of Human Services to create a Consumer Choice Information Report form for facilities licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act.

(2) Develop a database of Consumer Choice Information Reports completed by licensed long term care facilities that includes information in the following consumer categories:

(A) Medical Care, Services, and Treatment.

(B) Special Services and Amenities.

(C) Staffing.

(D) Facility Statistics and Resident Demographics.

(E) Ownership and Administration.

(F) Safety and Security.

(G) Meals and Nutrition.

(H) Rooms, Furnishings, and Equipment.

(I) Family, Volunteer, and Visitation Provisions.

(3) Make this information accessible to the public, including on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Resident's Right to Know" on the Office's World Wide Web home page. Information about facilities licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act shall be made accessible to the public by the Department of Human Services, including on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Resident's and Families' Right to Know" on the Department of Human Services' "For Customers" website.

(4) Have the authority, with the Attorney General, to verify that information provided by a facility is accurate.

(5) Request a new report from any licensed facility whenever it deems necessary.

(6) Include in the Office's Consumer Choice Information Report for each type of licensed long term care facility additional information on each licensed long term care facility in the State of Illinois, including information regarding each facility's compliance with the relevant State and federal statutes, rules, and standards; customer satisfaction surveys; and information generated from quality measures developed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(d) Access and visitation rights.

(1) In accordance with subparagraphs (A) and (E) of paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 1819 and subparagraphs (A) and (E) of paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 1919 of the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 1395i-3 (c)(3)(A) and (E) and 42 U.S.C. 1396r (c)(3)(A) and (E)), and Section 712 of the Older Americans Act of 1965, as now or hereafter amended (42 U.S.C. 3058f), a long term care facility, supportive living facility, assisted living establishment, and shared housing establishment must:

(i) permit immediate access to any resident, regardless of age, by a designated ombudsman;

(ii) permit representatives of the Office, with the permission of the resident's legal representative or legal guardian, to examine a resident's clinical and other records, regardless of the age of the resident, and if a resident is unable to consent to such review, and has no legal guardian, permit representatives of the Office appropriate access, as defined by the Department, in consultation with the Office, in administrative rules, to the resident's records; and

(iii) permit a representative of the Program to communicate privately and without restriction with any participant who consents to the communication regardless of the consent of, or withholding of consent by, a legal guardian or an agent named in a power of attorney executed by the participant.

(2) Each long term care facility, supportive living facility, assisted living establishment, and shared housing establishment shall display, in multiple, conspicuous public places within the facility accessible to both visitors and residents and in an easily readable format, the address and phone number of the Office of the Long Term Care Ombudsman, in a manner prescribed by the Office.

(e) Immunity. An ombudsman or any representative of the Office participating in the good faith performance of his or her official duties shall have immunity from any liability (civil, criminal or otherwise) in any proceedings (civil, criminal or otherwise) brought as a consequence of the performance of his official duties.

(f) Business offenses.

(1) No person shall:

(i) Intentionally prevent, interfere with, or attempt to impede in any way any representative of the Office in the performance of his official duties under this Act and the Older Americans Act of 1965; or

(ii) Intentionally retaliate, discriminate against, or effect reprisals against any long term care facility resident or employee for contacting or providing information to any representative of the Office.

(2) A violation of this Section is a business offense, punishable by a fine not to exceed $501.

(3) The State Long Term Care Ombudsman shall notify the State's Attorney of the county in which the long term care facility, supportive living facility, or assisted living or shared housing establishment is located, or the Attorney General, of any violations of this Section.

(g) Confidentiality of records and identities. The Department shall establish procedures for the disclosure by the State Ombudsman or the regional ombudsmen entities of files maintained by the program. The procedures shall provide that the files and records may be disclosed only at the discretion of the State Long Term Care Ombudsman or the person designated by the State Ombudsman to disclose the files and records, and the procedures shall prohibit the disclosure of the identity of any complainant, resident, participant, witness, or employee of a long term care provider unless:

(1) the complainant, resident, participant, witness, or employee of a long term care provider or his or her legal representative consents to the disclosure and the consent is in writing;

(2) the complainant, resident, participant, witness, or employee of a long term care provider gives consent orally; and the consent is documented contemporaneously in writing in accordance with such requirements as the Department shall establish; or

(3) the disclosure is required by court order.

(h) Legal representation. The Attorney General shall provide legal representation to any representative of the Office against whom suit or other legal action is brought in connection with the performance of the representative's official duties, in accordance with the State Employee Indemnification Act.

(i) Treatment by prayer and spiritual means. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize or require the medical supervision, regulation or control of remedial care or treatment of any resident in a long term care facility operated exclusively by and for members or adherents of any church or religious denomination the tenets and practices of which include reliance solely upon spiritual means through prayer for healing.

(j) The Long Term Care Ombudsman Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury to receive moneys for the express purposes of this Section. All interest earned on moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Moneys contained in the fund shall be used to support the purposes of this Section.

(k) Each Regional Ombudsman may, in accordance with rules promulgated by the Office, establish a multi-disciplinary team to act in an advisory role for the purpose of providing professional knowledge and expertise in handling complex abuse, neglect, and advocacy issues involving participants. Each multi-disciplinary team may consist of one or more volunteer representatives from any combination of at least 7 members from the following professions: banking or finance; disability care; health care; pharmacology; law; law enforcement; emergency responder; mental health care; clergy; coroner or medical examiner; substance abuse; domestic violence; sexual assault; or other related fields. To support multi-disciplinary teams in this role, law enforcement agencies and coroners or medical examiners shall supply records as may be requested in particular cases. The Regional Ombudsman, or his or her designee, of the area in which the multi-disciplinary team is created shall be the facilitator of the multi-disciplinary team.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 98-380, eff. 8-16-13; 98-989, eff. 1-1-15.)

(20 ILCS 105/4.08)

Sec. 4.08. Rural and small town meals program. Subject to appropriation, the Department may establish a program to ensure the availability of congregate or home-delivered meals in communities with populations of under 5,000 that are not located within the large urban counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, or Will.

The Department may meet these requirements by entering into agreements with Area Agencies on Aging or Department designees, which shall in turn enter into grants or contractual agreements with such local entities as restaurants, cafes, churches, facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act, facilities certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, senior centers, or Older American Act designated nutrition service providers.

First consideration shall be given to entities that can cost effectively meet the needs of seniors in the community by preparing the food locally.

In no instance shall funds provided pursuant to this Section be used to replace funds allocated to a given area or program as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

The Department shall establish guidelines and standards by administrative rule, which shall include submission of an expenditure plan by the recipient of the funds.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 15. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/15) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-15)

Sec. 15. Before any person is released from a facility operated by the State pursuant to an absolute discharge or a conditional discharge from hospitalization under this Act, the facility director of the facility in which such person is hospitalized shall determine that such person is not currently in need of hospitalization and:

(a) is able to live independently in the community; or

(b) requires further oversight and supervisory care for which arrangements have been made with responsible relatives or supervised residential program approved by the Department; or

(c) requires further personal care or general oversight as defined by the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, for which placement arrangements have been made with a suitable family home or other licensed facility approved by the Department under this Section; or

(d) requires community mental health services for which arrangements have been made with a community mental health provider in accordance with criteria, standards, and procedures promulgated by rule.

