Public Act 0104 98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

SB0026 Enrolled LRB098 05310 KTG 35344 b

Public Act 098-0104

AN ACT concerning public aid.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

ARTICLE 1.

SHORT TITLE, PRIOR LAW, AND DEFINITIONS

Section 1-101. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

Section 1-101.3. Legislative findings. Illinois is committed to providing behavioral health services in the most community-integrated settings possible, based on the needs of consumers who qualify for State support. This goal is consistent with federal law and regulations and recent court decrees. A variety of services and settings are necessary to ensure that people with serious mental illness receive high quality care that is oriented toward their safety, rehabilitation, and recovery.

The State of Illinois has an inordinately high inpatient hospitalization rate for behavioral health services. This is not productive for those needing behavioral health services. It is also the least cost effective form of behavioral health delivery possible. The General Assembly finds that alternatives to inpatient hospitalization for behavioral health are necessary to both improve outcomes and reduce costs.

Residential settings are an important component of the system of behavioral health care that Illinois is developing. When residential treatment is necessary, these facilities must offer high quality rehabilitation and recovery care, help consumers achieve and maintain their highest level of independent functioning, and prepare them to live in permanent supportive housing and other community-integrated settings. Facilities licensed under this Act will be multi-faceted facilities that provide triage and crisis stabilization to inpatient hospitalization, provide stabilization for those in post crisis stabilization, and provide transitional living assistance to prepare those with serious mental illness to reintegrate successfully into community living settings. Those licensed under this Act will provide care under a coordinated care model and seek appropriate national accreditation and provide productive and measurable outcomes.

Section 1-101.5. Prior law.

(a) This Act provides for licensure of long term care facilities that are federally designated as institutions for the mentally diseased on the effective date of this Act and specialize in providing services to individuals with a serious mental illness. On and after the effective date of this Act, these facilities shall be governed by this Act instead of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(b) All consent decrees that apply to facilities federally designated as institutions for the mentally diseased shall continue to apply to facilities licensed under this Act.

Section 1-101.6. Mental health system planning. The General Assembly finds the services contained in this Act are necessary for the effective delivery of mental health services for the citizens of the State of Illinois. The General Assembly also finds that the mental health system in the State requires further review to develop additional needed services. To ensure the adequacy of community-based services and to offer choice to all individuals with serious mental illness who choose to live in the community, and for whom the community is the appropriate setting, but are at risk of institutional care, the Governor shall convene a working group to develop the process and procedure for identifying needed services in the different geographic regions of the State. The Governor shall include the Division of Mental Health of the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Public Health, community mental health providers, statewide associations of mental health providers, mental health advocacy groups, and any other entity as deemed appropriate for participation in the working group. The Department of Human Services shall provide staff and support to this working group.

Section 1-102. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Abuse" means any physical or mental injury or sexual assault inflicted on a consumer other than by accidental means in a facility.

"Accreditation" means any of the following:

(1) the Joint Commission;

(2) the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities;

(3) the Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program; or

(4) any other national standards of care as approved by the Department.

"Applicant" means any person making application for a license or a provisional license under this Act.

"Consumer" means a person, 18 years of age or older, admitted to a mental health rehabilitation facility for evaluation, observation, diagnosis, treatment, stabilization, recovery, and rehabilitation.

"Consumer" does not mean any of the following:

(i) an individual requiring a locked setting;

(ii) an individual requiring psychiatric hospitalization because of an acute psychiatric crisis;

(iii) an individual under 18 years of age;

(iv) an individual who is actively suicidal or violent toward others;

(v) an individual who has been found unfit to stand trial;

(vi) an individual who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity based on committing a violent act, such as sexual assault, assault with a deadly weapon, arson, or murder;

(vii) an individual subject to temporary detention and examination under Section 3-607 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(viii) an individual deemed clinically appropriate for inpatient admission in a State psychiatric hospital; and

(ix) an individual transferred by the Department of Corrections pursuant to Section 3-8-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

"Consumer record" means a record that organizes all information on the care, treatment, and rehabilitation services rendered to a consumer in a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility.

"Controlled drugs" means those drugs covered under the federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention Control Act of 1970, as amended, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Discharge" means the full release of any consumer from a facility.

"Drug administration" means the act in which a single dose of a prescribed drug or biological is given to a consumer. The complete act of administration entails removing an individual dose from a container, verifying the dose with the prescriber's orders, giving the individual dose to the consumer, and promptly recording the time and dose given.

"Drug dispensing" means the act entailing the following of a prescription order for a drug or biological and proper selection, measuring, packaging, labeling, and issuance of the drug or biological to a consumer.

"Emergency" means a situation, physical condition, or one or more practices, methods, or operations which present imminent danger of death or serious physical or mental harm to consumers of a facility.

"Facility" means a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility that provides at least one of the following services: (1) triage center; (2) crisis stabilization; (3) recovery and rehabilitation supports; or (4) transitional living units for 3 or more persons. The facility shall provide a 24-hour program that provides intensive support and recovery services designed to assist persons, 18 years or older, with mental disorders to develop the skills to become self-sufficient and capable of increasing levels of independent functioning. It includes facilities that meet the following criteria:

(1) 100% of the consumer population of the facility has a diagnosis of serious mental illness;

(2) no more than 15% of the consumer population of the facility is 65 years of age or older;

(3) none of the consumers are non-ambulatory;

(4) none of the consumers have a primary diagnosis of moderate, severe, or profound intellectual disability; and

(5) the facility must have been licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act or the Nursing Home Care Act immediately preceding the effective date of this Act and qualifies as a institute for mental disease under the federal definition of the term.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) a home, institution, or place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois;

(2) a hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefor which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) a facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) a community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) a nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination; however, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(6) a facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(7) a supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(8) a supportive living facility in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(9) an assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(10) an Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(11) a home, institution, or other place operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(12) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act; or

(13) a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act after the effective date of this Act.

"Executive director" means a person who is charged with the general administration and supervision of a facility licensed under this Act.

"Guardian" means a person appointed as a guardian of the person or guardian of the estate, or both, of a consumer under the Probate Act of 1975.

"Identified offender" means a person who meets any of the following criteria:

(1) Has been convicted of, found guilty of, adjudicated delinquent for, found not guilty by reason of insanity for, or found unfit to stand trial for, any felony offense listed in Section 25 of the Health Care Worker Background Check Act, except for the following:

(i) a felony offense described in Section 10-5 of the Nurse Practice Act;

(ii) a felony offense described in Section 4, 5, 6, 8, or 17.02 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act;

(iii) a felony offense described in Section 5, 5.1, 5.2, 7, or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a felony offense described in Section 401, 401.1, 404, 405, 405.1, 407, or 407.1 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; and

(v) a felony offense described in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(2) Has been convicted of, adjudicated delinquent for, found not guilty by reason of insanity for, or found unfit to stand trial for, any sex offense as defined in subsection (c) of Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

"Transitional living units" are residential units within a facility that have the purpose of assisting the consumer in developing and reinforcing the necessary skills to live independently outside of the facility. The duration of stay in such a setting shall not exceed 120 days for each consumer. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to be a prerequisite for transitioning out of a facility.

"Licensee" means the person, persons, firm, partnership, association, organization, company, corporation, or business trust to which a license has been issued.

"Misappropriation of a consumer's property" means the deliberate misplacement, exploitation, or wrongful temporary or permanent use of a consumer's belongings or money without the consent of a consumer or his or her guardian.

"Neglect" means a facility's failure to provide, or willful withholding of, adequate medical care, mental health treatment, psychiatric rehabilitation, personal care, or assistance that is necessary to avoid physical harm and mental anguish of a consumer.

"Personal care" means assistance with meals, dressing, movement, bathing, or other personal needs, maintenance, or general supervision and oversight of the physical and mental well-being of an individual who is incapable of maintaining a private, independent residence or who is incapable of managing his or her person, whether or not a guardian has been appointed for such individual. "Personal care" shall not be construed to confine or otherwise constrain a facility's pursuit to develop the skills and abilities of a consumer to become self-sufficient and capable of increasing levels of independent functioning.

"Recovery and rehabilitation supports" means a program that facilitates a consumer's longer-term symptom management and stabilization while preparing the consumer for transitional living units by improving living skills and community socialization. The duration of stay in such a setting shall be established by the Department by rule.

"Restraint" means:

(i) a physical restraint that is any manual method or physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached or adjacent to a consumer's body that the consumer cannot remove easily and restricts freedom of movement or normal access to one's body; devices used for positioning, including, but not limited to, bed rails, gait belts, and cushions, shall not be considered to be restraints for purposes of this Section; or

(ii) a chemical restraint that is any drug used for discipline or convenience and not required to treat medical symptoms; the Department shall, by rule, designate certain devices as restraints, including at least all those devices that have been determined to be restraints by the United States Department of Health and Human Services in interpretive guidelines issued for the purposes of administering Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. For the purposes of this Act, restraint shall be administered only after utilizing a coercive free environment and culture.

"Self-administration of medication" means consumers shall be responsible for the control, management, and use of their own medication.

"Crisis stabilization" means a secure and separate unit that provides short-term behavioral, emotional, or psychiatric crisis stabilization as an alternative to hospitalization or re-hospitalization for consumers from residential or community placement. The duration of stay in such a setting shall not exceed 21 days for each consumer.

"Therapeutic separation" means the removal of a consumer from the milieu to a room or area which is designed to aid in the emotional or psychiatric stabilization of that consumer.

"Triage center" means a non-residential 23-hour center that serves as an alternative to emergency room care, hospitalization, or re-hospitalization for consumers in need of short-term crisis stabilization.

ARTICLE 2.

GENERAL PROVISIONS

Section 2-100. Rulemaking. The Department is empowered to promulgate any rules necessary to ensure proper implementation and administration of this Act.

Section 2-101. Standards for facilities. The Department shall, by rule, prescribe minimum standards for each level of care for facilities to be in place during the provisional licensure period and thereafter. These standards shall include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) life safety standards that will ensure the health, safety and welfare of residents and their protection from hazards;

(2) number and qualifications of all personnel, including management and clinical personnel, having responsibility for any part of the care given to consumers; specifically, the Department shall establish staffing ratios for facilities which shall specify the number of staff hours per consumer of care that are needed for each level of care offered within the facility;

(3) all sanitary conditions within the facility and its surroundings, including water supply, sewage disposal, food handling, and general hygiene which shall ensure the health and comfort of consumers;

(4) a program for adequate maintenance of physical plant and equipment;

(5) adequate accommodations, staff, and services for the number and types of services being offered to consumers for whom the facility is licensed to care;

(6) development of evacuation and other appropriate safety plans for use during weather, health, fire, physical plant, environmental, and national defense emergencies;

(7) maintenance of minimum financial or other resources necessary to meet the standards established under this Section, and to operate and conduct the facility in accordance with this Act; and

(8) standards for coercive free environment, restraint, and therapeutic separation.

Section 2-102. Staffing ratios. The Department shall establish rules governing the minimum staffing levels and staffing qualifications for facilities. In crafting the staffing ratios, the Department shall take into account the ambulatory nature and mental health of the population served in the facilities. Staffing ratios shall be consistent with national accreditation standards in behavioral health from a recognized national accreditation entity as set forth in the definition of "accreditation" in Section 2-102. The rules shall be created for each type of care offered at the facilities and be crafted to address the different type of services offered. The staffing ratios contained in the rules shall specifically list the positions that are to be counted toward the staffing ratio. In no case shall the staffing ratios contained in rule be less than the following ratios:

(1) a staffing ratio of 3.6 hours of direct care for crisis stabilization;

(2) a staffing ratio of 1.8 hours of direct care for recovery and rehabilitation supports; and

(3) a staffing ratio of 1.6 hours of direct care for transitional living.

Section 2-103. Staff training. Training for all new employees specific to the various levels of care offered by a facility shall be provided to employees during their orientation period and annually thereafter. Training shall be independent of the Department and overseen by the Division of Mental Health to determine the content of all facility employee training and to provide training for all trainers of facility employees. Training of employees shall be consistent with nationally recognized national accreditation standards as defined later in this Act. Training shall be required for all existing staff at a facility prior to the implementation of any new services authorized under this Act.

Section 2-104. Screening prior to admission.

(a) A facility shall, within 24 hours after admission, request a criminal history background check pursuant to the Uniform Conviction Information Act for all persons age 18 or older seeking admission to the facility, unless a background check was initiated by a hospital pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 6.09 of the Hospital Licensing Act. Background checks conducted pursuant to this Section shall be based on the consumer's name, date of birth, and other identifiers as required by the Department of State Police. If the results of the background check are inconclusive, the facility shall initiate a fingerprint-based check, unless the fingerprint check is waived by the Director of Public Health based on verification by the facility that the consumer meets criteria related to the consumer's health or lack of potential risk which may be established by Departmental rule. A waiver issued pursuant to this Section shall be valid only while the consumer is immobile or while the criteria supporting the waiver exist. The facility shall provide for or arrange for any required fingerprint-based checks to be taken on the premises of the facility. If a fingerprint-based check is required, the facility shall arrange for it to be conducted in a manner that is respectful of the consumer's dignity and that minimizes any emotional or physical hardship to the consumer.

(b) If the results of a consumer's criminal history background check reveal that the consumer is an identified offender as defined in this Act, the facility shall do the following:

(1) Immediately notify the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, in collaboration with the Department of Public Health, that the consumer is an identified offender.

(2) Within 72 hours, arrange for a fingerprint-based criminal history record inquiry to be requested on the identified offender consumer. The inquiry shall be based on the subject's name, sex, race, date of birth, fingerprint images, and other identifiers required by the Department of State Police. The inquiry shall be processed through the files of the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to locate any criminal history record information that may exist regarding the subject. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish to the Department of State Police, pursuant to an inquiry under this paragraph (2), any criminal history record information contained in its files.

Section 2-105. Criminal History Report.

(a) The Department of State Police shall prepare a Criminal History Report when it receives information, through the criminal history background check required pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 6.09 of the Hospital Licensing Act or subsection (c) of Section 2-201.5 of the Nursing Home Care Act, or through any other means, that a consumer of a facility is an identified offender.

(b) The Department of State Police shall complete the Criminal History Report within 10 business days after receiving information under subsection (a) that a consumer is an identified offender.

(c) The Criminal History Report shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) Copies of the identified offender's parole, mandatory supervised release, or probation orders.

(2) An interview with the identified offender.

(3) A detailed summary of the entire criminal history of the offender, including arrests, convictions, and the date of the identified offender's last conviction relative to the date of admission to a long-term care facility.

(4) If the identified offender is a convicted or registered sex offender, a review of any and all sex offender evaluations conducted on that offender. If there is no sex offender evaluation available, the Department of State Police shall arrange, through the Department of Public Health, for a sex offender evaluation to be conducted on the identified offender. If the convicted or registered sex offender is under supervision by the Illinois Department of Corrections or a county probation department, the sex offender evaluation shall be arranged by and at the expense of the supervising agency. All evaluations conducted on convicted or registered sex offenders under this Act shall be conducted by sex offender evaluators approved by the Sex Offender Management Board.

(d) The Department of State Police shall provide the Criminal History Report to a licensed forensic psychologist. After (i) consideration of the Criminal History Report, (ii) consultation with the facility administrator or the facility medical director, or both, regarding the mental and physical condition of the identified offender, and (iii) reviewing the facility's file on the identified offender, including all incident reports, all information regarding medication and medication compliance, and all information regarding previous discharges or transfers from other facilities, the licensed forensic psychologist shall prepare an Identified Offender Report and Recommendation. The Identified Offender Report and Recommendation shall detail whether and to what extent the identified offender's criminal history necessitates the implementation of security measures within the long-term care facility. If the identified offender is a convicted or registered sex offender or if the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation reveals that the identified offender poses a significant risk of harm to others within the facility, the offender shall be required to have his or her own room within the facility.

(e) The licensed forensic psychologist shall complete the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation within 14 business days after receiving the Criminal History Report and shall promptly provide the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation to the Department of State Police, which shall provide the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation to the following:

(1) The facility within which the identified offender resides.

(2) The Chief of Police of the municipality in which the facility is located.

(3) The State of Illinois Long Term Care Ombudsman.

(4) The Department of Public Health.

(e-5) The Department of Public Health shall keep a continuing record of all consumers determined to be identified offenders as defined in Section 1-114.01 of the Nursing Home Care Act and shall report the number of identified offender consumers annually to the General Assembly.

(f) The facility shall incorporate the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation into the identified offender's care plan created pursuant to 42 CFR 483.20.

(g) If, based on the Identified Offender Report and Recommendation, a facility determines that it cannot manage the identified offender consumer safely within the facility, it shall commence involuntary transfer or discharge proceedings pursuant to Section 3-402.

(h) Except for willful and wanton misconduct, any person authorized to participate in the development of a Criminal History Report or Identified Offender Report and Recommendation is immune from criminal or civil liability for any acts or omissions as the result of his or her good faith effort to comply with this Section.

ARTICLE 3.

RIGHTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES

PART 1.

CONSUMER RIGHTS

Section 3-101. Consumers' rights. Consumers served by a facility under this Act shall have all the rights guaranteed pursuant to Chapter II, Article I of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, a list of which shall be prominently posted in English and any other language representing at least 5% of the county population in which the specialized mental health rehabilitation facility is located.

Section 3-102. Financial affairs. A consumer shall be permitted to manage his or her own financial affairs unless he or she or his or her guardian authorizes the executive director of the facility in writing to manage the consumer's financial affairs.

Section 3-103. Consumers' moneys and possessions. To the extent possible, each consumer shall be responsible for his or her own moneys and personal property or possessions in his or her own immediate living quarters unless deemed inappropriate by a physician or other facility clinician and so documented in the consumer's record. In the event the moneys or possessions of a consumer come under the supervision of the facility, either voluntarily on the part of the consumer or so ordered by a facility physician or other clinician, each facility to whom a consumer's moneys or possessions have been entrusted shall comply with the following:

(1) no facility shall commingle consumers' moneys or possessions with those of the facility; consumers' moneys and possessions shall be maintained separately, intact, and free from any liability that the facility incurs in the use of the facility's funds;

(2) the facility shall provide reasonably adequate space for the possessions of the consumer; the facility shall provide a means of safeguarding small items of value for its consumers in their rooms or in any other part of the facility so long as the consumers have reasonable and adequate access to such possessions; and

(3) the facility shall make reasonable efforts to prevent loss and theft of consumers' possessions; those efforts shall be appropriate to the particular facility and particular living setting within each facility and may include staff training and monitoring, labeling possessions, and frequent possession inventories; the facility shall develop procedures for investigating complaints concerning theft of consumers' possessions and shall promptly investigate all such complaints.

Section 3-104. Care, treatment, and records. Facilities shall provide, at a minimum, the following services: physician, nursing, pharmaceutical, rehabilitative, and dietary services. To provide these services, the facility shall adhere to the following:

(1) Each consumer shall be encouraged and assisted to achieve and maintain the highest level of self-care and independence. Every effort shall be made to keep consumers active and out of bed for reasonable periods of time, except when contraindicated by physician orders.

(2) Every consumer shall be engaged in a person-centered planning process regarding his or her total care and treatment.

(3) All medical treatment and procedures shall be administered as ordered by a physician. All new physician orders shall be reviewed by the facility's director of nursing or charge nurse designee within 24 hours after such orders have been issued to ensure facility compliance with such orders. According to rules adopted by the Department, every woman consumer of child bearing age shall receive routine obstetrical and gynecological evaluations as well as necessary prenatal care.

(4) Each consumer shall be provided with good nutrition and with necessary fluids for hydration.

(5) Each consumer shall be provided visual privacy during treatment and personal care.

(6) Every consumer or consumer's guardian shall be permitted to inspect and copy all his or her clinical and other records concerning his or her care kept by the facility or by his or her physician. The facility may charge a reasonable fee for duplication of a record.

Section 3-105. Supplemental Security Income. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall explore potential avenues to enable consumers to continue to receive and possess a portion of, or their full, Supplemental Security Income benefit while receiving services at a facility. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall investigate strategies that are most beneficial to the consumer and cost effective for the State. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may implement a strategy to enable a consumer to receive and possess a portion of, or his or her full, Supplemental Security Income in administrative rule. This Section is subject to the appropriation of the General Assembly.

Section 3-106. Pharmaceutical treatment.

(a) A consumer shall not be given unnecessary drugs. An unnecessary drug is any drug used in an excessive dose, including in duplicative therapy; for excessive duration; without adequate monitoring; without adequate indications for its use; or in the presence of adverse consequences that indicate the drug should be reduced or discontinued. The Department shall adopt, by rule, the standards for unnecessary drugs.

(b) Informed consent shall be required for the prescription of psychotropic medication consistent with the requirements contained in subsection (b) of Section 2-106.1 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(c) No drug shall be administered except upon the order of a person lawfully authorized to prescribe for and treat mental illness.

(d) All drug orders shall be written, dated, and signed by the person authorized to give such an order. The name, quantity, or specific duration of therapy, dosage, and time or frequency of administration of the drug and the route of administration if other than oral shall be specific.

(e) Verbal orders for drugs and treatment shall be received only by those authorized under Illinois law to do so from their supervising physician. Such orders shall be recorded immediately in the consumer's record by the person receiving the order and shall include the date and time of the order.

Section 3-107. Abuse or neglect; duty to report. A licensee, executive director, employee, or agent of a facility shall not abuse or neglect a consumer. It is the duty of any facility employee or agent who becomes aware of such abuse or neglect to report it to the Department within 24 hours. Facilities shall comply with Sections 3-610 and 3-810 of the Nursing Home Care Act. The provisions under Sections 3-610 and 3-810 of the Nursing Home Care Act shall apply to employees of facilities licensed under this Act.

Section 3-108. Communications; visits. Every consumer, except those in triage centers, shall be permitted unimpeded, private, and uncensored communication of his or her choice by mail, telephone, Internet, or visitation.

The executive director shall ensure that correspondence is conveniently received and reasonably accessible.

The executive director shall ensure that consumers may have private visits at any reasonable hour unless such visits are restricted due to the treatment plan of the consumer.

The executive director shall ensure that space for visits is available and that facility personnel reasonably announce their intent to enter, except in an emergency, before entering any consumer's room during such visits.

Consumers shall be free to leave at any time. If a consumer in a triage center expresses a desire to contact a third party for any purpose, the facility staff shall contact that third party on behalf of the consumer.

