98TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2013 and 2014
SB0073

 

Introduced 1/23/2013, by Sen. Heather A. Steans

 

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:
 
See Index

    Amends the Nurse Practice Act. Removes references to a written collaborative agreement throughout the Act. Provides that an advanced practice nurse's scope of practice includes collaboration and consultation with or referral to a physician or other appropriate health-care professional for patient care needs that exceed the APN's scope of practice, education, or experience. Provides that as part of the professional scope of advanced practice nursing, an advanced practice nurse possesses prescriptive authority appropriate to his or her specialty, scope of practice, education, and experience. Such prescriptive authority shall include the authority to prescribe, select, order, administer, store, accept samples of, and dispense over-the-counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, certain controlled substances, and other preparations, including botanical and herbal remedies. Amends various other Acts to make related changes. Effective immediately.


LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

 

 

A BILL FOR

 

SB0073LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    AN ACT concerning regulation.
 
2    Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
3represented in the General Assembly:
 
4    Section 5. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended
5by changing Section 4 as follows:
 
6    (15 ILCS 335/4)  (from Ch. 124, par. 24)
7    Sec. 4. Identification Card.
8    (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois
9Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of
10the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal
11thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification
12Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory
13supervised release, final discharge, or pardon from the
14Department of Corrections by submitting an identification card
15issued by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-14-1 of
16the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed
17fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who
18holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or
19permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of
20State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or
21permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the
22Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature
23or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may

 

 

SB0073- 2 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification
2Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide
3religious objection to being photographed or to the display of
4his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be
5used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only
6by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act,
7"photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced
8and captured image of an applicant for an identification card.
9As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as
10written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to
11the Secretary of State.
12    (a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a
13current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the
14Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to
15utilize the same residence address and name on the
16identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit
17records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may
18promulgate rules to implement this provision.
19    (a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in
20Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act, the applicant may
21elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the
22card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address.
23The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.
24    (b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois
25Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person
26with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person

 

 

SB0073- 3 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person
2with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who
3applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person
4with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any
5person who holds a valid foreign state identification card,
6license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the
7Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card,
8license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee
9to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by
10the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and
11signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating
12that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability
13Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible
14designation of the type and classification of the applicant's
15disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the
16Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of
17Illinois Disabled Person with a Disability Identification
18Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide
19religious objection to being photographed or to the display of
20his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card
21shall include a description of the applicant's disability and
22any information about the applicant's disability or medical
23history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the
24applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used
25in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card
26in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity

 

 

SB0073- 4 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability
2Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in
3any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.
4    The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
5may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of
6a physician's determination of disability, a determination of
7disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated
8the authority to make this determination by his or her
9supervising physician, a determination of disability from an
10advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
11agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
12advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any
13other documentation of disability whenever any State law
14requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of
15disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability
16Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to
17participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is
18not available to all persons with like disabilities.
19Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person
20with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the
21Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a
22Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person
23other than the person named on such card to prove that the
24person named on such card is a disabled person or for any other
25purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person
26named on such card, and the person named on such card consents

 

 

SB0073- 5 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1to such use at the time the card is so used.
2    An optometrist's determination of a visual disability
3under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for
4the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability
5Identification Card.
6    When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person
7with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the
8Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken
9based upon that medical information.
10    (c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original
11or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with
12a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the
13age of 21, shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois
14Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability
15Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or
16older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards
17or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for
18persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the
19Secretary of State.
20    (c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification
21Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
22issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date
23upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon
24which the person becomes 21 years of age.
25    (c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify
26military veterans living in this State for the purpose of

 

 

SB0073- 6 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to
2which they are legally entitled, including healthcare,
3education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in
4identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services
5and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue
6Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Disabled Person
7with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran"
8appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is
9predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may
10not issue any other identification card which identifies an
11occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique
12characteristics of the identification card holder which is
13unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.
14    (c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of
15State shall designate a space on each original or renewal
16identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the
17word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall
18be available to a person identified as a veteran under
19subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or
20separated under honorable conditions.
21    (d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen
22discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the
23State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who
24applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of
25State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be
26issued in every county and applications shall be made available

 

 

SB0073- 7 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers
2and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such
3card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed
4thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.
5    (e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may
6designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois
7Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the
8card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the
9Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may
10specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the
11card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card
12or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.
13(Source: P.A. 96-146, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09;
1496-1231, eff. 7-23-10; 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff.
151-1-13; 97-847, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; revised
169-5-12.)
 
17    Section 10. The School Code is amended by changing Sections
1822-30, 24-5, 24-6, 26-1, and 27-8.1 as follows:
 
19    (105 ILCS 5/22-30)
20    Sec. 22-30. Self-administration of medication and school
21nurse administration.
22    (a) In this Section:
23    "Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.
24    "Epinephrine auto-injector" means a medical device for

 

 

SB0073- 8 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1immediate self-administration by a person at risk of
2anaphylaxis.
3    "Medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a
4physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
5(ii) a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority
6to prescribe asthma medications by his or her supervising
7physician, or (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse who
8has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
9physician that delegates the authority to prescribe asthma
10medications, for a pupil that pertains to the pupil's asthma
11and that has an individual prescription label.
12    "Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of
13and ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication.
14    (b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the
15self-administration of medication by a pupil with asthma or the
16use of an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:
17        (1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to
18    the school (i) written authorization from the parents or
19    guardians for the self-administration of medication or
20    (ii) for use of an epinephrine auto-injector, written
21    authorization from the pupil's physician, physician
22    assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse; and
23        (2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to
24    the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain
25    the name of the medication, the prescribed dosage, and the
26    time at which or circumstances under which the medication

 

 

SB0073- 9 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    is to be administered, or (ii) for use of an epinephrine
2    auto-injector, a written statement from the pupil's
3    physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice
4    registered nurse containing the following information:
5            (A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine
6        auto-injector;
7            (B) the prescribed dosage; and
8            (C) the time or times at which or the special
9        circumstances under which the epinephrine
10        auto-injector is to be administered.
11The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of
12the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the
13school's administrator.
14    (b-5) A school district or nonpublic school may authorize
15the provision of an epinephrine auto-injector to a student or
16any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health
17Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan
18and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section
19504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an
20epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the
21prescription on file.
22    (b-10) The school district or nonpublic school may
23authorize a school nurse do the following: (i) provide an
24epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any personnel
25authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action
26Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment

 

 

SB0073- 10 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the
2federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine
3auto-injector to the student, that meets the prescription on
4file; (ii) administer an epinephrine auto-injector that meets
5the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual
6Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action
7Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to
8Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 that
9authorizes the use of an Epinephrine auto-injector; and (iii)
10administer an epinephrine auto-injector to any student that the
11school nurse in good faith professionally believes is having an
12anaphylactic reaction.
13    (c) The school district or nonpublic school must inform the
14parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school
15district or nonpublic school and its employees and agents,
16including a physician providing standing protocol or
17prescription for school epinephrine auto-injectors, are to
18incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a
19result of any injury arising from the self-administration of
20medication or use of an epinephrine auto-injector regardless of
21whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or
22guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician's assistant,
23or advanced practice registered nurse. The parents or guardians
24of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the
25school district or nonpublic school and its employees and
26agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton

 

 

SB0073- 11 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the
2self-administration of medication or use of an epinephrine
3auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by
4the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician,
5physician's assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse
6and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold
7harmless the school district or nonpublic school and its
8employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based
9on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the
10self-administration of medication or use of an epinephrine
11auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by
12the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician,
13physician's assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.
14When a school nurse administers an epinephrine auto-injector to
15a student whom the school nurse in good faith professionally
16believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, notwithstanding
17the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or
18the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement
19acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton
20conduct, the school district or nonpublic school and its
21employees and agents, including a physician providing standing
22protocol or prescription for school epinephrine
23auto-injectors, are to incur no liability, except for willful
24and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the
25use of an epinephrine auto-injector regardless of whether
26authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or

 

 

SB0073- 12 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1by the pupil's physician, physician's assistant, or advanced
2practice registered nurse.
3    (d) The permission for self-administration of medication
4or use of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective for the
5school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each
6subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of
7this Section.
8    (e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are
9fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may possess and use his or her
10medication or a pupil may possess and use an epinephrine
11auto-injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a
12school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision
13of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school
14activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care
15on school-operated property.
16    (f) The school district or nonpublic school may maintain at
17a school in a locked, secure location a supply of epinephrine
18auto-injectors. A physician may prescribe epinephrine
19auto-injectors in the name of the school district or nonpublic
20school to be maintained for use when necessary. The school
21district or nonpublic school supply of epinephrine
22auto-injectors may be provided to and utilized by any student
23authorized to self-administer that meets the prescription on
24file or by any personnel authorized under a student's
25Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy
26Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan

 

 

SB0073- 13 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of
21973 to administer an epinephrine auto-injector to the student,
3that meets the prescription on file. When a student does not
4have an epinephrine auto-injector or a prescription for an
5epinephrine auto-injector on file, the school nurse may utilize
6the school district or nonpublic school supply of epinephrine
7auto-injectors to respond to anaphylactic reaction, under a
8standing protocol from a physician licensed to practice
9medicine in all its branches and the requirements of this
10Section.
11(Source: P.A. 96-1460, eff. 8-20-10; 97-361, eff. 8-15-11.)
 
12    (105 ILCS 5/24-5)  (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)
13    Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth.
14    School boards shall require of new employees evidence of
15physical fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from
16communicable disease, including tuberculosis. Such evidence
17shall consist of a physical examination and a tuberculin skin
18test and, if appropriate, an x-ray, made by a physician
19licensed in Illinois or any other state to practice medicine
20and surgery in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who
21has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
22physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to
23perform health examinations, or a physician assistant who has
24been delegated the authority to perform health examinations by
25his or her supervising physician not more than 90 days

 

 

SB0073- 14 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1preceding time of presentation to the board and cost of such
2examination shall rest with the employee. The board may from
3time to time require an examination of any employee by a
4physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery
5in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a
6written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
7that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health
8examinations, or a physician assistant who has been delegated
9the authority to perform health examinations by his or her
10supervising physician and shall pay the expenses thereof from
11school funds. School boards may require teachers in their
12employ to furnish from time to time evidence of continued
13professional growth.
14(Source: P.A. 94-350, eff. 7-28-05.)
 
15    (105 ILCS 5/24-6)
16    Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school
17districts, including special charter districts, but not
18including school districts in municipalities of 500,000 or
19more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall
20grant such of their other employees as are eligible to
21participate in the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the
22"600-Hour Standard" established, or under such other
23eligibility participation standard as may from time to time be
24established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter
25promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of

 

 

SB0073- 15 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick
2leave provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in
3each school year. If any such teacher or employee does not use
4the full amount of annual leave thus allowed, the unused amount
5shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum available leave of
6180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current year.
7Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness,
8quarantine at home, serious illness or death in the immediate
9family or household, or birth, adoption, or placement for
10adoption. The school board may require a certificate from a
11physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery
12in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under
13the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse
14who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
15physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to
16perform health examinations, a physician assistant who has been
17delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his
18or her supervising physician, or, if the treatment is by prayer
19or spiritual means, a spiritual adviser or practitioner of the
20teacher's or employee's faith as a basis for pay during leave
21after an absence of 3 days for personal illness or 30 days for
22birth or as the school board may deem necessary in other cases.
23If the school board does require a certificate as a basis for
24pay during leave of less than 3 days for personal illness, the
25school board shall pay, from school funds, the expenses
26incurred by the teachers or other employees in obtaining the

 

 

SB0073- 16 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1certificate. For paid leave for adoption or placement for
2adoption, the school board may require that the teacher or
3other employee provide evidence that the formal adoption
4process is underway, and such leave is limited to 30 days
5unless a longer leave has been negotiated with the exclusive
6bargaining representative.
7    If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school
8districts, or by reason of the creation of a new school
9district, the employment of a teacher is transferred to a new
10or different board, the accumulated sick leave of such teacher
11is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new or
12different district.
13    For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall
14include parents, spouse, brothers, sisters, children,
15grandparents, grandchildren, parents-in-law, brothers-in-law,
16sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.
17(Source: P.A. 95-151, eff. 8-14-07; 96-51, eff. 7-23-09;
1896-367, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
19    (105 ILCS 5/26-1)  (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)
20    Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age-Exemptions. Whoever has
21custody or control of any child between the ages of 7 and 17
22years (unless the child has already graduated from high school)
23shall cause such child to attend some public school in the
24district wherein the child resides the entire time it is in
25session during the regular school term, except as provided in

 

 

SB0073- 17 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1Section 10-19.1, and during a required summer school program
2established under Section 10-22.33B; provided, that the
3following children shall not be required to attend the public
4schools:
5        1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school
6    where children are taught the branches of education taught
7    to children of corresponding age and grade in the public
8    schools, and where the instruction of the child in the
9    branches of education is in the English language;
10        2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to
11    attend school, such disability being certified to the
12    county or district truant officer by a competent physician
13    licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in
14    all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under
15    the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice
16    nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
17    collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced
18    practice nurse to perform health examinations, a physician
19    assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform
20    health examinations by his or her supervising physician, or
21    a Christian Science practitioner residing in this State and
22    listed in the Christian Science Journal; or who is excused
23    for temporary absence for cause by the principal or teacher
24    of the school which the child attends; the exemptions in
25    this paragraph (2) do not apply to any female who is
26    pregnant or the mother of one or more children, except

 

 

SB0073- 18 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    where a female is unable to attend school due to a
2    complication arising from her pregnancy and the existence
3    of such complication is certified to the county or district
4    truant officer by a competent physician;
5        3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed
6    according to the provisions of the law regulating child
7    labor may be excused from attendance at school by the
8    county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of
9    the public school which the child should be attending, on
10    certification of the facts by and the recommendation of the
11    school board of the public school district in which the
12    child resides. In districts having part time continuation
13    schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at
14    least 8 hours each week;
15        4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in
16    attendance at confirmation classes;
17        5. Any child absent from a public school on a
18    particular day or days or at a particular time of day for
19    the reason that he is unable to attend classes or to
20    participate in any examination, study or work requirements
21    on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day,
22    because the tenets of his religion forbid secular activity
23    on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day.
24    Each school board shall prescribe rules and regulations
25    relative to absences for religious holidays including, but
26    not limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it

 

 

SB0073- 19 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    shall be mandatory to excuse a child; but nothing in this
2    paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit the right of any
3    school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on
4    any other day by reason of the observance of a religious
5    holiday. A school board may require the parent or guardian
6    of a child who is to be excused from attending school due
7    to the observance of a religious holiday to give notice,
8    not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school
9    principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from
10    attending school under this paragraph 5 shall not be
11    required to submit a written excuse for such absence after
12    returning to school; and
13        6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits
14    to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful
15    employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii)
16    is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to
17    Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning
18    opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B
19    of this Code.
20(Source: P.A. 96-367, eff. 8-13-09.)
 
21    (105 ILCS 5/27-8.1)  (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)
22    Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.
23    (1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the
24Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as
25hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a

 

 

SB0073- 20 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1health examination as follows: within one year prior to
2entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public,
3private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the
4sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial
5school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or
6parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade,
7immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private,
8or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present
9proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section
10and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child
11who received a health examination within one year prior to
12entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not
13required to receive an additional health examination in order
14to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or
15she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the
16child is attending school for the first time as provided in
17this paragraph.
18    A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a
19required part of each health examination included under this
20Section if the child resides in an area designated by the
21Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of
22tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils,
23including eye examinations, may be required when deemed
24necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have
25their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in
26time required for health examinations.

 

 

SB0073- 21 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of
2Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section,
3all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of
4any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental
5examination. Each of these children shall present proof of
6having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this
7Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of
8the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails
9to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's
10report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child
11presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the
12child presents proof that a dental examination will take place
13within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health
14shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an
15undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public,
16private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental
17examination requirement to the parents and guardians of
18students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.
19    (1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all
20children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or
21parochial school on or after the effective date of this
22amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student
23enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial
24school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of
25the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each
26of these children shall present proof of having been examined

 

 

SB0073- 22 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its
2branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in
3accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this
4Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child
5fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the
6child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the
7child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the
8child presents proof that an eye examination will take place
9within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public
10Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show
11an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to
12practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye
13examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public,
14private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye
15examination requirement to the parents and guardians of
16students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public
17Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a
18school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's
19or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the
20child.
21    (2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules
22and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures
23that constitute a health examination, which shall include the
24collection of data relating to obesity (including at a minimum,
25date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date
26of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule

 

 

SB0073- 23 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules
2and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall
3specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be
4included as a required part of each health examination included
5under this Section if the child resides in an area designated
6by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence
7of tuberculosis. The Department of Public Health shall specify
8that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included
9as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing
10is not required.
11    Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its
12branches, advanced practice nurses who have a written
13collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which
14authorizes them to perform health examinations, or physician
15assistants who have been delegated the performance of health
16examinations by their supervising physician shall be
17responsible for the performance of the health examinations,
18other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision
19and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required
20by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those
21portions of the health examination for which the physician,
22advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant is
23responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a
24health examination, then a physician licensed to practice
25medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all
26required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all

 

 

SB0073- 24 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by
2subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental
3examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all
4its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye
5examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report
6forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain
7to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye
8examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity,
9subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far,
10internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation,
11as well as any other tests or observations that in the
12professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and
13hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered
14examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be
15conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the
16Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the
17Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and
18regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that
19individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's
20parent or guardian written notification, before the vision
21screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a
22substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye
23doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision
24screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed
25and signed a report form indicating that an examination has
26been administered within the previous 12 months."

