Full Text of HB3401 102nd General Assembly
HB3401ham001 102ND GENERAL ASSEMBLY | Rep. Robyn Gabel Filed: 4/20/2021
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| 1 | | AMENDMENT TO HOUSE BILL 3401
| 2 | | AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend House Bill 3401 by replacing | 3 | | everything after the enacting clause with the following:
| 4 | | "Section 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the | 5 | | Licensed Certified Professional Midwife Practice Act. | 6 | | Section 5. Purpose. The practice of midwifery in | 7 | | out-of-hospital settings is hereby declared to affect the | 8 | | public health, safety, and welfare and to be subject to | 9 | | regulation in the public interest. The purpose of the Act is to | 10 | | protect and benefit the public by setting standards for the | 11 | | qualifications, education, training, and experience of those | 12 | | who seek to obtain licensure as a licensed certified | 13 | | professional midwife, including requirements to work in | 14 | | consultation with hospital based and privileged health care | 15 | | professionals to promote high standards of professional | 16 | | performance for those licensed to practice midwifery in |
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| 1 | | out-of-hospital settings in this State, to promote a | 2 | | consultative and integrated maternity care delivery system in | 3 | | Illinois with agreed-upon consulting, transfer, and transport | 4 | | protocols in use by all health care professionals and licensed | 5 | | certified professional midwives across all health care | 6 | | settings to maximize client safety and positive outcomes, to | 7 | | support accredited education and training as a prerequisite to | 8 | | licensure, and to protect the public. | 9 | | Section 10. Definitions. As used in this Act: | 10 | | "Address of record" means the designated address recorded | 11 | | by the Department in the applicant's application file or the | 12 | | licensee's licensure file as maintained by the Department. | 13 | | "Antepartum" means before labor or childbirth. | 14 | | "Board" means the Illinois Midwifery Board. | 15 | | "Certified nurse midwife" means an individual licensed | 16 | | under the Nurse Practice Act as an advanced practice | 17 | | registered nurse and is certified as a nurse midwife. | 18 | | "Client" means a childbearing individual or newborn for | 19 | | whom a licensed certified professional midwife provides | 20 | | services. | 21 | | "Consultation" means the process by which a licensed | 22 | | certified professional midwife seeks the advice or opinion of | 23 | | another health care professional. | 24 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and | 25 | | Professional Regulation. |
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| 1 | | "Email address of record" means the designated email | 2 | | address of record by the Department in the applicant's | 3 | | application file or the licensee's licensure file as | 4 | | maintained by the Department. | 5 | | "Health care professional" means an advanced practice | 6 | | registered nurse or a physician licensed to practice medicine | 7 | | in all of its branches. | 8 | | "Intrapartum" means during labor and delivery or | 9 | | childbirth. | 10 | | "Licensed certified professional midwife" means a person | 11 | | who has successfully met the requirements under Section 40 of | 12 | | this Act. | 13 | | "Low-risk" means a low-risk pregnancy where there is an | 14 | | absence of any preexisting maternal disease, significant | 15 | | disease arising from the pregnancy, or any condition likely to | 16 | | affect the pregnancy, including, but not limited to, those | 17 | | listed in subsection (b) of Section 75. | 18 | | "Midwife assistant" means a person, at least 18 years of | 19 | | age, who performs basic administrative, clerical, and | 20 | | supportive services under the supervision of a certified | 21 | | professional midwife, is educated to provide both basic and | 22 | | emergency care to newborns and mothers during labor, delivery, | 23 | | and immediately postpartum, and who maintains Neonatal | 24 | | Resuscitation Program provider status and cardiopulmonary | 25 | | resuscitation certification. | 26 | | "Midwifery bridge certificate" means a certificate issued |
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| 1 | | by the North American Registry of midwives that documents | 2 | | completion of accredited continuing education for certified | 3 | | professional midwives based upon identified areas to address | 4 | | education in emergency skills and other competencies set by | 5 | | the international confederation of midwives. | 6 | | "Midwifery Education and Accreditation Council" or "MEAC" | 7 | | means the nationally recognized accrediting agency, or its | 8 | | successor, that establishes standards for the education of | 9 | | direct-entry midwives in the United States. | 10 | | "National Association of Certified Professional Midwives" | 11 | | or "NACPM" means the professional organization, or its | 12 | | successor, that promotes the growth and development of the | 13 | | profession of certified professional midwives. | 14 | | "North American Registry of Midwives" or "NARM" means the | 15 | | accredited international agency, or its successor | 16 | | organization, that has established and has continued to | 17 | | administer certification for the credentialing of certified | 18 | | professional midwives, including the administration of a | 19 | | national competency examination. | 20 | | "Onset of care" means the initial prenatal visit upon an | 21 | | agreement between a licensed certified professional midwife | 22 | | and client to establish a midwife-client relationship, during | 23 | | which the licensed certified professional midwife may take a | 24 | | client's medical history, complete an exam, establish a | 25 | | client's record, or perform other services related to | 26 | | establishing care. "Onset of care" does not include an initial |
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| 1 | | interview where information about the licensed certified | 2 | | professional midwife's practice is shared but no | 3 | | midwife-client relationship is established. | 4 | | "Pediatric health care professional" means a licensed | 5 | | physician specializing in the care of children, a family | 6 | | practice physician, or an advanced practice registered nurse | 7 | | licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and certified as a | 8 | | Pediatric Nurse Practitioner or Family Nurse Practitioner. | 9 | | "Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical | 10 | | Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its | 11 | | branches. | 12 | | "Postpartum period" means the first 6 weeks after | 13 | | delivery. | 14 | | "Practice of midwifery" means providing the necessary | 15 | | supervision, care, and advice to a client during a low-risk | 16 | | pregnancy, labor, and the postpartum period, including the | 17 | | intended low-risk delivery of a child, and providing normal | 18 | | newborn care. "Practice of midwifery" does not include the | 19 | | practice of medicine or nursing. | 20 | | "Qualified midwife preceptor" means a licensed and | 21 | | experienced midwife or other health professional licensed in | 22 | | the State who participated in the clinical education of | 23 | | individuals enrolled in a midwifery education institution, | 24 | | program, or pathway accredited by the midwifery education | 25 | | accreditation council who meet the criteria for midwife | 26 | | preceptors by NARM or its successor organization. |
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| 1 | | "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and | 2 | | Professional Regulation. | 3 | | "Supportive services" means simple routine medical tasks | 4 | | and procedures for which the midwife assistant or student | 5 | | midwife is appropriately trained. | 6 | | Section 15. Address of record; email address of record. | 7 | | All applicants and licensees shall: | 8 | | (1) provide a valid address and email address to the | 9 | | Department, which shall serve as the address of record and | 10 | | email address of record, respectively, at the time of | 11 | | application for licensure or renewal of licensure; and | 12 | | (2) inform the Department of any change of address of | 13 | | record or email address of record within 14 days after | 14 | | such change either through the Department's website or by | 15 | | contacting the Department.