Section 3-109. Religion. A consumer shall be permitted the free exercise of religion. Upon a consumer's request, and if necessary, at the consumer's expense, the executive director may make arrangements for a consumer's attendance at religious services of the consumer's choice. However, no religious beliefs or practices or attendance at religious services may be imposed upon any consumer.

Section 3-110. Access to consumers.

(a) Any employee or agent of a public agency, any representative of a community legal services program, or any other member of the general public shall be permitted access at reasonable hours to any individual consumer of any facility, unless the consumer is receiving care and treatment in triage centers.

(b) All persons entering a facility under this Section shall promptly notify appropriate facility personnel of their presence. They shall, upon request, produce identification to establish their identity. No such person shall enter the immediate living area of any consumer without first identifying himself or herself and then receiving permission from the consumer to enter. The rights of other consumers present in the room shall be respected. A consumer may terminate at any time a visit by a person having access to the consumer's living area under this Section.

(c) This Section shall not limit the power of the Department or other public agency otherwise permitted or required by law to enter and inspect a facility.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the executive director of a facility may refuse access to the facility to any person if the presence of that person in the facility would be injurious to the health and safety of a consumer or would threaten the security of the property of a consumer or the facility, or if the person seeks access to the facility for commercial purposes.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to conflict with, or infringe upon, any court orders or consent decrees regarding access.

Section 3-111. Discharge. A consumer may be discharged from a facility after he or she gives the executive director, a physician, or a nurse of the facility written notice of the desire to be discharged. If a guardian has been appointed for a consumer, the consumer shall be discharged upon written consent of his or her guardian. In the event of a requested consumer discharge, the facility is relieved from any responsibility for the consumer's care, safety, and well-being upon the consumer's discharge. The Department shall by rule establish criteria, hearings, and procedures for involuntary discharge.

Section 3-112. Grievances. A consumer shall be permitted to present grievances on behalf of himself or herself or others to the executive director, the consumers' advisory council, State governmental agencies, or other persons without threat of discharge or reprisal in any form or manner whatsoever. The executive director shall provide all consumers or their representatives with the name, address, and telephone number of the appropriate State governmental office where complaints may be lodged.

Section 3-113. Labor. A consumer may refuse to perform labor for a facility.

Section 3-114. Unlawful discrimination. No consumer shall be subjected to unlawful discrimination as defined in Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act by any owner, licensee, executive director, employee, or agent of a facility. Unlawful discrimination does not include an action by any licensee, executive director, employee, or agent of a facility that is required by this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

Section 3-115. Informed consent; restraints. Informed consent shall be required for restraints consistent with the requirements contained in subsection (c) of Section 2-106 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

Section 3-116. Experimental research. No consumer shall be subjected to experimental research or treatment without first obtaining his or her informed, written consent. The conduct of any experimental research or treatment shall be authorized and monitored by an institutional review board appointed by the executive director. The membership, operating procedures and review criteria for the institutional review board shall be prescribed under rules and regulations of the Department and shall comply with the requirements for institutional review boards established by the federal Food and Drug Administration. No person who has received compensation in the prior 3 years from an entity that manufactures, distributes, or sells pharmaceuticals, biologics, or medical devices may serve on the institutional review board.

No facility shall permit experimental research or treatment to be conducted on a consumer, or give access to any person or person's records for a retrospective study about the safety or efficacy of any care or treatment, without the prior written approval of the institutional review board. No executive director, or person licensed by the State to provide medical care or treatment to any person, may assist or participate in any experimental research on or treatment of a consumer, including a retrospective study, that does not have the prior written approval of the board. Such conduct shall be grounds for professional discipline by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

The institutional review board may exempt from ongoing review research or treatment initiated on a consumer before the individual's admission to a facility and for which the board determines there is adequate ongoing oversight by another institutional review board. Nothing in this Section shall prevent a facility, any facility employee, or any other person from assisting or participating in any experimental research on or treatment of a consumer, if the research or treatment began before the person's admission to a facility, until the board has reviewed the research or treatment and decided to grant or deny approval or to exempt the research or treatment from ongoing review.

PART 2.

RESPONSIBILITIES

Section 3-201. Screening prior to admission. Standards for screening prior to admission into a facility under this Act shall be established by rule. The rules shall recognize the different levels of care provided by these facilities, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) triage centers;

(2) crisis stabilization;

(3) recovery and rehabilitation supports; or

(4) transitional living units.

Section 3-203. Consumers' advisory council. Each facility shall establish a consumers' advisory council. The executive director shall designate a member of the facility staff to coordinate the establishment of, and render assistance to, the council.

(1) The composition of the consumers' advisory council shall be specified by rule, but no employee or affiliate of a facility shall be a member of the council.

(2) The council shall meet at least once each month with the staff coordinator who shall provide assistance to the council in preparing and disseminating a report of each meeting to all consumers, the executive director, and the staff.

(3) Records of council meetings shall be maintained in the office of the executive director.

(4) The consumers' advisory council may communicate to the executive director the opinions and concerns of the consumers. The council shall review procedures for implementing consumer rights and facility responsibilities and make recommendations for changes or additions that will strengthen the facility's policies and procedures as they affect consumer rights and facility responsibilities.

(5) The council shall be a forum for:

(A) obtaining and disseminating information;

(B) soliciting and adopting recommendations for facility programming and improvements; and

(C) early identification and for recommending orderly resolution of problems.

(6) The council may present complaints on behalf of a consumer to the Department or to any other person it considers appropriate.

Section 3-205. Disclosure of information to public. Standards for the disclosure of information to the public shall be established by rule. These information disclosure standards shall include, but are not limited to, the following: staffing and personnel levels, licensure and inspection information, national accreditation information, cost and reimbursement information, and consumer complaint information. Rules for the public disclosure of information shall be in accordance with the provisions for inspection and copying of public records in the Freedom of Information Act.

Section 3-206. Confidentiality of records.

(a) The Department shall respect the confidentiality of a consumer's record and shall not divulge or disclose the contents of a record in a manner that identifies a consumer, except upon a consumer's death to a relative or guardian or under judicial proceedings. This Section shall not be construed to limit the right of a consumer to inspect or copy the consumer's own records.

(b) Confidential medical, social, personal, or financial information identifying a consumer shall not be available for public inspection in a manner that identifies a consumer.

Section 3-207. Notice of imminent death. A facility shall immediately notify the consumer's next of kin, representative, and physician of the consumer's death or when the consumer's death appears to be imminent.

Section 3-208. Policies and procedures. A facility shall establish written policies and procedures to implement the responsibilities and rights provided under this Article. The policies shall include the procedure for the investigation and resolution of consumer complaints. The policies and procedures shall be clear and unambiguous and shall be available for inspection by any person. A summary of the policies and procedures, printed in not less than 12-point font, shall be distributed to each consumer and representative.

Section 3-209. Explanation of rights. Each consumer and consumer's guardian or other person acting on behalf of the consumer shall be given a written explanation of all of his or her rights. The explanation shall be given at the time of admission to a facility or as soon thereafter as the condition of the consumer permits, but in no event later than 48 hours after admission and again at least annually thereafter. At the time of the implementation of this Act, each consumer shall be given a written summary of all of his or her rights. If a consumer is unable to read such written explanation, it shall be read to the consumer in a language the consumer understands.

Section 3-210. Staff familiarity with rights and responsibilities. The facility shall ensure that its staff is familiar with and observes the rights and responsibilities enumerated in this Article.

Section 3-211. Vaccinations.

(a) A facility shall annually administer or arrange for administration of a vaccination against influenza to each consumer, in accordance with the recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention that are most recent to the time of vaccination, unless the vaccination is medically contraindicated or the consumer has refused the vaccine.

(b) All persons seeking admission to a facility shall be verbally screened for risk factors associated with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) according to guidelines established by the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Persons who are identified as being at high risk for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, or HIV shall be offered an opportunity to undergo laboratory testing in order to determine infection status if they will be admitted to the facility for at least 7 days and are not known to be infected with any of the listed viruses. All HIV testing shall be conducted in compliance with the AIDS Confidentiality Act. All persons determined to be susceptible to the hepatitis B virus shall be offered immunization within 10 days after admission to any facility. A facility shall document in the consumer's medical record that he or she was verbally screened for risk factors associated with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV, and whether or not the consumer was immunized against hepatitis B.

Section 3-212. Order for transportation of consumer by ambulance. If a facility orders transportation of a consumer of the facility by ambulance, then the facility must maintain a written record that shows (i) the name of the person who placed the order for that transportation and (ii) the medical reason for that transportation.

ARTICLE 4.

LICENSING AND ACCREDITATION

PART 1.

LICENSING

Section 4-101. Licensure system. The Department shall be the sole agency responsible for licensure and shall establish a comprehensive system of licensure for facilities in accordance with this Act for the purpose of:

(1) protecting the health, welfare, and safety of consumers; and

(2) ensuring the accountability for reimbursed care provided in facilities.

Section 4-102. Necessity of license. No person may establish, operate, maintain, offer, or advertise a facility within this State unless and until he or she obtains a valid license therefor as hereinafter provided, which license remains unsuspended, unrevoked, and unexpired. No public official or employee may place any person in, or recommend that any person be in, or directly or indirectly cause any person to be placed in any facility that is being operated without a valid license. All licenses and licensing procedures established under Article III of the Nursing Home Care Act, except those contained in Section 3-202, shall be deemed valid under this Act until the Department establishes licensure. The Department is granted the authority under this Act to establish provisional licensure and licensing procedures under this Act by emergency rule and shall do so within 120 days of the effective date of this Act.

Section 4-103. Provisional licensure emergency rules. The Department, in consultation with the Division of Mental Health of the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, is granted the authority under this Act to establish provisional licensure and licensing procedures by emergency rule. The Department shall file emergency rules concerning provisional licensure under this Act within 120 days after the effective date of this Act. The rules to be filed for provisional licensure shall be for a period of 3 years, beginning with the adoption date of the emergency rules establishing the provisional license, and shall not be extended beyond the date of 3 years after the effective date of the emergency rules creating the provisional license and licensing process. Rules governing the provisional license and licensing process shall contain rules for the different levels of care offered by the facilities authorized under this Act and shall address each type of care hereafter enumerated:

(1) triage centers;

(2) crisis stabilization;

(3) recovery and rehabilitation supports;

(4) transitional living units; or

(5) other intensive treatment and stabilization programs designed and developed in collaboration with the Department.

Section 4-104. Provisional licensure requirements. Rules governing the provisional license and licensing process shall address, at a minimum, the following provisions:

(1) mandatory community agency linkage;

(2) discharge and transition planning;

(3) non-residential triage centers and stabilization center requirements;

(4) crisis stabilization;

(5) transitional living units;

(6) recovery and rehabilitation supports;

(7) therapeutic activity and leisure training program;

(8) admission policies;

(9) consumer admission and assessment requirements;

(10) screening and consumer background checks, consistent with Section 1-114.01, subsections (b) and (c) of Section 2-201.5, and Section 2-201.6 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(11) consumer records;

(12) informed consent;

(13) individualized treatment plan;

(14) consumer rights and confidentiality;

(15) safeguard of consumer funds;

(16) restraints and therapeutic separation;

(17) employee personnel policies and records;

(18) employee health evaluation;

(19) health care worker background check, consistent with the Health Care Worker Background Check Act;

(20) required professional job positions;

(21) consultation and training;

(22) quality assessment and performance improvement;

(23) consumer information;

(24) reporting of unusual occurrences;

(25) abuse and reporting to local law enforcement;

(26) fire safety and disaster preparedness;

(27) required support services, including, but not limited to, physician, health, pharmaceutical, infection control, dietetic, dental, and environmental;

(28) enhanced services requests and program flexibility requests;

(29) participation in a managed care entity, a coordinated care entity, or an accountable care entity; and

(30) appropriate fines and sanctions associated with violations of laws, rules, or regulations.

Section 4-105. Provisional licensure duration. A provisional license shall be valid upon fulfilling the requirements established by the Department by emergency rule. The license shall remain valid as long as a facility remains in compliance with the licensure provisions established in rule. The provisional license shall expire when the administrative rule established by the Department for provisional licensure expires at the end of a 3-year period.

Section 4-106. Provisional licensure outcomes. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in conjunction with the Division of Mental Health of the Department of Human Services and the Department of Public Health, shall establish a methodology by which financial and clinical data are reported and monitored from each program that is implemented in a facility after the effective date of this Act. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall work in concert with a managed care entity, a care coordination entity, or an accountable care entity to gather the data necessary to report and monitor the progress of the services offered under this Act.

Section 4-107. Provisional licensure period completion. After the provisional licensure period is completed, no individual with mental illness whose service plan provides for placement in community-based settings shall be housed or offered placement in a facility at public expense unless, after being fully informed, he or she declines the opportunity to receive services in a community-based setting.

Section 4-108. Surveys and inspections. The Department shall conduct surveys of licensed facilities and their certified programs and services. The Department shall review the records or premises, or both, as it deems appropriate for the purpose of determining compliance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act. The Department shall have access to and may reproduce or photocopy any books, records, and other documents maintained by the facility to the extent necessary to carry out this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act. The Department shall not divulge or disclose the contents of a record under this Section as otherwise prohibited by this Act. Any holder of a license or applicant for a license shall be deemed to have given consent to any authorized officer, employee, or agent of the Department to enter and inspect the facility in accordance with this Article. Refusal to permit such entry or inspection shall constitute grounds for denial, suspension, or revocation of a license under this Act.

(1) The Department shall conduct surveys to determine compliance and may conduct surveys to investigate complaints.

(2) Determination of compliance with the service requirements shall be based on a survey centered on individuals that sample services being provided.

(3) Determination of compliance with the general administrative requirements shall be based on a review of facility records and observation of individuals and staff.

Section 4-109. License sanctions and revocation.

(a) The Department may revoke a license for any failure to substantially comply with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) fails to correct deficiencies identified as a result of an on-site survey by the Department and fails to submit a plan of correction within 30 days after receipt of the notice of violation;

(2) submits false information either on Department forms, required certifications, plans of correction or during an on-site inspection;

(3) refuses to permit or participate in a scheduled or unscheduled survey; or

(4) willfully violates any rights of individuals being served.

(b) The Department may refuse to license or relicense a facility if the owner or authorized representative or licensee has been convicted of a felony related to the provision of healthcare or mental health services, as shown by a certified copy of the court of conviction.

(c) Facilities, as a result of an on-site survey, shall be recognized according to levels of compliance with standards as set forth in this Act. Facilities with findings from Level 1 to Level 3 will be considered to be in good standing with the Department. Findings from Level 3 to Level 5 will result in a notice of violations, a plan of correction and defined sanctions. Findings resulting in Level 6 will result in a notice of violations and defined sanction. The levels of compliance are:

(1) Level 1: Full compliance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act.

(2) Level 2: Acceptable compliance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act. No written plan of correction will be required from the licensee.

(3) Level 3: Partial compliance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act. An administrative warning is issued. The licensee shall submit a written plan of correction.

(4) Level 4: Minimal compliance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act. The licensee shall submit a written plan of correction, and the Department will issue a probationary license. A resurvey shall occur within 90 days.

(5) Level 5: Unsatisfactory compliance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act. The facility shall submit a written plan of correction, and the Department will issue a restricted license. A resurvey shall occur within 60 days.

(6) Level 6: Revocation of the license to provide services. Revocation may occur as a result of a licensee's consistent and repeated failure to take necessary corrective actions to rectify documented violations, or the failure to protect clients from situations that produce an imminent risk.

(d) Prior to initiating formal action to sanction a license, the Department shall allow the licensee an opportunity to take corrective action to eliminate or ameliorate a violation of this Act except in cases in which the Department determines that emergency action is necessary to protect the public or individual interest, safety, or welfare.

(e) Subsequent to an on-site survey, the Department shall issue a written notice to the licensee. The Department shall specify the particular Sections of this Act or the rules promulgated under this Act, if any, with which the facility is not compliant. The Department's notice shall require any corrective actions be taken within a specified time period as required by this Act.

(f) Sanctions shall be imposed according to the following definitions:

(1) Administrative notice: A written notice issued by the Department that specifies rule violations requiring a written plan of correction with time frames for corrections to be made and a notice that any additional violation of this Act or the rules promulgated under this Act may result in a higher level sanction. (Level 3)

(2) Probation: Compliance with this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act is minimally acceptable and necessitates immediate corrective action. Individuals' life safety or quality of care are not in jeopardy. The probationary period is time limited to 90 days. During the probationary period, the facility must make corrective changes sufficient to bring the facility back into good standing with the Department. Failure to make corrective changes within that given time frame may result in a determination to initiate a higher-level sanction. The admission of new individuals shall be prohibited during the probationary period. (Level 4)

(3) Restricted license: A licensee is sanctioned for unsatisfactory compliance. The admission of new individuals shall be prohibited during the restricted licensure period. Corrective action sufficient to bring the licensee back into good standing with the Department must be taken within 60 days. During the restricted licensure period a monitor will be assigned to oversee the progress of the facility in taking corrective action. If corrective actions are not taken, the facility will be subject to a higher-level sanction. (Level 5)

(4) Revocation: Revocation of the license is withdrawal by formal actions of the license. The revocation shall be in effect until such time that the provider submits a re-application and the licensee can demonstrate its ability to operate in good standing with the Department. The Department has the right not to reinstate a license. If revocation occurs as a result of imminent risk, all individuals shall be immediately relocated and all funding will be transferred. (Level 6)

(5) Financial penalty: A financial penalty may be imposed upon finding of violation in any one or combination of the provisions of this Act. In determining an appropriate financial penalty, the Department may consider the deterrent effect of the penalty on the organization and on other providers, the nature of the violation, the degree to which the violation resulted in a benefit to the organization or harm to the public, and any other relevant factor to be examined in mitigation or aggravation of the organization's conduct. The financial penalty may be imposed in conjunction with other sanctions or separately. Higher level sanctions may be imposed in situations where there are repeat violations.

Section 4-110. Citation review and appeal procedures.

(a) Upon receipt of Level 3 to 6 citations, the licensee may provide additional written information and argument disputing the citation with 10 working days. The Department shall respond within 20 days to the licensee's disputation.

(b) If a licensee contests the Department's decision regarding a Level 4 to 6 citation or penalty, it can request a hearing by submitting a written request within 20 working days of the Department's dispute resolution decision. The Department shall notify the licensee of the time and place of the hearing not less than 14 days prior to the hearing date.

(c) A license may not be denied or revoked unless the licensee is given written notice of the grounds for the Department's action. Except when revocation of a license is based on imminent risk, the facility or program whose license has been revoked may operate and receive reimbursement for services during the period preceding the hearing, until such time as a final decision is made.

Section 4-111. Notwithstanding the existence or pursuit of any other remedy, the Director of the Department may, in the manner provided by law, upon the advice of the Attorney General who shall represent the Director of the Department in the proceedings, maintain an action in the name of the State for injunction or other process against any person or governmental unit to restrain or prevent the establishment of a facility without a license issued pursuant to this Act, or to restrain or prevent the opening, conduction, operating, or maintaining of a facility without a license issued pursuant to this Act. In addition, the Director of the Department may, in the manner provided by law, in the name of the People of the State and through the Attorney General who shall represent the Director of the Department in the proceedings, maintain an action for injunction or other relief or process against any licensee or other person to enforce and compel compliance with the provisions of this Act and the standards, rules, and regulations established by virtue of this Act and any order entered for any response action pursuant to this Act and such standards, rules, and regulations.

PART 2.

ACCREDITATION

Section 4-201. Accreditation and licensure. At the end of the provisional licensure period established in Article 3, Part 1 of this Act, the Department shall license a facility as a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility under this Act that successfully completes and obtains valid national accreditation in behavioral health from a recognized national accreditation entity and complies with licensure standards as established by the Department of Public Health in administrative rule. Rules governing licensure standards shall include, but not be limited to, appropriate fines and sanctions associated with violations of laws or regulations. The following shall be considered to be valid national accreditation in behavioral health from an national accreditation entity:

(1) the Joint Commission;

(2) the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities;

(3) the Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program; or

(4) any other national standards of care as approved by the Department.

ARTICLE 5.

FACILITY PAYMENT

Section 5-101. Managed care entity, coordinated care entity, and accountable care entity payments. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under this Act, the payment for services provided shall be determined by negotiation with managed care entities, coordinated care entities, or accountable care entities. However, for 3 years after the effective date of this Act, in no event shall the reimbursement rate paid to facilities licensed under this Act be less than the rate in effect on June 30, 2013 less $7.07 times the number of occupied bed days, as that term is defined in Article V-B of the Illinois Public Aid Code, for each facility previously licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act on June 30, 2013; or the rate in effect on June 30, 2013 for each facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act on June 30, 2013. Any adjustment in the support component or the capital component for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act shall apply equally to facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under this Act for the duration of the provisional licensure period as defined in Section 4-105 of this Act.

ARTICLE 6.

MISCELLANEOUS AND AMENDATORY PROVISIONS; REPEALER

Section 6-101. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act are hereby expressly adopted and shall apply to all administrative rules and procedures of the Department under this Act.

Section 6-102. Judicial review. All final administrative decisions of the Department under this Act are subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law and the rules adopted pursuant thereto. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Section 6-105. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 3-3, 4-6.3, 4-10, 5-9, 5-16.3, 6-50.3, 6-56, 19-4, 19-12.1, and 19-12.2 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/3-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 3-3)

Sec. 3-3. Every honorably discharged soldier or sailor who is an inmate of any soldiers' and sailors' home within the State of Illinois, any person who is a resident of a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or any person who is a resident of a community-integrated living arrangement, as defined in Section 3 of the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act, for 30 days or longer, and who is a citizen of the United States and has resided in this State and in the election district 30 days next preceding any election shall be entitled to vote in the election district in which any such home or community-integrated living arrangement in which he is an inmate or resident is located, for all officers that now are or hereafter may be elected by the people, and upon all questions that may be submitted to the vote of the people: Provided, that he shall declare upon oath, that it was his bona fide intention at the time he entered said home or community-integrated living arrangement to become a resident thereof.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-563, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-6.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-6.3)

Sec. 4-6.3. The county clerk may establish a temporary place of registration for such times and at such locations within the county as the county clerk may select. However, no temporary place of registration may be in operation during the 27 days preceding an election. Notice of the time and place of registration under this Section shall be published by the county clerk in a newspaper having a general circulation in the county not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 4-6.2.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-10)

Sec. 4-10. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered, unless he applies in person to a registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the registration officers or a deputy registration officer, county clerk, or clerk in the office of the county clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your name, place of residence, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The registration officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of any precinct registration and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified he shall forthwith notify such applicant in writing to appear before the county clerk to complete his registration. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as incomplete if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct and whose registration card is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the county clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, ...., did on (insert date) make application to the board of registry of the .... precinct of the township of .... (or to the county clerk of .... county) and that said board or clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct. That I reside in said precinct, that I intend to reside in said precinct, and am a duly qualified voter of said precinct and am entitled to be registered to vote in said precinct at the next election.