 

 

SB0073- 25 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or
2she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of
3this Section, present to the local school proof of having
4received such immunizations against preventable communicable
5diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by
6rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and
7the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.
8    (4) The individuals conducting the health examination,
9dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of
10having conducted the examination, and such additional
11information as required, including for a health examination
12data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of
13birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of
14exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health
15and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide
16use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any
17condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special
18services, including for a health examination factors relating
19to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of
20required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form
21that the immunizations were administered.
22    (5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either
23the health examination or the immunization as required, then
24the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the
25case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current
26school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year

 

 

SB0073- 26 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1established by a school district. To establish a date before
2October 15 of the current school year for the health
3examination or immunization as required, a school district must
4give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior
5to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or
6more of the required immunizations must be given after October
715 of the current school year, or after an earlier established
8date of the current school year, then the child shall present,
9by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule
10for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of
11the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and
12the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice
13nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health
14department that will be responsible for administration of the
15remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by
16October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current
17school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the
18local school authority shall exclude that child from school
19until such time as the child presents proof of having had the
20health examination as required and presents proof of having
21received those required immunizations which are medically
22possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion
23from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's
24parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of
25Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section
2626-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental

 

 

SB0073- 27 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1examinations and eye examinations. Until June 30, 2015, if the
2student is an out-of-state transfer student and does not have
3the proof required under this subsection (5) before October 15
4of the current year or whatever date is set by the school
5district, then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or
6she has proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations
7has been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of
8the required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required
9under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after
10the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is
11not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the
12vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or
13employee of a school district shall be held liable for any
14injury or illness to another person that results from admitting
15an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an
16appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).
17    (6) Every school shall report to the State Board of
18Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall
19require, the number of children who have received the necessary
20immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental
21examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of
22those who have not received the immunizations and examination
23as required, the number of children who are exempt from health
24examination and immunization requirements on religious or
25medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before
26December 1 of each year, every public school district and

 

 

SB0073- 28 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the
2immunization data they are required to submit to the State
3Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made
4publicly available must be identical to the data the school
5district or school has reported to the State Board of
6Education.
7    Every school shall report to the State Board of Education
8by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the
9number of children who have received the required dental
10examination, indicating, of those who have not received the
11required dental examination, the number of children who are
12exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as
13provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of
14children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of
15this Section.
16    Every school shall report to the State Board of Education
17by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the
18number of children who have received the required eye
19examination, indicating, of those who have not received the
20required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt
21from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this
22Section, the number of children who have received a waiver
23under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number
24of children in noncompliance with the eye examination
25requirement.
26    The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be

 

 

SB0073- 29 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board
2of Education.
3    (7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are
4required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this
5Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the
6school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to
7Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be
8withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of
9students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable
10specified percentage or higher.
11    (8) Parents or legal guardians who object to health,
12dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, or to
13immunizations, on religious grounds shall not be required to
14submit their children or wards to the examinations or
15immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal
16guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a
17signed statement of objection, detailing the grounds for the
18objection. If the physical condition of the child is such that
19any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be
20administered, the examining physician, advanced practice
21nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance
22of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the
23health examination form. Exempting a child from the health,
24dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from
25participation in the program of physical education training
26provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

 

 

SB0073- 30 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools"
2means those nursery schools operated by elementary school
3systems or secondary level school units or institutions of
4higher learning.
5(Source: P.A. 96-953, eff. 6-28-10; 97-216, eff. 1-1-12;
697-910, eff. 1-1-13.)
 
7    Section 15. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is
8amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:
 
9    (210 ILCS 5/6.5)
10    Sec. 6.5. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses.
11All ambulatory surgical treatment centers (ASTC) licensed
12under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:
13    (1) No ASTC policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be
14inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and
15consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical
16Practice Act of 1987.
17    (2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only
18by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
19branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist
20licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a
21podiatrist licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of
221987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical
23privileges granted by the consulting committee of the ASTC. A
24licensed physician, dentist, or podiatrist may be assisted by a

 

 

SB0073- 31 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
2dentist, dental assistant, podiatrist, licensed advanced
3practice nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed
4registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical
5assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted
6clinical privileges to assist in surgery by the consulting
7committee of the ASTC. Payment for services rendered by an
8assistant in surgery who is not an ambulatory surgical
9treatment center employee shall be paid at the appropriate
10non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made
11payment had the same services been provided by a physician.
12    (2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice
13Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room
14nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as
15the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative
16procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating
17nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for
18coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the
19needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an
20invasive or operative procedure.
21    (3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess
22prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement
23meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide
24advanced practice nursing services in an ambulatory surgical
25treatment center. An advanced practice nurse must possess
26clinical privileges granted by the consulting medical staff

 

 

SB0073- 32 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to
2provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also
3be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer
4medications, including controlled substances, to provide
5delineated care. The attending physician must determine the
6advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her
7patients, except as otherwise provided in the consulting staff
8policies. The consulting medical staff committee shall
9periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses
10granted privileges.
11    (4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of
12a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches
13who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area
14or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An
15anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is
16recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered
17pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice
18medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed
19podiatrist.
20        (A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges
21    granted by the medical staff and ASTC, may administer
22    anesthesia services are limited to the following:
23            (i) an anesthesiologist; or
24            (ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in
25        all its branches; or
26            (iii) a dentist with authority to administer

 

 

SB0073- 33 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental
2        Practice Act; or
3            (iv) a licensed certified registered nurse
4        anesthetist; or
5            (v) a podiatrist licensed under the Podiatric
6        Medical Practice Act of 1987.
7        (B) (Blank). For anesthesia services, an
8    anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of
9    and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain
10    physically present and be available on the premises during
11    the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
12    consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
13    conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of
14    anesthesiologists with clinical privileges, an alternate
15    policy (requiring participation, presence, and
16    availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine
17    in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical
18    staff consulting committee in consultation with the
19    anesthesia service and included in the medical staff
20    consulting committee policies.
21        (C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not
22    required to possess prescriptive authority or a written
23    collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of
24    Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide
25    anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician,
26    dentist, or podiatrist. Licensed certified registered

 

 

SB0073- 34 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and
2    administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices
3    in the provision of anesthesia services. under the
4    anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in
5    the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical
6    privileges, agreed with by the operating physician,
7    operating dentist, or operating podiatrist in accordance
8    with the medical staff consulting committee policies of a
9    licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.
10(Source: P.A. 94-915, eff. 1-1-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07;
1195-911, eff. 8-26-08.)
 
12    Section 20. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank
13Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:
 
14    (210 ILCS 25/7-101)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)
15    Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical
16laboratory shall examine specimens only at the request of (i) a
17licensed physician, (ii) a licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed
18podiatrist, (iv) a therapeutic optometrist for diagnostic or
19therapeutic purposes related to the use of diagnostic topical
20or therapeutic ocular pharmaceutical agents, as defined in
21subsections (c) and (d) of Section 15.1 of the Illinois
22Optometric Practice Act of 1987, (v) a licensed physician
23assistant in accordance with the written guidelines required
24under subdivision (3) of Section 4 and under Section 7.5 of the

 

 

SB0073- 35 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (v-A) an advanced
2practice nurse in accordance with the written collaborative
3agreement required under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice
4Act, (vi) an authorized law enforcement agency or, in the case
5of blood alcohol, at the request of the individual for whom the
6test is to be performed in compliance with Sections 11-501 and
711-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic
8counselor with the specific authority from a referral to order
9a test or tests pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the
10Genetic Counselor Licensing Act. If the request to a laboratory
11is oral, the physician or other authorized person shall submit
12a written request to the laboratory within 48 hours. If the
13laboratory does not receive the written request within that
14period, it shall note that fact in its records. For purposes of
15this Section, a request made by electronic mail or fax
16constitutes a written request.
17(Source: P.A. 96-1313, eff. 7-27-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)
 
18    Section 25. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by
19changing Section 10.7 as follows:
 
20    (210 ILCS 85/10.7)
21    Sec. 10.7. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses.
22All hospitals licensed under this Act shall comply with the
23following requirements:
24    (1) No hospital policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall

 

 

SB0073- 36 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration
2and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical
3Practice Act of 1987.
4    (2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only
5by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
6branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist
7licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a
8podiatrist licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of
91987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical
10privileges granted at the hospital. A licensed physician,
11dentist, or podiatrist may be assisted by a physician licensed
12to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental
13assistant, podiatrist, licensed advanced practice nurse,
14licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse,
15licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical
16technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges
17to assist in surgery at the hospital. Payment for services
18rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not a hospital
19employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician
20modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same
21services been provided by a physician.
22    (2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice
23Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room
24nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as
25the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative
26procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating

 

 

SB0073- 37 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for
2coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the
3needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an
4invasive or operative procedure.
5    (3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess
6prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement
7meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide
8advanced practice nursing services in a hospital. An advanced
9practice nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by
10the medical staff and granted by the hospital in order to
11provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also
12be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer
13medications, including controlled substances, to provide
14delineated care. The attending physician must determine the
15advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her
16patients, except as otherwise provided in medical staff bylaws.
17The medical staff shall periodically review the services of
18advanced practice nurses granted privileges. This review shall
19be conducted in accordance with item (2) of subsection (a) of
20Section 10.8 of this Act for advanced practice nurses employed
21by the hospital.
22    (4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of
23a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches
24who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area
25or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An
26anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is

 

 

SB0073- 38 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered
2pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice
3medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed
4podiatrist.
5        (A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges
6    granted at the hospital, may administer anesthesia
7    services are limited to the following:
8            (i) an anesthesiologist; or
9            (ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in
10        all its branches; or
11            (iii) a dentist with authority to administer
12        anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental
13        Practice Act; or
14            (iv) a licensed certified registered nurse
15        anesthetist; or
16            (v) a podiatrist licensed under the Podiatric
17        Medical Practice Act of 1987.
18        (B) (Blank). For anesthesia services, an
19    anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of
20    and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain
21    physically present and be available on the premises during
22    the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
23    consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
24    conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of
25    anesthesiologists with medical staff privileges, an
26    alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and

 

 

SB0073- 39 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine
2    in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical
3    staff and licensed hospital in consultation with the
4    anesthesia service.
5        (C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not
6    required to possess prescriptive authority or a written
7    collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of
8    Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide
9    anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician,
10    dentist, or podiatrist. Licensed certified registered
11    nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and
12    administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices
13    in the provision of anesthesia services. under the
14    anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in
15    the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical
16    privileges, agreed with by the operating physician,
17    operating dentist, or operating podiatrist in accordance
18    with the hospital's alternative policy.
19(Source: P.A. 94-915, eff. 1-1-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07;
2095-911, eff. 8-26-08.)
 
21    Section 30. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by
22changing Sections 356g.5 and 356z.1 as follows:
 
23    (215 ILCS 5/356g.5)
24    Sec. 356g.5. Clinical breast exam.

 

 

SB0073- 40 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (a) The General Assembly finds that clinical breast
2examinations are a critical tool in the early detection of
3breast cancer, while the disease is in its earlier and
4potentially more treatable stages. Insurer reimbursement of
5clinical breast examinations is essential to the effort to
6reduce breast cancer deaths in Illinois.
7    (b) Every insurer shall provide, in each group or
8individual policy, contract, or certificate of accident or
9health insurance issued or renewed for persons who are
10residents of Illinois, coverage for complete and thorough
11clinical breast examinations as indicated by guidelines of
12practice, performed by a physician licensed to practice
13medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who
14has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
15that authorizes breast examinations, or a physician assistant
16who has been delegated authority to provide breast
17examinations, to check for lumps and other changes for the
18purpose of early detection and prevention of breast cancer as
19follows:
20        (1) at least every 3 years for women at least 20 years
21    of age but less than 40 years of age; and
22        (2) annually for women 40 years of age or older.
23    (c) Upon approval of a nationally recognized separate and
24distinct clinical breast exam code that is compliant with all
25State and federal laws, rules, and regulations, public and
26private insurance plans shall take action to cover clinical

 

 

SB0073- 41 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1breast exams on a separate and distinct basis.
2(Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07.)
 
3    (215 ILCS 5/356z.1)
4    Sec. 356z.1. Prenatal HIV testing. An individual or group
5policy of accident and health insurance that provides maternity
6coverage and is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after
7the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General
8Assembly must provide coverage for prenatal HIV testing ordered
9by an attending physician licensed to practice medicine in all
10its branches, or by a physician assistant or advanced practice
11registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with
12a collaborating physician that authorizes these services,
13including but not limited to orders consistent with the
14recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and
15Gynecologists or the American Academy of Pediatrics.
16(Source: P.A. 92-130, eff. 7-20-01.)
 
17    Section 35. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by
18changing Section 8.1 as follows:
 
19    (225 ILCS 25/8.1)  (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)
20    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
21    Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and
22sedation.
23    (a) No licensed dentist shall administer general

 

 

SB0073- 42 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation without first
2applying for and obtaining a permit for such purpose from the
3Department. The Department shall issue such permit only after
4ascertaining that the applicant possesses the minimum
5qualifications necessary to protect public safety. A person
6with a dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep sedation,
7or conscious sedation in an approved hospital training program
8under the supervision of either a licensed dentist holding such
9permit or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
10branches shall not be required to obtain such permit.
11    (b) In determining the minimum permit qualifications that
12are necessary to protect public safety, the Department, by
13rule, shall:
14        (1) establish the minimum educational and training
15    requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued an
16    appropriate permit;
17        (2) establish the standards for properly equipped
18    dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and
19    ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general
20    anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation is
21    administered, as necessary to protect public safety;
22        (3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who
23    assist the dentist in the administration of general
24    anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation,
25    including minimum training requirements for each member of
26    the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping

 

 

SB0073- 43 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    requirements, and emergency procedures; and
2        (4) ensure that the dentist and all persons assisting
3    the dentist or monitoring the administration of general
4    anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation maintain
5    current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS).
6        (5) establish continuing education requirements in
7    sedation techniques for dentists who possess a permit under
8    this Section.
9When establishing requirements under this Section, the
10Department shall consider the current American Dental
11Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the
12current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric
13Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and
14Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of
15Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry, and
16the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia Evaluation
17(OAE) Manual established by the American Association of Oral
18and Maxillofacial Surgeons.
19    (c) (Blank). A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate
20permit issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry
21while a nurse anesthetist administers conscious sedation, and a
22valid written collaborative agreement must exist between the
23dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse
24Practice Act.
25    A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued
26under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse

 

 

SB0073- 44 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia,
2and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between
3the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the
4Nurse Practice Act.
5    For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse
6anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse
7anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice nurse.
8(Source: P.A. 95-399, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 1-1-08; 96-328,
9eff. 8-11-09.)
 