| 16 | | Section 20. Social Security Number on license application. | 17 | | In addition to any other information required to be contained | 18 | | in an application for licensure under this Act, every | 19 | | application for an original license under this Act shall | 20 | | include the applicant's Social Security Number, which shall be | 21 | | retained in the agency's records pertaining to the license. As | 22 | | soon as practical, the Department shall assign a customer's | 23 | | identification number to each applicant for a license. Every | 24 | | application for a renewal or restored license shall require |
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| 1 | | the applicant's customer identification number. | 2 | | Section 25. Exemptions. | 3 | | (a) This Act does not prohibit a person licensed under any | 4 | | other Act in this State from engaging in the practice for which | 5 | | he or she is licensed or from delegating services as provided | 6 | | for under the Act. | 7 | | (b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit or | 8 | | require licensing under this Act with regard to: | 9 | | (1) the rendering of services by a birth attendant if | 10 | | such attendance is in accordance with the birth | 11 | | attendant's religious faith or cultural group, including | 12 | | indigenous communities, and is rendered only to | 13 | | childbearing individuals and families in a distinct | 14 | | cultural or religious group, including indigenous | 15 | | communities, as an exercise and enjoyment of religious or | 16 | | cultural freedom; | 17 | | (2) a student midwife practicing midwifery as part of | 18 | | their course of study in an accredited midwife | 19 | | institution, program, or pathway under the direction and | 20 | | supervision of a qualified midwife preceptor; and | 21 | | (3) a midwife assistant or student midwife performing | 22 | | within the scope of their responsibilities and duties as | 23 | | defined by rule under the supervision of a licensed | 24 | | certified professional midwife. | 25 | | (c) Nothing in this Act prevents a licensed certified |
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| 1 | | professional midwife from assisting a health care | 2 | | professional, practicing within his or her scope of practice | 3 | | while providing antepartum, intrapartum, or postpartum care. | 4 | | (d) Nothing in this Act abridges, limits, or changes in | 5 | | any way the rights of parents to deliver their baby where, | 6 | | when, how, and with whom they choose, regardless of licensure | 7 | | under this Act. | 8 | | Section 30. Illinois Midwifery Board. | 9 | | (a) There is created under the authority of the Department | 10 | | the Illinois Midwifery Board, which shall consist of 9 members | 11 | | appointed by the Secretary: 5 of whom shall be licensed | 12 | | certified professional midwives, except that initial | 13 | | appointees must have at least 3 years of experience in the | 14 | | practice of midwifery in an out-of-hospital setting, be | 15 | | certified by the North American Registry of Midwives, and meet | 16 | | the qualifications for licensure set forth in this Act; one of | 17 | | whom shall be a licensed obstetrician; one of whom shall be a | 18 | | certified
nurse midwife who provides home birth services; one | 19 | | of whom shall be a pediatric health care professional; and one | 20 | | of whom shall be a public member. Board members shall serve | 21 | | 4-year terms, except that in the case of initial appointments, | 22 | | terms shall be staggered as follows: 4 members shall serve for | 23 | | 4 years, 3 members shall serve for 3 years, and 2 members shall | 24 | | serve for 2 years. The Board shall annually elect a | 25 | | chairperson and vice chairperson. |
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| 1 | | (b) Any appointment made to fill a vacancy shall be for the | 2 | | unexpired portion of the term. Appointments to fill vacancies | 3 | | shall be made in the same manner as original appointments. No | 4 | | Board member may be reappointed for a term that would cause his | 5 | | or her continuous service on the Board to exceed 10 years. | 6 | | (c) Board membership must have a reasonable representation | 7 | | from different geographic areas of this State, if possible. | 8 | | (d) The Secretary may solicit board recommendations from | 9 | | midwifery organizations. | 10 | | (e) The members of the Board may be reimbursed for all | 11 | | legitimate, necessary, and authorized expenses incurred in | 12 | | attending the meetings of the Board. | 13 | | (f) The Secretary may remove any member of the Board for | 14 | | misconduct, incapacity, or neglect of duty at any time prior | 15 | | to the expiration of his or her term. | 16 | | (g) Five Board members shall constitute a quorum. A | 17 | | vacancy in the membership of the Board shall not impair the | 18 | | right of a quorum to perform all of the duties of the Board. | 19 | | (h) The Board may provide the Department with | 20 | | recommendations concerning the administration of this Act and | 21 | | may perform each of the following duties:
| 22 | | (1) Recommend to the Department the prescription and, | 23 | | from time to time, the revision of any rules that may be | 24 | | necessary to carry out the provisions of this Act, | 25 | | including those that are designed to protect the health, | 26 | | safety, and welfare of the public. |
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| 1 | | (2) Recommend changes to the medication formulary list | 2 | | as standards and drug availability change. | 3 | | (3) Participate in disciplinary conferences and | 4 | | hearings. | 5 | | (4) Make recommendations to the Department regarding | 6 | | disciplinary action taken against a licensee as provided | 7 | | under this Act. | 8 | | (5) Recommend the approval, denial of approval, and | 9 | | withdrawal of approval of required education and | 10 | | continuing educational programs. | 11 | | (i) Members of the Board shall be immune from suit in an | 12 | | action based upon a disciplinary proceeding or other activity | 13 | | performed in good faith as a member of the Board, except for | 14 | | willful or wanton misconduct. | 15 | | Section 35. Powers and duties of the Department; rules. | 16 | | (a) The Department shall exercise the powers and duties | 17 | | prescribed by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois for | 18 | | the administration of licensing Acts and shall exercise such | 19 | | other powers and duties necessary for effectuating the | 20 | | purposes of this Act. | 21 | | (b) The Secretary shall adopt rules consistent with the | 22 | | provisions of this Act for the administration and enforcement | 23 | | of this Act and for the payment of fees connected to this Act | 24 | | and may prescribe forms that shall be issued in connection | 25 | | with this Act. |
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| 1 | | Section 40. Use of title. No person may use the title | 2 | | "licensed midwife", describe or imply that he or she is a | 3 | | licensed midwife, or represent himself or herself as a | 4 | | licensed midwife unless the person is granted a license under | 5 | | this Act or is licensed as an advanced practice registered | 6 | | nurse with certification as a nurse midwife. | 7 | | Section 45. Licensure. | 8 | | (a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements | 9 | | of this Section is eligible for licensure as a certified | 10 | | professional midwife if the applicant: | 11 | | (1) submits forms prescribed by the Department and | 12 | | accompanied by the required fee; | 13 | | (2) is at least 21 years of age; | 14 | | (3) holds and maintains valid certified professional | 15 | | midwife certification granted by NARM or its successor | 16 | | organization; | 17 | | (4) holds and maintains cardiopulmonary resuscitation | 18 | | certification; | 19 | | (5) holds and maintains neonatal resuscitation | 20 | | provider status; and | 21 | | (6) successfully completed a postsecondary midwifery | 22 | | education program through an institution, program, or | 23 | | pathway accredited by the Midwife Education and | 24 | | Accreditation Council, that has both academic and clinical |
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| 1 | | practice incorporated throughout the curriculum. | 2 | | (b) A midwife who is certified by NARM, but who has not | 3 | | completed a MEAC program, may apply for licensure if he or she: | 4 | | (1) provides proof as a citizen residing in this | 5 | | State; | 6 | | (2) provides proof of completion of the midwifery | 7 | | bridge certificate and applies within one year of adoption | 8 | | of rules or provide proof of practicing as a certified | 9 | | professional midwife in this State for at least 3 years | 10 | | prior to when rules are adopted and applies up to 3 years | 11 | | after adoption of rules; and | 12 | | (3) provides proof of paragraphs (1) through (6) | 13 | | required under subsection (a). | 14 | | (c) Applicants have 3 years from the date of application | 15 | | to complete the application process. If the process has not | 16 | | been completed in 3 years, the application shall be denied, | 17 | | the fee shall be forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and | 18 | | meet the requirements in effect at the time of reapplication. | 19 | | Section 50. Endorsement. Upon payment of the required fee, | 20 | | the Department may, in its discretion, license as a certified | 21 | | professional midwife, an applicant who is a certified | 22 | | professional midwife licensed in another jurisdiction, if the | 23 | | requirements for licensure in that jurisdiction were, at the | 24 | | time of licensure, substantially equivalent to the | 25 | | requirements in force in this State on that date or equivalent |
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| 1 | | to the requirements of this Act. | 2 | | Section 55. Expiration; renewal of licensure. | 3 | | (a) The expiration date and renewal period for each | 4 | | license issued under this Act shall be set by rule. The holder | 5 | | of a license may renew the license during the month preceding | 6 | | the expiration date of the license by paying the required fee. | 7 | | It is the responsibility of the licensee to notify the | 8 | | Department in writing of a change of address required for the | 9 | | renewal of a license under this Act. | 10 | | Any licensed certified professional midwife who has | 11 | | permitted his or her license to expire or who has had his or | 12 | | her license on inactive status may have the license restored | 13 | | by applying to the Department and filing proof acceptable to | 14 | | the Department of his or her fitness to have the license | 15 | | restored, and by paying the required fees. Proof of fitness | 16 | | may include sworn evidence certifying to active lawful | 17 | | practice in another jurisdiction. | 18 | | If the licensed certified professional midwife has not | 19 | | maintained an active practice in another jurisdiction | 20 | | satisfactory to the Department, the Department shall | 21 | | determine, by an evaluation program established by rule, his | 22 | | or her fitness for restoration of the license and shall | 23 | | establish procedures and requirements for such restoration. | 24 | | However, any licensed certified professional midwife whose | 25 | | license expired while he or she was (1) in federal service on |