(Signature of applicant) ............................."

All such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or to his duly authorized representative by the applicant, in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day after the days on which the 1969 and 1970 precinct re-registrations are held but not on any day within 27 days preceding the ensuing general election and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 4-7 all such applications shall be presented to the county clerk or his duly authorized representative by the applicant in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day prior to 27 days preceding the ensuing general election. Such application shall be heard by the county clerk or his duly authorized representative at the time the application is presented. If the applicant for registration has registered with the county clerk, such application may be presented to and heard by the county clerk or by his duly authorized representative upon the dates specified above or at any time prior thereto designated by the county clerk.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article, or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of ...........)

)ss County of ..........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 4-8 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-9) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-9)

Sec. 5-9. Except as herein provided, no person shall be registered unless he applies in person to registration officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of registration. The registration officer shall require the applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include his or her residence address. These forms of identification shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following: driver's license, social security card, public aid identification card, utility bill, employee or student identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit card, or a civic, union or professional association membership card. The registration officer shall require a homeless individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail addressed to that individual and received at that address or by a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing address. The registration officer shall require each applicant for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

One of the Deputy Registrars, the Judge of Registration, or an Officer of Registration, County Clerk, or clerk in the office of the County Clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

"You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching your place of residence, name, place of birth, your qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."

The Registration Officer shall satisfy himself that each applicant for registration is qualified to register before registering him. If the registration officer has reason to believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the home which is your present address, was it your bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the place of precinct registration, and shall have the right to challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is qualified, he shall forthwith in writing notify such applicant to appear before the County Clerk to furnish further proof of his qualifications. Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word "Incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked as "incomplete" if information to complete it can be furnished on the date of the original application.

Any person claiming to be an elector in any election precinct in such township, city, village or incorporated town and whose registration is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the County Clerk in substance in the following form:

"I do solemnly swear that I, .........., did on (insert date) make application to the Board of Registry of the ........ precinct of ........ ward of the City of .... or of the ......... District ......... Town of .......... (or to the County Clerk of .............) and ............ County; that said Board or Clerk refused to complete my registration as a qualified voter in said precinct, that I reside in said precinct (or that I intend to reside in said precinct), am a duly qualified voter and entitled to vote in said precinct at the next election.

...........................

(Signature of Applicant)"

All such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant, in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and five o'clock p.m., on Monday and Tuesday of the third week subsequent to the weeks in which the 1961 and 1962 precinct re-registrations are to be held, and thereafter for the registration provided in Section 5-17 of this Article, all such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by the applicant in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and nine o'clock p.m. on Monday and Tuesday of the third week prior to the date on which such election is to be held.

Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his county of residence either due to business of the United States or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of the United States may become registered by mailing an application to the county clerk within the periods of registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as provided in Article 20 of this Code.

Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate, which affidavit shall contain the following and such other information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper to require for the identification of the applicant:

Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial for such middle name, if any.

Sex.

Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section, congressional township and range number may be used, or such other information as may be necessary, including post office mailing address.

Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the precinct.

Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was born.

Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of naturalization.

Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.

Out of State address of ..........................

AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION

State of .........)

)ss County of ........)

I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the United States; that on the day of the next election I shall have resided in the State of Illinois for 6 months and in the election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are true.

..............................

(His or her signature or mark)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to administer oaths, on (insert date).

........................................

Signature of officer administering oath.

Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for in Section 5-7 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall constitute the registration of such person the same as if he had applied for registration in person.

(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-16.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-16.3)

Sec. 5-16.3. The county clerk may establish temporary places of registration for such times and at such locations within the county as the county clerk may select. However, no temporary place of registration may be in operation during the 27 days preceding an election. Notice of time and place of registration at any such temporary place of registration under this Section shall be published by the county clerk in a newspaper having a general circulation in the county not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 5-16.2.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-50.3) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-50.3)

Sec. 6-50.3. The board of election commissioners may establish temporary places of registration for such times and at such locations as the board may select. However, no temporary place of registration may be in operation during the 27 days preceding an election. Notice of the time and place of registration at any such temporary place of registration under this Section shall be published by the board of election commissioners in a newspaper having a general circulation in the city, village or incorporated town not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such registration.

Temporary places of registration shall be established so that the areas of concentration of population or use by the public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of private business or in public buildings or in mobile units. Areas which may be designated as temporary places of registration include, but are not limited to, facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors' Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings and county fairs.

Temporary places of registration shall be available to the public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population or fraction thereof in the county.

All temporary places of registration shall be manned by employees of the board of election commissioners or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to Section 6-50.2.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-56) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-56)

Sec. 6-56. Not more than 30 nor less than 28 days before any election under this Article, all owners, managers, administrators or operators of hotels, lodging houses, rooming houses, furnished apartments or facilities licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, which house 4 or more persons, outside the members of the family of such owner, manager, administrator or operator, shall file with the board of election commissioners a report, under oath, together with one copy thereof, in such form as may be required by the board of election commissioners, of the names and descriptions of all lodgers, guests or residents claiming a voting residence at the hotels, lodging houses, rooming houses, furnished apartments, or facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act under their control. In counties having a population of 500,000 or more such report shall be made on forms mailed to them by the board of election commissioners. The board of election commissioners shall sort and assemble the sworn copies of the reports in numerical order according to ward and according to precincts within each ward and shall, not later than 5 days after the last day allowed by this Article for the filing of the reports, maintain one assembled set of sworn duplicate reports available for public inspection until 60 days after election days. Except as is otherwise expressly provided in this Article, the board shall not be required to perform any duties with respect to the sworn reports other than to mail, sort, assemble, post and file them as hereinabove provided.

Except in such cases where a precinct canvass is being conducted by the Board of Election Commissioners prior to a Primary or Election, the board of election commissioners shall compare the original copy of each such report with the list of registered voters from such addresses. Every person registered from such address and not listed in such report or whose name is different from any name so listed, shall immediately after the last day of registration be sent a notice through the United States mail, at the address appearing upon his registration record card, requiring him to appear before the board of election commissioners on one of the days specified in Section 6-45 of this Article and show cause why his registration should not be cancelled. The provisions of Sections 6-45, 6-46 and 6-47 of this Article shall apply to such hearing and proceedings subsequent thereto.

Any owner, manager or operator of any such hotel, lodging house, rooming house or furnished apartment who shall fail or neglect to file such statement and copy thereof as in this Article provided, may, upon written information of the attorney for the election commissioners, be cited by the election commissioners or upon the complaint of any voter of such city, village or incorporated town, to appear before them and furnish such sworn statement and copy thereof and make such oral statements under oath regarding such hotel, lodging house, rooming house or furnished apartment, as the election commissioners may require. The election commissioners shall sit to hear such citations on the Friday of the fourth week preceding the week in which such election is to be held. Such citation shall be served not later than the day preceding the day on which it is returnable.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-4)

Sec. 19-4. Mailing or delivery of ballots - Time.) Immediately upon the receipt of such application either by mail, not more than 40 days nor less than 5 days prior to such election, or by personal delivery not more than 40 days nor less than one day prior to such election, at the office of such election authority, it shall be the duty of such election authority to examine the records to ascertain whether or not such applicant is lawfully entitled to vote as requested, including a verification of the applicant's signature by comparison with the signature on the official registration record card, and if found so to be entitled to vote, to post within one business day thereafter the name, street address, ward and precinct number or township and district number, as the case may be, of such applicant given on a list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively to be kept by such election authority for such purpose in a conspicuous, open and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of such election authority, and in such a manner that such list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission therefor. Within one day after posting the name and other information of an applicant for an absentee ballot, the election authority shall transmit that name and other posted information to the State Board of Elections, which shall maintain those names and other information in an electronic format on its website, arranged by county and accessible to State and local political committees. Within 2 business days after posting a name and other information on the list within its office, the election authority shall mail, postage prepaid, or deliver in person in such office an official ballot or ballots if more than one are to be voted at said election. Mail delivery of Temporarily Absent Student ballot applications pursuant to Section 19-12.3 shall be by nonforwardable mail. However, for the consolidated election, absentee ballots for certain precincts may be delivered to applicants not less than 25 days before the election if so much time is required to have prepared and printed the ballots containing the names of persons nominated for offices at the consolidated primary. The election authority shall enclose with each absentee ballot or application written instructions on how voting assistance shall be provided pursuant to Section 17-14 and a document, written and approved by the State Board of Elections, enumerating the circumstances under which a person is authorized to vote by absentee ballot pursuant to this Article; such document shall also include a statement informing the applicant that if he or she falsifies or is solicited by another to falsify his or her eligibility to cast an absentee ballot, such applicant or other is subject to penalties pursuant to Section 29-10 and Section 29-20 of the Election Code. Each election authority shall maintain a list of the name, street address, ward and precinct, or township and district number, as the case may be, of all applicants who have returned absentee ballots to such authority, and the name of such absent voter shall be added to such list within one business day from receipt of such ballot. If the absentee ballot envelope indicates that the voter was assisted in casting the ballot, the name of the person so assisting shall be included on the list. The list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively, shall be kept by each election authority in a conspicuous, open, and public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the office of the election authority and in a manner that the list may be viewed without necessity of requesting permission for viewing.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of the voters to whom it has issued absentee ballots. The list shall be maintained for each precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. Prior to the opening of the polls on election day, the election authority shall deliver to the judges of election in each precinct the list of registered voters in that precinct to whom absentee ballots have been issued by mail.

Each election authority shall maintain a list for each election of voters to whom it has issued temporarily absent student ballots. The list shall be maintained for each election jurisdiction within which such voters temporarily abide. Immediately after the close of the period during which application may be made by mail for absentee ballots, each election authority shall mail to each other election authority within the State a certified list of all such voters temporarily abiding within the jurisdiction of the other election authority.

In the event that the return address of an application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector is that of a facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, within the jurisdiction of the election authority, and the applicant is a registered voter in the precinct in which such facility is located, the ballots shall be prepared and transmitted to a responsible judge of election no later than 9 a.m. on the Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the election as designated by the election authority under Section 19-12.2. Such judge shall deliver in person on the designated day the ballot to the applicant on the premises of the facility from which application was made. The election authority shall by mail notify the applicant in such facility that the ballot will be delivered by a judge of election on the designated day.

All applications for absentee ballots shall be available at the office of the election authority for public inspection upon request from the time of receipt thereof by the election authority until 30 days after the election, except during the time such applications are kept in the office of the election authority pursuant to Section 19-7, and except during the time such applications are in the possession of the judges of election.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's disabled voter's identification card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for physically disabled voters, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other absentee ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.2) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.2)

Sec. 19-12.2. Voting by physically incapacitated electors who have made proper application to the election authority not later than 5 days before the regular primary and general election of 1980 and before each election thereafter shall be conducted on the premises of (i) federally operated veterans' homes, hospitals, and facilities located in Illinois or (ii) facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act for the sole benefit of residents of such homes, hospitals, and facilities. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center. Such voting shall be conducted during any continuous period sufficient to allow all applicants to cast their ballots between the hours of 9 a.m. and 7 p.m. either on the Friday, Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the regular election. This absentee voting on one of said days designated by the election authority shall be supervised by two election judges who must be selected by the election authority in the following order of priority: (1) from the panel of judges appointed for the precinct in which such home, hospital, or facility is located, or from a panel of judges appointed for any other precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority in the same ward or township, as the case may be, in which the home, hospital, or facility is located or, only in the case where a judge or judges from the precinct, township or ward are unavailable to serve, (3) from a panel of judges appointed for any other precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. The two judges shall be from different political parties. Not less than 30 days before each regular election, the election authority shall have arranged with the chief administrative officer of each home, hospital, or facility in his or its election jurisdiction a mutually convenient time period on the Friday, Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding the election for such voting on the premises of the home, hospital, or facility and shall post in a prominent place in his or its office a notice of the agreed day and time period for conducting such voting at each home, hospital, or facility; provided that the election authority shall not later than noon on the Thursday before the election also post the names and addresses of those homes, hospitals, and facilities from which no applications were received and in which no supervised absentee voting will be conducted. All provisions of this Code applicable to pollwatchers shall be applicable herein. To the maximum extent feasible, voting booths or screens shall be provided to insure the privacy of the voter. Voting procedures shall be as described in Article 17 of this Code, except that ballots shall be treated as absentee ballots and shall not be counted until the close of the polls on the following day. After the last voter has concluded voting, the judges shall seal the ballots in an envelope and affix their signatures across the flap of the envelope. Immediately thereafter, the judges shall bring the sealed envelope to the office of the election authority who shall deliver such ballots to the election authority's central ballot counting location prior to the closing of the polls on the day of election. The judges of election shall also report to the election authority the name of any applicant in the home, hospital, or facility who, due to unforeseen circumstance or condition or because of a religious holiday, was unable to vote. In this event, the election authority may appoint a qualified person from his or its staff to deliver the ballot to such applicant on the day of election. This staff person shall follow the same procedures prescribed for judges conducting absentee voting in such homes, hospitals, or facilities and shall return the ballot to the central ballot counting location before the polls close. However, if the home, hospital, or facility from which the application was made is also used as a regular precinct polling place for that voter, voting procedures heretofore prescribed may be implemented by 2 of the election judges of opposite party affiliation assigned to that polling place during the hours of voting on the day of the election. Judges of election shall be compensated not less than $25.00 for conducting absentee voting in such homes, hospitals, or facilities.

Not less than 120 days before each regular election, the Department of Public Health shall certify to the State Board of Elections a list of the facilities licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act. The lists shall indicate the approved bed capacity and the name of the chief administrative officer of each such home, hospital, or facility, and the State Board of Elections shall certify the same to the appropriate election authority within 20 days thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-275, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-110. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/15) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-15)

Sec. 15. Before any person is released from a facility operated by the State pursuant to an absolute discharge or a conditional discharge from hospitalization under this Act, the facility director of the facility in which such person is hospitalized shall determine that such person is not currently in need of hospitalization and:

(a) is able to live independently in the community; or

(b) requires further oversight and supervisory care for which arrangements have been made with responsible relatives or supervised residential program approved by the Department; or

(c) requires further personal care or general oversight as defined by the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, for which placement arrangements have been made with a suitable family home or other licensed facility approved by the Department under this Section; or

(d) requires community mental health services for which arrangements have been made with a community mental health provider in accordance with criteria, standards, and procedures promulgated by rule.

Such determination shall be made in writing and shall become a part of the facility record of such absolutely or conditionally discharged person. When the determination indicates that the condition of the person to be granted an absolute discharge or a conditional discharge is described under subparagraph (c) or (d) of this Section, the name and address of the continuing care facility or home to which such person is to be released shall be entered in the facility record. Where a discharge from a mental health facility is made under subparagraph (c), the Department shall assign the person so discharged to an existing community based not-for-profit agency for participation in day activities suitable to the person's needs, such as but not limited to social and vocational rehabilitation, and other recreational, educational and financial activities unless the community based not-for-profit agency is unqualified to accept such assignment. Where the clientele of any not-for-profit agency increases as a result of assignments under this amendatory Act of 1977 by more than 3% over the prior year, the Department shall fully reimburse such agency for the costs of providing services to such persons in excess of such 3% increase. The Department shall keep written records detailing how many persons have been assigned to a community based not-for-profit agency and how many persons were not so assigned because the community based agency was unable to accept the assignments, in accordance with criteria, standards, and procedures promulgated by rule. Whenever a community based agency is found to be unable to accept the assignments, the name of the agency and the reason for the finding shall be included in the report.

Insofar as desirable in the interests of the former recipient, the facility, program or home in which the discharged person is to be placed shall be located in or near the community in which the person resided prior to hospitalization or in the community in which the person's family or nearest next of kin presently reside. Placement of the discharged person in facilities, programs or homes located outside of this State shall not be made by the Department unless there are no appropriate facilities, programs or homes available within this State. Out-of-state placements shall be subject to return of recipients so placed upon the availability of facilities, programs or homes within this State to accommodate these recipients, except where placement in a contiguous state results in locating a recipient in a facility or program closer to the recipient's home or family. If an appropriate facility or program becomes available equal to or closer to the recipient's home or family, the recipient shall be returned to and placed at the appropriate facility or program within this State.

To place any person who is under a program of the Department at board in a suitable family home or in such other facility or program as the Department may consider desirable. The Department may place in licensed nursing homes, sheltered care homes, or homes for the aged those persons whose behavioral manifestations and medical and nursing care needs are such as to be substantially indistinguishable from persons already living in such facilities. Prior to any placement by the Department under this Section, a determination shall be made by the personnel of the Department, as to the capability and suitability of such facility to adequately meet the needs of the person to be discharged. When specialized programs are necessary in order to enable persons in need of supervised living to develop and improve in the community, the Department shall place such persons only in specialized residential care facilities which shall meet Department standards including restricted admission policy, special staffing and programming for social and vocational rehabilitation, in addition to the requirements of the appropriate State licensing agency. The Department shall not place any new person in a facility the license of which has been revoked or not renewed on grounds of inadequate programming, staffing, or medical or adjunctive services, regardless of the pendency of an action for administrative review regarding such revocation or failure to renew. Before the Department may transfer any person to a licensed nursing home, sheltered care home or home for the aged or place any person in a specialized residential care facility the Department shall notify the person to be transferred, or a responsible relative of such person, in writing, at least 30 days before the proposed transfer, with respect to all the relevant facts concerning such transfer, except in cases of emergency when such notice is not required. If either the person to be transferred or a responsible relative of such person objects to such transfer, in writing to the Department, at any time after receipt of notice and before the transfer, the facility director of the facility in which the person was a recipient shall immediately schedule a hearing at the facility with the presence of the facility director, the person who objected to such proposed transfer, and a psychiatrist who is familiar with the record of the person to be transferred. Such person to be transferred or a responsible relative may be represented by such counsel or interested party as he may appoint, who may present such testimony with respect to the proposed transfer. Testimony presented at such hearing shall become a part of the facility record of the person-to-be-transferred. The record of testimony shall be held in the person-to-be-transferred's record in the central files of the facility. If such hearing is held a transfer may only be implemented, if at all, in accordance with the results of such hearing. Within 15 days after such hearing the facility director shall deliver his findings based on the record of the case and the testimony presented at the hearing, by registered or certified mail, to the parties to such hearing. The findings of the facility director shall be deemed a final administrative decision of the Department. For purposes of this Section, "case of emergency" means those instances in which the health of the person to be transferred is imperiled and the most appropriate mental health care or medical care is available at a licensed nursing home, sheltered care home or home for the aged or a specialized residential care facility.

Prior to placement of any person in a facility under this Section the Department shall ensure that an appropriate training plan for staff is provided by the facility. Said training may include instruction and demonstration by Department personnel qualified in the area of mental illness or intellectual disabilities, as applicable to the person to be placed. Training may be given both at the facility from which the recipient is transferred and at the facility receiving the recipient, and may be available on a continuing basis subsequent to placement. In a facility providing services to former Department recipients, training shall be available as necessary for facility staff. Such training will be on a continuing basis as the needs of the facility and recipients change and further training is required.

The Department shall not place any person in a facility which does not have appropriately trained staff in sufficient numbers to accommodate the recipient population already at the facility. As a condition of further or future placements of persons, the Department shall require the employment of additional trained staff members at the facility where said persons are to be placed. The Secretary, or his or her designate, shall establish written guidelines for placement of persons in facilities under this Act. The Department shall keep written records detailing which facilities have been determined to have staff who have been appropriately trained by the Department and all training which it has provided or required under this Section.

Bills for the support for a person boarded out shall be payable monthly out of the proper maintenance funds and shall be audited as any other accounts of the Department. If a person is placed in a facility or program outside the Department, the Department may pay the actual costs of residence, treatment or maintenance in such facility and may collect such actual costs or a portion thereof from the recipient or the estate of a person placed in accordance with this Section.

Other than those placed in a family home the Department shall cause all persons who are placed in a facility, as defined by the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or in designated community living situations or programs, to be visited at least once during the first month following placement, and once every month thereafter for the first year following placement when indicated, but at least quarterly. After the first year, the Department shall determine at what point the appropriate licensing entity for the facility or designated community living situation or program will assume the responsibility of ensuring that appropriate services are being provided to the resident. Once that responsibility is assumed, the Department may discontinue such visits. If a long term care facility has periodic care plan conferences, the visitor may participate in those conferences, if such participation is approved by the resident or the resident's guardian. Visits shall be made by qualified and trained Department personnel, or their designee, in the area of mental health or developmental disabilities applicable to the person visited, and shall be made on a more frequent basis when indicated. The Department may not use as designee any personnel connected with or responsible to the representatives of any facility in which persons who have been transferred under this Section are placed. In the course of such visit there shall be consideration of the following areas, but not limited thereto: effects of transfer on physical and mental health of the person, sufficiency of nursing care and medical coverage required by the person, sufficiency of staff personnel and ability to provide basic care for the person, social, recreational and programmatic activities available for the person, and other appropriate aspects of the person's environment.

A report containing the above observations shall be made to the Department, to the licensing agency, and to any other appropriate agency subsequent to each visitation. The report shall contain recommendations to improve the care and treatment of the resident, as necessary, which shall be reviewed by the facility's interdisciplinary team and the resident or the resident's legal guardian.

Upon the complaint of any person placed in accordance with this Section or any responsible citizen or upon discovery that such person has been abused, neglected, or improperly cared for, or that the placement does not provide the type of care required by the recipient's current condition, the Department immediately shall investigate, and determine if the well-being, health, care, or safety of any person is affected by any of the above occurrences, and if any one of the above occurrences is verified, the Department shall remove such person at once to a facility of the Department or to another facility outside the Department, provided such person's needs can be met at said facility. The Department may also provide any person placed in accordance with this Section who is without available funds, and who is permitted to engage in employment outside the facility, such sums for the transportation, and other expenses as may be needed by him until he receives his wages for such employment.