10    Section 37. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by
11changing Sections 22 and 54.5 as follows:
 
12    (225 ILCS 60/22)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)
13    (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2013)
14    Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.
15    (A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation,
16reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other
17disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
18deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person
19issued under this Act to practice medicine, or a chiropractic
20physician, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for
21each violation, upon any of the following grounds:
22        (1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place,
23    locale, facility, or institution other than:
24            (a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory

 

 

SB0073- 45 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        Surgical Treatment Center Act;
2            (b) an institution licensed under the Hospital
3        Licensing Act;
4            (c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or
5        hospitalization or care facility maintained by the
6        State or any agency thereof, where such department or
7        agency has authority under law to establish and enforce
8        standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment
9        centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its
10        management and control;
11            (d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers,
12        hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the
13        Federal Government; or
14            (e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers,
15        hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any
16        university or college established under the laws of
17        this State and supported principally by public funds
18        raised by taxation.
19        (2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful
20    and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the
21    time the abortion procedure was performed.
22        (3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of
23    guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing,
24    including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding
25    sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first
26    offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of

 

 

SB0073- 46 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    the United States of any crime that is a felony.
2        (4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.
3        (5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
4    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
5    defraud or harm the public.
6        (6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or
7    misrepresentation.
8        (7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined
9    in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any
10    other substances which results in the inability to practice
11    with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
12        (8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by
13    law, an assumed name.
14        (9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or
15    procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with
16    applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
17        (10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding
18    their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine,
19    treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction
20    in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the
21    body or mind.
22        (11) Allowing another person or organization to use
23    their license, procured under this Act, to practice.
24        (12) Disciplinary action of another state or
25    jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to
26    practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor

 

 

SB0073- 47 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a
2    certified copy of the record of the action taken by the
3    other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence
4    thereof.
5        (13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the
6    Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or
7    violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of
8    the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation
9    of the Disciplinary Board.
10        (14) Violation of the prohibition against fee
11    splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.
12        (15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the
13    registrant after having his or her license placed on
14    probationary status or subjected to conditions or
15    restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed
16    to comply with such terms or conditions.
17        (16) Abandonment of a patient.
18        (17) Prescribing, selling, administering,
19    distributing, giving or self-administering any drug
20    classified as a controlled substance (designated product)
21    or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
22    purposes.
23        (18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices,
24    appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner
25    as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the
26    physician.

 

 

SB0073- 48 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat
2    disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment or
3    medicine, or the treating, operating or prescribing for any
4    human condition by a method, means or procedure which the
5    licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.
6        (20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act
7    including, but not limited to, commission of an act of
8    sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.
9        (21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports
10    in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not
11    limited to, false records to support claims against the
12    medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare
13    and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
14    under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
15        (22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully
16    impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another
17    person to omit to file or record, medical reports as
18    required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance
19    of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.
20        (23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
21    report by the Department of Children and Family Services
22    under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and
23    upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
24    licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or
25    neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected
26    Child Reporting Act.

 

 

SB0073- 49 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any
2    corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those
3    representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.
4        (25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for
5    professional services, including filing false statements
6    for collection of fees for which services are not rendered,
7    including, but not limited to, filing such false statements
8    for collection of monies for services not rendered from the
9    medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare
10    and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
11    under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
12        (26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
13    demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under
14    this Act.
15        (27) Mental illness or disability which results in the
16    inability to practice under this Act with reasonable
17    judgment, skill or safety.
18        (28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
19    deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor
20    skill which results in a physician's inability to practice
21    under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
22        (29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing
23    examinations administered under this Act.
24        (30) Wilfully or negligently violating the
25    confidentiality between physician and patient except as
26    required by law.

 

 

SB0073- 50 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive
2    statement in any document connected with practice under
3    this Act.
4        (32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed
5    under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed
6    under this Act.
7        (33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations
8    relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or
9    ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.
10        (34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse
11    final action taken against them by another licensing
12    jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the
13    United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer
14    review body, by any health care institution, by any
15    professional society or association related to practice
16    under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law
17    enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct
18    similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds
19    for action as defined in this Section.
20        (35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a
21    license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a
22    doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or
23    doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or
24    surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any
25    medical or professional association or society, while
26    under disciplinary investigation by any of those

 

 

SB0073- 51 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts
2    or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as
3    defined in this Section.
4        (36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse
5    judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability
6    claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct
7    which would constitute grounds for action as defined in
8    this Section.
9        (37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as
10    required by law.
11        (38) Failure to furnish the Department, its
12    investigators or representatives, relevant information,
13    legally requested by the Department after consultation
14    with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical
15    Coordinator.
16        (39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
17    Act.
18        (40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is
19    required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.
20        (41) Failure to establish and maintain records of
21    patient care and treatment as required by this law.
22        (42) (Blank). Entering into an excessive number of
23    written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced
24    practice nurses resulting in an inability to adequately
25    collaborate.
26        (43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a

 

 

SB0073- 52 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    licensed advanced practice nurse.
2    Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all
3proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status,
4or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may
5deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing
6grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by
7the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or
8notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described
9herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and
10(29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the
11date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this
12Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a
13pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents
14alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior
15that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act
16received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the
17complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause
18of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final
19judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such
20claim, cause of action or civil action being grounded on the
21allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent
22in providing care, the Department shall have an additional
23period of 2 years from the date of notification to the
24Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or
25final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal
26disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except

 

 

SB0073- 53 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder
2of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be
3included within any period of time limiting the commencement of
4disciplinary action by the Department.
5    The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court
6establishing that any person holding a license under this Act
7is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a
8suspension of that license. That person may resume their
9practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon
10a finding by the Disciplinary Board that they have been
11determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and
12upon the Disciplinary Board's recommendation that they be
13permitted to resume their practice.
14    The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary
15action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a
16return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed
17return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or
18interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the
19Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the
20requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by
21the Illinois Department of Revenue.
22    The Department, upon the recommendation of the
23Disciplinary Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards
24to be used in determining:
25        (a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently
26    rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

 

 

SB0073- 54 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or
2    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
3    defraud, or harm the public;
4        (c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission
5    of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an
6    act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's
7    practice; and
8        (d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice
9    of medicine.
10    However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in
11any civil action except for review of a licensing or other
12disciplinary action under this Act.
13    In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the
14Licensing Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may
15compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual
16who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to
17practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing
18Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit
19pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical
20examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a
21substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by
22the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of
23the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall
24specifically designate the examining physician licensed to
25practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the
26multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or

 

 

SB0073- 55 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1physical examination and evaluation, or both. The
2multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to
3practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one
4or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice
5medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic
6physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical
7social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and
8other professional and administrative staff. Any examining
9physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require
10any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation
11pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional
12supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any
13examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited
14to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or
15neuropsychological testing. The Disciplinary Board, the
16Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining
17physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to
18provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the
19Licensing Board any and all records, including business
20records, that relate to the examination and evaluation,
21including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary
22Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the
23examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team
24to present testimony concerning this examination and
25evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant,
26including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or

 

 

SB0073- 56 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No
2information, report, record, or other documents in any way
3related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by
4reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to
5communication between the licensee or applicant and the
6examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary
7team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit
8holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and
9examination for the examining physician or any member of the
10multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports,
11records, or other documents or to provide any testimony
12regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be
13examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician
14of his or her choice present during all aspects of the
15examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or
16physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed,
17shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until
18such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the
19Disciplinary Board finds a physician unable to practice because
20of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary
21Board shall require such physician to submit to care,
22counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated
23by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition for continued,
24reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician,
25whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of
26this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or

 

 

SB0073- 57 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions
2who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or
3restrictions, or to complete a required program of care,
4counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical
5Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred
6to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee
7shall have their license suspended immediately, pending a
8hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in which the
9Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a
10hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the
11Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such suspension and
12completed without appreciable delay. The Disciplinary Board
13shall have the authority to review the subject physician's
14record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to
15the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and
16regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical
17records.
18    An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this
19Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the
20Disciplinary Board that they can resume practice in compliance
21with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions
22of their license.
23    The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of
24fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each
25violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with
26other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the

 

 

SB0073- 58 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of
2conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds
3collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Medical
4Disciplinary Fund.
5    (B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit
6issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic
7physician who has been convicted a second time of committing
8any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the
9Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who
10has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony
11under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A
12person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection
13B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating
14human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative
15surgery.
16    (C) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the
17Department civil penalties and any other appropriate
18discipline in disciplinary cases when the Board finds that a
19physician willfully performed an abortion with actual
20knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been
21performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as
22required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.
23Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose,
24for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a
25second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.
26(Source: P.A. 96-608, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10;

 

 

SB0073- 59 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

197-622, eff. 11-23-11.)
 
2    (225 ILCS 60/54.5)
3    (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2013)
4    Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician
5assistants and advanced practice nurses.
6    (a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its
7branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a
8physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the
9requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. A
10physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may
11enter into supervising physician agreements with no more than 5
12physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section
137 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
14    (b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
15branches in active clinical practice may collaborate and
16consult with an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the
17requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration is for
18the purpose of providing medical consultation, and no
19employment relationship is required. A written collaborative
20agreement shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of
21the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement
22shall be for services the collaborating physician generally
23provides to his or her patients in the normal course of
24clinical medical practice. A written collaborative agreement
25shall be adequate with respect to collaboration with advanced

 

 

SB0073- 60 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1practice nurses if all of the following apply:
2        (1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of
3    professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse
4    commensurate with his or her education and experience. The
5    agreement need not describe the exact steps that an
6    advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each
7    specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify
8    those procedures that require a physician's presence as the
9    procedures are being performed.
10        (2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and
11    approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and
12    collaborating physician, as needed, based on the practice
13    of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the
14    patient services provided thereunder are periodically
15    reviewed by the collaborating physician.
16        (3) The advance practice nurse provides services the
17    collaborating physician generally provides to his or her
18    patients in the normal course of clinical practice, except
19    as set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With
20    respect to labor and delivery, the collaborating physician
21    must provide delivery services in order to participate with
22    a certified nurse midwife.
23        (4) The collaborating physician and advanced practice
24    nurse consult at least once a month to provide
25    collaboration and consultation.
26        (5) Methods of communication are available with the

 

 

SB0073- 61 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    collaborating physician in person or through
2    telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and
3    referral as needed to address patient care needs.
4        (6) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice
5    for termination or change of status involving a written
6    collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given
7    for just cause.
8    (b-5) (Blank). An anesthesiologist or physician licensed
9to practice medicine in all its branches may collaborate with a
10certified registered nurse anesthetist in accordance with
11Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of
12anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of
13anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or
14physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of
15anesthesia services consistent with Department rules.
16Collaboration shall be adequate if:
17        (1) an anesthesiologist or a physician participates in
18    the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or
19    guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the
20    services provided patients under such orders; and
21        (2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist or
22    physician participates through discussion of and agreement
23    with the anesthesia plan and is physically present and
24    available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia
25    services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of
26    emergency medical conditions. Anesthesia services in a

 

 

SB0073- 62 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    hospital shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10.7
2    of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical
3    treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the
4    Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.
5    (b-10) (Blank). The anesthesiologist or operating
6physician must agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the
7delivery of services.
8    (c) The supervising physician shall have access to the
9medical records of all patients attended by a physician
10assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to the
11medical records of all patients attended to by an advanced
12practice nurse.
13    (d) (Blank).
14    (e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or
15omissions of a physician assistant or advanced practice nurse
16solely on the basis of having signed a supervision agreement or
17guidelines for a physician assistant or providing consultation
18and collaboration with an advanced practice nurse, issuing or a
19collaborative agreement, an order, a standing medical order, a
20standing delegation order, or other order or guideline
21authorizing a physician assistant or advanced practice nurse to
22perform acts, unless the physician has reason to believe the
23physician assistant or advanced practice nurse lacked the
24competency to perform the act or acts or commits willful and
25wanton misconduct.
26    (f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to,

 

 

SB0073- 63 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse
2as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the
3delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the
4requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
5    (g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to,
6delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as
7part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of
8prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of
9Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
10(Source: P.A. 96-618, eff. 1-1-10; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11;
1197-1071, eff. 8-24-12.)
 
12    Section 40. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing
13Sections 50-10, 65-30, 65-40, 65-45, 65-55, and 70-5 as
14follows:
 
15    (225 ILCS 65/50-10)   (was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)
16    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
17    Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when
18used in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this
19Section, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:
20    "Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of
21courses at a college, university, or approved school,
22customarily regarded as the school year as distinguished from
23the calendar year.
24    "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means a person who has

 

 

SB0073- 64 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM);
2(ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified
3registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse
4specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All
5advanced practice nurses licensed and practicing in the State
6of Illinois shall use the title APN and may use specialty
7credentials after their name.
8    "Approved program of professional nursing education" and
9"approved program of practical nursing education" are programs
10of professional or practical nursing, respectively, approved
11by the Department under the provisions of this Act.
12    "Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the
13Secretary.
14    "Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health
15care professionals working together, each contributing one's
16respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive
17patient care.
18    "Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced
19practice nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health
20care professional.
21    "Credentialed" means the process of assessing and
22validating the qualifications of a health care professional.
23    "Current nursing practice update course" means a planned
24nursing education curriculum approved by the Department
25consisting of activities that have educational objectives,
26instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical

 

 

SB0073- 65 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and
2updating content and specifically planned for those nurses
3previously licensed in the United States or its territories and
4preparing for reentry into nursing practice.
5    "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry
6under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.
7    "Department" means the Department of Financial and
8Professional Regulation.
9    "Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who
10is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because
11of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written
12determination or written consent based on clinical evidence,
13including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a
14psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or
15her ability to deliver competent patient care.
16    "License-pending advanced practice nurse" means a
17registered professional nurse who has completed all
18requirements for licensure as an advanced practice nurse except
19the certification examination and has applied to take the next
20available certification exam and received a temporary license
21from the Department.
22    "License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has
23passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam
24and has applied for a license from the Department. A
25license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic
26pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice.

 

 

SB0073- 66 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in
2all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.
3    "Podiatrist" means a person licensed to practice podiatry
4under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
5    "Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a
6person who is licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and
7practices practical nursing as defined in this Act. Only a
8practical nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the
9title "licensed practical nurse" and the abbreviation
10"L.P.N.".
11    "Practical nursing" means the performance of nursing acts
12requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgment judgement, and
13skill acquired by means of completion of an approved practical
14nursing education program. Practical nursing includes
15assisting in the nursing process as delegated by a registered
16professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse. The practical
17nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician,
18dentist, podiatrist, or other health care professional
19determined by the Department.
20    "Privileged" means the authorization granted by the
21governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or
22organization to provide specific patient care services within
23well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the
24credentialing process.
25    "Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse"
26means a person who is licensed as a professional nurse under

 

 

SB0073- 67 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1this Act and practices nursing as defined in this Act. Only a
2registered nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the
3titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse"
4and the abbreviation, "R.N.".
5    "Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific
6process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a
7learned profession based on the understanding of the human
8condition across the life span and environment and includes all
9nursing specialties and means the performance of any nursing
10act based upon professional knowledge, judgment, and skills
11acquired by means of completion of an approved professional
12nursing education program. A registered professional nurse
13provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process to
14individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes
15but is not limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs,
16nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and nursing
17evaluation; (2) the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of
18health; (3) counseling, patient education, health education,
19and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications and
20treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice
21medicine in all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed
22podiatrist, or a licensed optometrist or as prescribed by a
23physician assistant in accordance with written guidelines
24required under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or
25by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with Article 65 of
26this Act; (5) the coordination and management of the nursing

 

 

SB0073- 68 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1plan of care; (6) the delegation to and supervision of
2individuals who assist the registered professional nurse
3implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing
4students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include those
5acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or
6corrective measures.
7    "Professional assistance program for nurses" means a
8professional assistance program that meets criteria
9established by the Board of Nursing and approved by the
10Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment
11approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to
12practice is compromised by alcohol or chemical substance
13addiction.
14    "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
15Professional Regulation.
16    "Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good
17standing.
18    "Written collaborative agreement" means a written
19agreement between an advanced practice nurse and a
20collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatrist pursuant to
21Section 65-35.
22(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)
 
23    (225 ILCS 65/65-30)
24    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
25    Sec. 65-30. APN scope of practice.

 

 

SB0073- 69 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (a) Advanced practice nursing by certified nurse
2practitioners, certified nurse anesthetists, certified nurse
3midwives, or clinical nurse specialists is based on knowledge
4and skills acquired throughout an advanced practice nurse's
5nursing education, training, and experience.
6    (b) Practice as an advanced practice nurse means a scope of
7nursing practice, with or without compensation, and includes
8the registered nurse scope of practice.
9    (c) The scope of practice of an advanced practice nurse
10includes, but is not limited to, each of the following:
11        (1) Advanced nursing patient assessment and diagnosis.
12        (2) Ordering diagnostic and therapeutic tests and
13    procedures, performing those tests and procedures when
14    using health care equipment, and interpreting and using the
15    results of diagnostic and therapeutic tests and procedures
16    ordered by the advanced practice nurse or another health
17    care professional.
18        (3) Ordering treatments, ordering or applying
19    appropriate medical devices, and using nursing medical,
20    therapeutic, and corrective measures to treat illness and
21    improve health status.
22        (4) Providing palliative and end-of-life care.
23        (5) Providing advanced counseling, patient education,
24    health education, and patient advocacy.
25        (6) Prescriptive authority as defined in Section 65-40
26    of this Act.