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| 1 | | active duty with the Armed Forces of the United States, or the | 2 | | State Militia called he or she into service or training, or (2) | 3 | | in training or education under the supervision of the United | 4 | | States preliminary to induction into the military service, may | 5 | | have the license restored without paying any lapsed renewal | 6 | | fees if, within 2 years after honorable termination of such | 7 | | service, training, or education, he or she furnishes the | 8 | | Department with satisfactory evidence to the effect that he or | 9 | | she has been so engaged and that his or her service, training, | 10 | | or education has been terminated. | 11 | | (b) Rules adopted under this Act shall require a licensed | 12 | | certified professional midwife to maintain certified | 13 | | professional midwife certification by meeting all continuing | 14 | | education requirements and other requirements set forth in | 15 | | this Section and to maintain current cardiopulmonary | 16 | | resuscitation or basic life support certification as required | 17 | | under Section 40. | 18 | | The Department may adopt rules of continuing education for | 19 | | licensed certified professional midwives licensed under this | 20 | | Act that require 20 hours of continuing education per 2-year | 21 | | license renewal cycle. The rules shall address variances in | 22 | | part or in whole for good cause, including, but not limited to, | 23 | | illness or hardship. The continuing education rules must | 24 | | ensure that licensees are given the opportunity to participate | 25 | | in programs sponsored by or through their State or national | 26 | | professional associations, hospitals, or other providers of |
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| 1 | | continuing education. Each licensee is responsible for | 2 | | maintaining records of completion of continuing education and | 3 | | shall be prepared to produce the records when requested by the | 4 | | Department. | 5 | | Section 60. Inactive status. Any licensed certified | 6 | | professional midwife who notified the Department in writing on | 7 | | forms prescribed by the Department, may elect to place his or | 8 | | her license on an inactive status and shall, subject to rules | 9 | | of the Department, be excused from payment of renewal fees | 10 | | until he or she notifies the Department in writing of his or | 11 | | her intention to restore the license. | 12 | | Any licensed certified professional midwife requesting | 13 | | restoration from inactive status shall be required to pay the | 14 | | current renewal fee and shall be required to restore his or her | 15 | | license, as provided in Section 55. | 16 | | Any licensed certified professional midwife whose license | 17 | | is in an inactive status shall not practice in the State. | 18 | | Any licensee who engages in practice while his or her | 19 | | license is lapsed or on inactive status shall be considered to | 20 | | be practicing without a license, which shall be grounds for | 21 | | discipline under Section 140. | 22 | | Section 65. Informed consent. | 23 | | (a) A licensed certified professional midwife shall, at an | 24 | | initial prenatal visit with a client, provide and disclose to |
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| 1 | | the client orally and in writing on a form provided by the | 2 | | Department all of the following information: | 3 | | (1) the licensed certified professional midwife's | 4 | | experience and training; | 5 | | (2) whether the licensed certified professional | 6 | | midwife has malpractice liability insurance coverage and | 7 | | the policy limits of the coverage; | 8 | | (3) a protocol for the handling of both the patient's | 9 | | and the newborn's medical emergencies; this shall include, | 10 | | but not be limited to, obtaining transportation to a | 11 | | hospital particular to each client with identification of | 12 | | the appropriate hospital, providing a verbal report of the | 13 | | care provided to emergency services providers, and sending | 14 | | a copy of the client records with the client at the time of | 15 | | any transfer to a hospital, including obtaining a signed | 16 | | authorization to release the client's medical records to a | 17 | | health care professional or hospital in the event of such | 18 | | emergency transport; | 19 | | (4) a statement informing the client that, in the | 20 | | event of an emergency or voluntary transfer or if | 21 | | subsequent care is required resulting from the acts or | 22 | | omissions of the licensed certified professional midwife, | 23 | | no liability for the acts or omissions of the licensed | 24 | | certified professional midwife are assignable to the | 25 | | receiving hospital, health care facility, physician, | 26 | | nurse, emergency personnel, or other medical professional |
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| 1 | | rendering such care; the receiving hospital, health care | 2 | | facility, physician, nurse, emergency medical personnel, | 3 | | hospital, or other medical professional rendering care are | 4 | | responsible for their own acts and omissions; | 5 | | (5) a statement outlining the necessary emergency | 6 | | equipment, drugs, and personnel available to provide | 7 | | appropriate care in the home; | 8 | | (6) the intent to provide at least one midwife | 9 | | assistant or student midwife during intrapartum and | 10 | | immediate postpartum care; and | 11 | | (7) a recommendation that the client preregister with | 12 | | the nearest hospital and explain the benefits of | 13 | | preregistration. | 14 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife shall, at an | 15 | | initial prenatal visit with a client, provide a copy of the | 16 | | written disclosures required under this Section to the client | 17 | | and obtain the client's signature acknowledging that the | 18 | | client has been informed, orally and in writing, of the | 19 | | disclosures required. | 20 | | Section 70. Scope of practice. | 21 | | (a) A licensed certified professional midwife shall: | 22 | | (1) offer each client routine prenatal care and | 23 | | testing in accordance with current American College of | 24 | | Obstetricians and Gynecologists guidelines; | 25 | | (2) provide all clients with a plan for 24 hour |
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| 1 | | on-call availability by a licensed certified professional | 2 | | midwife, certified nurse midwife, or licensed physician | 3 | | throughout pregnancy, intrapartum, and 6 weeks postpartum; | 4 | | (3) provide clients with labor support, fetal | 5 | | monitoring, and routine assessment of vital signs once | 6 | | active labor is established; | 7 | | (4) supervise delivery of infant and placenta, assess | 8 | | newborn and maternal well-being in immediate postpartum, | 9 | | and perform an Apgar score assessment; | 10 | | (5) perform routine cord management and inspect for an | 11 | | appropriate number of vessels; | 12 | | (6) inspect the placenta and membranes for | 13 | | completeness; | 14 | | (7) inspect the perineum and vagina postpartum for | 15 | | lacerations and stabilize if necessary; | 16 | | (8) observe the childbearing individual and newborn | 17 | | postpartum until stable condition is achieved, but in no | 18 | | event for less than 2 hours; | 19 | | (9) instruct the childbearing individual, spouse, and | 20 | | other support persons, both verbally and in writing, of | 21 | | the special care and precautions for both the childbearing | 22 | | individual and newborn in the immediate postpartum period; | 23 | | (10) reevaluate maternal and newborn well-being within | 24 | | 36 hours of delivery; | 25 | | (11) notify a pediatric health care professional | 26 | | within 72 hours after delivery; |
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| 1 | | (12) use universal precautions with all biohazard | 2 | | materials; | 3 | | (13) ensure that a birth certificate is accurately | 4 | | completed and filed in accordance with the Department of | 5 | | Public Health; | 6 | | (14) offer to obtain and submit a blood sample in | 7 | | accordance with the recommendations for metabolic | 8 | | screening of the newborn; | 9 | | (15) offer an injection of vitamin K for the newborn | 10 | | in accordance with the indication, dose, and | 11 | | administration route as authorized in subsection (b); | 12 | | (16) within one week of delivery, offer a newborn | 13 | | hearing screening to every newborn or refer the parents to | 14 | | a facility with a newborn hearing screening program; | 15 | | (17) within 2 hours of the birth, offer the | 16 | | administration of antibiotic ointment into the eyes of the | 17 | | newborn, in accordance with the Infant Eye Disease Act; | 18 | | and | 19 | | (18) maintain adequate antenatal and perinatal records | 20 | | of each client and provide records to consulting licensed | 21 | | physicians and licensed certified nurse midwives, in | 22 | | accordance with regulations promulgated under the Health | 23 | | Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
| 24 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife may | 25 | | administer the following during the practice of midwifery: | 26 | | (1) oxygen for the treatment of fetal distress; |
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| 1 | | (2) eye prophylactics, either 0.5% erythromycin | 2 | | ophthalmic ointment or 1% tetracycline ophthalmic ointment | 3 | | for the prevention of neonatal ophthalmia; | 4 | | (3) oxytocin, pitocin, or misoprostol as a postpartum | 5 | | antihemorrhagic agent; | 6 | | (4) methylergonovine or methergine for the treatment | 7 | | of postpartum hemorrhage; | 8 | | (5) vitamin K for the prophylaxis of hemorrhagic | 9 | | disease of the newborn; | 10 | | (6) Rho (D) immune globulin for the prevention of Rho | 11 | | (D) sensitization in Rho (D) negative individuals; | 12 | | (7) intravenous fluids for maternal stabilization, | 13 | | including lactated Ringer's solution, or with 5% dextrose; | 14 | | (8) administer antibiotics as prophylactic for GBS in | 15 | | accordance with current ACOG protocols as provided by | 16 | | Department rule; | 17 | | (9) ibuprofen for postpartum pain relief; | 18 | | (10) lidocaine injection as a local anesthetic for | 19 | | perineal repair; and | 20 | | (11) sterile water subcutaneous injections as a | 21 | | non-pharmaceutical form of pain relief during the first | 22 | | and second stages of labor.