Such determination shall be made in writing and shall become a part of the facility record of such absolutely or conditionally discharged person. When the determination indicates that the condition of the person to be granted an absolute discharge or a conditional discharge is described under subparagraph (c) or (d) of this Section, the name and address of the continuing care facility or home to which such person is to be released shall be entered in the facility record. Where a discharge from a mental health facility is made under subparagraph (c), the Department shall assign the person so discharged to an existing community based not-for-profit agency for participation in day activities suitable to the person's needs, such as but not limited to social and vocational rehabilitation, and other recreational, educational and financial activities unless the community based not-for-profit agency is unqualified to accept such assignment. Where the clientele of any not-for-profit agency increases as a result of assignments under this amendatory Act of 1977 by more than 3% over the prior year, the Department shall fully reimburse such agency for the costs of providing services to such persons in excess of such 3% increase. The Department shall keep written records detailing how many persons have been assigned to a community based not-for-profit agency and how many persons were not so assigned because the community based agency was unable to accept the assignments, in accordance with criteria, standards, and procedures promulgated by rule. Whenever a community based agency is found to be unable to accept the assignments, the name of the agency and the reason for the finding shall be included in the report.

Insofar as desirable in the interests of the former recipient, the facility, program or home in which the discharged person is to be placed shall be located in or near the community in which the person resided prior to hospitalization or in the community in which the person's family or nearest next of kin presently reside. Placement of the discharged person in facilities, programs or homes located outside of this State shall not be made by the Department unless there are no appropriate facilities, programs or homes available within this State. Out-of-state placements shall be subject to return of recipients so placed upon the availability of facilities, programs or homes within this State to accommodate these recipients, except where placement in a contiguous state results in locating a recipient in a facility or program closer to the recipient's home or family. If an appropriate facility or program becomes available equal to or closer to the recipient's home or family, the recipient shall be returned to and placed at the appropriate facility or program within this State.

To place any person who is under a program of the Department at board in a suitable family home or in such other facility or program as the Department may consider desirable. The Department may place in licensed nursing homes, sheltered care homes, or homes for the aged those persons whose behavioral manifestations and medical and nursing care needs are such as to be substantially indistinguishable from persons already living in such facilities. Prior to any placement by the Department under this Section, a determination shall be made by the personnel of the Department, as to the capability and suitability of such facility to adequately meet the needs of the person to be discharged. When specialized programs are necessary in order to enable persons in need of supervised living to develop and improve in the community, the Department shall place such persons only in specialized residential care facilities which shall meet Department standards including restricted admission policy, special staffing and programming for social and vocational rehabilitation, in addition to the requirements of the appropriate State licensing agency. The Department shall not place any new person in a facility the license of which has been revoked or not renewed on grounds of inadequate programming, staffing, or medical or adjunctive services, regardless of the pendency of an action for administrative review regarding such revocation or failure to renew. Before the Department may transfer any person to a licensed nursing home, sheltered care home or home for the aged or place any person in a specialized residential care facility the Department shall notify the person to be transferred, or a responsible relative of such person, in writing, at least 30 days before the proposed transfer, with respect to all the relevant facts concerning such transfer, except in cases of emergency when such notice is not required. If either the person to be transferred or a responsible relative of such person objects to such transfer, in writing to the Department, at any time after receipt of notice and before the transfer, the facility director of the facility in which the person was a recipient shall immediately schedule a hearing at the facility with the presence of the facility director, the person who objected to such proposed transfer, and a psychiatrist who is familiar with the record of the person to be transferred. Such person to be transferred or a responsible relative may be represented by such counsel or interested party as he may appoint, who may present such testimony with respect to the proposed transfer. Testimony presented at such hearing shall become a part of the facility record of the person-to-be-transferred. The record of testimony shall be held in the person-to-be-transferred's record in the central files of the facility. If such hearing is held a transfer may only be implemented, if at all, in accordance with the results of such hearing. Within 15 days after such hearing the facility director shall deliver his findings based on the record of the case and the testimony presented at the hearing, by registered or certified mail, to the parties to such hearing. The findings of the facility director shall be deemed a final administrative decision of the Department. For purposes of this Section, "case of emergency" means those instances in which the health of the person to be transferred is imperiled and the most appropriate mental health care or medical care is available at a licensed nursing home, sheltered care home or home for the aged or a specialized residential care facility.

Prior to placement of any person in a facility under this Section the Department shall ensure that an appropriate training plan for staff is provided by the facility. Said training may include instruction and demonstration by Department personnel qualified in the area of mental illness or intellectual disabilities, as applicable to the person to be placed. Training may be given both at the facility from which the recipient is transferred and at the facility receiving the recipient, and may be available on a continuing basis subsequent to placement. In a facility providing services to former Department recipients, training shall be available as necessary for facility staff. Such training will be on a continuing basis as the needs of the facility and recipients change and further training is required.

The Department shall not place any person in a facility which does not have appropriately trained staff in sufficient numbers to accommodate the recipient population already at the facility. As a condition of further or future placements of persons, the Department shall require the employment of additional trained staff members at the facility where said persons are to be placed. The Secretary, or his or her designate, shall establish written guidelines for placement of persons in facilities under this Act. The Department shall keep written records detailing which facilities have been determined to have staff who have been appropriately trained by the Department and all training which it has provided or required under this Section.

Bills for the support for a person boarded out shall be payable monthly out of the proper maintenance funds and shall be audited as any other accounts of the Department. If a person is placed in a facility or program outside the Department, the Department may pay the actual costs of residence, treatment or maintenance in such facility and may collect such actual costs or a portion thereof from the recipient or the estate of a person placed in accordance with this Section.

Other than those placed in a family home the Department shall cause all persons who are placed in a facility, as defined by the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or in designated community living situations or programs, to be visited at least once during the first month following placement, and once every month thereafter for the first year following placement when indicated, but at least quarterly. After the first year, the Department shall determine at what point the appropriate licensing entity for the facility or designated community living situation or program will assume the responsibility of ensuring that appropriate services are being provided to the resident. Once that responsibility is assumed, the Department may discontinue such visits. If a long term care facility has periodic care plan conferences, the visitor may participate in those conferences, if such participation is approved by the resident or the resident's guardian. Visits shall be made by qualified and trained Department personnel, or their designee, in the area of mental health or developmental disabilities applicable to the person visited, and shall be made on a more frequent basis when indicated. The Department may not use as designee any personnel connected with or responsible to the representatives of any facility in which persons who have been transferred under this Section are placed. In the course of such visit there shall be consideration of the following areas, but not limited thereto: effects of transfer on physical and mental health of the person, sufficiency of nursing care and medical coverage required by the person, sufficiency of staff personnel and ability to provide basic care for the person, social, recreational and programmatic activities available for the person, and other appropriate aspects of the person's environment.

A report containing the above observations shall be made to the Department, to the licensing agency, and to any other appropriate agency subsequent to each visitation. The report shall contain recommendations to improve the care and treatment of the resident, as necessary, which shall be reviewed by the facility's interdisciplinary team and the resident or the resident's legal guardian.

Upon the complaint of any person placed in accordance with this Section or any responsible citizen or upon discovery that such person has been abused, neglected, or improperly cared for, or that the placement does not provide the type of care required by the recipient's current condition, the Department immediately shall investigate, and determine if the well-being, health, care, or safety of any person is affected by any of the above occurrences, and if any one of the above occurrences is verified, the Department shall remove such person at once to a facility of the Department or to another facility outside the Department, provided such person's needs can be met at said facility. The Department may also provide any person placed in accordance with this Section who is without available funds, and who is permitted to engage in employment outside the facility, such sums for the transportation, and other expenses as may be needed by him until he receives his wages for such employment.