 

 

SB0073- 70 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (7) Delegating selected nursing activities or tasks to
2    a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional
3    nurse, or other personnel.
4        (8) Collaboration and consultation with or referral to
5    a physician or other appropriate health-care professional
6    for patient care needs that exceed the APN's scope of
7    practice, education, or experience.
8(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
9    (225 ILCS 65/65-40)   (was 225 ILCS 65/15-20)
10    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
11    Sec. 65-40. Written collaborative agreement; prescriptive
12authority.
13    (a) As part of the professional scope of advanced practice
14nursing, an APN possesses prescriptive authority appropriate
15to his or her specialty, scope of practice, education, and
16experience. Such prescriptive authority shall A collaborating
17physician or podiatrist may, but is not required to, delegate
18prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of
19a written collaborative agreement. This authority may, but is
20not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders
21for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of,
22and dispensing over the counter medications, legend drugs,
23medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as any
24Schedule III through V controlled substances, as defined in
25Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other

 

 

SB0073- 71 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and
2herbal remedies. The collaborating physician or podiatrist
3must have a valid current Illinois controlled substance license
4and federal registration to delegate authority to prescribe
5delegated controlled substances.
6    (b) (Blank). To prescribe controlled substances under this
7Section, an advanced practice nurse must obtain a mid-level
8practitioner controlled substance license. Medication orders
9shall be reviewed periodically by the collaborating physician
10or podiatrist.
11    (c) (Blank). The collaborating physician or podiatrist
12shall file with the Department notice of delegation of
13prescriptive authority and termination of such delegation, in
14accordance with rules of the Department. Upon receipt of this
15notice delegating authority to prescribe any Schedule III
16through V controlled substances, the licensed advanced
17practice nurse shall be eligible to register for a mid-level
18practitioner controlled substance license under Section 303.05
19of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
20    (d) (Blank). In addition to the requirements of subsections
21(a), (b), and (c) of this Section, a collaborating physician or
22podiatrist may, but is not required to, delegate authority to
23an advanced practice nurse to prescribe any Schedule II
24controlled substances, if all of the following conditions
25apply:
26        (1) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral

 

 

SB0073- 72 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    dosage or topical or transdermal application may be
2    delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II
3    controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the
4    collaborating physician or podiatrist. This delegation
5    must identify the specific Schedule II controlled
6    substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule
7    II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or
8    other route of administration may not be delegated.
9        (2) Any delegation must be controlled substances that
10    the collaborating physician or podiatrist prescribes.
11        (3) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a
12    30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after
13    prior approval of the collaborating physician or
14    podiatrist.
15        (4) The advanced practice nurse must discuss the
16    condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance
17    is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician.
18        (5) The advanced practice nurse meets the education
19    requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled
20    Substances Act.
21    (e) (Blank). Nothing in this Act shall be construed to
22limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a
23licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or
24other persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit
25the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means,
26including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic,

 

 

SB0073- 73 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.
2    (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to
3any medication authority including Schedule II controlled
4substances of an advanced practice nurse for care provided in a
5hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment
6center pursuant to Section 65-45.
7    (g) Any advanced practice nurse who writes a prescription
8for a controlled substance without having a valid appropriate
9authority may be fined by the Department not more than $50 per
10prescription, and the Department may take any other
11disciplinary action provided for in this Act.
12    (h) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit
13generic substitution.
14(Source: P.A. 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11.)
 
15    (225 ILCS 65/65-45)   (was 225 ILCS 65/15-25)
16    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
17    Sec. 65-45. Advanced practice nursing in hospitals,
18hospital affiliates, or ambulatory surgical treatment centers.
19    (a) An advanced practice nurse may provide services in a
20hospital or a hospital affiliate as those terms are defined in
21the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of Illinois
22Hospital Act or a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center
23without a written collaborative agreement pursuant to Section
2465-35 of this Act. An advanced practice nurse must possess
25clinical privileges recommended by the hospital medical staff

 

 

SB0073- 74 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1and granted by the hospital or the consulting medical staff
2committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to
3provide services in a licensed hospital or a licensed
4ambulatory surgical treatment center. The medical staff or
5consulting medical staff committee shall periodically review
6the services of advanced practice nurses granted clinical
7privileges, including any care provided in a hospital
8affiliate. Authority may also be granted when recommended by
9the hospital medical staff and granted by the hospital or
10recommended by the consulting medical staff committee and
11ambulatory surgical treatment center to individual advanced
12practice nurses to select, order, and administer medications,
13including controlled substances, to provide delineated care.
14In a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical
15treatment center, the attending physician shall determine an
16advanced practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her
17patients, except as otherwise provided in the medical staff
18bylaws or consulting committee policies.
19    (a-2) An advanced practice nurse granted authority to order
20medications including controlled substances may complete
21discharge prescriptions provided the prescription is in the
22name of the advanced practice nurse and the attending or
23discharging physician.
24    (a-3) Advanced practice nurses practicing in a hospital or
25an ambulatory surgical treatment center are not required to
26obtain a mid-level controlled substance license to order

 

 

SB0073- 75 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1controlled substances under Section 303.05 of the Illinois
2Controlled Substances Act.
3    (a-5) (Blank). For anesthesia services provided by a
4certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist,
5physician, dentist, or podiatrist shall participate through
6discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall
7remain physically present and be available on the premises
8during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
9consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions,
10unless hospital policy adopted pursuant to clause (B) of
11subdivision (3) of Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act
12or ambulatory surgical treatment center policy adopted
13pursuant to clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 6.5 of the
14Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act provides otherwise. A
15certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and
16administer medication for anesthesia services under the
17anesthesia plan agreed to by the anesthesiologist or the
18physician, in accordance with hospital alternative policy or
19the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed
20ambulatory surgical treatment center.
21    (b) An advanced practice nurse who provides services in a
22hospital shall do so in accordance with Section 10.7 of the
23Hospital Licensing Act and, in an ambulatory surgical treatment
24center, in accordance with Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory
25Surgical Treatment Center Act.
26(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11.)
 

 

 

SB0073- 76 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (225 ILCS 65/65-55)   (was 225 ILCS 65/15-40)
2    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
3    Sec. 65-55. Advertising as an APN.
4    (a) A person licensed under this Act as an advanced
5practice nurse may advertise the availability of professional
6services in the public media or on the premises where the
7professional services are rendered. The advertising shall be
8limited to the following information:
9        (1) publication of the person's name, title, office
10    hours, address, and telephone number;
11        (2) information pertaining to the person's areas of
12    specialization, including but not limited to appropriate
13    board certification or limitation of professional
14    practice;
15        (3) (blank); publication of the person's collaborating
16    physician's, dentist's, or podiatrist's name, title, and
17    areas of specialization;
18        (4) information on usual and customary fees for routine
19    professional services offered, which shall include
20    notification that fees may be adjusted due to complications
21    or unforeseen circumstances;
22        (5) announcements of the opening of, change of, absence
23    from, or return to business;
24        (6) announcement of additions to or deletions from
25    professional licensed staff; and

 

 

SB0073- 77 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (7) the issuance of business or appointment cards.
2    (b) It is unlawful for a person licensed under this Act as
3an advanced practice nurse to use testimonials or claims of
4superior quality of care to entice the public. It shall be
5unlawful to advertise fee comparisons of available services
6with those of other licensed persons.
7    (c) This Article does not authorize the advertising of
8professional services that the offeror of the services is not
9licensed or authorized to render. Nor shall the advertiser use
10statements that contain false, fraudulent, deceptive, or
11misleading material or guarantees of success, statements that
12play upon the vanity or fears of the public, or statements that
13promote or produce unfair competition.
14    (d) It is unlawful and punishable under the penalty
15provisions of this Act for a person licensed under this Article
16to knowingly advertise that the licensee will accept as payment
17for services rendered by assignment from any third party payor
18the amount the third party payor covers as payment in full, if
19the effect is to give the impression of eliminating the need of
20payment by the patient of any required deductible or copayment
21applicable in the patient's health benefit plan.
22    (e) A licensee shall include in every advertisement for
23services regulated under this Act his or her title as it
24appears on the license or the initials authorized under this
25Act.
26    (f) As used in this Section, "advertise" means solicitation

 

 

SB0073- 78 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1by the licensee or through another person or entity by means of
2handbills, posters, circulars, motion pictures, radio,
3newspapers, or television or any other manner.
4(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
5    (225 ILCS 65/70-5)   (was 225 ILCS 65/10-45)
6    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
7    Sec. 70-5. Grounds for disciplinary action.
8    (a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may
9revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
10disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
11deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per
12violation, with regard to a license for any one or combination
13of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below. All fines
14collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing
15Dedicated and Professional Fund.
16    (b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:
17        (1) Material deception in furnishing information to
18    the Department.
19        (2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or
20    violation of the rules of or final administrative action of
21    the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation
22    of the Board.
23        (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
24    finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
25    sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,

 

 

SB0073- 79 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
2    conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
3    the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that
4    is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential
5    element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related
6    to the practice of the profession.
7        (4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
8    demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under
9    this Act.
10        (5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in
11    violating any provision of this Act or rules.
12        (6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a
13    request for information in response to a written request
14    made by the Department by certified mail.
15        (7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
16    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
17    defraud or harm the public, as defined by rule.
18        (8) Unlawful taking, theft, selling, distributing, or
19    manufacturing of any drug, narcotic, or prescription
20    device.
21        (9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
22    narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
23    that could result in a licensee's inability to practice
24    with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
25        (10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or
26    foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the

 

 

SB0073- 80 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those
2    set forth in this Section.
3        (11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or
4    his license placed on probationary status or subject to
5    conditions or restrictions, has violated the terms of
6    probation or failed to comply with such terms or
7    conditions.
8        (12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
9    report by the Department of Children and Family Services
10    and under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and
11    upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
12    licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or
13    neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected
14    Child Reporting Act.
15        (13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully
16    impeding the filing or recording or inducing another person
17    to omit to file or record medical reports as required by
18    law or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected
19    child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and
20    Neglected Child Reporting Act.
21        (14) Gross negligence in the practice of practical,
22    professional, or advanced practice nursing.
23        (15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under
24    any name other than one's own.
25        (16) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department
26    any adverse final action taken against him or her by

 

 

SB0073- 81 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any
2    foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health
3    care institution, any professional or nursing society or
4    association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement
5    agency, or any court or a nursing liability claim related
6    to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would
7    constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.
8        (17) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department
9    surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to
10    practice nursing or advanced practice nursing in another
11    state or jurisdiction or current surrender by the licensee
12    of membership on any nursing staff or in any nursing or
13    advanced practice nursing or professional association or
14    society while under disciplinary investigation by any of
15    those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to
16    acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as
17    defined by this Section.
18        (18) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in
19    response to a written request made by the Department.
20        (19) Failure to establish and maintain records of
21    patient care and treatment as required by law.
22        (20) Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in applying
23    for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection
24    with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
25        (21) Allowing another person or organization to use the
26    licensees' license to deceive the public.

 

 

SB0073- 82 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (22) Willfully making or filing false records or
2    reports in the licensee's practice, including but not
3    limited to false records to support claims against the
4    medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare
5    and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
6    under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
7        (23) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a licensing
8    examination administered under this Act.
9        (24) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act,
10    including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual
11    misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the
12    licensee's practice.
13        (25) Willfully or negligently violating the
14    confidentiality between nurse and patient except as
15    required by law.
16        (26) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except
17    as provided by law.
18        (27) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive
19    statement in any document connected with the licensee's
20    practice.
21        (28) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
22    a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a
23    fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for
24    professional services not actually or personally rendered.
25    Nothing in this paragraph (28) affects any bona fide
26    independent contractor or employment arrangements among

 

 

SB0073- 83 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    health care professionals, health facilities, health care
2    providers, or other entities, except as otherwise
3    prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include
4    provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or
5    other employment benefits for the provision of services
6    within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.
7    Nothing in this paragraph (28) shall be construed to
8    require an employment arrangement to receive professional
9    fees for services rendered.
10        (29) A violation of the Health Care Worker
11    Self-Referral Act.
12        (30) Physical illness, including but not limited to
13    deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
14    skill, mental illness, or disability that results in the
15    inability to practice the profession with reasonable
16    judgment, skill, or safety.
17        (31) (Blank). Exceeding the terms of a collaborative
18    agreement or the prescriptive authority delegated to a
19    licensee by his or her collaborating physician or
20    podiatrist in guidelines established under a written
21    collaborative agreement.
22        (32) Making a false or misleading statement regarding a
23    licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine,
24    treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course
25    of treatment.
26        (33) Prescribing, selling, administering,

 

 

SB0073- 84 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug
2    classified as a controlled substance (designated product)
3    or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
4    purposes.
5        (34) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices,
6    appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to
7    exploit the patient for financial gain.
8        (35) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or
9    regulations relating to controlled substances.
10        (36) Willfully or negligently violating the
11    confidentiality between an advanced practice nurse,
12    collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatrist and a
13    patient, except as required by law.
14        (37) A violation of any provision of this Act or any
15    rules promulgated under this Act.
16    (c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
17subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as
18provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
19Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The
20suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the
21patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or
22judicial admission and issues an order so finding and
23discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the
24Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume
25his or her practice.
26    (d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend or

 

 

SB0073- 85 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1otherwise discipline the license of any person who fails to
2file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in
3a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax,
4penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by
5the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements
6of any such tax Act are satisfied.
7    (e) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a
8showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual
9licensed to practice under this Act or who has applied for
10licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical
11examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the
12Department. The Department or Board may order the examining
13physician to present testimony concerning the mental or
14physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No
15information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
16statutory privilege relating to communications between the
17licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
18examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the
19Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at
20his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
21present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an
22individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when
23directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without
24hearing.
25    All substance-related violations shall mandate an
26automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an

 

 

SB0073- 86 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an
2addictionist or an advanced practice nurse with specialty
3certification in addictions may be grounds for an automatic
4suspension, as defined by rule.
5    If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to
6practice or unfit for duty because of the reasons set forth in
7this Section, the Department or Board may require that
8individual to submit to a substance abuse evaluation or
9treatment by individuals or programs approved or designated by
10the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction
11for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice;
12or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment, the Department may
13file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a
14complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise
15discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose
16license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed,
17disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or
18restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms,
19conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary
20for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his
21or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the
22Department.
23    In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
24person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
25license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
26the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The

 

 

SB0073- 87 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
2subject individual's record of treatment and counseling
3regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable
4federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
5confidentiality of medical records.
6    An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
7this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
8the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance
9with nursing standards under the provisions of his or her
10license.
11(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07;
1296-1482, eff. 11-29-10.)
 
13    Section 45. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act
14is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:
 
15    (225 ILCS 75/3.1)
16    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)
17    Sec. 3.1. Referrals. A licensed occupational therapist or
18licensed occupational therapy assistant may consult with,
19educate, evaluate, and monitor services for clients concerning
20non-medical occupational therapy needs. Implementation of
21direct occupational therapy to individuals for their specific
22health care conditions shall be based upon a referral from a
23licensed physician, dentist, podiatrist, advanced practice
24nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a

 

 

SB0073- 88 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1collaborating physician to provide or accept referrals from
2licensed occupational therapists, physician assistant who has
3been delegated authority to provide or accept referrals from or
4to licensed occupational therapists, or optometrist.
5    An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed
6physician, dentist, optometrist, advanced practice nurse,
7physician assistant, or podiatrist any patient whose medical
8condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be
9determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the
10occupational therapist.
11(Source: P.A. 92-297, eff. 1-1-02; 93-461, eff. 8-8-03; 93-962,
12eff. 8-20-04.)
 