| 23 | | The Department may approve additional medications, agents, | 24 | | or procedures based upon updated evidence-based obstetrical | 25 | | guidelines or based upon limited availability of standard | 26 | | medications or agents. |
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| 1 | | (c) A licensed certified professional midwife shall plan | 2 | | for at least 2 licensed certified professional midwives or a | 3 | | licensed certified professional midwife and a midwife | 4 | | assistant or student midwife to be present at all | 5 | | out-of-hospital births.
| 6 | | Section 75. Consultation and referral. | 7 | | (a) A licensed certified professional midwife shall | 8 | | consult with a licensed physician or a certified nurse midwife | 9 | | providing obstetrical care whenever there are significant | 10 | | deviations, including abnormal laboratory results, relative to | 11 | | a client's pregnancy or to a neonate. If a referral to a | 12 | | physician or certified nurse midwife is needed, the licensed | 13 | | certified professional midwife shall refer the client to a | 14 | | physician or certified nurse midwife and, if possible, remain | 15 | | in consultation with the physician until resolution of the | 16 | | concern. Consultation does not preclude the possibility of an | 17 | | out-of-hospital birth. It is appropriate for the licensed | 18 | | certified professional midwife to maintain care of the client | 19 | | to the greatest degree possible, in accordance with the | 20 | | client's wishes, during the pregnancy and, if possible, during | 21 | | labor, birth, and the postpartum period. | 22 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife shall | 23 | | consult with a licensed physician or a certified nurse midwife | 24 | | with regard to any childbearing individual who presents with | 25 | | or develops the following risk factors or presents with or |
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| 1 | | develops other risk factors that, in the judgment of the | 2 | | licensed certified professional midwife, warrant consultation:
| 3 | | (1) Antepartum: | 4 | | (A) pregnancy induced hypertension, as evidenced | 5 | | by a blood pressure of 140/90 on 2 occasions greater | 6 | | than 6 hours apart; | 7 | | (B) persistent, severe headaches, epigastric pain, | 8 | | or visual disturbances; | 9 | | (C) persistent symptoms of urinary tract | 10 | | infection; | 11 | | (D) significant vaginal bleeding before the onset | 12 | | of labor not associated with uncomplicated spontaneous | 13 | | abortion; | 14 | | (E) rupture of membranes prior to the 37th week | 15 | | gestation; | 16 | | (F) noted abnormal decrease in or cessation of | 17 | | fetal movement; | 18 | | (G) anemia resistant to supplemental therapy; | 19 | | (H) fever of 102 degrees Fahrenheit or 39 degrees | 20 | | Celsius or greater for more than 24 hours; | 21 | | (I) non-vertex presentation after 38 weeks | 22 | | gestation; | 23 | | (J) hyperemesis or significant dehydration; | 24 | | (K) isoimmunization, Rh-negative sensitized, | 25 | | positive titers, or any other positive antibody titer, | 26 | | which may have a detrimental effect on the |
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| 1 | | childbearing individual or fetus; | 2 | | (L) elevated blood glucose levels unresponsive to | 3 | | dietary management; | 4 | | (M) positive HIV antibody test; | 5 | | (N) primary genital herpes infection in pregnancy; | 6 | | (O) symptoms of malnutrition or anorexia or | 7 | | protracted weight loss or failure to gain weight; | 8 | | (P) suspected deep vein thrombosis; | 9 | | (Q) documented placental anomaly or previa; | 10 | | (R) documented low-lying placenta in a | 11 | | childbearing individual with history of previous | 12 | | cesarean delivery; | 13 | | (S) labor prior to the 37th week of gestation; | 14 | | (T) history of prior uterine incision; | 15 | | (U) lie other than vertex at term; | 16 | | (V) multiple gestation; | 17 | | (W) known fetal anomalies that may be affected by | 18 | | the site of birth; | 19 | | (X) marked abnormal fetal heart tones; | 20 | | (Y) abnormal non-stress test or abnormal | 21 | | biophysical profile; | 22 | | (Z) marked or severe polyhydramnios or | 23 | | oligohydramnios;
| 24 | | (AA) evidence of intrauterine growth restriction; | 25 | | (BB) significant abnormal ultrasound findings; or | 26 | | (CC) gestation beyond 42 weeks by reliable |
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| 1 | | confirmed dates;
| 2 | | (2) Intrapartum: | 3 | | (A) rise in blood pressure above baseline, more | 4 | | than 30/15 points or greater than 140/90; | 5 | | (B) persistent, severe headaches, epigastric pain | 6 | | or visual disturbances; | 7 | | (C) significant proteinuria or ketonuria; | 8 | | (D) fever over 100.6 degrees Fahrenheit or 38 | 9 | | degrees Celsius in absence of environmental factors; | 10 | | (E) ruptured membranes without onset of | 11 | | established labor after 18 hours; | 12 | | (F) significant bleeding prior to delivery or any | 13 | | abnormal bleeding, with or without abdominal pain or | 14 | | evidence of placental abruption; | 15 | | (G) lie not compatible with spontaneous vaginal | 16 | | delivery or unstable fetal lie; | 17 | | (H) failure to progress after 5 hours of active | 18 | | labor or following 2 hours of active second stage | 19 | | labor; | 20 | | (I) signs or symptoms of maternal infection; | 21 | | (J) active genital herpes at onset of labor; | 22 | | (K) fetal heart tones with non-reassuring | 23 | | patterns; | 24 | | (L) signs or symptoms of fetal distress; | 25 | | (M) thick meconium or frank bleeding with birth | 26 | | not imminent; or |
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| 1 | | (N) client or licensed certified professional | 2 | | midwife desires physician consultation or transfer;
| 3 | | (3) Postpartum: | 4 | | (A) failure to void within 6 hours of birth; | 5 | | (B) signs or symptoms of maternal shock; | 6 | | (C) fever of 102 degrees Fahrenheit or 39 degrees | 7 | | Celsius and unresponsive to therapy for 12 hours; | 8 | | (D) abnormal lochia or signs or symptoms of | 9 | | uterine sepsis; | 10 | | (E) suspected deep vein thrombosis; or | 11 | | (F) signs of clinically significant depression.