The Department shall promulgate rules and regulations governing the purchase of care for persons who are wards of or who are receiving services from the Department. Such rules and regulations shall apply to all monies expended by any agency of the State of Illinois for services rendered by any person, corporate entity, agency, governmental agency or political subdivision whether public or private outside of the Department whether payment is made through a contractual, per-diem or other arrangement. No funds shall be paid to any person, corporation, agency, governmental entity or political subdivision without compliance with such rules and regulations.

The rules and regulations governing purchase of care shall describe categories and types of service deemed appropriate for purchase by the Department.

Any provider of services under this Act may elect to receive payment for those services, and the Department is authorized to arrange for that payment, by means of direct deposit transmittals to the service provider's account maintained at a bank, savings and loan association, or other financial institution. The financial institution shall be approved by the Department, and the deposits shall be in accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-115. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-550, 2310-560, 2310-565, and 2310-625 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-550) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.40)

Sec. 2310-550. Long-term care facilities. The Department may perform, in all long-term care facilities as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, all facilities as defined in the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, and all facilities as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, all inspection, evaluation, certification, and inspection of care duties that the federal government may require the State of Illinois to perform or have performed as a condition of participation in any programs under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-560) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.87)

Sec. 2310-560. Advisory committees concerning construction of facilities.

(a) The Director shall appoint an advisory committee. The committee shall be established by the Department by rule. The Director and the Department shall consult with the advisory committee concerning the application of building codes and Department rules related to those building codes to facilities under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, and the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(b) The Director shall appoint an advisory committee to advise the Department and to conduct informal dispute resolution concerning the application of building codes for new and existing construction and related Department rules and standards under the Hospital Licensing Act, including without limitation rules and standards for (i) design and construction, (ii) engineering and maintenance of the physical plant, site, equipment, and systems (heating, cooling, electrical, ventilation, plumbing, water, sewer, and solid waste disposal), and (iii) fire and safety. The advisory committee shall be composed of all of the following members:

(1) The chairperson or an elected representative from the Hospital Licensing Board under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(2) Two health care architects with a minimum of 10 years of experience in institutional design and building code analysis.

(3) Two engineering professionals (one mechanical and one electrical) with a minimum of 10 years of experience in institutional design and building code analysis.

(4) One commercial interior design professional with a minimum of 10 years of experience.

(5) Two representatives from provider associations.

(6) The Director or his or her designee, who shall serve as the committee moderator.

Appointments shall be made with the concurrence of the Hospital Licensing Board. The committee shall submit recommendations concerning the application of building codes and related Department rules and standards to the Hospital Licensing Board for review and comment prior to submission to the Department. The committee shall submit recommendations concerning informal dispute resolution to the Director. The Department shall provide per diem and travel expenses to the committee members.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-565) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.88)

Sec. 2310-565. Facility construction training program. The Department shall conduct, at least annually, a joint in-service training program for architects, engineers, interior designers, and other persons involved in the construction of a facility under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act on problems and issues relating to the construction of facilities under any of those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-625)

Sec. 2310-625. Emergency Powers.

(a) Upon proclamation of a disaster by the Governor, as provided for in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, the Director of Public Health shall have the following powers, which shall be exercised only in coordination with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation:

(1) The power to suspend the requirements for temporary or permanent licensure or certification of persons who are licensed or certified in another state and are working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.

(2) The power to modify the scope of practice restrictions under the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act for any persons who are licensed under that Act for any person working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.

(3) The power to modify the scope of practice restrictions under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act for Certified Nursing Assistants for any person working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.

(b) Persons exempt from licensure or certification under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) and persons operating under modified scope of practice provisions under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) and paragraph (3) of subsection (a) shall be exempt from licensure or certification or subject to modified scope of practice only until the declared disaster has ended as provided by law. For purposes of this Section, persons working under the direction of an emergency services and disaster agency accredited by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and a local public health department, pursuant to a declared disaster, shall be deemed to be working under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Department of Public Health.

(c) The Director shall exercise these powers by way of proclamation.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-120. The Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2435/15) (from Ch. 23, par. 3395-15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Abuse" means causing any physical, sexual, or mental abuse to an adult with disabilities, including exploitation of the adult's financial resources. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an adult with disabilities is a victim of abuse or neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an adult with disabilities is a victim of abuse because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

"Adult with disabilities" means a person aged 18 through 59 who resides in a domestic living situation and whose physical or mental disability impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Adults with Disabilities Abuse Project" or "project" means that program within the Office of Inspector General designated by the Department of Human Services to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation of adults with disabilities.

"Domestic living situation" means a residence where the adult with disabilities lives alone or with his or her family or household members, a care giver, or others or at a board and care home or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

(1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act or Section 1-113 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or Section 1-102 1-113 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(2) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government, a federal agency, or the State.

(4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation of organized facilities and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act or community residential alternative as licensed under that Act.

"Emergency" means a situation in which an adult with disabilities is in danger of death or great bodily harm.

"Family or household members" means a person who as a family member, volunteer, or paid care provider has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an adult with disabilities who needs assistance with activities of daily living.

"Financial exploitation" means the illegal, including tortious, use of the assets or resources of an adult with disabilities. Exploitation includes, but is not limited to, the misappropriation of assets or resources of an adult with disabilities by undue influence, by breach of a fiduciary relationship, by fraud, deception, or extortion, or by the use of the assets or resources in a manner contrary to law.

"Mental abuse" means the infliction of emotional or mental distress by a caregiver, a family member, or any person with ongoing access to a person with disabilities by threat of harm, humiliation, or other verbal or nonverbal conduct.

"Neglect" means the failure of another individual to provide an adult with disabilities with or the willful withholding from an adult with disabilities the necessities of life, including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter, or medical care.

Nothing in the definition of "neglect" shall be construed to impose a requirement that assistance be provided to an adult with disabilities over his or her objection in the absence of a court order, nor to create any new affirmative duty to provide support, assistance, or intervention to an adult with disabilities. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an adult with disabilities is a victim of neglect because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

"Physical abuse" means any of the following acts:

(1) knowing or reckless use of physical force, confinement, or restraint;

(2) knowing, repeated, and unnecessary sleep deprivation;

(3) knowing or reckless conduct which creates an immediate risk of physical harm; or

(4) when committed by a caregiver, a family member, or any person with ongoing access to a person with disabilities, directing another person to physically abuse a person with disabilities.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Human Services.

"Sexual abuse" means touching, fondling, sexual threats, sexually inappropriate remarks, or any other sexual activity with an adult with disabilities when the adult with disabilities is unable to understand, unwilling to consent, threatened, or physically forced to engage in sexual behavior. Sexual abuse includes acts of sexual exploitation including, but not limited to, facilitating or compelling an adult with disabilities to become a prostitute, or receiving anything of value from an adult with disabilities knowing it was obtained in whole or in part from the practice of prostitution.

"Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation in which the Adults with Disabilities Abuse Project staff, after assessment, determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or exploitation has occurred.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-354, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-125. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Section 801-10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/801-10)

Sec. 801-10. Definitions. The following terms, whenever used or referred to in this Act, shall have the following meanings, except in such instances where the context may clearly indicate otherwise:

(a) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Finance Authority created by this Act.

(b) The term "project" means an industrial project, conservation project, housing project, public purpose project, higher education project, health facility project, cultural institution project, agricultural facility or agribusiness, and "project" may include any combination of one or more of the foregoing undertaken jointly by any person with one or more other persons.

(c) The term "public purpose project" means any project or facility including without limitation land, buildings, structures, machinery, equipment and all other real and personal property, which is authorized or required by law to be acquired, constructed, improved, rehabilitated, reconstructed, replaced or maintained by any unit of government or any other lawful public purpose which is authorized or required by law to be undertaken by any unit of government.

(d) The term "industrial project" means the acquisition, construction, refurbishment, creation, development or redevelopment of any facility, equipment, machinery, real property or personal property for use by any instrumentality of the State or its political subdivisions, for use by any person or institution, public or private, for profit or not for profit, or for use in any trade or business including, but not limited to, any industrial, manufacturing or commercial enterprise and which is (1) a capital project including but not limited to: (i) land and any rights therein, one or more buildings, structures or other improvements, machinery and equipment, whether now existing or hereafter acquired, and whether or not located on the same site or sites; (ii) all appurtenances and facilities incidental to the foregoing, including, but not limited to utilities, access roads, railroad sidings, track, docking and similar facilities, parking facilities, dockage, wharfage, railroad roadbed, track, trestle, depot, terminal, switching and signaling or related equipment, site preparation and landscaping; and (iii) all non-capital costs and expenses relating thereto or (2) any addition to, renovation, rehabilitation or improvement of a capital project or (3) any activity or undertaking which the Authority determines will aid, assist or encourage economic growth, development or redevelopment within the State or any area thereof, will promote the expansion, retention or diversification of employment opportunities within the State or any area thereof or will aid in stabilizing or developing any industry or economic sector of the State economy. The term "industrial project" also means the production of motion pictures.

(e) The term "bond" or "bonds" shall include bonds, notes (including bond, grant or revenue anticipation notes), certificates and/or other evidences of indebtedness representing an obligation to pay money, including refunding bonds.

(f) The terms "lease agreement" and "loan agreement" shall mean: (i) an agreement whereby a project acquired by the Authority by purchase, gift or lease is leased to any person, corporation or unit of local government which will use or cause the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for lease rental payments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the Authority issued with respect to such project, providing for the maintenance, insuring and operation of the project on terms satisfactory to the Authority, providing for disposition of the project upon termination of the lease term, including purchase options or abandonment of the premises, and such other terms as may be deemed desirable by the Authority, or (ii) any agreement pursuant to which the Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of its bonds issued with respect to a project or other funds of the Authority to any person which will use or cause the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for loan repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the Authority, if any, issued with respect to the project, and providing for maintenance, insurance and other matters as may be deemed desirable by the Authority.

(g) The term "financial aid" means the expenditure of Authority funds or funds provided by the Authority through the issuance of its bonds, notes or other evidences of indebtedness or from other sources for the development, construction, acquisition or improvement of a project.

(h) The term "person" means an individual, corporation, unit of government, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, 2 or more persons having a joint or common interest, or any other legal entity.

(i) The term "unit of government" means the federal government, the State or unit of local government, a school district, or any agency or instrumentality, office, officer, department, division, bureau, commission, college or university thereof.

(j) The term "health facility" means: (a) any public or private institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; (b) any public or private institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act; (c) any public or licensed private hospital as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; (d) any such facility exempted from such licensure when the Director of Public Health attests that such exempted facility meets the statutory definition of a facility subject to licensure; (e) any other public or private health service institution, place, building, or agency which the Director of Public Health attests is subject to certification by the Secretary, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, or which the Director of Public Health attests is subject to standard-setting by a recognized public or voluntary accrediting or standard-setting agency; (f) any public or private institution, place, building or agency engaged in providing one or more supporting services to a health facility; (g) any public or private institution, place, building or agency engaged in providing training in the healing arts, including but not limited to schools of medicine, dentistry, osteopathy, optometry, podiatry, pharmacy or nursing, schools for the training of x-ray, laboratory or other health care technicians and schools for the training of para-professionals in the health care field; (h) any public or private congregate, life or extended care or elderly housing facility or any public or private home for the aged or infirm, including, without limitation, any Facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; (i) any public or private mental, emotional or physical rehabilitation facility or any public or private educational, counseling, or rehabilitation facility or home, for those persons with a developmental disability, those who are physically ill or disabled, the emotionally disturbed, those persons with a mental illness or persons with learning or similar disabilities or problems; (j) any public or private alcohol, drug or substance abuse diagnosis, counseling treatment or rehabilitation facility, (k) any public or private institution, place, building or agency licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or which is not so licensed but which the Director of Children and Family Services attests provides child care, child welfare or other services of the type provided by facilities subject to such licensure; (l) any public or private adoption agency or facility; and (m) any public or private blood bank or blood center. "Health facility" also means a public or private structure or structures suitable primarily for use as a laboratory, laundry, nurses or interns residence or other housing or hotel facility used in whole or in part for staff, employees or students and their families, patients or relatives of patients admitted for treatment or care in a health facility, or persons conducting business with a health facility, physician's facility, surgicenter, administration building, research facility, maintenance, storage or utility facility and all structures or facilities related to any of the foregoing or required or useful for the operation of a health facility, including parking or other facilities or other supporting service structures required or useful for the orderly conduct of such health facility. "Health facility" also means, with respect to a project located outside the State, any public or private institution, place, building, or agency which provides services similar to those described above, provided that such project is owned, operated, leased or managed by a participating health institution located within the State, or a participating health institution affiliated with an entity located within the State.

(k) The term "participating health institution" means (i) a private corporation or association or (ii) a public entity of this State, in either case authorized by the laws of this State or the applicable state to provide or operate a health facility as defined in this Act and which, pursuant to the provisions of this Act, undertakes the financing, construction or acquisition of a project or undertakes the refunding or refinancing of obligations, loans, indebtedness or advances as provided in this Act.

(l) The term "health facility project", means a specific health facility work or improvement to be financed or refinanced (including without limitation through reimbursement of prior expenditures), acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, with funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, any accounts receivable, working capital, liability or insurance cost or operating expense financing or refinancing program of a health facility with or involving funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, or any combination thereof.

(m) The term "bond resolution" means the resolution or resolutions authorizing the issuance of, or providing terms and conditions related to, bonds issued under this Act and includes, where appropriate, any trust agreement, trust indenture, indenture of mortgage or deed of trust providing terms and conditions for such bonds.

(n) The term "property" means any real, personal or mixed property, whether tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, including, without limitation, any real estate, leasehold interests, appurtenances, buildings, easements, equipment, furnishings, furniture, improvements, machinery, rights of way, structures, accounts, contract rights or any interest therein.

(o) The term "revenues" means, with respect to any project, the rents, fees, charges, interest, principal repayments, collections and other income or profit derived therefrom.

(p) The term "higher education project" means, in the case of a private institution of higher education, an educational facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.

(q) The term "cultural institution project" means, in the case of a cultural institution, a cultural facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.

(r) The term "educational facility" means any property located within the State, or any property located outside the State, provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the instruction, feeding, recreation or housing of students, the conducting of research or other work of a private institution of higher education, the use by a private institution of higher education in connection with any educational, research or related or incidental activities then being or to be conducted by it, or any combination of the foregoing, including, without limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in connection with any one or more of the following: an academic facility, administrative facility, agricultural facility, assembly hall, athletic facility, auditorium, boating facility, campus, communication facility, computer facility, continuing education facility, classroom, dining hall, dormitory, exhibition hall, fire fighting facility, fire prevention facility, food service and preparation facility, gymnasium, greenhouse, health care facility, hospital, housing, instructional facility, laboratory, library, maintenance facility, medical facility, museum, offices, parking area, physical education facility, recreational facility, research facility, stadium, storage facility, student union, study facility, theatre or utility.

(s) The term "cultural facility" means any property located within the State, or any property located outside the State, provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the particular purposes or needs of a cultural institution, including, without limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in connection with any one or more of the following: an administrative facility, aquarium, assembly hall, auditorium, botanical garden, exhibition hall, gallery, greenhouse, library, museum, scientific laboratory, theater or zoological facility, and shall also include, without limitation, books, works of art or music, animal, plant or aquatic life or other items for display, exhibition or performance. The term "cultural facility" includes buildings on the National Register of Historic Places which are owned or operated by nonprofit entities.

(t) "Private institution of higher education" means a not-for-profit educational institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which is authorized by law to provide a program of education beyond the high school level and which:

(1) Admits as regular students only individuals having a certificate of graduation from a high school, or the recognized equivalent of such a certificate;

(2) Provides an educational program for which it awards a bachelor's degree, or provides an educational program, admission into which is conditioned upon the prior attainment of a bachelor's degree or its equivalent, for which it awards a postgraduate degree, or provides not less than a 2-year program which is acceptable for full credit toward such a degree, or offers a 2-year program in engineering, mathematics, or the physical or biological sciences which is designed to prepare the student to work as a technician and at a semiprofessional level in engineering, scientific, or other technological fields which require the understanding and application of basic engineering, scientific, or mathematical principles or knowledge;

(3) Is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association or, if not so accredited, is an institution whose credits are accepted, on transfer, by not less than 3 institutions which are so accredited, for credit on the same basis as if transferred from an institution so accredited, and holds an unrevoked certificate of approval under the Private College Act from the Board of Higher Education, or is qualified as a "degree granting institution" under the Academic Degree Act; and

(4) Does not discriminate in the admission of students on the basis of race or color. "Private institution of higher education" also includes any "academic institution".

(u) The term "academic institution" means any not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which institution engages in, or facilitates academic, scientific, educational or professional research or learning in a field or fields of study taught at a private institution of higher education. Academic institutions include, without limitation, libraries, archives, academic, scientific, educational or professional societies, institutions, associations or foundations having such purposes.

(v) The term "cultural institution" means any not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which institution engages in the cultural, intellectual, scientific, educational or artistic enrichment of the people of the State. Cultural institutions include, without limitation, aquaria, botanical societies, historical societies, libraries, museums, performing arts associations or societies, scientific societies and zoological societies.

(w) The term "affiliate" means, with respect to financing of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, any lender, any person, firm or corporation controlled by, or under common control with, such lender, and any person, firm or corporation controlling such lender.

(x) The term "agricultural facility" means land, any building or other improvement thereon or thereto, and any personal properties deemed necessary or suitable for use, whether or not now in existence, in farming, ranching, the production of agricultural commodities (including, without limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and silviculture) or the treating, processing or storing of such agricultural commodities when such activities are customarily engaged in by farmers as a part of farming.

(y) The term "lender" with respect to financing of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, means any federal or State chartered bank, Federal Land Bank, Production Credit Association, Bank for Cooperatives, federal or State chartered savings and loan association or building and loan association, Small Business Investment Company or any other institution qualified within this State to originate and service loans, including, but without limitation to, insurance companies, credit unions and mortgage loan companies. "Lender" also means a wholly owned subsidiary of a manufacturer, seller or distributor of goods or services that makes loans to businesses or individuals, commonly known as a "captive finance company".

(z) The term "agribusiness" means any sole proprietorship, limited partnership, co-partnership, joint venture, corporation or cooperative which operates or will operate a facility located within the State of Illinois that is related to the processing of agricultural commodities (including, without limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and silviculture) or the manufacturing, production or construction of agricultural buildings, structures, equipment, implements, and supplies, or any other facilities or processes used in agricultural production. Agribusiness includes but is not limited to the following:

(1) grain handling and processing, including grain storage, drying, treatment, conditioning, mailing and packaging;

(2) seed and feed grain development and processing;

(3) fruit and vegetable processing, including preparation, canning and packaging;

(4) processing of livestock and livestock products, dairy products, poultry and poultry products, fish or apiarian products, including slaughter, shearing, collecting, preparation, canning and packaging;

(5) fertilizer and agricultural chemical manufacturing, processing, application and supplying;

(6) farm machinery, equipment and implement manufacturing and supplying;

(7) manufacturing and supplying of agricultural commodity processing machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment used in slaughter, treatment, handling, collecting, preparation, canning or packaging of agricultural commodities;

(8) farm building and farm structure manufacturing, construction and supplying;

(9) construction, manufacturing, implementation, supplying or servicing of irrigation, drainage and soil and water conservation devices or equipment;

(10) fuel processing and development facilities that produce fuel from agricultural commodities or byproducts;

(11) facilities and equipment for processing and packaging agricultural commodities specifically for export;

(12) facilities and equipment for forestry product processing and supplying, including sawmilling operations, wood chip operations, timber harvesting operations, and manufacturing of prefabricated buildings, paper, furniture or other goods from forestry products;

(13) facilities and equipment for research and development of products, processes and equipment for the production, processing, preparation or packaging of agricultural commodities and byproducts.

(aa) The term "asset" with respect to financing of any agricultural facility or any agribusiness, means, but is not limited to the following: cash crops or feed on hand; livestock held for sale; breeding stock; marketable bonds and securities; securities not readily marketable; accounts receivable; notes receivable; cash invested in growing crops; net cash value of life insurance; machinery and equipment; cars and trucks; farm and other real estate including life estates and personal residence; value of beneficial interests in trusts; government payments or grants; and any other assets.

(bb) The term "liability" with respect to financing of any agricultural facility or any agribusiness shall include, but not be limited to the following: accounts payable; notes or other indebtedness owed to any source; taxes; rent; amounts owed on real estate contracts or real estate mortgages; judgments; accrued interest payable; and any other liability.

(cc) The term "Predecessor Authorities" means those authorities as described in Section 845-75.

(dd) The term "housing project" means a specific work or improvement undertaken to provide residential dwelling accommodations, including the acquisition, construction or rehabilitation of lands, buildings and community facilities and in connection therewith to provide nonhousing facilities which are part of the housing project, including land, buildings, improvements, equipment and all ancillary facilities for use for offices, stores, retirement homes, hotels, financial institutions, service, health care, education, recreation or research establishments, or any other commercial purpose which are or are to be related to a housing development.

(ee) The term "conservation project" means any project including the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, maintenance, operation, or upgrade that is intended to create or expand open space or to reduce energy usage through efficiency measures. For the purpose of this definition, "open space" has the definition set forth under Section 10 of the Illinois Open Land Trust Act.

(ff) The term "significant presence" means the existence within the State of the national or regional headquarters of an entity or group or such other facility of an entity or group of entities where a significant amount of the business functions are performed for such entity or group of entities.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1021, eff. 7-12-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-135. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Section 806 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/806)

Sec. 806. Exemption from penalty. An individual taxpayer shall not be subject to a penalty for failing to pay estimated tax as required by Section 803 if the taxpayer is 65 years of age or older and is a permanent resident of a nursing home. For purposes of this Section, "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-140. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle of the second division that is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through to the living quarters from the driver's seat, or a motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Until July 1, 2003, and beginning again on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and thereafter, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(31) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(36) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(Source: P.A. 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12.)

Section 6-145. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(8) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2003, and beginning again on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and thereafter, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item (14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(28) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(Source: P.A. 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12.)

(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state use.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12.)

Section 6-150. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(8) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2003, and beginning again on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and thereafter, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item (15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(28) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(Source: P.A. 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-73, eff. 6-30-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12.)

(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)

Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible personal property transferred. The selling price of each item of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When, however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of the contract.

Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000, with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.

With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the cost price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.

With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.

With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

At the election of any registered serviceman made for each fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to the sale of those services.