13    Section 50. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by
14changing Section 4 as follows:
 
15    (225 ILCS 85/4)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)
16    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
17    Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of
18this Act shall apply to, or in any manner interfere with:
19    (a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to
20practice medicine in all of its branches, dentist, podiatrist,
21veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically certified
22optometrist within the limits of his or her license, or prevent
23him or her from supplying to his or her bona fide patients such
24drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him appropriate;

 

 

SB0073- 89 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (b) the sale of compressed gases;
2    (c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and
3household remedies when sold in original and unbroken packages
4only, if such patent or proprietary medicines and household
5remedies be properly and adequately labeled as to content and
6usage and generally considered and accepted as harmless and
7nonpoisonous when used according to the directions on the
8label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any
9compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which,
10according to the latest editions of the following authoritative
11pharmaceutical treatises and standards, namely, The United
12States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), the United
13States Dispensatory, and the Accepted Dental Remedies of the
14Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American Dental
15Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective
16date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of
17the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the
18Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug
19Administration, promulgated thereunder now in effect, is
20designated, described or considered as a narcotic, hypnotic,
21habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;
22    (d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original
23and unbroken packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock
24medication;
25    (e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of
26poisonous substances, in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal

 

 

SB0073- 90 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1use in the arts or industries or for insecticide purposes;
2provided, they are properly and adequately labeled as to
3content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity with the
4provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws and
5regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating
6thereto and governing the same, and those which are required
7under such applicable laws and regulations to be labeled with
8the word "Poison", are also labeled with the word "Poison"
9printed thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily
10obtainable antidote with directions for its administration;
11    (f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a
12physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to
13a physician assistant under Section 7.5 of the Physician
14Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This delegated authority under
15Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987
16may, but is not required to, include prescription of controlled
17substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled
18Substances Act, in accordance with a written supervision
19agreement; and
20    (g) (Blank). the delegation of prescriptive authority by a
21physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or
22a licensed podiatrist to an advanced practice nurse in
23accordance with a written collaborative agreement under
24Sections 65-35 and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
25(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 96-189, eff. 8-10-09;
2696-268, eff. 8-11-09.)
 

 

 

SB0073- 91 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    Section 55. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by
2changing Section 1 as follows:
 
3    (225 ILCS 90/1)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)
4    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
5    Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:
6    (1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following:
7        (A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who
8    may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental
9    impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or
10    other health and movement-related conditions, classifying
11    these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis
12    and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the
13    on-going effects of the interventions.
14        (B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations,
15    or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying
16    therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not
17    limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through
18    the use of the effective properties of physical measures
19    and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity,
20    sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic
21    exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures,
22    with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of
23    preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or
24    mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability.

 

 

SB0073- 92 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment,
2    functional limitation, or disability, including the
3    promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and
4    wellness.
5        (D) Engaging in administration, consultation,
6    education, and research.
7    Physical therapy includes, but is not limited to: (a)
8performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b)
9administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c)
10interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists,
11advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and
12podiatrists, (d) establishment, and modification of physical
13therapy treatment programs, (e) administration of topical
14medication used in generally accepted physical therapy
15procedures when such medication is prescribed by the patient's
16physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
17the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric
18medicine, the patient's advanced practice nurse, the patient's
19physician assistant, or the patient's dentist, and (f)
20supervision or teaching of physical therapy. Physical therapy
21does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic
22technique or determination of a differential diagnosis;
23provided, however, the limitation on determining a
24differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a physical
25therapist licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation
26pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit a

 

 

SB0073- 93 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy
2techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform.
3A physical therapist shall refer to a licensed physician,
4advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or
5podiatrist any patient whose medical condition should, at the
6time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the
7scope of practice of the physical therapist.
8    (2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices
9physical therapy and who has met all requirements as provided
10in this Act.
11    (3) "Department" means the Department of Professional
12Regulation.
13    (4) "Director" means the Director of Professional
14Regulation.
15    (5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and
16Disciplinary Board approved by the Director.
17    (6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for
18physical therapy services for a patient by a physician,
19dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or
20podiatrist who maintains medical supervision of the patient and
21makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is
22such that it may be treated by a physical therapist.
23    (7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the
24purpose of this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by
25signature or oral verification of a physician, dentist,
26advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatrist,

 

 

SB0073- 94 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1that a patient's condition is such that it may be treated by
2physical therapy as defined in this Act, which diagnosis shall
3remain in effect until changed by the physician, dentist,
4advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatrist.
5    (8) "State" includes:
6        (a) the states of the United States of America;
7        (b) the District of Columbia; and
8        (c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
9    (9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed
10to assist a physical therapist and who has met all requirements
11as provided in this Act and who works under the supervision of
12a licensed physical therapist to assist in implementing the
13physical therapy treatment program as established by the
14licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities
15provided by the physical therapist assistant shall not include
16the interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, or the
17planning or major modification of patient programs.
18    (10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has
19received on the job training, specific to the facility in which
20he is employed, but who has not completed an approved physical
21therapist assistant program.
22    (11) "Advanced practice nurse" means a person licensed as
23an advanced practice nurse under the Nurse Practice Act who has
24a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
25authorizes referrals to physical therapists.
26    (12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under

 

 

SB0073- 95 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been
2delegated authority to make referrals to physical therapists.
3(Source: P.A. 94-651, eff. 1-1-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
4    Section 60. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended by
5changing Section 10 as follows:
 
6    (225 ILCS 106/10)
7    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
8    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
9    "Advanced practice nurse" means an advanced practice nurse
10licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.
11    "Board" means the Respiratory Care Board appointed by the
12Director.
13    "Basic respiratory care activities" means and includes all
14of the following activities:
15         (1) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment
16    used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a
17    licensed health care professional or other authorized
18    licensed personnel.
19        (2) Assembling equipment used in the practice of
20    respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care
21    professional or other authorized licensed personnel.
22        (3) Collecting and reviewing patient data through
23    non-invasive means, provided that the collection and
24    review does not include the individual's interpretation of

 

 

SB0073- 96 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    the clinical significance of the data. Collecting and
2    reviewing patient data includes the performance of pulse
3    oximetry and non-invasive monitoring procedures in order
4    to obtain vital signs and notification to licensed health
5    care professionals and other authorized licensed personnel
6    in a timely manner.
7        (4) Maintaining a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen
8    therapy in the proper position on the patient's face.
9        (5) Assembling a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen
10    therapy at patient bedside in preparation for use.
11        (6) Maintaining a patient's natural airway by
12    physically manipulating the jaw and neck, suctioning the
13    oral cavity, or suctioning the mouth or nose with a bulb
14    syringe.
15        (7) Performing assisted ventilation during emergency
16    resuscitation using a manual resuscitator.
17        (8) Using a manual resuscitator at the direction of a
18    licensed health care professional or other authorized
19    licensed personnel who is present and performing routine
20    airway suctioning. These activities do not include care of
21    a patient's artificial airway or the adjustment of
22    mechanical ventilator settings while a patient is
23    connected to the ventilator.
24"Basic respiratory care activities" does not mean activities
25that involve any of the following:
26        (1) Specialized knowledge that results from a course of

 

 

SB0073- 97 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    education or training in respiratory care.
2        (2) An unreasonable risk of a negative outcome for the
3    patient.
4        (3) The assessment or making of a decision concerning
5    patient care.
6        (4) The administration of aerosol medication or
7    oxygen.
8        (5) The insertion and maintenance of an artificial
9    airway.
10        (6) Mechanical ventilatory support.
11        (7) Patient assessment.
12        (8) Patient education.
13    "Department" means the Department of Professional
14Regulation.
15    "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.
16    "Licensed" means that which is required to hold oneself out
17as a respiratory care practitioner as defined in this Act.
18    "Licensed health care professional" means a physician
19licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced
20practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
21collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice
22nurse to transmit orders to a respiratory care practitioner, or
23a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to
24transmit orders to a respiratory care practitioner by his or
25her supervising physician.
26    "Order" means a written, oral, or telecommunicated

 

 

SB0073- 98 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1authorization for respiratory care services for a patient by
2(i) a licensed health care professional who maintains medical
3supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies
4that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by
5a respiratory care practitioner or (ii) a certified registered
6nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical
7treatment center.
8    "Other authorized licensed personnel" means a licensed
9respiratory care practitioner, a licensed registered nurse, or
10a licensed practical nurse whose scope of practice authorizes
11the professional to supervise an individual who is not
12licensed, certified, or registered as a health professional.
13    "Proximate supervision" means a situation in which an
14individual is responsible for directing the actions of another
15individual in the facility and is physically close enough to be
16readily available, if needed, by the supervised individual.
17    "Respiratory care" and "cardiorespiratory care" mean
18preventative services, evaluation and assessment services,
19therapeutic services, and rehabilitative services under the
20order of a licensed health care professional or a certified
21registered nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital for an
22individual with a disorder, disease, or abnormality of the
23cardiopulmonary system. These terms include, but are not
24limited to, measuring, observing, assessing, and monitoring
25signs and symptoms, reactions, general behavior, and general
26physical response of individuals to respiratory care services,

 

 

SB0073- 99 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1including the determination of whether those signs, symptoms,
2reactions, behaviors, or general physical responses exhibit
3abnormal characteristics; the administration of
4pharmacological and therapeutic agents related to respiratory
5care services; the collection of blood specimens and other
6bodily fluids and tissues for, and the performance of,
7cardiopulmonary diagnostic testing procedures, including, but
8not limited to, blood gas analysis; development,
9implementation, and modification of respiratory care treatment
10plans based on assessed abnormalities of the cardiopulmonary
11system, respiratory care guidelines, referrals, and orders of a
12licensed health care professional; application, operation, and
13management of mechanical ventilatory support and other means of
14life support; and the initiation of emergency procedures under
15the rules promulgated by the Department. A respiratory care
16practitioner shall refer to a physician licensed to practice
17medicine in all its branches any patient whose condition, at
18the time of evaluation or treatment, is determined to be beyond
19the scope of practice of the respiratory care practitioner.
20    "Respiratory care education program" means a course of
21academic study leading to eligibility for registry or
22certification in respiratory care. The training is to be
23approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and
24shall include an evaluation of competence through a
25standardized testing mechanism that is determined by the Board
26to be both valid and reliable.

 

 

SB0073- 100 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    "Respiratory care practitioner" means a person who is
2licensed by the Department of Professional Regulation and meets
3all of the following criteria:
4        (1) The person is engaged in the practice of
5    cardiorespiratory care and has the knowledge and skill
6    necessary to administer respiratory care.
7        (2) The person is capable of serving as a resource to
8    the licensed health care professional in relation to the
9    technical aspects of cardiorespiratory care and the safe
10    and effective methods for administering cardiorespiratory
11    care modalities.
12        (3) The person is able to function in situations of
13    unsupervised patient contact requiring great individual
14    judgment.
15(Source: P.A. 94-523, eff. 1-1-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
16    Section 65. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended
17by changing Sections 10, 20, and 95 as follows:
 
18    (225 ILCS 135/10)
19    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)
20    Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
21    "ABGC" means the American Board of Genetic Counseling.
22    "ABMG" means the American Board of Medical Genetics.
23    "Active candidate status" is awarded to applicants who have
24received approval from the ABGC or ABMG to sit for their

 

 

SB0073- 101 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1respective certification examinations.
2    "Department" means the Department of Professional
3Regulation.
4    "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.
5    "Genetic anomaly" means a variation in an individual's DNA
6that has been shown to confer a genetically influenced disease
7or predisposition to a genetically influenced disease or makes
8a person a carrier of such variation. A "carrier" of a genetic
9anomaly means a person who may or may not have a predisposition
10or risk of incurring a genetically influenced condition and who
11is at risk of having offspring with a genetically influenced
12condition.
13    "Genetic counseling" means the provision of services,
14which may include the ordering of genetic tests, pursuant to a
15referral, to individuals, couples, groups, families, and
16organizations by one or more appropriately trained individuals
17to address the physical and psychological issues associated
18with the occurrence or risk of occurrence or recurrence of a
19genetic disorder, birth defect, disease, or potentially
20inherited or genetically influenced condition in an individual
21or a family. "Genetic counseling" consists of the following:
22        (A) Estimating the likelihood of occurrence or
23    recurrence of a birth defect or of any potentially
24    inherited or genetically influenced condition. This
25    assessment may involve:
26            (i) obtaining and analyzing a complete health

 

 

SB0073- 102 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        history of the person and his or her family;
2            (ii) reviewing pertinent medical records;
3            (iii) evaluating the risks from exposure to
4        possible mutagens or teratogens;
5            (iv) recommending genetic testing or other
6        evaluations to diagnose a condition or determine the
7        carrier status of one or more family members;
8        (B) Helping the individual, family, health care
9    provider, or health care professional (i) appreciate the
10    medical, psychological and social implications of a
11    disorder, including its features, variability, usual
12    course and management options, (ii) learn how genetic
13    factors contribute to the disorder and affect the chance
14    for recurrence of the condition in other family members,
15    and (iii) understand available options for coping with,
16    preventing, or reducing the chance of occurrence or
17    recurrence of a condition.
18        (C) Facilitating an individual's or family's (i)
19    exploration of the perception of risk and burden associated
20    with the disorder and (ii) adjustment and adaptation to the
21    condition or their genetic risk by addressing needs for
22    psychological, social, and medical support.
23    "Genetic counselor" means a person licensed under this Act
24to engage in the practice of genetic counseling.
25    "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" mean a test or
26analysis of human genes, gene products, DNA, RNA, chromosomes,

 

 

SB0073- 103 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1proteins, or metabolites that detects genotypes, mutations,
2chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or deficiencies, including
3carrier status, that (i) are linked to physical or mental
4disorders or impairments, (ii) indicate a susceptibility to
5illness, disease, impairment, or other disorders, whether
6physical or mental, or (iii) demonstrate genetic or chromosomal
7damage due to environmental factors. "Genetic testing" and
8"genetic tests" do not include routine physical measurements;
9chemical, blood and urine analyses that are widely accepted and
10in use in clinical practice; tests for use of drugs; tests for
11the presence of the human immunodeficiency virus; analyses of
12proteins or metabolites that do not detect genotypes,
13mutations, chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or
14deficiencies; or analyses of proteins or metabolites that are
15directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or
16pathological condition that could reasonably be detected by a
17health care professional with appropriate training and
18expertise in the field of medicine involved.
19    "Person" means an individual, association, partnership, or
20corporation.
21    "Qualified supervisor" means any person who is a licensed
22genetic counselor, as defined by rule, or a physician licensed
23to practice medicine in all its branches. A qualified
24supervisor may be provided at the applicant's place of work, or
25may be contracted by the applicant to provide supervision. The
26qualified supervisor shall file written documentation with the

 

 

SB0073- 104 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1Department of employment, discharge, or supervisory control of
2a genetic counselor at the time of employment, discharge, or
3assumption of supervision of a genetic counselor.
4    "Referral" means a written or telecommunicated
5authorization for genetic counseling services from a physician
6licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced
7practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a
8collaborating physician that authorizes referrals to a genetic
9counselor, or a physician assistant who has a supervision
10agreement with a supervising physician that authorizes
11referrals to a genetic counselor.
12    "Supervision" means review of aspects of genetic
13counseling and case management in a bimonthly meeting with the
14person under supervision.
15(Source: P.A. 96-1313, eff. 7-27-10.)
 
16    (225 ILCS 135/20)
17    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)
18    Sec. 20. Restrictions and limitations.
19    (a) Beginning 12 months after the adoption of the final
20administrative rules, except as provided in Section 15, no
21person shall, without a valid license as a genetic counselor
22issued by the Department (i) in any manner hold himself or
23herself out to the public as a genetic counselor under this
24Act; (ii) use in connection with his or her name or place of
25business the title "genetic counselor", "licensed genetic

 

 

SB0073- 105 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1counselor", "gene counselor", "genetic consultant", or
2"genetic associate" or any words, letters, abbreviations, or
3insignia indicating or implying a person has met the
4qualifications for or has the license issued under this Act; or
5(iii) offer to render or render to individuals, corporations,
6or the public genetic counseling services if the words "genetic
7counselor" or "licensed genetic counselor" are used to describe
8the person offering to render or rendering them, or "genetic
9counseling" is used to describe the services rendered or
10offered to be rendered.
11    (b) Beginning 12 months after the adoption of the final
12administrative rules, no licensed genetic counselor may
13provide genetic counseling to individuals, couples, groups, or
14families without a referral from a physician licensed to
15practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice
16nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating
17physician that authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor, or
18a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to make
19referrals to genetic counselors. The physician, advanced
20practice nurse, or physician assistant shall maintain
21supervision of the patient and be provided timely written
22reports on the services, including genetic testing results,
23provided by the licensed genetic counselor. Genetic testing
24shall be ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine
25in all its branches or a genetic counselor pursuant to a
26referral that gives the specific authority to order genetic

 

 

SB0073- 106 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1tests. Genetic test results and reports shall be provided to
2the referring physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician
3assistant. General seminars or talks to groups or organizations
4on genetic counseling that do not include individual, couple,
5or family specific counseling may be conducted without a
6referral. In clinical settings, genetic counselors who serve as
7a liaison between family members of a patient and a genetic
8research project, may, with the consent of the patient, provide
9information to family members for the purpose of gathering
10additional information, as it relates to the patient, without a
11referral. In non-clinical settings where no patient is being
12treated, genetic counselors who serve as a liaison between a
13genetic research project and participants in that genetic
14research project may provide information to the participants,
15without a referral.
16    (c) Beginning 12 months after the adoption of the final
17administrative rules, no association or partnership shall
18practice genetic counseling unless every member, partner, and
19employee of the association or partnership who practices
20genetic counseling or who renders genetic counseling services
21holds a valid license issued under this Act. No license shall
22be issued to a corporation, the stated purpose of which
23includes or which practices or which holds itself out as
24available to practice genetic counseling, unless it is
25organized under the Professional Service Corporation Act.
26    (d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as permitting

 

 

SB0073- 107 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1persons licensed as genetic counselors to engage in any manner
2in the practice of medicine in all its branches as defined by
3law in this State.
4    (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a
5licensed genetic counselor to diagnose, test (unless
6authorized in a referral), or treat any genetic or other
7disease or condition.
8    (f) When, in the course of providing genetic counseling
9services to any person, a genetic counselor licensed under this
10Act finds any indication of a disease or condition that in his
11or her professional judgment requires professional service
12outside the scope of practice as defined in this Act, he or she
13shall refer that person to a physician licensed to practice
14medicine in all of its branches.
15(Source: P.A. 96-1313, eff. 7-27-10.)
 