| 12 | | (c) A licensed certified professional midwife shall | 13 | | consult with a licensed physician or certified nurse midwife | 14 | | with regard to any neonate who is born with or develops the | 15 | | following risk factors: | 16 | | (1) Apgar score of 6 or less at 5 minutes without | 17 | | significant improvement by 10 minutes; | 18 | | (2) persistent grunting respirations or retractions; | 19 | | (3) persistent cardiac irregularities; | 20 | | (4) persistent central cyanosis or pallor; | 21 | | (5) persistent lethargy or poor muscle tone; | 22 | | (6) abnormal cry; | 23 | | (7) birth weight less than 2,300 grams; | 24 | | (8) jitteriness or seizures; | 25 | | (9) jaundice occurring before 24 hours or outside of | 26 | | normal range; |
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| 1 | | (10) failure to urinate within 24 hours of birth; | 2 | | (11) failure to pass meconium within 48 hours of | 3 | | birth; | 4 | | (12) edema; | 5 | | (13) prolonged temperature instability; | 6 | | (14) significant signs or symptoms of infection; | 7 | | (15) significant clinical evidence of glycemic | 8 | | instability; | 9 | | (16) abnormal, bulging, or depressed fontanel; | 10 | | (17) significant clinical evidence of prematurity; | 11 | | (18) medically significant congenital anomalies; | 12 | | (19) significant or suspected birth injury; | 13 | | (20) persistent inability to suck; | 14 | | (21) diminished consciousness; | 15 | | (22) clinically significant abnormalities in vital | 16 | | signs, muscle tone, or behavior; | 17 | | (23) clinically significant color abnormality, | 18 | | cyanotic, or pale or abnormal perfusion; | 19 | | (24) abdominal distension or projectile vomiting; or | 20 | | (25) signs of clinically significant dehydration or | 21 | | failure to thrive. | 22 | | (d) Consultation with a health
care professional does not | 23 | | establish a formal relationship
with the client. Consultation | 24 | | does not establish a formal
relationship between a licensed | 25 | | certified professional midwife and another health care | 26 | | professional. |
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| 1 | | Section 80. Transfer. | 2 | | (a) Transport via private vehicle is an acceptable method | 3 | | of transport if it is the most expedient and safest method for | 4 | | accessing medical services. The licensed certified | 5 | | professional midwife shall initiate immediate transport | 6 | | according to the licensed certified professional midwife's | 7 | | emergency plan, provide emergency stabilization until | 8 | | emergency medical services arrive or transfer is completed, | 9 | | accompany the client or follow the client to a hospital in a | 10 | | timely fashion, and provide pertinent information to the | 11 | | receiving facility and complete an emergency. | 12 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife must | 13 | | establish a written protocol for the handling of both the | 14 | | patient's and newborn's medical emergencies, including | 15 | | transportation to a hospital, particular to each client, with | 16 | | identification of the appropriate hospital. A verbal report of | 17 | | the care provided must be provided to emergency services | 18 | | providers and a copy of the client records shall be sent with | 19 | | the client at the time of any transfer to a hospital, including | 20 | | obtaining a signed authorization to release the client's | 21 | | medical records to a health care professional or hospital in | 22 | | the event of such emergency transport. | 23 | | Section 85. Prohibited practices. | 24 | | (a) A licensed certified professional midwife may not do |
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| 1 | | any of the following: | 2 | | (1) administer prescription pharmacological agents | 3 | | intended to induce or augment labor; | 4 | | (2) administer prescription pharmacological agents to | 5 | | provide pain management; | 6 | | (3) use vacuum extractors or forceps; | 7 | | (4) prescribe medications; | 8 | | (5) provide out-of-hospital care to a childbearing | 9 | | individual who has had a previous cesarean section; | 10 | | (6) perform surgical procedures, including, but not | 11 | | limited to, abortions, cesarean sections, and | 12 | | circumcisions, except for an emergency episiotomy; | 13 | | (7) knowingly accept responsibility for prenatal or | 14 | | intrapartum care of a client with any of the following | 15 | | risk factors:
| 16 | | (A) chronic significant maternal cardiac, | 17 | | pulmonary, renal, or hepatic disease; | 18 | | (B) malignant disease in an active phase; | 19 | | (C) significant hematological disorders, | 20 | | coagulopathies, or pulmonary embolism; | 21 | | (D) insulin requiring diabetes mellitus; | 22 | | (E) known maternal congenital abnormalities | 23 | | affecting childbirth; | 24 | | (F) confirmed isoimmunization, Rh disease with | 25 | | positive titer; | 26 | | (G) active tuberculosis; |
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| 1 | | (H) active syphilis or gonorrhea; | 2 | | (I) active genital herpes infection 2 weeks prior | 3 | | to labor or in labor; | 4 | | (J) pelvic or uterine abnormalities affecting | 5 | | normal vaginal births, including tumors and | 6 | | malformations; | 7 | | (K) alcoholism or alcohol abuse; | 8 | | (L) drug addiction or abuse; or | 9 | | (M) confirmed AIDS status.
| 10 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife shall not | 11 | | administer Schedule II through IV controlled substances. | 12 | | Subject to a prescription by a health care professional, | 13 | | Schedule V controlled substances may be administered by | 14 | | licensed certified professional midwives. | 15 | | Section 90. Annual Reports. | 16 | | (a) Beginning in 2023, a licensed certified professional | 17 | | midwife shall annually report to the Department of Public | 18 | | Health, by no later than March 31 of each year, in a manner | 19 | | specified by the Department of Public Health, the following | 20 | | information regarding cases in which the licensed certified | 21 | | professional midwife assisted during the previous calendar | 22 | | year when the intended place of birth at the onset of care was | 23 | | an out-of-hospital setting: | 24 | | (1) the total number of patients served at the onset | 25 | | of care; |
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| 1 | | (2) the number, by county, of live births attended; | 2 | | (3) the number, by county, of cases of fetal demise, | 3 | | infant deaths, and maternal deaths attended at the | 4 | | discovery of the demise or death; | 5 | | (4) the number of women whose care was transferred to | 6 | | another health care professional during the antepartum | 7 | | period and the reason for transfer; | 8 | | (5) the number, reason for, and outcome of each | 9 | | nonemergency hospital transfer during the intrapartum or | 10 | | postpartum period; | 11 | | (6) the number, reason for, and outcome of each urgent | 12 | | or emergency transport of an expectant childbearing | 13 | | individual in the antepartum period; | 14 | | (7) the number, reason for, and outcome of each urgent | 15 | | or emergency transport of an infant or childbearing | 16 | | individual during the intrapartum or immediate postpartum | 17 | | period; | 18 | | (8) the number of planned out-of-hospital births at | 19 | | the onset of labor and the number of births completed in an | 20 | | out-of-hospital setting; | 21 | | (9) a brief description of any complications resulting | 22 | | in the morbidity or mortality of a childbearing individual | 23 | | or a neonate; and | 24 | | (10) any other information required by rule by the | 25 | | Department of Public Health.
| 26 | | (b) A licensed certified professional midwife who fails to |
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| 1 | | comply with the reporting requirements under this Section | 2 | | shall be prohibited from license renewal until the information | 3 | | required under subsection (a) is reported. | 4 | | (c) The Board shall maintain the confidentiality of any | 5 | | report under subsection (f). | 6 | | (d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a licensed | 7 | | certified professional midwife shall be subject to the same | 8 | | reporting requirements as other health care professionals who | 9 | | provide care to individuals. | 10 | | (f) Reports are confidential under Section 180 of this | 11 | | Act. | 12 | | Section 95. Vicarious liability. | 13 | | (a) Consultation with a physician or advanced practice | 14 | | registered nurse does not alone create a physician-patient or | 15 | | advanced practice registered nurse-patient relationship or any | 16 | | other relationship with the physician or advanced practice | 17 | | registered nurse. The informed consent shall specifically | 18 | | state that the licensed certified professional midwife and any | 19 | | consulting physician or advanced practice registered nurse are | 20 | | not employees, partners, associates, agents, or principals of | 21 | | one another. The licensed certified professional midwife shall | 22 | | inform the patient that he or she is independently licensed | 23 | | and practicing midwifery and in that regard is solely | 24 | | responsible for the services he or she provides. | 25 | | (b) Nothing in this Act is intended to expand or limit the |
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| 1 | | malpractice liability of physicians, advanced practice | 2 | | registered nurses, licensed certified professional midwives, | 3 | | or other health care professionals, hospitals, or other health | 4 | | care institutions beyond the limits existing in current | 5 | | Illinois statutory and common law; however, no physician, | 6 | | nurse, emergency medical personnel, hospital, or other health | 7 | | care institution shall be liable for any act or omission | 8 | | resulting from the provision of services by any licensed | 9 | | certified professional midwife, even if the physician, nurse, | 10 | | emergency medical personnel, hospital, or other health care | 11 | | institution has consulted with or accepted a referral from the | 12 | | licensed certified professional midwife. The physician, nurse, | 13 | | licensed certified professional midwife, emergency medical | 14 | | personnel, hospital, or other health care institution | 15 | | providing care are responsible for their own acts and | 16 | | omissions.