The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine, regardless of the location of the vending machine.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains flour or requires refrigeration.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products" includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions, shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan lotions and screens, unless those products are available by prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug" label includes:

(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a list of those ingredients contained in the compound, substance or preparation.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12.)

Section 6-155. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-5)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (2) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product.

(5) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle of the second division that is a self contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat, or a motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) Tangible personal property sold to interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce or to lessors under leases of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of purchase by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Petroleum products sold to a purchaser if the seller is prohibited by federal law from charging tax to the purchaser.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Until July 1, 2003, and beginning again on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and thereafter, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(22) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 C.F.R. 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.

(41) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(Source: P.A. 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-73, eff. 6-30-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12.)

Section 6-160. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 15-168, 15-170, and 15-172 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/15-168)

Sec. 15-168. Disabled persons' homestead exemption.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption is granted to disabled persons in the amount of $2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to be deducted from the property's value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The disabled person shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the disabled person.

(2) The disabled person must be liable for paying the real estate taxes on the property.

(3) The disabled person must be an owner of record of the property or have a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. In the case of a leasehold interest in property, the lease must be for a single family residence.

A person who is disabled during the taxable year is eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of residence. If a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "disabled person" means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months. Disabled persons filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of disability in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall constitute proof of disability for purposes of this Act. Issuance of an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a disabled person for purposes of this Act. A disabled person not covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not presenting an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a physician designated by the Department, and his status as a disabled person determined using the same standards as used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required examination shall be borne by the claimant.

(c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a disabled person. The disabled person shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the disabled person.

(2) The disabled person must be liable by contract with the owner or owners of record for paying the apportioned property taxes on the property of the cooperative or life care facility. In the case of a life care facility, the disabled person must be liable for paying the apportioned property taxes under a life care contract as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) The disabled person must be an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building. A leasehold interest does not meet this requirement. If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the cooperative association or management firm shall credit the savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax liability of the qualifying disabled person. The chief county assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the qualified disabled person is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption according to guidelines established by the Department. After a person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall provide to each person granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed designation with the county collector, who shall issue the duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the disabled person in the manner required by the chief county assessment officer.

(e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-170)

Sec. 15-170. Senior Citizens Homestead Exemption. An annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here with relation to cooperatives or life care facilities, to a maximum reduction set forth below from the property's value, as equalized or assessed by the Department, is granted for property that is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable for paying real estate taxes on the property and is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest therein as evidenced by a written instrument, except for a leasehold interest, other than a leasehold interest of land on which a single family residence is located, which is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years or older who has an ownership interest therein, legal, equitable or as a lessee, and on which he or she is liable for the payment of property taxes. Before taxable year 2004, the maximum reduction shall be $2,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and $2,000 in all other counties. For taxable years 2004 through 2005, the maximum reduction shall be $3,000 in all counties. For taxable years 2006 and 2007, the maximum reduction shall be $3,500 and, for taxable years 2008 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is $4,000 in all counties.

For land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person 65 years of age or older who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. For land improved with a life care facility, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by persons 65 years of age or older, irrespective of any legal, equitable, or leasehold interest in the facility, who are liable, under a contract with the owner or owners of record of the facility, for paying property taxes on the property. In a cooperative or a life care facility where a homestead exemption has been granted, the cooperative association or the management firm of the cooperative or facility shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner or resident who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Under this Section and Sections 15-175, 15-176, and 15-177, "life care facility" means a facility, as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act, with which the applicant for the homestead exemption has a life care contract as defined in that Act.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person qualifying subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall continue so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse if the spouse is 65 years of age or older, or if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

A person who will be 65 years of age during the current assessment year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that assessment year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his residence.

Beginning with assessment year 2003, for taxes payable in 2004, property that is first occupied as a residence after January 1 of any assessment year by a person who is eligible for the senior citizens homestead exemption under this Section must be granted a pro-rata exemption for the assessment year. The amount of the pro-rata exemption is the exemption allowed in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days during the assessment year the property is occupied as a residence by a person eligible for the exemption under this Section. The chief county assessment officer must adopt reasonable procedures to establish eligibility for this pro-rata exemption.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility to receive the benefits provided by this Section, by affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The assessor may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited the exemption.

The chief county assessment officer of each county with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants shall provide to each person allowed a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the property of the person receiving the exemption. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption, and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay a fee of $5 to cover administrative costs to the supervisor of assessments, who shall then file the executed designation with the county collector. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, the filing of such an executed designation requires the county collector to provide duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person who executed such designation at any time, in the manner and form required by the chief county assessment officer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer may determine the eligibility of residential property to receive the homestead exemption provided by this Section by application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in accordance with guidelines established by the Department.

In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, beginning in taxable year 2010, each taxpayer who has been granted an exemption under this Section must reapply on an annual basis. The chief county assessment officer shall mail the application to the taxpayer. In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the county board may by resolution provide that if a person has been granted a homestead exemption under this Section, the person qualifying need not reapply for the exemption.

In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if the assessor or chief county assessment officer requires annual application for verification of eligibility for an exemption once granted under this Section, the application shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

The assessor or chief county assessment officer shall notify each person who qualifies for an exemption under this Section that the person may also qualify for deferral of real estate taxes under the Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral Act. The notice shall set forth the qualifications needed for deferral of real estate taxes, the address and telephone number of county collector, and a statement that applications for deferral of real estate taxes may be obtained from the county collector.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1418, eff. 8-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 6-165. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is amended by changing Section 4.03 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3615/4.03) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 704.03)

Sec. 4.03. Taxes.

(a) In order to carry out any of the powers or purposes of the Authority, the Board may by ordinance adopted with the concurrence of 12 of the then Directors, impose throughout the metropolitan region any or all of the taxes provided in this Section. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes. Nothing in this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly is intended to invalidate any taxes currently imposed by the Authority. The increased vote requirements to impose a tax shall only apply to actions taken after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(b) The Board may impose a public transportation tax upon all persons engaged in the metropolitan region in the business of selling at retail motor fuel for operation of motor vehicles upon public highways. The tax shall be at a rate not to exceed 5% of the gross receipts from the sales of motor fuel in the course of the business. As used in this Act, the term "motor fuel" shall have the same meaning as in the Motor Fuel Tax Law. The Board may provide for details of the tax. The provisions of any tax shall conform, as closely as may be practicable, to the provisions of the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act, including without limitation, conformity to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed, except that reference in the Act to any municipality shall refer to the Authority and the tax shall be imposed only with regard to receipts from sales of motor fuel in the metropolitan region, at rates as limited by this Section.

(c) In connection with the tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section the Board may impose a tax upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region motor fuel for the operation of a motor vehicle upon public highways, the tax to be at a rate not in excess of the rate of tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section. The Board may provide for details of the tax.

(d) The Board may impose a motor vehicle parking tax upon the privilege of parking motor vehicles at off-street parking facilities in the metropolitan region at which a fee is charged, and may provide for reasonable classifications in and exemptions to the tax, for administration and enforcement thereof and for civil penalties and refunds thereunder and may provide criminal penalties thereunder, the maximum penalties not to exceed the maximum criminal penalties provided in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The Authority may collect and enforce the tax itself or by contract with any unit of local government. The State Department of Revenue shall have no responsibility for the collection and enforcement unless the Department agrees with the Authority to undertake the collection and enforcement. As used in this paragraph, the term "parking facility" means a parking area or structure having parking spaces for more than 2 vehicles at which motor vehicles are permitted to park in return for an hourly, daily, or other periodic fee, whether publicly or privately owned, but does not include parking spaces on a public street, the use of which is regulated by parking meters.

(e) The Board may impose a Regional Transportation Authority Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the metropolitan region. In Cook County the tax rate shall be 1.25% of the gross receipts from sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics, and 1% of the gross receipts from other taxable sales made in the course of that business. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties, the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the gross receipts from all taxable sales made in the course of that business. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (e), a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this Section is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois, is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the Regional Transportation Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(f) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a Regional Transportation Authority Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the metropolitan region in the business of making sales of service, who as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the metropolitan region, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. In Cook County, the tax rate shall be: (1) 1.25% of the serviceman's cost price of food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to the service occupation tax by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act that is located in the metropolitan region; (2) 1.25% of the selling price of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics; and (3) 1% of the selling price from other taxable sales of tangible personal property transferred. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will Counties the rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred.

The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the Authority), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the Authority), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the Authority), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, that charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(g) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a tax shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the metropolitan region at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. In Cook County the tax rate shall be 1% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will counties the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the metropolitan region. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for the Regional Transportation Authority. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties and interest collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty or interest hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21 and 22 of the Use Tax Act, and are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

(h) The Authority may impose a replacement vehicle tax of $50 on any passenger car as defined in Section 1-157 of the Illinois Vehicle Code purchased within the metropolitan region by or on behalf of an insurance company to replace a passenger car of an insured person in settlement of a total loss claim. The tax imposed may not become effective before the first day of the month following the passage of the ordinance imposing the tax and receipt of a certified copy of the ordinance by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall collect the tax for the Authority in accordance with Sections 3-2002 and 3-2003 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the Authority. The amount to be paid to the Authority shall be the amount collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amount determined by the Department to be necessary for the payment of refunds, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the Authority provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for that amount in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

(i) The Board may not impose any other taxes except as it may from time to time be authorized by law to impose.

(j) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (e), (f) or (g) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section.

(k) The provisions of any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section shall conform as closely as may be practicable to the provisions of the Use Tax Act, including without limitation conformity as to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed. The taxes shall be imposed only on use within the metropolitan region and at rates as provided in the paragraph.

(l) The Board in imposing any tax as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section, shall, after seeking the advice of the State Department of Revenue, provide means for retailers, users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which the taxes may be imposed as provided in those paragraphs to receive refunds of taxes improperly paid, which provisions may be at variance with the refund provisions as applicable under the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act. The State Department of Revenue may provide for certificates of registration for users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which taxes may be imposed as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section to facilitate the reporting and nontaxability of the exempt sales or uses.

(m) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the Regional Transportation Authority as of September 1 next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing, increasing, decreasing, or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of the first month to occur not less than 60 days following such adoption and filing. Any ordinance or resolution of the Authority imposing a tax under this Section and in effect on August 1, 2007 shall remain in full force and effect and shall be administered by the Department of Revenue under the terms and conditions and rates of tax established by such ordinance or resolution until the Department begins administering and enforcing an increased tax under this Section as authorized by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. The tax rates authorized by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly are effective only if imposed by ordinance of the Authority.

(n) The State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois and to the Authority (i) the amount of taxes collected in each County other than Cook County in the metropolitan region, (ii) the amount of taxes collected within the City of Chicago, and (iii) the amount collected in that portion of Cook County outside of Chicago, each amount less the amount necessary for the payment of refunds to taxpayers located in those areas described in items (i), (ii), and (iii). Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amounts, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for the payment of two-thirds of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the Authority and one-third of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the respective counties other than Cook County and the amount certified in items (ii) and (iii) of this subsection to the Authority.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in July 1991 and each year thereafter to the Regional Transportation Authority. The allocation shall be made in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of lowest receipts) and the allocation shall include the amount of average monthly distribution from the Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund. The distribution made in July 1992 and each year thereafter under this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

(o) Failure to adopt a budget ordinance or otherwise to comply with Section 4.01 of this Act or to adopt a Five-year Capital Program or otherwise to comply with paragraph (b) of Section 2.01 of this Act shall not affect the validity of any tax imposed by the Authority otherwise in conformity with law.

(p) At no time shall a public transportation tax or motor vehicle parking tax authorized under paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this Section be in effect at the same time as any retailers' occupation, use or service occupation tax authorized under paragraphs (e), (f) and (g) of this Section is in effect.

Any taxes imposed under the authority provided in paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) shall remain in effect only until the time as any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this Section are imposed and becomes effective. Once any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) is imposed the Board may not reimpose taxes as authorized in paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of the Section unless any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this Section becomes ineffective by means other than an ordinance of the Board.

(q) Any existing rights, remedies and obligations (including enforcement by the Regional Transportation Authority) arising under any tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (c) or (d) of this Section shall not be affected by the imposition of a tax under paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-939, eff. 6-24-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-170. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 35, 55, and 145 as follows:

(210 ILCS 9/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:

"Activities of daily living" means eating, dressing, bathing, toileting, transferring, or personal hygiene.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" means a home, building, residence, or any other place where sleeping accommodations are provided for at least 3 unrelated adults, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and where the following are provided consistent with the purposes of this Act:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit in assisted living and shared housing is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident;

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or resident's representative; and

(4) a physical environment that is a homelike setting that includes the following and such other elements as established by the Department: individual living units each of which shall accommodate small kitchen appliances and contain private bathing, washing, and toilet facilities, or private washing and toilet facilities with a common bathing room readily accessible to each resident. Units shall be maintained for single occupancy except in cases in which 2 residents choose to share a unit. Sufficient common space shall exist to permit individual and group activities.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act. However, a facility licensed under either of those Acts may convert distinct parts of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) The portion of a life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act not licensed as an assisted living establishment under this Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) A shared housing establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Emergency situation" means imminent danger of death or serious physical harm to a resident of an establishment.

"License" means any of the following types of licenses issued to an applicant or licensee by the Department:

(1) "Probationary license" means a license issued to an applicant or licensee that has not held a license under this Act prior to its application or pursuant to a license transfer in accordance with Section 50 of this Act.

(2) "Regular license" means a license issued by the Department to an applicant or licensee that is in substantial compliance with this Act and any rules promulgated under this Act.

"Licensee" means a person, agency, association, corporation, partnership, or organization that has been issued a license to operate an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Licensed health care professional" means a registered professional nurse, an advanced practice nurse, a physician assistant, and a licensed practical nurse.

"Mandatory services" include the following:

(1) 3 meals per day available to the residents prepared by the establishment or an outside contractor;

(2) housekeeping services including, but not limited to, vacuuming, dusting, and cleaning the resident's unit;

(3) personal laundry and linen services available to the residents provided or arranged for by the establishment;

(4) security provided 24 hours each day including, but not limited to, locked entrances or building or contract security personnel;

(5) an emergency communication response system, which is a procedure in place 24 hours each day by which a resident can notify building management, an emergency response vendor, or others able to respond to his or her need for assistance; and

(6) assistance with activities of daily living as required by each resident.

"Negotiated risk" is the process by which a resident, or his or her representative, may formally negotiate with providers what risks each are willing and unwilling to assume in service provision and the resident's living environment. The provider assures that the resident and the resident's representative, if any, are informed of the risks of these decisions and of the potential consequences of assuming these risks.

"Owner" means the individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other person who owns an assisted living or shared housing establishment. In the event an assisted living or shared housing establishment is operated by a person who leases or manages the physical plant, which is owned by another person, "owner" means the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment, except that if the person who owns the physical plant is an affiliate of the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment and has significant control over the day to day operations of the assisted living or shared housing establishment, the person who owns the physical plant shall incur jointly and severally with the owner all liabilities imposed on an owner under this Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its branches.

"Resident" means a person residing in an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Resident's representative" means a person, other than the owner, agent, or employee of an establishment or of the health care provider unless related to the resident, designated in writing by a resident to be his or her representative. This designation may be accomplished through the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, pursuant to the guardianship process under the Probate Act of 1975, or pursuant to an executed designation of representative form specified by the Department.

"Self" means the individual or the individual's designated representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" means a publicly or privately operated free-standing residence for 16 or fewer persons, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and who are unrelated to the owners and one manager of the residence, where the following are provided:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including housing and personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident; and

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or the resident's representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act. A facility licensed under either of those Acts may, however, convert sections of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) An assisted living establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Total assistance" means that staff or another individual performs the entire activity of daily living without participation by the resident.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-975, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 9/35)

Sec. 35. Issuance of license.

(a) Upon receipt and review of an application for a license and review of the applicant establishment, the Director may issue a license if he or she finds:

(1) that the individual applicant, or the corporation, partnership, or other entity if the applicant is not an individual, is a person responsible and suitable to operate or to direct or participate in the operation of an establishment by virtue of financial capacity, appropriate business or professional experience, a record of lawful compliance with lawful orders of the Department and lack of revocation of a license issued under this Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act during the previous 5 years;

(2) that the establishment is under the supervision of a full-time director who is at least 21 years of age and has a high school diploma or equivalent plus either:

(A) 2 years of management experience or 2 years of experience in positions of progressive responsibility in health care, housing with services, or adult day care or providing similar services to the elderly; or

(B) 2 years of management experience or 2 years of experience in positions of progressive responsibility in hospitality and training in health care and housing with services management as defined by rule;

(3) that the establishment has staff sufficient in number with qualifications, adequate skills, education, and experience to meet the 24 hour scheduled and unscheduled needs of residents and who participate in ongoing training to serve the resident population;

(4) that all employees who are subject to the Health Care Worker Background Check Act meet the requirements of that Act;

(5) that the applicant is in substantial compliance with this Act and such other requirements for a license as the Department by rule may establish under this Act;

(6) that the applicant pays all required fees;

(7) that the applicant has provided to the Department an accurate disclosure document in accordance with the Alzheimer's Disease and Related Dementias Special Care Disclosure Act and in substantial compliance with Section 150 of this Act.

In addition to any other requirements set forth in this Act, as a condition of licensure under this Act, the director of an establishment must participate in at least 20 hours of training every 2 years to assist him or her in better meeting the needs of the residents of the establishment and managing the operation of the establishment.

Any license issued by the Director shall state the physical location of the establishment, the date the license was issued, and the expiration date. All licenses shall be valid for one year, except as provided in Sections 40 and 45. Each license shall be issued only for the premises and persons named in the application, and shall not be transferable or assignable.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-990, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 9/55)

Sec. 55. Grounds for denial of a license. An application for a license may be denied for any of the following reasons:

(1) failure to meet any of the standards set forth in this Act or by rules adopted by the Department under this Act;

(2) conviction of the applicant, or if the applicant is a firm, partnership, or association, of any of its members, or if a corporation, the conviction of the corporation or any of its officers or stockholders, or of the person designated to manage or supervise the establishment, of a felony or of 2 or more misdemeanors involving moral turpitude during the previous 5 years as shown by a certified copy of the record of the court of conviction;

(3) personnel insufficient in number or unqualified by training or experience to properly care for the residents;

(4) insufficient financial or other resources to operate and conduct the establishment in accordance with standards adopted by the Department under this Act;

(5) revocation of a license during the previous 5 years, if such prior license was issued to the individual applicant, a controlling owner or controlling combination of owners of the applicant; or any affiliate of the individual applicant or controlling owner of the applicant and such individual applicant, controlling owner of the applicant or affiliate of the applicant was a controlling owner of the prior license; provided, however, that the denial of an application for a license pursuant to this Section must be supported by evidence that the prior revocation renders the applicant unqualified or incapable of meeting or maintaining an establishment in accordance with the standards and rules adopted by the Department under this Act; or

(6) the establishment is not under the direct supervision of a full-time director, as defined by rule.

The Department shall deny an application for a license if 6 months after submitting its initial application the applicant has not provided the Department with all of the information required for review and approval or the applicant is not actively pursuing the processing of its application. In addition, the Department shall determine whether the applicant has violated any provision of the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 9/145)

Sec. 145. Conversion of facilities. Entities licensed as facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act may elect to convert to a license under this Act. Any facility that chooses to convert, in whole or in part, shall follow the requirements in the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, as applicable, and rules promulgated under those Acts regarding voluntary closure and notice to residents. Any conversion of existing beds licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act to licensure under this Act is exempt from review by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-175. The Abuse Prevention Review Team Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 50 as follows:

(210 ILCS 28/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Executive Council" means the Illinois Residential Health Care Facility Resident Sexual Assault and Death Review Teams Executive Council.

"Resident" means a person residing in and receiving personal care from a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

"Review team" means a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team appointed under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 28/50)

Sec. 50. Funding. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, to the extent permitted by federal law, the Department shall use moneys from fines paid by facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act for violating requirements for certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act to implement the provisions of this Act. The Department shall use moneys deposited in the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund to pay the costs of implementing this Act that cannot be met by the use of federal civil monetary penalties.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-180. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, and 6 as follows:

(210 ILCS 30/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4163)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act unless the context otherwise requires:

a. "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

b. "Resident" means a person residing in and receiving personal care from a long term care facility, or residing in a mental health facility or developmental disability facility as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

c. "Long term care facility" has the same meaning ascribed to such term in the Nursing Home Care Act, except that the term as used in this Act shall include any mental health facility or developmental disability facility as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The term also includes any facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

d. "Abuse" means any physical injury, sexual abuse or mental injury inflicted on a resident other than by accidental means.

e. "Neglect" means a failure in a long term care facility to provide adequate medical or personal care or maintenance, which failure results in physical or mental injury to a resident or in the deterioration of a resident's physical or mental condition.

f. "Protective services" means services provided to a resident who has been abused or neglected, which may include, but are not limited to alternative temporary institutional placement, nursing care, counseling, other social services provided at the nursing home where the resident resides or at some other facility, personal care and such protective services of voluntary agencies as are available.

g. Unless the context otherwise requires, direct or indirect references in this Act to the programs, personnel, facilities, services, service providers, or service recipients of the Department of Human Services shall be construed to refer only to those programs, personnel, facilities, services, service providers, or service recipients that pertain to the Department of Human Services' mental health and developmental disabilities functions.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 30/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4164)

Sec. 4. Any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee or any physician, hospital, surgeon, dentist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatrist, accredited religious practitioner who provides treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer in accordance with the tenets and practices of the accrediting church, coroner, social worker, social services administrator, registered nurse, law enforcement officer, field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, field personnel of the Illinois Department of Public Health and County or Municipal Health Departments, personnel of the Department of Human Services (acting as the successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities or the Department of Public Aid), personnel of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, personnel of the State Fire Marshal, local fire department inspectors or other personnel, or personnel of the Illinois Department on Aging, or its subsidiary Agencies on Aging, or employee of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, having reasonable cause to believe any resident with whom they have direct contact has been subjected to abuse or neglect shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department. Persons required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section include all employees of the State of Illinois who are involved in providing services to residents, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with residents; and further include all employees of community service agencies who provide services to a resident of a public or private long term care facility outside of that facility. Any long term care surveyor of the Illinois Department of Public Health who has reasonable cause to believe in the course of a survey that a resident has been abused or neglected and initiates an investigation while on site at the facility shall be exempt from making a report under this Section but the results of any such investigation shall be forwarded to the central register in a manner and form described by the Department.