The Department shall promulgate rules and regulations governing the purchase of care for persons who are wards of or who are receiving services from the Department. Such rules and regulations shall apply to all monies expended by any agency of the State of Illinois for services rendered by any person, corporate entity, agency, governmental agency or political subdivision whether public or private outside of the Department whether payment is made through a contractual, per-diem or other arrangement. No funds shall be paid to any person, corporation, agency, governmental entity or political subdivision without compliance with such rules and regulations.

The rules and regulations governing purchase of care shall describe categories and types of service deemed appropriate for purchase by the Department.

Any provider of services under this Act may elect to receive payment for those services, and the Department is authorized to arrange for that payment, by means of direct deposit transmittals to the service provider's account maintained at a bank, savings and loan association, or other financial institution. The financial institution shall be approved by the Department, and the deposits shall be in accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

Section 20. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-550, 2310-560, 2310-565, and 2310-625 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-550) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.40)

Sec. 2310-550. Long-term care facilities. The Department may perform, in all long-term care facilities as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, all facilities as defined in the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, and all facilities as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, and all facilities as defined in the MC/DD Act, all inspection, evaluation, certification, and inspection of care duties that the federal government may require the State of Illinois to perform or have performed as a condition of participation in any programs under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-560) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.87)

Sec. 2310-560. Advisory committees concerning construction of facilities.

(a) The Director shall appoint an advisory committee. The committee shall be established by the Department by rule. The Director and the Department shall consult with the advisory committee concerning the application of building codes and Department rules related to those building codes to facilities under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, and the ID/DD Community Care Act, and the MC/DD Act.

(b) The Director shall appoint an advisory committee to advise the Department and to conduct informal dispute resolution concerning the application of building codes for new and existing construction and related Department rules and standards under the Hospital Licensing Act, including without limitation rules and standards for (i) design and construction, (ii) engineering and maintenance of the physical plant, site, equipment, and systems (heating, cooling, electrical, ventilation, plumbing, water, sewer, and solid waste disposal), and (iii) fire and safety. The advisory committee shall be composed of all of the following members:

(1) The chairperson or an elected representative from the Hospital Licensing Board under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(2) Two health care architects with a minimum of 10 years of experience in institutional design and building code analysis.

(3) Two engineering professionals (one mechanical and one electrical) with a minimum of 10 years of experience in institutional design and building code analysis.

(4) One commercial interior design professional with a minimum of 10 years of experience.

(5) Two representatives from provider associations.

(6) The Director or his or her designee, who shall serve as the committee moderator.

Appointments shall be made with the concurrence of the Hospital Licensing Board. The committee shall submit recommendations concerning the application of building codes and related Department rules and standards to the Hospital Licensing Board for review and comment prior to submission to the Department. The committee shall submit recommendations concerning informal dispute resolution to the Director. The Department shall provide per diem and travel expenses to the committee members.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-565) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.88)

Sec. 2310-565. Facility construction training program. The Department shall conduct, at least annually, a joint in-service training program for architects, engineers, interior designers, and other persons involved in the construction of a facility under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act on problems and issues relating to the construction of facilities under any of those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-625)

Sec. 2310-625. Emergency Powers.

(a) Upon proclamation of a disaster by the Governor, as provided for in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, the Director of Public Health shall have the following powers, which shall be exercised only in coordination with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation:

(1) The power to suspend the requirements for temporary or permanent licensure or certification of persons who are licensed or certified in another state and are working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.

(2) The power to modify the scope of practice restrictions under the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act for any persons who are licensed under that Act for any person working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.

(3) The power to modify the scope of practice restrictions under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act for Certified Nursing Assistants for any person working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.

(b) Persons exempt from licensure or certification under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) and persons operating under modified scope of practice provisions under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) and paragraph (3) of subsection (a) shall be exempt from licensure or certification or subject to modified scope of practice only until the declared disaster has ended as provided by law. For purposes of this Section, persons working under the direction of an emergency services and disaster agency accredited by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and a local public health department, pursuant to a declared disaster, shall be deemed to be working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Department of Public Health.

(c) The Director shall exercise these powers by way of proclamation.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

Section 25. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is amended by changing Section 52 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2407/52)

Sec. 52. Applicability; definitions. In accordance with Section 6071 of the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (P.L. 109-171), as used in this Article:

"Departments". The term "Departments" means for the purposes of this Act, the Department of Human Services, the Department on Aging, Department of Healthcare and Family Services and Department of Public Health, unless otherwise noted.

"Home and community-based long-term care services". The term "home and community-based long-term care services" means, with respect to the State Medicaid program, a service aid, or benefit, home and community-based services, including but not limited to home health and personal care services, that are provided to a person with a disability, and are voluntarily accepted, as part of his or her long-term care that: (i) is provided under the State's qualified home and community-based program or that could be provided under such a program but is otherwise provided under the Medicaid program; (ii) is delivered in a qualified residence; and (iii) is necessary for the person with a disability to live in the community.

"ID/DD community care facility". The term "ID/DD community care facility", for the purposes of this Article, means a skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care facility subject to licensure by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act, an intermediate care facility for the developmentally disabled (ICF-DDs), and a State-operated developmental center or mental health center, whether publicly or privately owned.

"Money Follows the Person" Demonstration. Enacted by the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005, the Money Follows the Person (MFP) Rebalancing Demonstration is part of a comprehensive, coordinated strategy to assist states, in collaboration with stakeholders, to make widespread changes to their long-term care support systems. This initiative will assist states in their efforts to reduce their reliance on institutional care while developing community-based long-term care opportunities, enabling the elderly and people with disabilities to fully participate in their communities.

"Public funds" mean any funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the Departments of Human Services, on Aging, of Healthcare and Family Services and of Public Health for settings and services as defined in this Article.

"Qualified residence". The term "qualified residence" means, with respect to an eligible individual: (i) a home owned or leased by the individual or the individual's authorized representative (as defined by P.L. 109-171); (ii) an apartment with an individual lease, with lockable access and egress, and which includes living, sleeping, bathing, and cooking areas over which the individual or the individual's family has domain and control; or (iii) a residence, in a community-based residential setting, in which no more than 4 unrelated individuals reside. Where qualified residences are not sufficient to meet the demand of eligible individuals, time-limited exceptions to this definition may be developed through administrative rule.

"Self-directed services". The term "self-directed services" means, with respect to home and community-based long-term services for an eligible individual, those services for the individual that are planned and purchased under the direction and control of the individual or the individual's authorized representative, including the amount, duration, scope, provider, and location of such services, under the State Medicaid program consistent with the following requirements:

(a) Assessment: there is an assessment of the needs, capabilities, and preference of the individual with respect to such services.

(b) Individual service care or treatment plan: based on the assessment, there is development jointly with such individual or individual's authorized representative, a plan for such services for the individual that (i) specifies those services, if any, that the individual or the individual's authorized representative would be responsible for directing; (ii) identifies the methods by which the individual or the individual's authorized representative or an agency designated by an individual or representative will select, manage, and dismiss providers of such services.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 27. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Notification of outstanding warrant. If the existence of an outstanding arrest warrant is identified by the Department of State Police in connection with the criminal history background checks conducted pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 2-201.5 of the Nursing Home Care Act, and Section 2-201.5 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, Section 2-201.5 of the MC/DD Act, or subsection (d) of Section 6.09 of the Hospital Licensing Act, the Department shall notify the jurisdiction issuing the warrant of the following:

(1) Existence of the warrant.