| 17 | | Section 100. Grounds for disciplinary action. | 18 | | (a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may | 19 | | revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other | 20 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to any | 21 | | license issued under this Act as the Department may deem | 22 | | proper, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 | 23 | | for each violation, for any one or combination of the | 24 | | following causes: | 25 | | (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
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| 1 | | the Department. | 2 | | (2) Violations of this Act, or the rules adopted under | 3 | | this Act. | 4 | | (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, | 5 | | finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or | 6 | | sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, | 7 | | preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, | 8 | | or first offender probation, under the laws of any | 9 | | jurisdiction of the United States that is: (i) a felony; | 10 | | or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is | 11 | | dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of | 12 | | the profession. | 13 | | (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of | 14 | | obtaining licenses. | 15 | | (5) Professional incompetence. | 16 | | (6) Aiding or assisting another person in violating | 17 | | any provision of this Act or its rules. | 18 | | (7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in | 19 | | response to a written request made by the Department. | 20 | | (8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or | 21 | | unprofessional conduct, as defined by rule, of a character | 22 | | likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public. | 23 | | (9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, | 24 | | narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug | 25 | | that results in a midwife's inability to practice with | 26 | | reasonable judgment, skill, or safety. |
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| 1 | | (10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or | 2 | | foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for | 3 | | discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to | 4 | | those set forth in this Section. | 5 | | (11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving | 6 | | from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or | 7 | | association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of | 8 | | compensation for any professional services not actually or | 9 | | personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph affects any | 10 | | bona fide independent contractor or employment | 11 | | arrangements, including provisions for compensation, | 12 | | health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits, | 13 | | with persons or entities authorized under this Act for the | 14 | | provision of services within the scope of the licensee's | 15 | | practice under this Act. | 16 | | (12) A finding by the Department that the licensee, | 17 | | after having his or her license placed on probationary | 18 | | status, has violated the terms of probation. | 19 | | (13) Abandonment of a patient. | 20 | | (14) Willfully making or filing false records or | 21 | | reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited | 22 | | to, false records filed with state agencies or | 23 | | departments. | 24 | | (15) Willfully failing to report an instance of | 25 | | suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused | 26 | | and Neglected Child Reporting Act. |
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| 1 | | (16) Physical illness, or mental illness or impairment | 2 | | that results in the inability to practice the profession | 3 | | with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, including, but | 4 | | not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or | 5 | | loss of motor skill. | 6 | | (17) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated | 7 | | report by the Department of Children and Family Services | 8 | | under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and | 9 | | upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the | 10 | | licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or | 11 | | neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected | 12 | | Child Reporting Act. | 13 | | (18) Gross negligence resulting in permanent injury or | 14 | | death of a patient. | 15 | | (19) Employment of fraud, deception, or any unlawful | 16 | | means in applying for or securing a license as a licensed | 17 | | certified profession midwife. | 18 | | (21) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, | 19 | | including sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual | 20 | | exploitation related to the licensee's practice. | 21 | | (22) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral | 22 | | Act. | 23 | | (23) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except | 24 | | as provided by law. | 25 | | (24) Making a false or misleading statement regarding | 26 | | his or her skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, |
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| 1 | | treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the | 2 | | course of treatment. | 3 | | (25) Allowing another person to use his or her license | 4 | | to practice. | 5 | | (26) Prescribing, selling, administering, | 6 | | distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug | 7 | | classified as a controlled substance for purposes other | 8 | | than medically-accepted therapeutic purposes. | 9 | | (27) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, | 10 | | appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to | 11 | | exploit the patient for financial gain. | 12 | | (28) A pattern of practice or other behavior that | 13 | | demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under | 14 | | this Act. | 15 | | (29) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or | 16 | | regulations relating to controlled substances or other | 17 | | legend drugs or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra | 18 | | Prohibition Act. | 19 | | (30) Failure to establish and maintain records of | 20 | | patient care and treatment as required by law. | 21 | | (31) Attempting to subvert or cheat on the examination | 22 | | of the North American Registry of Midwives or its | 23 | | successor agency. | 24 | | (32) Willfully or negligently violating the | 25 | | confidentiality between licensed certified profession | 26 | | midwives and patient, except as required by law. |
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| 1 | | (33) Willfully failing to report an instance of | 2 | | suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or | 3 | | self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and | 4 | | required by the Adult Protective Services Act. | 5 | | (34) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by | 6 | | the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective | 7 | | Services Act and upon proof by clear and convincing | 8 | | evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or | 9 | | financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the | 10 | | Adult Protective Services Act. | 11 | | (35) Failure to report to the Department an adverse | 12 | | final action taken against him or her by another licensing | 13 | | jurisdiction of the United States or a foreign state or | 14 | | country, a peer review body, a health care institution, a | 15 | | professional society or association, a governmental | 16 | | agency, a law enforcement agency, or a court. | 17 | | (36) Failure to provide copies of records of patient | 18 | | care or treatment, except as required by law. | 19 | | (37) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department | 20 | | surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to | 21 | | practice in another state or jurisdiction or current | 22 | | surrender by the licensee of membership professional | 23 | | association or society while under disciplinary | 24 | | investigation by any of those authorities or bodies for | 25 | | acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would | 26 | | constitute grounds for action under this Section. |
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| 1 | | (38) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to | 2 | | a request for information in response to a written request | 3 | | made by the Department by certified or registered mail or | 4 | | by email to the email address of record. | 5 | | (39) Failure to supervise a midwife assistant or | 6 | | student midwife including, but not limited to, allowing a | 7 | | midwife assistant or student midwife to exceed their | 8 | | scope. | 9 | | (40) Failure to adequately inform a patient about | 10 | | their malpractice liability insurance coverage and the | 11 | | policy limits of the coverage. | 12 | | (41) Failure to submit an annual report to Department | 13 | | of Public Health. | 14 | | (b) The Department may, without a hearing, refuse to issue | 15 | | or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to | 16 | | file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in | 17 | | a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, | 18 | | penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered | 19 | | by the Department of Revenue, until the requirements of any | 20 | | such tax Act are satisfied. | 21 | | (c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee | 22 | | is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as | 23 | | provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities | 24 | | Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will | 25 | | end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no | 26 | | longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission |
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| 1 | | and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient, | 2 | | and upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board to the | 3 | | Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her | 4 | | practice. | 5 | | (d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a | 6 | | showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual | 7 | | licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for | 8 | | licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical | 9 | | examination, or both, including a substance abuse or sexual | 10 | | offender evaluation, as required by and at the expense of the | 11 | | Department. | 12 | | The Department shall specifically designate the examining | 13 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches | 14 | | or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in | 15 | | providing the mental or physical examination or both. The | 16 | | multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to | 17 | | practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one | 18 | | or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice | 19 | | medicine in all of its branches, licensed clinical | 20 | | psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed | 21 | | clinical professional counselors, and other professional and | 22 | | administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the | 23 | | multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to | 24 | | submit to an examination pursuant to this Section to submit to | 25 | | any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to | 26 | | complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but |