The requirement of this Act shall not relieve any long term care facility administrator, agent or employee of responsibility to report the abuse or neglect of a resident under Section 3-610 of the Nursing Home Care Act or under Section 3-610 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or under Section 2-107 3-610 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

In addition to the above persons required to report suspected resident abuse and neglect, any other person may make a report to the Department, or to any law enforcement officer, if such person has reasonable cause to suspect a resident has been abused or neglected.

This Section also applies to residents whose death occurs from suspected abuse or neglect before being found or brought to a hospital.

A person required to make reports or cause reports to be made under this Section who fails to comply with the requirements of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 30/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4166)

Sec. 6. All reports of suspected abuse or neglect made under this Act shall be made immediately by telephone to the Department's central register established under Section 14 on the single, State-wide, toll-free telephone number established under Section 13, or in person or by telephone through the nearest Department office. No long term care facility administrator, agent or employee, or any other person, shall screen reports or otherwise withhold any reports from the Department, and no long term care facility, department of State government, or other agency shall establish any rules, criteria, standards or guidelines to the contrary. Every long term care facility, department of State government and other agency whose employees are required to make or cause to be made reports under Section 4 shall notify its employees of the provisions of that Section and of this Section, and provide to the Department documentation that such notification has been given. The Department of Human Services shall train all of its mental health and developmental disabilities employees in the detection and reporting of suspected abuse and neglect of residents. Reports made to the central register through the State-wide, toll-free telephone number shall be transmitted to appropriate Department offices and municipal health departments that have responsibility for licensing long term care facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act. All reports received through offices of the Department shall be forwarded to the central register, in a manner and form described by the Department. The Department shall be capable of receiving reports of suspected abuse and neglect 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Reports shall also be made in writing deposited in the U.S. mail, postage prepaid, within 24 hours after having reasonable cause to believe that the condition of the resident resulted from abuse or neglect. Such reports may in addition be made to the local law enforcement agency in the same manner. However, in the event a report is made to the local law enforcement agency, the reporter also shall immediately so inform the Department. The Department shall initiate an investigation of each report of resident abuse and neglect under this Act, whether oral or written, as provided for in Section 3-702 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 2-208 3-702 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or Section 3-702 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, except that reports of abuse which indicate that a resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be investigated within 24 hours of such report. The Department may delegate to law enforcement officials or other public agencies the duty to perform such investigation.

With respect to investigations of reports of suspected abuse or neglect of residents of mental health and developmental disabilities institutions under the jurisdiction of the Department of Human Services, the Department shall transmit copies of such reports to the Department of State Police, the Department of Human Services, and the Inspector General appointed under Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services Act. If the Department receives a report of suspected abuse or neglect of a recipient of services as defined in Section 1-123 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, the Department shall transmit copies of such report to the Inspector General and the Directors of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act. When requested by the Director of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, or the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department, the Department of Human Services and the Department of State Police shall make available a copy of the final investigative report regarding investigations conducted by their respective agencies on incidents of suspected abuse or neglect of residents of mental health and developmental disabilities institutions or individuals receiving services at community agencies under the jurisdiction of the Department of Human Services. Such final investigative report shall not contain witness statements, investigation notes, draft summaries, results of lie detector tests, investigative files or other raw data which was used to compile the final investigative report. Specifically, the final investigative report of the Department of State Police shall mean the Director's final transmittal letter. The Department of Human Services shall also make available a copy of the results of disciplinary proceedings of employees involved in incidents of abuse or neglect to the Directors. All identifiable information in reports provided shall not be further disclosed except as provided by the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act. Nothing in this Section is intended to limit or construe the power or authority granted to the agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, pursuant to any other State or federal statute.

With respect to investigations of reported resident abuse or neglect, the Department shall effect with appropriate law enforcement agencies formal agreements concerning methods and procedures for the conduct of investigations into the criminal histories of any administrator, staff assistant or employee of the nursing home or other person responsible for the residents care, as well as for other residents in the nursing home who may be in a position to abuse, neglect or exploit the patient. Pursuant to the formal agreements entered into with appropriate law enforcement agencies, the Department may request information with respect to whether the person or persons set forth in this paragraph have ever been charged with a crime and if so, the disposition of those charges. Unless the criminal histories of the subjects involved crimes of violence or resident abuse or neglect, the Department shall be entitled only to information limited in scope to charges and their dispositions. In cases where prior crimes of violence or resident abuse or neglect are involved, a more detailed report can be made available to authorized representatives of the Department, pursuant to the agreements entered into with appropriate law enforcement agencies. Any criminal charges and their disposition information obtained by the Department shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Department, except as required herein, to authorized representatives or delegates of the Department, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Department who is not duly authorized to handle resident abuse or neglect investigations.

The Department shall effect formal agreements with appropriate law enforcement agencies in the various counties and communities to encourage cooperation and coordination in the handling of resident abuse or neglect cases pursuant to this Act. The Department shall adopt and implement methods and procedures to promote statewide uniformity in the handling of reports of abuse and neglect under this Act, and those methods and procedures shall be adhered to by personnel of the Department involved in such investigations and reporting. The Department shall also make information required by this Act available to authorized personnel within the Department, as well as its authorized representatives.

The Department shall keep a continuing record of all reports made pursuant to this Act, including indications of the final determination of any investigation and the final disposition of all reports.

The Department shall report annually to the General Assembly on the incidence of abuse and neglect of long term care facility residents, with special attention to residents who are mentally disabled. The report shall include but not be limited to data on the number and source of reports of suspected abuse or neglect filed under this Act, the nature of any injuries to residents, the final determination of investigations, the type and number of cases where abuse or neglect is determined to exist, and the final disposition of cases.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-185. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Sections 1-113, 2-204, 3-202.05, and 3-202.5 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/1-113) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4151-113)

Sec. 1-113. "Facility" or "long-term care facility" means a private home, institution, building, residence, or any other place, whether operated for profit or not, or a county home for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, or any similar institution operated by a political subdivision of the State of Illinois, which provides, through its ownership or management, personal care, sheltered care or nursing for 3 or more persons, not related to the applicant or owner by blood or marriage. It includes skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities as those terms are defined in Title XVIII and Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act. It also includes homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs.

"Facility" does not include the following:

(1) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places operated by or under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(2) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation as organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(3) Any "facility for child care" as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969;

(4) Any "Community Living Facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(5) Any "community residential alternative" as defined in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;

(6) Any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to sanitation and safety;

(7) Any facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) Any "Supportive Residence" licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act;

(9) Any "supportive living facility" in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(10) Any assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;

(11) An Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(12) A facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act; or

(13) A facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 45/2-204) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4152-204)

Sec. 2-204. The Director shall appoint a Long-Term Care Facility Advisory Board to consult with the Department and the residents' advisory councils created under Section 2-203.

(a) The Board shall be comprised of the following persons:

(1) The Director who shall serve as chairman, ex officio and nonvoting; and

(2) One representative each of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, the Department on Aging, and the Office of the State Fire Marshal, all nonvoting members;

(3) One member who shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches;

(4) One member who shall be a registered nurse selected from the recommendations of professional nursing associations;

(5) Four members who shall be selected from the recommendations by organizations whose membership consists of facilities;

(6) Two members who shall represent the general public who are not members of a residents' advisory council established under Section 2-203 and who have no responsibility for management or formation of policy or financial interest in a facility;

(7) One member who is a member of a residents' advisory council established under Section 2-203 and is capable of actively participating on the Board; and

(8) One member who shall be selected from the recommendations of consumer organizations which engage solely in advocacy or legal representation on behalf of residents and their immediate families.

(b) The terms of those members of the Board appointed prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1988 shall expire on December 31, 1988. Members of the Board created by this amendatory Act of 1988 shall be appointed to serve for terms as follows: 3 for 2 years, 3 for 3 years and 3 for 4 years. The member of the Board added by this amendatory Act of 1989 shall be appointed to serve for a term of 4 years. Each successor member shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term. The Board shall meet as frequently as the chairman deems necessary, but not less than 4 times each year. Upon request by 4 or more members the chairman shall call a meeting of the Board. The affirmative vote of 6 members of the Board shall be necessary for Board action. A member of the Board can designate a replacement to serve at the Board meeting and vote in place of the member by submitting a letter of designation to the chairman prior to or at the Board meeting. The Board members shall be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(c) The Advisory Board shall advise the Department of Public Health on all aspects of its responsibilities under this Act and the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Facilities Act of 2013, including the format and content of any rules promulgated by the Department of Public Health. Any such rules, except emergency rules promulgated pursuant to Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, promulgated without obtaining the advice of the Advisory Board are null and void. In the event that the Department fails to follow the advice of the Board, the Department shall, prior to the promulgation of such rules, transmit a written explanation of the reason thereof to the Board. During its review of rules, the Board shall analyze the economic and regulatory impact of those rules. If the Advisory Board, having been asked for its advice, fails to advise the Department within 90 days, the rules shall be considered acted upon.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; revised 8-3-12.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-202.05)

Sec. 3-202.05. Staffing ratios effective July 1, 2010 and thereafter.

(a) For the purpose of computing staff to resident ratios, direct care staff shall include:

(1) registered nurses;

(2) licensed practical nurses;

(3) certified nurse assistants;

(4) psychiatric services rehabilitation aides;

(5) rehabilitation and therapy aides;

(6) psychiatric services rehabilitation coordinators;

(7) assistant directors of nursing;

(8) 50% of the Director of Nurses' time; and

(9) 30% of the Social Services Directors' time.

The Department shall, by rule, allow certain facilities subject to 77 Ill. Admin. Code 300.4000 and following (Subpart S) to utilize specialized clinical staff, as defined in rules, to count towards the staffing ratios.

Within 120 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Department shall promulgate rules specific to the staffing requirements for facilities federally defined as Institutions for Mental Disease. These rules shall recognize the unique nature of individuals with chronic mental health conditions, shall include minimum requirements for specialized clinical staff, including clinical social workers, psychiatrists, psychologists, and direct care staff set forth in paragraphs (4) through (6) and any other specialized staff which may be utilized and deemed necessary to count toward staffing ratios.

Within 120 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the Department shall promulgate rules specific to the staffing requirements for facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. These rules shall recognize the unique nature of individuals with chronic mental health conditions, shall include minimum requirements for specialized clinical staff, including clinical social workers, psychiatrists, psychologists, and direct care staff set forth in paragraphs (4) through (6) and any other specialized staff which may be utilized and deemed necessary to count toward staffing ratios.

(b) Beginning January 1, 2011, and thereafter, light intermediate care shall be staffed at the same staffing ratio as intermediate care.

(c) Facilities shall notify the Department within 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, of the staffing ratios in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly for both intermediate and skilled care and the number of residents receiving each level of care.

(d)(1) Effective July 1, 2010, for each resident needing skilled care, a minimum staffing ratio of 2.5 hours of nursing and personal care each day must be provided; for each resident needing intermediate care, 1.7 hours of nursing and personal care each day must be provided.

(2) Effective January 1, 2011, the minimum staffing ratios shall be increased to 2.7 hours of nursing and personal care each day for a resident needing skilled care and 1.9 hours of nursing and personal care each day for a resident needing intermediate care.

(3) Effective January 1, 2012, the minimum staffing ratios shall be increased to 3.0 hours of nursing and personal care each day for a resident needing skilled care and 2.1 hours of nursing and personal care each day for a resident needing intermediate care.

(4) Effective January 1, 2013, the minimum staffing ratios shall be increased to 3.4 hours of nursing and personal care each day for a resident needing skilled care and 2.3 hours of nursing and personal care each day for a resident needing intermediate care.

(5) Effective January 1, 2014, the minimum staffing ratios shall be increased to 3.8 hours of nursing and personal care each day for a resident needing skilled care and 2.5 hours of nursing and personal care each day for a resident needing intermediate care.

(e) Ninety days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, a minimum of 25% of nursing and personal care time shall be provided by licensed nurses, with at least 10% of nursing and personal care time provided by registered nurses. These minimum requirements shall remain in effect until an acuity based registered nurse requirement is promulgated by rule concurrent with the adoption of the Resource Utilization Group classification-based payment methodology, as provided in Section 5-5.2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. Registered nurses and licensed practical nurses employed by a facility in excess of these requirements may be used to satisfy the remaining 75% of the nursing and personal care time requirements. Notwithstanding this subsection, no staffing requirement in statute in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall be reduced on account of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1504, eff. 1-27-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(210 ILCS 45/3-202.5)

Sec. 3-202.5. Facility plan review; fees.

(a) Before commencing construction of a new facility or specified types of alteration or additions to an existing long term care facility involving major construction, as defined by rule by the Department, with an estimated cost greater than $100,000, architectural drawings and specifications for the facility shall be submitted to the Department for review and approval. A facility may submit architectural drawings and specifications for other construction projects for Department review according to subsection (b) that shall not be subject to fees under subsection (d). Review of drawings and specifications shall be conducted by an employee of the Department meeting the qualifications established by the Department of Central Management Services class specifications for such an individual's position or by a person contracting with the Department who meets those class specifications. Final approval of the drawings and specifications for compliance with design and construction standards shall be obtained from the Department before the alteration, addition, or new construction is begun.

(b) The Department shall inform an applicant in writing within 10 working days after receiving drawings and specifications and the required fee, if any, from the applicant whether the applicant's submission is complete or incomplete. Failure to provide the applicant with this notice within 10 working days shall result in the submission being deemed complete for purposes of initiating the 60-day review period under this Section. If the submission is incomplete, the Department shall inform the applicant of the deficiencies with the submission in writing. If the submission is complete the required fee, if any, has been paid, the Department shall approve or disapprove drawings and specifications submitted to the Department no later than 60 days following receipt by the Department. The drawings and specifications shall be of sufficient detail, as provided by Department rule, to enable the Department to render a determination of compliance with design and construction standards under this Act. If the Department finds that the drawings are not of sufficient detail for it to render a determination of compliance, the plans shall be determined to be incomplete and shall not be considered for purposes of initiating the 60 day review period. If a submission of drawings and specifications is incomplete, the applicant may submit additional information. The 60-day review period shall not commence until the Department determines that a submission of drawings and specifications is complete or the submission is deemed complete. If the Department has not approved or disapproved the drawings and specifications within 60 days, the construction, major alteration, or addition shall be deemed approved. If the drawings and specifications are disapproved, the Department shall state in writing, with specificity, the reasons for the disapproval. The entity submitting the drawings and specifications may submit additional information in response to the written comments from the Department or request a reconsideration of the disapproval. A final decision of approval or disapproval shall be made within 45 days of the receipt of the additional information or reconsideration request. If denied, the Department shall state the specific reasons for the denial.

(c) The Department shall provide written approval for occupancy pursuant to subsection (g) and shall not issue a violation to a facility as a result of a licensure or complaint survey based upon the facility's physical structure if:

(1) the Department reviewed and approved or deemed approved the drawings and specifications for compliance with design and construction standards;

(2) the construction, major alteration, or addition was built as submitted;

(3) the law or rules have not been amended since the original approval; and

(4) the conditions at the facility indicate that there is a reasonable degree of safety provided for the residents.

(d) The Department shall charge the following fees in connection with its reviews conducted before June 30, 2004 under this Section:

(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(3) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration, addition, or new construction is $100,000 or more but less than $500,000, the fee shall be the greater of $2,400 or 1.2% of that value.

(4) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration, addition, or new construction is $500,000 or more but less than $1,000,000, the fee shall be the greater of $6,000 or 0.96% of that value.

(5) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration, addition, or new construction is $1,000,000 or more but less than $5,000,000, the fee shall be the greater of $9,600 or 0.22% of that value.

(6) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration, addition, or new construction is $5,000,000 or more, the fee shall be the greater of $11,000 or 0.11% of that value, but shall not exceed $40,000.

The fees provided in this subsection (d) shall not apply to major construction projects involving facility changes that are required by Department rule amendments.

The fees provided in this subsection (d) shall also not apply to major construction projects if 51% or more of the estimated cost of the project is attributed to capital equipment. For major construction projects where 51% or more of the estimated cost of the project is attributed to capital equipment, the Department shall by rule establish a fee that is reasonably related to the cost of reviewing the project.

The Department shall not commence the facility plan review process under this Section until the applicable fee has been paid.

(e) All fees received by the Department under this Section shall be deposited into the Health Facility Plan Review Fund, a special fund created in the State Treasury. All fees paid by long-term care facilities under subsection (d) shall be used only to cover the costs relating to the Department's review of long-term care facility projects under this Section. Moneys shall be appropriated from that Fund to the Department only to pay the costs of conducting reviews under this Section or under Section 3-202.5 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or under Section 3-202.5 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act. None of the moneys in the Health Facility Plan Review Fund shall be used to reduce the amount of General Revenue Fund moneys appropriated to the Department for facility plan reviews conducted pursuant to this Section.

(f)(1) The provisions of this amendatory Act of 1997 concerning drawings and specifications shall apply only to drawings and specifications submitted to the Department on or after October 1, 1997.

(2) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997 and before October 1, 1997, an applicant may submit or resubmit drawings and specifications to the Department and pay the fees provided in subsection (d). If an applicant pays the fees provided in subsection (d) under this paragraph (2), the provisions of subsection (b) shall apply with regard to those drawings and specifications.

(g) The Department shall conduct an on-site inspection of the completed project no later than 30 days after notification from the applicant that the project has been completed and all certifications required by the Department have been received and accepted by the Department. The Department shall provide written approval for occupancy to the applicant within 5 working days of the Department's final inspection, provided the applicant has demonstrated substantial compliance as defined by Department rule. Occupancy of new major construction is prohibited until Department approval is received, unless the Department has not acted within the time frames provided in this subsection (g), in which case the construction shall be deemed approved. Occupancy shall be authorized after any required health inspection by the Department has been conducted.

(h) The Department shall establish, by rule, a procedure to conduct interim on-site review of large or complex construction projects.

(i) The Department shall establish, by rule, an expedited process for emergency repairs or replacement of like equipment.

(j) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to maintenance, upkeep, or renovation that does not affect the structural integrity of the building, does not add beds or services over the number for which the long-term care facility is licensed, and provides a reasonable degree of safety for the residents.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 48/Act rep.)

Section 6-187. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act is repealed.

Section 6-190. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 2.08 as follows:

(210 ILCS 55/2.08)

Sec. 2.08. "Home services agency" means an agency that provides services directly, or acts as a placement agency, for the purpose of placing individuals as workers providing home services for consumers in their personal residences. "Home services agency" does not include agencies licensed under the Nurse Agency Licensing Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act and does not include an agency that limits its business exclusively to providing housecleaning services. Programs providing services exclusively through the Community Care Program of the Illinois Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services Office of Rehabilitation Services, or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs are not considered to be a home services agency under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-577, eff. 8-18-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-195. The Hospice Program Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 4 as follows:

(210 ILCS 60/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6103)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Bereavement" means the period of time during which the hospice patient's family experiences and adjusts to the death of the hospice patient.

(a-5) "Bereavement services" means counseling services provided to an individual's family after the individual's death.

(a-10) "Attending physician" means a physician who:

(1) is a doctor of medicine or osteopathy; and

(2) is identified by an individual, at the time the individual elects to receive hospice care, as having the most significant role in the determination and delivery of the individual's medical care.

(b) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(d) "Hospice care" means a program of palliative care that provides for the physical, emotional, and spiritual care needs of a terminally ill patient and his or her family. The goal of such care is to achieve the highest quality of life as defined by the patient and his or her family through the relief of suffering and control of symptoms.

(e) "Hospice care team" means an interdisciplinary group or groups composed of individuals who provide or supervise the care and services offered by the hospice.

(f) "Hospice patient" means a terminally ill person receiving hospice services.

(g) "Hospice patient's family" means a hospice patient's immediate family consisting of a spouse, sibling, child, parent and those individuals designated as such by the patient for the purposes of this Act.

(g-1) "Hospice residence" means a separately licensed home, apartment building, or similar building providing living quarters:

(1) that is owned or operated by a person licensed to operate as a comprehensive hospice; and

(2) at which hospice services are provided to facility residents.

A building that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act is not a hospice residence.

(h) "Hospice services" means a range of professional and other supportive services provided to a hospice patient and his or her family. These services may include, but are not limited to, physician services, nursing services, medical social work services, spiritual counseling services, bereavement services, and volunteer services.

(h-5) "Hospice program" means a licensed public agency or private organization, or a subdivision of either of those, that is primarily engaged in providing care to terminally ill individuals through a program of home care or inpatient care, or both home care and inpatient care, utilizing a medically directed interdisciplinary hospice care team of professionals or volunteers, or both professionals and volunteers. A hospice program may be licensed as a comprehensive hospice program or a volunteer hospice program.

(h-10) "Comprehensive hospice" means a program that provides hospice services and meets the minimum standards for certification under the Medicare program set forth in the Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 418 but is not required to be Medicare-certified.

(i) "Palliative care" means the management of pain and other distressing symptoms that incorporates medical, nursing, psychosocial, and spiritual care according to the needs, values, beliefs, and culture or cultures of the patient and his or her family. The evaluation and treatment is patient-centered, with a focus on the central role of the family unit in decision-making.

(j) "Hospice service plan" means a plan detailing the specific hospice services offered by a comprehensive or volunteer hospice program, and the administrative and direct care personnel responsible for those services. The plan shall include but not be limited to:

(1) Identification of the person or persons administratively responsible for the program.

(2) The estimated average monthly patient census.

(3) The proposed geographic area the hospice will serve.

(4) A listing of those hospice services provided directly by the hospice, and those hospice services provided indirectly through a contractual agreement.

(5) The name and qualifications of those persons or entities under contract to provide indirect hospice services.

(6) The name and qualifications of those persons providing direct hospice services, with the exception of volunteers.

(7) A description of how the hospice plans to utilize volunteers in the provision of hospice services.

(8) A description of the program's record keeping system.

(k) "Terminally ill" means a medical prognosis by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches that a patient has an anticipated life expectancy of one year or less.

(l) "Volunteer" means a person who offers his or her services to a hospice without compensation. Reimbursement for a volunteer's expenses in providing hospice service shall not be considered compensation.

(l-5) "Employee" means a paid or unpaid member of the staff of a hospice program, or, if the hospice program is a subdivision of an agency or organization, of the agency or organization, who is appropriately trained and assigned to the hospice program. "Employee" also means a volunteer whose duties are prescribed by the hospice program and whose performance of those duties is supervised by the hospice program.