16    (225 ILCS 135/95)
17    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)
18    Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.
19    (a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may
20revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
21disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate,
22including the issuance of fines not to exceed $1,000 for each
23violation, with regard to any license for any one or more of
24the following:
25        (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to

 

 

SB0073- 108 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    the Department or to any other State agency.
2        (2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard
3    of this Act, or any of its rules.
4        (3) Conviction of any crime under the laws of the
5    United States or any state or territory thereof that is a
6    felony, a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is
7    dishonesty, or a crime that is directly related to the
8    practice of the profession.
9        (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
10    obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act
11    or its rules.
12        (5) Gross negligence in the rendering of genetic
13    counseling services.
14        (6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any
15    requested information to a referring physician licensed to
16    practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice
17    nurse, or physician assistant.
18        (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any
19    provision of this Act or any rules.
20        (8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in
21    response to a written request made by the Department.
22        (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
23    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
24    defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of
25    professional conduct adopted by the Department.
26        (10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any

 

 

SB0073- 109 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    information received from a client, unless otherwise
2    authorized or required by law.
3        (10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services
4    provided and provide copies to clients upon request.
5        (11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage,
6    profit, or interest.
7        (12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
8    narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
9    which results in inability to practice with reasonable
10    skill, judgment, or safety.
11        (13) Discipline by another jurisdiction, if at least
12    one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or
13    substantially equivalent to those set forth in this
14    Section.
15        (14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
16    any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association
17    any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation
18    for any professional service not actually rendered.
19    Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide
20    independent contractor or employment arrangements among
21    health care professionals, health facilities, health care
22    providers, or other entities, except as otherwise
23    prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include
24    provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or
25    other employment benefits for the provision of services
26    within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.

 

 

SB0073- 110 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to
2    require an employment arrangement to receive professional
3    fees for services rendered.
4        (15) A finding by the Department that the licensee,
5    after having the license placed on probationary status has
6    violated the terms of probation.
7        (16) Failing to refer a client to other health care
8    professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to
9    adequately support or serve the client.
10        (17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a
11    licensee's practice, including but not limited to false
12    records filed with federal or State agencies or
13    departments.
14        (18) Willfully failing to report an instance of
15    suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused
16    and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
17        (19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
18    report by the Department of Children and Family Services
19    pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act,
20    and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the
21    licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or
22    neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected
23    Child Reporting Act.
24        (20) Physical or mental disability, including
25    deterioration through the aging process or loss of
26    abilities and skills which results in the inability to

 

 

SB0073- 111 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill,
2    or safety.
3        (21) Solicitation of professional services by using
4    false or misleading advertising.
5        (22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax,
6    penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any
7    final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required
8    by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of
9    Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue
10    Service or any successor agency.
11        (23) A finding that licensure has been applied for or
12    obtained by fraudulent means.
13        (24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name
14    other than the full name as shown on the license or any
15    other legally authorized name.
16        (25) Gross overcharging for professional services,
17    including filing statements for collection of fees or
18    monies for which services are not rendered.
19        (26) Providing genetic counseling services to
20    individuals, couples, groups, or families without a
21    referral from either a physician licensed to practice
22    medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse
23    who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating
24    physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to
25    make referrals to a genetic counselor, or a physician
26    assistant who has been delegated authority to make

 

 

SB0073- 112 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    referrals to genetic counselors.
2    (b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any
3application or renewal for a license under this Act to any
4person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by
5the Illinois State Assistance Commission; however, the
6Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in
7default has established a satisfactory repayment record as
8determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.
9    (c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject
10to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in
11the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will
12result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The
13suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee
14is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial
15admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging
16the patient, and the determination of the Director that the
17licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.
18(Source: P.A. 96-1313, eff. 7-27-10; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10;
1997-813, eff. 7-13-12.)
 
20    Section 70. The Perinatal Mental Health Disorders
21Prevention and Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 10
22as follows:
 
23    (405 ILCS 95/10)
24    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

 

 

SB0073- 113 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    "Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the
2Hospital Licensing Act.
3    "Licensed health care professional" means a physician
4licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced
5practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a
6collaborating physician that authorizes care, or a physician's
7assistant who has been delegated authority to provide care.
8    "Postnatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health
9care professional occurring after birth, with reference to the
10infant or mother.
11    "Prenatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health
12care professional for pregnancy-related care occurring before
13birth.
14    "Questionnaire" means an assessment tool administered by a
15licensed health care professional to detect perinatal mental
16health disorders, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression
17Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck
18Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or
19other validated assessment methods.
20(Source: P.A. 95-469, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
21    Section 75. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by
22changing Section 6.2 as follows:
 
23    (410 ILCS 45/6.2)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)
24    Sec. 6.2. Physicians to screen children.

 

 

SB0073- 114 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (a) Every physician licensed to practice medicine in all
2its branches or health care provider shall screen children 6
3months through 6 years of age for lead poisoning who are
4determined to reside in an area defined as high risk by the
5Department. Children residing in areas defined as low risk by
6the Department shall be assessed for risk by a risk assessment
7procedure developed by the Department. Children shall be
8screened, in accordance with guidelines and criteria set forth
9by the American Academy of Pediatrics, at the priority
10intervals and using the methods specified in the guidelines.
11    (b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care
12facility serving children from 6 months through 6 years of age,
13including but not limited to, health departments, hospitals,
14clinics, and health maintenance organizations approved,
15registered, or licensed by the Department, shall take the
16appropriate steps to ensure that the patients receive lead
17poisoning screening, where medically indicated or appropriate.
18    (c) Children 6 years and older may also be screened by
19physicians or health care providers, in accordance with
20guidelines and criteria set forth by the American Academy of
21Pediatrics, according to the priority intervals specified in
22the guidelines. Physicians and health care providers shall also
23screen children for lead poisoning in conjunction with the
24school health examination, as required under the School Code,
25when, in the medical judgment judgement of the physician,
26advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative

 

 

SB0073- 115 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
2advance practice nurse to perform health examinations, or
3physician assistant who has been delegated to perform health
4examinations by the supervising physician, the child is
5potentially at high risk of lead poisoning.
6    (d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require
7any child to undergo a lead blood level screening or test whose
8parent or guardian objects on the grounds that the screening or
9test conflicts with his or her religious beliefs.
10(Source: P.A. 93-104, eff. 1-1-04.)
 
11    Section 80. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency
12Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 2.2, 5, and 5.5
13as follows:
 
14    (410 ILCS 70/2.2)
15    Sec. 2.2. Emergency contraception.
16    (a) The General Assembly finds:
17        (1) Crimes of sexual assault and sexual abuse cause
18    significant physical, emotional, and psychological trauma
19    to the victims. This trauma is compounded by a victim's
20    fear of becoming pregnant and bearing a child as a result
21    of the sexual assault.
22        (2) Each year over 32,000 women become pregnant in the
23    United States as the result of rape and approximately 50%
24    of these pregnancies end in abortion.

 

 

SB0073- 116 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (3) As approved for use by the Federal Food and Drug
2    Administration (FDA), emergency contraception can
3    significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within
4    72 hours after the sexual assault.
5        (4) By providing emergency contraception to rape
6    victims in a timely manner, the trauma of rape can be
7    significantly reduced.
8    (b) Within 120 days after the effective date of this
9amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, every hospital
10providing services to sexual assault survivors in accordance
11with a plan approved under Section 2 must develop a protocol
12that ensures that each survivor of sexual assault will receive
13medically and factually accurate and written and oral
14information about emergency contraception; the indications and
15counter-indications and risks associated with the use of
16emergency contraception; and a description of how and when
17victims may be provided emergency contraception upon the
18written order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in
19all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written
20collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
21authorizes prescription of emergency contraception, or a
22physician assistant who has been delegated authority to
23prescribe emergency contraception. The Department shall
24approve the protocol if it finds that the implementation of the
25protocol would provide sufficient protection for survivors of
26sexual assault.

 

 

SB0073- 117 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    The hospital shall implement the protocol upon approval by
2the Department. The Department shall adopt rules and
3regulations establishing one or more safe harbor protocols and
4setting minimum acceptable protocol standards that hospitals
5may develop and implement. The Department shall approve any
6protocol that meets those standards. The Department may provide
7a sample acceptable protocol upon request.
8(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
9    (410 ILCS 70/5)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)
10    Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for hospitals providing
11hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual
12assault survivors.
13    (a) Every hospital providing hospital emergency services
14and forensic services to sexual assault survivors under this
15Act shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide,
16with the consent of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered
17by the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse who has
18a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
19physician that authorizes provision of emergency services, or a
20physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide
21hospital emergency services and forensic services, the
22following:
23        (1) appropriate medical examinations and laboratory
24    tests required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of
25    a sexual assault survivor or which may be used as evidence

 

 

SB0073- 118 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the
2    sexual assault, or both; and records of the results of such
3    examinations and tests shall be maintained by the hospital
4    and made available to law enforcement officials upon the
5    request of the sexual assault survivor;
6        (2) appropriate oral and written information
7    concerning the possibility of infection, sexually
8    transmitted disease and pregnancy resulting from sexual
9    assault;
10        (3) appropriate oral and written information
11    concerning accepted medical procedures, medication, and
12    possible contraindications of such medication available
13    for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease
14    resulting from sexual assault;
15        (4) an amount of medication for treatment at the
16    hospital and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by
17    the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse, or a
18    physician assistant and consistent with the hospital's
19    current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors;
20        (5) an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk
21    of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from the
22    sexual assault;
23        (6) written and oral instructions indicating the need
24    for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the
25    sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of
26    sexually transmitted disease;

 

 

SB0073- 119 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (7) referral by hospital personnel for appropriate
2    counseling; and
3        (8) when HIV prophylaxis is deemed appropriate, an
4    initial dose or doses of HIV prophylaxis, along with
5    written and oral instructions indicating the importance of
6    timely follow-up healthcare.
7    (b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks
8emergency hospital services and forensic services or follow-up
9healthcare under this Act shall be provided such services
10without the consent of any parent, guardian, custodian,
11surrogate, or agent.
12    (c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient
13relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital
14emergency department.
15(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08; 96-318, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
16    (410 ILCS 70/5.5)
17    Sec. 5.5. Minimum reimbursement requirements for follow-up
18healthcare.
19    (a) Every hospital, health care professional, laboratory,
20or pharmacy that provides follow-up healthcare to a sexual
21assault survivor, with the consent of the sexual assault
22survivor and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced
23practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
24collaborating physician, or physician assistant who has been
25delegated authority by a supervising physician shall be

 

 

SB0073- 120 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1reimbursed for the follow-up healthcare services provided.
2Follow-up healthcare services include, but are not limited to,
3the following:
4        (1) a physical examination;
5        (2) laboratory tests to determine the presence or
6    absence of sexually transmitted disease; and
7        (3) appropriate medications, including HIV
8    prophylaxis.
9    (b) Reimbursable follow-up healthcare is limited to office
10visits with a physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician
11assistant within 90 days after an initial visit for hospital
12emergency services.
13    (c) Nothing in this Section requires a hospital, health
14care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy to provide
15follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor.
16(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
17    Section 85. The Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures Act
18is amended by changing Sections 1, 2, and 3 as follows:
 
19    (410 ILCS 210/1)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4501)
20    Sec. 1. Consent by minor. The consent to the performance of
21a medical or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to
22practice medicine and surgery, an advanced practice nurse who
23has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
24physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or

 

 

SB0073- 121 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to
2provide services for minors executed by a married person who is
3a minor, by a parent who is a minor, by a pregnant woman who is
4a minor, or by any person 18 years of age or older, is not
5voidable because of such minority, and, for such purpose, a
6married person who is a minor, a parent who is a minor, a
7pregnant woman who is a minor, or any person 18 years of age or
8older, is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has
9the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age.
10(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
 
11    (410 ILCS 210/2)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4502)
12    Sec. 2. Any parent, including a parent who is a minor, may
13consent to the performance upon his or her child of a medical
14or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to practice
15medicine and surgery, an advanced practice nurse who has a
16written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
17that authorizes provision of services for minors, or a
18physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide
19services for minors or a dental procedure by a licensed
20dentist. The consent of a parent who is a minor shall not be
21voidable because of such minority, but, for such purpose, a
22parent who is a minor shall be deemed to have the same legal
23capacity to act and shall have the same powers and obligations
24as has a person of legal age.
25(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
 

 

 

SB0073- 122 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (410 ILCS 210/3)  (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)
2    Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to
3practice medicine or surgery, an advanced practice nurse who
4has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
5physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or
6a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to
7provide services for minors renders emergency treatment or
8first aid or a licensed dentist renders emergency dental
9treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's parent or legal
10guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole opinion of the
11physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant,
12dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of consent is not
13reasonably feasible under the circumstances without adversely
14affecting the condition of such minor's health.
15    (b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal
16sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault,
17criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or
18criminal sexual abuse, as provided in Sections 11-1.20 through
1911-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 1961, as now or hereafter
20amended, the consent of the minor's parent or legal guardian
21need not be obtained to authorize a hospital, physician,
22advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or other medical
23personnel to furnish medical care or counseling related to the
24diagnosis or treatment of any disease or injury arising from
25such offense. The minor may consent to such counseling,

 

 

SB0073- 123 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1diagnosis or treatment as if the minor had reached his or her
2age of majority. Such consent shall not be voidable, nor
3subject to later disaffirmance, because of minority.
4(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)
 
5    Section 90. The Prenatal and Newborn Care Act is amended by
6changing Section 2 as follows:
 
7    (410 ILCS 225/2)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022)
8    Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
9context otherwise requires:
10    "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means an advanced
11practice nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act who has a
12written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
13that authorizes the provision of prenatal and newborn care.
14    "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human
15Services.
16    "Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment
17(EPSDT)" means the provision of preventative health care under
1842 C.F.R. 441.50 et seq., including medical and dental
19services, needed to assess growth and development and detect
20and treat health problems.
21    "Hospital" means a hospital as defined under the Hospital
22Licensing Act.
23    "Local health authority" means the full-time official
24health department or board of health, as recognized by the

 

 

SB0073- 124 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1Illinois Department of Public Health, having jurisdiction over
2a particular area.
3    "Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice
4Act.
5    "Physician" means a physician licensed to practice
6medicine in all of its branches.
7    "Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed
8under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been
9delegated authority to provide prenatal and newborn care.
10    "Postnatal visit" means a visit occurring after birth, with
11reference to the newborn.
12    "Prenatal visit" means a visit occurring before birth.
13    "Program" means the Prenatal and Newborn Care Program
14established pursuant to this Act.
15(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
16    Section 95. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by
17changing Section 3 as follows:
 
18    (410 ILCS 305/3)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)
19    Sec. 3. When used in this Act:
20    (a) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public
21Health.
22    (b) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
23    (c) "HIV" means the Human Immunodeficiency Virus or any
24other identified causative agent of AIDS.