(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the licensed long term care facility in which the wanted person resides.

Local issuing jurisdictions shall be aware that nursing facilities have residents who may be fragile or vulnerable or who may have a mental illness. When serving a warrant, law enforcement shall make every attempt to mitigate the adverse impact on other facility residents.

(Source: P.A. 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

Section 30. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Section 801-10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/801-10)

Sec. 801-10. Definitions. The following terms, whenever used or referred to in this Act, shall have the following meanings, except in such instances where the context may clearly indicate otherwise:

(a) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Finance Authority created by this Act.

(b) The term "project" means an industrial project, conservation project, housing project, public purpose project, higher education project, health facility project, cultural institution project, municipal bond program project, agricultural facility or agribusiness, and "project" may include any combination of one or more of the foregoing undertaken jointly by any person with one or more other persons.

(c) The term "public purpose project" means any project or facility, including without limitation land, buildings, structures, machinery, equipment and all other real and personal property, which is authorized or required by law to be acquired, constructed, improved, rehabilitated, reconstructed, replaced or maintained by any unit of government or any other lawful public purpose which is authorized or required by law to be undertaken by any unit of government.

(d) The term "industrial project" means the acquisition, construction, refurbishment, creation, development or redevelopment of any facility, equipment, machinery, real property or personal property for use by any instrumentality of the State or its political subdivisions, for use by any person or institution, public or private, for profit or not for profit, or for use in any trade or business, including, but not limited to, any industrial, manufacturing or commercial enterprise that is located within or outside the State, provided that, with respect to a project involving property located outside the State, the property must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, and which is (1) a capital project, including, but not limited to: (i) land and any rights therein, one or more buildings, structures or other improvements, machinery and equipment, whether now existing or hereafter acquired, and whether or not located on the same site or sites; (ii) all appurtenances and facilities incidental to the foregoing, including, but not limited to, utilities, access roads, railroad sidings, track, docking and similar facilities, parking facilities, dockage, wharfage, railroad roadbed, track, trestle, depot, terminal, switching and signaling or related equipment, site preparation and landscaping; and (iii) all non-capital costs and expenses relating thereto or (2) any addition to, renovation, rehabilitation or improvement of a capital project or (3) any activity or undertaking within or outside the State, provided that, with respect to a project involving property located outside the State, the property must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, which the Authority determines will aid, assist or encourage economic growth, development or redevelopment within the State or any area thereof, will promote the expansion, retention or diversification of employment opportunities within the State or any area thereof or will aid in stabilizing or developing any industry or economic sector of the State economy. The term "industrial project" also means the production of motion pictures.

(e) The term "bond" or "bonds" shall include bonds, notes (including bond, grant or revenue anticipation notes), certificates and/or other evidences of indebtedness representing an obligation to pay money, including refunding bonds.

(f) The terms "lease agreement" and "loan agreement" shall mean: (i) an agreement whereby a project acquired by the Authority by purchase, gift or lease is leased to any person, corporation or unit of local government which will use or cause the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for lease rental payments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the Authority issued with respect to such project, providing for the maintenance, insuring and operation of the project on terms satisfactory to the Authority, providing for disposition of the project upon termination of the lease term, including purchase options or abandonment of the premises, and such other terms as may be deemed desirable by the Authority, or (ii) any agreement pursuant to which the Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of its bonds issued with respect to a project or other funds of the Authority to any person which will use or cause the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for loan repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the Authority, if any, issued with respect to the project, and providing for maintenance, insurance and other matters as may be deemed desirable by the Authority.

(g) The term "financial aid" means the expenditure of Authority funds or funds provided by the Authority through the issuance of its bonds, notes or other evidences of indebtedness or from other sources for the development, construction, acquisition or improvement of a project.

(h) The term "person" means an individual, corporation, unit of government, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, 2 or more persons having a joint or common interest, or any other legal entity.

(i) The term "unit of government" means the federal government, the State or unit of local government, a school district, or any agency or instrumentality, office, officer, department, division, bureau, commission, college or university thereof.

(j) The term "health facility" means: (a) any public or private institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; (b) any public or private institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act; (c) any public or licensed private hospital as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; (d) any such facility exempted from such licensure when the Director of Public Health attests that such exempted facility meets the statutory definition of a facility subject to licensure; (e) any other public or private health service institution, place, building, or agency which the Director of Public Health attests is subject to certification by the Secretary, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, or which the Director of Public Health attests is subject to standard-setting by a recognized public or voluntary accrediting or standard-setting agency; (f) any public or private institution, place, building or agency engaged in providing one or more supporting services to a health facility; (g) any public or private institution, place, building or agency engaged in providing training in the healing arts, including, but not limited to, schools of medicine, dentistry, osteopathy, optometry, podiatry, pharmacy or nursing, schools for the training of x-ray, laboratory or other health care technicians and schools for the training of para-professionals in the health care field; (h) any public or private congregate, life or extended care or elderly housing facility or any public or private home for the aged or infirm, including, without limitation, any Facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; (i) any public or private mental, emotional or physical rehabilitation facility or any public or private educational, counseling, or rehabilitation facility or home, for those persons with a developmental disability, those who are physically ill or disabled, the emotionally disturbed, those persons with a mental illness or persons with learning or similar disabilities or problems; (j) any public or private alcohol, drug or substance abuse diagnosis, counseling treatment or rehabilitation facility, (k) any public or private institution, place, building or agency licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or which is not so licensed but which the Director of Children and Family Services attests provides child care, child welfare or other services of the type provided by facilities subject to such licensure; (l) any public or private adoption agency or facility; and (m) any public or private blood bank or blood center. "Health facility" also means a public or private structure or structures suitable primarily for use as a laboratory, laundry, nurses or interns residence or other housing or hotel facility used in whole or in part for staff, employees or students and their families, patients or relatives of patients admitted for treatment or care in a health facility, or persons conducting business with a health facility, physician's facility, surgicenter, administration building, research facility, maintenance, storage or utility facility and all structures or facilities related to any of the foregoing or required or useful for the operation of a health facility, including parking or other facilities or other supporting service structures required or useful for the orderly conduct of such health facility. "Health facility" also means, with respect to a project located outside the State, any public or private institution, place, building, or agency which provides services similar to those described above, provided that such project is owned, operated, leased or managed by a participating health institution located within the State, or a participating health institution affiliated with an entity located within the State.

(k) The term "participating health institution" means (i) a private corporation or association or (ii) a public entity of this State, in either case authorized by the laws of this State or the applicable state to provide or operate a health facility as defined in this Act and which, pursuant to the provisions of this Act, undertakes the financing, construction or acquisition of a project or undertakes the refunding or refinancing of obligations, loans, indebtedness or advances as provided in this Act.

(l) The term "health facility project", means a specific health facility work or improvement to be financed or refinanced (including without limitation through reimbursement of prior expenditures), acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, with funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, any accounts receivable, working capital, liability or insurance cost or operating expense financing or refinancing program of a health facility with or involving funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, or any combination thereof.

(m) The term "bond resolution" means the resolution or resolutions authorizing the issuance of, or providing terms and conditions related to, bonds issued under this Act and includes, where appropriate, any trust agreement, trust indenture, indenture of mortgage or deed of trust providing terms and conditions for such bonds.