(l-10) "Representative" means an individual who has been authorized under State law to terminate an individual's medical care or to elect or revoke the election of hospice care on behalf of a terminally ill individual who is mentally or physically incapacitated.

(m) "Volunteer hospice" means a program which provides hospice services to patients regardless of their ability to pay, with emphasis on the utilization of volunteers to provide services, under the administration of a not-for-profit agency. This definition does not prohibit the employment of staff.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 60/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6104)

Sec. 4. License.

(a) No person shall establish, conduct or maintain a comprehensive or volunteer hospice program without first obtaining a license from the Department. A hospice residence may be operated only at the locations listed on the license. A comprehensive hospice program owning or operating a hospice residence is not subject to the provisions of the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act in owning or operating a hospice residence.

(b) No public or private agency shall advertise or present itself to the public as a comprehensive or volunteer hospice program which provides hospice services without meeting the provisions of subsection (a).

(c) The license shall be valid only in the possession of the hospice to which it was originally issued and shall not be transferred or assigned to any other person, agency, or corporation.

(d) The license shall be renewed annually.

(e) The license shall be displayed in a conspicuous place inside the hospice program office.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-200. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 6.09 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/3)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act:

(A) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building, buildings on a campus, or agency, public or private, whether organized for profit or not, devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the diagnosis and treatment or care of 2 or more unrelated persons admitted for overnight stay or longer in order to obtain medical, including obstetric, psychiatric and nursing, care of illness, disease, injury, infirmity, or deformity.

The term "hospital", without regard to length of stay, shall also include:

(a) any facility which is devoted primarily to providing psychiatric and related services and programs for the diagnosis and treatment or care of 2 or more unrelated persons suffering from emotional or nervous diseases;

(b) all places where pregnant females are received, cared for, or treated during delivery irrespective of the number of patients received.

The term "hospital" includes general and specialized hospitals, tuberculosis sanitaria, mental or psychiatric hospitals and sanitaria, and includes maternity homes, lying-in homes, and homes for unwed mothers in which care is given during delivery.

The term "hospital" does not include:

(1) any person or institution required to be licensed pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(2) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the hospitalization or care facilities under its management and control;

(3) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the federal government or agencies thereof;

(4) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation;

(5) any person or facility required to be licensed pursuant to the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act;

(6) any facility operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious denomination;

(7) an Alzheimer's disease management center alternative health care model licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or

(8) any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college.

(B) "Person" means the State, and any political subdivision or municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, or joint stock association, or the legal successor thereof.

(C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(D) "Director" means the Director of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(E) "Perinatal" means the period of time between the conception of an infant and the end of the first month after birth.

(F) "Federally designated organ procurement agency" means the organ procurement agency designated by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for the service area in which a hospital is located; except that in the case of a hospital located in a county adjacent to Wisconsin which currently contracts with an organ procurement agency located in Wisconsin that is not the organ procurement agency designated by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services for the service area in which the hospital is located, if the hospital applies for a waiver pursuant to 42 USC 1320b-8(a), it may designate an organ procurement agency located in Wisconsin to be thereafter deemed its federally designated organ procurement agency for the purposes of this Act.

(G) "Tissue bank" means any facility or program operating in Illinois that is certified by the American Association of Tissue Banks or the Eye Bank Association of America and is involved in procuring, furnishing, donating, or distributing corneas, bones, or other human tissue for the purpose of injecting, transfusing, or transplanting any of them into the human body. "Tissue bank" does not include a licensed blood bank. For the purposes of this Act, "tissue" does not include organs.

(H) "Campus", as this terms applies to operations, has the same meaning as the term "campus" as set forth in federal Medicare regulations, 42 CFR 413.65.

(Source: P.A. 96-219, eff. 8-10-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1515, eff. 2-4-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.09) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 147.09)

Sec. 6.09. (a) In order to facilitate the orderly transition of aged and disabled patients from hospitals to post-hospital care, whenever a patient who qualifies for the federal Medicare program is hospitalized, the patient shall be notified of discharge at least 24 hours prior to discharge from the hospital. With regard to pending discharges to a skilled nursing facility, the hospital must notify the case coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, at least 24 hours prior to discharge or, if home health services are ordered, the hospital must inform its designated case coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, of the pending discharge and must provide the patient with the case coordination unit's telephone number and other contact information.

(b) Every hospital shall develop procedures for a physician with medical staff privileges at the hospital or any appropriate medical staff member to provide the discharge notice prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section. The procedures must include prohibitions against discharging or referring a patient to any of the following if unlicensed, uncertified, or unregistered: (i) a board and care facility, as defined in the Board and Care Home Act; (ii) an assisted living and shared housing establishment, as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; (iii) a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act; (iv) a supportive living facility, as defined in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or (v) a free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act if licensure, certification, or registration is required. The Department of Public Health shall annually provide hospitals with a list of licensed, certified, or registered board and care facilities, assisted living and shared housing establishments, nursing homes, supportive living facilities, facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, and hospice facilities. Reliance upon this list by a hospital shall satisfy compliance with this requirement. The procedure may also include a waiver for any case in which a discharge notice is not feasible due to a short length of stay in the hospital by the patient, or for any case in which the patient voluntarily desires to leave the hospital before the expiration of the 24 hour period.

(c) At least 24 hours prior to discharge from the hospital, the patient shall receive written information on the patient's right to appeal the discharge pursuant to the federal Medicare program, including the steps to follow to appeal the discharge and the appropriate telephone number to call in case the patient intends to appeal the discharge.

(d) Before transfer of a patient to a long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act where elderly persons reside, a hospital shall as soon as practicable initiate a name-based criminal history background check by electronic submission to the Department of State Police for all persons between the ages of 18 and 70 years; provided, however, that a hospital shall be required to initiate such a background check only with respect to patients who:

(1) are transferring to a long term care facility for the first time;

(2) have been in the hospital more than 5 days;

(3) are reasonably expected to remain at the long term care facility for more than 30 days;

(4) have a known history of serious mental illness or substance abuse; and

(5) are independently ambulatory or mobile for more than a temporary period of time.

A hospital may also request a criminal history background check for a patient who does not meet any of the criteria set forth in items (1) through (5).

A hospital shall notify a long term care facility if the hospital has initiated a criminal history background check on a patient being discharged to that facility. In all circumstances in which the hospital is required by this subsection to initiate the criminal history background check, the transfer to the long term care facility may proceed regardless of the availability of criminal history results. Upon receipt of the results, the hospital shall promptly forward the results to the appropriate long term care facility. If the results of the background check are inconclusive, the hospital shall have no additional duty or obligation to seek additional information from, or about, the patient.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-205. The Language Assistance Services Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(210 ILCS 87/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Interpreter" means a person fluent in English and in the necessary language of the patient who can accurately speak, read, and readily interpret the necessary second language, or a person who can accurately sign and read sign language. Interpreters shall have the ability to translate the names of body parts and to describe completely symptoms and injuries in both languages. Interpreters may include members of the medical or professional staff.

"Language or communication barriers" means either of the following:

(1) With respect to spoken language, barriers that are experienced by limited-English-speaking or non-English-speaking individuals who speak the same primary language, if those individuals constitute at least 5% of the patients served by the health facility annually.

(2) With respect to sign language, barriers that are experienced by individuals who are deaf and whose primary language is sign language.

"Health facility" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, a long-term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, or a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-210. The Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(210 ILCS 135/4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1704)

Sec. 4. (a) Any community mental health or developmental services agency who wishes to develop and support a variety of community-integrated living arrangements may do so pursuant to a license issued by the Department under this Act. However, programs established under or otherwise subject to the Child Care Act of 1969, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended, shall remain subject thereto, and this Act shall not be construed to limit the application of those Acts.

(b) The system of licensure established under this Act shall be for the purposes of:

(1) Insuring that all recipients residing in community-integrated living arrangements are receiving appropriate community-based services, including treatment, training and habilitation or rehabilitation;

(2) Insuring that recipients' rights are protected and that all programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations;

(3) Maintaining the integrity of communities by requiring regular monitoring and inspection of placements and other services provided in community-integrated living arrangements.

The licensure system shall be administered by a quality assurance unit within the Department which shall be administratively independent of units responsible for funding of agencies or community services.

(c) As a condition of being licensed by the Department as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act, the agency shall certify to the Department that:

(1) All recipients residing in community-integrated living arrangements are receiving appropriate community-based services, including treatment, training and habilitation or rehabilitation;

(2) All programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients are supervised by the agency; and

(3) All programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations.

(d) An applicant for licensure as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act shall submit an application pursuant to the application process established by the Department by rule and shall pay an application fee in an amount established by the Department, which amount shall not be more than $200.

(e) If an applicant meets the requirements established by the Department to be licensed as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act, after payment of the licensing fee, the Department shall issue a license valid for 3 years from the date thereof unless suspended or revoked by the Department or voluntarily surrendered by the agency.

(f) Upon application to the Department, the Department may issue a temporary permit to an applicant for a 6-month period to allow the holder of such permit reasonable time to become eligible for a license under this Act.

(g)(1) The Department may conduct site visits to an agency licensed under this Act, or to any program or placement certified by the agency, and inspect the records or premises, or both, of such agency, program or placement as it deems appropriate, for the purpose of determining compliance with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations.

(2) If the Department determines that an agency licensed under this Act is not in compliance with this Act or the rules and regulations promulgated under this Act, the Department shall serve a notice of violation upon the licensee. Each notice of violation shall be prepared in writing and shall specify the nature of the violation, the statutory provision or rule alleged to have been violated, and that the licensee submit a plan of correction to the Department if required. The notice shall also inform the licensee of any other action which the Department might take pursuant to this Act and of the right to a hearing.

(g-5) As determined by the Department, a disproportionate number or percentage of licensure complaints; a disproportionate number or percentage of substantiated cases of abuse, neglect, or exploitation involving an agency; an apparent unnatural death of an individual served by an agency; any egregious or life-threatening abuse or neglect within an agency; or any other significant event as determined by the Department shall initiate a review of the agency's license by the Department, as well as a review of its service agreement for funding. The Department shall adopt rules to establish the process by which the determination to initiate a review shall be made and the timeframe to initiate a review upon the making of such determination.

(h) Upon the expiration of any license issued under this Act, a license renewal application shall be required of and a license renewal fee in an amount established by the Department shall be charged to a community mental health or developmental services agency, provided that such fee shall not be more than $200.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-441, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-215. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Section 2.06 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/2.06) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.06)

Sec. 2.06. "Child care institution" means a child care facility where more than 7 children are received and maintained for the purpose of providing them with care or training or both. The term "child care institution" includes residential schools, primarily serving ambulatory handicapped children, and those operating a full calendar year, but does not include:

(a) Any State-operated institution for child care established by legislative action;

(b) Any juvenile detention or shelter care home established and operated by any county or child protection district established under the "Child Protection Act";

(c) Any institution, home, place or facility operating under a license pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(d) Any bona fide boarding school in which children are primarily taught branches of education corresponding to those taught in public schools, grades one through 12, or taught in public elementary schools, high schools, or both elementary and high schools, and which operates on a regular academic school year basis; or

(e) Any facility licensed as a "group home" as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-220. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. In this Act:

"Applicant" means an individual seeking employment with a health care employer who has received a bona fide conditional offer of employment.

"Conditional offer of employment" means a bona fide offer of employment by a health care employer to an applicant, which is contingent upon the receipt of a report from the Department of Public Health indicating that the applicant does not have a record of conviction of any of the criminal offenses enumerated in Section 25.

"Direct care" means the provision of nursing care or assistance with feeding, dressing, movement, bathing, toileting, or other personal needs, including home services as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act. The entity responsible for inspecting and licensing, certifying, or registering the health care employer may, by administrative rule, prescribe guidelines for interpreting this definition with regard to the health care employers that it licenses.

"Disqualifying offenses" means those offenses set forth in Section 25 of this Act.

"Employee" means any individual hired, employed, or retained to which this Act applies.

"Fingerprint-based criminal history records check" means a livescan fingerprint-based criminal history records check submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

"Health care employer" means:

(1) the owner or licensee of any of the following:

(i) a community living facility, as defined in the Community Living Facilities Act;

(ii) a life care facility, as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(iii) a long-term care facility;

(iv) a home health agency, home services agency, or home nursing agency as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act;

(v) a hospice care program or volunteer hospice program, as defined in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;

(vi) a hospital, as defined in the Hospital Licensing Act;

(vii) (blank);

(viii) a nurse agency, as defined in the Nurse Agency Licensing Act;

(ix) a respite care provider, as defined in the Respite Program Act;

(ix-a) an establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;

(x) a supportive living program, as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xi) early childhood intervention programs as described in 59 Ill. Adm. Code 121;

(xii) the University of Illinois Hospital, Chicago;

(xiii) programs funded by the Department on Aging through the Community Care Program;

(xiv) programs certified to participate in the Supportive Living Program authorized pursuant to Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xv) programs listed by the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act as Freestanding Emergency Centers;

(xvi) locations licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(2) a day training program certified by the Department of Human Services;

(3) a community integrated living arrangement operated by a community mental health and developmental service agency, as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensing and Certification Act; or

(4) the State Long Term Care Ombudsman Program, including any regional long term care ombudsman programs under Section 4.04 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, only for the purpose of securing background checks.

"Initiate" means obtaining from a student, applicant, or employee his or her social security number, demographics, a disclosure statement, and an authorization for the Department of Public Health or its designee to request a fingerprint-based criminal history records check; transmitting this information electronically to the Department of Public Health; conducting Internet searches on certain web sites, including without limitation the Illinois Sex Offender Registry, the Department of Corrections' Sex Offender Search Engine, the Department of Corrections' Inmate Search Engine, the Department of Corrections Wanted Fugitives Search Engine, the National Sex Offender Public Registry, and the website of the Health and Human Services Office of Inspector General to determine if the applicant has been adjudicated a sex offender, has been a prison inmate, or has committed Medicare or Medicaid fraud, or conducting similar searches as defined by rule; and having the student, applicant, or employee's fingerprints collected and transmitted electronically to the Department of State Police.

"Livescan vendor" means an entity whose equipment has been certified by the Department of State Police to collect an individual's demographics and inkless fingerprints and, in a manner prescribed by the Department of State Police and the Department of Public Health, electronically transmit the fingerprints and required data to the Department of State Police and a daily file of required data to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall negotiate a contract with one or more vendors that effectively demonstrate that the vendor has 2 or more years of experience transmitting fingerprints electronically to the Department of State Police and that the vendor can successfully transmit the required data in a manner prescribed by the Department of Public Health. Vendor authorization may be further defined by administrative rule.

"Long-term care facility" means a facility licensed by the State or certified under federal law as a long-term care facility, including without limitation facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, a supportive living facility, an assisted living establishment, or a shared housing establishment or registered as a board and care home.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-225. The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 70/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 3654)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 4. Definitions. For purposes of this Act, the following definitions shall have the following meanings, except where the context requires otherwise:

(1) "Act" means the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

(2) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(3) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(4) "Board" means the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Board appointed by the Governor.

(5) "Nursing home administrator" means the individual licensed under this Act and directly responsible for planning, organizing, directing and supervising the operation of a nursing home, or who in fact performs such functions, whether or not such functions are delegated to one or more other persons.

(6) "Nursing home" or "facility" means any entity that is required to be licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, as amended, other than a sheltered care home as defined thereunder, and includes private homes, institutions, buildings, residences, or other places, whether operated for profit or not, irrespective of the names attributed to them, county homes for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to the County Nursing Home Act, as amended, and any similar institutions operated by a political subdivision of the State of Illinois that provide, though their ownership or management, maintenance, personal care, and nursing for 3 or more persons, not related to the owner by blood or marriage, or any similar facilities in which maintenance is provided to 3 or more persons who by reason of illness of physical infirmity require personal care and nursing. The term also means any facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(7) "Maintenance" means food, shelter and laundry.

(8) "Personal care" means assistance with meals, dressing, movement, bathing, or other personal needs, or general supervision of the physical and mental well-being of an individual who because of age, physical, or mental disability, emotion or behavior disorder, or an intellectual disability is incapable of managing his or her person, whether or not a guardian has been appointed for such individual. For the purposes of this Act, this definition does not include the professional services of a nurse.

(9) "Nursing" means professional nursing or practical nursing, as those terms are defined in the Nurse Practice Act, for sick or infirm persons who are under the care and supervision of licensed physicians or dentists.

(10) "Disciplinary action" means revocation, suspension, probation, supervision, reprimand, required education, fines or any other action taken by the Department against a person holding a license.

(11) "Impaired" means the inability to practice with reasonable skill and safety due to physical or mental disabilities as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence including deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or abuse of drugs or alcohol, of sufficient degree to diminish a person's ability to administer a nursing home.

(12) "Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and such changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(225 ILCS 70/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 3667)

Sec. 17. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may impose fines not to exceed $10,000 or may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, censure, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to the license of any person, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Intentional material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof or a misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty or that is directly related to the practice of the profession of nursing home administration.

(3) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act.

(4) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse or sexual misconduct, related to the licensee's practice.

(5) Failing to respond within 30 days, to a written request made by the Department for information.

(6) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(7) Habitual use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.

(9) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

(10) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including but not limited to false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(11) Physical illness, mental illness, or other impairment or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(12) Disregard or violation of this Act or of any rule issued pursuant to this Act.

(13) Aiding or abetting another in the violation of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant to this Act.

(14) Allowing one's license to be used by an unlicensed person.

(15) (Blank).

(16) Professional incompetence in the practice of nursing home administration.

(17) Conviction of a violation of Section 12-19 or subsection (a) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for the abuse and criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(18) Violation of the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act or of any rule issued under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act. A final adjudication of a Type "AA" violation of the Nursing Home Care Act made by the Illinois Department of Public Health, as identified by rule, relating to the hiring, training, planning, organizing, directing, or supervising the operation of a nursing home and a licensee's failure to comply with this Act or the rules adopted under this Act, shall create a rebuttable presumption of a violation of this subsection.

(19) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against the licensee by a licensing authority of another state, territory of the United States, or foreign country; or by any governmental or law enforcement agency; or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.

(20) Failure to report to the Department the surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a nursing home administrator in another state or jurisdiction for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.

(21) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.

All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of (i) a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein or (ii) a referral for investigation under Section 3-108 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Department order based upon a finding by the Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Board, may adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining what constitutes:

(i) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(ii) dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(iii) immoral conduct in the commission of any act related to the licensee's practice; and

(iv) professional incompetence in the practice of nursing home administration.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physician or physicians shall be those specifically designated by the Department or Board. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until such time as the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board shall require such individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. Any individual whose license was granted pursuant to this Act or continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Board within 30 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject administrator's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(b) Any individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Act by providing any report or other information to the Department, or assisting in the investigation or preparation of such information, or by participating in proceedings of the Department, or by serving as a member of the Board, shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(c) Members of the Board, and persons retained under contract to assist and advise in an investigation, shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on or for the Board, done in good faith and not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

Should the Attorney General decline representation, a person entitled to indemnification under this Section shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

A person entitled to indemnification under this Section must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent a person entitled to indemnification under this Section.

(d) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(e) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(f) The Department of Public Health shall transmit to the Department a list of those facilities which receive an "A" violation as defined in Section 1-129 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 6-230. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatrists, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (l) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (l), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5) vaccination of patients ages 10 through 13 limited to the Influenza (inactivated influenza vaccine and live attenuated influenza intranasal vaccine) and Tdap (defined as tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis) vaccines, pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (6) drug regimen review; (7) drug or drug-related research; (8) the provision of patient counseling; (9) the practice of telepharmacy; (10) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care; (11) medication therapy management; and (12) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records. A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, or podiatrist, or optometrist, within the limits of their licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (l) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA number where required, for controlled substances. The prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness, disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being prescribed. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, copartnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Hospital Licensing Act, or "An Act in relation to the founding and operation of the University of Illinois Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois health care programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse.

"Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician.

"Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.

"Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-673, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1353, eff. 7-28-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1043, eff. 8-21-12.)

Section 6-235. The Nurse Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 510/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 953)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(a) "Certified nurse aide" means an individual certified as defined in Section 3-206 of the Nursing Home Care Act, Section 3-206 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or Section 3-206 of the ID/DD Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(b) "Department" means the Department of Labor.

(c) "Director" means the Director of Labor.

(d) "Health care facility" is defined as in Section 3 of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(e) "Licensee" means any nursing agency which is properly licensed under this Act.

(f) "Nurse" means a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse as defined in the Nurse Practice Act.

(g) "Nurse agency" means any individual, firm, corporation, partnership or other legal entity that employs, assigns or refers nurses or certified nurse aides to a health care facility for a fee. The term "nurse agency" includes nurses registries. The term "nurse agency" does not include services provided by home health agencies licensed and operated under the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act or a licensed or certified individual who provides his or her own services as a regular employee of a health care facility, nor does it apply to a health care facility's organizing nonsalaried employees to provide services only in that facility.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-240. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-5.2, 5-5.4, 5-5.7, 5-5f, 5-6, and 8A-11 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.2)

Sec. 5-5.2. Payment.

(a) All nursing facilities that are grouped pursuant to Section 5-5.1 of this Act shall receive the same rate of payment for similar services.

(b) It shall be a matter of State policy that the Illinois Department shall utilize a uniform billing cycle throughout the State for the long-term care providers.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Code, the methodologies for reimbursement of nursing services as provided under this Article shall no longer be applicable for bills payable for nursing services rendered on or after a new reimbursement system based on the Resource Utilization Groups (RUGs) has been fully operationalized, which shall take effect for services provided on or after January 1, 2014.

(d) A new nursing services reimbursement methodology utilizing RUGs IV 48 grouper model shall be established and may include an Illinois-specific default group, as needed. The new RUGs-based nursing services reimbursement methodology shall be resident-driven, facility-specific, and cost-based. Costs shall be annually rebased and case mix index quarterly updated. The methodology shall include regional wage adjustors based on the Health Service Areas (HSA) groupings in effect on April 30, 2012. The Department shall assign a case mix index to each resident class based on the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services staff time measurement study utilizing an index maximization approach.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Department shall by rule develop a reimbursement methodology reflective of the intensity of care and services requirements of low need residents in the lowest RUG IV groupers and corresponding regulations.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, reimbursement rates associated with the nursing or support components of the current nursing facility rate methodology shall not increase beyond the level effective May 1, 2011 until a new reimbursement system based on the RUGs IV 48 grouper model has been fully operationalized.