 

 

SB0073- 125 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (d) "Informed consent" means a written or verbal agreement
2by the subject of a test or the subject's legally authorized
3representative without undue inducement or any element of
4force, fraud, deceit, duress or other form of constraint or
5coercion, which entails at least the following pre-test
6information:
7    (1) a fair explanation of the test, including its purpose,
8potential uses, limitations and the meaning of its results; and
9    (2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be followed,
10including the voluntary nature of the test, the right to
11withdraw consent to the testing process at any time, the right
12to anonymity to the extent provided by law with respect to
13participation in the test and disclosure of test results, and
14the right to confidential treatment of information identifying
15the subject of the test and the results of the test, to the
16extent provided by law.
17    Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally,
18or by video, electronic, or other means. The subject must be
19offered an opportunity to ask questions about the HIV test and
20decline testing. Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a health
21care provider from combining a form used to obtain informed
22consent for HIV testing with forms used to obtain written
23consent for general medical care or any other medical test or
24procedure provided that the forms make it clear that the
25subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or medical
26procedures without being required to consent to HIV testing and

 

 

SB0073- 126 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1clearly explain how the subject may opt-out of HIV testing.
2    (e) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood
3bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care
4institution, including any "health facility" as that term is
5defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.
6    (f) "Health care provider" means any health care
7professional, nurse, paramedic, psychologist or other person
8providing medical, nursing, psychological, or other health
9care services of any kind.
10    (f-5) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed
11physician, (ii) a physician assistant to whom the physician
12assistant's supervising physician has delegated the provision
13of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iii) an advanced
14practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative
15agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes the
16provision of AIDS and HIV-related health services, (iv) a
17licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatrist, or (vi) an
18individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling by a
19state or local public health department.
20    (g) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the
21presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV
22infection.
23    (h) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership,
24association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public
25or private corporation, health facility or other legal entity.
26(Source: P.A. 95-7, eff. 6-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)
 

 

 

SB0073- 127 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    Section 100. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease
2Control Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:
 
3    (410 ILCS 325/4)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404)
4    Sec. 4. Reporting required.
5    (a) A physician licensed under the provisions of the
6Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse
7licensed under the provisions of the Nurse Practice Act who has
8a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
9physician that authorizes the provision of services for a
10sexually transmissible disease, or a physician assistant
11licensed under the provisions of the Physician Assistant
12Practice Act of 1987 who has been delegated authority to
13provide services for a sexually transmissible disease who makes
14a diagnosis of or treats a person with a sexually transmissible
15disease and each laboratory that performs a test for a sexually
16transmissible disease which concludes with a positive result
17shall report such facts as may be required by the Department by
18rule, within such time period as the Department may require by
19rule, but in no case to exceed 2 weeks.
20    (b) The Department shall adopt rules specifying the
21information required in reporting a sexually transmissible
22disease, the method of reporting and specifying a minimum time
23period for reporting. In adopting such rules, the Department
24shall consider the need for information, protections for the

 

 

SB0073- 128 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1privacy and confidentiality of the patient, and the practical
2abilities of persons and laboratories to report in a reasonable
3fashion.
4    (c) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates
5any false information or report concerning the existence of any
6sexually transmissible disease under this Section is guilty of
7a Class A misdemeanor.
8    (d) Any person who violates the provisions of this Section
9or the rules adopted hereunder may be fined by the Department
10up to $500 for each violation. The Department shall report each
11violation of this Section to the regulatory agency responsible
12for licensing a health care professional or a laboratory to
13which these provisions apply.
14(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
15    Section 105. The Perinatal HIV Prevention Act is amended by
16changing Section 5 as follows:
 
17    (410 ILCS 335/5)
18    Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:
19    "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
20    "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to
21practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant
22who has been delegated the provision of health services by his
23or her supervising physician, or an advanced practice
24registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with

 

 

SB0073- 129 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1a collaborating physician that authorizes the provision of
2health services.
3    "Health care facility" or "facility" means any hospital or
4other institution that is licensed or otherwise authorized to
5deliver health care services.
6    "Health care services" means any prenatal medical care or
7labor or delivery services to a pregnant woman and her newborn
8infant, including hospitalization.
9(Source: P.A. 93-566, eff. 8-20-03; 94-910, eff. 6-23-06.)
 
10    Section 110. The Home Health and Hospice Drug Dispensation
11and Administration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as
12follows:
 
13    (410 ILCS 642/10)
14    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
15    "Authorized nursing employee" means a registered nurse or
16advanced practice nurse, as defined in the Nurse Practice Act,
17who is employed by a home health agency or hospice licensed in
18this State.
19    "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to
20practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice
21nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a
22collaborating physician that authorizes services under this
23Act, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the
24authority to perform services under this Act by his or her

 

 

SB0073- 130 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1supervising physician.
2    "Home health agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in
3Section 2.04 of the Home Health, Home Services, and Home
4Nursing Agency Licensing Act.
5    "Hospice" means a full hospice, as defined in Section 3 of
6the Hospice Program Licensing Act.
7    "Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical
8Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches.
9(Source: P.A. 94-638, eff. 8-22-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07;
1095-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
11    Section 115. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by
12changing Sections 1-159.1, 3-616, and 6-106.1 as follows:
 
13    (625 ILCS 5/1-159.1)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1)
14    Sec. 1-159.1. Person with disabilities. A natural person
15who, as determined by a licensed physician, by a physician
16assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this
17determination by his or her supervising physician, or by an
18advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
19agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
20advanced practice nurse to make this determination: (1) cannot
21walk without the use of, or assistance from, a brace, cane,
22crutch, another person, prosthetic device, wheelchair, or
23other assistive device; (2) is restricted by lung disease to
24such an extent that his or her forced (respiratory) expiratory

 

 

SB0073- 131 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1volume for one second, when measured by spirometry, is less
2than one liter, or the arterial oxygen tension is less than 60
3mm/hg on room air at rest; (3) uses portable oxygen; (4) has a
4cardiac condition to the extent that the person's functional
5limitations are classified in severity as Class III or Class
6IV, according to standards set by the American Heart
7Association; (5) is severely limited in the person's ability to
8walk due to an arthritic, neurological, or orthopedic
9condition; (6) cannot walk 200 feet without stopping to rest
10because of one of the above 5 conditions; or (7) is missing a
11hand or arm or has permanently lost the use of a hand or arm.
12(Source: P.A. 95-186, eff. 8-16-07.)
 
13    (625 ILCS 5/3-616)  (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)
14    Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.
15    (a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of
16registration for a motor vehicle of the first division or for a
17motor vehicle of the second division weighing no more than
188,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the registration fees
19required under this Code from a person with disabilities or a
20person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State,
21if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates
22as provided for in Section 3-611, provided that the person with
23disabilities or person who is deaf or hard of hearing must not
24be disqualified from obtaining a driver's license under
25subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further

 

 

SB0073- 132 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1provided that any person making such a request must submit a
2statement, certified by a licensed physician, by a physician
3assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this
4certification by his or her supervising physician, or by an
5advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
6agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
7advanced practice nurse to make this certification, to the
8effect that such person is a person with disabilities as
9defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, or alternatively
10provide adequate documentation that such person has a Class 1A,
11Class 2A or Type Four disability under the provisions of
12Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For
13purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person with a Disability
14Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois
15Identification Card Act indicating that the person thereon
16named has a disability shall be adequate documentation of such
17a disability.
18    (b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to
19a parent or legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the
20person with disabilities has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability
21as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card
22Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section
231-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered
24in his or her name, provided that the person with disabilities
25relies frequently on the parent or legal guardian for
26transportation. Only one vehicle per family may be registered

 

 

SB0073- 133 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in
2writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person
3requesting special plates under this subsection shall submit
4such documentation or such physician's, physician assistant's,
5or advanced practice nurse's statement as is required in
6subsection (a) and a statement describing the circumstances
7qualifying for issuance of special plates under this
8subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual
9Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois
10Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person
11with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.
12    (c) The Secretary may issue a parking decal or device to a
13person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without
14regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a
15driver's license or registration of a vehicle by such person
16with disabilities or such person's immediate family, provided
17such person with disabilities making such a request has been
18issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
19indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or
20Class 2A disability, or alternatively, submits a statement
21certified by a licensed physician, or by a physician assistant
22or an advanced practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), to
23the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as
24defined by Section 1-159.1. An optometrist may certify a Class
252A Visual Disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois
26Identification Card Act for the purpose of qualifying a person

 

 

SB0073- 134 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1with disabilities for a parking decal or device under this
2subsection.
3    (d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations
4procedures to certify or re-certify as necessary the
5eligibility of persons whose disabilities are other than
6permanent for special plates or parking decals or devices
7issued under subsections (a), (b) and (c). Except as provided
8under subsection (f) of this Section, no such special plates,
9decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of State to
10or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person
11is certified as meeting the definition of a person with
12disabilities pursuant to Section 1-159.1 or meeting the
13requirement of a Type Four disability as provided under Section
144A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the period of
15time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced
16practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), determines the
17applicant will have the disability, but not to exceed 6 months
18from the date of certification or recertification.
19    (e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section
20may also apply to have the special plates personalized, as
21provided under Section 3-405.1.
22    (f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue
23disability registration plates or a parking decal to
24corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies,
25limited liability companies, nursing homes, convalescent
26homes, or special education cooperatives which will transport

 

 

SB0073- 135 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe by
2rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of
3organizations to receive disability plates or decals and to
4designate which of the 2 person with disabilities emblems shall
5be placed on qualifying vehicles.
6    (g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into
7agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign
8jurisdictions, on behalf of this State relating to the
9extension of parking privileges by such jurisdictions to
10permanently disabled residents of this State who display a
11special license plate or parking device that contains the
12International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and
13to recognize such plates or devices issued by such other
14jurisdictions. This State shall grant the same parking
15privileges which are granted to disabled residents of this
16State to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed in
17another state, district, territory or foreign country if such
18vehicle displays the international symbol of access or a
19distinguishing insignia on license plates or parking device
20issued in accordance with the laws of the non-resident's state,
21district, territory or foreign country.
22(Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)
 
23    (625 ILCS 5/6-106.1)
24    Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.
25    (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver

 

 

SB0073- 136 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of
2the application and screening process under this Section to
3insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported
4on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants
5shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary
6of State from their prospective or current employer and submit
7the completed application to the prospective or current
8employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as
9required by the Department of State Police to conduct
10fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and
11future information available in the state system and current
12information available through the Federal Bureau of
13Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the
14fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the
15fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or
16submitting proof of successful completion of the annual
17refresher course. Individuals who on the effective date of this
18Act possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been
19previously issued by the appropriate Regional School
20Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting
21provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid
22and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all
23related application and fingerprinting fees as established by
24rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by
25the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of
26Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background

 

 

SB0073- 137 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing
2services under this Section shall be deposited into the State
3Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the
4fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All
5other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the
6Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the
7Secretary of State in administering this Section. All
8applicants must:
9        1. be 21 years of age or older;
10        2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's
11    license issued by the Secretary of State;
12        3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been
13    revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately
14    prior to the date of application, or have not had his or
15    her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges
16    disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the
17    date of application;
18        4. successfully pass a written test, administered by
19    the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus
20    safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses
21    and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by
22    the Secretary of State at the time the written test is
23    given;
24        5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in
25    the operation of school buses in accordance with rules
26    promulgated by the Secretary of State;

 

 

SB0073- 138 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school
2    buses by submitting the results of a medical examination,
3    including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject
4    to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a
5    licensed physician, an advanced practice nurse who has a
6    written collaborative agreement with a collaborating
7    physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical
8    examinations, or a physician assistant who has been
9    delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or
10    her supervising physician within 90 days of the date of
11    application according to standards promulgated by the
12    Secretary of State;
13        7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has
14    not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a
15    material fact in any application for permit;
16        8. have completed an initial classroom course,
17    including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety
18    as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after
19    satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual
20    refresher course; such courses and the agency or
21    organization conducting such courses shall be approved by
22    the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual
23    refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the
24    permit until such course is completed;
25        9. not have been under an order of court supervision
26    for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as

 

 

SB0073- 139 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of
2    application that may endanger the life or safety of any of
3    the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit
4    period;
5        10. not have been under an order of court supervision
6    for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless
7    driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol,
8    other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or
9    any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting
10    from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the
11    date of application;
12        11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting
13    to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i)
14    those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2,
15    9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5,
16    10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40,
17    11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1,
18    11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15,
19    11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19,
20    11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3,
21    11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6,
22    12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4,
23    12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2,
24    12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14,
25    12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33,
26    12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1,

 

 

SB0073- 140 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2,
2    20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6,
3    24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and
4    33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in
5    subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2),
6    (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in
7    subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section
8    12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of
9    Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D
10    of the Criminal Code of 1961; (ii) those offenses defined
11    in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined
12    in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a)
13    of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those
14    offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances
15    Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine
16    Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense
17    committed or attempted in any other state or against the
18    laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted
19    in this State would be punishable as one or more of the
20    foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Section
21    4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section
22    11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961; (vii) those offenses
23    defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;
24    and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine
25    Precursor Control Act;
26        12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in

 

 

SB0073- 141 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of
2    offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the
3    movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of
4    ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the
5    safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the
6    traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the
7    highway;
8        13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor
9    vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any
10    person;
11        14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to
12    be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability
13    or disease; and
14        15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of
15    reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under
16    Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the
17    applicant to the Secretary of State.
18    (b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period
19specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It
20shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this
21Section.
22    (c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's
23driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip
24code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and
25a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a
26suitable photograph of the holder.

 

 

SB0073- 142 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a
2pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver
3candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and
4medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting
5the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State
6Police that are required for the criminal background
7investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the
8Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been
9successfully completed including the successful completion of
10an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through
11the Department of State Police and the submission of necessary
12fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for
13criminal history information available through the Federal
14Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the
15certification to the Secretary of State at the time of
16submitting the school bus driver permit application.
17    (e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving
18certification from the employer that all pre-employment
19conditions have been successfully completed, and upon
20successful completion of all training and examination
21requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be
22operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a
23School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a
24provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau
25of Investigation's criminal background investigation based
26upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau

 

 

SB0073- 143 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1of Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal
2Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to
3the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the
4bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's
5successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's
6criminal background investigation.
7    (f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the
8employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an
9order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of
10an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit
11under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification
12shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court
13supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to
14provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a
15first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or
16subsequent violation.
17    (g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.
18        (1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
19    driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background
20    investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance
21    with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.
22        (2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
23    driver permit when he or she receives notice that the
24    permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this
25    Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of
26    this Section.

 

 

SB0073- 144 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
2    driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial
3    or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or
4    otherwise invalidated.
5        (4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus
6    driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who
7    fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as
8    required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or
9    under federal law.
10        (5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a
11    school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon
12    receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a
13    negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of
14    subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.
15        (6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus
16    driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice
17    from the employer that the holder failed to perform the
18    inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of
19    Section 12-816 of this Code.
20        (7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus
21    driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice
22    from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an
23    alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has
24    submitted to a test required by that Section which
25    disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or
26    disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug

 

 

SB0073- 145 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set
2    forth in 49 CFR 40.87.
3    The Secretary of State shall notify the State
4Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's
5prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has
6failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer
7eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related
8cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver
9permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the
10outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code.
11The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance
12criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A
13petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the
14Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual
15feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The
16permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the
17Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal
18of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the
19start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing
20school board that fails to remove the offending school bus
21driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in
22Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who
23violates a provision of this Section is subject to the
24penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.
25    All valid school bus driver permits issued under this
26Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until

 

 

SB0073- 146 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.
2    (h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service
3member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit
4holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of
5notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has
6been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this
7subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the
8permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as
9provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a
10permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this
11Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State
12shall not characterize the permit as invalid.
13    (i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service
14member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a
15permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of
16this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of
17subsection (b) of this Section.
18    (j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this
19Section:
20    "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive
21order of the President of the United States, an act of the
22Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.
23    "Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or
24reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois
25National Guard.
26(Source: P.A. 96-89, eff. 7-27-09; 96-818, eff. 11-17-09;

 

 

SB0073- 147 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

196-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1182, eff.
27-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 950, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551,
3Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-224, eff. 7-28-11;
497-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-466, eff.
51-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised
69-20-12.)
 