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| 1 | | not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological | 2 | | testing, or neuropsychological testing. | 3 | | The Department may order the examining physician or any | 4 | | member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the | 5 | | Department any and all records, including business records, | 6 | | that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any | 7 | | supplemental testing performed. | 8 | | The Department may order the examining physician or any | 9 | | member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony | 10 | | concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee | 11 | | or applicant. No information, report, record, or other | 12 | | documents in any way related to the examination shall be | 13 | | excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege | 14 | | relating to communications between the licensee or applicant | 15 | | and the examining physician or any member of the | 16 | | multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the | 17 | | licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an examination for | 18 | | the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary | 19 | | team to provide information, reports, records, or other | 20 | | documents or to provide any testimony regarding the | 21 | | examination and evaluation. | 22 | | The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own | 23 | | expense, another physician of his or her choice present during | 24 | | all aspects of this examination. However, that physician shall | 25 | | be present only to observe and may not interfere in any way | 26 | | with the examination. |
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| 1 | | Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical | 2 | | examination, when ordered, shall result in an automatic | 3 | | suspension of his or her license until the individual submits | 4 | | to the examination. | 5 | | If the Department finds an individual unable to practice | 6 | | because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the | 7 | | Department may require that individual to submit to care, | 8 | | counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated | 9 | | by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for | 10 | | continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, | 11 | | in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may | 12 | | file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise | 13 | | discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose | 14 | | license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, | 15 | | disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, | 16 | | or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, | 17 | | conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the | 18 | | Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual | 19 | | shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a | 20 | | hearing by the Department. | 21 | | In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a | 22 | | person's license under this Section, a hearing on that | 23 | | person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 | 24 | | days after the suspension and completed without appreciable | 25 | | delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the | 26 | | subject individual's record of treatment and counseling |
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| 1 | | regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable | 2 | | federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the | 3 | | confidentiality of medical records. | 4 | | An individual licensed under this Act and affected under | 5 | | this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate | 6 | | to the Department that he or she can resume practice in | 7 | | compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the | 8 | | provisions of his or her license. | 9 | | (e) An individual or organization acting in good faith, | 10 | | and not in a willful and wanton manner, in complying with this | 11 | | Section by providing a report or other information to the | 12 | | Board, by assisting in the investigation or preparation of a | 13 | | report or information, by participating in proceedings of the | 14 | | Board, or by serving as a member of the Board, shall not be | 15 | | subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages as a result | 16 | | of such actions. | 17 | | (f) Members of the Board and the Disciplinary Board shall | 18 | | be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within | 19 | | the scope of services on the Disciplinary Board or Board, done | 20 | | in good faith and not willful and wanton in nature. The | 21 | | Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or | 22 | | she determines either that there would be a conflict of | 23 | | interest in such representation or that the actions complained | 24 | | of were not in good faith or were willful and wanton. | 25 | | If the Attorney General declines representation, the | 26 | | member has the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, |
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| 1 | | whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by | 2 | | the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a | 3 | | court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were | 4 | | willful and wanton. | 5 | | The member must notify the Attorney General within 7 days | 6 | | after receipt of notice of the initiation of any action | 7 | | involving services of the Disciplinary Board. Failure to | 8 | | notify the Attorney General constitutes an absolute waiver of | 9 | | the right to a defense and indemnification. | 10 | | The Attorney General shall determine, within 7 days after | 11 | | receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to | 12 | | represent the member. | 13 | | Section 105. Suspension of license for failure to pay | 14 | | restitution. The Department, without further process or | 15 | | hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to | 16 | | practice of any person issued under this Act who has been | 17 | | certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a | 18 | | person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or | 19 | | under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or | 20 | | the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other | 21 | | authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is | 22 | | prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in | 23 | | full. | 24 | | Section 110. Restoration of license. At any time after the |
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| 1 | | successful completion of a term of probation, suspension, or | 2 | | revocation of any license, the Department may restore it to | 3 | | the licensee, unless after an investigation and a hearing, the | 4 | | Department determines that restoration is not in the public | 5 | | interest. Where circumstances of suspension or revocation so | 6 | | indicate, the Department may require an examination of the | 7 | | licensee prior to restoring his or her license. No person | 8 | | whose license has been revoked as authorized in this Act may | 9 | | apply for restoration of that license until provided for in | 10 | | the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. | 11 | | A license that has been suspended or revoked shall be | 12 | | considered nonrenewed for purposes of restoration and a person | 13 | | restoring his or her license from suspension or revocation | 14 | | must comply with the requirements for restoration of a | 15 | | nonrenewed license as set forth in Section 20 and any related | 16 | | rules adopted. | 17 | | Section 115. Surrender of license. Upon the revocation or | 18 | | suspension of any license, the licensee shall immediately | 19 | | surrender the license to the Department. If the licensee fails | 20 | | to do so, the Department shall have the right to seize the | 21 | | license. | 22 | | Section 120. Temporary suspension of license. The | 23 | | Secretary may temporarily suspend the license of a certified | 24 | | professional midwife without a hearing, simultaneously with |
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| 1 | | the institution of proceedings for a hearing provided for in | 2 | | Section 125, if the Secretary finds that evidence in his or her | 3 | | possession indicates that continuation in practice would | 4 | | constitute an imminent danger to the public. If the Secretary | 5 | | suspends, temporarily, the license without a hearing, a | 6 | | hearing by the Department must be held within 30 days after | 7 | | such suspension has occurred, and concluded without | 8 | | appreciable delay. | 9 | | Section 125. Rehearing. If the Secretary is satisfied that | 10 | | substantial justice has not been done in the revocation, | 11 | | suspension, or refusal to issue or renew a license, the | 12 | | Secretary may order a rehearing by the same or another hearing | 13 | | officer or Disciplinary Board. | 14 | | Section 130. Administrative review; certification of | 15 | | record. | 16 | | (a) All final administrative decisions of the Department | 17 | | are subject to judicial review pursuant to the provisions of | 18 | | the Administrative Review Law, and all rules adopted pursuant | 19 | | thereto. "Administrative decision" has the same meaning as | 20 | | used in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure. | 21 | | (b) Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in | 22 | | the circuit court of the county in which the party applying for | 23 | | review resides, but if the party is not a resident of this | 24 | | State, venue shall be in Sangamon County. |
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| 1 | | (c) The Department shall not be required to certify any | 2 | | record to the court, to file an answer in court, or to | 3 | | otherwise appear in any court in a judicial review proceeding | 4 | | unless and until the Department has received from the | 5 | | plaintiff payment of the costs of furnishing and certifying | 6 | | the record, which costs shall be determined by the Department. | 7 | | Exhibits shall be certified without cost. Failure on the part | 8 | | of the plaintiff to file a receipt in court is grounds for | 9 | | dismissal of the action. During the pendency and hearing of | 10 | | any and all judicial proceedings incident to the disciplinary | 11 | | action, the sanctions imposed upon the accused by the | 12 | | Department because of acts or omissions related to the | 13 | | delivery of direct patient care as specified in the | 14 | | Department's final administrative decision, shall, as a matter | 15 | | of public policy, remain in full force and effect in order to | 16 | | protect the public pending final resolution of any of the | 17 | | proceedings. | 18 | | Section 135. Injunction. | 19 | | (a) If any person violates any provision of this Act, the | 20 | | Secretary may, in the name of the People of the State of | 21 | | Illinois, through the Attorney General, or the State's | 22 | | Attorney of any county in which the action is brought, | 23 | | petition for an order enjoining the violation or for an order | 24 | | enforcing compliance with this Act. Upon the filing of a | 25 | | verified petition in court, the court may issue a temporary |
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| 1 | | restraining order, without notice or bond, and may | 2 | | preliminarily and permanently enjoin such violation, and if it | 3 | | is established that such person has violated or is violating | 4 | | the injunction, the Court may punish the offender for contempt | 5 | | of court. Proceedings under this Section shall be in addition | 6 | | to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties | 7 | | provided by this Act. | 8 | | (b) If any person shall practice as a certified | 9 | | professional midwife or hold himself or herself out as a | 10 | | licensed certified professional midwife without being licensed | 11 | | under the provisions of this Act, then any licensed certified | 12 | | professional midwife, any interested party, or any person | 13 | | injured thereby may, in addition to the Secretary, petition | 14 | | for relief as provided in subsection (a). | 15 | | (c) If, in the opinion of the Department, any person | 16 | | violates any provision of this Act, the Department may issue a | 17 | | rule to show cause why an order to cease and desist should not | 18 | | be entered against him or her. The rule shall clearly set forth | 19 | | the grounds relied upon by the Department and shall provide a | 20 | | period of 7 days from the date of the rule to file an answer to | 21 | | the satisfaction of the Department. Failure to answer to the | 22 | | satisfaction of the Department shall cause an order to cease | 23 | | and desist to be issued forthwith. | 24 | | Section 140. Investigation; notice; hearing. The | 25 | | Department may investigate the actions of any applicant or of |