(n) The term "property" means any real, personal or mixed property, whether tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, including, without limitation, any real estate, leasehold interests, appurtenances, buildings, easements, equipment, furnishings, furniture, improvements, machinery, rights of way, structures, accounts, contract rights or any interest therein.

(o) The term "revenues" means, with respect to any project, the rents, fees, charges, interest, principal repayments, collections and other income or profit derived therefrom.

(p) The term "higher education project" means, in the case of a private institution of higher education, an educational facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.

(q) The term "cultural institution project" means, in the case of a cultural institution, a cultural facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.

(r) The term "educational facility" means any property located within the State, or any property located outside the State, provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the instruction, feeding, recreation or housing of students, the conducting of research or other work of a private institution of higher education, the use by a private institution of higher education in connection with any educational, research or related or incidental activities then being or to be conducted by it, or any combination of the foregoing, including, without limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in connection with any one or more of the following: an academic facility, administrative facility, agricultural facility, assembly hall, athletic facility, auditorium, boating facility, campus, communication facility, computer facility, continuing education facility, classroom, dining hall, dormitory, exhibition hall, fire fighting facility, fire prevention facility, food service and preparation facility, gymnasium, greenhouse, health care facility, hospital, housing, instructional facility, laboratory, library, maintenance facility, medical facility, museum, offices, parking area, physical education facility, recreational facility, research facility, stadium, storage facility, student union, study facility, theatre or utility.

(s) The term "cultural facility" means any property located within the State, or any property located outside the State, provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the particular purposes or needs of a cultural institution, including, without limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in connection with any one or more of the following: an administrative facility, aquarium, assembly hall, auditorium, botanical garden, exhibition hall, gallery, greenhouse, library, museum, scientific laboratory, theater or zoological facility, and shall also include, without limitation, books, works of art or music, animal, plant or aquatic life or other items for display, exhibition or performance. The term "cultural facility" includes buildings on the National Register of Historic Places which are owned or operated by nonprofit entities.

(t) "Private institution of higher education" means a not-for-profit educational institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which is authorized by law to provide a program of education beyond the high school level and which:

(1) Admits as regular students only individuals having a certificate of graduation from a high school, or the recognized equivalent of such a certificate;

(2) Provides an educational program for which it awards a bachelor's degree, or provides an educational program, admission into which is conditioned upon the prior attainment of a bachelor's degree or its equivalent, for which it awards a postgraduate degree, or provides not less than a 2-year program which is acceptable for full credit toward such a degree, or offers a 2-year program in engineering, mathematics, or the physical or biological sciences which is designed to prepare the student to work as a technician and at a semiprofessional level in engineering, scientific, or other technological fields which require the understanding and application of basic engineering, scientific, or mathematical principles or knowledge;

(3) Is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association or, if not so accredited, is an institution whose credits are accepted, on transfer, by not less than 3 institutions which are so accredited, for credit on the same basis as if transferred from an institution so accredited, and holds an unrevoked certificate of approval under the Private College Act from the Board of Higher Education, or is qualified as a "degree granting institution" under the Academic Degree Act; and

(4) Does not discriminate in the admission of students on the basis of race or color. "Private institution of higher education" also includes any "academic institution".

(u) The term "academic institution" means any not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which institution engages in, or facilitates academic, scientific, educational or professional research or learning in a field or fields of study taught at a private institution of higher education. Academic institutions include, without limitation, libraries, archives, academic, scientific, educational or professional societies, institutions, associations or foundations having such purposes.

(v) The term "cultural institution" means any not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which institution engages in the cultural, intellectual, scientific, educational or artistic enrichment of the people of the State. Cultural institutions include, without limitation, aquaria, botanical societies, historical societies, libraries, museums, performing arts associations or societies, scientific societies and zoological societies.

(w) The term "affiliate" means, with respect to financing of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, any lender, any person, firm or corporation controlled by, or under common control with, such lender, and any person, firm or corporation controlling such lender.

(x) The term "agricultural facility" means land, any building or other improvement thereon or thereto, and any personal properties deemed necessary or suitable for use, whether or not now in existence, in farming, ranching, the production of agricultural commodities (including, without limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and silviculture) or the treating, processing or storing of such agricultural commodities when such activities are customarily engaged in by farmers as a part of farming and which land, building, improvement or personal property is located within the State, or is located outside the State, provided that, if such property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased, or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State.

(y) The term "lender" with respect to financing of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, means any federal or State chartered bank, Federal Land Bank, Production Credit Association, Bank for Cooperatives, federal or State chartered savings and loan association or building and loan association, Small Business Investment Company or any other institution qualified within this State to originate and service loans, including, but without limitation to, insurance companies, credit unions and mortgage loan companies. "Lender" also means a wholly owned subsidiary of a manufacturer, seller or distributor of goods or services that makes loans to businesses or individuals, commonly known as a "captive finance company".

(z) The term "agribusiness" means any sole proprietorship, limited partnership, co-partnership, joint venture, corporation or cooperative which operates or will operate a facility located within the State or outside the State, provided that, if any facility is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased, or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, that is related to the processing of agricultural commodities (including, without limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and silviculture) or the manufacturing, production or construction of agricultural buildings, structures, equipment, implements, and supplies, or any other facilities or processes used in agricultural production. Agribusiness includes but is not limited to the following:

(1) grain handling and processing, including grain storage, drying, treatment, conditioning, mailing and packaging;

(2) seed and feed grain development and processing;

(3) fruit and vegetable processing, including preparation, canning and packaging;

(4) processing of livestock and livestock products, dairy products, poultry and poultry products, fish or apiarian products, including slaughter, shearing, collecting, preparation, canning and packaging;

(5) fertilizer and agricultural chemical manufacturing, processing, application and supplying;

(6) farm machinery, equipment and implement manufacturing and supplying;

(7) manufacturing and supplying of agricultural commodity processing machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment used in slaughter, treatment, handling, collecting, preparation, canning or packaging of agricultural commodities;

(8) farm building and farm structure manufacturing, construction and supplying;

(9) construction, manufacturing, implementation, supplying or servicing of irrigation, drainage and soil and water conservation devices or equipment;

(10) fuel processing and development facilities that produce fuel from agricultural commodities or byproducts;

(11) facilities and equipment for processing and packaging agricultural commodities specifically for export;

(12) facilities and equipment for forestry product processing and supplying, including sawmilling operations, wood chip operations, timber harvesting operations, and manufacturing of prefabricated buildings, paper, furniture or other goods from forestry products;

(13) facilities and equipment for research and development of products, processes and equipment for the production, processing, preparation or packaging of agricultural commodities and byproducts.

(aa) The term "asset" with respect to financing of any agricultural facility or any agribusiness, means, but is not limited to the following: cash crops or feed on hand; livestock held for sale; breeding stock; marketable bonds and securities; securities not readily marketable; accounts receivable; notes receivable; cash invested in growing crops; net cash value of life insurance; machinery and equipment; cars and trucks; farm and other real estate including life estates and personal residence; value of beneficial interests in trusts; government payments or grants; and any other assets.

(bb) The term "liability" with respect to financing of any agricultural facility or any agribusiness shall include, but not be limited to the following: accounts payable; notes or other indebtedness owed to any source; taxes; rent; amounts owed on real estate contracts or real estate mortgages; judgments; accrued interest payable; and any other liability.

(cc) The term "Predecessor Authorities" means those authorities as described in Section 845-75.