7    Section 120. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is
8amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows:
 
9    (720 ILCS 570/102)  (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)
10    Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
11context otherwise requires:
12    (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug,
13chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as
14to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who
15is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled
16substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self
17control with reference to his or her addiction.
18    (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a
19controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation,
20ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient,
21research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane
22Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
23        (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his
24    or her authorized agent),

 

 

SB0073- 148 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an
2    order, or
3        (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane
4    Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
5    (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf
6of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor,
7dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a
8common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
9the carrier or warehouseman.
10    (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal
11substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to
12testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins,
13corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:
14    (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
15    (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, 
16    (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, 
17    (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], 
18        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
19    (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], 
20        17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), 
21    (vi) 4-androstenediol  
22        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), 
23    (vii) 5-androstenediol  
24        (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), 
25    (viii) 1-androstenedione  
26        ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), 

 

 

SB0073- 149 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (ix) 4-androstenedione  
2        (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), 
3    (x) 5-androstenedione  
4        (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), 
5    (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
6        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
7    (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
8        1,4,-diene-3-one), 
9    (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- 
10        diene-3,17-dione), 
11    (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 
12        [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
13    (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
14        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
15    (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- 
16        17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- 
17        androst-1,4-dien-3-one), 
18    (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone 
19    (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] 
20        -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), 
21    (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.  
22        '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
23        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
24    (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- 
25        androstan-3-one), 
26    (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- 

 

 

SB0073- 150 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
2    (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
3        hydroxyestr-4-ene), 
4    (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- 
5        1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
6    (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], 
7        17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
8    (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
9        hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), 
10    (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) 
11    (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- 
12        androst-4-en-3-one), 
13    (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- 
14        dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), 
15    (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
16        hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), 
17    (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
18        [5a]-androstan-3-one), 
19    (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
20        hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), 
21    (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
22        dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), 
23    (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
24        5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
25    (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- 
26        dihydroxy-5a-androstane), 

 

 

SB0073- 151 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy 
2        -5a-androstane), 
3    (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- 
4        dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), 
5    (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- 
6        methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
7    (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
8        hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), 
9    (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
10        hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), 
11    (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
12        hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
13    (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- 
14        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
15    (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone  
16        (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- 
17        androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- 
18        1-testosterone'), 
19    (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
20    (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
21        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
22    (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 
23        dihydroxyestr-4-ene), 
24    (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- 
25        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
26    (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- 

 

 

SB0073- 152 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        dihydroxyestr-5-ene), 
2    (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione  
3        (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), 
4    (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- 
5        en-3,17-dione), 
6    (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- 
7        en-3,17-dione), 
8    (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- 
9        hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), 
10    (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- 
11        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
12    (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- 
13        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
14    (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- 
15        hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), 
16    (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
17        2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
18    (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- 
19        dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), 
20    (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- 
21        17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), 
22    (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- 
23        (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), 
24    (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- 
25        (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), 
26    (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- 

 

 

SB0073- 153 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic 
2        acid lactone), 
3    (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- 
4        4-en-3-one), 
5    (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- 
6        diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- 
7        4,9,11-trien-3-one), 
8    (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, 
9        11-trien-3-one). 
10    Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an
11anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures,
12distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to
13deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is
14expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered
15through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
16which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services
17for such administration, and which the person intends to
18administer or have administered through such implants, shall
19not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to
20unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or
21possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
22purposes of this Act.
23    (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement
24Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its
25successor agency.
26    (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program"

 

 

SB0073- 154 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1means a Department of Human Services administrative employee
2licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances
3who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human
4Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription
5Information Library.
6    (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of
7components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a
8prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the
9prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of
10professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident
11to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale
12or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs
13or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug
14orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing
15patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded
16for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the
17following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not
18reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a
19timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the
20prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be
21compounded.
22    (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or
23immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from
24another Schedule or otherwise.
25    (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or
26immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act

 

 

SB0073- 155 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor,
2designated as a controlled substance by the Department through
3administrative rule. The term does not include distilled
4spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
5defined or used in the Liquor Control Act and the Tobacco
6Products Tax Act.
7    (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:
8        (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially
9    similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance
10    in Schedule I or II;
11        (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or
12    hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is
13    substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant,
14    depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
15    nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or
16    II; or
17        (3) with respect to a particular person, which such
18    person represents or intends to have a stimulant,
19    depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
20    nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater
21    than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect
22    on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in
23    Schedule I or II.
24    (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance,
25which, or the container or labeling of which, without
26authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other

 

 

SB0073- 156 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness
2thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other
3than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or
4dispensed the substance.
5    (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive
6or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance,
7with or without consideration, whether or not there is an
8agency relationship.
9    (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human
10Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and
11Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
12    (j) (Blank).
13    (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of
14Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
15    (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation"
16means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation
17of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
18    (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall
19depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes
20impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
21habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
22but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles
23and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs,
24barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and
25synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar
26sedative hypnotics.

 

 

SB0073- 157 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (n) (Blank).
2    (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State
3Police or his or her designated agents.
4    (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to
5an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the
6lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing,
7administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary
8to prepare the substance for that delivery.
9    (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
10    (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by
11administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.
12    (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
13    (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the
14official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic
15Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National
16Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances
17intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or
18prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other
19than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
20the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use
21as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or
22(3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their
23components, parts, or accessories.
24    (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the
25Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
26purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control

 

 

SB0073- 158 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal
2Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase,
3store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
4Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal
5euthanasia.
6    (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III
7substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used
8by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.
9    (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a
10controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of
11professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or
12her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that
13individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or
14addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein:
15and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the
16dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
17prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the
18pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by
19accepted professional standards including, but not limited to
20the following, in making the judgment:
21        (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient
22    relationship,
23        (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one
24    prescriber for large numbers of patients,
25        (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
26        (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be

 

 

SB0073- 159 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual
2    dose may be used legitimately),
3        (5) unusual geographic distances between patient,
4    pharmacist and prescriber,
5        (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
6    (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly
7altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any
8type.
9    (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a
10pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to
11a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or
12hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous,
13intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
14    (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the
15State of Illinois, or its successor agency.
16    (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
17        (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule
18    designated as being a principal compound used, or produced
19    primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled
20    substance;
21        (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or
22    likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled
23    substance; and
24        (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,
25    curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled
26    substance.

 

 

SB0073- 160 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching,
2educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled
3substances within educational facilities approved by the State
4Board of Education or its successor agency.
5    (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State,
6County or Municipal peace unit or police force.
7    (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a
8controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit
9appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack
10thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical
11characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person
12to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2)
13is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled
14substance or is distributed under circumstances which would
15lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a
16controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether
17the representations made or the circumstances of the
18distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the
19substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of
20subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the
21following factors in addition to any other factor that may be
22relevant:
23        (a) statements made by the owner or person in control
24    of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;
25        (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the
26    substance may be resold for profit;

 

 

SB0073- 161 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1        (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner
2    normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled
3    substances;
4        (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution
5    included an exchange of or demand for money or other
6    property as consideration, and whether the amount of the
7    consideration was substantially greater than the
8    reasonable retail market value of the substance.
9    Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a
10noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was
11initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial
12introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its
13finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
14    Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or
15distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized
16to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this
17Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried
18out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances
19involved were controlled substances.
20    Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the
21manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding,
22processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or
23drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the
24Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
25    (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is
26located in a state of the United States that delivers,

 

 

SB0073- 162 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal
2Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any
3substance which requires a prescription.
4    (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation,
5propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a
6controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
7directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of
8natural origin, or independently by means of chemical
9synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
10synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the
11substance or labeling of its container, except that this term
12does not include:
13        (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding
14    of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or
15        (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent
16    under his or her supervision, the preparation,
17    compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled
18    substance:
19            (a) as an incident to his or her administering or
20        dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of
21        his or her professional practice; or
22            (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or
23        chemical analysis and not for sale.
24    (z-1) (Blank).
25    (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited
26under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

 

 

SB0073- 163 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician
2assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through
3a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to
4practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with
5Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987,
6(ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated
7authority to prescribe through a written delegation of
8authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all
9of its branches or by a podiatrist, in accordance with Section
1065-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, or (iii) an animal euthanasia
11agency.
12    (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether
13produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances
14of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical
15synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
16synthesis:
17        (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,
18    including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts
19    of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of
20    such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within
21    the specific chemical designation; however the term
22    "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline
23    alkaloids of opium;
24        (2) (blank);
25        (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
26        (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of

 

 

SB0073- 164 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and
2    ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have
3    been removed;
4        (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers,
5    and salts of isomers;
6        (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,
7    and salts of isomers;
8        (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which
9    contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to
10    in subparagraphs (1) through (6).
11    (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
12Nurse Practice Act.
13    (cc) (Blank).
14    (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction
15forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine
16or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction
17forming or addiction sustaining liability.
18    (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
19somniferum L., except its seeds.
20    (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or
21solution or other liquid form of medication intended for
22administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form
23of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal
24administration.
25    (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon
26Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

 

 

SB0073- 165 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation,
2mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or
3agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or
4association, or any other entity.
5    (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or
6certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local
7registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist
8under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
9    (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in
10which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy
11Practice Act.
12    (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited
13under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
14    (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise
15requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all
16of its branches.
17    (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of
18the opium poppy, after mowing.
19    (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice
20medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist,
21podiatrist, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist,
22physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed
23practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or
24pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise
25lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to
26distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to,

 

 

SB0073- 166 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
2controlled substance in the course of professional practice or
3research.
4    (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written
5prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated
6prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written
7prescription that is individually generated by machine or
8computer in the prescriber's office.
9    (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice
10medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatrist
11or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician
12assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance
13in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
14written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the
15Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced
16practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under
17Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with
18Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written
19collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse
20Practice Act.
21    (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral
22order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable
23federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice
24medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatrist or
25veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist
26for a Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance

 

 

SB0073- 167 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of
21987, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in
3accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
4written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the
5Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or of an advanced
6practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under
7Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a
8prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with
9Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written
10collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse
11Practice Act when required by law.
12    (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an
13electronic library that contains reported controlled substance
14data.
15    (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the
16entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on
17controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.
18    (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture,
19planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled
20substance other than methamphetamine.
21    (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to
22register under Section 302 of this Act.
23    (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each
24person authorized to handle controlled substances under the
25laws of the United States and of this State.
26    (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either

 

 

SB0073- 168 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the
2Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the
3Secretary's designated agents.
4    (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state,
5district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof,
6and any area subject to the legal authority of the United
7States of America.
8    (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an
9overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii)
10causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
11habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
12but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs,
13methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine
14and its analogs.
15    (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses
16a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of
17a member of his or her household or for administering to an
18animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her
19household.
20(Source: P.A. 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 96-268, eff. 8-11-09;
2197-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 
22    (720 ILCS 570/303.05)
23    Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
24    (a) The Department of Financial and Professional
25Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants and

 

 

SB0073- 169 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1licensed advanced practice nurses to prescribe and dispense
2controlled substances under Section 303 and animal euthanasia
3agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia
4drugs under the following circumstances:
5        (1) with respect to physician assistants,
6            (A) the physician assistant has been delegated
7        written authority to prescribe any Schedule III
8        through V controlled substances by a physician
9        licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in
10        accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant
11        Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has
12        completed the appropriate application forms and has
13        paid the required fees as set by rule; or
14            (B) the physician assistant has been delegated
15        authority by a supervising physician licensed to
16        practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or
17        dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a
18        written delegation of authority and under the
19        following conditions:
20                (i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances
21            by oral dosage or topical or transdermal
22            application may be delegated, provided that the
23            delegated Schedule II controlled substances are
24            routinely prescribed by the supervising physician.
25            This delegation must identify the specific
26            Schedule II controlled substances by either brand

 

 

SB0073- 170 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1            name or generic name. Schedule II controlled
2            substances to be delivered by injection or other
3            route of administration may not be delegated;
4                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
5            substances prescribed by the supervising
6            physician;
7                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
8            more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation
9            authorized only after prior approval of the
10            supervising physician;
11                (iv) the physician assistant must discuss the
12            condition of any patients for whom a controlled
13            substance is prescribed monthly with the
14            delegating physician;
15                (v) the physician assistant must have
16            completed the appropriate application forms and
17            paid the required fees as set by rule;
18                (vi) the physician assistant must provide
19            evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact
20            hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant
21            program accredited by the Accreditation Review
22            Commission on Education for the Physician
23            Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for
24            any new license issued with Schedule II authority
25            after the effective date of this amendatory Act of
26            the 97th General Assembly; and

 

 

SB0073- 171 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1                (vii) the physician assistant must annually
2            complete at least 5 hours of continuing education
3            in pharmacology.
4        (2) with respect to advanced practice nurses,
5            (A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
6        authority to prescribe any Schedule II III through V
7        controlled substances by a collaborating physician
8        licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a
9        collaborating podiatrist in accordance with Section
10        65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice
11        nurse has completed the appropriate application forms
12        and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or
13            (B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
14        authority by a collaborating physician licensed to
15        practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating
16        podiatrist to prescribe or dispense Schedule II
17        controlled substances through a written delegation of
18        authority and under the following conditions:
19                (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances
20            by oral dosage or topical or transdermal
21            application may be delegated, provided that the
22            delegated Schedule II controlled substances are
23            routinely prescribed by the collaborating
24            physician or podiatrist. This delegation must
25            identify the specific Schedule II controlled
26            substances by either brand name or generic name.

 

 

SB0073- 172 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1            Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered
2            by injection or other route of administration may
3            not be delegated;
4                (ii) any delegation must be of controlled
5            substances prescribed by the collaborating
6            physician or podiatrist;
7                (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no
8            more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation
9            authorized only after prior approval of the
10            collaborating physician or podiatrist;
11                (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss
12            the condition of any patients for whom a controlled
13            substance is prescribed monthly with the
14            delegating physician or podiatrist or in the
15            course of review as required by Section 65-40 of
16            the Nurse Practice Act;
17                (v) the advanced practice nurse must have
18            completed the appropriate application forms and
19            paid the required fees as set by rule;
20                (vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide
21            evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45
22            graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new
23            license issued with Schedule II authority after
24            the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
25            97th General Assembly; and
26                (vii) the advanced practice nurse must

 

 

SB0073- 173 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1            annually complete 5 hours of continuing education
2            in pharmacology; or
3        (3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the
4    euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the
5    Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and
6    obtained a registration number from the Department.
7    (b) The physician assistant mid-level practitioner shall
8only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled
9substances for which a licensed physician or licensed
10podiatrist has delegated prescriptive authority, except that
11an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive
12authority. A physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse
13are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled
14substances not set forth in the required written delegation of
15authority.
16    (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements,
17physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal
18euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner
19controlled substances license for Illinois.
20    (d) A collaborating physician or podiatrist may, but is not
21required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced
22practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement,
23and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to
24the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
25    (e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to,
26delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as

 

 

SB0073- 174 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of
2prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of
3Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
4    (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit
5generic substitution.
6(Source: P.A. 96-189, eff. 8-10-09; 96-268, eff. 8-11-09;
796-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-358, eff.
88-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)
 
9    (225 ILCS 65/65-35 rep.)
10    Section 125. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by repealing
11Section 65-35.
 
12    (225 ILCS 100/20.5 rep.)
13    Section 130. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is
14amended by repealing Section 20.5.
 
15    Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon
16becoming law.

 

 

SB0073- 175 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1 INDEX
2 Statutes amended in order of appearance
3    15 ILCS 335/4from Ch. 124, par. 24
4    105 ILCS 5/22-30
5    105 ILCS 5/24-5from Ch. 122, par. 24-5
6    105 ILCS 5/24-6
7    105 ILCS 5/26-1from Ch. 122, par. 26-1
8    105 ILCS 5/27-8.1from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1
9    210 ILCS 5/6.5
10    210 ILCS 25/7-101from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101
11    210 ILCS 85/10.7
12    215 ILCS 5/356g.5
13    215 ILCS 5/356z.1
14    225 ILCS 25/8.1from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1
15    225 ILCS 60/22from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22
16    225 ILCS 60/54.5
17    225 ILCS 65/50-10was 225 ILCS 65/5-10
18    225 ILCS 65/65-30
19    225 ILCS 65/65-40was 225 ILCS 65/15-20
20    225 ILCS 65/65-45was 225 ILCS 65/15-25
21    225 ILCS 65/65-55was 225 ILCS 65/15-40
22    225 ILCS 65/70-5was 225 ILCS 65/10-45
23    225 ILCS 75/3.1
24    225 ILCS 85/4from Ch. 111, par. 4124
25    225 ILCS 90/1from Ch. 111, par. 4251

 

 

SB0073- 176 -LRB098 05033 MGM 35064 b

1    225 ILCS 106/10
2    225 ILCS 135/10
3    225 ILCS 135/20
4    225 ILCS 135/95
5    405 ILCS 95/10
6    410 ILCS 45/6.2from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2
7    410 ILCS 70/2.2
8    410 ILCS 70/5from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5
9    410 ILCS 70/5.5
10    410 ILCS 210/1from Ch. 111, par. 4501
11    410 ILCS 210/2from Ch. 111, par. 4502
12    410 ILCS 210/3from Ch. 111, par. 4503
13    410 ILCS 225/2from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022
14    410 ILCS 305/3from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303
15    410 ILCS 325/4from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404
16    410 ILCS 335/5
17    410 ILCS 642/10
18    625 ILCS 5/1-159.1from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1
19    625 ILCS 5/3-616from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616
20    625 ILCS 5/6-106.1
21    720 ILCS 570/102from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102
22    720 ILCS 570/303.05
23    225 ILCS 65/65-35 rep.
24    225 ILCS 100/20.5 rep.