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| 1 | | any person or persons holding or claiming to hold a license. | 2 | | The Department shall, before suspending, revoking, placing on | 3 | | probationary status, or taking any other disciplinary action | 4 | | as the Department may deem proper with regard to any license, | 5 | | at least 30 days prior to the date set for the hearing, notify | 6 | | the applicant or licensee in writing of any charges made and | 7 | | the time and place for a hearing of the charges before the | 8 | | Disciplinary Board, direct him or her to file his or her | 9 | | written answer thereto to the Disciplinary Board under oath | 10 | | within 20 days after the service on him or her of such notice | 11 | | and inform him or her that if he or she fails to file such | 12 | | answer default will be taken against him or her and his or her | 13 | | license may be suspended, revoked, placed on probationary | 14 | | status, or have other disciplinary action, including limiting | 15 | | the scope, nature, or extent of his or her practice, as the | 16 | | Department may deem proper taken with regard thereto. Written | 17 | | or electronic notice may be served by personal delivery, | 18 | | email, or mail to the applicant or licensee at his or her | 19 | | address of record or email address of record. At the time and | 20 | | place fixed in the notice, the Department shall proceed to | 21 | | hear the charges and the parties or their counsel shall be | 22 | | accorded ample opportunity to present such statements, | 23 | | testimony, evidence, and argument as may be pertinent to the | 24 | | charges or to the defense thereto. The Department may continue | 25 | | such hearing from time to time. In case the applicant or | 26 | | licensee, after receiving notice, fails to file an answer, his |
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| 1 | | or her license may in the discretion of the Secretary, having | 2 | | received first the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board, | 3 | | be suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or the | 4 | | Secretary may take whatever disciplinary action as he or she | 5 | | may deem proper, including limiting the scope, nature, or | 6 | | extent of such person's practice, without a hearing, if the | 7 | | act or acts charged constitute sufficient grounds for such | 8 | | action under this Act. | 9 | | Section 145. Hearing report. At the conclusion of the | 10 | | hearing, the Disciplinary Board shall present to the Secretary | 11 | | a written report of its findings of fact, conclusions of law, | 12 | | and recommendations. The report shall contain a finding of | 13 | | whether the accused person violated this Act or failed to | 14 | | comply with the conditions required in this Act. The | 15 | | Disciplinary Board shall specify the nature of the violation | 16 | | or failure to comply, and shall make its recommendations to | 17 | | the Secretary. | 18 | | The report of findings of fact, conclusions of law, and | 19 | | recommendation of the Disciplinary Board shall be the basis | 20 | | for the Department's order or refusal or for the granting of a | 21 | | license or permit. The finding is not admissible in evidence | 22 | | against the person in a criminal prosecution brought for the | 23 | | violation of this Act, but the hearing and finding are not a | 24 | | bar to a criminal prosecution brought for the violation of | 25 | | this Act. |
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| 1 | | Section 150. Hearing officer. Notwithstanding the | 2 | | provisions of Section 140, the Secretary shall have the | 3 | | authority to appoint any attorney duly licensed to practice | 4 | | law in this State to serve as the hearing officer in any action | 5 | | for refusal to issue or renew, or for discipline of, a license. | 6 | | The hearing officer shall have full authority to conduct the | 7 | | hearing. The hearing officer shall report his or her findings | 8 | | of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the | 9 | | Disciplinary Board and the Secretary. The Disciplinary Board | 10 | | shall have 60 days from receipt of the report to review the | 11 | | report of the hearing officer and present their findings of | 12 | | fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to the | 13 | | Secretary. If the Disciplinary Board fails to present its | 14 | | report within the 60-day period, the respondent may request in | 15 | | writing a direct appeal to the Secretary, in which case the | 16 | | Secretary may issue an order based upon the report of the | 17 | | hearing officer and the record of the proceedings or issue an | 18 | | order remanding the matter back to the hearing officer for | 19 | | additional proceedings in accordance with the order. | 20 | | Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, if the | 21 | | Secretary, upon review, determines that substantial justice | 22 | | has not been done in the revocation, suspension, or refusal to | 23 | | issue or renew a license or other disciplinary action taken as | 24 | | the result of the entry of the hearing officer's report, the | 25 | | Secretary may order a rehearing by the same or other |
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| 1 | | examiners. If the Secretary disagrees in any regard with the | 2 | | report of the Disciplinary Board or hearing officer, he or she | 3 | | may issue an order in contravention thereof. | 4 | | Section 155. Motion for rehearing. In any case | 5 | | involving the refusal to issue, renew, or discipline of a | 6 | | license, a copy of the Disciplinary Board's report shall be | 7 | | served upon the respondent by the Department, either | 8 | | personally or as provided in this Act for the service of the | 9 | | notice of hearing. Within 20 days after such service, the | 10 | | respondent may present to the Department a motion in writing | 11 | | for a rehearing, which motion shall specify the particular | 12 | | grounds therefor. If no motion for rehearing is filed, then | 13 | | upon the expiration of the time specified for filing such a | 14 | | motion, or if a motion for rehearing is denied, then upon such | 15 | | denial the Secretary may enter an order in accordance with | 16 | | recommendations of the Disciplinary Board except as provided | 17 | | in Section 145 or 150. If the respondent shall order from the | 18 | | reporting service, and pay for a transcript of the record | 19 | | within the time for filing a motion for rehearing, the 20-day | 20 | | period within which such a motion may be filed shall commence | 21 | | upon the delivery of the transcript to the respondent. | 22 | | Section 160. Certification of records by Department. The | 23 | | Department shall not be required to certify any record to the | 24 | | court or file any answer in court or otherwise appear in any |
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| 1 | | court in a judicial review proceeding, unless there is filed | 2 | | in the court, with the complaint, a receipt from the | 3 | | Department acknowledging payment of the costs of furnishing | 4 | | and certifying the record. Failure on the part of the | 5 | | plaintiff to file a receipt in court shall be grounds for | 6 | | dismissal of the action. | 7 | | Section 165. Violation. Any person who is found to have | 8 | | knowingly violated any provision of this Act is guilty of a | 9 | | Class A misdemeanor. On conviction of a second or subsequent | 10 | | offense the violator shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony. | 11 | | Section 170. Fees. | 12 | | (a) Fees collected for the administration of this Act | 13 | | shall be set by the Department by rule. All fees are | 14 | | nonrefundable. | 15 | | (b) All moneys collected under this Act by the Department | 16 | | shall be deposited in the General Professions Fund. | 17 | | Section 175. Returned checks; fines. Any person who | 18 | | delivers a check or other payment to the Department that is | 19 | | returned to the Department unpaid by the financial institution | 20 | | upon which it is drawn shall pay to the Department, in addition | 21 | | to the amount already owed to the Department, a fine of $50. | 22 | | The fines imposed by this Section are in addition to any other | 23 | | discipline provided under this Act for unlicensed practice or |
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| 1 | | practice on a nonrenewed license. The Department shall notify | 2 | | the person that payment of fees and fines shall be paid to the | 3 | | Department by certified check or money order within 30 | 4 | | calendar days of the notification. If, after the expiration of | 5 | | 30 days from the date of the notification, the person has | 6 | | failed to submit the necessary remittance, the Department | 7 | | shall automatically terminate the license or certificate or | 8 | | deny the application, without hearing. If, after termination | 9 | | or denial, the person seeks a license or certificate, he or she | 10 | | shall apply to the Department for restoration or issuance of | 11 | | the license or certificate and pay all fees and fines due to | 12 | | the Department. The Department may establish a fee for the | 13 | | processing of an application for restoration of a license or | 14 | | certificate to pay all expenses of processing this | 15 | | application. The Secretary may waive the fines due under this | 16 | | Section in individual cases where the Secretary finds that the | 17 | | fines would be unreasonable or unnecessarily burdensome. | 18 | | Section 180. Confidentiality. All information collected by | 19 | | the Department in the course of an examination or | 20 | | investigation of a licensee or applicant, including, but not | 21 | | limited to, any complaint against a licensee filed with the | 22 | | Department and information collected to investigate any such | 23 | | complaint, shall be maintained for the confidential use of the | 24 | | Department and shall not be disclosed. The Department shall | 25 | | not disclose the information to anyone other than law |
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| 1 | | enforcement officials, regulatory agencies that have an | 2 | | appropriate regulatory interest as determined by the | 3 | | Secretary, or a party presenting a lawful subpoena to the | 4 | | Department. Information and documents disclosed to a federal, | 5 | | State, county, or local law enforcement agency shall not be | 6 | | disclosed by the agency for any purpose to any other agency or | 7 | | person. A formal complaint filed against a licensee by the | 8 | | Department or any order issued by the Department against a | 9 | | licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as | 10 | | otherwise prohibited by law. | 11 | | Section 185. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by | 12 | | changing Section 4.37 as follows: | 13 | | (5 ILCS 80/4.37) | 14 | | Sec. 4.37. Acts and Articles repealed on January 1, 2027. | 15 | | The following are repealed on January 1, 2027: | 16 | | The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.
| 17 | | The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987. | 18 | | Articles II, III, IV, V, VI, VIIA, VIIB, VIIC, XVII, XXXI,
| 19 | | XXXI 1/4, and XXXI 3/4 of the Illinois Insurance Code.
| 20 | | The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act. | 21 | | The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act. | 22 | | The Licensed Certified Professional Midwife Practice Act. | 23 | | (Source: P.A. 99-572, eff. 7-15-16; 99-909, eff. 12-16-16; | 24 | | 99-910, eff. 12-16-16; 99-911, eff. 12-16-16; 100-201, eff. |
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| 1 | | 8-18-17; 100-372, eff. 8-25-17.)".
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