(dd) The term "housing project" means a specific work or improvement located within the State or outside the State and undertaken to provide residential dwelling accommodations, including the acquisition, construction or rehabilitation of lands, buildings and community facilities and in connection therewith to provide nonhousing facilities which are part of the housing project, including land, buildings, improvements, equipment and all ancillary facilities for use for offices, stores, retirement homes, hotels, financial institutions, service, health care, education, recreation or research establishments, or any other commercial purpose which are or are to be related to a housing development, provided that any work or improvement located outside the State is owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State, or any entity affiliated with an entity located within the State.

(ee) The term "conservation project" means any project including the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, maintenance, operation, or upgrade that is intended to create or expand open space or to reduce energy usage through efficiency measures. For the purpose of this definition, "open space" has the definition set forth under Section 10 of the Illinois Open Land Trust Act.

(ff) The term "significant presence" means the existence within the State of the national or regional headquarters of an entity or group or such other facility of an entity or group of entities where a significant amount of the business functions are performed for such entity or group of entities.

(gg) The term "municipal bond issuer" means the State or any other state or commonwealth of the United States, or any unit of local government, school district, agency or instrumentality, office, department, division, bureau, commission, college or university thereof located in the State or any other state or commonwealth of the United States.

(hh) The term "municipal bond program project" means a program for the funding of the purchase of bonds, notes or other obligations issued by or on behalf of a municipal bond issuer.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-90, eff. 7-15-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 35. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 12, 13, and 14.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1153)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Health care facilities" means and includes the following facilities, organizations, and related persons:

(1) An ambulatory surgical treatment center required to be licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

(2) An institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act.

(3) Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act.

(A) If a demonstration project under the Nursing Home Care Act applies for a certificate of need to convert to a nursing facility, it shall meet the licensure and certificate of need requirements in effect as of the date of application.

(B) Except as provided in item (A) of this subsection, this Act does not apply to facilities granted waivers under Section 3-102.2 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(3.5) Skilled and intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act. (A) No permit or exemption is required for a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act prior to the reduction of the number of beds at a facility. If there is a total reduction of beds at a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act, this is a discontinuation or closure of the facility. If a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act reduces the number of beds or discontinues the facility, that facility must notify the Board as provided in Section 14.1 of this Act.

(3.7) Facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(4) Hospitals, nursing homes, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, or kidney disease treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof.

(5) Kidney disease treatment centers, including a free-standing hemodialysis unit required to be licensed under the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act.

(A) This Act does not apply to a dialysis facility that provides only dialysis training, support, and related services to individuals with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis.

(B) This Act does not apply to a dialysis unit located in a licensed nursing home that offers or provides dialysis-related services to residents with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis within the nursing home.

(C) The Board, however, may require dialysis facilities and licensed nursing homes under items (A) and (B) of this subsection to report statistical information on a quarterly basis to the Board to be used by the Board to conduct analyses on the need for proposed kidney disease treatment centers.

(6) An institution, place, building, or room used for the performance of outpatient surgical procedures that is leased, owned, or operated by or on behalf of an out-of-state facility.

(7) An institution, place, building, or room used for provision of a health care category of service, including, but not limited to, cardiac catheterization and open heart surgery.

(8) An institution, place, building, or room housing major medical equipment used in the direct clinical diagnosis or treatment of patients, and whose project cost is in excess of the capital expenditure minimum.

"Health care facilities" does not include the following entities or facility transactions:

(1) Federally-owned facilities.

(2) Facilities used solely for healing by prayer or spiritual means.

(3) An existing facility located on any campus facility as defined in Section 5-5.8b of the Illinois Public Aid Code, provided that the campus facility encompasses 30 or more contiguous acres and that the new or renovated facility is intended for use by a licensed residential facility.

(4) Facilities licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

(5) Facilities designated as supportive living facilities that are in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(6) Facilities established and operating under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act as a children's community-based health care center children's respite care center alternative health care model demonstration program or as an Alzheimer's Disease Management Center alternative health care model demonstration program.

(7) The closure of an entity or a portion of an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, with the exception of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, that elect to convert, in whole or in part, to an assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act and with the exception of a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 in connection with a proposal to close a facility and re-establish the facility in another location.

(8) Any change of ownership of a health care healthcare facility that is licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, with the exception of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes. Changes of ownership of facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act must meet the requirements set forth in Sections 3-101 through 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act. children's community-based health care center of 2013 and with the exception of a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 in connection with a proposal to close a facility and re-establish the facility in another location of 2013

With the exception of those health care facilities specifically included in this Section, nothing in this Act shall be intended to include facilities operated as a part of the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional group. Further, this Act shall not apply to physicians or other licensed health care professional's practices where such practices are carried out in a portion of a health care facility under contract with such health care facility by a physician or by other licensed health care professionals, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional groups, unless the entity constructs, modifies, or establishes a health care facility as specifically defined in this Section. This Act shall apply to construction or modification and to establishment by such health care facility of such contracted portion which is subject to facility licensing requirements, irrespective of the party responsible for such action or attendant financial obligation.

"Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal entities, governmental bodies other than federal, or any combination thereof.

"Consumer" means any person other than a person (a) whose major occupation currently involves or whose official capacity within the last 12 months has involved the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, (b) who is engaged in health research or the teaching of health, (c) who has a material financial interest in any activity which involves the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, or (d) who is or ever has been a member of the immediate family of the person defined by (a), (b), or (c).

"State Board" or "Board" means the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

"Construction or modification" means the establishment, erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement, extension, discontinuation, change of ownership, of or by a health care facility, or the purchase or acquisition by or through a health care facility of equipment or service for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes or for facility administration or operation, or any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum; however, any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility for (i) the construction or modification of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or (ii) a conversion project undertaken in accordance with Section 30 of the Older Adult Services Act shall be excluded from any obligations under this Act.

"Establish" means the construction of a health care facility or the replacement of an existing facility on another site or the initiation of a category of service.

"Major medical equipment" means medical equipment which is used for the provision of medical and other health services and which costs in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, except that such term does not include medical equipment acquired by or on behalf of a clinical laboratory to provide clinical laboratory services if the clinical laboratory is independent of a physician's office and a hospital and it has been determined under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act to meet the requirements of paragraphs (10) and (11) of Section 1861(s) of such Act. In determining whether medical equipment has a value in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, the value of studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition of such equipment shall be included.

"Capital Expenditure" means an expenditure: (A) made by or on behalf of a health care facility (as such a facility is defined in this Act); and (B) which under generally accepted accounting principles is not properly chargeable as an expense of operation and maintenance, or is made to obtain by lease or comparable arrangement any facility or part thereof or any equipment for a facility or part; and which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum.

For the purpose of this paragraph, the cost of any studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition, improvement, expansion, or replacement of any plant or equipment with respect to which an expenditure is made shall be included in determining if such expenditure exceeds the capital expenditures minimum. Unless otherwise interdependent, or submitted as one project by the applicant, components of construction or modification undertaken by means of a single construction contract or financed through the issuance of a single debt instrument shall not be grouped together as one project. Donations of equipment or facilities to a health care facility which if acquired directly by such facility would be subject to review under this Act shall be considered capital expenditures, and a transfer of equipment or facilities for less than fair market value shall be considered a capital expenditure for purposes of this Act if a transfer of the equipment or facilities at fair market value would be subject to review.