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, for facilities not designated by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions for Mental Disease", rates effective May 1, 2011 shall be adjusted as follows:

(1) Individual nursing rates for residents classified in RUG IV groups PA1, PA2, BA1, and BA2 during the quarter ending March 31, 2012 shall be reduced by 10%;

(2) Individual nursing rates for residents classified in all other RUG IV groups shall be reduced by 1.0%;

(3) Facility rates for the capital and support components shall be reduced by 1.7%.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on and after July 1, 2012, nursing facilities designated by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions for Mental Disease" and "Institutions for Mental Disease" that are facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall have the nursing, socio-developmental, capital, and support components of their reimbursement rate effective May 1, 2011 reduced in total by 2.7%.

(Source: P.A. 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.4)

Sec. 5-5.4. Standards of Payment - Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop standards of payment of nursing facility and ICF/DD services in facilities providing such services under this Article which:

(1) Provide for the determination of a facility's payment for nursing facility or ICF/DD services on a prospective basis. The amount of the payment rate for all nursing facilities certified by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities, Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, Skilled Nursing facilities, or Intermediate Care facilities under the medical assistance program shall be prospectively established annually on the basis of historical, financial, and statistical data reflecting actual costs from prior years, which shall be applied to the current rate year and updated for inflation, except that the capital cost element for newly constructed facilities shall be based upon projected budgets. The annually established payment rate shall take effect on July 1 in 1984 and subsequent years. No rate increase and no update for inflation shall be provided on or after July 1, 1994 and before January 1, 2014, unless specifically provided for in this Section. The changes made by Public Act 93-841 extending the duration of the prohibition against a rate increase or update for inflation are effective retroactive to July 1, 2004.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an increase of 3% plus $1.10 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2006 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2009 shall include an increase sufficient to provide a $0.50 per hour wage increase for non-executive staff.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% plus $3.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an increase of 1.6% and, for services provided on or after October 1, 1999, shall be increased by $4.00 per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, a new payment methodology must be implemented for the nursing component of the rate effective July 1, 2003. The Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and Family Services) shall develop the new payment methodology using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) as the instrument to collect information concerning nursing home resident condition necessary to compute the rate. The Department shall develop the new payment methodology to meet the unique needs of Illinois nursing home residents while remaining subject to the appropriations provided by the General Assembly. A transition period from the payment methodology in effect on June 30, 2003 to the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 shall be provided for a period not exceeding 3 years and 184 days after implementation of the new payment methodology as follows:

(A) For a facility that would receive a lower nursing component rate per patient day under the new system than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be held at the level in effect on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology until a higher nursing component rate of reimbursement is achieved by that facility.

(B) For a facility that would receive a higher nursing component rate per patient day under the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 than the facility received effective on the date immediately preceding the date that the Department implements the new payment methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted.

(C) Notwithstanding paragraphs (A) and (B), the nursing component rate per patient day for the facility shall be adjusted subject to appropriations provided by the General Assembly.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on March 1, 2001 shall include a statewide increase of 7.85%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, except facilities participating in the Department's demonstration program pursuant to the provisions of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois Administrative Code, the numerator of the ratio used by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services to compute the rate payable under this Section using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) methodology shall incorporate the following annual amounts as the additional funds appropriated to the Department specifically to pay for rates based on the MDS nursing component methodology in excess of the funding in effect on December 31, 2006:

(i) For rates taking effect January 1, 2007, $60,000,000.

(ii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2008, $110,000,000.

(iii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2009, $194,000,000.

(iv) For rates taking effect April 1, 2011, or the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, $416,500,000 or an amount as may be necessary to complete the transition to the MDS methodology for the nursing component of the rate. Increased payments under this item (iv) are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies described in this paragraph are approved by the federal government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 of this Code is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the support component of the rates taking effect on January 1, 2008 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on April 1, 2002 shall include a statewide increase of 2.0%, as defined by the Department. This increase terminates on July 1, 2002; beginning July 1, 2002 these rates are reduced to the level of the rates in effect on March 31, 2002, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2001 shall be computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Public Aid no later than April 1, 2000, updated for inflation to January 1, 2001. For rates effective July 1, 2001 only, rates shall be the greater of the rate computed for July 1, 2001 or the rate effective on June 30, 2001.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the Illinois Department shall determine by rule the rates taking effect on July 1, 2002, which shall be 5.9% less than the rates in effect on June 30, 2002.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, if the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12 and the waiver granted under 42 CFR 433.68 are approved by the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2004 shall be 3.0% greater than the rates in effect on June 30, 2004. These rates shall take effect only upon approval and implementation of the payment methodologies required under Section 5A-12.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2005 shall be 3% more than the rates in effect on December 31, 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2009, the per diem support component of the rates effective on January 1, 2008, computed using the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006, shall be increased to the amount that would have been derived using standard Department of Healthcare and Family Services methods, procedures, and inflators.

Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as intermediate care facilities that are federally defined as Institutions for Mental Disease, or facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a socio-development component rate equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006 shall be established and paid effective July 1, 2006. The socio-development component of the rate shall be increased by a factor of 2.53 on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after January 11, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-707). As of August 1, 2008, the socio-development component rate shall be equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006, multiplied by a factor of 3.53. For services provided on or after April 1, 2011, or the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, whichever is later, the Illinois Department may by rule adjust these socio-development component rates, and may use different adjustment methodologies for those facilities participating, and those not participating, in the Illinois Department's demonstration program pursuant to the provisions of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois Administrative Code, but in no case may such rates be diminished below those in effect on August 1, 2008.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or as long-term care facilities for residents under 22 years of age, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2003 shall include a statewide increase of 4%, as defined by the Department.

For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on the first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall include a statewide increase of 2.5%, as defined by the Department.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2005, facility rates shall be increased by the difference between (i) a facility's per diem property, liability, and malpractice insurance costs as reported in the cost report filed with the Department of Public Aid and used to establish rates effective July 1, 2001 and (ii) those same costs as reported in the facility's 2002 cost report. These costs shall be passed through to the facility without caps or limitations, except for adjustments required under normal auditing procedures.

Rates established effective each July 1 shall govern payment for services rendered throughout that fiscal year, except that rates established on July 1, 1996 shall be increased by 6.8% for services provided on or after January 1, 1997. Such rates will be based upon the rates calculated for the year beginning July 1, 1990, and for subsequent years thereafter until June 30, 2001 shall be based on the facility cost reports for the facility fiscal year ending at any point in time during the previous calendar year, updated to the midpoint of the rate year. The cost report shall be on file with the Department no later than April 1 of the current rate year. Should the cost report not be on file by April 1, the Department shall base the rate on the latest cost report filed by each skilled care facility and intermediate care facility, updated to the midpoint of the current rate year. In determining rates for services rendered on and after July 1, 1985, fixed time shall not be computed at less than zero. The Department shall not make any alterations of regulations which would reduce any component of the Medicaid rate to a level below what that component would have been utilizing in the rate effective on July 1, 1984.

(2) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in providing services for recipients of skilled nursing and intermediate care services under the medical assistance program.

(3) Shall take into account the medical and psycho-social characteristics and needs of the patients.

(4) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by facilities in meeting licensing and certification standards imposed and prescribed by the State of Illinois, any of its political subdivisions or municipalities and by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop precise standards for payments to reimburse nursing facilities for any utilization of appropriate rehabilitative personnel for the provision of rehabilitative services which is authorized by federal regulations, including reimbursement for services provided by qualified therapists or qualified assistants, and which is in accordance with accepted professional practices. Reimbursement also may be made for utilization of other supportive personnel under appropriate supervision.

The Department shall develop enhanced payments to offset the additional costs incurred by a facility serving exceptional need residents and shall allocate at least $4,000,000 $8,000,000 of the funds collected from the assessment established by Section 5B-2 of this Code for such payments. For the purpose of this Section, "exceptional needs" means, but need not be limited to, ventilator care, tracheotomy care, bariatric care, complex wound care, and traumatic brain injury care. The enhanced payments for exceptional need residents under this paragraph are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies described in this paragraph are approved by the federal government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 of this Code is determined to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.

Beginning January 1, 2014 the methodologies for reimbursement of nursing facility services as provided under this Section 5-5.4 shall no longer be applicable for services provided on or after January 1, 2014.

No payment increase under this Section for the MDS methodology, exceptional care residents, or the socio-development component rate established by Public Act 96-1530 of the 96th General Assembly and funded by the assessment imposed under Section 5B-2 of this Code shall be due and payable until after the Department notifies the long-term care providers, in writing, that the payment methodologies to long-term care providers required under this Section have been approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the waivers under 42 CFR 433.68 for the assessment imposed by this Section, if necessary, have been granted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Upon notification to the Department of approval of the payment methodologies required under this Section and the waivers granted under 42 CFR 433.68, all increased payments otherwise due under this Section prior to the date of notification shall be due and payable within 90 days of the date federal approval is received.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 96-45, eff. 7-15-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-959, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-10, eff. 6-14-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-584, eff. 8-26-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.7)

Sec. 5-5.7. Cost Reports - Audits. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall work with the Department of Public Health to use cost report information currently being collected under provisions of the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, and the ID/DD Community Care Act. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, develop in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles a uniform chart of accounts which each facility providing services under the medical assistance program shall adopt, after a reasonable period.

Facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act and providers of adult developmental training services certified by the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 15.2 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act which provide services to clients eligible for medical assistance under this Article are responsible for submitting the required annual cost report to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall audit the financial and statistical records of each provider participating in the medical assistance program as a nursing facility, a specialized mental health rehabilitation facility, or an ICF/DD over a 3 year period, beginning with the close of the first cost reporting year. Following the end of this 3-year term, audits of the financial and statistical records will be performed each year in at least 20% of the facilities participating in the medical assistance program with at least 10% being selected on a random sample basis, and the remainder selected on the basis of exceptional profiles. All audits shall be conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall establish prospective payment rates for categories or levels of services within each licensure class, in order to more appropriately recognize the individual needs of patients in nursing facilities.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide, during the process of establishing the payment rate for nursing facility, specialized mental health rehabilitation facility, or ICF/DD services, or when a substantial change in rates is proposed, an opportunity for public review and comment on the proposed rates prior to their becoming effective.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5f)

Sec. 5-5f. Elimination and limitations of medical assistance services. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on and after July 1, 2012:

(a) The following services shall no longer be a covered service available under this Code: group psychotherapy for residents of any facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013; and adult chiropractic services.

(b) The Department shall place the following limitations on services: (i) the Department shall limit adult eyeglasses to one pair every 2 years; (ii) the Department shall set an annual limit of a maximum of 20 visits for each of the following services: adult speech, hearing, and language therapy services, adult occupational therapy services, and physical therapy services; (iii) the Department shall limit podiatry services to individuals with diabetes; (iv) the Department shall pay for caesarean sections at the normal vaginal delivery rate unless a caesarean section was medically necessary; (v) the Department shall limit adult dental services to emergencies; and (vi) effective July 1, 2012, the Department shall place limitations and require concurrent review on every inpatient detoxification stay to prevent repeat admissions to any hospital for detoxification within 60 days of a previous inpatient detoxification stay. The Department shall convene a workgroup of hospitals, substance abuse providers, care coordination entities, managed care plans, and other stakeholders to develop recommendations for quality standards, diversion to other settings, and admission criteria for patients who need inpatient detoxification.

(c) The Department shall require prior approval of the following services: wheelchair repairs, regardless of the cost of the repairs, coronary artery bypass graft, and bariatric surgery consistent with Medicare standards concerning patient responsibility. The wholesale cost of power wheelchairs shall be actual acquisition cost including all discounts.

(d) The Department shall establish benchmarks for hospitals to measure and align payments to reduce potentially preventable hospital readmissions, inpatient complications, and unnecessary emergency room visits. In doing so, the Department shall consider items, including, but not limited to, historic and current acuity of care and historic and current trends in readmission. The Department shall publish provider-specific historical readmission data and anticipated potentially preventable targets 60 days prior to the start of the program. In the instance of readmissions, the Department shall adopt policies and rates of reimbursement for services and other payments provided under this Code to ensure that, by June 30, 2013, expenditures to hospitals are reduced by, at a minimum, $40,000,000.

(e) The Department shall establish utilization controls for the hospice program such that it shall not pay for other care services when an individual is in hospice.

(f) For home health services, the Department shall require Medicare certification of providers participating in the program, implement the Medicare face-to-face encounter rule, and limit services to post-hospitalization. The Department shall require providers to implement auditable electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology.

(g) For the Home Services Program operated by the Department of Human Services and the Community Care Program operated by the Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, in cooperation with the Department on Aging, shall implement an electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology.

(h) The Department shall not pay for hospital admissions when the claim indicates a hospital acquired condition that would cause Medicare to reduce its payment on the claim had the claim been submitted to Medicare, nor shall the Department pay for hospital admissions where a Medicare identified "never event" occurred.

(i) The Department shall implement cost savings initiatives for advanced imaging services, cardiac imaging services, pain management services, and back surgery. Such initiatives shall be designed to achieve annual costs savings.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-6) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-6)

Sec. 5-6. Obligations incurred prior to death of a recipient. Obligations incurred but not paid for at the time of a recipient's death for services authorized under Section 5-5, including medical and other care in facilities as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, or in like facilities not required to be licensed under that Act, may be paid, subject to the rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, after the death of the recipient.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(305 ILCS 5/8A-11) (from Ch. 23, par. 8A-11)

Sec. 8A-11. (a) No person shall:

(1) Knowingly charge a resident of a nursing home for any services provided pursuant to Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, money or other consideration at a rate in excess of the rates established for covered services by the Illinois Department pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code; or

(2) Knowingly charge, solicit, accept or receive, in addition to any amount otherwise authorized or required to be paid pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code, any gift, money, donation or other consideration:

(i) As a precondition to admitting or expediting the admission of a recipient or applicant, pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code, to a long-term care facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or Section 1-102 1-113 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013; and

(ii) As a requirement for the recipient's or applicant's continued stay in such facility when the cost of the services provided therein to the recipient is paid for, in whole or in part, pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code.

(b) Nothing herein shall prohibit a person from making a voluntary contribution, gift or donation to a long-term care facility.

(c) This paragraph shall not apply to agreements to provide continuing care or life care between a life care facility as defined by the Life Care Facilities Act, and a person financially eligible for benefits pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code.

(d) Any person who violates this Section shall be guilty of a business offense and fined not less than $5,000 nor more than $25,000.

(e) "Person", as used in this Section, means an individual, corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association.

(f) The State's Attorney of the county in which the facility is located and the Attorney General shall be notified by the Illinois Department of any alleged violations of this Section known to the Department.

(g) The Illinois Department shall adopt rules and regulations to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-245. The Elder Abuse and Neglect Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6602)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) "Abuse" means causing any physical, mental or sexual injury to an eligible adult, including exploitation of such adult's financial resources.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse, neglect, or self-neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of abuse because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(a-5) "Abuser" means a person who abuses, neglects, or financially exploits an eligible adult.

(a-7) "Caregiver" means a person who either as a result of a family relationship, voluntarily, or in exchange for compensation has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an eligible adult who needs assistance with activities of daily living.

(b) "Department" means the Department on Aging of the State of Illinois.

(c) "Director" means the Director of the Department.

(d) "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the eligible adult at the time of the report lives alone or with his or her family or a caregiver, or others, or a board and care home or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

(1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act;

(1.5) A facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(1.7) A facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013;

(2) A "life care facility" as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the federal government or agency thereof or by the State of Illinois;

(4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness through the maintenance and operation of organized facilities therefor, which is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(5) A "community living facility" as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(6) (Blank);

(7) A "community-integrated living arrangement" as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act;

(8) An assisted living or shared housing establishment as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; or

(9) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(e) "Eligible adult" means a person 60 years of age or older who resides in a domestic living situation and is, or is alleged to be, abused, neglected, or financially exploited by another individual or who neglects himself or herself.

(f) "Emergency" means a situation in which an eligible adult is living in conditions presenting a risk of death or physical, mental or sexual injury and the provider agency has reason to believe the eligible adult is unable to consent to services which would alleviate that risk.

(f-5) "Mandated reporter" means any of the following persons while engaged in carrying out their professional duties:

(1) a professional or professional's delegate while engaged in: (i) social services, (ii) law enforcement, (iii) education, (iv) the care of an eligible adult or eligible adults, or (v) any of the occupations required to be licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Dietitian Nutritionist Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Naprapathic Practice Act, the Nurse Practice Act, the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, and the Illinois Public Accounting Act;

(2) an employee of a vocational rehabilitation facility prescribed or supervised by the Department of Human Services;

(3) an administrator, employee, or person providing services in or through an unlicensed community based facility;

(4) any religious practitioner who provides treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination, except as to information received in any confession or sacred communication enjoined by the discipline of the religious denomination to be held confidential;

(5) field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Department of Public Health, and Department of Human Services, and any county or municipal health department;

(6) personnel of the Department of Human Services, the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the State Fire Marshal, local fire departments, the Department on Aging and its subsidiary Area Agencies on Aging and provider agencies, and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman;

(7) any employee of the State of Illinois not otherwise specified herein who is involved in providing services to eligible adults, including professionals providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct contact with eligible adults;

(8) a person who performs the duties of a coroner or medical examiner; or

(9) a person who performs the duties of a paramedic or an emergency medical technician.

(g) "Neglect" means another individual's failure to provide an eligible adult with or willful withholding from an eligible adult the necessities of life including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter or health care. This subsection does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to eligible adults. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of neglect because of health care services provided or not provided by licensed health care professionals.

(h) "Provider agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area appointed by the regional administrative agency with prior approval by the Department on Aging to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

(i) "Regional administrative agency" means any public or nonprofit agency in a planning and service area so designated by the Department, provided that the designated Area Agency on Aging shall be designated the regional administrative agency if it so requests. The Department shall assume the functions of the regional administrative agency for any planning and service area where another agency is not so designated.

(i-5) "Self-neglect" means a condition that is the result of an eligible adult's inability, due to physical or mental impairments, or both, or a diminished capacity, to perform essential self-care tasks that substantially threaten his or her own health, including: providing essential food, clothing, shelter, and health care; and obtaining goods and services necessary to maintain physical health, mental health, emotional well-being, and general safety. The term includes compulsive hoarding, which is characterized by the acquisition and retention of large quantities of items and materials that produce an extensively cluttered living space, which significantly impairs the performance of essential self-care tasks or otherwise substantially threatens life or safety.

(j) "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect in which a provider agency, after assessment, determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-526, eff. 1-1-10; 96-572, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-300, eff. 8-11-11; 97-706, eff. 6-25-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1141, eff. 12-28-12.)

Section 6-250. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 2-107 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/2-107) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 2-107)

Sec. 2-107. Refusal of services; informing of risks.

(a) An adult recipient of services or the recipient's guardian, if the recipient is under guardianship, and the recipient's substitute decision maker, if any, must be informed of the recipient's right to refuse medication or electroconvulsive therapy. The recipient and the recipient's guardian or substitute decision maker shall be given the opportunity to refuse generally accepted mental health or developmental disability services, including but not limited to medication or electroconvulsive therapy. If such services are refused, they shall not be given unless such services are necessary to prevent the recipient from causing serious and imminent physical harm to the recipient or others and no less restrictive alternative is available. The facility director shall inform a recipient, guardian, or substitute decision maker, if any, who refuses such services of alternate services available and the risks of such alternate services, as well as the possible consequences to the recipient of refusal of such services.

(b) Psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy may be administered under this Section for up to 24 hours only if the circumstances leading up to the need for emergency treatment are set forth in writing in the recipient's record.

(c) Administration of medication or electroconvulsive therapy may not be continued unless the need for such treatment is redetermined at least every 24 hours based upon a personal examination of the recipient by a physician or a nurse under the supervision of a physician and the circumstances demonstrating that need are set forth in writing in the recipient's record.

(d) Neither psychotropic medication nor electroconvulsive therapy may be administered under this Section for a period in excess of 72 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, unless a petition is filed under Section 2-107.1 and the treatment continues to be necessary under subsection (a) of this Section. Once the petition has been filed, treatment may continue in compliance with subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section until the final outcome of the hearing on the petition.

(e) The Department shall issue rules designed to insure that in State-operated mental health facilities psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy are administered in accordance with this Section and only when appropriately authorized and monitored by a physician or a nurse under the supervision of a physician in accordance with accepted medical practice. The facility director of each mental health facility not operated by the State shall issue rules designed to insure that in that facility psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy are administered in accordance with this Section and only when appropriately authorized and monitored by a physician or a nurse under the supervision of a physician in accordance with accepted medical practice. Such rules shall be available for public inspection and copying during normal business hours.

(f) The provisions of this Section with respect to the emergency administration of psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy do not apply to facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care Act.

(g) Under no circumstances may long-acting psychotropic medications be administered under this Section.

(h) Whenever psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy is refused pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section at least once that day, the physician shall determine and state in writing the reasons why the recipient did not meet the criteria for administration of medication or electroconvulsive therapy under subsection (a) and whether the recipient meets the standard for administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy under Section 2-107.1 of this Code. If the physician determines that the recipient meets the standard for administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy under Section 2-107.1, the facility director or his or her designee shall petition the court for administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy pursuant to that Section unless the facility director or his or her designee states in writing in the recipient's record why the filing of such a petition is not warranted. This subsection (h) applies only to State-operated mental health facilities.

(i) The Department shall conduct annual trainings for all physicians and registered nurses working in State-operated mental health facilities on the appropriate use of emergency administration of psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive therapy, standards for their use, and the methods of authorization under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 6-255. The Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Persons Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(405 ILCS 45/3) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1353)

Sec. 3. Powers and Duties.

(A) In order to properly exercise its powers and duties, the agency shall have the authority to:

(1) Investigate incidents of abuse and neglect of mentally ill persons if the incidents are reported to the agency or if there is probable cause to believe that the incidents occurred. In case of conflict with provisions of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or the Nursing Home Care Act, the provisions of those Acts shall apply.

(2) Pursue administrative, legal and other appropriate remedies to ensure the protection of the rights of mentally ill persons who are receiving care and treatment in this State.

(3) Pursue administrative, legal and other remedies on behalf of an individual who:

(a) was a mentally ill individual; and

(b) is a resident of this State, but only with respect to matters which occur within 90 days after the date of the discharge of such individual fr