"Capital expenditure minimum" means $11,500,000 for projects by hospital applicants, $6,500,000 for applicants for projects related to skilled and intermediate care long-term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, and $3,000,000 for projects by all other applicants, which shall be annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs due to inflation, for major medical equipment and for all other capital expenditures.

"Non-clinical service area" means an area (i) for the benefit of the patients, visitors, staff, or employees of a health care facility and (ii) not directly related to the diagnosis, treatment, or rehabilitation of persons receiving services from the health care facility. "Non-clinical service areas" include, but are not limited to, chapels; gift shops; news stands; computer systems; tunnels, walkways, and elevators; telephone systems; projects to comply with life safety codes; educational facilities; student housing; patient, employee, staff, and visitor dining areas; administration and volunteer offices; modernization of structural components (such as roof replacement and masonry work); boiler repair or replacement; vehicle maintenance and storage facilities; parking facilities; mechanical systems for heating, ventilation, and air conditioning; loading docks; and repair or replacement of carpeting, tile, wall coverings, window coverings or treatments, or furniture. Solely for the purpose of this definition, "non-clinical service area" does not include health and fitness centers.

"Areawide" means a major area of the State delineated on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis for health planning and for health service and having within it one or more local areas for health planning and health service. The term "region", as contrasted with the term "subregion", and the word "area" may be used synonymously with the term "areawide".

"Local" means a subarea of a delineated major area that on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis may be considered to be part of such major area. The term "subregion" may be used synonymously with the term "local".

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice in accordance with the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended.

"Licensed health care professional" means a person licensed to practice a health profession under pertinent licensing statutes of the State of Illinois.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Agency" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Alternative health care model" means a facility or program authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.

"Out-of-state facility" means a person that is both (i) licensed as a hospital or as an ambulatory surgery center under the laws of another state or that qualifies as a hospital or an ambulatory surgery center under regulations adopted pursuant to the Social Security Act and (ii) not licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act. Affiliates of out-of-state facilities shall be considered out-of-state facilities. Affiliates of Illinois licensed health care facilities 100% owned by an Illinois licensed health care facility, its parent, or Illinois physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be considered out-of-state facilities. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include an office or any part of an office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois that is not required to be licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

"Change of ownership of a health care facility" means a change in the person who has ownership or control of a health care facility's physical plant and capital assets. A change in ownership is indicated by the following transactions: sale, transfer, acquisition, lease, change of sponsorship, or other means of transferring control.

"Related person" means any person that: (i) is at least 50% owned, directly or indirectly, by either the health care facility or a person owning, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility; or (ii) owns, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility.

"Charity care" means care provided by a health care facility for which the provider does not expect to receive payment from the patient or a third-party payer.

"Freestanding emergency center" means a facility subject to licensure under Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

"Category of service" means a grouping by generic class of various types or levels of support functions, equipment, care, or treatment provided to patients or residents, including, but not limited to, classes such as medical-surgical, pediatrics, or cardiac catheterization. A category of service may include subcategories or levels of care that identify a particular degree or type of care within the category of service. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional while functioning in an office providing for the care, diagnosis, or treatment of patients. A category of service that is subject to the Board's jurisdiction must be designated in rules adopted by the Board.

"State Board Staff Report" means the document that sets forth the review and findings of the State Board staff, as prescribed by the State Board, regarding applications subject to Board jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-277, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-980, eff. 8-17-12; 98-414, eff. 1-1-14; 98-629, eff. 1-1-15; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-1086, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-22-14.)

(20 ILCS 3960/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1162)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers and duties:

(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria, procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of project reviewed and which are required to carry out the provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care services identified through the comprehensive health planning process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects on access to safety net services.

(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans required to carry out the provisions of this Act.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and updated need determinations when new census data become available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act, facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or nursing homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall include among the information requested a list of all services provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.

In developing health care facility plans, the State Board shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) The size, composition and growth of the population of the area to be served;

(b) The number of existing and planned facilities offering similar programs;

(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;

(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as alternatives or substitutes;

(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the operation of the facility;

(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment of multi-institutional systems where feasible;

(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed construction or modification; and

(h) In the case of health care facilities established by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the members of such religious body or denomination may be considered to be public need.

The health care facility plans which are developed and adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.

(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure and cost reporting. Beginning no later than January 1, 2013, the Department of Public Health shall produce a written annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the development of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning. The Chairman of the State Board and the State Board Administrator shall also receive a copy of the annual report.

(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes enumerated in this Act.

(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review, standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of any existing health services being rendered by health care facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.

(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards, and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of applications for permits for projects of construction or modification of a health care facility, which projects are classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in nature.

Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-31), substantive projects shall include no more than the following:

(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement facility located on the same site as the original facility and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the capital expenditure minimum, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 120 days;

(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service within an existing healthcare facility or (2) discontinuation of a service within an existing healthcare facility, which shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or

(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of a health care facility by an increase in the total number of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.

The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full Board.

Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days from the date the application is declared to be complete.

(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and modifications which are emergent in nature and must be undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from public hearing requirements of this Act.

(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60 days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.

(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant or an adversely affected party to the Board. Requests for a written decision shall be made within 15 days after the Board meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action is scheduled by the Board. State Board members shall provide their rationale when voting on an item before the State Board at a State Board meeting in order to comply with subsection (b) of Section 3-108 of the Administrative Review Law of the Code of Civil Procedure. The transcript of the State Board meeting shall be incorporated into the Board's final decision. The staff of the Board shall prepare a written copy of the final decision and the Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal record. The Board shall consider, for approval, the written draft of the final decision no later than the next scheduled Board meeting. The written decision shall identify the applicable criteria and factors listed in this Act and the Board's regulations that were taken into consideration by the Board when coming to a final decision. If the Board denies or fails to approve an application for permit or exemption, the Board shall include in the final decision a detailed explanation as to why the application was denied and identify what specific criteria or standards the applicant did not fulfill.

(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in any public hearing, after the appointment of a majority of the members to the Board.

(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and request changes to, draft rules and standards.

(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly inform the general public about the opportunity for public hearings and public hearing procedures.

(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a different business line and service model from other regulated facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms, development of alternative services, and current trends in long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures relative to long-term care and the review of related projects. In consultation with other experts from the health field of long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in design models reflective of the changing long-term care marketplace and consumer preferences. The Subcommittee shall evaluate, and make recommendations to the State Board regarding, the buying, selling, and exchange of beds between long-term care facilities within a specified geographic area or drive time. The Board shall file the proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by no later than September 30, 2011. The Subcommittee shall be provided a reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards, procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as provided under Section 12.3 of this Act.

(16) Prescribe and provide forms pertaining to the State Board Staff Report. A State Board Staff Report shall pertain to applications that include, but are not limited to, applications for permit or exemption, applications for permit renewal, applications for extension of the obligation period, applications requesting a declaratory ruling, or applications under the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Self Referral Act. State Board Staff Reports shall compare applications to the relevant review criteria under the Board's rules.

(17) (16) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. An application for the re-establishment of a facility in connection with the relocation of the facility shall not be granted unless the applicant has a contractual relationship with at least one hospital to provide emergency and inpatient mental health services required by facility consumers, and at least one community mental health agency to provide oversight and assistance to facility consumers while living in the facility, and appropriate services, including case management, to assist them to prepare for discharge and reside stably in the community thereafter. No new facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall be established after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly except in connection with the relocation of an existing facility to a new location. An application for a new location shall not be approved unless there are adequate community services accessible to the consumers within a reasonable distance, or by use of public transportation, so as to facilitate the goal of achieving maximum individual self-care and independence. At no time shall the total number of authorized beds under this Act in facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 exceed the number of authorized beds on June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1045, eff. 8-21-13; 97-1115, eff. 8-27-12; 98-414, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-1086, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)

(20 ILCS 3960/13) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1163)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 13. Investigation of applications for permits and certificates of recognition. The State Board shall make or cause to be made such investigations as it deems necessary in connection with an application for a permit or an application for a certificate of recognition, or in connection with a determination of whether or not construction or modification which has been commenced is in accord with the permit issued by the State Board or whether construction or modification has been commenced without a permit having been obtained. The State Board may issue subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of records and may administer oaths to such witnesses.

Any circuit court of this State, upon the application of the State Board or upon the application of any party to such proceedings, may, in its discretion, compel the attendance of witnesses, the production of books, papers, records, or memoranda and the giving of testimony before the State Board, by a proceeding as for contempt, or otherwise, in the same manner as production of evidence may be compelled before the court.

The State Board shall require all health facilities operating in this State to provide such reasonable reports at such times and containing such information as is needed by it to carry out the purposes and provisions of this Act. Prior to collecting information from health facilities, the State Board shall make reasonable efforts through a public process to consult with health facilities and associations that represent them to determine whether data and information requests will result in useful information for health planning, whether sufficient information is available from other sources, and whether data requested is routinely collected by health facilities and is available without retrospective record review. Data and information requests shall not impose undue paperwork burdens on health care facilities and personnel. Health facilities not complying with this requirement shall be reported to licensing, accrediting, certifying, or payment agencies as being in violation of State law. Health care facilities and other parties at interest shall have reasonable access, under rules established by the State Board, to all planning information submitted in accord with this Act pertaining to their area.

Among the reports to be required by the State Board are facility questionnaires for health care facilities licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act. These questionnaires shall be conducted on an annual basis and compiled by the State Board. For health care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, these reports shall include, but not be limited to, the identification of specialty services provided by the facility to patients, residents, and the community at large. Annual reports for facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act shall be different from the annual reports required of other health care facilities and shall be specific to those facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act. The Health Facilities and Services Review Board shall consult with associations representing facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and associations representing facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act when developing the information requested in these annual reports. For health care facilities that contain long term care beds, the reports shall also include the number of staffed long term care beds, physical capacity for long term care beds at the facility, and long term care beds available for immediate occupancy. For purposes of this paragraph, "long term care beds" means beds (i) licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, (ii) licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, (iii) licensed under the MC/DD Act, (iv) (iii) licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, or (v) (iv) licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 and certified as skilled nursing or nursing facility beds under Medicaid or Medicare.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-980, eff. 8-17-12; 98-1086, eff. 8-26-14.)

(20 ILCS 3960/14.1)

Sec. 14.1. Denial of permit; other sanctions.

(a) The State Board may deny an application for a permit or may revoke or take other action as permitted by this Act with regard to a permit as the State Board deems appropriate, including the imposition of fines as set forth in this Section, for any one or a combination of the following:

(1) The acquisition of major medical equipment without a permit or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(2) The establishment, construction, or modification of a health care facility without a permit or in violation of the terms of a permit.

(3) The violation of any provision of this Act or any rule adopted under this Act.

(4) The failure, by any person subject to this Act, to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days after a formal written request for the information.

(5) The failure to pay any fine imposed under this Section within 30 days of its imposition.

(a-5) For facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the ID/DD Community Care Act. For facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the MC/DD Act. For facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for actions specified under item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior operator history, other than for: (i) actions specified under item (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of Section 3-117 of the Nursing Home Care Act; (ii) actions specified under item (a)(6) of Section 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act; or (iii) actions within the preceding 5 years constituting a substantial and repeated failure to comply with the Nursing Home Care Act or the rules and regulations adopted by the Department under that Act. The State Board shall not deny a permit on account of any action described in this subsection (a-5) without also considering all such actions in the light of all relevant information available to the State Board, including whether the permit is sought to substantially comply with a mandatory or voluntary plan of correction associated with any action described in this subsection (a-5).

(b) Persons shall be subject to fines as follows:

(1) A permit holder who fails to comply with the requirements of maintaining a valid permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed 1% of the approved permit amount plus an additional 1% of the approved permit amount for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(2) A permit holder who alters the scope of an approved project or whose project costs exceed the allowable permit amount without first obtaining approval from the State Board shall be fined an amount not to exceed the sum of (i) the lesser of $25,000 or 2% of the approved permit amount and (ii) in those cases where the approved permit amount is exceeded by more than $1,000,000, an additional $20,000 for each $1,000,000, or fraction thereof, in excess of the approved permit amount.

(2.5) A permit holder who fails to comply with the post-permit and reporting requirements set forth in Section 5 shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues. This fine shall continue to accrue until the date that (i) the post-permit requirements are met and the post-permit reports are received by the State Board or (ii) the matter is referred by the State Board to the State Board's legal counsel. The accrued fine is not waived by the permit holder submitting the required information and reports. Prior to any fine beginning to accrue, the Board shall notify, in writing, a permit holder of the due date for the post-permit and reporting requirements no later than 30 days before the due date for the requirements. This paragraph (2.5) takes effect 6 months after August 27, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1115).

(3) A person who acquires major medical equipment or who establishes a category of service without first obtaining a permit or exemption, as the case may be, shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 for each such acquisition or category of service established plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(4) A person who constructs, modifies, or establishes a health care facility without first obtaining a permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed $25,000 plus an additional $25,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues.

(5) A person who discontinues a health care facility or a category of service without first obtaining a permit shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation continues. For purposes of this subparagraph (5), facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, with the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, are exempt from this permit requirement. However, facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act must comply with Section 3-423 of the Nursing Home Care Act, or Section 3-423 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, or Section 3-423 of the MC/DD Act and must provide the Board and the Department of Human Services with 30 days' written notice of their its intent to close. Facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act also must provide the Board and the Department of Human Services with 30 days' written notice of their its intent to reduce the number of beds for a facility.

(6) A person subject to this Act who fails to provide information requested by the State Board or Agency within 30 days of a formal written request shall be fined an amount not to exceed $1,000 plus an additional $1,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the information is not received by the State Board or Agency.

(c) Before imposing any fine authorized under this Section, the State Board shall afford the person or permit holder, as the case may be, an appearance before the State Board and an opportunity for a hearing before a hearing officer appointed by the State Board. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10.

(d) All fines collected under this Act shall be transmitted to the State Treasurer, who shall deposit them into the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-980, eff. 8-17-12; 97-1115, eff. 8-27-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

Section 40. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Section 806 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/806)

Sec. 806. Exemption from penalty. An individual taxpayer shall not be subject to a penalty for failing to pay estimated tax as required by Section 803 if the taxpayer is 65 years of age or older and is a permanent resident of a nursing home. For purposes of this Section, "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13.)

Section 45. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(31) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (35) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law.

(36) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13; 98-456, eff. 8-16-13; 98-534, eff. 8-23-13; 98-574, eff. 1-1-14; 98-583, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 50. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item (14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property transferred incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (27) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law.

(28) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13; 98-456, eff. 8-16-13; 98-534, eff. 8-23-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug"