SB1833 EngrossedLRB097 07747 KTG 47859 b

1    AN ACT concerning health.
 
2    Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
3represented in the General Assembly:
 
4    Section 1. Rule of construction. This Act shall be
5construed to make amendments to provisions of State law to
6substitute the term "intellectual disability" for "mental
7retardation", "intellectually disabled" for "mentally
8retarded", "ID/DD Community Care Act" for "MR/DD Community Care
9Act", "physically disabled" for "crippled", and "physical
10disability" or "physically disabling", as appropriate, for
11"crippling" without any intent to change the substantive
12rights, responsibilities, coverage, eligibility, or
13definitions referred to in the amended provisions represented
14in this Act.
 
15    Section 3. The Statute on Statutes is amended by adding
16Sections 1.37 and 1.38 as follows:
 
17    (5 ILCS 70/1.37 new)
18    Sec. 1.37. Intellectual disability. Except where the
19context indicates otherwise, in any rule, contract, or other
20document a reference to the term "mental retardation" shall be
21considered a reference to the term "intellectual disability"
22and a reference to the term "mentally retarded" shall be

 

 

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1considered a reference to the term "intellectually disabled".
2The use of either "mental retardation" or "intellectually
3disabled", or "mentally retarded" or "intellectually disabled"
4shall not invalidate any rule, contract, or other document.
 
5    (5 ILCS 70/1.38 new)
6    Sec. 1.38. Physical disability. Except where the context
7indicates otherwise, in any rule, contract, or other document a
8reference to the term "crippled" shall be considered a
9reference to the term "physically disabled" and a reference to
10the term "crippling" shall be considered a reference to the
11term "physical disability" or "physically disabling", as
12appropriate, when referring to a person. The use of either
13"crippled" or "physically disabled", or "crippling" or
14"physical disability" shall not invalidate any rule, contract,
15or other document.
 
16    Section 4. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is
17amended by adding Sections 5-146 and 5-147 as follows:
 
18    (5 ILCS 100/5-146 new)
19    Sec. 5-146. Rule change; intellectual disability. Any
20State agency with a rule that contains the term "mentally
21retarded" or "mental retardation" shall amend the text of the
22rule to substitute the term "intellectually disabled" for
23"mentally retarded" and "intellectual disability" for "mental

 

 

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1retardation", and shall make any other changes that may be
2necessary to conform to the changes made by this amendatory Act
3of the 97th General Assembly.
 
4    (5 ILCS 100/5-147 new)
5    Sec. 5-147. Rule change; physical disability. Any State
6agency with a rule that contains the term "crippled" or
7"crippling" to refer to a person with a physical disability
8shall amend the text of the rule to substitute the term
9"physically disabled" for "crippled" and "physical disability"
10or "physically disabling", as appropriate, for "crippling",
11and shall make any other changes that may be necessary to
12conform to the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 97th
13General Assembly.
 
14    Section 5. The Supported Employees Act is amended by
15changing Section 3 as follows:
 
16    (5 ILCS 390/3)  (from Ch. 127, par. 3903)
17    Sec. 3. As used in this Act:
18    (a) "Agency" means those Departments, Boards, Commissions
19and Authorities that are under the jurisdiction and control of
20the Governor and are subject to the provisions and requirements
21of the Personnel Code, the State Universities Civil Service Act
22and the Secretary of State Merit Employment Code.
23    (b) "Department" means the Department of Central

 

 

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1Management Services.
2    (c) "Director" means the Director of the Department of
3Central Management Services.
4    (d) "Supported employee" means any individual who:
5        (1) has a severe physical or mental disability which
6    seriously limits functional capacities including but not
7    limited to mobility, communication, self-care,
8    self-direction, work tolerance or work skills, in terms of
9    employability as defined, determined and certified by the
10    Department of Human Services; and
11        (2) has one or more physical or mental disabilities
12    resulting from amputation; arthritis; blindness; cancer;
13    cerebral palsy; cystic fibrosis; deafness; heart disease;
14    hemiplegia; respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction; an
15    intellectual disability mental retardation; mental
16    illness; multiple sclerosis; muscular dystrophy;
17    musculoskeletal disorders; neurological disorders,
18    including stroke and epilepsy; paraplegia; quadriplegia
19    and other spinal cord conditions; sickle cell anemia; and
20    end-stage renal disease; or another disability or
21    combination of disabilities determined on the basis of an
22    evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause comparable
23    substantial functional limitation.
24    (e) "Supported employment" means competitive work in
25integrated work settings:
26        (1) for individuals with severe handicaps for whom

 

 

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1    competitive employment has not traditionally occurred, or
2        (2) for individuals for whom competitive employment
3    has been interrupted or intermittent as a result of a
4    severe disability, and who because of their handicap, need
5    on-going support services to perform such work. The term
6    includes transitional employment for individuals with
7    chronic mental illness.
8    (f) "Participation in a supported employee program" means
9participation as a supported employee that is not based on the
10expectation that an individual will have the skills to perform
11all the duties in a job class, but on the assumption that with
12support and adaptation, or both, a job can be designed to take
13advantage of the supported employee's special strengths.
14    (g) "Funder" means any entity either State, local or
15federal, or private not-for-profit or for-profit that provides
16monies to programs that provide services related to supported
17employment.
18    (h) "Provider" means any entity either public or private
19that provides technical support and services to any department
20or agency subject to the control of the Governor, the Secretary
21of State or the University Civil Service System.
22(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
23    Section 7. The Election Code is amended by changing
24Sections 3-3, 4-6.3, 4-10, 5-9, 5-16.3, 6-50.3, 6-56, 19-4,
2519-12.1, and 19-12.2 as follows:
 

 

 

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1    (10 ILCS 5/3-3)  (from Ch. 46, par. 3-3)
2    Sec. 3-3. Every honorably discharged soldier or sailor who
3is an inmate of any soldiers' and sailors' home within the
4State of Illinois, any person who is a resident of a facility
5licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or
6the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, or any person who is a
7resident of a community-integrated living arrangement, as
8defined in Section 3 of the Community-Integrated Living
9Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act, for 30 days or
10longer, and who is a citizen of the United States and has
11resided in this State and in the election district 30 days next
12preceding any election shall be entitled to vote in the
13election district in which any such home or
14community-integrated living arrangement in which he is an
15inmate or resident is located, for all officers that now are or
16hereafter may be elected by the people, and upon all questions
17that may be submitted to the vote of the people: Provided, that
18he shall declare upon oath, that it was his bona fide intention
19at the time he entered said home or community-integrated living
20arrangement to become a resident thereof.
21(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-563, eff. 1-1-10;
2296-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
23    (10 ILCS 5/4-6.3)  (from Ch. 46, par. 4-6.3)
24    Sec. 4-6.3. The county clerk may establish a temporary

 

 

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1place of registration for such times and at such locations
2within the county as the county clerk may select. However, no
3temporary place of registration may be in operation during the
427 days preceding an election. Notice of the time and place of
5registration under this Section shall be published by the
6county clerk in a newspaper having a general circulation in the
7county not less than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding
8of such registration.
9    Temporary places of registration shall be established so
10that the areas of concentration of population or use by the
11public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of
12private business or in public buildings or in mobile units.
13Areas which may be designated as temporary places of
14registration include, but are not limited to, facilities
15licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or
16the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors'
17Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings
18and county fairs.
19    Temporary places of registration shall be available to the
20public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population
21or fraction thereof in the county.
22    All temporary places of registration shall be manned by
23deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to
24Section 4-6.2.
25(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 

 

 

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1    (10 ILCS 5/4-10)  (from Ch. 46, par. 4-10)
2    Sec. 4-10. Except as herein provided, no person shall be
3registered, unless he applies in person to a registration
4officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him
5by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of
6registration. The registration officer shall require the
7applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in
8the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include
9his or her residence address. These forms of identification
10shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following:
11driver's license, social security card, public aid
12identification card, utility bill, employee or student
13identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit
14card, or a civic, union or professional association membership
15card. The registration officer shall require a homeless
16individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing
17address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail
18addressed to that individual and received at that address or by
19a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing
20address. The registration officer shall require each applicant
21for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of
22registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.
23    One of the registration officers or a deputy registration
24officer, county clerk, or clerk in the office of the county
25clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally
26apply to register the following oath or affirmation:

 

 

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1    "You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and
2truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching
3your name, place of residence, place of birth, your
4qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register
5and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."
6    The registration officer shall satisfy himself that each
7applicant for registration is qualified to register before
8registering him. If the registration officer has reason to
9believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and
10Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified
11pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
12Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When
13you entered the home which is your present address, was it your
14bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of
15a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such
16applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the
17place of any precinct registration and shall have the right to
18challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.
19    In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is
20qualified he shall forthwith notify such applicant in writing
21to appear before the county clerk to complete his registration.
22Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word
23"incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote
24unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as
25hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked
26as incomplete if information to complete it can be furnished on

 

 

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1the date of the original application.
2    Any person claiming to be an elector in any election
3precinct and whose registration card is marked "Incomplete" may
4make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the
5county clerk in substance in the following form:
6    "I do solemnly swear that I, ...., did on (insert date)
7make application to the board of registry of the .... precinct
8of the township of .... (or to the county clerk of .... county)
9and that said board or clerk refused to complete my
10registration as a qualified voter in said precinct. That I
11reside in said precinct, that I intend to reside in said
12precinct, and am a duly qualified voter of said precinct and am
13entitled to be registered to vote in said precinct at the next
14election.
15(Signature of applicant) ............................."
 
16    All such applications shall be presented to the county
17clerk or to his duly authorized representative by the
18applicant, in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00
19p.m. on any day after the days on which the 1969 and 1970
20precinct re-registrations are held but not on any day within 27
21days preceding the ensuing general election and thereafter for
22the registration provided in Section 4-7 all such applications
23shall be presented to the county clerk or his duly authorized
24representative by the applicant in person between the hours of
259:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day prior to 27 days preceding

 

 

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1the ensuing general election. Such application shall be heard
2by the county clerk or his duly authorized representative at
3the time the application is presented. If the applicant for
4registration has registered with the county clerk, such
5application may be presented to and heard by the county clerk
6or by his duly authorized representative upon the dates
7specified above or at any time prior thereto designated by the
8county clerk.
9    Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his
10county of residence either due to business of the United States
11or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of
12the United States may become registered by mailing an
13application to the county clerk within the periods of
14registration provided for in this Article, or by simultaneous
15application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as
16provided in Article 20 of this Code.
17    Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall
18immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate,
19which affidavit shall contain the following and such other
20information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper
21to require for the identification of the applicant:
22    Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first
23or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial
24for such middle name, if any.
25    Sex.
26    Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or

 

 

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1other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and
2definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact
3location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location
4cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section,
5congressional township and range number may be used, or such
6other information as may be necessary, including post office
7mailing address.
8    Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the
9precinct.
10    Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was
11born.
12    Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or
13naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of
14naturalization.
15    Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.
16    Out of State address of ..........................
17
AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION
18State of ...........)  
19                   )ss
20County of ..........)
21    I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the
22United States; that on the day of the next election I shall
23have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election
24precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am
25not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that
26I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of

 

 

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1the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of
2Illinois, and that the above statements are true.
3
..............................
4
(His or her signature or mark)
5    Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to
6administer oaths, on (insert date).
7
........................................
8
Signature of officer administering oath.
9    Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of
10Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information
11contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for
12in Section 4-8 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy
13of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and
14thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall
15constitute the registration of such person the same as if he
16had applied for registration in person.
17(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
1896-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
19    (10 ILCS 5/5-9)  (from Ch. 46, par. 5-9)
20    Sec. 5-9. Except as herein provided, no person shall be
21registered unless he applies in person to registration officer,
22answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the
23registration officer, and executes the affidavit of
24registration. The registration officer shall require the
25applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in

 

 

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1the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include
2his or her residence address. These forms of identification
3shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following:
4driver's license, social security card, public aid
5identification card, utility bill, employee or student
6identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit
7card, or a civic, union or professional association membership
8card. The registration officer shall require a homeless
9individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing
10address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail
11addressed to that individual and received at that address or by
12a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing
13address. The registration officer shall require each applicant
14for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of
15registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.
16    One of the Deputy Registrars, the Judge of Registration, or
17an Officer of Registration, County Clerk, or clerk in the
18office of the County Clerk, shall administer to all persons who
19shall personally apply to register the following oath or
20affirmation:
21    "You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and
22truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching
23your place of residence, name, place of birth, your
24qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register
25and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."
26    The Registration Officer shall satisfy himself that each

 

 

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1applicant for registration is qualified to register before
2registering him. If the registration officer has reason to
3believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and
4Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified
5pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
6Community Care Act, the following question shall be put, "When
7you entered the home which is your present address, was it your
8bona fide intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of
9a township, city, village or incorporated town in which such
10applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the
11place of precinct registration, and shall have the right to
12challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.
13    In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is
14qualified, he shall forthwith in writing notify such applicant
15to appear before the County Clerk to furnish further proof of
16his qualifications. Upon the card of such applicant shall be
17written the word "Incomplete" and no such applicant shall be
18permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily
19completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be
20taken and marked as "incomplete" if information to complete it
21can be furnished on the date of the original application.
22    Any person claiming to be an elector in any election
23precinct in such township, city, village or incorporated town
24and whose registration is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign
25an application in writing, under oath, to the County Clerk in
26substance in the following form:

 

 

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1    "I do solemnly swear that I, .........., did on (insert
2date) make application to the Board of Registry of the ........
3precinct of ........ ward of the City of .... or of the
4......... District ......... Town of .......... (or to the
5County Clerk of .............) and ............ County; that
6said Board or Clerk refused to complete my registration as a
7qualified voter in said precinct, that I reside in said
8precinct (or that I intend to reside in said precinct), am a
9duly qualified voter and entitled to vote in said precinct at
10the next election.
11
...........................
12
(Signature of Applicant)"
13    All such applications shall be presented to the County
14Clerk by the applicant, in person between the hours of nine
15o'clock a.m. and five o'clock p.m., on Monday and Tuesday of
16the third week subsequent to the weeks in which the 1961 and
171962 precinct re-registrations are to be held, and thereafter
18for the registration provided in Section 5-17 of this Article,
19all such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by
20the applicant in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m.
21and nine o'clock p.m. on Monday and Tuesday of the third week
22prior to the date on which such election is to be held.
23    Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his
24county of residence either due to business of the United States
25or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of
26the United States may become registered by mailing an

 

 

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1application to the county clerk within the periods of
2registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous
3application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as
4provided in Article 20 of this Code.
5    Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall
6immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate,
7which affidavit shall contain the following and such other
8information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper
9to require for the identification of the applicant:
10    Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first
11or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial
12for such middle name, if any.
13    Sex.
14    Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or
15other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and
16definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact
17location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location
18cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section,
19congressional township and range number may be used, or such
20other information as may be necessary, including post office
21mailing address.
22    Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the
23precinct.
24    Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was
25born.
26    Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or

 

 

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1naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of
2naturalization.
3    Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.
4    Out of State address of ..........................
5
AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION
6State of .........)  
7                 )ss
8County of ........)
9    I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the
10United States; that on the day of the next election I shall
11have resided in the State of Illinois for 6 months and in the
12election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote,
13that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United
14States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of
15Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return
16to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are
17true.
18
..............................
19
(His or her signature or mark)
20    Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to
21administer oaths, on (insert date).
22
........................................
23
Signature of officer administering oath.

 
24
25    Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of

 

 

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1Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information
2contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for
3in Section 5-7 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy
4of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and
5thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall
6constitute the registration of such person the same as if he
7had applied for registration in person.
8(Source: P.A. 96-317, eff. 1-1-10; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
996-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
10    (10 ILCS 5/5-16.3)  (from Ch. 46, par. 5-16.3)
11    Sec. 5-16.3. The county clerk may establish temporary
12places of registration for such times and at such locations
13within the county as the county clerk may select. However, no
14temporary place of registration may be in operation during the
1527 days preceding an election. Notice of time and place of
16registration at any such temporary place of registration under
17this Section shall be published by the county clerk in a
18newspaper having a general circulation in the county not less
19than 3 nor more than 15 days before the holding of such
20registration.
21    Temporary places of registration shall be established so
22that the areas of concentration of population or use by the
23public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of
24private business or in public buildings or in mobile units.
25Areas which may be designated as temporary places of

 

 

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1registration include, but are not limited to, facilities
2licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or
3the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors'
4Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings
5and county fairs.
6    Temporary places of registration shall be available to the
7public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population
8or fraction thereof in the county.
9    All temporary places of registration shall be manned by
10deputy county clerks or deputy registrars appointed pursuant to
11Section 5-16.2.
12(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
13    (10 ILCS 5/6-50.3)  (from Ch. 46, par. 6-50.3)
14    Sec. 6-50.3. The board of election commissioners may
15establish temporary places of registration for such times and
16at such locations as the board may select. However, no
17temporary place of registration may be in operation during the
1827 days preceding an election. Notice of the time and place of
19registration at any such temporary place of registration under
20this Section shall be published by the board of election
21commissioners in a newspaper having a general circulation in
22the city, village or incorporated town not less than 3 nor more
23than 15 days before the holding of such registration.
24    Temporary places of registration shall be established so
25that the areas of concentration of population or use by the

 

 

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1public are served, whether by facilities provided in places of
2private business or in public buildings or in mobile units.
3Areas which may be designated as temporary places of
4registration include, but are not limited to facilities
5licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or
6the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, Soldiers' and Sailors'
7Homes, shopping centers, business districts, public buildings
8and county fairs.
9    Temporary places of registration shall be available to the
10public not less than 2 hours per year for each 1,000 population
11or fraction thereof in the county.
12    All temporary places of registration shall be manned by
13employees of the board of election commissioners or deputy
14registrars appointed pursuant to Section 6-50.2.
15(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
16    (10 ILCS 5/6-56)  (from Ch. 46, par. 6-56)
17    Sec. 6-56. Not more than 30 nor less than 28 days before
18any election under this Article, all owners, managers,
19administrators or operators of hotels, lodging houses, rooming
20houses, furnished apartments or facilities licensed or
21certified under the Nursing Home Care Act, which house 4 or
22more persons, outside the members of the family of such owner,
23manager, administrator or operator, shall file with the board
24of election commissioners a report, under oath, together with
25one copy thereof, in such form as may be required by the board

 

 

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1of election commissioners, of the names and descriptions of all
2lodgers, guests or residents claiming a voting residence at the
3hotels, lodging houses, rooming houses, furnished apartments,
4or facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care
5Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act under their control.
6In counties having a population of 500,000 or more such report
7shall be made on forms mailed to them by the board of election
8commissioners. The board of election commissioners shall sort
9and assemble the sworn copies of the reports in numerical order
10according to ward and according to precincts within each ward
11and shall, not later than 5 days after the last day allowed by
12this Article for the filing of the reports, maintain one
13assembled set of sworn duplicate reports available for public
14inspection until 60 days after election days. Except as is
15otherwise expressly provided in this Article, the board shall
16not be required to perform any duties with respect to the sworn
17reports other than to mail, sort, assemble, post and file them
18as hereinabove provided.
19    Except in such cases where a precinct canvass is being
20conducted by the Board of Election Commissioners prior to a
21Primary or Election, the board of election commissioners shall
22compare the original copy of each such report with the list of
23registered voters from such addresses. Every person registered
24from such address and not listed in such report or whose name
25is different from any name so listed, shall immediately after
26the last day of registration be sent a notice through the

 

 

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1United States mail, at the address appearing upon his
2registration record card, requiring him to appear before the
3board of election commissioners on one of the days specified in
4Section 6-45 of this Article and show cause why his
5registration should not be cancelled. The provisions of
6Sections 6-45, 6-46 and 6-47 of this Article shall apply to
7such hearing and proceedings subsequent thereto.
8    Any owner, manager or operator of any such hotel, lodging
9house, rooming house or furnished apartment who shall fail or
10neglect to file such statement and copy thereof as in this
11Article provided, may, upon written information of the attorney
12for the election commissioners, be cited by the election
13commissioners or upon the complaint of any voter of such city,
14village or incorporated town, to appear before them and furnish
15such sworn statement and copy thereof and make such oral
16statements under oath regarding such hotel, lodging house,
17rooming house or furnished apartment, as the election
18commissioners may require. The election commissioners shall
19sit to hear such citations on the Friday of the fourth week
20preceding the week in which such election is to be held. Such
21citation shall be served not later than the day preceding the
22day on which it is returnable.
23(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
24    (10 ILCS 5/19-4)   (from Ch. 46, par. 19-4)
25    Sec. 19-4. Mailing or delivery of ballots - Time.)

 

 

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1Immediately upon the receipt of such application either by
2mail, not more than 40 days nor less than 5 days prior to such
3election, or by personal delivery not more than 40 days nor
4less than one day prior to such election, at the office of such
5election authority, it shall be the duty of such election
6authority to examine the records to ascertain whether or not
7such applicant is lawfully entitled to vote as requested,
8including a verification of the applicant's signature by
9comparison with the signature on the official registration
10record card, and if found so to be entitled to vote, to post
11within one business day thereafter the name, street address,
12ward and precinct number or township and district number, as
13the case may be, of such applicant given on a list, the pages
14of which are to be numbered consecutively to be kept by such
15election authority for such purpose in a conspicuous, open and
16public place accessible to the public at the entrance of the
17office of such election authority, and in such a manner that
18such list may be viewed without necessity of requesting
19permission therefor. Within one day after posting the name and
20other information of an applicant for an absentee ballot, the
21election authority shall transmit that name and other posted
22information to the State Board of Elections, which shall
23maintain those names and other information in an electronic
24format on its website, arranged by county and accessible to
25State and local political committees. Within 2 business days
26after posting a name and other information on the list within

 

 

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1its office, the election authority shall mail, postage prepaid,
2or deliver in person in such office an official ballot or
3ballots if more than one are to be voted at said election. Mail
4delivery of Temporarily Absent Student ballot applications
5pursuant to Section 19-12.3 shall be by nonforwardable mail.
6However, for the consolidated election, absentee ballots for
7certain precincts may be delivered to applicants not less than
825 days before the election if so much time is required to have
9prepared and printed the ballots containing the names of
10persons nominated for offices at the consolidated primary. The
11election authority shall enclose with each absentee ballot or
12application written instructions on how voting assistance
13shall be provided pursuant to Section 17-14 and a document,
14written and approved by the State Board of Elections,
15enumerating the circumstances under which a person is
16authorized to vote by absentee ballot pursuant to this Article;
17such document shall also include a statement informing the
18applicant that if he or she falsifies or is solicited by
19another to falsify his or her eligibility to cast an absentee
20ballot, such applicant or other is subject to penalties
21pursuant to Section 29-10 and Section 29-20 of the Election
22Code. Each election authority shall maintain a list of the
23name, street address, ward and precinct, or township and
24district number, as the case may be, of all applicants who have
25returned absentee ballots to such authority, and the name of
26such absent voter shall be added to such list within one

 

 

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1business day from receipt of such ballot. If the absentee
2ballot envelope indicates that the voter was assisted in
3casting the ballot, the name of the person so assisting shall
4be included on the list. The list, the pages of which are to be
5numbered consecutively, shall be kept by each election
6authority in a conspicuous, open, and public place accessible
7to the public at the entrance of the office of the election
8authority and in a manner that the list may be viewed without
9necessity of requesting permission for viewing.
10    Each election authority shall maintain a list for each
11election of the voters to whom it has issued absentee ballots.
12The list shall be maintained for each precinct within the
13jurisdiction of the election authority. Prior to the opening of
14the polls on election day, the election authority shall deliver
15to the judges of election in each precinct the list of
16registered voters in that precinct to whom absentee ballots
17have been issued by mail.
18    Each election authority shall maintain a list for each
19election of voters to whom it has issued temporarily absent
20student ballots. The list shall be maintained for each election
21jurisdiction within which such voters temporarily abide.
22Immediately after the close of the period during which
23application may be made by mail for absentee ballots, each
24election authority shall mail to each other election authority
25within the State a certified list of all such voters
26temporarily abiding within the jurisdiction of the other

 

 

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1election authority.
2    In the event that the return address of an application for
3ballot by a physically incapacitated elector is that of a
4facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act
5or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, within the jurisdiction
6of the election authority, and the applicant is a registered
7voter in the precinct in which such facility is located, the
8ballots shall be prepared and transmitted to a responsible
9judge of election no later than 9 a.m. on the Saturday, Sunday
10or Monday immediately preceding the election as designated by
11the election authority under Section 19-12.2. Such judge shall
12deliver in person on the designated day the ballot to the
13applicant on the premises of the facility from which
14application was made. The election authority shall by mail
15notify the applicant in such facility that the ballot will be
16delivered by a judge of election on the designated day.
17    All applications for absentee ballots shall be available at
18the office of the election authority for public inspection upon
19request from the time of receipt thereof by the election
20authority until 30 days after the election, except during the
21time such applications are kept in the office of the election
22authority pursuant to Section 19-7, and except during the time
23such applications are in the possession of the judges of
24election.
25(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 

 

 

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1    (10 ILCS 5/19-12.1)  (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)
2    Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an
3Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card in accordance
4with The Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the
5person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or
6any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of
7such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to
8be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter
9who is a resident of a facility licensed or certified pursuant
10to the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care
11Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to
12make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the
13polls at any future election, may secure a disabled voter's or
14nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable
15him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or
16nursing home voter.
17    Application for a disabled voter's or nursing home
18resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in
19writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or
20board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall
21be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician
22specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity
23or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is
24physically unable to be present at the polls on election days;
25or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county
26clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be,

 

 

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1proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Disabled
2Person Identification Card indicating that the person named
3thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt
4of either the sworn-to application and the physician's
5affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois
6Disabled Person Identification Card indicating that the person
7named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county
8clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a disabled
9voter's or nursing home resident's identification card. Such
10identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years,
11upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new
12card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed
13for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new
14affidavit of the attending physician. The date of expiration of
15such five-year period shall be made known to any interested
16person by the election authority upon the request of such
17person. Applications for the renewal of the identification
18cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less
19than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.
20    Each disabled voter's or nursing home resident's
21identification card shall bear an identification number, which
22shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate
23registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes
24physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender
25his disabled voter's or nursing home resident's identification
26card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners

 

 

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1before the next election.
2    The holder of a disabled voter's or nursing home resident's
3identification card may make application by mail for an
4official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2.
5Such application shall contain the same information as is
6included in the form of application for ballot by a physically
7incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it
8shall also include the applicant's disabled voter's
9identification card number and except that it need not be sworn
10to. If an examination of the records discloses that the
11applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a
12ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall
13be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for physically
14disabled voters, and the manner of voting and returning the
15ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for
16other absentee ballots, except that a statement to be
17subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall
18be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit
19prescribed by Section 19-5.
20    Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in
21connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a
22Class A misdemeanor.
23    For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident"
24includes a resident of a facility licensed under the MR/DD
25Community Care Act.
26(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 

 

 

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1    (10 ILCS 5/19-12.2)  (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.2)
2    Sec. 19-12.2. Voting by physically incapacitated electors
3who have made proper application to the election authority not
4later than 5 days before the regular primary and general
5election of 1980 and before each election thereafter shall be
6conducted on the premises of facilities licensed or certified
7pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
8Community Care Act for the sole benefit of residents of such
9facilities. Such voting shall be conducted during any
10continuous period sufficient to allow all applicants to cast
11their ballots between the hours of 9 a.m. and 7 p.m. either on
12the Friday, Saturday, Sunday or Monday immediately preceding
13the regular election. This absentee voting on one of said days
14designated by the election authority shall be supervised by two
15election judges who must be selected by the election authority
16in the following order of priority: (1) from the panel of
17judges appointed for the precinct in which such facility is
18located, or from a panel of judges appointed for any other
19precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority in
20the same ward or township, as the case may be, in which the
21facility is located or, only in the case where a judge or
22judges from the precinct, township or ward are unavailable to
23serve, (3) from a panel of judges appointed for any other
24precinct within the jurisdiction of the election authority. The
25two judges shall be from different political parties. Not less

 

 

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1than 30 days before each regular election, the election
2authority shall have arranged with the chief administrative
3officer of each facility in his or its election jurisdiction a
4mutually convenient time period on the Friday, Saturday, Sunday
5or Monday immediately preceding the election for such voting on
6the premises of the facility and shall post in a prominent
7place in his or its office a notice of the agreed day and time
8period for conducting such voting at each facility; provided
9that the election authority shall not later than noon on the
10Thursday before the election also post the names and addresses
11of those facilities from which no applications were received
12and in which no supervised absentee voting will be conducted.
13All provisions of this Code applicable to pollwatchers shall be
14applicable herein. To the maximum extent feasible, voting
15booths or screens shall be provided to insure the privacy of
16the voter. Voting procedures shall be as described in Article
1717 of this Code, except that ballots shall be treated as
18absentee ballots and shall not be counted until the close of
19the polls on the following day. After the last voter has
20concluded voting, the judges shall seal the ballots in an
21envelope and affix their signatures across the flap of the
22envelope. Immediately thereafter, the judges shall bring the
23sealed envelope to the office of the election authority who
24shall deliver such ballots to the election authority's central
25ballot counting location prior to the closing of the polls on
26the day of election. The judges of election shall also report

 

 

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1to the election authority the name of any applicant in the
2facility who, due to unforeseen circumstance or condition or
3because of a religious holiday, was unable to vote. In this
4event, the election authority may appoint a qualified person
5from his or its staff to deliver the ballot to such applicant
6on the day of election. This staff person shall follow the same
7procedures prescribed for judges conducting absentee voting in
8such facilities and shall return the ballot to the central
9ballot counting location before the polls close. However, if
10the facility from which the application was made is also used
11as a regular precinct polling place for that voter, voting
12procedures heretofore prescribed may be implemented by 2 of the
13election judges of opposite party affiliation assigned to that
14polling place during the hours of voting on the day of the
15election. Judges of election shall be compensated not less than
16$25.00 for conducting absentee voting in such facilities.
17    Not less than 120 days before each regular election, the
18Department of Public Health shall certify to the State Board of
19Elections a list of the facilities licensed or certified
20pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
21Community Care Act, and shall indicate the approved bed
22capacity and the name of the chief administrative officer of
23each such facility, and the State Board of Elections shall
24certify the same to the appropriate election authority within
2520 days thereafter.
26(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 10. The Secretary of State Merit Employment Code is
2amended by changing Section 18c as follows:
 
3    (15 ILCS 310/18c)  (from Ch. 124, par. 118c)
4    Sec. 18c. Supported employees.
5    (a) The Director shall develop and implement a supported
6employment program. It shall be the goal of the program to
7appoint a minimum of 10 supported employees to Secretary of
8State positions before June 30, 1992.
9    (b) The Director shall designate a liaison to work with
10State agencies and departments under the jurisdiction of the
11Secretary of State and any funder or provider or both in the
12implementation of a supported employment program.
13    (c) As used in this Section:
14        (1) "Supported employee" means any individual who:
15            (A) has a severe physical or mental disability
16        which seriously limits functional capacities including
17        but not limited to mobility, communication, self-care,
18        self-direction, work tolerance or work skills, in
19        terms of employability as defined, determined and
20        certified by the Department of Human Services; and
21            (B) has one or more physical or mental disabilities
22        resulting from amputation; arthritis; blindness;
23        cancer; cerebral palsy; cystic fibrosis; deafness;
24        heart disease; hemiplegia; respiratory or pulmonary

 

 

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1        dysfunction; an intellectual disability mental
2        retardation; mental illness; multiple sclerosis;
3        muscular dystrophy; musculoskeletal disorders;
4        neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy;
5        paraplegia; quadriplegia and other spinal cord
6        conditions; sickle cell anemia; and end-stage renal
7        disease; or another disability or combination of
8        disabilities determined on the basis of an evaluation
9        of rehabilitation potential to cause comparable
10        substantial functional limitation.
11        (2) "Supported employment" means competitive work in
12    integrated work settings:
13            (A) for individuals with severe handicaps for whom
14        competitive employment has not traditionally occurred,
15        or
16            (B) for individuals for whom competitive
17        employment has been interrupted or intermittent as a
18        result of a severe disability, and who because of their
19        handicap, need on-going support services to perform
20        such work. The term includes transitional employment
21        for individuals with chronic mental illness.
22        (3) "Participation in a supported employee program"
23    means participation as a supported employee that is not
24    based on the expectation that an individual will have the
25    skills to perform all the duties in a job class, but on the
26    assumption that with support and adaptation, or both, a job

 

 

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1    can be designed to take advantage of the supported
2    employee's special strengths.
3        (4) "Funder" means any entity either State, local or
4    federal, or private not-for-profit or for-profit that
5    provides monies to programs that provide services related
6    to supported employment.
7        (5) "Provider" means any entity either public or
8    private that provides technical support and services to any
9    department or agency subject to the control of the
10    Governor, the Secretary of State or the University Civil
11    Service System.
12    (d) The Director shall establish job classifications for
13supported employees who may be appointed into the
14classifications without open competitive testing requirements.
15Supported employees shall serve in a trial employment capacity
16for not less than 3 or more than 12 months.
17    (e) The Director shall maintain a record of all individuals
18hired as supported employees. The record shall include:
19        (1) the number of supported employees initially
20    appointed;
21        (2) the number of supported employees who successfully
22    complete the trial employment periods; and
23        (3) the number of permanent targeted positions by
24    titles.
25    (f) The Director shall submit an annual report to the
26General Assembly regarding the employment progress of

 

 

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1supported employees, with recommendations for legislative
2action.
3(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
4    Section 15. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended
5by changing Section 4A as follows:
 
6    (15 ILCS 335/4A)  (from Ch. 124, par. 24A)
7    Sec. 4A. (a) "Disabled person" as used in this Act means
8any person who is, and who is expected to indefinitely continue
9to be, subject to any of the following five types of
10disabilities:
11    Type One: Physical disability. A physical disability is a
12physical impairment, disease, or loss, which is of a permanent
13nature, and which substantially impairs normal physical
14ability or motor skills. The Secretary of State shall establish
15standards not inconsistent with this provision necessary to
16determine the presence of a physical disability.
17    Type Two: Developmental disability. A developmental
18disability is a disability which originates before the age of
1918 years, and results in or has resulted in impairment similar
20to that caused by an intellectual disability mental retardation
21and which requires services similar to those required by
22intellectually disabled mentally retarded persons and which is
23attributable to an intellectual disability mental retardation,
24cerebral palsy, epilepsy, autism, or other conditions or

 

 

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1similar disorders. The Secretary of State shall establish
2standards not inconsistent with this provision necessary to
3determine the presence of a developmental disability.
4    Type Three: Visual disability. A visual disability is a
5disability resulting in complete absence of vision, or vision
6that with corrective glasses is so defective as to prevent
7performance of tasks or activities for which eyesight is
8essential. The Secretary of State shall establish standards not
9inconsistent with this Section necessary to determine the
10presence of a visual disability.
11    Type Four: Hearing disability. A hearing disability is a
12disability resulting in complete absence of hearing, or hearing
13that with sound enhancing or magnifying equipment is so
14impaired as to require the use of sensory input other than
15hearing as the principal means of receiving spoken language.
16The Secretary of State shall establish standards not
17inconsistent with this Section necessary to determine the
18presence of a hearing disability.
19    Type Five: Mental Disability. A mental disability is an
20emotional or psychological impairment or disease, which
21substantially impairs the ability to meet individual or
22societal needs. The Secretary of State shall establish
23standards not inconsistent with this provision necessary to
24determine the presence of a mental disability.
25    (b) For purposes of this Act, a disability shall be
26classified as follows: Class 1 disability: A Class 1 disability

 

 

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1is any type disability which does not render a person unable to
2engage in any substantial gainful activity or which does not
3impair his ability to live independently or to perform labor or
4services for which he is qualified. The Secretary of State
5shall establish standards not inconsistent with this Section
6necessary to determine the presence of a Class 1 disability.
7Class 1A disability: A Class 1A disability is a Class 1
8disability which renders a person unable to walk 200 feet or
9more unassisted by another person or without the aid of a
10walker, crutches, braces, prosthetic device or a wheelchair or
11without great difficulty or discomfort due to the following
12impairments: neurologic, orthopedic, respiratory, cardiac,
13arthritic disorder, or the loss of function or absence of a
14limb or limbs. The Secretary of State shall establish standards
15not inconsistent with this Section necessary to determine the
16presence of a Class 1A disability. Class 2 disability: A Class
172 disability is any type disability which renders a person
18unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity, which
19substantially impairs his ability to live independently
20without supervision or in-home support services, or which
21substantially impairs his ability to perform labor or services
22for which he is qualified or significantly restricts the labor
23or services which he is able to perform. The Secretary of State
24shall establish standards not inconsistent with this Section
25necessary to determine the presence of a Class 2 disability.
26Class 2A disability: A Class 2A disability is a Class 2

 

 

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1disability which renders a person unable to walk 200 feet or
2more unassisted by another person or without the aid of a
3walker, crutches, braces, prosthetic device or a wheelchair or
4without great difficulty or discomfort due to the following
5impairments: neurologic, orthopedic, respiratory, cardiac,
6arthritic disorder, blindness, or the loss of function or
7absence of a limb or limbs. The Secretary of State shall
8establish standards not inconsistent with this Section
9necessary to determine the presence of a Class 2A disability.
10(Source: P.A. 85-354.)
 
11    Section 17. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by
12changing Section 4.08 as follows:
 
13    (20 ILCS 105/4.08)
14    Sec. 4.08. Rural and small town meals program. Subject to
15appropriation, the Department may establish a program to ensure
16the availability of congregate or home-delivered meals in
17communities with populations of under 5,000 that are not
18located within the large urban counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane,
19Lake, or Will.
20    The Department may meet these requirements by entering into
21agreements with Area Agencies on Aging or Department designees,
22which shall in turn enter into grants or contractual agreements
23with such local entities as restaurants, cafes, churches,
24facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD

 

 

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1MR/DD Community Care Act, the Assisted Living and Shared
2Housing Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act, facilities
3certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services,
4senior centers, or Older American Act designated nutrition
5service providers.
6    First consideration shall be given to entities that can
7cost effectively meet the needs of seniors in the community by
8preparing the food locally.
9    In no instance shall funds provided pursuant to this
10Section be used to replace funds allocated to a given area or
11program as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
1295th General Assembly.
13    The Department shall establish guidelines and standards by
14administrative rule, which shall include submission of an
15expenditure plan by the recipient of the funds.
16(Source: P.A. 95-68, eff. 8-13-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08;
1796-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
18    Section 20. The Mental Health and Developmental
19Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing
20Sections 7, 15, 34, 43, 45, 46, and 57.6 as follows:
 
21    (20 ILCS 1705/7)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-7)
22    Sec. 7. To receive and provide the highest possible quality
23of humane and rehabilitative care and treatment to all persons
24admitted or committed or transferred in accordance with law to

 

 

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1the facilities, divisions, programs, and services under the
2jurisdiction of the Department. No resident of another state
3shall be received or retained to the exclusion of any resident
4of this State. No resident of another state shall be received
5or retained to the exclusion of any resident of this State. All
6recipients of 17 years of age and under in residence in a
7Department facility other than a facility for the care of the
8intellectually disabled mentally retarded shall be housed in
9quarters separated from older recipients except for: (a)
10recipients who are placed in medical-surgical units because of
11physical illness; and (b) recipients between 13 and 18 years of
12age who need temporary security measures.
13    All recipients in a Department facility shall be given a
14dental examination by a licensed dentist or registered dental
15hygienist at least once every 18 months and shall be assigned
16to a dentist for such dental care and treatment as is
17necessary.
18    All medications administered to recipients shall be
19administered only by those persons who are legally qualified to
20do so by the laws of the State of Illinois. Medication shall
21not be prescribed until a physical and mental examination of
22the recipient has been completed. If, in the clinical judgment
23of a physician, it is necessary to administer medication to a
24recipient before the completion of the physical and mental
25examination, he may prescribe such medication but he must file
26a report with the facility director setting forth the reasons

 

 

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1for prescribing such medication within 24 hours of the
2prescription. A copy of the report shall be part of the
3recipient's record.
4    No later than January 1, 2005, the Department shall adopt a
5model protocol and forms for recording all patient diagnosis,
6care, and treatment at each State-operated facility for the
7mentally ill and developmentally disabled under the
8jurisdiction of the Department. The model protocol and forms
9shall be used by each facility unless the Department determines
10that equivalent alternatives justify an exemption.
11    Every facility under the jurisdiction of the Department
12shall maintain a copy of each report of suspected abuse or
13neglect of the patient. Copies of those reports shall be made
14available to the State Auditor General in connection with his
15biennial program audit of the facility as required by Section
163-2 of the Illinois State Auditing Act.
17    No later than January 1 2004, the Department shall report
18to the Governor and the General Assembly whether each
19State-operated facility for the mentally ill and
20developmentally disabled under the jurisdiction of the
21Department and all services provided in those facilities comply
22with all of the applicable standards adopted by the Social
23Security Administration under Subchapter XVIII (Medicare) of
24the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395-1395ccc), if the
25facility and services may be eligible for federal financial
26participation under that federal law. For those facilities that

 

 

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1do comply, the report shall indicate what actions need to be
2taken to ensure continued compliance. For those facilities that
3do not comply, the report shall indicate what actions need to
4be taken to bring each facility into compliance.
5(Source: P.A. 93-636, eff. 6-1-04.)
 
6    (20 ILCS 1705/15)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-15)
7    Sec. 15. Before any person is released from a facility
8operated by the State pursuant to an absolute discharge or a
9conditional discharge from hospitalization under this Act, the
10facility director of the facility in which such person is
11hospitalized shall determine that such person is not currently
12in need of hospitalization and:
13        (a) is able to live independently in the community; or
14        (b) requires further oversight and supervisory care
15    for which arrangements have been made with responsible
16    relatives or supervised residential program approved by
17    the Department; or
18        (c) requires further personal care or general
19    oversight as defined by the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act,
20    for which placement arrangements have been made with a
21    suitable family home or other licensed facility approved by
22    the Department under this Section; or
23        (d) requires community mental health services for
24    which arrangements have been made with a community mental
25    health provider in accordance with criteria, standards,

 

 

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1    and procedures promulgated by rule.
2    Such determination shall be made in writing and shall
3become a part of the facility record of such absolutely or
4conditionally discharged person. When the determination
5indicates that the condition of the person to be granted an
6absolute discharge or a conditional discharge is described
7under subparagraph (c) or (d) of this Section, the name and
8address of the continuing care facility or home to which such
9person is to be released shall be entered in the facility
10record. Where a discharge from a mental health facility is made
11under subparagraph (c), the Department shall assign the person
12so discharged to an existing community based not-for-profit
13agency for participation in day activities suitable to the
14person's needs, such as but not limited to social and
15vocational rehabilitation, and other recreational, educational
16and financial activities unless the community based
17not-for-profit agency is unqualified to accept such
18assignment. Where the clientele of any not-for-profit agency
19increases as a result of assignments under this amendatory Act
20of 1977 by more than 3% over the prior year, the Department
21shall fully reimburse such agency for the costs of providing
22services to such persons in excess of such 3% increase. The
23Department shall keep written records detailing how many
24persons have been assigned to a community based not-for-profit
25agency and how many persons were not so assigned because the
26community based agency was unable to accept the assignments, in

 

 

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1accordance with criteria, standards, and procedures
2promulgated by rule. Whenever a community based agency is found
3to be unable to accept the assignments, the name of the agency
4and the reason for the finding shall be included in the report.
5    Insofar as desirable in the interests of the former
6recipient, the facility, program or home in which the
7discharged person is to be placed shall be located in or near
8the community in which the person resided prior to
9hospitalization or in the community in which the person's
10family or nearest next of kin presently reside. Placement of
11the discharged person in facilities, programs or homes located
12outside of this State shall not be made by the Department
13unless there are no appropriate facilities, programs or homes
14available within this State. Out-of-state placements shall be
15subject to return of recipients so placed upon the availability
16of facilities, programs or homes within this State to
17accommodate these recipients, except where placement in a
18contiguous state results in locating a recipient in a facility
19or program closer to the recipient's home or family. If an
20appropriate facility or program becomes available equal to or
21closer to the recipient's home or family, the recipient shall
22be returned to and placed at the appropriate facility or
23program within this State.
24    To place any person who is under a program of the
25Department at board in a suitable family home or in such other
26facility or program as the Department may consider desirable.

 

 

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1The Department may place in licensed nursing homes, sheltered
2care homes, or homes for the aged those persons whose
3behavioral manifestations and medical and nursing care needs
4are such as to be substantially indistinguishable from persons
5already living in such facilities. Prior to any placement by
6the Department under this Section, a determination shall be
7made by the personnel of the Department, as to the capability
8and suitability of such facility to adequately meet the needs
9of the person to be discharged. When specialized programs are
10necessary in order to enable persons in need of supervised
11living to develop and improve in the community, the Department
12shall place such persons only in specialized residential care
13facilities which shall meet Department standards including
14restricted admission policy, special staffing and programming
15for social and vocational rehabilitation, in addition to the
16requirements of the appropriate State licensing agency. The
17Department shall not place any new person in a facility the
18license of which has been revoked or not renewed on grounds of
19inadequate programming, staffing, or medical or adjunctive
20services, regardless of the pendency of an action for
21administrative review regarding such revocation or failure to
22renew. Before the Department may transfer any person to a
23licensed nursing home, sheltered care home or home for the aged
24or place any person in a specialized residential care facility
25the Department shall notify the person to be transferred, or a
26responsible relative of such person, in writing, at least 30

 

 

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1days before the proposed transfer, with respect to all the
2relevant facts concerning such transfer, except in cases of
3emergency when such notice is not required. If either the
4person to be transferred or a responsible relative of such
5person objects to such transfer, in writing to the Department,
6at any time after receipt of notice and before the transfer,
7the facility director of the facility in which the person was a
8recipient shall immediately schedule a hearing at the facility
9with the presence of the facility director, the person who
10objected to such proposed transfer, and a psychiatrist who is
11familiar with the record of the person to be transferred. Such
12person to be transferred or a responsible relative may be
13represented by such counsel or interested party as he may
14appoint, who may present such testimony with respect to the
15proposed transfer. Testimony presented at such hearing shall
16become a part of the facility record of the
17person-to-be-transferred. The record of testimony shall be
18held in the person-to-be-transferred's record in the central
19files of the facility. If such hearing is held a transfer may
20only be implemented, if at all, in accordance with the results
21of such hearing. Within 15 days after such hearing the facility
22director shall deliver his findings based on the record of the
23case and the testimony presented at the hearing, by registered
24or certified mail, to the parties to such hearing. The findings
25of the facility director shall be deemed a final administrative
26decision of the Department. For purposes of this Section, "case

 

 

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1of emergency" means those instances in which the health of the
2person to be transferred is imperiled and the most appropriate
3mental health care or medical care is available at a licensed
4nursing home, sheltered care home or home for the aged or a
5specialized residential care facility.
6    Prior to placement of any person in a facility under this
7Section the Department shall ensure that an appropriate
8training plan for staff is provided by the facility. Said
9training may include instruction and demonstration by
10Department personnel qualified in the area of mental illness or
11intellectual disabilities mental retardation, as applicable to
12the person to be placed. Training may be given both at the
13facility from which the recipient is transferred and at the
14facility receiving the recipient, and may be available on a
15continuing basis subsequent to placement. In a facility
16providing services to former Department recipients, training
17shall be available as necessary for facility staff. Such
18training will be on a continuing basis as the needs of the
19facility and recipients change and further training is
20required.
21    The Department shall not place any person in a facility
22which does not have appropriately trained staff in sufficient
23numbers to accommodate the recipient population already at the
24facility. As a condition of further or future placements of
25persons, the Department shall require the employment of
26additional trained staff members at the facility where said

 

 

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1persons are to be placed. The Secretary, or his or her
2designate, shall establish written guidelines for placement of
3persons in facilities under this Act. The Department shall keep
4written records detailing which facilities have been
5determined to have staff who have been appropriately trained by
6the Department and all training which it has provided or
7required under this Section.
8    Bills for the support for a person boarded out shall be
9payable monthly out of the proper maintenance funds and shall
10be audited as any other accounts of the Department. If a person
11is placed in a facility or program outside the Department, the
12Department may pay the actual costs of residence, treatment or
13maintenance in such facility and may collect such actual costs
14or a portion thereof from the recipient or the estate of a
15person placed in accordance with this Section.
16    Other than those placed in a family home the Department
17shall cause all persons who are placed in a facility, as
18defined by the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, or in designated
19community living situations or programs, to be visited at least
20once during the first month following placement, and once every
21month thereafter for the first year following placement when
22indicated, but at least quarterly. After the first year, the
23Department shall determine at what point the appropriate
24licensing entity for the facility or designated community
25living situation or program will assume the responsibility of
26ensuring that appropriate services are being provided to the

 

 

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1resident. Once that responsibility is assumed, the Department
2may discontinue such visits. If a long term care facility has
3periodic care plan conferences, the visitor may participate in
4those conferences, if such participation is approved by the
5resident or the resident's guardian. Visits shall be made by
6qualified and trained Department personnel, or their designee,
7in the area of mental health or developmental disabilities
8applicable to the person visited, and shall be made on a more
9frequent basis when indicated. The Department may not use as
10designee any personnel connected with or responsible to the
11representatives of any facility in which persons who have been
12transferred under this Section are placed. In the course of
13such visit there shall be consideration of the following areas,
14but not limited thereto: effects of transfer on physical and
15mental health of the person, sufficiency of nursing care and
16medical coverage required by the person, sufficiency of staff
17personnel and ability to provide basic care for the person,
18social, recreational and programmatic activities available for
19the person, and other appropriate aspects of the person's
20environment.
21    A report containing the above observations shall be made to
22the Department, to the licensing agency, and to any other
23appropriate agency subsequent to each visitation. The report
24shall contain recommendations to improve the care and treatment
25of the resident, as necessary, which shall be reviewed by the
26facility's interdisciplinary team and the resident or the

 

 

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1resident's legal guardian.
2    Upon the complaint of any person placed in accordance with
3this Section or any responsible citizen or upon discovery that
4such person has been abused, neglected, or improperly cared
5for, or that the placement does not provide the type of care
6required by the recipient's current condition, the Department
7immediately shall investigate, and determine if the
8well-being, health, care, or safety of any person is affected
9by any of the above occurrences, and if any one of the above
10occurrences is verified, the Department shall remove such
11person at once to a facility of the Department or to another
12facility outside the Department, provided such person's needs
13can be met at said facility. The Department may also provide
14any person placed in accordance with this Section who is
15without available funds, and who is permitted to engage in
16employment outside the facility, such sums for the
17transportation, and other expenses as may be needed by him
18until he receives his wages for such employment.
19    The Department shall promulgate rules and regulations
20governing the purchase of care for persons who are wards of or
21who are receiving services from the Department. Such rules and
22regulations shall apply to all monies expended by any agency of
23the State of Illinois for services rendered by any person,
24corporate entity, agency, governmental agency or political
25subdivision whether public or private outside of the Department
26whether payment is made through a contractual, per-diem or

 

 

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1other arrangement. No funds shall be paid to any person,
2corporation, agency, governmental entity or political
3subdivision without compliance with such rules and
4regulations.
5    The rules and regulations governing purchase of care shall
6describe categories and types of service deemed appropriate for
7purchase by the Department.
8    Any provider of services under this Act may elect to
9receive payment for those services, and the Department is
10authorized to arrange for that payment, by means of direct
11deposit transmittals to the service provider's account
12maintained at a bank, savings and loan association, or other
13financial institution. The financial institution shall be
14approved by the Department, and the deposits shall be in
15accordance with rules and regulations adopted by the
16Department.
17(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
18    (20 ILCS 1705/34)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-34)
19    Sec. 34. To make grants-in-aid to community clinics and
20agencies for psychiatric or clinical services, training,
21research and other mental health, intellectual disabilities
22mental retardation and other developmental disabilities
23programs, for persons of all ages including those aged 3 to 21.
24    In addition to other standards and procedures governing the
25disbursement of grants-in-aid implemented under this Section,

 

 

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1the Secretary shall require that each application for such aid
2submitted by public agencies or public clinics with respect to
3services to be provided by a municipality with a population of
4500,000 or more shall include review and comment by a community
5mental health board that is organized under local authority and
6broadly representative of the geographic, social, cultural,
7and economic interests of the area to be served, and which
8includes persons who are professionals in the field of mental
9health, consumers of services or representative of the general
10public. Within planning and service areas designated by the
11Secretary where more than one clinic or agency applies under
12this paragraph, each application shall be reviewed by a single
13community mental health board that is representative of the
14areas to be served by each clinic or agency.
15    The Secretary may authorize advance disbursements to any
16clinic or agency that has been awarded a grant-in-aid, provided
17that the Secretary shall, within 30 days before the making of
18such disbursement, certify to the Comptroller that (a) the
19provider is eligible to receive that disbursement, and (b) the
20disbursement is made as compensation for services to be
21rendered within 60 days of that certification.
22(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
23    (20 ILCS 1705/43)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-43)
24    Sec. 43. To provide habilitation and care for the
25intellectually disabled mentally retarded and persons with a

 

 

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1developmental disability and counseling for their families in
2accordance with programs established and conducted by the
3Department.
4    In assisting families to place such persons in need of care
5in licensed facilities for the intellectually disabled
6mentally retarded and persons with a developmental disability,
7the Department may supplement the amount a family is able to
8pay, as determined by the Department in accordance with
9Sections 5-105 through 5-116 of the "Mental Health and
10Developmental Disabilities Code" as amended, and the amount
11available from other sources. The Department shall have the
12authority to determine eligibility for placement of a person in
13a private facility.
14    Whenever an intellectually disabled a mentally retarded
15person or a client is placed in a private facility pursuant to
16this Section, such private facility must give the Department
17and the person's guardian or nearest relative, at least 30
18days' notice in writing before such person may be discharged or
19transferred from the private facility, except in an emergency.
20(Source: P.A. 90-14, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
21    (20 ILCS 1705/45)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-45)
22    Sec. 45. The following Acts are repealed:
23    "An Act to provide for the establishment and maintenance of
24services and facilities for severely physically handicapped
25children", approved June 29, 1945.

 

 

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1    "An Act in relation to the visitation, instruction, and
2rehabilitation of major visually handicapped persons and to
3repeal acts herein named", approved July 21, 1959.
4    "An Act in relation to the rehabilitation of physically
5handicapped persons", approved June 28, 1919.
6    "An Act for the treatment, care and maintenance of persons
7mentally ill or in need of mental treatment who are inmates of
8the Illinois Soldiers' and Sailors' Home", approved June 15,
91895, as amended.
10    "An Act to establish and maintain a home for the disabled
11mothers, wives, widows and daughters of disabled or deceased
12soldiers in the State of Illinois, and to provide for the
13purchase and maintenance thereof", approved June 13, 1895, as
14amended.
15    "An Act to establish and maintain a Soldiers' and Sailors'
16Home in the State of Illinois, and making an appropriation for
17the purchase of land and the construction of the necessary
18buildings", approved June 26, 1885, as amended.
19    "An Act in relation to the disposal of certain funds and
20property which now are or hereafter may be in the custody of
21the managing officer of the Illinois Soldiers' and Sailors'
22Home at Quincy", approved June 24, 1921.
23    "An Act in relation to the establishment in the Department
24of Public Welfare of a Division to be known as the Institute
25for Juvenile Research and to define its powers and duties",
26approved July 16, 1941.

 

 

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1    "An Act to provide for the establishment, maintenance and
2operation of the Southern Illinois Children's Service Center",
3approved August 2, 1951.
4    "An Act to change the name of the Illinois Charitable Eye
5and Ear Infirmary", approved June 27, 1923.
6    "An Act to establish and provide for the conduct of an
7institution for the care and custody of persons of unsound or
8feeble mind, to be known as the Illinois Security Hospital, and
9to designate the classes of persons to be confined therein",
10approved June 30, 1933, as amended.
11    Sections one through 27 and Sections 29 through 34 of "An
12Act to revise the laws relating to charities", approved June
1311, 1912, as amended.
14    "An Act creating a Division of Alcoholism in the Department
15of Public Welfare, defining its rights, powers and duties, and
16making an appropriation therefor", approved July 5, 1957.
17    "An Act to establish in the Department of Public Welfare a
18Psychiatric Training and Research Authority", approved July
1914, 1955.
20    "An Act creating the Advisory Board on Intellectual
21Disabilities Mental Retardation in the Department of Public
22Welfare, defining its powers and duties and making an
23appropriation therefor", approved July 17, 1959.
24    "An Act to provide for the construction, equipment, and
25operation of a psychiatric institute state hospital to promote
26and advance knowledge, through research, in the causes and

 

 

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1treatment of mental illness; to train competent psychiatric
2personnel available for service in the state hospitals and
3elsewhere; and to contribute to meeting the need for treatment
4for mentally ill patients", approved June 30, 1953, as amended.
5    "An Act in relation to the disposal of certain funds and
6property paid to, or received by, the officials of the State
7institutions under the direction and supervision of the
8Department of Public Welfare", approved June 10, 1929.
9    "An Act to require professional persons having patients
10with major visual limitations to report information regarding
11such cases to the Department of Public Welfare and to authorize
12the Department to inform such patients of services and training
13available," approved July 5, 1957.
14    Sections 3, 4, 5, 5a, 6, 22, 24, 25, 26 of "An Act to
15regulate the state charitable institutions and the state reform
16school, and to improve their organization and increase their
17efficiency," approved April 15, 1875.
18(Source: Laws 1961, p. 2666.)
 
19    (20 ILCS 1705/46)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-46)
20    Sec. 46. Separation between the sexes shall be maintained
21relative to sleeping quarters in each facility under the
22jurisdiction of the Department, except in relation to quarters
23for intellectually disabled mentally retarded children under
24age 6 and quarters for severely-profoundly intellectually
25disabled mentally retarded persons and nonambulatory

 

 

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1intellectually disabled mentally retarded persons, regardless
2of age.
3(Source: P.A. 85-971.)
 
4    (20 ILCS 1705/57.6)
5    Sec. 57.6. Adult autism; funding for services. Subject to
6appropriations, the Department, or independent contractual
7consultants engaged by the Department, shall research possible
8funding streams for the development and implementation of
9services for adults with autism spectrum disorders without an
10intellectual disability mental retardation. Independent
11consultants must have expertise in Medicaid services and
12alternative federal and State funding mechanisms. The research
13may include, but need not be limited to, research of a Medicaid
14state plan amendment, a Section 1915(c) home and community
15based waiver, a Section 1115 research and demonstration waiver,
16vocational rehabilitation funding, mental health block grants,
17and other appropriate funding sources. The Department shall
18report the results of the research and its recommendations to
19the Governor and the General Assembly by April 1, 2008.
20(Source: P.A. 95-106, eff. 1-1-08.)
 
21    Section 22. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is
22amended by changing Sections 2310-550, 2310-560, 2310-565, and
232310-625 as follows:
 

 

 

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1    (20 ILCS 2310/2310-550)  (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.40)
2    Sec. 2310-550. Long-term care facilities. The Department
3may perform, in all long-term care facilities as defined in the
4Nursing Home Care Act and all facilities as defined in the
5ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, all inspection, evaluation,
6certification, and inspection of care duties that the federal
7government may require the State of Illinois to perform or have
8performed as a condition of participation in any programs under
9Title XVIII or Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.
10(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
11    (20 ILCS 2310/2310-560)  (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.87)
12    Sec. 2310-560. Advisory committees concerning construction
13of facilities.
14    (a) The Director shall appoint an advisory committee. The
15committee shall be established by the Department by rule. The
16Director and the Department shall consult with the advisory
17committee concerning the application of building codes and
18Department rules related to those building codes to facilities
19under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Nursing
20Home Care Act, and the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
21    (b) The Director shall appoint an advisory committee to
22advise the Department and to conduct informal dispute
23resolution concerning the application of building codes for new
24and existing construction and related Department rules and
25standards under the Hospital Licensing Act, including without

 

 

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1limitation rules and standards for (i) design and construction,
2(ii) engineering and maintenance of the physical plant, site,
3equipment, and systems (heating, cooling, electrical,
4ventilation, plumbing, water, sewer, and solid waste
5disposal), and (iii) fire and safety. The advisory committee
6shall be composed of all of the following members:
7        (1) The chairperson or an elected representative from
8    the Hospital Licensing Board under the Hospital Licensing
9    Act.
10        (2) Two health care architects with a minimum of 10
11    years of experience in institutional design and building
12    code analysis.
13        (3) Two engineering professionals (one mechanical and
14    one electrical) with a minimum of 10 years of experience in
15    institutional design and building code analysis.
16        (4) One commercial interior design professional with a
17    minimum of 10 years of experience.
18        (5) Two representatives from provider associations.
19        (6) The Director or his or her designee, who shall
20    serve as the committee moderator.
21    Appointments shall be made with the concurrence of the
22Hospital Licensing Board. The committee shall submit
23recommendations concerning the application of building codes
24and related Department rules and standards to the Hospital
25Licensing Board for review and comment prior to submission to
26the Department. The committee shall submit recommendations

 

 

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1concerning informal dispute resolution to the Director. The
2Department shall provide per diem and travel expenses to the
3committee members.
4(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
5    (20 ILCS 2310/2310-565)  (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.88)
6    Sec. 2310-565. Facility construction training program. The
7Department shall conduct, at least annually, a joint in-service
8training program for architects, engineers, interior
9designers, and other persons involved in the construction of a
10facility under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act,
11the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act,
12or the Hospital Licensing Act on problems and issues relating
13to the construction of facilities under any of those Acts.
14(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
15    (20 ILCS 2310/2310-625)
16    Sec. 2310-625. Emergency Powers.
17    (a) Upon proclamation of a disaster by the Governor, as
18provided for in the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act,
19the Director of Public Health shall have the following powers,
20which shall be exercised only in coordination with the Illinois
21Emergency Management Agency and the Department of Financial and
22Professional Regulation:
23        (1) The power to suspend the requirements for temporary
24    or permanent licensure or certification of persons who are

 

 

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1    licensed or certified in another state and are working
2    under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management
3    Agency and the Illinois Department of Public Health
4    pursuant to the declared disaster.
5        (2) The power to modify the scope of practice
6    restrictions under the Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
7    Systems Act for any persons who are licensed under that Act
8    for any person working under the direction of the Illinois
9    Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of
10    Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.
11        (3) The power to modify the scope of practice
12    restrictions under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD
13    MR/DD Community Care Act for Certified Nursing Assistants
14    for any person working under the direction of the Illinois
15    Emergency Management Agency and the Illinois Department of
16    Public Health pursuant to the declared disaster.
17    (b) Persons exempt from licensure or certification under
18paragraph (1) of subsection (a) and persons operating under
19modified scope of practice provisions under paragraph (2) of
20subsection (a) and paragraph (3) of subsection (a) shall be
21exempt from licensure or certification or subject to modified
22scope of practice only until the declared disaster has ended as
23provided by law. For purposes of this Section, persons working
24under the direction of an emergency services and disaster
25agency accredited by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency
26and a local public health department, pursuant to a declared

 

 

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1disaster, shall be deemed to be working under the direction of
2the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the Department of
3Public Health.
4    (c) The Director shall exercise these powers by way of
5proclamation.
6(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
7    Section 25. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is
8amended by changing Sections 10 and 52 as follows:
 
9    (20 ILCS 2407/10)
10    Sec. 10. Application of Act; definitions.
11    (a) This Act applies to persons with disabilities. The
12disabilities included are defined for purposes of this Act as
13follows:
14    "Disability" means a disability as defined by the Americans
15with Disabilities Act of 1990 that is attributable to a
16developmental disability, a mental illness, or a physical
17disability, or combination of those.
18    "Developmental disability" means a disability that is
19attributable to an intellectual disability mental retardation
20or a related condition. A related condition must meet all of
21the following conditions:
22        (1) It must be attributable to cerebral palsy,
23    epilepsy, or any other condition (other than mental
24    illness) found to be closely related to an intellectual

 

 

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1    disability mental retardation because that condition
2    results in impairment of general intellectual functioning
3    or adaptive behavior similar to that of individuals with an
4    intellectual disability mental retardation, and requires
5    treatment or services similar to those required for those
6    individuals. For purposes of this Section, autism is
7    considered a related condition.
8        (2) It must be manifested before the individual reaches
9    age 22.
10        (3) It must be likely to continue indefinitely.
11        (4) It must result in substantial functional
12    limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major
13    life activity: self-care, language, learning, mobility,
14    self-direction, and capacity for independent living.
15    "Mental Illness" means a mental or emotional disorder
16verified by a diagnosis contained in the Diagnostic and
17Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders-Fourth Edition,
18published by the American Psychiatric Association (DSM-IV), or
19its successor, or International Classification of Diseases,
209th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM), or its
21successor, that substantially impairs a person's cognitive,
22emotional, or behavioral functioning, or any combination of
23those, excluding (i) conditions that may be the focus of
24clinical attention but are not of sufficient duration or
25severity to be categorized as a mental illness, such as
26parent-child relational problems, partner-relational problems,

 

 

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1sexual abuse of a child, bereavement, academic problems,
2phase-of-life problems, and occupational problems
3(collectively, "V codes"), (ii) organic disorders such as
4substance intoxication dementia, substance withdrawal
5dementia, Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, dementia due
6to HIV infection, and dementia due to Creutzfeld-Jakob disease
7and disorders associated with known or unknown physical
8conditions such as hallucinosis, amnestic disorders and
9delirium, and psychoactive substance-induced organic
10disorders, and (iii) an intellectual disability mental
11retardation or psychoactive substance use disorders.
12    "Intellectual disability Mental retardation" means
13significantly sub-average general intellectual functioning
14existing concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior and
15manifested before the age of 22 years.
16    "Physical disability" means a disability as defined by the
17Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 that meets the
18following criteria:
19        (1) It is attributable to a physical impairment.
20        (2) It results in a substantial functional limitation
21    in any of the following areas of major life activity: (i)
22    self-care, (ii) receptive and expressive language, (iii)
23    learning, (iv) mobility, (v) self-direction, (vi) capacity
24    for independent living, and (vii) economic sufficiency.
25        (3) It reflects the person's need for a combination and
26    sequence of special, interdisciplinary, or general care,

 

 

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1    treatment, or other services that are of lifelong or of
2    extended duration and must be individually planned and
3    coordinated.
4    (b) In this Act:
5    "Chronological age-appropriate services" means services,
6activities, and strategies for persons with disabilities that
7are representative of the lifestyle activities of nondisabled
8peers of similar age in the community.
9    "Comprehensive evaluation" means procedures used by
10qualified professionals selectively with an individual to
11determine whether a person has a disability and the nature and
12extent of the services that the person with a disability needs.
13    "Department" means the Department on Aging, the Department
14of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, the
15Department of Public Aid (now Department Healthcare and Family
16Services), the University of Illinois Division of Specialized
17Care for Children, the Department of Children and Family
18Services, and the Illinois State Board of Education, where
19appropriate, as designated in the implementation plan
20developed under Section 20.
21    "Family" means a natural, adoptive, or foster parent or
22parents or other person or persons responsible for the care of
23an individual with a disability in a family setting.
24    "Family or individual support" means those resources and
25services that are necessary to maintain an individual with a
26disability within the family home or his or her own home. These

 

 

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1services may include, but are not limited to, cash subsidy,
2respite care, and counseling services.
3    "Independent service coordination" means a social service
4that enables persons with developmental disabilities and their
5families to locate, use, and coordinate resources and
6opportunities in their communities on the basis of individual
7need. Independent service coordination is independent of
8providers of services and funding sources and is designed to
9ensure accessibility, continuity of care, and accountability
10and to maximize the potential of persons with developmental
11disabilities for independence, productivity, and integration
12into the community. Independent service coordination includes,
13at a minimum: (i) outreach to identify eligible individuals;
14(ii) assessment and periodic reassessment to determine each
15individual's strengths, functional limitations, and need for
16specific services; (iii) participation in the development of a
17comprehensive individual service or treatment plan; (iv)
18referral to and linkage with needed services and supports; (v)
19monitoring to ensure the delivery of appropriate services and
20to determine individual progress in meeting goals and
21objectives; and (vi) advocacy to assist the person in obtaining
22all services for which he or she is eligible or entitled.
23    "Individual service or treatment plan" means a recorded
24assessment of the needs of a person with a disability, a
25description of the services recommended, the goals of each type
26of element of service, an anticipated timetable for the

 

 

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1accomplishment of the goals, and a designation of the qualified
2professionals responsible for the implementation of the plan.
3    "Least restrictive environment" means an environment that
4represents the least departure from the normal patterns of
5living and that effectively meets the needs of the person
6receiving the service.
7(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)
 
8    (20 ILCS 2407/52)
9    Sec. 52. Applicability; definitions. In accordance with
10Section 6071 of the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (P.L.
11109-171), as used in this Article:
12    "Departments". The term "Departments" means for the
13purposes of this Act, the Department of Human Services, the
14Department on Aging, Department of Healthcare and Family
15Services and Department of Public Health, unless otherwise
16noted.
17    "Home and community-based long-term care services". The
18term "home and community-based long-term care services" means,
19with respect to the State Medicaid program, a service aid, or
20benefit, home and community-based services, including but not
21limited to home health and personal care services, that are
22provided to a person with a disability, and are voluntarily
23accepted, as part of his or her long-term care that: (i) is
24provided under the State's qualified home and community-based
25program or that could be provided under such a program but is

 

 

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1otherwise provided under the Medicaid program; (ii) is
2delivered in a qualified residence; and (iii) is necessary for
3the person with a disability to live in the community.
4    "ID/DD MR/DD community care facility". The term "ID/DD MR/DD
5community care facility", for the purposes of this Article,
6means a skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care facility
7subject to licensure by the Department of Public Health under
8the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, an intermediate care
9facility for the developmentally disabled (ICF-DDs), and a
10State-operated developmental center or mental health center,
11whether publicly or privately owned.
12    "Money Follows the Person" Demonstration. Enacted by the
13Deficit Reduction Act of 2005, the Money Follows the Person
14(MFP) Rebalancing Demonstration is part of a comprehensive,
15coordinated strategy to assist states, in collaboration with
16stakeholders, to make widespread changes to their long-term
17care support systems. This initiative will assist states in
18their efforts to reduce their reliance on institutional care
19while developing community-based long-term care opportunities,
20enabling the elderly and people with disabilities to fully
21participate in their communities.
22    "Public funds" mean any funds appropriated by the General
23Assembly to the Departments of Human Services, on Aging, of
24Healthcare and Family Services and of Public Health for
25settings and services as defined in this Article.
26    "Qualified residence". The term "qualified residence"

 

 

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1means, with respect to an eligible individual: (i) a home owned
2or leased by the individual or the individual's authorized
3representative (as defined by P.L. 109-171); (ii) an apartment
4with an individual lease, with lockable access and egress, and
5which includes living, sleeping, bathing, and cooking areas
6over which the individual or the individual's family has domain
7and control; or (iii) a residence, in a community-based
8residential setting, in which no more than 4 unrelated
9individuals reside. Where qualified residences are not
10sufficient to meet the demand of eligible individuals,
11time-limited exceptions to this definition may be developed
12through administrative rule.
13    "Self-directed services". The term "self-directed
14services" means, with respect to home and community-based
15long-term services for an eligible individual, those services
16for the individual that are planned and purchased under the
17direction and control of the individual or the individual's
18authorized representative, including the amount, duration,
19scope, provider, and location of such services, under the State
20Medicaid program consistent with the following requirements:
21        (a) Assessment: there is an assessment of the needs,
22    capabilities, and preference of the individual with
23    respect to such services.
24        (b) Individual service care or treatment plan: based on
25    the assessment, there is development jointly with such
26    individual or individual's authorized representative, a

 

 

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1    plan for such services for the individual that (i)
2    specifies those services, if any, that the individual or
3    the individual's authorized representative would be
4    responsible for directing; (ii) identifies the methods by
5    which the individual or the individual's authorized
6    representative or an agency designated by an individual or
7    representative will select, manage, and dismiss providers
8    of such services.
9(Source: P.A. 95-438, eff. 1-1-08; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
10    Section 26. The Abuse of Adults with Disabilities
11Intervention Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:
 
12    (20 ILCS 2435/15)  (from Ch. 23, par. 3395-15)
13    Sec. 15. Definitions. As used in this Act:
14    "Abuse" means causing any physical, sexual, or mental
15injury to an adult with disabilities, including exploitation of
16the adult's financial resources. Nothing in this Act shall be
17construed to mean that an adult with disabilities is a victim
18of abuse or neglect for the sole reason that he or she is being
19furnished with or relies upon treatment by spiritual means
20through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets and
21practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.
22Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an adult
23with disabilities is a victim of abuse because of health care
24services provided or not provided by licensed health care

 

 

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1professionals.
2    "Adult with disabilities" means a person aged 18 through 59
3who resides in a domestic living situation and whose physical
4or mental disability impairs his or her ability to seek or
5obtain protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
6    "Department" means the Department of Human Services.
7    "Adults with Disabilities Abuse Project" or "project"
8means that program within the Office of Inspector General
9designated by the Department of Human Services to receive and
10assess reports of alleged or suspected abuse, neglect, or
11exploitation of adults with disabilities.
12    "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the
13adult with disabilities lives alone or with his or her family
14or household members, a care giver, or others or at a board and
15care home or other community-based unlicensed facility, but is
16not:
17        (1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of
18    the Nursing Home Care Act or Section 1-113 of the ID/DD
19    MR/DD Community Care Act.
20        (2) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care
21    Facilities Act.
22        (3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the
23    federal government, a federal agency, or the State.
24        (4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the
25    principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis,
26    care, and treatment of human illness through the

 

 

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1    maintenance and operation of organized facilities and that
2    is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing
3    Act.
4        (5) A community living facility as defined in the
5    Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.
6        (6) A community-integrated living arrangement as
7    defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements
8    Licensure and Certification Act or community residential
9    alternative as licensed under that Act.
10    "Emergency" means a situation in which an adult with
11disabilities is in danger of death or great bodily harm.
12    "Exploitation" means the illegal, including tortious, use
13of the assets or resources of an adult with disabilities.
14Exploitation includes, but is not limited to, the
15misappropriation of assets or resources of an adult with
16disabilities by undue influence, by breach of a fiduciary
17relationship, by fraud, deception, or extortion, or by the use
18of the assets or resources in a manner contrary to law.
19    "Family or household members" means a person who as a
20family member, volunteer, or paid care provider has assumed
21responsibility for all or a portion of the care of an adult
22with disabilities who needs assistance with activities of daily
23living.
24    "Neglect" means the failure of another individual to
25provide an adult with disabilities with or the willful
26withholding from an adult with disabilities the necessities of

 

 

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1life, including, but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter,
2or medical care.
3Nothing in the definition of "neglect" shall be construed to
4impose a requirement that assistance be provided to an adult
5with disabilities over his or her objection in the absence of a
6court order, nor to create any new affirmative duty to provide
7support, assistance, or intervention to an adult with
8disabilities. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean
9that an adult with disabilities is a victim of neglect because
10of health care services provided or not provided by licensed
11health care professionals.
12    "Physical abuse" includes sexual abuse and means any of the
13following:
14        (1) knowing or reckless use of physical force,
15    confinement, or restraint;
16        (2) knowing, repeated, and unnecessary sleep
17    deprivation; or
18        (3) knowing or reckless conduct which creates an
19    immediate risk of physical harm.
20    "Secretary" means the Secretary of Human Services.
21    "Sexual abuse" means touching, fondling, sexual threats,
22sexually inappropriate remarks, or any other sexual activity
23with an adult with disabilities when the adult with
24disabilities is unable to understand, unwilling to consent,
25threatened, or physically forced to engage in sexual behavior.
26    "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged or

 

 

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1suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation in which the Adults
2with Disabilities Abuse Project staff, after assessment,
3determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or
4exploitation has occurred.
5(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
6    Section 27. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended
7by changing Section 801-10 as follows:
 
8    (20 ILCS 3501/801-10)
9    Sec. 801-10. Definitions. The following terms, whenever
10used or referred to in this Act, shall have the following
11meanings, except in such instances where the context may
12clearly indicate otherwise:
13    (a) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Finance
14Authority created by this Act.
15    (b) The term "project" means an industrial project,
16conservation project, housing project, public purpose project,
17higher education project, health facility project, cultural
18institution project, agricultural facility or agribusiness,
19and "project" may include any combination of one or more of the
20foregoing undertaken jointly by any person with one or more
21other persons.
22    (c) The term "public purpose project" means any project or
23facility including without limitation land, buildings,
24structures, machinery, equipment and all other real and

 

 

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1personal property, which is authorized or required by law to be
2acquired, constructed, improved, rehabilitated, reconstructed,
3replaced or maintained by any unit of government or any other
4lawful public purpose which is authorized or required by law to
5be undertaken by any unit of government.
6    (d) The term "industrial project" means the acquisition,
7construction, refurbishment, creation, development or
8redevelopment of any facility, equipment, machinery, real
9property or personal property for use by any instrumentality of
10the State or its political subdivisions, for use by any person
11or institution, public or private, for profit or not for
12profit, or for use in any trade or business including, but not
13limited to, any industrial, manufacturing or commercial
14enterprise and which is (1) a capital project including but not
15limited to: (i) land and any rights therein, one or more
16buildings, structures or other improvements, machinery and
17equipment, whether now existing or hereafter acquired, and
18whether or not located on the same site or sites; (ii) all
19appurtenances and facilities incidental to the foregoing,
20including, but not limited to utilities, access roads, railroad
21sidings, track, docking and similar facilities, parking
22facilities, dockage, wharfage, railroad roadbed, track,
23trestle, depot, terminal, switching and signaling or related
24equipment, site preparation and landscaping; and (iii) all
25non-capital costs and expenses relating thereto or (2) any
26addition to, renovation, rehabilitation or improvement of a

 

 

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1capital project or (3) any activity or undertaking which the
2Authority determines will aid, assist or encourage economic
3growth, development or redevelopment within the State or any
4area thereof, will promote the expansion, retention or
5diversification of employment opportunities within the State
6or any area thereof or will aid in stabilizing or developing
7any industry or economic sector of the State economy. The term
8"industrial project" also means the production of motion
9pictures.
10    (e) The term "bond" or "bonds" shall include bonds, notes
11(including bond, grant or revenue anticipation notes),
12certificates and/or other evidences of indebtedness
13representing an obligation to pay money, including refunding
14bonds.
15    (f) The terms "lease agreement" and "loan agreement" shall
16mean: (i) an agreement whereby a project acquired by the
17Authority by purchase, gift or lease is leased to any person,
18corporation or unit of local government which will use or cause
19the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon
20terms providing for lease rental payments at least sufficient
21to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any,
22on any bonds of the Authority issued with respect to such
23project, providing for the maintenance, insuring and operation
24of the project on terms satisfactory to the Authority,
25providing for disposition of the project upon termination of
26the lease term, including purchase options or abandonment of

 

 

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1the premises, and such other terms as may be deemed desirable
2by the Authority, or (ii) any agreement pursuant to which the
3Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of its bonds issued with
4respect to a project or other funds of the Authority to any
5person which will use or cause the project to be used as a
6project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for loan
7repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all
8principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the
9Authority, if any, issued with respect to the project, and
10providing for maintenance, insurance and other matters as may
11be deemed desirable by the Authority.
12    (g) The term "financial aid" means the expenditure of
13Authority funds or funds provided by the Authority through the
14issuance of its bonds, notes or other evidences of indebtedness
15or from other sources for the development, construction,
16acquisition or improvement of a project.
17    (h) The term "person" means an individual, corporation,
18unit of government, business trust, estate, trust, partnership
19or association, 2 or more persons having a joint or common
20interest, or any other legal entity.
21    (i) The term "unit of government" means the federal
22government, the State or unit of local government, a school
23district, or any agency or instrumentality, office, officer,
24department, division, bureau, commission, college or
25university thereof.
26    (j) The term "health facility" means: (a) any public or

 

 

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1private institution, place, building, or agency required to be
2licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; (b) any public or
3private institution, place, building, or agency required to be
4licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
5Community Care Act; (c) any public or licensed private hospital
6as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
7Code; (d) any such facility exempted from such licensure when
8the Director of Public Health attests that such exempted
9facility meets the statutory definition of a facility subject
10to licensure; (e) any other public or private health service
11institution, place, building, or agency which the Director of
12Public Health attests is subject to certification by the
13Secretary, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under
14the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, or which
15the Director of Public Health attests is subject to
16standard-setting by a recognized public or voluntary
17accrediting or standard-setting agency; (f) any public or
18private institution, place, building or agency engaged in
19providing one or more supporting services to a health facility;
20(g) any public or private institution, place, building or
21agency engaged in providing training in the healing arts,
22including but not limited to schools of medicine, dentistry,
23osteopathy, optometry, podiatry, pharmacy or nursing, schools
24for the training of x-ray, laboratory or other health care
25technicians and schools for the training of para-professionals
26in the health care field; (h) any public or private congregate,

 

 

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1life or extended care or elderly housing facility or any public
2or private home for the aged or infirm, including, without
3limitation, any Facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities
4Act; (i) any public or private mental, emotional or physical
5rehabilitation facility or any public or private educational,
6counseling, or rehabilitation facility or home, for those
7persons with a developmental disability, those who are
8physically ill or disabled, the emotionally disturbed, those
9persons with a mental illness or persons with learning or
10similar disabilities or problems; (j) any public or private
11alcohol, drug or substance abuse diagnosis, counseling
12treatment or rehabilitation facility, (k) any public or private
13institution, place, building or agency licensed by the
14Department of Children and Family Services or which is not so
15licensed but which the Director of Children and Family Services
16attests provides child care, child welfare or other services of
17the type provided by facilities subject to such licensure; (l)
18any public or private adoption agency or facility; and (m) any
19public or private blood bank or blood center. "Health facility"
20also means a public or private structure or structures suitable
21primarily for use as a laboratory, laundry, nurses or interns
22residence or other housing or hotel facility used in whole or
23in part for staff, employees or students and their families,
24patients or relatives of patients admitted for treatment or
25care in a health facility, or persons conducting business with
26a health facility, physician's facility, surgicenter,

 

 

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1administration building, research facility, maintenance,
2storage or utility facility and all structures or facilities
3related to any of the foregoing or required or useful for the
4operation of a health facility, including parking or other
5facilities or other supporting service structures required or
6useful for the orderly conduct of such health facility. "Health
7facility" also means, with respect to a project located outside
8the State, any public or private institution, place, building,
9or agency which provides services similar to those described
10above, provided that such project is owned, operated, leased or
11managed by a participating health institution located within
12the State, or a participating health institution affiliated
13with an entity located within the State.
14    (k) The term "participating health institution" means (i) a
15private corporation or association or (ii) a public entity of
16this State, in either case authorized by the laws of this State
17or the applicable state to provide or operate a health facility
18as defined in this Act and which, pursuant to the provisions of
19this Act, undertakes the financing, construction or
20acquisition of a project or undertakes the refunding or
21refinancing of obligations, loans, indebtedness or advances as
22provided in this Act.
23    (l) The term "health facility project", means a specific
24health facility work or improvement to be financed or
25refinanced (including without limitation through reimbursement
26of prior expenditures), acquired, constructed, enlarged,

 

 

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1remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, with
2funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, any accounts
3receivable, working capital, liability or insurance cost or
4operating expense financing or refinancing program of a health
5facility with or involving funds provided in whole or in part
6hereunder, or any combination thereof.
7    (m) The term "bond resolution" means the resolution or
8resolutions authorizing the issuance of, or providing terms and
9conditions related to, bonds issued under this Act and
10includes, where appropriate, any trust agreement, trust
11indenture, indenture of mortgage or deed of trust providing
12terms and conditions for such bonds.
13    (n) The term "property" means any real, personal or mixed
14property, whether tangible or intangible, or any interest
15therein, including, without limitation, any real estate,
16leasehold interests, appurtenances, buildings, easements,
17equipment, furnishings, furniture, improvements, machinery,
18rights of way, structures, accounts, contract rights or any
19interest therein.
20    (o) The term "revenues" means, with respect to any project,
21the rents, fees, charges, interest, principal repayments,
22collections and other income or profit derived therefrom.
23    (p) The term "higher education project" means, in the case
24of a private institution of higher education, an educational
25facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled,
26renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any

 

 

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1combination thereof.
2    (q) The term "cultural institution project" means, in the
3case of a cultural institution, a cultural facility to be
4acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated,
5improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.
6    (r) The term "educational facility" means any property
7located within the State, or any property located outside the
8State, provided that, if the property is located outside the
9State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an
10entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an
11entity located within the State, in each case constructed or
12acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which
13is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the
14instruction, feeding, recreation or housing of students, the
15conducting of research or other work of a private institution
16of higher education, the use by a private institution of higher
17education in connection with any educational, research or
18related or incidental activities then being or to be conducted
19by it, or any combination of the foregoing, including, without
20limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in
21connection with any one or more of the following: an academic
22facility, administrative facility, agricultural facility,
23assembly hall, athletic facility, auditorium, boating
24facility, campus, communication facility, computer facility,
25continuing education facility, classroom, dining hall,
26dormitory, exhibition hall, fire fighting facility, fire

 

 

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1prevention facility, food service and preparation facility,
2gymnasium, greenhouse, health care facility, hospital,
3housing, instructional facility, laboratory, library,
4maintenance facility, medical facility, museum, offices,
5parking area, physical education facility, recreational
6facility, research facility, stadium, storage facility,
7student union, study facility, theatre or utility.
8    (s) The term "cultural facility" means any property located
9within the State, or any property located outside the State,
10provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it
11must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located
12within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located
13within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before
14or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be,
15in whole or in part, suitable for the particular purposes or
16needs of a cultural institution, including, without
17limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in
18connection with any one or more of the following: an
19administrative facility, aquarium, assembly hall, auditorium,
20botanical garden, exhibition hall, gallery, greenhouse,
21library, museum, scientific laboratory, theater or zoological
22facility, and shall also include, without limitation, books,
23works of art or music, animal, plant or aquatic life or other
24items for display, exhibition or performance. The term
25"cultural facility" includes buildings on the National
26Register of Historic Places which are owned or operated by

 

 

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1nonprofit entities.
2    (t) "Private institution of higher education" means a
3not-for-profit educational institution which is not owned by
4the State or any political subdivision, agency,
5instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which is
6authorized by law to provide a program of education beyond the
7high school level and which:
8        (1) Admits as regular students only individuals having
9    a certificate of graduation from a high school, or the
10    recognized equivalent of such a certificate;
11        (2) Provides an educational program for which it awards
12    a bachelor's degree, or provides an educational program,
13    admission into which is conditioned upon the prior
14    attainment of a bachelor's degree or its equivalent, for
15    which it awards a postgraduate degree, or provides not less
16    than a 2-year program which is acceptable for full credit
17    toward such a degree, or offers a 2-year program in
18    engineering, mathematics, or the physical or biological
19    sciences which is designed to prepare the student to work
20    as a technician and at a semiprofessional level in
21    engineering, scientific, or other technological fields
22    which require the understanding and application of basic
23    engineering, scientific, or mathematical principles or
24    knowledge;
25        (3) Is accredited by a nationally recognized
26    accrediting agency or association or, if not so accredited,

 

 

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1    is an institution whose credits are accepted, on transfer,
2    by not less than 3 institutions which are so accredited,
3    for credit on the same basis as if transferred from an
4    institution so accredited, and holds an unrevoked
5    certificate of approval under the Private College Act from
6    the Board of Higher Education, or is qualified as a "degree
7    granting institution" under the Academic Degree Act; and
8        (4) Does not discriminate in the admission of students
9    on the basis of race or color. "Private institution of
10    higher education" also includes any "academic
11    institution".
12    (u) The term "academic institution" means any
13not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or
14any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district
15or municipality thereof, which institution engages in, or
16facilitates academic, scientific, educational or professional
17research or learning in a field or fields of study taught at a
18private institution of higher education. Academic institutions
19include, without limitation, libraries, archives, academic,
20scientific, educational or professional societies,
21institutions, associations or foundations having such
22purposes.
23    (v) The term "cultural institution" means any
24not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or
25any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district
26or municipality thereof, which institution engages in the

 

 

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1cultural, intellectual, scientific, educational or artistic
2enrichment of the people of the State. Cultural institutions
3include, without limitation, aquaria, botanical societies,
4historical societies, libraries, museums, performing arts
5associations or societies, scientific societies and zoological
6societies.
7    (w) The term "affiliate" means, with respect to financing
8of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, any lender, any
9person, firm or corporation controlled by, or under common
10control with, such lender, and any person, firm or corporation
11controlling such lender.
12    (x) The term "agricultural facility" means land, any
13building or other improvement thereon or thereto, and any
14personal properties deemed necessary or suitable for use,
15whether or not now in existence, in farming, ranching, the
16production of agricultural commodities (including, without
17limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and
18silviculture) or the treating, processing or storing of such
19agricultural commodities when such activities are customarily
20engaged in by farmers as a part of farming.
21    (y) The term "lender" with respect to financing of an
22agricultural facility or an agribusiness, means any federal or
23State chartered bank, Federal Land Bank, Production Credit
24Association, Bank for Cooperatives, federal or State chartered
25savings and loan association or building and loan association,
26Small Business Investment Company or any other institution

 

 

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1qualified within this State to originate and service loans,
2including, but without limitation to, insurance companies,
3credit unions and mortgage loan companies. "Lender" also means
4a wholly owned subsidiary of a manufacturer, seller or
5distributor of goods or services that makes loans to businesses
6or individuals, commonly known as a "captive finance company".
7    (z) The term "agribusiness" means any sole proprietorship,
8limited partnership, co-partnership, joint venture,
9corporation or cooperative which operates or will operate a
10facility located within the State of Illinois that is related
11to the processing of agricultural commodities (including,
12without limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics
13and silviculture) or the manufacturing, production or
14construction of agricultural buildings, structures, equipment,
15implements, and supplies, or any other facilities or processes
16used in agricultural production. Agribusiness includes but is
17not limited to the following:
18        (1) grain handling and processing, including grain
19    storage, drying, treatment, conditioning, mailing and
20    packaging;
21        (2) seed and feed grain development and processing;
22        (3) fruit and vegetable processing, including
23    preparation, canning and packaging;
24        (4) processing of livestock and livestock products,
25    dairy products, poultry and poultry products, fish or
26    apiarian products, including slaughter, shearing,

 

 

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1    collecting, preparation, canning and packaging;
2        (5) fertilizer and agricultural chemical
3    manufacturing, processing, application and supplying;
4        (6) farm machinery, equipment and implement
5    manufacturing and supplying;
6        (7) manufacturing and supplying of agricultural
7    commodity processing machinery and equipment, including
8    machinery and equipment used in slaughter, treatment,
9    handling, collecting, preparation, canning or packaging of
10    agricultural commodities;
11        (8) farm building and farm structure manufacturing,
12    construction and supplying;
13        (9) construction, manufacturing, implementation,
14    supplying or servicing of irrigation, drainage and soil and
15    water conservation devices or equipment;
16        (10) fuel processing and development facilities that
17    produce fuel from agricultural commodities or byproducts;
18        (11) facilities and equipment for processing and
19    packaging agricultural commodities specifically for
20    export;
21        (12) facilities and equipment for forestry product
22    processing and supplying, including sawmilling operations,
23    wood chip operations, timber harvesting operations, and
24    manufacturing of prefabricated buildings, paper, furniture
25    or other goods from forestry products;
26        (13) facilities and equipment for research and

 

 

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1    development of products, processes and equipment for the
2    production, processing, preparation or packaging of
3    agricultural commodities and byproducts.
4    (aa) The term "asset" with respect to financing of any
5agricultural facility or any agribusiness, means, but is not
6limited to the following: cash crops or feed on hand; livestock
7held for sale; breeding stock; marketable bonds and securities;
8securities not readily marketable; accounts receivable; notes
9receivable; cash invested in growing crops; net cash value of
10life insurance; machinery and equipment; cars and trucks; farm
11and other real estate including life estates and personal
12residence; value of beneficial interests in trusts; government
13payments or grants; and any other assets.
14    (bb) The term "liability" with respect to financing of any
15agricultural facility or any agribusiness shall include, but
16not be limited to the following: accounts payable; notes or
17other indebtedness owed to any source; taxes; rent; amounts
18owed on real estate contracts or real estate mortgages;
19judgments; accrued interest payable; and any other liability.
20    (cc) The term "Predecessor Authorities" means those
21authorities as described in Section 845-75.
22    (dd) The term "housing project" means a specific work or
23improvement undertaken to provide residential dwelling
24accommodations, including the acquisition, construction or
25rehabilitation of lands, buildings and community facilities
26and in connection therewith to provide nonhousing facilities

 

 

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1which are part of the housing project, including land,
2buildings, improvements, equipment and all ancillary
3facilities for use for offices, stores, retirement homes,
4hotels, financial institutions, service, health care,
5education, recreation or research establishments, or any other
6commercial purpose which are or are to be related to a housing
7development.
8    (ee) The term "conservation project" means any project
9including the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation,
10maintenance, operation, or upgrade that is intended to create
11or expand open space or to reduce energy usage through
12efficiency measures. For the purpose of this definition, "open
13space" has the definition set forth under Section 10 of the
14Illinois Open Land Trust Act.
15    (ff) The term "significant presence" means the existence
16within the State of the national or regional headquarters of an
17entity or group or such other facility of an entity or group of
18entities where a significant amount of the business functions
19are performed for such entity or group of entities.
20(Source: P.A. 95-697, eff. 11-6-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
2196-1021, eff. 7-12-10.)
 
22    Section 29. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is
23amended by changing Sections 3, 12, 13, and 14.1 as follows:
 
24    (20 ILCS 3960/3)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1153)

 

 

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1    (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)
2    Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:
3    "Health care facilities" means and includes the following
4facilities and organizations:
5        1. An ambulatory surgical treatment center required to
6    be licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment
7    Center Act;
8        2. An institution, place, building, or agency required
9    to be licensed pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act;
10        3. Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities
11    licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act;
12        3.5. Skilled and intermediate care facilities licensed
13    under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act;
14        4. Hospitals, nursing homes, ambulatory surgical
15    treatment centers, or kidney disease treatment centers
16    maintained by the State or any department or agency
17    thereof;
18        5. Kidney disease treatment centers, including a
19    free-standing hemodialysis unit required to be licensed
20    under the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act;
21        6. An institution, place, building, or room used for
22    the performance of outpatient surgical procedures that is
23    leased, owned, or operated by or on behalf of an
24    out-of-state facility;
25        7. An institution, place, building, or room used for
26    provision of a health care category of service as defined

 

 

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1    by the Board, including, but not limited to, cardiac
2    catheterization and open heart surgery; and
3        8. An institution, place, building, or room used for
4    provision of major medical equipment used in the direct
5    clinical diagnosis or treatment of patients, and whose
6    project cost is in excess of the capital expenditure
7    minimum.
8    This Act shall not apply to the construction of any new
9facility or the renovation of any existing facility located on
10any campus facility as defined in Section 5-5.8b of the
11Illinois Public Aid Code, provided that the campus facility
12encompasses 30 or more contiguous acres and that the new or
13renovated facility is intended for use by a licensed
14residential facility.
15    No federally owned facility shall be subject to the
16provisions of this Act, nor facilities used solely for healing
17by prayer or spiritual means.
18    No facility licensed under the Supportive Residences
19Licensing Act or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act
20shall be subject to the provisions of this Act.
21    No facility established and operating under the
22Alternative Health Care Delivery Act as a children's respite
23care center alternative health care model demonstration
24program or as an Alzheimer's Disease Management Center
25alternative health care model demonstration program shall be
26subject to the provisions of this Act.

 

 

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1    A facility designated as a supportive living facility that
2is in good standing with the program established under Section
35-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall not be subject to
4the provisions of this Act.
5    This Act does not apply to facilities granted waivers under
6Section 3-102.2 of the Nursing Home Care Act. However, if a
7demonstration project under that Act applies for a certificate
8of need to convert to a nursing facility, it shall meet the
9licensure and certificate of need requirements in effect as of
10the date of application.
11    This Act does not apply to a dialysis facility that
12provides only dialysis training, support, and related services
13to individuals with end stage renal disease who have elected to
14receive home dialysis. This Act does not apply to a dialysis
15unit located in a licensed nursing home that offers or provides
16dialysis-related services to residents with end stage renal
17disease who have elected to receive home dialysis within the
18nursing home. The Board, however, may require these dialysis
19facilities and licensed nursing homes to report statistical
20information on a quarterly basis to the Board to be used by the
21Board to conduct analyses on the need for proposed kidney
22disease treatment centers.
23    This Act shall not apply to the closure of an entity or a
24portion of an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act
25or the MR/DD Community Care Act, with the exceptions of
26facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes,

 

 

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1that elects to convert, in whole or in part, to an assisted
2living or shared housing establishment licensed under the
3Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.
4    This Act does not apply to any change of ownership of a
5healthcare facility that is licensed under the Nursing Home
6Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, with the
7exceptions of facilities operated by a county or Illinois
8Veterans Homes. Changes of ownership of facilities licensed
9under the Nursing Home Care Act must meet the requirements set
10forth in Sections 3-101 through 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care
11Act.
12    With the exception of those health care facilities
13specifically included in this Section, nothing in this Act
14shall be intended to include facilities operated as a part of
15the practice of a physician or other licensed health care
16professional, whether practicing in his individual capacity or
17within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or
18professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or
19professional group. Further, this Act shall not apply to
20physicians or other licensed health care professional's
21practices where such practices are carried out in a portion of
22a health care facility under contract with such health care
23facility by a physician or by other licensed health care
24professionals, whether practicing in his individual capacity
25or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or
26professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or

 

 

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1professional groups. This Act shall apply to construction or
2modification and to establishment by such health care facility
3of such contracted portion which is subject to facility
4licensing requirements, irrespective of the party responsible
5for such action or attendant financial obligation.
6    "Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal
7entities, governmental bodies other than federal, or any
8combination thereof.
9    "Consumer" means any person other than a person (a) whose
10major occupation currently involves or whose official capacity
11within the last 12 months has involved the providing,
12administering or financing of any type of health care facility,
13(b) who is engaged in health research or the teaching of
14health, (c) who has a material financial interest in any
15activity which involves the providing, administering or
16financing of any type of health care facility, or (d) who is or
17ever has been a member of the immediate family of the person
18defined by (a), (b), or (c).
19    "State Board" or "Board" means the Health Facilities and
20Services Review Board.
21    "Construction or modification" means the establishment,
22erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization,
23improvement, extension, discontinuation, change of ownership,
24of or by a health care facility, or the purchase or acquisition
25by or through a health care facility of equipment or service
26for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes or for facility

 

 

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1administration or operation, or any capital expenditure made by
2or on behalf of a health care facility which exceeds the
3capital expenditure minimum; however, any capital expenditure
4made by or on behalf of a health care facility for (i) the
5construction or modification of a facility licensed under the
6Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or (ii) a conversion
7project undertaken in accordance with Section 30 of the Older
8Adult Services Act shall be excluded from any obligations under
9this Act.
10    "Establish" means the construction of a health care
11facility or the replacement of an existing facility on another
12site or the initiation of a category of service as defined by
13the Board.
14    "Major medical equipment" means medical equipment which is
15used for the provision of medical and other health services and
16which costs in excess of the capital expenditure minimum,
17except that such term does not include medical equipment
18acquired by or on behalf of a clinical laboratory to provide
19clinical laboratory services if the clinical laboratory is
20independent of a physician's office and a hospital and it has
21been determined under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act to
22meet the requirements of paragraphs (10) and (11) of Section
231861(s) of such Act. In determining whether medical equipment
24has a value in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, the
25value of studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings,
26specifications, and other activities essential to the

 

 

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1acquisition of such equipment shall be included.
2    "Capital Expenditure" means an expenditure: (A) made by or
3on behalf of a health care facility (as such a facility is
4defined in this Act); and (B) which under generally accepted
5accounting principles is not properly chargeable as an expense
6of operation and maintenance, or is made to obtain by lease or
7comparable arrangement any facility or part thereof or any
8equipment for a facility or part; and which exceeds the capital
9expenditure minimum.
10    For the purpose of this paragraph, the cost of any studies,
11surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and
12other activities essential to the acquisition, improvement,
13expansion, or replacement of any plant or equipment with
14respect to which an expenditure is made shall be included in
15determining if such expenditure exceeds the capital
16expenditures minimum. Unless otherwise interdependent, or
17submitted as one project by the applicant, components of
18construction or modification undertaken by means of a single
19construction contract or financed through the issuance of a
20single debt instrument shall not be grouped together as one
21project. Donations of equipment or facilities to a health care
22facility which if acquired directly by such facility would be
23subject to review under this Act shall be considered capital
24expenditures, and a transfer of equipment or facilities for
25less than fair market value shall be considered a capital
26expenditure for purposes of this Act if a transfer of the

 

 

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1equipment or facilities at fair market value would be subject
2to review.
3    "Capital expenditure minimum" means $11,500,000 for
4projects by hospital applicants, $6,500,000 for applicants for
5projects related to skilled and intermediate care long-term
6care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, and
7$3,000,000 for projects by all other applicants, which shall be
8annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs
9due to inflation, for major medical equipment and for all other
10capital expenditures.
11    "Non-clinical service area" means an area (i) for the
12benefit of the patients, visitors, staff, or employees of a
13health care facility and (ii) not directly related to the
14diagnosis, treatment, or rehabilitation of persons receiving
15services from the health care facility. "Non-clinical service
16areas" include, but are not limited to, chapels; gift shops;
17news stands; computer systems; tunnels, walkways, and
18elevators; telephone systems; projects to comply with life
19safety codes; educational facilities; student housing;
20patient, employee, staff, and visitor dining areas;
21administration and volunteer offices; modernization of
22structural components (such as roof replacement and masonry
23work); boiler repair or replacement; vehicle maintenance and
24storage facilities; parking facilities; mechanical systems for
25heating, ventilation, and air conditioning; loading docks; and
26repair or replacement of carpeting, tile, wall coverings,

 

 

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1window coverings or treatments, or furniture. Solely for the
2purpose of this definition, "non-clinical service area" does
3not include health and fitness centers.
4    "Areawide" means a major area of the State delineated on a
5geographic, demographic, and functional basis for health
6planning and for health service and having within it one or
7more local areas for health planning and health service. The
8term "region", as contrasted with the term "subregion", and the
9word "area" may be used synonymously with the term "areawide".
10    "Local" means a subarea of a delineated major area that on
11a geographic, demographic, and functional basis may be
12considered to be part of such major area. The term "subregion"
13may be used synonymously with the term "local".
14    "Physician" means a person licensed to practice in
15accordance with the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended.
16    "Licensed health care professional" means a person
17licensed to practice a health profession under pertinent
18licensing statutes of the State of Illinois.
19    "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of
20Public Health.
21    "Agency" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.
22    "Alternative health care model" means a facility or program
23authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.
24    "Out-of-state facility" means a person that is both (i)
25licensed as a hospital or as an ambulatory surgery center under
26the laws of another state or that qualifies as a hospital or an

 

 

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1ambulatory surgery center under regulations adopted pursuant
2to the Social Security Act and (ii) not licensed under the
3Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital
4Licensing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act. Affiliates of
5out-of-state facilities shall be considered out-of-state
6facilities. Affiliates of Illinois licensed health care
7facilities 100% owned by an Illinois licensed health care
8facility, its parent, or Illinois physicians licensed to
9practice medicine in all its branches shall not be considered
10out-of-state facilities. Nothing in this definition shall be
11construed to include an office or any part of an office of a
12physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in
13Illinois that is not required to be licensed under the
14Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.
15    "Change of ownership of a health care facility" means a
16change in the person who has ownership or control of a health
17care facility's physical plant and capital assets. A change in
18ownership is indicated by the following transactions: sale,
19transfer, acquisition, lease, change of sponsorship, or other
20means of transferring control.
21    "Related person" means any person that: (i) is at least 50%
22owned, directly or indirectly, by either the health care
23facility or a person owning, directly or indirectly, at least
2450% of the health care facility; or (ii) owns, directly or
25indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility.
26    "Charity care" means care provided by a health care

 

 

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1facility for which the provider does not expect to receive
2payment from the patient or a third-party payer.
3    "Freestanding emergency center" means a facility subject
4to licensure under Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical
5Services (EMS) Systems Act.
6(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-543, eff. 8-28-07;
795-584, eff. 8-31-07; 95-727, eff. 6-30-08; 95-876, eff.
88-21-08; 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000,
9eff. 7-2-10.)
 
10    (20 ILCS 3960/12)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1162)
11    (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)
12    Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of
13this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers
14and duties:
15    (1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria,
16procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose
17for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of
18project reviewed and which are required to carry out the
19provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of
20the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities
21and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care
22services identified through the comprehensive health planning
23process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects
24on access to safety net services.
25    (2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all

 

 

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1proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans
2required to carry out the provisions of this Act.
3    (3) (Blank).
4    (4) Develop criteria and standards for health care
5facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health
6care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's
7web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and
8updated need determinations when new census data become
9available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health
10care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of
11applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility
12plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State
13Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or
14intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home
15Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed
16under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, or nursing homes
17licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be conducted on
18an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year and shall
19include among the information requested a list of all services
20provided by a facility to its residents and to the community at
21large and differentiate between active and inactive beds.
22    In developing health care facility plans, the State Board
23shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:
24        (a) The size, composition and growth of the population
25    of the area to be served;
26        (b) The number of existing and planned facilities

 

 

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1    offering similar programs;
2        (c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;
3        (d) The availability of facilities which may serve as
4    alternatives or substitutes;
5        (e) The availability of personnel necessary to the
6    operation of the facility;
7        (f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment
8    of multi-institutional systems where feasible;
9        (g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed
10    construction or modification; and
11        (h) In the case of health care facilities established
12    by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the
13    members of such religious body or denomination may be
14    considered to be public need.
15    The health care facility plans which are developed and
16adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis
17for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with
18statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.
19    (5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health
20Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities
21affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure
22and cost reporting.
23    (6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the
24State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property
25for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health
26Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into

 

 

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1contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes
2enumerated in this Act.
3    (7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review,
4standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make
5periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of
6any existing health services being rendered by health care
7facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider
8recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.
9    (8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for
10Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards,
11and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of
12applications for permits for projects of construction or
13modification of a health care facility, which projects are
14classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in
15nature.
16    Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of
17Public Act 96-31), substantive projects shall include no more
18than the following:
19        (a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement
20    facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement
21    facility located on the same site as the original facility
22    and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the
23    capital expenditure minimum;
24        (b) Projects proposing a (1) new service or (2)
25    discontinuation of a service, which shall be reviewed by
26    the Board within 60 days; or

 

 

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1        (c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of
2    a health care facility by an increase in the total number
3    of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various
4    categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one
5    physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds
6    or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the
7    State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.
8    The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that
9meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full
10Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that
11meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full
12Board.
13    Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for
14Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the
15classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules
16prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request
17of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days
18from the date the application is declared to be complete.
19    (9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria
20pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and
21modifications which are emergent in nature and must be
22undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural
23deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure
24persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and
25regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from
26public hearing requirements of this Act.

 

 

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1    (10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria
2for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60
3days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or
4modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and
5treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency
6syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.
7    (11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant
8or an adversely affected party to the Board within 30 days of
9the meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final
10decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve
11or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under
12this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action
13is scheduled by the Board. The staff of the State Board shall
14prepare a written copy of the final decision and the State
15Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion in the formal
16record.
17    (12) Require at least one of its members to participate in
18any public hearing, after the appointment of the 9 members to
19the Board.
20    (13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and
21request changes to, draft rules and standards.
22    (14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly
23inform the general public about the opportunity for public
24hearings and public hearing procedures.
25    (15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for
26long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a

 

 

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1different business line and service model from other regulated
2facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed
3that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the
4continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of
5nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms,
6development of alternative services, and current trends in
7long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall
8appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care
9Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and
10recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board
11under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide
12continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures
13relative to long-term care and the review of related projects.
14In consultation with other experts from the health field of
15long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new
16approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service
17Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in
18design models reflective of the changing long-term care
19marketplace and consumer preferences. The Board shall file the
20proposed related administrative rules for the separate rules
21and guidelines for long-term care required by this paragraph
22(15) by September 1, 2010. The Subcommittee shall be provided a
23reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any
24review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards,
25procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as
26provided under Section 12.3 of this Act prior to approval by

 

 

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1the Board and promulgation of related rules.
2(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
396-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
4    (20 ILCS 3960/13)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1163)
5    (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)
6    Sec. 13. Investigation of applications for permits and
7certificates of recognition. The Agency or the State Board
8shall make or cause to be made such investigations as it or the
9State Board deems necessary in connection with an application
10for a permit or an application for a certificate of
11recognition, or in connection with a determination of whether
12or not construction or modification which has been commenced is
13in accord with the permit issued by the State Board or whether
14construction or modification has been commenced without a
15permit having been obtained. The State Board may issue
16subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of records and
17may administer oaths to such witnesses.
18    Any circuit court of this State, upon the application of
19the State Board or upon the application of any party to such
20proceedings, may, in its discretion, compel the attendance of
21witnesses, the production of books, papers, records, or
22memoranda and the giving of testimony before the State Board,
23by a proceeding as for contempt, or otherwise, in the same
24manner as production of evidence may be compelled before the
25court.

 

 

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1    The State Board shall require all health facilities
2operating in this State to provide such reasonable reports at
3such times and containing such information as is needed by it
4to carry out the purposes and provisions of this Act. Prior to
5collecting information from health facilities, the State Board
6shall make reasonable efforts through a public process to
7consult with health facilities and associations that represent
8them to determine whether data and information requests will
9result in useful information for health planning, whether
10sufficient information is available from other sources, and
11whether data requested is routinely collected by health
12facilities and is available without retrospective record
13review. Data and information requests shall not impose undue
14paperwork burdens on health care facilities and personnel.
15Health facilities not complying with this requirement shall be
16reported to licensing, accrediting, certifying, or payment
17agencies as being in violation of State law. Health care
18facilities and other parties at interest shall have reasonable
19access, under rules established by the State Board, to all
20planning information submitted in accord with this Act
21pertaining to their area.
22    Among the reports to be required by the State Board are
23facility questionnaires for health care facilities licensed
24under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the
25Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD
26MR/DD Community Care Act, or the End Stage Renal Disease

 

 

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1Facility Act. These questionnaires shall be conducted on an
2annual basis and compiled by the Agency. For health care
3facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the
4ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, these reports shall include,
5but not be limited to, the identification of specialty services
6provided by the facility to patients, residents, and the
7community at large. For health care facilities that contain
8long term care beds, the reports shall also include the number
9of staffed long term care beds, physical capacity for long term
10care beds at the facility, and long term care beds available
11for immediate occupancy. For purposes of this paragraph, "long
12term care beds" means beds (i) licensed under the Nursing Home
13Care Act, (ii) licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care
14Act, or (iii) licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act and
15certified as skilled nursing or nursing facility beds under
16Medicaid or Medicare.
17(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
18    (20 ILCS 3960/14.1)
19    Sec. 14.1. Denial of permit; other sanctions.
20    (a) The State Board may deny an application for a permit or
21may revoke or take other action as permitted by this Act with
22regard to a permit as the State Board deems appropriate,
23including the imposition of fines as set forth in this Section,
24for any one or a combination of the following:
25        (1) The acquisition of major medical equipment without

 

 

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1    a permit or in violation of the terms of a permit.
2        (2) The establishment, construction, or modification
3    of a health care facility without a permit or in violation
4    of the terms of a permit.
5        (3) The violation of any provision of this Act or any
6    rule adopted under this Act.
7        (4) The failure, by any person subject to this Act, to
8    provide information requested by the State Board or Agency
9    within 30 days after a formal written request for the
10    information.
11        (5) The failure to pay any fine imposed under this
12    Section within 30 days of its imposition.
13    (a-5) For facilities licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD
14Community Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of
15prior operator history, other than for actions specified under
16item (2), (4), or (5) of Section 3-117 of the ID/DD MR/DD
17Community Care Act. For facilities licensed under the Nursing
18Home Care Act, no permit shall be denied on the basis of prior
19operator history, other than for: (i) actions specified under
20item (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of Section 3-117 of the Nursing
21Home Care Act; (ii) actions specified under item (a)(6) of
22Section 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act; or (iii) actions
23within the preceding 5 years constituting a substantial and
24repeated failure to comply with the Nursing Home Care Act or
25the rules and regulations adopted by the Department under that
26Act. The State Board shall not deny a permit on account of any

 

 

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1action described in this subsection (a-5) without also
2considering all such actions in the light of all relevant
3information available to the State Board, including whether the
4permit is sought to substantially comply with a mandatory or
5voluntary plan of correction associated with any action
6described in this subsection (a-5).
7    (b) Persons shall be subject to fines as follows:
8        (1) A permit holder who fails to comply with the
9    requirements of maintaining a valid permit shall be fined
10    an amount not to exceed 1% of the approved permit amount
11    plus an additional 1% of the approved permit amount for
12    each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the violation
13    continues.
14        (2) A permit holder who alters the scope of an approved
15    project or whose project costs exceed the allowable permit
16    amount without first obtaining approval from the State
17    Board shall be fined an amount not to exceed the sum of (i)
18    the lesser of $25,000 or 2% of the approved permit amount
19    and (ii) in those cases where the approved permit amount is
20    exceeded by more than $1,000,000, an additional $20,000 for
21    each $1,000,000, or fraction thereof, in excess of the
22    approved permit amount.
23        (3) A person who acquires major medical equipment or
24    who establishes a category of service without first
25    obtaining a permit or exemption, as the case may be, shall
26    be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 for each such

 

 

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1    acquisition or category of service established plus an
2    additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction
3    thereof, that the violation continues.
4        (4) A person who constructs, modifies, or establishes a
5    health care facility without first obtaining a permit shall
6    be fined an amount not to exceed $25,000 plus an additional
7    $25,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that
8    the violation continues.
9        (5) A person who discontinues a health care facility or
10    a category of service without first obtaining a permit
11    shall be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000 plus an
12    additional $10,000 for each 30-day period, or fraction
13    thereof, that the violation continues. For purposes of this
14    subparagraph (5), facilities licensed under the Nursing
15    Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, with
16    the exceptions of facilities operated by a county or
17    Illinois Veterans Homes, are exempt from this permit
18    requirement. However, facilities licensed under the
19    Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act
20    must comply with Section 3-423 of the Nursing Home Care Act
21    or Section 3-423 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act and
22    must provide the Board with 30-days' written notice of its
23    intent to close.
24        (6) A person subject to this Act who fails to provide
25    information requested by the State Board or Agency within
26    30 days of a formal written request shall be fined an

 

 

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1    amount not to exceed $1,000 plus an additional $1,000 for
2    each 30-day period, or fraction thereof, that the
3    information is not received by the State Board or Agency.
4    (c) Before imposing any fine authorized under this Section,
5the State Board shall afford the person or permit holder, as
6the case may be, an appearance before the State Board and an
7opportunity for a hearing before a hearing officer appointed by
8the State Board. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance
9with Section 10.
10    (d) All fines collected under this Act shall be transmitted
11to the State Treasurer, who shall deposit them into the
12Illinois Health Facilities Planning Fund.
13(Source: P.A. 95-543, eff. 8-28-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
1496-1372, eff. 7-29-10.)
 
15    Section 30. The State Finance Act is amended by changing
16Section 8.8 as follows:
 
17    (30 ILCS 105/8.8)  (from Ch. 127, par. 144.8)
18    Sec. 8.8. Appropriations for the improvement, development,
19addition or expansion of services for the care, treatment, and
20training of persons who are intellectually disabled mentally
21retarded or subject to involuntary admission under the Mental
22Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or for the financing
23of any program designed to provide such improvement,
24development, addition or expansion of services or for expenses

 

 

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1incurred in administering the provisions of Sections 5-105 to
25-115, inclusive, of the Mental Health and Developmental
3Disabilities Code, or other ordinary and contingent expenses of
4the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and
5developmental disabilities, are payable from the Mental Health
6Fund. However, no expenditures shall be made for the purchase,
7construction, lease, or rental of buildings for use as
8State-operated mental health or developmental disability
9facilities.
10(Source: P.A. 96-959, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
11    Section 35. The Business Enterprise for Minorities,
12Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act is amended by
13changing Section 2 as follows:
 
14    (30 ILCS 575/2)
15    (Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2012)
16    Sec. 2. Definitions.
17    (A) For the purpose of this Act, the following terms shall
18have the following definitions:
19    (1) "Minority person" shall mean a person who is a citizen
20or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is:
21        (a) African American (a person having origins in any of
22    the black racial groups in Africa);
23        (b) Hispanic (a person of Spanish or Portuguese culture
24    with origins in Mexico, South or Central America, or the

 

 

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1    Caribbean Islands, regardless of race);
2        (c) Asian American (a person having origins in any of
3    the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the
4    Indian Subcontinent or the Pacific Islands); or
5        (d) Native American or Alaskan Native (a person having
6    origins in any of the original peoples of North America).
7    (2) "Female" shall mean a person who is a citizen or lawful
8permanent resident of the United States and who is of the
9female gender.
10    (2.05) "Person with a disability" means a person who is a
11citizen or lawful resident of the United States and is a person
12qualifying as being disabled under subdivision (2.1) of this
13subsection (A).
14    (2.1) "Disabled" means a severe physical or mental
15disability that:
16    (a) results from:
17    amputation,
18    arthritis,
19    autism,
20    blindness,
21    burn injury,
22    cancer,
23    cerebral palsy,
24    Crohn's disease,
25    cystic fibrosis,
26    deafness,

 

 

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1    head injury,
2    heart disease,
3    hemiplegia,
4    hemophilia,
5    respiratory or pulmonary dysfunction,
6    an intellectual disability mental retardation,
7    mental illness,
8    multiple sclerosis,
9    muscular dystrophy,
10    musculoskeletal disorders,
11    neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy,
12    paraplegia,
13    quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions,
14    sickle cell anemia,
15    ulcerative colitis,
16    specific learning disabilities, or
17    end stage renal failure disease; and
18    (b) substantially limits one or more of the person's major
19life activities.
20    Another disability or combination of disabilities may also
21be considered as a severe disability for the purposes of item
22(a) of this subdivision (2.1) if it is determined by an
23evaluation of rehabilitation potential to cause a comparable
24degree of substantial functional limitation similar to the
25specific list of disabilities listed in item (a) of this
26subdivision (2.1).

 

 

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1    (3) "Minority owned business" means a business concern
2which is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons, or
3in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in
4which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the
5management and daily business operations of which are
6controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who own
7it.
8    (4) "Female owned business" means a business concern which
9is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the case of
10a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which is owned by
11one or more females; and the management and daily business
12operations of which are controlled by one or more of the
13females who own it.
14    (4.1) "Business owned by a person with a disability" means
15a business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more
16persons with a disability and the management and daily business
17operations of which are controlled by one or more of the
18persons with disabilities who own it. A not-for-profit agency
19for persons with disabilities that is exempt from taxation
20under Section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is also
21considered a "business owned by a person with a disability".
22    (4.2) "Council" means the Business Enterprise Council for
23Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities created
24under Section 5 of this Act.
25    (5) "State contracts" shall mean all State contracts,
26funded exclusively with State funds which are not subject to

 

 

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1federal reimbursement, whether competitively bid or negotiated
2as defined by the Secretary of the Council and approved by the
3Council.
4    "State construction contracts" means all State contracts
5entered into by a State agency or State university for the
6repair, remodeling, renovation or construction of a building or
7structure, or for the construction or maintenance of a highway
8defined in Article 2 of the Illinois Highway Code.
9    (6) "State agencies" shall mean all departments, officers,
10boards, commissions, institutions and bodies politic and
11corporate of the State, but does not include the Board of
12Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees
13of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of
14Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern
15Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State
16University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University,
17the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the
18Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, the Board of
19Trustees of Western Illinois University, municipalities or
20other local governmental units, or other State constitutional
21officers.
22    (7) "State universities" shall mean the Board of Trustees
23of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of
24Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago
25State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois
26University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State

 

 

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1University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University,
2the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the
3Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, and the
4Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University.
5    (8) "Certification" means a determination made by the
6Council or by one delegated authority from the Council to make
7certifications, or by a State agency with statutory authority
8to make such a certification, that a business entity is a
9business owned by a minority, female, or person with a
10disability for whatever purpose. A business owned and
11controlled by females shall select and designate whether such
12business is to be certified as a "Female-owned business" or
13"Minority-owned business" if the females are also minorities.
14    (9) "Control" means the exclusive or ultimate and sole
15control of the business including, but not limited to, capital
16investment and all other financial matters, property,
17acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters,
18officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring,
19operating responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and
20dividend matters, financial transactions and rights of other
21shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real,
22substantial and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall
23include the power to direct or cause the direction of the
24management and policies of the business and to make the
25day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy,
26management and operations. Control shall be exemplified by

 

 

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1possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the
2particular business and control shall not include simple
3majority or absentee ownership.
4    (10) "Business concern or business" means a business that
5has annual gross sales of less than $75,000,000 as evidenced by
6the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with
7gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Council for
8certification for a particular contract if the firm can
9demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on
10businesses owned by minorities, females, or persons with
11disabilities as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of
12minorities, females, or persons with disabilities.
13    (B) When a business concern is owned at least 51% by any
14combination of minority persons, females, or persons with
15disabilities, even though none of the 3 classes alone holds at
16least a 51% interest, the ownership requirement for purposes of
17this Act is considered to be met. The certification category
18for the business is that of the class holding the largest
19ownership interest in the business. If 2 or more classes have
20equal ownership interests, the certification category shall be
21determined by the business concern.
22(Source: P.A. 95-344, eff. 8-21-07; 96-453, eff. 8-14-09;
2396-795, eff. 7-1-10 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for effective
24date of changes made by P.A. 96-795); 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
25    Section 36. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by

 

 

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1changing Section 806 as follows:
 
2    (35 ILCS 5/806)
3    Sec. 806. Exemption from penalty. An individual taxpayer
4shall not be subject to a penalty for failing to pay estimated
5tax as required by Section 803 if the taxpayer is 65 years of
6age or older and is a permanent resident of a nursing home. For
7purposes of this Section, "nursing home" means a skilled
8nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject
9to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under
10the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care
11Act.
12(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
13    Section 37. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section
143-5 as follows:
 
15    (35 ILCS 105/3-5)
16    Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible
17personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:
18    (1) Personal property purchased from a corporation,
19society, association, foundation, institution, or
20organization, other than a limited liability company, that is
21organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise
22for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the
23personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the

 

 

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1purpose of resale by the enterprise.
2    (2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit
3Illinois county fair association for use in conducting,
4operating, or promoting the county fair.
5    (3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or
6cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by
7the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under
8Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is
9organized and operated primarily for the presentation or
10support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or
11services. These organizations include, but are not limited to,
12music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony
13orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service
14organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations,
15and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date
16of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however,
17an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make
18tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification
19number issued by the Department.
20    (4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by
21a corporation, society, association, foundation, or
22institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable,
23religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit
24corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or
25organization that has no compensated officers or employees and
26that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of

 

 

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1persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company
2may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the
3limited liability company is organized and operated
4exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1,
51987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption
6shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption
7identification number issued by the Department.
8    (5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a
9replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of
10the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.
11    (6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1,
122004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and
13equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and
14used, and including that manufactured on special order,
15certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic
16arts production, and including machinery and equipment
17purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals
18acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals
19acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a
20graphic arts product.
21    (7) Farm chemicals.
22    (8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver
23coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the
24United States of America, or the government of any foreign
25country, and bullion.
26    (9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored

 

 

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1student organization affiliated with an elementary or
2secondary school located in Illinois.
3    (10) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle
4of the second division that is a self-contained motor vehicle
5designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters
6for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk
7through to the living quarters from the driver's seat, or a
8motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van
9configuration designed for the transportation of not less than
107 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of
11the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting,
12as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax
13Act.
14    (11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used,
15including that manufactured on special order, certified by the
16purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or
17State or federal agricultural programs, including individual
18replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including
19machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including
20implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the
21Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural
22chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to
23be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
24but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered
25under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or
26hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering

 

 

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1plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under
2this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry
3boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle
4required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor
5vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the
6tender is separately stated.
7    Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision
8farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be
9installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not
10limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders,
11or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not
12limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors,
13software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other
14such equipment.
15    Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers,
16sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the
17computer-assisted operation of production agriculture
18facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited
19to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and
20crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and
21agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the
22provisions of Section 3-90.
23    (12) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air
24common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for
25consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its
26business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or

 

 

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1returning from a location or locations outside the United
2States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic
3stopovers.
4    (13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately
5stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of
6food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the
7extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact
8turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the
9employees who participate directly in preparing, serving,
10hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with
11respect to which the service charge is imposed.
12    (14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling,
13and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs,
14rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and
15tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps
16and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any
17individual replacement part for oil field exploration,
18drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and
19equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles
20required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.
21    (15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including
22repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that
23manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be
24used primarily for photoprocessing, and including
25photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.
26    (16) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining,

 

 

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1offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation
2equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and
3including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor
4vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle
5Code.
6    (17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and
7equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the
8retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the
9production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption
10as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal
11use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.
12    (18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment
13used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling
14tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or
15lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the
16manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials
17used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other
18person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as
19an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation
20of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or
21other similar items of no commercial value on special order for
22a particular purchaser.
23    (19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or
24purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for
25that personal property was received by a florist located
26outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois

 

 

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1deliver the personal property.
2    (20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock
3for direct agricultural production.
4    (21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and
5meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club
6Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter
7Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or
8Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or
9racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions
10of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item
11(21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no
12claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1,
132008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30,
142000 and ending on January 1, 2008.
15    (22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for
16any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis,
17analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a
18lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or
19longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would
20otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a
21hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
22identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
23Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a
24manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in
25any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
26tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the

 

 

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1case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at
2the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect
3or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that
4purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this
5Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax
6has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly
7collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have
8a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor.
9If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any
10reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the
11Department.
12    (23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the
13property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in
14effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the
15tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been
16issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by
17the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation
18Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not
19qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt
20manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under
21this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based
22on the fair market value of the property at the time the
23non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt
24to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to
25reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the
26Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been

 

 

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1paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such
2amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to
3claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however,
4that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the
5lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.
6    (24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
7December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
8before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for
9disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared
10disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a
11manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a
12corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution
13that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification
14number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster
15who reside within the declared disaster area.
16    (25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
17December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
18before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the
19performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including
20but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads,
21bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer
22line extensions, water distribution and purification
23facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and
24sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or
25federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois
26when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the

 

 

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1declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.
2    (26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased
3at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic
4game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code
5or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the
6Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from
7the provisions of Section 3-90.
8    (27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section
91-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a
10corporation, limited liability company, society, association,
11foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department
12to be organized and operated exclusively for educational
13purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation,
14limited liability company, society, association, foundation,
15or institution organized and operated exclusively for
16educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools,
17private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful
18branches of learning by methods common to public schools and
19that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the
20course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and
21vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and
22operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less
23than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to
24follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical,
25industrial, business, or commercial occupation.
26    (28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property,

 

 

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1including food, purchased through fundraising events for the
2benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school,
3a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if
4the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school
5district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes
6parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph
7does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of
8private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising
9entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from
10another individual or entity that sold the property for the
11purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits
12from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is
13exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.
14    (29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31,
152001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and
16serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other
17items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning
18January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts
19for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and
20vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the
21gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial,
22coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph
23is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.
24    (30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2011,
25food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
26premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft

 

 

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1drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate
2consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
3drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing
4materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
5use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical
6assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who
7resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in
8the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined
9in the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
10    (31) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
11of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications
12equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used
13in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients
14purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease
15of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the
16lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this
17Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
18identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
19Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a
20manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in
21any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
22tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the
23case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at
24the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect
25or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that
26purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this

 

 

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1Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax
2has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly
3collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have
4a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor.
5If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any
6reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the
7Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of
8Section 3-90.
9    (32) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
10of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a
11lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or
12longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would
13otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a
14governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax
15exemption identification number by the Department under
16Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the
17property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this
18exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor
19shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the
20Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair
21market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use
22occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount
23(however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for
24the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the
25case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a
26lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the

 

 

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1lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that
2amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not
3refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to
4pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt
5from the provisions of Section 3-90.
6    (33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004,
7the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division
8with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that
9are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under
10Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July
111, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of
12motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle
13weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject
14to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section
153-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are
16primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005,
17this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added
18after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that
19motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the
20rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For
21purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial
22purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in
23furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise,
24whether for-hire or not.
25    (34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property
26used in the construction or maintenance of a community water

 

 

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1supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental
2Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit
3corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under
4Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is
5exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.
6    (35) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts,
7equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or
8upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment,
9completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the
10aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in
11the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement,
12repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any
13materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable
14supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and
15maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such
16engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any
17such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not
18limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose
19lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective
20films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that
21(i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate
22an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation
23Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct
24operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation
25Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated
26by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air

 

 

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1service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129
2of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
3    (36) Tangible personal property purchased by a
4public-facilities corporation, as described in Section
511-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of
6constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but
7only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is
8transferred to the municipality without any further
9consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time
10of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the
11retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments
12issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with
13the development of the municipal convention hall. This
14exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as
15provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
16This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.
17(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876,
18eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
1996-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff.
207-2-10.)
 
21    Section 38. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing
22Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:
 
23    (35 ILCS 110/3-5)
24    Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible

 

 

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1personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:
2    (1) Personal property purchased from a corporation,
3society, association, foundation, institution, or
4organization, other than a limited liability company, that is
5organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise
6for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the
7personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the
8purpose of resale by the enterprise.
9    (2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois
10county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or
11promoting the county fair.
12    (3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or
13cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by
14the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under
15Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is
16organized and operated primarily for the presentation or
17support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or
18services. These organizations include, but are not limited to,
19music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony
20orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service
21organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations,
22and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date
23of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however,
24an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make
25tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification
26number issued by the Department.

 

 

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1    (4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver
2coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the
3United States of America, or the government of any foreign
4country, and bullion.
5    (5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1,
62004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and
7equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and
8used, and including that manufactured on special order or
9purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used
10primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes
11chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the
12chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and
13immediate change upon a graphic arts product.
14    (6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored
15student organization affiliated with an elementary or
16secondary school located in Illinois.
17    (7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used,
18including that manufactured on special order, certified by the
19purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or
20State or federal agricultural programs, including individual
21replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including
22machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including
23implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the
24Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural
25chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to
26be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,

 

 

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1but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered
2under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or
3hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering
4plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under
5this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes
6shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle
7required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor
8vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the
9tender is separately stated.
10    Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision
11farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be
12installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not
13limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders,
14or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not
15limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors,
16software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other
17such equipment.
18    Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers,
19sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the
20computer-assisted operation of production agriculture
21facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited
22to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and
23crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and
24agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the
25provisions of Section 3-75.
26    (8) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air

 

 

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1common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for
2consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its
3business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or
4returning from a location or locations outside the United
5States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic
6stopovers.
7    (9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately
8stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of
9food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a
10service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of
11the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a
12substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly
13in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or
14beverage function with respect to which the service charge is
15imposed.
16    (10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling,
17and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs,
18rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and
19tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps
20and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any
21individual replacement part for oil field exploration,
22drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and
23equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles
24required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.
25    (11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery
26and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new

 

 

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1and used, including that manufactured on special order,
2certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for
3photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and
4equipment purchased for lease.
5    (12) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining,
6offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation
7equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and
8including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor
9vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle
10Code.
11    (13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock
12for direct agricultural production.
13    (14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and
14meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club
15Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter
16Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or
17Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or
18racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions
19of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item
20(14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no
21claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after the effective
22date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly for
23such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and
24ending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th
25General Assembly.
26    (15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for

 

 

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1any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis,
2analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a
3lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or
4longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would
5otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a
6hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
7identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
8Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a
9manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in
10any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
11tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may
12be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time
13the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or
14attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports
15to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the
16Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by
17the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount
18from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a
19refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount
20is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is
21liable to pay that amount to the Department.
22    (16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the
23property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in
24effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the
25tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been
26issued an active tax exemption identification number by the

 

 

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1Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax
2Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not
3qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt
4manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under
5this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the
6fair market value of the property at the time the
7non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt
8to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to
9reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the
10Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by
11the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount
12from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a
13refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount
14is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is
15liable to pay that amount to the Department.
16    (17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
17December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
18before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for
19disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared
20disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a
21manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a
22corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution
23that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification
24number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster
25who reside within the declared disaster area.
26    (18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after

 

 

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1December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
2before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the
3performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including
4but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads,
5bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer
6line extensions, water distribution and purification
7facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and
8sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or
9federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois
10when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the
11declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.
12    (19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased
13at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic
14game hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code
15or at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the
16Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from
17the provisions of Section 3-75.
18    (20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section
191-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a
20corporation, limited liability company, society, association,
21foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department
22to be organized and operated exclusively for educational
23purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation,
24limited liability company, society, association, foundation,
25or institution organized and operated exclusively for
26educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools,

 

 

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1private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful
2branches of learning by methods common to public schools and
3that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the
4course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and
5vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and
6operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less
7than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to
8follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical,
9industrial, business, or commercial occupation.
10    (21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property,
11including food, purchased through fundraising events for the
12benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school,
13a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if
14the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school
15district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes
16parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph
17does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of
18private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising
19entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from
20another individual or entity that sold the property for the
21purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits
22from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is
23exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
24    (22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31,
252001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and
26serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other

 

 

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1items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning
2January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts
3for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and
4vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the
5gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial,
6coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph
7is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
8    (23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2011,
9food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
10premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
11drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate
12consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
13drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing
14materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
15use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical
16assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who
17resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in
18the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined
19in the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
20    (24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
21of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications
22equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used
23in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients
24purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease
25of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the
26lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this

 

 

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1Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
2identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
3Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a
4manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in
5any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
6tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may
7be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time
8the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or
9attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports
10to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the
11Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by
12the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount
13from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a
14refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount
15is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is
16liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is
17exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
18    (25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
19of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a
20lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or
21longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would
22otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a
23governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption
24identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
25Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a
26manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in

 

 

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1any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
2tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may
3be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time
4the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or
5attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports
6to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the
7Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by
8the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount
9from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a
10refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount
11is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is
12liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is
13exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
14    (26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property
15used in the construction or maintenance of a community water
16supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental
17Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit
18corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under
19Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is
20exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
21    (27) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts,
22equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or
23upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment,
24completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the
25aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in
26the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement,

 

 

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1repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any
2materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable
3supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and
4maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such
5engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any
6such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not
7limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose
8lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective
9films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that
10(i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate
11an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation
12Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct
13operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation
14Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated
15by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air
16service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129
17of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
18    (28) Tangible personal property purchased by a
19public-facilities corporation, as described in Section
2011-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of
21constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but
22only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is
23transferred to the municipality without any further
24consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time
25of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the
26retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments

 

 

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1issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with
2the development of the municipal convention hall. This
3exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as
4provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
5This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
6(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876,
7eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
896-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff.
97-2-10.)
 
10    (35 ILCS 110/3-10)  (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)
11    Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this
12Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of
13the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as
14an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of
15computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less
16than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.
17    Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000,
18with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the
19Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of
20the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
21    With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the
22tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price
23of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
24on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80%
25of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to

 

 

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1the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
2December 31, 2013, and (iii) 100% of the selling price
3thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on
4sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at
5the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to
6100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.
7    With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined
8in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply
9to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to
10the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
11December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price
12thereafter.
13    With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax
14Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the
15tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price
16of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
17on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 and
18(ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If,
19at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of
20biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less
21than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate
22of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of
23the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1%
24and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.
25    With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax
26Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with

 

 

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1more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed
2by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price
3of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
4on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 but
5applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.
6    At the election of any registered serviceman made for each
7fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual
8cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an
9incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in
10the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or
11servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate
12annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax
13imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost
14price of the tangible personal property transferred as an
15incident to the sale of those services.
16    The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared
17for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of
18service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act
19by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the
20Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, or
21the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at
22the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be
23consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than
24alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been
25prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise
26included in this paragraph) and prescription and

 

 

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1nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances,
2modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering
3it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing
4materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
5use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009:
6the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished,
7ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not,
8including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice,
9vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations
10commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description
11that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton,
12or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not
13include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula,
14milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized
15Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more
16natural fruit or vegetable juice.
17    Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
18beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic
19beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft
20drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk
21products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater
22than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.
23    Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other
24provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to
25be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all
26food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and

 

 

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1food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
2regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning
3August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of
4this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed
5off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold
6through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food
7products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
8regardless of the location of the vending machine.
9    Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
10beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that
11is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not
12include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a
13preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial
14sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other
15ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or
16pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains
17flour or requires refrigeration.
18    Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
19beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and
20drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For
21purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products"
22includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions,
23shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan
24lotions and screens, unless those products are available by
25prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the
26definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of

 

 

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1this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human
2use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug
3as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug"
4label includes:
5        (A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or
6        (B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a
7    list of those ingredients contained in the compound,
8    substance or preparation.
9    If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is
10acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before
11being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under
12this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed
13shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable
14allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state
15use.
16(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38,
17eff. 7-13-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
18    Section 39. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by
19changing Sections 3-5 and 3-10 as follows:
 
20    (35 ILCS 115/3-5)
21    Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal
22property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:
23    (1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society,
24association, foundation, institution, or organization, other

 

 

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1than a limited liability company, that is organized and
2operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit
3of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property
4was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale
5by the enterprise.
6    (2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit
7Illinois county fair association for use in conducting,
8operating, or promoting the county fair.
9    (3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts
10or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by
11the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under
12Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is
13organized and operated primarily for the presentation or
14support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or
15services. These organizations include, but are not limited to,
16music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony
17orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service
18organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations,
19and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date
20of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however,
21an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make
22tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification
23number issued by the Department.
24    (4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver
25coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the
26United States of America, or the government of any foreign

 

 

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1country, and bullion.
2    (5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1,
32004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and
4equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and
5used, and including that manufactured on special order or
6purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used
7primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes
8chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the
9chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and
10immediate change upon a graphic arts product.
11    (6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student
12organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school
13located in Illinois.
14    (7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used,
15including that manufactured on special order, certified by the
16purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or
17State or federal agricultural programs, including individual
18replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including
19machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including
20implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the
21Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural
22chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to
23be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
24but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered
25under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or
26hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering

 

 

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1plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under
2this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes
3shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle
4required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor
5vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the
6tender is separately stated.
7    Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision
8farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be
9installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not
10limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders,
11or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not
12limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors,
13software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other
14such equipment.
15    Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers,
16sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the
17computer-assisted operation of production agriculture
18facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited
19to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and
20crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and
21agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the
22provisions of Section 3-55.
23    (8) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air
24common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for
25consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its
26business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or

 

 

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1returning from a location or locations outside the United
2States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic
3stopovers.
4    (9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately
5stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of
6food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the
7service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a
8substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly
9in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or
10beverage function with respect to which the service charge is
11imposed.
12    (10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling,
13and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs,
14rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and
15tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps
16and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any
17individual replacement part for oil field exploration,
18drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and
19equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles
20required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.
21    (11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including
22repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that
23manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be
24used primarily for photoprocessing, and including
25photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.
26    (12) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining,

 

 

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1offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation
2equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and
3including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor
4vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle
5Code.
6    (13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2011,
7food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
8premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
9drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate
10consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines,
11drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing
12materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
13use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical
14assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who
15resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in
16the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined
17in the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
18    (14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock
19for direct agricultural production.
20    (15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and
21meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club
22Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter
23Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or
24Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or
25racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions
26of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item

 

 

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1(15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no
2claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1,
32008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes
4paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on
5January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).
6    (16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for
7any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis,
8analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor
9who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer
10executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a
11hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
12identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
13Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.
14    (17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the
15property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in
16effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that
17has been issued an active tax exemption identification number
18by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation
19Tax Act.
20    (18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
21December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
22before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for
23disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared
24disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a
25manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a
26corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution

 

 

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1that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification
2number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster
3who reside within the declared disaster area.
4    (19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
5December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
6before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the
7performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including
8but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads,
9bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer
10line extensions, water distribution and purification
11facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and
12sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or
13federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois
14when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the
15declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.
16    (20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a
17"game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game
18hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or
19at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the
20Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from
21the provisions of Section 3-55.
22    (21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section
231-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a
24corporation, limited liability company, society, association,
25foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department
26to be organized and operated exclusively for educational

 

 

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1purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation,
2limited liability company, society, association, foundation,
3or institution organized and operated exclusively for
4educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools,
5private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful
6branches of learning by methods common to public schools and
7that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the
8course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and
9vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and
10operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less
11than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to
12follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical,
13industrial, business, or commercial occupation.
14    (22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property,
15including food, purchased through fundraising events for the
16benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school,
17a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if
18the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school
19district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes
20parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph
21does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of
22private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising
23entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from
24another individual or entity that sold the property for the
25purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits
26from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is

 

 

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1exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
2    (23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31,
32001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and
4serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other
5items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning
6January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts
7for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and
8vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the
9gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial,
10coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph
11is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
12    (24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
13of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications
14equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used
15in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients
16sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one
17year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the
18purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax
19exemption identification number by the Department under
20Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph
21is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
22    (25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
23of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property sold to a
24lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or
25longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a
26governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption

 

 

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1identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
2Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from
3the provisions of Section 3-55.
4    (26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30,
52011, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois
6retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing
7activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property
8in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for
9the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State
10for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or
11(ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or
12manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other
13tangible personal property to be transported outside this State
14and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The
15Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in
16accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act,
17issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the
18Department who is eligible for the exemption under this
19paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26)
20shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner
21specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase
22tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the
23taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all
24necessary books and records to substantiate the use and
25consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of
26the State of Illinois.

 

 

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1    (27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property
2used in the construction or maintenance of a community water
3supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental
4Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit
5corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under
6Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is
7exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
8    (28) Tangible personal property sold to a
9public-facilities corporation, as described in Section
1011-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of
11constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but
12only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is
13transferred to the municipality without any further
14consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time
15of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the
16retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments
17issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with
18the development of the municipal convention hall. This
19exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as
20provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
21This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
22    (29) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts,
23equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or
24upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment,
25completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the
26aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in

 

 

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1the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement,
2repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any
3materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable
4supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and
5maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such
6engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any
7such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not
8limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose
9lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective
10films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that
11(i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate
12an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation
13Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct
14operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation
15Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated
16by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air
17service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129
18of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
19(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876,
20eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
2196-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff.
227-2-10.)
 
23    (35 ILCS 115/3-10)  (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)
24    Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this
25Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of

 

 

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1the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use
2Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of
3computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be
4less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible
5personal property transferred. The selling price of each item
6of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a
7sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on
8the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the
9selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the
10tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the
11serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When,
12however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce
13special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this
14Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the
15tangible personal property transferred incident to the
16completion of the contract.
17    Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000,
18with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the
19Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of
20the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
21    With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the
22tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost
23price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of
24service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003,
25(ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an
26incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on

 

 

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1or before December 31, 2013, and (iii) 100% of the cost price
2thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on
3sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at
4the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to
5100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.
6    With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined
7in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply
8to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to
9the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
10December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price
11thereafter.
12    With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax
13Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the
14tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price
15of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
16on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2013 and
17(ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If,
18at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of
19biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less
20than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate
21of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of
22the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1%
23and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.
24    With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax
25Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with
26more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax

 

 

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1imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the
2selling price of property transferred as an incident to the
3sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
4December 31, 2013 but applies to 100% of the selling price
5thereafter.
6    At the election of any registered serviceman made for each
7fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual
8cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an
9incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in
10the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or
11servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate
12annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax
13imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost
14price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to
15the sale of those services.
16    The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared
17for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of
18service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act
19by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the
20Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, or
21the Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at
22the rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be
23consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than
24alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been
25prepared for immediate consumption and is not otherwise
26included in this paragraph) and prescription and

 

 

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1nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances,
2modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering
3it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing
4materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
5use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1, 2009:
6the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished,
7ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not,
8including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice,
9vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations
10commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description
11that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or
12container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not
13include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula,
14milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized
15Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more
16natural fruit or vegetable juice.
17    Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
18beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic
19beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft
20drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk
21products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater
22than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.
23    Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other
24provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to
25be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all
26food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and

 

 

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1food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
2regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning
3August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of
4this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed
5off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold
6through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food
7products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
8regardless of the location of the vending machine.
9    Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
10beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that
11is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not
12include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a
13preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial
14sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other
15ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or
16pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains
17flour or requires refrigeration.
18    Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
19beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and
20drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For
21purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products"
22includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions,
23shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan
24lotions and screens, unless those products are available by
25prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the
26definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of

 

 

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1this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human
2use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug
3as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug"
4label includes:
5        (A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or
6        (B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a
7    list of those ingredients contained in the compound,
8    substance or preparation.
9(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38,
10eff. 7-13-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
11    Section 40. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by
12changing Section 2-5 as follows:
 
13    (35 ILCS 120/2-5)
14    Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the
15sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt
16from the tax imposed by this Act:
17    (1) Farm chemicals.
18    (2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used,
19including that manufactured on special order, certified by the
20purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or
21State or federal agricultural programs, including individual
22replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including
23machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including
24implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the

 

 

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1Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural
2chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to
3be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
4but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered
5under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or
6hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering
7plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under
8this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes
9shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle
10required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor
11vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the
12tender is separately stated.
13    Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision
14farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be
15installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not
16limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders,
17or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not
18limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors,
19software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other
20such equipment.
21    Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers,
22sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the
23computer-assisted operation of production agriculture
24facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited
25to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and
26crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and

 

 

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1agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the
2provisions of Section 2-70.
3    (3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and
4equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the
5retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the
6production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption
7as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal
8use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.
9    (4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1,
102004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and
11equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and
12used, and including that manufactured on special order or
13purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used
14primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes
15chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the
16chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and
17immediate change upon a graphic arts product.
18    (5) A motor vehicle of the first division, a motor vehicle
19of the second division that is a self contained motor vehicle
20designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters
21for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk
22through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat,
23or a motor vehicle of the second division that is of the van
24configuration designed for the transportation of not less than
257 nor more than 16 passengers, as defined in Section 1-146 of
26the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is used for automobile renting,

 

 

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1as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax
2Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section
32-70.
4    (6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student
5organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school
6located in Illinois.
7    (7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the
8selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject
9to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.
10    (8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair
11association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the
12county fair.
13    (9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or
14cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by
15the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under
16Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is
17organized and operated primarily for the presentation or
18support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or
19services. These organizations include, but are not limited to,
20music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony
21orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service
22organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations,
23and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date
24of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however,
25an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make
26tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification

 

 

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1number issued by the Department.
2    (10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society,
3association, foundation, institution, or organization, other
4than a limited liability company, that is organized and
5operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit
6of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property
7was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale
8by the enterprise.
9    (11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a
10corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution
11organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious,
12or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation,
13society, association, foundation, institution, or organization
14that has no compensated officers or employees and that is
15organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons
1655 years of age or older. A limited liability company may
17qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the
18limited liability company is organized and operated
19exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1,
201987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption
21shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active
22identification number issued by the Department.
23    (12) Tangible personal property sold to interstate
24carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate
25commerce or to lessors under leases of one year or longer
26executed or in effect at the time of purchase by interstate

 

 

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1carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate
2commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications
3provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal
4Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in
5or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.
6    (12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004,
7motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle
8weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the
9commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of
10the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and
11through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles
12of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating
13in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the
14commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of
15the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used
16for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption
17applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial
18purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used
19in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption
20otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this
21paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the
22transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any
23commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.
24    (13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of
25tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate
26carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate

 

 

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1commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications
2provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal
3Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in
4or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.
5    (14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the
6purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the
7process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal
8property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the
9sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some
10other person, whether the materials used in the process are
11owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the
12sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the
13seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing
14machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar
15items of no commercial value on special order for a particular
16purchaser.
17    (15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately
18stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food
19and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service
20charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for
21tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing,
22serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function
23with respect to which the service charge is imposed.
24    (16) Petroleum products sold to a purchaser if the seller
25is prohibited by federal law from charging tax to the
26purchaser.

 

 

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1    (17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by
2rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the
3property in Illinois and that transports the property, or
4shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the
5property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading
6showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor
7of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use
8outside Illinois.
9    (18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver
10coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the
11United States of America, or the government of any foreign
12country, and bullion.
13    (19) Until July 1 2003, oil field exploration, drilling,
14and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs,
15rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and
16tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps
17and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any
18individual replacement part for oil field exploration,
19drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and
20equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles
21required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.
22    (20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including
23repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that
24manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be
25used primarily for photoprocessing, and including
26photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

 

 

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1    (21) Until July 1, 2003, coal exploration, mining,
2offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation
3equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and
4including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor
5vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle
6Code.
7    (22) Fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air
8carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption,
9shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air
10common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a
11location or locations outside the United States without regard
12to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.
13    (23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received
14by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a
15florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the
16purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.
17    (24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships,
18barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the
19transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for
20hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered
21by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while
22it is afloat upon that bordering river.
23    (25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a
24motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though
25the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this
26State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State,

 

 

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1and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as
2provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if
3the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to
4transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home
5state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the
6out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima
7facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in
8this State.
9    (25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the
10state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow
11a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered
12in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois.
13The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle
14in this State to a resident of another state that does not
15allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal
16to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in
17which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall
18not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this
19Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a
20statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her
21intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser
22is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of
23the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount
24equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in
25his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to
26the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of

 

 

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1residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy
2of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item
3shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from
4this state following the filing of an intent to title the
5vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser
6titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30
7days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act
8in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately
9distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general
10rate imposed under this Act.
11    (25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under
12this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of
13the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following
14conditions are met:
15        (1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after
16    the later of either the issuance of the final billing for
17    the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for
18    return to service, completion of the maintenance record
19    entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test
20    for inspection, as required by 14 C.F.R. 91.407;
21        (2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this
22    State after the sale of the aircraft; and
23        (3) the seller retains in his or her books and records
24    and provides to the Department a signed and dated
25    certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by
26    the Department, certifying that the requirements of this

 

 

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1    item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the
2    name and address of the purchaser, the address of the
3    location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered,
4    the address of the primary physical location of the
5    aircraft, and other information that the Department may
6    reasonably require.
7    For purposes of this item (25-7):
8    "Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise
9used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this
10Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period
11immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.
12    "Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered
13with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division,
14or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation
15Administration to an address located in this State.
16    This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of
17Section 2-70.
18    (26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock
19for direct agricultural production.
20    (27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and
21meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club
22Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter
23Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or
24Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or
25racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions
26of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item

 

 

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1(27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no
2claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1,
32008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes
4paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on
5January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).
6    (28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for
7any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis,
8analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor
9who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer
10executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a
11hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
12identification number by the Department under Section 1g of
13this Act.
14    (29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the
15property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in
16effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that
17has been issued an active tax exemption identification number
18by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.
19    (30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
20December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
21before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for
22disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared
23disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a
24manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a
25corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution
26that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification

 

 

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1number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster
2who reside within the declared disaster area.
3    (31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
4December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
5before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the
6performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including
7but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads,
8bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer
9line extensions, water distribution and purification
10facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and
11sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or
12federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois
13when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the
14declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.
15    (32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a
16"game breeding and hunting preserve area" or an "exotic game
17hunting area" as those terms are used in the Wildlife Code or
18at a hunting enclosure approved through rules adopted by the
19Department of Natural Resources. This paragraph is exempt from
20the provisions of Section 2-70.
21    (33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section
221-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a
23corporation, limited liability company, society, association,
24foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department
25to be organized and operated exclusively for educational
26purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation,

 

 

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1limited liability company, society, association, foundation,
2or institution organized and operated exclusively for
3educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools,
4private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful
5branches of learning by methods common to public schools and
6that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the
7course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and
8vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and
9operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less
10than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to
11follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical,
12industrial, business, or commercial occupation.
13    (34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property,
14including food, purchased through fundraising events for the
15benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school,
16a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if
17the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school
18district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes
19parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph
20does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of
21private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising
22entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from
23another individual or entity that sold the property for the
24purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits
25from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is
26exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

 

 

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1    (35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31,
22001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and
3serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other
4items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning
5January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts
6for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and
7vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the
8gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial,
9coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph
10is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.
11    (35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2011,
12food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
13premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
14drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate
15consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
16drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing
17materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
18use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical
19assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who
20resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in
21the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in
22the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
23    (36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and
24communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and
25equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of
26hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment,

 

 

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1under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at
2the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an
3active tax exemption identification number by the Department
4under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the
5provisions of Section 2-70.
6    (37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a
7lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or
8longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a
9governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption
10identification number by the Department under Section 1g of
11this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of
12Section 2-70.
13    (38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30,
142011, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois
15retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing
16activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property
17in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for
18the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State
19for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or
20(ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or
21manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other
22tangible personal property to be transported outside this State
23and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The
24Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in
25accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act,
26issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the

 

 

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1Department who is eligible for the exemption under this
2paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38)
3shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner
4specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase
5tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the
6taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all
7necessary books and records to substantiate the use and
8consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of
9the State of Illinois.
10    (39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property
11used in the construction or maintenance of a community water
12supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental
13Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit
14corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under
15Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is
16exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.
17    (40) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts,
18equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or
19upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment,
20completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the
21aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in
22the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement,
23repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any
24materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable
25supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and
26maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such

 

 

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1engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any
2such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not
3limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose
4lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective
5films. This exemption applies only to those organizations that
6(i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate
7an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation
8Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct
9operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation
10Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated
11by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air
12service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129
13of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
14    (41) Tangible personal property sold to a
15public-facilities corporation, as described in Section
1611-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of
17constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but
18only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is
19transferred to the municipality without any further
20consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time
21of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the
22retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments
23issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with
24the development of the municipal convention hall. This
25exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as
26provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

 

 

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1This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.
2(Source: P.A. 95-88, eff. 1-1-08; 95-233, eff. 8-16-07; 95-304,
3eff. 8-20-07; 95-538, eff. 1-1-08; 95-707, eff. 1-11-08;
495-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09; 96-339, eff.
57-1-10; 96-532, eff. 8-14-09; 96-759, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000,
6eff. 7-2-10.)
 
7    Section 41. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing
8Sections 15-168, 15-170, and 15-172 as follows:
 
9    (35 ILCS 200/15-168)
10    Sec. 15-168. Disabled persons' homestead exemption.
11    (a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead
12exemption is granted to disabled persons in the amount of
13$2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to be deducted
14from the property's value as equalized or assessed by the
15Department of Revenue. The disabled person shall receive the
16homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:
17        (1) The property must be occupied as the primary
18    residence by the disabled person.
19        (2) The disabled person must be liable for paying the
20    real estate taxes on the property.
21        (3) The disabled person must be an owner of record of
22    the property or have a legal or equitable interest in the
23    property as evidenced by a written instrument. In the case
24    of a leasehold interest in property, the lease must be for

 

 

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1    a single family residence.
2    A person who is disabled during the taxable year is
3eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that
4taxable year. Application must be made during the application
5period in effect for the county of residence. If a homestead
6exemption has been granted under this Section and the person
7awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a
8facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD
9MR/DD Community Care Act, then the exemption shall continue (i)
10so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the
11qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains
12unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the
13homestead exemption.
14    (b) For the purposes of this Section, "disabled person"
15means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful
16activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or
17mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or
18has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period
19of not less than 12 months. Disabled persons filing claims
20under this Act shall submit proof of disability in such form
21and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation
22prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive
23disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall
24constitute proof of disability for purposes of this Act.
25Issuance of an Illinois Disabled Person Identification Card
26stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as

 

 

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1defined in Section 4A of The Illinois Identification Card Act,
2shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a
3disabled person for purposes of this Act. A disabled person not
4covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not
5presenting a Disabled Person Identification Card stating that
6the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by
7a physician designated by the Department, and his status as a
8disabled person determined using the same standards as used by
9the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required
10examination shall be borne by the claimant.
11    (c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned
12and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as
13defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is
14considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the
15value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the
16Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or
17units occupied by a disabled person. The disabled person shall
18receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following
19requirements:
20        (1) The property must be occupied as the primary
21    residence by the disabled person.
22        (2) The disabled person must be liable by contract with
23    the owner or owners of record for paying the apportioned
24    property taxes on the property of the cooperative or life
25    care facility. In the case of a life care facility, the
26    disabled person must be liable for paying the apportioned

 

 

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1    property taxes under a life care contract as defined in
2    Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.
3        (3) The disabled person must be an owner of record of a
4    legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment
5    building. A leasehold interest does not meet this
6    requirement.
7If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the
8cooperative association or management firm shall credit the
9savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax
10liability of the qualifying disabled person. The chief county
11assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the
12association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A
13person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the
14qualified disabled person is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.
15    (d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the
16eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption
17according to guidelines established by the Department. After a
18person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual
19verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed
20to the taxpayer.
21    In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the
22chief county assessment officer shall provide to each person
23granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form to
24designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice
25of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied
26under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The

 

 

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1duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to
2be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be
3given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing
4the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an
5administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment
6officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed
7designation with the county collector, who shall issue the
8duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A
9designation may be rescinded by the disabled person in the
10manner required by the chief county assessment officer.
11    (e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165
12or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.
13(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
14    (35 ILCS 200/15-170)
15    Sec. 15-170. Senior Citizens Homestead Exemption. An
16annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here
17with relation to cooperatives or life care facilities, to a
18maximum reduction set forth below from the property's value, as
19equalized or assessed by the Department, is granted for
20property that is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years
21of age or older who is liable for paying real estate taxes on
22the property and is an owner of record of the property or has a
23legal or equitable interest therein as evidenced by a written
24instrument, except for a leasehold interest, other than a
25leasehold interest of land on which a single family residence

 

 

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1is located, which is occupied as a residence by a person 65
2years or older who has an ownership interest therein, legal,
3equitable or as a lessee, and on which he or she is liable for
4the payment of property taxes. Before taxable year 2004, the
5maximum reduction shall be $2,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or
6more inhabitants and $2,000 in all other counties. For taxable
7years 2004 through 2005, the maximum reduction shall be $3,000
8in all counties. For taxable years 2006 and 2007, the maximum
9reduction shall be $3,500 and, for taxable years 2008 and
10thereafter, the maximum reduction is $4,000 in all counties.
11    For land improved with an apartment building owned and
12operated as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value
13of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be
14multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a
15person 65 years of age or older who is liable, by contract with
16the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the
17property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable
18interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a
19leasehold interest. For land improved with a life care
20facility, the maximum reduction from the value of the property,
21as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the
22number of apartments or units occupied by persons 65 years of
23age or older, irrespective of any legal, equitable, or
24leasehold interest in the facility, who are liable, under a
25contract with the owner or owners of record of the facility,
26for paying property taxes on the property. In a cooperative or

 

 

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1a life care facility where a homestead exemption has been
2granted, the cooperative association or the management firm of
3the cooperative or facility shall credit the savings resulting
4from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of
5the owner or resident who qualified for the exemption. Any
6person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be
7guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Under this Section and
8Sections 15-175, 15-176, and 15-177, "life care facility" means
9a facility, as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities
10Act, with which the applicant for the homestead exemption has a
11life care contract as defined in that Act.
12    When a homestead exemption has been granted under this
13Section and the person qualifying subsequently becomes a
14resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and
15Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, or the ID/DD
16MR/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall continue so long
17as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying
18person's spouse if the spouse is 65 years of age or older, or
19if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the
20person qualified for the homestead exemption.
21    A person who will be 65 years of age during the current
22assessment year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead
23exemption during that assessment year. Application shall be
24made during the application period in effect for the county of
25his residence.
26    Beginning with assessment year 2003, for taxes payable in

 

 

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12004, property that is first occupied as a residence after
2January 1 of any assessment year by a person who is eligible
3for the senior citizens homestead exemption under this Section
4must be granted a pro-rata exemption for the assessment year.
5The amount of the pro-rata exemption is the exemption allowed
6in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied
7by the number of days during the assessment year the property
8is occupied as a residence by a person eligible for the
9exemption under this Section. The chief county assessment
10officer must adopt reasonable procedures to establish
11eligibility for this pro-rata exemption.
12    The assessor or chief county assessment officer may
13determine the eligibility of a life care facility to receive
14the benefits provided by this Section, by affidavit,
15application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other
16reasonable methods in order to insure that the tax savings
17resulting from the exemption are credited by the management
18firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying
19resident. The assessor may request reasonable proof that the
20management firm has so credited the exemption.
21    The chief county assessment officer of each county with
22less than 3,000,000 inhabitants shall provide to each person
23allowed a homestead exemption under this Section a form to
24designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice
25of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied
26under this Code on the property of the person receiving the

 

 

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1exemption. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the
2notice required to be provided to the person receiving the
3exemption, and shall be given in the manner required by this
4Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice
5shall pay a fee of $5 to cover administrative costs to the
6supervisor of assessments, who shall then file the executed
7designation with the county collector. Notwithstanding any
8other provision of this Code to the contrary, the filing of
9such an executed designation requires the county collector to
10provide duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A
11designation may be rescinded by the person who executed such
12designation at any time, in the manner and form required by the
13chief county assessment officer.
14    The assessor or chief county assessment officer may
15determine the eligibility of residential property to receive
16the homestead exemption provided by this Section by
17application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other
18reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in
19accordance with guidelines established by the Department.
20    In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, beginning
21in taxable year 2010, each taxpayer who has been granted an
22exemption under this Section must reapply on an annual basis.
23The chief county assessment officer shall mail the application
24to the taxpayer. In counties with less than 3,000,000
25inhabitants, the county board may by resolution provide that if
26a person has been granted a homestead exemption under this

 

 

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1Section, the person qualifying need not reapply for the
2exemption.
3    In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if the
4assessor or chief county assessment officer requires annual
5application for verification of eligibility for an exemption
6once granted under this Section, the application shall be
7mailed to the taxpayer.
8    The assessor or chief county assessment officer shall
9notify each person who qualifies for an exemption under this
10Section that the person may also qualify for deferral of real
11estate taxes under the Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral
12Act. The notice shall set forth the qualifications needed for
13deferral of real estate taxes, the address and telephone number
14of county collector, and a statement that applications for
15deferral of real estate taxes may be obtained from the county
16collector.
17    Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act,
18no reimbursement by the State is required for the
19implementation of any mandate created by this Section.
20(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08;
2196-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10;
2296-1418, eff. 8-2-10.)
 
23    (35 ILCS 200/15-172)
24    Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead
25Exemption.

 

 

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1    (a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens
2Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.
3    (b) As used in this Section:
4    "Applicant" means an individual who has filed an
5application under this Section.
6    "Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value
7of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value
8of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of
9the residence after the base year.
10    "Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable
11year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for
12the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the
13property was improved with a permanent structure that was
14occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for
15paying real property taxes on the property and who was either
16(i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or
17equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written
18instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a
19lessee in the parcel of property that was single family
20residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the
21applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized
22assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized
23assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such
24equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that
25results from a temporary irregularity in the property that
26reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then

 

 

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1that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a
2new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.
3For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer
4shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant
5applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing
6base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base
7year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An
8equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value
9that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that
10reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall
11not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The
12selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and
13thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms
14of this paragraph.
15    "Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County
16Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which
17the property is located.
18    "Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as
19equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.
20    "Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the
21applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant
22as their principal place of residence.
23    "Household income" means the combined income of the members
24of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable
25year.
26    "Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07

 

 

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1of the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief
2and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act, except that, beginning in
3assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's
4benefits.
5    "Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States
6Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws
7relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year
8preceding the taxable year.
9    "Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means
10a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities
11Act.
12    "Maximum income limitation" means:
13        (1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;
14        (2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;
15        (3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;
16        (4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and
17        (5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.
18    "Residence" means the principal dwelling place and
19appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this
20State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household
21and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel
22upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for
23residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer
24has established a specific legal description for a portion of
25property constituting the residence, then that portion of
26property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this

 

 

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1Section.
2    "Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad
3valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are
4levied.
5    (c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens
6assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real
7property that is improved with a permanent structure that is
8occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of
9age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household
10income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation,
11(iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property,
12and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or
13equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written
14instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a
15leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a
16permanent structure that is a single family residence that is
17occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age
18or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income
19that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a
20legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as
21lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property
22taxes on that property.
23    In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of
24the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed
25value of the residence in the taxable year for which
26application is made minus the base amount. In all other

 

 

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1counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i)
2through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and
3thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized
4assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which
5application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable
6year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:
7        (1) For an applicant who has a household income of
8    $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the
9    equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable
10    year for which application is made minus the base amount.
11        (2) For an applicant who has a household income
12    exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of
13    the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the
14    residence in the taxable year for which application is made
15    minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.
16        (3) For an applicant who has a household income
17    exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of
18    the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the
19    residence in the taxable year for which application is made
20    minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.
21        (4) For an applicant who has a household income
22    exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of
23    the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the
24    residence in the taxable year for which application is made
25    minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.
26        (5) For an applicant who has a household income

 

 

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1    exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of
2    the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the
3    residence in the taxable year for which application is made
4    minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.
5    When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant
6for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption
7under this Section has been granted, the base year and base
8amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for
9the prior year.
10    Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to
11the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall
12give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of
13improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that
14were added after the base year for this parcel and that
15increased the assessed value of the property.
16    In the case of land improved with an apartment building
17owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a
18life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum
19reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is
20limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit
21occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of
22age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed
23the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract
24with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property
25taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a
26legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment

 

 

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1building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a
2cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under
3this Section, the cooperative association or its management
4firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption
5only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who
6qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses
7to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the
8exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.
9    When a homestead exemption has been granted under this
10Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility
11licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the
12Nursing Home Care Act, or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act,
13the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as
14the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified
15applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still
16owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.
17    Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who
18would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and
19the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this
20exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section
21shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year
22preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that,
23except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other
24qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those
25years.
26    When married persons maintain separate residences, the

 

 

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1exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only
2one of such persons and for only one residence.
3    For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than
43,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall
5submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County
6Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is
7located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for
8taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive
9the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief
10County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property
11is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief
12County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer
13in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually
14give notice of the application period by mail or by
15publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000
16inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter,
17to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application
18by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment
19Officer of the county in which the property is located. A
20county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of
21applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall
22submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's
23total household income, age, marital status (and if married the
24name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and
25principal dwelling place of members of the household on January
261 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule,

 

 

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1a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by
2applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment
3Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an
4exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is
5eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall
6contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made
7under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a
8fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in
9Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961. The applications
10shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens
11Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice
12that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an
13audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.
14    Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in
15counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an
16applicant fails to file the application required by this
17Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a
18mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to
19render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a
20timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend
21the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant
22regains the capability to file the application, but in no case
23may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the
24original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension
25provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the
26Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from

 

 

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1the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the
2condition, that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was
3so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing
4the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the
5applicant regained the capability to file the application.
6    Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other
7provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than
83,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the
9application required by this Section in a timely manner and
10this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition
11sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of
12filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County
13Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period
14of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this
15paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County
16Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's
17physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, and
18that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe
19that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the
20application in a timely manner.
21    In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an
22applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the
23denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment
24official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in
25taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of
26determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather

 

 

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1than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's
2exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount
3of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995
4as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year,
5(ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in
6taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993,
7as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption
8erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.
9    For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years
10of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to
11apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year.
12Application shall be made during the application period in
13effect for the county of his or her residence.
14    The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the
15eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a
16cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by
17use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection,
18questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure
19that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited
20by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each
21qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may
22request reasonable proof that the management firm has so
23credited that exemption.
24    Except as provided in this Section, all information
25received by the chief county assessment officer or the
26Department from applications filed under this Section, or from

 

 

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1any investigation conducted under the provisions of this
2Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or
3pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or
4local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or
5sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance
6imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such
7information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper
8judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
9    Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the
10Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or
11making available reasonable statistics concerning the
12operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which
13the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a
14way that information contained in any individual claim shall
15not be disclosed.
16    (d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually
17publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided
18under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60
19days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the
20application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment
21Officer of the county in which the property is located. The
22notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in
23the county.
24    Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act,
25no reimbursement by the State is required for the
26implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
296-355, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
3    Section 42. The Counties Code is amended by changing
4Section 5-25013 as follows:
 
5    (55 ILCS 5/5-25013)  (from Ch. 34, par. 5-25013)
6    Sec. 5-25013. Organization of board; powers and duties.
7    (A) The board of health of each county or multiple-county
8health department shall, immediately after appointment, meet
9and organize, by the election of one of its number as president
10and one as secretary, and either from its number or otherwise,
11a treasurer and such other officers as it may deem necessary. A
12board of health may make and adopt such rules for its own
13guidance and for the government of the health department as may
14be deemed necessary to protect and improve public health not
15inconsistent with this Division. It shall:
16        1. Hold a meeting prior to the end of each operating
17    fiscal year, at which meeting officers shall be elected for
18    the ensuing operating fiscal year;
19        2. Hold meetings at least quarterly;
20        3. Hold special meetings upon a written request signed
21    by two members and filed with the Secretary or on request
22    of the medical health officer or public health
23    administrator;
24        4. Provide, equip and maintain suitable offices,

 

 

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1    facilities and appliances for the health department;
2        5. Publish annually, within 90 days after the end of
3    the county's operating fiscal year, in pamphlet form, for
4    free distribution, an annual report showing the condition
5    of its trust on the last day of the most recently completed
6    operating fiscal year, the sums of money received from all
7    sources, giving the name of any donor, how all moneys have
8    been expended and for what purpose, and such other
9    statistics and information in regard to the work of the
10    health department as it may deem of general interest;
11        6. Within its jurisdiction, and professional and
12    technical competence, enforce and observe all State laws
13    pertaining to the preservation of health, and all county
14    and municipal ordinances except as otherwise provided in
15    this Division;
16        7. Within its jurisdiction, and professional and
17    technical competence, investigate the existence of any
18    contagious or infectious disease and adopt measures, not
19    inconsistent with the regulations of the State Department
20    of Public Health, to arrest the progress of the same;
21        8. Within its jurisdiction, and professional and
22    technical competence, make all necessary sanitary and
23    health investigations and inspections;
24        9. Upon request, give professional advice and
25    information to all city, village, incorporated town and
26    school authorities, within its jurisdiction, in all

 

 

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1    matters pertaining to sanitation and public health;
2        10. Appoint a medical health officer as the executive
3    officer for the department, who shall be a citizen of the
4    United States and shall possess such qualifications as may
5    be prescribed by the State Department of Public Health; or
6    appoint a public health administrator who shall possess
7    such qualifications as may be prescribed by the State
8    Department of Public Health as the executive officer for
9    the department, provided that the board of health shall
10    make available medical supervision which is considered
11    adequate by the Director of Public Health;
12        10 1/2. Appoint such professional employees as may be
13    approved by the executive officer who meet the
14    qualification requirements of the State Department of
15    Public Health for their respective positions provided,
16    that in those health departments temporarily without a
17    medical health officer or public health administrator
18    approval by the State Department of Public Health shall
19    suffice;
20        11. Appoint such other officers and employees as may be
21    necessary;
22        12. Prescribe the powers and duties of all officers and
23    employees, fix their compensation, and authorize payment
24    of the same and all other department expenses from the
25    County Health Fund of the county or counties concerned;
26        13. Submit an annual budget to the county board or

 

 

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1    boards;
2        14. Submit an annual report to the county board or
3    boards, explaining all of its activities and expenditures;
4        15. Establish and carry out programs and services in
5    mental health, including intellectual disabilities mental
6    retardation and alcoholism and substance abuse, not
7    inconsistent with the regulations of the Department of
8    Human Services;
9        16. Consult with all other private and public health
10    agencies in the county in the development of local plans
11    for the most efficient delivery of health services.
12    (B) The board of health of each county or multiple-county
13health department may:
14        1. Initiate and carry out programs and activities of
15    all kinds, not inconsistent with law, that may be deemed
16    necessary or desirable in the promotion and protection of
17    health and in the control of disease including
18    tuberculosis;
19        2. Receive contributions of real and personal
20    property;
21        3. Recommend to the county board or boards the adoption
22    of such ordinances and of such rules and regulations as may
23    be deemed necessary or desirable for the promotion and
24    protection of health and control of disease;
25        4. Appoint a medical and dental advisory committee and
26    a non-medical advisory committee to the health department;

 

 

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1        5. Enter into contracts with the State,
2    municipalities, other political subdivisions and
3    non-official agencies for the purchase, sale or exchange of
4    health services;
5        6. Set fees it deems reasonable and necessary (i) to
6    provide services or perform regulatory activities, (ii)
7    when required by State or federal grant award conditions,
8    (iii) to support activities delegated to the board of
9    health by the Illinois Department of Public Health, or (iv)
10    when required by an agreement between the board of health
11    and other private or governmental organizations, unless
12    the fee has been established as a part of a regulatory
13    ordinance adopted by the county board, in which case the
14    board of health shall make recommendations to the county
15    board concerning those fees. Revenue generated under this
16    Section shall be deposited into the County Health Fund or
17    to the account of the multiple-county health department.
18        7. Enter into multiple year employment contracts with
19    the medical health officer or public health administrator
20    as may be necessary for the recruitment and retention of
21    personnel and the proper functioning of the health
22    department.
23    (C) The board of health of a multiple-county health
24department may hire attorneys to represent and advise the
25department concerning matters that are not within the exclusive
26jurisdiction of the State's Attorney of one of the counties

 

 

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1that created the department.
2(Source: P.A. 89-272, eff. 8-10-95; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
3    Section 45. The County Care for Persons with Developmental
4Disabilities Act is amended by changing the title of the Act
5and by changing Sections 1, 1.1, and 1.2 as follows:
 
6    (55 ILCS 105/Act title)
7An Act concerning the care and treatment of persons who are
8intellectually disabled mentally retarded or under
9developmental disability.
 
10    (55 ILCS 105/1)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 201)
11    Sec. 1. Facilities or services; tax levy. Any county may
12provide facilities or services for the benefit of its residents
13who are intellectually disabled mentally retarded or under a
14developmental disability and who are not eligible to
15participate in any such program conducted under Article 14 of
16the School Code, or may contract therefor with any privately or
17publicly operated entity which provides facilities or services
18either in or out of such county.
19    For such purpose, the county board may levy an annual tax
20of not to exceed .1% upon all of the taxable property in the
21county at the value thereof, as equalized or assessed by the
22Department of Revenue. Taxes first levied under this Section on
23or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th

 

 

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1General Assembly are subject to referendum approval under
2Section 1.1 or 1.2 of this Act. Such tax shall be levied and
3collected in the same manner as other county taxes, but shall
4not be included in any limitation otherwise prescribed as to
5the rate or amount of county taxes but shall be in addition
6thereto and in excess thereof. When collected, such tax shall
7be paid into a special fund in the county treasury, to be
8designated as the "Fund for Persons With a Developmental
9Disability", and shall be used only for the purpose specified
10in this Section. The levying of this annual tax shall not
11preclude the county from the use of other federal, State, or
12local funds for the purpose of providing facilities or services
13for the care and treatment of its residents who are mentally
14retarded or under a developmental disability.
15(Source: P.A. 96-1350, eff. 7-28-10.)
 
16    (55 ILCS 105/1.1)
17    Sec. 1.1. Petition for submission to referendum by county.
18    (a) If, on and after the effective date of this amendatory
19Act of the 96th General Assembly, the county board passes an
20ordinance or resolution as provided in Section 1 of this Act
21asking that an annual tax may be levied for the purpose of
22providing facilities or services set forth in that Section and
23so instructs the county clerk, the clerk shall certify the
24proposition to the proper election officials for submission at
25the next general county election. The proposition shall be in

 

 

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1substantially the following form:
2        Shall ..... County levy an annual tax not to exceed
3    0.1% upon the equalized assessed value of all taxable
4    property in the county for the purposes of providing
5    facilities or services for the benefit of its residents who
6    are intellectually disabled mentally retarded or under a
7    developmental disability and who are not eligible to
8    participate in any program provided under Article 14 of the
9    School Code, 105 ILCS 5/14.1-1.01 et seq., including
10    contracting for those facilities or services with any
11    privately or publicly operated entity that provides those
12    facilities or services either in or out of the county?
13    (b) If a majority of the votes cast upon the proposition
14are in favor thereof, such tax levy shall be authorized and the
15county shall levy a tax not to exceed the rate set forth in
16Section 1 of this Act.
17(Source: P.A. 96-1350, eff. 7-28-10.)
 
18    (55 ILCS 105/1.2)
19    Sec. 1.2. Petition for submission to referendum by
20electors.
21    (a) Whenever a petition for submission to referendum by the
22electors which requests the establishment and maintenance of
23facilities or services for the benefit of its residents with a
24developmental disability and the levy of an annual tax not to
25exceed 0.1% upon all the taxable property in the county at the

 

 

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1value thereof, as equalized or assessed by the Department of
2Revenue, is signed by electors of the county equal in number to
3at least 10% of the total votes cast for the office that
4received the greatest total number of votes at the last
5preceding general county election and is presented to the
6county clerk, the clerk shall certify the proposition to the
7proper election authorities for submission at the next general
8county election. The proposition shall be in substantially the
9following form:
10        Shall ..... County levy an annual tax not to exceed
11    0.1% upon the equalized assessed value of all taxable
12    property in the county for the purposes of establishing and
13    maintaining facilities or services for the benefit of its
14    residents who are intellectually disabled mentally
15    retarded or under a developmental disability and who are
16    not eligible to participate in any program provided under
17    Article 14 of the School Code, 105 ILCS 5/14.1-1.01 et
18    seq., including contracting for those facilities or
19    services with any privately or publicly operated entity
20    that provides those facilities or services either in or out
21    of the county?
22    (b) If a majority of the votes cast upon the proposition
23are in favor thereof, such tax levy shall be authorized and the
24county shall levy a tax not to exceed the rate set forth in
25Section 1 of this Act.
26(Source: P.A. 96-1350, eff. 7-28-10.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 50. The Township Code is amended by changing
2Sections 30-145, 190-10, and 260-5 as follows:
 
3    (60 ILCS 1/30-145)
4    Sec. 30-145. Mental health services. If a township is not
5included in a mental health district organized under the
6Community Mental Health Act, the electors may authorize the
7board of trustees to provide mental health services, including
8services for the alcoholic, the drug addicted, and the
9intellectually disabled mentally retarded, for residents of
10the township by disbursing existing funds if available by
11contracting with mental health agencies approved by the
12Department of Human Services, alcoholism treatment programs
13licensed by the Department of Public Health, and drug abuse
14facilities and other alcohol and drug abuse services approved
15by the Department of Human Services. To be eligible to receive
16township funds, an agency, program, facility, or other service
17provider must have been in existence for more than one year and
18must serve the township area.
19(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-210, eff. 7-25-97.)
 
20    (60 ILCS 1/190-10)
21    Sec. 190-10. Mental health services. If a township is not
22included in a mental health district organized under the
23Community Mental Health Act, the township board may provide

 

 

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1mental health services (including services for the alcoholic,
2the drug addicted, and the intellectually disabled mentally
3retarded) for residents of the township by disbursing funds,
4pursuant to an appropriation, to mental health agencies
5approved by the Department of Human Services, alcoholism
6treatment programs licensed by the Department of Public Health,
7drug abuse facilities approved by the Department of Human
8Services, and other alcoholism and drug abuse services approved
9by the Department of Human Services. To be eligible for
10township funds disbursed under this Section, an agency,
11program, facility, or other service provider must have been in
12existence for more than one year and serve the township area.
13(Source: P.A. 88-62; 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
14    (60 ILCS 1/260-5)
15    Sec. 260-5. Distributions from general fund, generally. To
16the extent that moneys in the township general fund have not
17been appropriated for other purposes, the township board may
18direct that distributions be made from that fund as follows:
19        (1) To (i) school districts maintaining grades 1
20    through 8 that are wholly or partly located within the
21    township or (ii) governmental units as defined in Section 1
22    of the Community Mental Health Act that provide mental
23    health facilities and services (including facilities and
24    services for the intellectually disabled mentally
25    retarded) under that Act within the township, or (iii)

 

 

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1    both.
2        (2) To community action agencies that serve township
3    residents. "Community action agencies" are defined as in
4    Part A of Title II of the federal Economic Opportunity Act
5    of 1964.
6(Source: P.A. 82-783; 88-62.)
 
7    Section 55. The Public Health District Act is amended by
8changing Section 17 as follows:
 
9    (70 ILCS 905/17)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 17)
10    Sec. 17. The medical health officer or administrator shall
11have power, and it shall be his or her duty:
12        (1) To be the executive officer of the board of health.
13        (2) To enforce and observe the rules, regulations and
14    orders of the State Department of Public Health and all
15    State laws pertaining to the preservation of the health of
16    the people within the public health district, including
17    regulations in which the State Department of Public Health
18    shall require provision of home visitation and other
19    services for pregnant women, new mothers and infants who
20    are at risk as defined by that Department that encompass
21    but are not limited to consultation for parental and child
22    development, comprehensive health education, nutritional
23    assessment, dental health, and periodic health screening,
24    referral and follow-up; the services shall be provided

 

 

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1    through programs funded by grants from the Department of
2    Public Health from appropriations to the Department for
3    that purpose.
4        (3) To exercise the rights, powers and duties of all
5    township boards of health and county boards of health
6    within the public health district.
7        (4) To execute and enforce, within the public health
8    district, all city, village and incorporated town
9    ordinances relating to public health and sanitation.
10        (5) To investigate the existence of any contagious or
11    infectious disease within the public health district and to
12    adopt measures, with the approval of the State Department
13    of Public Health, to arrest the progress of the same.
14        (6) To make all necessary sanitary and health
15    investigations and inspections within the public health
16    district.
17        (7) To establish a dental clinic for the benefit of the
18    school children of the district.
19        (8) To give professional advice and information to all
20    city, village, incorporated town and school authorities
21    within the public health district in all matters pertaining
22    to sanitation and public health.
23        (9) To devote his or her entire time to his or her
24    official duties.
25        (10) To establish and execute programs and services in
26    the field of mental health, including intellectual

 

 

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1    disabilities mental retardation, not inconsistent with the
2    regulations of the Department of Human Services.
3        (11) If approved by the board of health, to enter into
4    contracts with municipalities, other political
5    subdivisions and private agencies for the purchase, sale,
6    delivery or exchange of health services.
7(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
8    Section 56. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is
9amended by changing Section 4.03 as follows:
 
10    (70 ILCS 3615/4.03)  (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 704.03)
11    Sec. 4.03. Taxes.
12    (a) In order to carry out any of the powers or purposes of
13the Authority, the Board may by ordinance adopted with the
14concurrence of 12 of the then Directors, impose throughout the
15metropolitan region any or all of the taxes provided in this
16Section. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, taxes
17imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident
18thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department
19of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer
20and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds
21for erroneous payments of the taxes. Nothing in this amendatory
22Act of the 95th General Assembly is intended to invalidate any
23taxes currently imposed by the Authority. The increased vote
24requirements to impose a tax shall only apply to actions taken

 

 

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1after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th
2General Assembly.
3    (b) The Board may impose a public transportation tax upon
4all persons engaged in the metropolitan region in the business
5of selling at retail motor fuel for operation of motor vehicles
6upon public highways. The tax shall be at a rate not to exceed
75% of the gross receipts from the sales of motor fuel in the
8course of the business. As used in this Act, the term "motor
9fuel" shall have the same meaning as in the Motor Fuel Tax Law.
10The Board may provide for details of the tax. The provisions of
11any tax shall conform, as closely as may be practicable, to the
12provisions of the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act,
13including without limitation, conformity to penalties with
14respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State
15Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and
16regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of
17the provisions of the tax imposed, except that reference in the
18Act to any municipality shall refer to the Authority and the
19tax shall be imposed only with regard to receipts from sales of
20motor fuel in the metropolitan region, at rates as limited by
21this Section.
22    (c) In connection with the tax imposed under paragraph (b)
23of this Section the Board may impose a tax upon the privilege
24of using in the metropolitan region motor fuel for the
25operation of a motor vehicle upon public highways, the tax to
26be at a rate not in excess of the rate of tax imposed under

 

 

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1paragraph (b) of this Section. The Board may provide for
2details of the tax.
3    (d) The Board may impose a motor vehicle parking tax upon
4the privilege of parking motor vehicles at off-street parking
5facilities in the metropolitan region at which a fee is
6charged, and may provide for reasonable classifications in and
7exemptions to the tax, for administration and enforcement
8thereof and for civil penalties and refunds thereunder and may
9provide criminal penalties thereunder, the maximum penalties
10not to exceed the maximum criminal penalties provided in the
11Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The Authority may collect and
12enforce the tax itself or by contract with any unit of local
13government. The State Department of Revenue shall have no
14responsibility for the collection and enforcement unless the
15Department agrees with the Authority to undertake the
16collection and enforcement. As used in this paragraph, the term
17"parking facility" means a parking area or structure having
18parking spaces for more than 2 vehicles at which motor vehicles
19are permitted to park in return for an hourly, daily, or other
20periodic fee, whether publicly or privately owned, but does not
21include parking spaces on a public street, the use of which is
22regulated by parking meters.
23    (e) The Board may impose a Regional Transportation
24Authority Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in
25the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in
26the metropolitan region. In Cook County the tax rate shall be

 

 

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11.25% of the gross receipts from sales of food for human
2consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is
3sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that
4has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription
5and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and
6insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by
7diabetics, and 1% of the gross receipts from other taxable
8sales made in the course of that business. In DuPage, Kane,
9Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties, the tax rate shall be 0.75%
10of the gross receipts from all taxable sales made in the course
11of that business. The tax imposed under this Section and all
12civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof
13shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of
14Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and
15enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so
16collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine
17all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the
18erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the
19administration of, and compliance with this Section, the
20Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall
21have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers
22and duties, and be subject to the same conditions,
23restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions
24and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of
25procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d,
261e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions

 

 

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1therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to
2the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a,
35b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8,
49, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and
5Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully
6as if those provisions were set forth herein.
7    Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority
8granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their
9seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax
10as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in
11combination in a single amount with State taxes that sellers
12are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, under any
13bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.
14    Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be
15made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a
16credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State
17Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the
18amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification
19from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State
20Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund
21established under paragraph (n) of this Section.
22    If a tax is imposed under this subsection (e), a tax shall
23also be imposed under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section.
24    For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized
25under this Section is applicable, a retail sale by a producer
26of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois, is a sale at retail

 

 

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1at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois
2is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to
3coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the
4seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the
5sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in
6interstate or foreign commerce.
7    No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection
8on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of
9another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this
10State.
11    Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the
12Regional Transportation Authority to impose a tax upon the
13privilege of engaging in any business that under the
14Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject
15of taxation by this State.
16    (f) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a
17Regional Transportation Authority Service Occupation Tax shall
18also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the metropolitan
19region in the business of making sales of service, who as an
20incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible
21personal property within the metropolitan region, either in the
22form of tangible personal property or in the form of real
23estate as an incident to a sale of service. In Cook County, the
24tax rate shall be: (1) 1.25% of the serviceman's cost price of
25food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred
26incident to a sale of service subject to the service occupation

 

 

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1tax by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the
2Nursing Home Care Act, or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act
3that is located in the metropolitan region; (2) 1.25% of the
4selling price of food for human consumption that is to be
5consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than
6alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been
7prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and
8nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and
9insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by
10diabetics; and (3) 1% of the selling price from other taxable
11sales of tangible personal property transferred. In DuPage,
12Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will Counties the rate shall be 0.75%
13of the selling price of all tangible personal property
14transferred.
15    The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil
16penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be
17collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The
18Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this
19paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to
20dispose of taxes and penalties collected in the manner
21hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit
22memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or
23penalty hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with
24this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to
25this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies,
26privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to

 

 

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1the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties,
2exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the
3same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2,
42a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other
5than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to
6the State shall be to the Authority), 5, 7, 8 (except that the
7jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent
8indicated in that Section 8 shall be the Authority), 9 (except
9as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and
10except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may
11not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the
12reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation
13Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean
14the Authority), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18,
1519 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of
16the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those
17provisions were set forth herein.
18    Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority
19granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their
20serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the
21tax as an additional charge, that charge may be stated in
22combination in a single amount with State tax that servicemen
23are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under
24any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.
25    Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be
26made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a

 

 

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1credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State
2Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the
3amount specified, and to the person named in the notification
4from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State
5Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund
6established under paragraph (n) of this Section.
7    Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize
8the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in
9any business that under the Constitution of the United States
10may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.
11    (g) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a tax
12shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using in the
13metropolitan region, any item of tangible personal property
14that is purchased outside the metropolitan region at retail
15from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an
16agency of this State's government. In Cook County the tax rate
17shall be 1% of the selling price of the tangible personal
18property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. In
19DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will counties the tax rate
20shall be 0.75% of the selling price of the tangible personal
21property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The
22tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for
23titling or registration purposes is given as being in the
24metropolitan region. The tax shall be collected by the
25Department of Revenue for the Regional Transportation
26Authority. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption

 

 

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1determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue,
2before the title or certificate of registration for the
3property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be
4transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with
5which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal
6property must be titled or registered if the Department and the
7State agency or State officer determine that this procedure
8will expedite the processing of applications for title or
9registration.
10    The Department shall have full power to administer and
11enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties and
12interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties and
13interest collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to
14determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on
15account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty or interest
16hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this
17paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this
18paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges,
19immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same
20conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions,
21exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes
22of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the
23definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this
24State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the
25State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection
26or refunding of the tax by retailers), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15,

 

 

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119 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and
2except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21 and 22 of
3the Use Tax Act, and are not inconsistent with this paragraph,
4as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.
5    Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be
6made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a
7credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State
8Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the
9amount specified, and to the person named in the notification
10from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State
11Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund
12established under paragraph (n) of this Section.
13    (h) The Authority may impose a replacement vehicle tax of
14$50 on any passenger car as defined in Section 1-157 of the
15Illinois Vehicle Code purchased within the metropolitan region
16by or on behalf of an insurance company to replace a passenger
17car of an insured person in settlement of a total loss claim.
18The tax imposed may not become effective before the first day
19of the month following the passage of the ordinance imposing
20the tax and receipt of a certified copy of the ordinance by the
21Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall collect
22the tax for the Authority in accordance with Sections 3-2002
23and 3-2003 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
24    The Department shall immediately pay over to the State
25Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes collected
26hereunder.

 

 

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1    As soon as possible after the first day of each month,
2beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department
3of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the
4Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the
5local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation
6Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section
7during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a
8STAR bond district.
9    After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund,
10on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the
11Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the
12disbursement of stated sums of money to the Authority. The
13amount to be paid to the Authority shall be the amount
14collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month
15by the Department, less any amount determined by the Department
16to be necessary for the payment of refunds, and less any
17amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund.
18Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the
19disbursement certification to the Authority provided for in
20this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department,
21the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for that
22amount in accordance with the directions contained in the
23certification.
24    (i) The Board may not impose any other taxes except as it
25may from time to time be authorized by law to impose.
26    (j) A certificate of registration issued by the State

 

 

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1Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers'
2Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act
3shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is
4taxed under the tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (e), (f) or
5(g) of this Section and no additional registration shall be
6required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax
7Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard
8to any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section.
9    (k) The provisions of any tax imposed under paragraph (c)
10of this Section shall conform as closely as may be practicable
11to the provisions of the Use Tax Act, including without
12limitation conformity as to penalties with respect to the tax
13imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue
14to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the
15administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax
16imposed. The taxes shall be imposed only on use within the
17metropolitan region and at rates as provided in the paragraph.
18    (l) The Board in imposing any tax as provided in paragraphs
19(b) and (c) of this Section, shall, after seeking the advice of
20the State Department of Revenue, provide means for retailers,
21users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those
22with regard to which the taxes may be imposed as provided in
23those paragraphs to receive refunds of taxes improperly paid,
24which provisions may be at variance with the refund provisions
25as applicable under the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act.
26The State Department of Revenue may provide for certificates of

 

 

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1registration for users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes
2other than those with regard to which taxes may be imposed as
3provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section to
4facilitate the reporting and nontaxability of the exempt sales
5or uses.
6    (m) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under
7this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof
8filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the
9Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce
10this Section on behalf of the Regional Transportation Authority
11as of September 1 next following such adoption and filing.
12Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing
13or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a
14certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before
15the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed
16to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of
17October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning
18January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing,
19increasing, decreasing, or discontinuing the tax hereunder
20shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the
21Department, whereupon the Department shall proceed to
22administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of the
23first month to occur not less than 60 days following such
24adoption and filing. Any ordinance or resolution of the
25Authority imposing a tax under this Section and in effect on
26August 1, 2007 shall remain in full force and effect and shall

 

 

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1be administered by the Department of Revenue under the terms
2and conditions and rates of tax established by such ordinance
3or resolution until the Department begins administering and
4enforcing an increased tax under this Section as authorized by
5this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. The tax rates
6authorized by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly
7are effective only if imposed by ordinance of the Authority.
8    (n) The State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting
9any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to
10the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority. The taxes
11shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury. On or
12before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State
13Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the
14Comptroller of the State of Illinois and to the Authority (i)
15the amount of taxes collected in each County other than Cook
16County in the metropolitan region, (ii) the amount of taxes
17collected within the City of Chicago, and (iii) the amount
18collected in that portion of Cook County outside of Chicago,
19each amount less the amount necessary for the payment of
20refunds to taxpayers located in those areas described in items
21(i), (ii), and (iii). Within 10 days after receipt by the
22Comptroller of the certification of the amounts, the
23Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for the payment of
24two-thirds of the amounts certified in item (i) of this
25subsection to the Authority and one-third of the amounts
26certified in item (i) of this subsection to the respective

 

 

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1counties other than Cook County and the amount certified in
2items (ii) and (iii) of this subsection to the Authority.
3    In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding
4paragraph, an allocation shall be made in July 1991 and each
5year thereafter to the Regional Transportation Authority. The
6allocation shall be made in an amount equal to the average
7monthly distribution during the preceding calendar year
8(excluding the 2 months of lowest receipts) and the allocation
9shall include the amount of average monthly distribution from
10the Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax
11Replacement Fund. The distribution made in July 1992 and each
12year thereafter under this paragraph and the preceding
13paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and
14disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year.
15The Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the
16Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in
17accordance with this paragraph.
18    (o) Failure to adopt a budget ordinance or otherwise to
19comply with Section 4.01 of this Act or to adopt a Five-year
20Capital Program or otherwise to comply with paragraph (b) of
21Section 2.01 of this Act shall not affect the validity of any
22tax imposed by the Authority otherwise in conformity with law.
23    (p) At no time shall a public transportation tax or motor
24vehicle parking tax authorized under paragraphs (b), (c) and
25(d) of this Section be in effect at the same time as any
26retailers' occupation, use or service occupation tax

 

 

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1authorized under paragraphs (e), (f) and (g) of this Section is
2in effect.
3    Any taxes imposed under the authority provided in
4paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) shall remain in effect only until
5the time as any tax authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of
6this Section are imposed and becomes effective. Once any tax
7authorized by paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) is imposed the Board
8may not reimpose taxes as authorized in paragraphs (b), (c) and
9(d) of the Section unless any tax authorized by paragraphs (e),
10(f) or (g) of this Section becomes ineffective by means other
11than an ordinance of the Board.
12    (q) Any existing rights, remedies and obligations
13(including enforcement by the Regional Transportation
14Authority) arising under any tax imposed under paragraphs (b),
15(c) or (d) of this Section shall not be affected by the
16imposition of a tax under paragraphs (e), (f) or (g) of this
17Section.
18(Source: P.A. 95-708, eff. 1-18-08; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
1996-939, eff. 6-24-10.)
 
20    Section 60. The School Code is amended by changing Sections
212-3.83, 14-1.03a, 21-28, and 34-18 as follows:
 
22    (105 ILCS 5/2-3.83)  (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.83)
23    Sec. 2-3.83. Individual transition plan model pilot
24program.

 

 

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1    (a) The General Assembly finds that transition services for
2special education students in secondary schools are needed for
3the increasing numbers of students exiting school programs.
4Therefore, to ensure coordinated and timely delivery of
5services, the State shall establish a model pilot program to
6provide such services. Local school districts, using joint
7agreements and regional service delivery systems for special
8and vocational education selected by the Governor's Planning
9Council on Developmental Disabilities, shall have the primary
10responsibility to convene transition planning meetings for
11these students who will require post-school adult services.
12    (b) For purposes of this Section:
13        (1) "Post-secondary Service Provider" means a provider
14    of services for adults who have any developmental
15    disability as defined in Section 1-106 of the Mental Health
16    and Developmental Disabilities Code or who are disabled as
17    defined in the Disabled Persons Rehabilitation Act.
18        (2) "Individual Education Plan" means a written
19    statement for an exceptional child that provides at least a
20    statement of: the child's present levels of educational
21    performance, annual goals and short-term instructional
22    objectives; specific special education and related
23    services; the extent of participation in the regular
24    education program; the projected dates for initiation of
25    services; anticipated duration of services; appropriate
26    objective criteria and evaluation procedures; and a

 

 

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1    schedule for annual determination of short-term
2    objectives.
3        (3) "Individual Transition Plan" (ITP) means a
4    multi-agency informal assessment of a student's needs for
5    post-secondary adult services including but not limited to
6    employment, post-secondary education or training and
7    residential independent living.
8        (4) "Developmental Disability" means a disability
9    which is attributable to: (a) an intellectual disability
10    mental retardation, cerebral palsy, epilepsy or autism; or
11    to (b) any other condition which results in impairment
12    similar to that caused by an intellectual disability mental
13    retardation and which requires services similar to those
14    required by intellectually disabled mentally retarded
15    persons. Such disability must originate before the age of
16    18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and
17    constitute a substantial handicap.
18        (5) "Exceptional Characteristic" means any disabling
19    or exceptional characteristic which interferes with a
20    student's education including, but not limited to, a
21    determination that the student is severely or profoundly
22    mentally disabled, trainably mentally disabled,
23    deaf-blind, or has some other health impairment.
24    (c) The model pilot program required by this Section shall
25be established and administered by the Governor's Planning
26Council on Developmental Disabilities in conjunction with the

 

 

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1case coordination pilot projects established by the Department
2of Human Services pursuant to Section 4.1 of the Community
3Services Act, as amended.
4    (d) The model pilot program shall include the following
5features:
6        (1) Written notice shall be sent to the student and,
7    when appropriate, his or her parent or guardian giving the
8    opportunity to consent to having the student's name and
9    relevant information shared with the local case
10    coordination unit and other appropriate State or local
11    agencies for purposes of inviting participants to the
12    individual transition plan meeting.
13        (2) Meetings to develop and modify, as needed, an
14    Individual Transition Plan shall be conducted annually for
15    all students with a developmental disability in the pilot
16    program area who are age 16 or older and who are receiving
17    special education services for 50% or more of their public
18    school program. These meetings shall be convened by the
19    local school district and conducted in conjunction with any
20    other regularly scheduled meetings such as the student's
21    annual individual educational plan meeting. The Governor's
22    Planning Council on Developmental Disabilities shall
23    cooperate with and may enter into any necessary written
24    agreements with the Department of Human Services and the
25    State Board of Education to identify the target group of
26    students for transition planning and the appropriate case

 

 

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1    coordination unit to serve these individuals.
2        (3) The ITP meetings shall be co-chaired by the
3    individual education plan coordinator and the case
4    coordinator. The ITP meeting shall include but not be
5    limited to discussion of the following: the student's
6    projected date of exit from the public schools; his
7    projected post-school goals in the areas of employment,
8    residential living arrangement and post-secondary
9    education or training; specific school or post-school
10    services needed during the following year to achieve the
11    student's goals, including but not limited to vocational
12    evaluation, vocational education, work experience or
13    vocational training, placement assistance, independent
14    living skills training, recreational or leisure training,
15    income support, medical needs and transportation; and
16    referrals and linkage to needed services, including a
17    proposed time frame for services and the responsible agency
18    or provider. The individual transition plan shall be signed
19    by participants in the ITP discussion, including but not
20    limited to the student's parents or guardian, the student
21    (where appropriate), multi-disciplinary team
22    representatives from the public schools, the case
23    coordinator and any other individuals who have
24    participated in the ITP meeting at the discretion of the
25    individual education plan coordinator, the developmental
26    disability case coordinator or the parents or guardian.

 

 

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1        (4) At least 10 days prior to the ITP meeting, the
2    parents or guardian of the student shall be notified in
3    writing of the time and place of the meeting by the local
4    school district. The ITP discussion shall be documented by
5    the assigned case coordinator, and an individual student
6    file shall be maintained by each case coordination unit.
7    One year following a student's exit from public school the
8    case coordinator shall conduct a follow up interview with
9    the student.
10        (5) Determinations with respect to individual
11    transition plans made under this Section shall not be
12    subject to any due process requirements prescribed in
13    Section 14-8.02 of this Code.
14    (e) (Blank).
15(Source: P.A. 91-96; eff. 7-9-99.)
 
16    (105 ILCS 5/14-1.03a)  (from Ch. 122, par. 14-1.03a)
17    Sec. 14-1.03a. Children with Specific Learning
18Disabilities.
19    "Children with Specific Learning Disabilities" means
20children between the ages of 3 and 21 years who have a disorder
21in one or more of the basic psychological processes involved in
22understanding or in using language, spoken or written, which
23disorder may manifest itself in imperfect ability to listen,
24think, speak, read, write, spell or do mathematical
25calculations. Such disorders include such conditions as

 

 

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1perceptual disabilities, brain injury, minimal brain
2dysfunction, dyslexia, and developmental aphasia. Such term
3does not include children who have learning problems which are
4primarily the result of visual, hearing or motor disabilities,
5of an intellectual disability mental retardation, emotional
6disturbance or environmental disadvantage.
7(Source: P.A. 89-397, eff. 8-20-95.)
 
8    (105 ILCS 5/21-28)
9    Sec. 21-28. Special education teachers; categorical
10certification. The State Teacher Certification Board shall
11categorically certify a special education teacher in one or
12more of the following specialized categories of disability if
13the special education teacher applies and qualifies for such
14certification:
15        (1) Serious emotional disturbance.
16        (2) Learning disabilities.
17        (3) Autism.
18        (4) Intellectual disabilities Mental retardation.
19        (5) Orthopedic (physical) impairment.
20        (6) Traumatic brain injury.
21        (7) Other health impairment.
22(Source: P.A. 92-709, eff. 7-19-02.)
 
23    (105 ILCS 5/34-18)  (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18)
24    Sec. 34-18. Powers of the board. The board shall exercise

 

 

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1general supervision and jurisdiction over the public education
2and the public school system of the city, and, except as
3otherwise provided by this Article, shall have power:
4        1. To make suitable provision for the establishment and
5    maintenance throughout the year or for such portion thereof
6    as it may direct, not less than 9 months, of schools of all
7    grades and kinds, including normal schools, high schools,
8    night schools, schools for defectives and delinquents,
9    parental and truant schools, schools for the blind, the
10    deaf and the physically disabled crippled, schools or
11    classes in manual training, constructural and vocational
12    teaching, domestic arts and physical culture, vocation and
13    extension schools and lecture courses, and all other
14    educational courses and facilities, including
15    establishing, equipping, maintaining and operating
16    playgrounds and recreational programs, when such programs
17    are conducted in, adjacent to, or connected with any public
18    school under the general supervision and jurisdiction of
19    the board; provided that the calendar for the school term
20    and any changes must be submitted to and approved by the
21    State Board of Education before the calendar or changes may
22    take effect, and provided that in allocating funds from
23    year to year for the operation of all attendance centers
24    within the district, the board shall ensure that
25    supplemental general State aid funds are allocated and
26    applied in accordance with Section 18-8 or 18-8.05. To

 

 

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1    admit to such schools without charge foreign exchange
2    students who are participants in an organized exchange
3    student program which is authorized by the board. The board
4    shall permit all students to enroll in apprenticeship
5    programs in trade schools operated by the board, whether
6    those programs are union-sponsored or not. No student shall
7    be refused admission into or be excluded from any course of
8    instruction offered in the common schools by reason of that
9    student's sex. No student shall be denied equal access to
10    physical education and interscholastic athletic programs
11    supported from school district funds or denied
12    participation in comparable physical education and
13    athletic programs solely by reason of the student's sex.
14    Equal access to programs supported from school district
15    funds and comparable programs will be defined in rules
16    promulgated by the State Board of Education in consultation
17    with the Illinois High School Association. Notwithstanding
18    any other provision of this Article, neither the board of
19    education nor any local school council or other school
20    official shall recommend that children with disabilities
21    be placed into regular education classrooms unless those
22    children with disabilities are provided with supplementary
23    services to assist them so that they benefit from the
24    regular classroom instruction and are included on the
25    teacher's regular education class register;
26        2. To furnish lunches to pupils, to make a reasonable

 

 

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1    charge therefor, and to use school funds for the payment of
2    such expenses as the board may determine are necessary in
3    conducting the school lunch program;
4        3. To co-operate with the circuit court;
5        4. To make arrangements with the public or quasi-public
6    libraries and museums for the use of their facilities by
7    teachers and pupils of the public schools;
8        5. To employ dentists and prescribe their duties for
9    the purpose of treating the pupils in the schools, but
10    accepting such treatment shall be optional with parents or
11    guardians;
12        6. To grant the use of assembly halls and classrooms
13    when not otherwise needed, including light, heat, and
14    attendants, for free public lectures, concerts, and other
15    educational and social interests, free of charge, under
16    such provisions and control as the principal of the
17    affected attendance center may prescribe;
18        7. To apportion the pupils to the several schools;
19    provided that no pupil shall be excluded from or segregated
20    in any such school on account of his color, race, sex, or
21    nationality. The board shall take into consideration the
22    prevention of segregation and the elimination of
23    separation of children in public schools because of color,
24    race, sex, or nationality. Except that children may be
25    committed to or attend parental and social adjustment
26    schools established and maintained either for boys or girls

 

 

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1    only. All records pertaining to the creation, alteration or
2    revision of attendance areas shall be open to the public.
3    Nothing herein shall limit the board's authority to
4    establish multi-area attendance centers or other student
5    assignment systems for desegregation purposes or
6    otherwise, and to apportion the pupils to the several
7    schools. Furthermore, beginning in school year 1994-95,
8    pursuant to a board plan adopted by October 1, 1993, the
9    board shall offer, commencing on a phased-in basis, the
10    opportunity for families within the school district to
11    apply for enrollment of their children in any attendance
12    center within the school district which does not have
13    selective admission requirements approved by the board.
14    The appropriate geographical area in which such open
15    enrollment may be exercised shall be determined by the
16    board of education. Such children may be admitted to any
17    such attendance center on a space available basis after all
18    children residing within such attendance center's area
19    have been accommodated. If the number of applicants from
20    outside the attendance area exceed the space available,
21    then successful applicants shall be selected by lottery.
22    The board of education's open enrollment plan must include
23    provisions that allow low income students to have access to
24    transportation needed to exercise school choice. Open
25    enrollment shall be in compliance with the provisions of
26    the Consent Decree and Desegregation Plan cited in Section

 

 

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1    34-1.01;
2        8. To approve programs and policies for providing
3    transportation services to students. Nothing herein shall
4    be construed to permit or empower the State Board of
5    Education to order, mandate, or require busing or other
6    transportation of pupils for the purpose of achieving
7    racial balance in any school;
8        9. Subject to the limitations in this Article, to
9    establish and approve system-wide curriculum objectives
10    and standards, including graduation standards, which
11    reflect the multi-cultural diversity in the city and are
12    consistent with State law, provided that for all purposes
13    of this Article courses or proficiency in American Sign
14    Language shall be deemed to constitute courses or
15    proficiency in a foreign language; and to employ principals
16    and teachers, appointed as provided in this Article, and
17    fix their compensation. The board shall prepare such
18    reports related to minimal competency testing as may be
19    requested by the State Board of Education, and in addition
20    shall monitor and approve special education and bilingual
21    education programs and policies within the district to
22    assure that appropriate services are provided in
23    accordance with applicable State and federal laws to
24    children requiring services and education in those areas;
25        10. To employ non-teaching personnel or utilize
26    volunteer personnel for: (i) non-teaching duties not

 

 

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1    requiring instructional judgment or evaluation of pupils,
2    including library duties; and (ii) supervising study
3    halls, long distance teaching reception areas used
4    incident to instructional programs transmitted by
5    electronic media such as computers, video, and audio,
6    detention and discipline areas, and school-sponsored
7    extracurricular activities. The board may further utilize
8    volunteer non-certificated personnel or employ
9    non-certificated personnel to assist in the instruction of
10    pupils under the immediate supervision of a teacher holding
11    a valid certificate, directly engaged in teaching subject
12    matter or conducting activities; provided that the teacher
13    shall be continuously aware of the non-certificated
14    persons' activities and shall be able to control or modify
15    them. The general superintendent shall determine
16    qualifications of such personnel and shall prescribe rules
17    for determining the duties and activities to be assigned to
18    such personnel;
19        10.5. To utilize volunteer personnel from a regional
20    School Crisis Assistance Team (S.C.A.T.), created as part
21    of the Safe to Learn Program established pursuant to
22    Section 25 of the Illinois Violence Prevention Act of 1995,
23    to provide assistance to schools in times of violence or
24    other traumatic incidents within a school community by
25    providing crisis intervention services to lessen the
26    effects of emotional trauma on individuals and the

 

 

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1    community; the School Crisis Assistance Team Steering
2    Committee shall determine the qualifications for
3    volunteers;
4        11. To provide television studio facilities in not to
5    exceed one school building and to provide programs for
6    educational purposes, provided, however, that the board
7    shall not construct, acquire, operate, or maintain a
8    television transmitter; to grant the use of its studio
9    facilities to a licensed television station located in the
10    school district; and to maintain and operate not to exceed
11    one school radio transmitting station and provide programs
12    for educational purposes;
13        12. To offer, if deemed appropriate, outdoor education
14    courses, including field trips within the State of
15    Illinois, or adjacent states, and to use school educational
16    funds for the expense of the said outdoor educational
17    programs, whether within the school district or not;
18        13. During that period of the calendar year not
19    embraced within the regular school term, to provide and
20    conduct courses in subject matters normally embraced in the
21    program of the schools during the regular school term and
22    to give regular school credit for satisfactory completion
23    by the student of such courses as may be approved for
24    credit by the State Board of Education;
25        14. To insure against any loss or liability of the
26    board, the former School Board Nominating Commission,

 

 

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1    Local School Councils, the Chicago Schools Academic
2    Accountability Council, or the former Subdistrict Councils
3    or of any member, officer, agent or employee thereof,
4    resulting from alleged violations of civil rights arising
5    from incidents occurring on or after September 5, 1967 or
6    from the wrongful or negligent act or omission of any such
7    person whether occurring within or without the school
8    premises, provided the officer, agent or employee was, at
9    the time of the alleged violation of civil rights or
10    wrongful act or omission, acting within the scope of his
11    employment or under direction of the board, the former
12    School Board Nominating Commission, the Chicago Schools
13    Academic Accountability Council, Local School Councils, or
14    the former Subdistrict Councils; and to provide for or
15    participate in insurance plans for its officers and
16    employees, including but not limited to retirement
17    annuities, medical, surgical and hospitalization benefits
18    in such types and amounts as may be determined by the
19    board; provided, however, that the board shall contract for
20    such insurance only with an insurance company authorized to
21    do business in this State. Such insurance may include
22    provision for employees who rely on treatment by prayer or
23    spiritual means alone for healing, in accordance with the
24    tenets and practice of a recognized religious
25    denomination;
26        15. To contract with the corporate authorities of any

 

 

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1    municipality or the county board of any county, as the case
2    may be, to provide for the regulation of traffic in parking
3    areas of property used for school purposes, in such manner
4    as is provided by Section 11-209 of The Illinois Vehicle
5    Code, approved September 29, 1969, as amended;
6        16. (a) To provide, on an equal basis, access to a high
7    school campus and student directory information to the
8    official recruiting representatives of the armed forces of
9    Illinois and the United States for the purposes of
10    informing students of the educational and career
11    opportunities available in the military if the board has
12    provided such access to persons or groups whose purpose is
13    to acquaint students with educational or occupational
14    opportunities available to them. The board is not required
15    to give greater notice regarding the right of access to
16    recruiting representatives than is given to other persons
17    and groups. In this paragraph 16, "directory information"
18    means a high school student's name, address, and telephone
19    number.
20        (b) If a student or his or her parent or guardian
21    submits a signed, written request to the high school before
22    the end of the student's sophomore year (or if the student
23    is a transfer student, by another time set by the high
24    school) that indicates that the student or his or her
25    parent or guardian does not want the student's directory
26    information to be provided to official recruiting

 

 

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1    representatives under subsection (a) of this Section, the
2    high school may not provide access to the student's
3    directory information to these recruiting representatives.
4    The high school shall notify its students and their parents
5    or guardians of the provisions of this subsection (b).
6        (c) A high school may require official recruiting
7    representatives of the armed forces of Illinois and the
8    United States to pay a fee for copying and mailing a
9    student's directory information in an amount that is not
10    more than the actual costs incurred by the high school.
11        (d) Information received by an official recruiting
12    representative under this Section may be used only to
13    provide information to students concerning educational and
14    career opportunities available in the military and may not
15    be released to a person who is not involved in recruiting
16    students for the armed forces of Illinois or the United
17    States;
18        17. (a) To sell or market any computer program
19    developed by an employee of the school district, provided
20    that such employee developed the computer program as a
21    direct result of his or her duties with the school district
22    or through the utilization of the school district resources
23    or facilities. The employee who developed the computer
24    program shall be entitled to share in the proceeds of such
25    sale or marketing of the computer program. The distribution
26    of such proceeds between the employee and the school

 

 

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1    district shall be as agreed upon by the employee and the
2    school district, except that neither the employee nor the
3    school district may receive more than 90% of such proceeds.
4    The negotiation for an employee who is represented by an
5    exclusive bargaining representative may be conducted by
6    such bargaining representative at the employee's request.
7        (b) For the purpose of this paragraph 17:
8            (1) "Computer" means an internally programmed,
9        general purpose digital device capable of
10        automatically accepting data, processing data and
11        supplying the results of the operation.
12            (2) "Computer program" means a series of coded
13        instructions or statements in a form acceptable to a
14        computer, which causes the computer to process data in
15        order to achieve a certain result.
16            (3) "Proceeds" means profits derived from
17        marketing or sale of a product after deducting the
18        expenses of developing and marketing such product;
19        18. To delegate to the general superintendent of
20    schools, by resolution, the authority to approve contracts
21    and expenditures in amounts of $10,000 or less;
22        19. Upon the written request of an employee, to
23    withhold from the compensation of that employee any dues,
24    payments or contributions payable by such employee to any
25    labor organization as defined in the Illinois Educational
26    Labor Relations Act. Under such arrangement, an amount

 

 

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1    shall be withheld from each regular payroll period which is
2    equal to the pro rata share of the annual dues plus any
3    payments or contributions, and the board shall transmit
4    such withholdings to the specified labor organization
5    within 10 working days from the time of the withholding;
6        19a. Upon receipt of notice from the comptroller of a
7    municipality with a population of 500,000 or more, a county
8    with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the Cook County
9    Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the
10    Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago
11    Transit Authority, or a housing authority of a municipality
12    with a population of 500,000 or more that a debt is due and
13    owing the municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest
14    Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the
15    Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago
16    Transit Authority, or the housing authority by an employee
17    of the Chicago Board of Education, to withhold, from the
18    compensation of that employee, the amount of the debt that
19    is due and owing and pay the amount withheld to the
20    municipality, the county, the Cook County Forest Preserve
21    District, the Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan
22    Water Reclamation District, the Chicago Transit Authority,
23    or the housing authority; provided, however, that the
24    amount deducted from any one salary or wage payment shall
25    not exceed 25% of the net amount of the payment. Before the
26    Board deducts any amount from any salary or wage of an

 

 

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1    employee under this paragraph, the municipality, the
2    county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the
3    Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation
4    District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing
5    authority shall certify that (i) the employee has been
6    afforded an opportunity for a hearing to dispute the debt
7    that is due and owing the municipality, the county, the
8    Cook County Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park
9    District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the
10    Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing authority and
11    (ii) the employee has received notice of a wage deduction
12    order and has been afforded an opportunity for a hearing to
13    object to the order. For purposes of this paragraph, "net
14    amount" means that part of the salary or wage payment
15    remaining after the deduction of any amounts required by
16    law to be deducted and "debt due and owing" means (i) a
17    specified sum of money owed to the municipality, the
18    county, the Cook County Forest Preserve District, the
19    Chicago Park District, the Metropolitan Water Reclamation
20    District, the Chicago Transit Authority, or the housing
21    authority for services, work, or goods, after the period
22    granted for payment has expired, or (ii) a specified sum of
23    money owed to the municipality, the county, the Cook County
24    Forest Preserve District, the Chicago Park District, the
25    Metropolitan Water Reclamation District, the Chicago
26    Transit Authority, or the housing authority pursuant to a

 

 

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1    court order or order of an administrative hearing officer
2    after the exhaustion of, or the failure to exhaust,
3    judicial review;
4        20. The board is encouraged to employ a sufficient
5    number of certified school counselors to maintain a
6    student/counselor ratio of 250 to 1 by July 1, 1990. Each
7    counselor shall spend at least 75% of his work time in
8    direct contact with students and shall maintain a record of
9    such time;
10        21. To make available to students vocational and career
11    counseling and to establish 5 special career counseling
12    days for students and parents. On these days
13    representatives of local businesses and industries shall
14    be invited to the school campus and shall inform students
15    of career opportunities available to them in the various
16    businesses and industries. Special consideration shall be
17    given to counseling minority students as to career
18    opportunities available to them in various fields. For the
19    purposes of this paragraph, minority student means a person
20    who is:
21            (a) Black (a person having origins in any of the
22        black racial groups in Africa);
23            (b) Hispanic (a person of Spanish or Portuguese
24        culture with origins in Mexico, South or Central
25        America, or the Caribbean islands, regardless of
26        race);

 

 

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1            (c) Asian American (a person having origins in any
2        of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast
3        Asia, the Indian Subcontinent or the Pacific Islands);
4        or
5            (d) American Indian or Alaskan Native (a person
6        having origins in any of the original peoples of North
7        America).
8        Counseling days shall not be in lieu of regular school
9    days;
10        22. To report to the State Board of Education the
11    annual student dropout rate and number of students who
12    graduate from, transfer from or otherwise leave bilingual
13    programs;
14        23. Except as otherwise provided in the Abused and
15    Neglected Child Reporting Act or other applicable State or
16    federal law, to permit school officials to withhold, from
17    any person, information on the whereabouts of any child
18    removed from school premises when the child has been taken
19    into protective custody as a victim of suspected child
20    abuse. School officials shall direct such person to the
21    Department of Children and Family Services, or to the local
22    law enforcement agency if appropriate;
23        24. To develop a policy, based on the current state of
24    existing school facilities, projected enrollment and
25    efficient utilization of available resources, for capital
26    improvement of schools and school buildings within the

 

 

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1    district, addressing in that policy both the relative
2    priority for major repairs, renovations and additions to
3    school facilities, and the advisability or necessity of
4    building new school facilities or closing existing schools
5    to meet current or projected demographic patterns within
6    the district;
7        25. To make available to the students in every high
8    school attendance center the ability to take all courses
9    necessary to comply with the Board of Higher Education's
10    college entrance criteria effective in 1993;
11        26. To encourage mid-career changes into the teaching
12    profession, whereby qualified professionals become
13    certified teachers, by allowing credit for professional
14    employment in related fields when determining point of
15    entry on teacher pay scale;
16        27. To provide or contract out training programs for
17    administrative personnel and principals with revised or
18    expanded duties pursuant to this Act in order to assure
19    they have the knowledge and skills to perform their duties;
20        28. To establish a fund for the prioritized special
21    needs programs, and to allocate such funds and other lump
22    sum amounts to each attendance center in a manner
23    consistent with the provisions of part 4 of Section 34-2.3.
24    Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require any
25    additional appropriations of State funds for this purpose;
26        29. (Blank);

 

 

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1        30. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or
2    any other law to the contrary, to contract with third
3    parties for services otherwise performed by employees,
4    including those in a bargaining unit, and to layoff those
5    employees upon 14 days written notice to the affected
6    employees. Those contracts may be for a period not to
7    exceed 5 years and may be awarded on a system-wide basis.
8    The board may not operate more than 30 contract schools,
9    provided that the board may operate an additional 5
10    contract turnaround schools pursuant to item (5.5) of
11    subsection (d) of Section 34-8.3 of this Code;
12        31. To promulgate rules establishing procedures
13    governing the layoff or reduction in force of employees and
14    the recall of such employees, including, but not limited
15    to, criteria for such layoffs, reductions in force or
16    recall rights of such employees and the weight to be given
17    to any particular criterion. Such criteria shall take into
18    account factors including, but not be limited to,
19    qualifications, certifications, experience, performance
20    ratings or evaluations, and any other factors relating to
21    an employee's job performance;
22        32. To develop a policy to prevent nepotism in the
23    hiring of personnel or the selection of contractors;
24        33. To enter into a partnership agreement, as required
25    by Section 34-3.5 of this Code, and, notwithstanding any
26    other provision of law to the contrary, to promulgate

 

 

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1    policies, enter into contracts, and take any other action
2    necessary to accomplish the objectives and implement the
3    requirements of that agreement; and
4        34. To establish a Labor Management Council to the
5    board comprised of representatives of the board, the chief
6    executive officer, and those labor organizations that are
7    the exclusive representatives of employees of the board and
8    to promulgate policies and procedures for the operation of
9    the Council.
10    The specifications of the powers herein granted are not to
11be construed as exclusive but the board shall also exercise all
12other powers that they may be requisite or proper for the
13maintenance and the development of a public school system, not
14inconsistent with the other provisions of this Article or
15provisions of this Code which apply to all school districts.
16    In addition to the powers herein granted and authorized to
17be exercised by the board, it shall be the duty of the board to
18review or to direct independent reviews of special education
19expenditures and services. The board shall file a report of
20such review with the General Assembly on or before May 1, 1990.
21(Source: P.A. 96-105, eff. 7-30-09.)
 
22    Section 65. The State Universities Civil Service Act is
23amended by changing Section 36s as follows:
 
24    (110 ILCS 70/36s)  (from Ch. 24 1/2, par. 38b18)

 

 

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1    Sec. 36s. Supported employees.
2    (a) The Merit Board shall develop and implement a supported
3employment program. It shall be the goal of the program to
4appoint a minimum of 10 supported employees to State University
5civil service positions before June 30, 1992.
6    (b) The Merit Board shall designate a liaison to work with
7State agencies and departments, any funder or provider or both,
8and State universities in the implementation of a supported
9employment program.
10    (c) As used in this Section:
11        (1) "Supported employee" means any individual who:
12            (A) has a severe physical or mental disability
13        which seriously limits functional capacities,
14        including but not limited to, mobility, communication,
15        self-care, self-direction, work tolerance or work
16        skills, in terms of employability as defined,
17        determined and certified by the Department of Human
18        Services; and
19            (B) has one or more physical or mental disabilities
20        resulting from amputation; arthritis; blindness;
21        cancer; cerebral palsy; cystic fibrosis; deafness;
22        heart disease; hemiplegia; respiratory or pulmonary
23        dysfunction; an intellectual disability mental
24        retardation; mental illness; multiple sclerosis;
25        muscular dystrophy; musculoskeletal disorders;
26        neurological disorders, including stroke and epilepsy;

 

 

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1        paraplegia; quadriplegia and other spinal cord
2        conditions; sickle cell anemia; and end-stage renal
3        disease; or another disability or combination of
4        disabilities determined on the basis of an evaluation
5        of rehabilitation potential to cause comparable
6        substantial functional limitation.
7        (2) "Supported employment" means competitive work in
8    integrated work settings:
9            (A) for individuals with severe handicaps for whom
10        competitive employment has not traditionally occurred,
11        or
12            (B) for individuals for whom competitive
13        employment has been interrupted or intermittent as a
14        result of a severe disability, and who because of their
15        handicap, need on-going support services to perform
16        such work. The term includes transitional employment
17        for individuals with chronic mental illness.
18        (3) "Participation in a supported employee program"
19    means participation as a supported employee that is not
20    based on the expectation that an individual will have the
21    skills to perform all the duties in a job class, but on the
22    assumption that with support and adaptation, or both, a job
23    can be designed to take advantage of the supported
24    employee's special strengths.
25        (4) "Funder" means any entity either State, local or
26    federal, or private not-for-profit or for-profit that

 

 

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1    provides monies to programs that provide services related
2    to supported employment.
3        (5) "Provider" means any entity either public or
4    private that provides technical support and services to any
5    department or agency subject to the control of the
6    Governor, the Secretary of State or the University Civil
7    Service System.
8    (d) The Merit Board shall establish job classifications for
9supported employees who may be appointed into the
10classifications without open competitive testing requirements.
11Supported employees shall serve in a trial employment capacity
12for not less than 3 or more than 12 months.
13    (e) The Merit Board shall maintain a record of all
14individuals hired as supported employees. The record shall
15include:
16        (1) the number of supported employees initially
17    appointed;
18        (2) the number of supported employees who successfully
19    complete the trial employment periods; and
20        (3) the number of permanent targeted positions by
21    titles.
22    (f) The Merit Board shall submit an annual report to the
23General Assembly regarding the employment progress of
24supported employees, with recommendations for legislative
25action.
26(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 66. The Specialized Care for Children Act is
2amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
 
3    (110 ILCS 345/1)  (from Ch. 144, par. 67.1)
4    Sec. 1. The University of Illinois is hereby designated as
5the agency to receive, administer, and to hold in its own
6treasury federal funds and aid in relation to the
7administration of its Division of Specialized Care for
8Children. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois
9shall have a charge upon all claims, demands and causes of
10action for injuries to an applicant for or recipient of
11financial aid for the total amount of medical assistance
12provided the recipient by the Division from the time of injury
13to the date of recovery upon such claim, demand or cause of
14action. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois may
15cooperate with the United States Children's Bureau of the
16Department of Health, Education and Welfare, or with any
17successor or other federal agency, in the administration of the
18Division of Specialized Care for Children, and shall have full
19responsibility for the expenditure of federal and state funds,
20or monies recovered as the result of a judgment or settlement
21of a lawsuit or from an insurance or personal settlement
22arising from a claim relating to a recipient child's medical
23condition, as well as any aid which may be made available to
24the Board of Trustees for administering, through the Division

 

 

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1of Specialized Care for Children, a program of services for
2children who are physically disabled crippled or suffering from
3conditions which may lead to a physical disability crippling,
4including medical, surgical, corrective and other services and
5care, and facilities for diagnosis, hospitalization and
6aftercare of such children.
7(Source: P.A. 87-203.)
 
8    Section 67. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is
9amended by changing Section 15 as follows:
 
10    (210 ILCS 3/15)
11    Sec. 15. License required. No health care facility or
12program that meets the definition and scope of an alternative
13health care model shall operate as such unless it is a
14participant in a demonstration program under this Act and
15licensed by the Department as an alternative health care model.
16The provisions of this Section as they relate to subacute care
17hospitals shall not apply to hospitals licensed under the
18Illinois Hospital Licensing Act or skilled nursing facilities
19licensed under the Illinois Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD
20MR/DD Community Care Act; provided, however, that the
21facilities shall not hold themselves out to the public as
22subacute care hospitals. The provisions of this Act concerning
23children's respite care centers shall not apply to any facility
24licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home

 

 

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1Care Act, the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, or the University
2of Illinois Hospital Act that provides respite care services to
3children.
4(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
5    Section 68. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is
6amended by changing Section 3 as follows:
 
7    (210 ILCS 5/3)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 157-8.3)
8    Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise
9requires, the following words and phrases shall have the
10meanings ascribed to them:
11    (A) "Ambulatory surgical treatment center" means any
12institution, place or building devoted primarily to the
13maintenance and operation of facilities for the performance of
14surgical procedures or any facility in which a medical or
15surgical procedure is utilized to terminate a pregnancy,
16irrespective of whether the facility is devoted primarily to
17this purpose. Such facility shall not provide beds or other
18accommodations for the overnight stay of patients; however,
19facilities devoted exclusively to the treatment of children may
20provide accommodations and beds for their patients for up to 23
21hours following admission. Individual patients shall be
22discharged in an ambulatory condition without danger to the
23continued well being of the patients or shall be transferred to
24a hospital.

 

 

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1    The term "ambulatory surgical treatment center" does not
2include any of the following:
3        (1) Any institution, place, building or agency
4    required to be licensed pursuant to the "Hospital Licensing
5    Act", approved July 1, 1953, as amended.
6        (2) Any person or institution required to be licensed
7    pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
8    Community Care Act.
9        (3) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers
10    maintained by the State or any department or agency
11    thereof, where such department or agency has authority
12    under law to establish and enforce standards for the
13    hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers under
14    its management and control.
15        (4) Hospitals or ambulatory surgical treatment centers
16    maintained by the Federal Government or agencies thereof.
17        (5) Any place, agency, clinic, or practice, public or
18    private, whether organized for profit or not, devoted
19    exclusively to the performance of dental or oral surgical
20    procedures.
21    (B) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership,
22corporation, company, association, or joint stock association,
23or the legal successor thereof.
24    (C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of
25the State of Illinois.
26    (D) "Director" means the Director of the Department of

 

 

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1Public Health of the State of Illinois.
2    (E) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice
3medicine in all of its branches in the State of Illinois.
4    (F) "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry
5under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.
6    (G) "Podiatrist" means a person licensed to practice
7podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
8(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
9    Section 69. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is
10amended by changing Sections 10, 35, 55, and 145 as follows:
 
11    (210 ILCS 9/10)
12    Sec. 10. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:
13    "Activities of daily living" means eating, dressing,
14bathing, toileting, transferring, or personal hygiene.
15    "Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" means a
16home, building, residence, or any other place where sleeping
17accommodations are provided for at least 3 unrelated adults, at
18least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and where the
19following are provided consistent with the purposes of this
20Act:
21        (1) services consistent with a social model that is
22    based on the premise that the resident's unit in assisted
23    living and shared housing is his or her own home;
24        (2) community-based residential care for persons who

 

 

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1    need assistance with activities of daily living, including
2    personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related
3    services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the
4    scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident;
5        (3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by
6    the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the
7    establishment, with the consent of the resident or
8    resident's representative; and
9        (4) a physical environment that is a homelike setting
10    that includes the following and such other elements as
11    established by the Department: individual living units
12    each of which shall accommodate small kitchen appliances
13    and contain private bathing, washing, and toilet
14    facilities, or private washing and toilet facilities with a
15    common bathing room readily accessible to each resident.
16    Units shall be maintained for single occupancy except in
17    cases in which 2 residents choose to share a unit.
18    Sufficient common space shall exist to permit individual
19    and group activities.
20    "Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" does
21not mean any of the following:
22        (1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by
23    the federal government or the State of Illinois.
24        (2) A long term care facility licensed under the
25    Nursing Home Care Act or a facility licensed under the
26    ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act. However, a facility

 

 

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1    licensed under either of those Acts may convert distinct
2    parts of the facility to assisted living. If the facility
3    elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate
4    of Need for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were
5    converted.
6        (3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the
7    principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis,
8    care, and treatment of human illness and that is required
9    to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.
10        (4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child
11    Care Act of 1969.
12        (5) A community living facility as defined in the
13    Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.
14        (6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and
15    for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by
16    spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed
17    or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious
18    denomination.
19        (7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human
20    Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as
21    defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements
22    Licensure and Certification Act.
23        (8) A supportive residence licensed under the
24    Supportive Residences Licensing Act.
25        (9) The portion of a life care facility as defined in
26    the Life Care Facilities Act not licensed as an assisted

 

 

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1    living establishment under this Act; a life care facility
2    may apply under this Act to convert sections of the
3    community to assisted living.
4        (10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under
5    the Hospice Program Licensing Act.
6        (11) A shared housing establishment.
7        (12) A supportive living facility as described in
8    Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.
9    "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
10    "Director" means the Director of Public Health.
11    "Emergency situation" means imminent danger of death or
12serious physical harm to a resident of an establishment.
13    "License" means any of the following types of licenses
14issued to an applicant or licensee by the Department:
15        (1) "Probationary license" means a license issued to an
16    applicant or licensee that has not held a license under
17    this Act prior to its application or pursuant to a license
18    transfer in accordance with Section 50 of this Act.
19        (2) "Regular license" means a license issued by the
20    Department to an applicant or licensee that is in
21    substantial compliance with this Act and any rules
22    promulgated under this Act.
23    "Licensee" means a person, agency, association,
24corporation, partnership, or organization that has been issued
25a license to operate an assisted living or shared housing
26establishment.

 

 

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1    "Licensed health care professional" means a registered
2professional nurse, an advanced practice nurse, a physician
3assistant, and a licensed practical nurse.
4    "Mandatory services" include the following:
5        (1) 3 meals per day available to the residents prepared
6    by the establishment or an outside contractor;
7        (2) housekeeping services including, but not limited
8    to, vacuuming, dusting, and cleaning the resident's unit;
9        (3) personal laundry and linen services available to
10    the residents provided or arranged for by the
11    establishment;
12        (4) security provided 24 hours each day including, but
13    not limited to, locked entrances or building or contract
14    security personnel;
15        (5) an emergency communication response system, which
16    is a procedure in place 24 hours each day by which a
17    resident can notify building management, an emergency
18    response vendor, or others able to respond to his or her
19    need for assistance; and
20        (6) assistance with activities of daily living as
21    required by each resident.
22    "Negotiated risk" is the process by which a resident, or
23his or her representative, may formally negotiate with
24providers what risks each are willing and unwilling to assume
25in service provision and the resident's living environment. The
26provider assures that the resident and the resident's

 

 

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1representative, if any, are informed of the risks of these
2decisions and of the potential consequences of assuming these
3risks.
4    "Owner" means the individual, partnership, corporation,
5association, or other person who owns an assisted living or
6shared housing establishment. In the event an assisted living
7or shared housing establishment is operated by a person who
8leases or manages the physical plant, which is owned by another
9person, "owner" means the person who operates the assisted
10living or shared housing establishment, except that if the
11person who owns the physical plant is an affiliate of the
12person who operates the assisted living or shared housing
13establishment and has significant control over the day to day
14operations of the assisted living or shared housing
15establishment, the person who owns the physical plant shall
16incur jointly and severally with the owner all liabilities
17imposed on an owner under this Act.
18    "Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical
19Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its
20branches.
21    "Resident" means a person residing in an assisted living or
22shared housing establishment.
23    "Resident's representative" means a person, other than the
24owner, agent, or employee of an establishment or of the health
25care provider unless related to the resident, designated in
26writing by a resident to be his or her representative. This

 

 

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1designation may be accomplished through the Illinois Power of
2Attorney Act, pursuant to the guardianship process under the
3Probate Act of 1975, or pursuant to an executed designation of
4representative form specified by the Department.
5    "Self" means the individual or the individual's designated
6representative.
7    "Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" means a
8publicly or privately operated free-standing residence for 16
9or fewer persons, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or
10older and who are unrelated to the owners and one manager of
11the residence, where the following are provided:
12        (1) services consistent with a social model that is
13    based on the premise that the resident's unit is his or her
14    own home;
15        (2) community-based residential care for persons who
16    need assistance with activities of daily living, including
17    housing and personal, supportive, and intermittent
18    health-related services available 24 hours per day, if
19    needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a
20    resident; and
21        (3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by
22    the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the
23    establishment, with the consent of the resident or the
24    resident's representative.
25    "Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" does not
26mean any of the following:

 

 

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1        (1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by
2    the federal government or the State of Illinois.
3        (2) A long term care facility licensed under the
4    Nursing Home Care Act or a facility licensed under the
5    ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act. A facility licensed under
6    either of those Acts may, however, convert sections of the
7    facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do
8    so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for
9    its nursing beds that were converted.
10        (3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the
11    principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis,
12    care, and treatment of human illness and that is required
13    to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.
14        (4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child
15    Care Act of 1969.
16        (5) A community living facility as defined in the
17    Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.
18        (6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and
19    for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by
20    spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed
21    or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious
22    denomination.
23        (7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human
24    Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as
25    defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements
26    Licensure and Certification Act.

 

 

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1        (8) A supportive residence licensed under the
2    Supportive Residences Licensing Act.
3        (9) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care
4    Facilities Act; a life care facility may apply under this
5    Act to convert sections of the community to assisted
6    living.
7        (10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under
8    the Hospice Program Licensing Act.
9        (11) An assisted living establishment.
10        (12) A supportive living facility as described in
11    Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.
12    "Total assistance" means that staff or another individual
13performs the entire activity of daily living without
14participation by the resident.
15(Source: P.A. 95-216, eff. 8-16-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
1696-975, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
17    (210 ILCS 9/35)
18    Sec. 35. Issuance of license.
19    (a) Upon receipt and review of an application for a license
20and review of the applicant establishment, the Director may
21issue a license if he or she finds:
22        (1) that the individual applicant, or the corporation,
23    partnership, or other entity if the applicant is not an
24    individual, is a person responsible and suitable to operate
25    or to direct or participate in the operation of an

 

 

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1    establishment by virtue of financial capacity, appropriate
2    business or professional experience, a record of lawful
3    compliance with lawful orders of the Department and lack of
4    revocation of a license issued under this Act, the Nursing
5    Home Care Act, or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act during
6    the previous 5 years;
7        (2) that the establishment is under the supervision of
8    a full-time director who is at least 21 years of age and
9    has a high school diploma or equivalent plus either:
10            (A) 2 years of management experience or 2 years of
11        experience in positions of progressive responsibility
12        in health care, housing with services, or adult day
13        care or providing similar services to the elderly; or
14            (B) 2 years of management experience or 2 years of
15        experience in positions of progressive responsibility
16        in hospitality and training in health care and housing
17        with services management as defined by rule;
18        (3) that the establishment has staff sufficient in
19    number with qualifications, adequate skills, education,
20    and experience to meet the 24 hour scheduled and
21    unscheduled needs of residents and who participate in
22    ongoing training to serve the resident population;
23        (4) that all employees who are subject to the Health
24    Care Worker Background Check Act meet the requirements of
25    that Act;
26        (5) that the applicant is in substantial compliance

 

 

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1    with this Act and such other requirements for a license as
2    the Department by rule may establish under this Act;
3        (6) that the applicant pays all required fees;
4        (7) that the applicant has provided to the Department
5    an accurate disclosure document in accordance with the
6    Alzheimer's Disease and Related Dementias Special Care
7    Disclosure Act and in substantial compliance with Section
8    150 of this Act.
9    In addition to any other requirements set forth in this
10Act, as a condition of licensure under this Act, the director
11of an establishment must participate in at least 20 hours of
12training every 2 years to assist him or her in better meeting
13the needs of the residents of the establishment and managing
14the operation of the establishment.
15    Any license issued by the Director shall state the physical
16location of the establishment, the date the license was issued,
17and the expiration date. All licenses shall be valid for one
18year, except as provided in Sections 40 and 45. Each license
19shall be issued only for the premises and persons named in the
20application, and shall not be transferable or assignable.
21(Source: P.A. 95-79, eff. 8-13-07; 95-590, eff. 9-10-07;
2295-628, eff. 9-25-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-339, eff.
237-1-10; 96-990, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
24    (210 ILCS 9/55)
25    Sec. 55. Grounds for denial of a license. An application

 

 

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1for a license may be denied for any of the following reasons:
2        (1) failure to meet any of the standards set forth in
3    this Act or by rules adopted by the Department under this
4    Act;
5        (2) conviction of the applicant, or if the applicant is
6    a firm, partnership, or association, of any of its members,
7    or if a corporation, the conviction of the corporation or
8    any of its officers or stockholders, or of the person
9    designated to manage or supervise the establishment, of a
10    felony or of 2 or more misdemeanors involving moral
11    turpitude during the previous 5 years as shown by a
12    certified copy of the record of the court of conviction;
13        (3) personnel insufficient in number or unqualified by
14    training or experience to properly care for the residents;
15        (4) insufficient financial or other resources to
16    operate and conduct the establishment in accordance with
17    standards adopted by the Department under this Act;
18        (5) revocation of a license during the previous 5
19    years, if such prior license was issued to the individual
20    applicant, a controlling owner or controlling combination
21    of owners of the applicant; or any affiliate of the
22    individual applicant or controlling owner of the applicant
23    and such individual applicant, controlling owner of the
24    applicant or affiliate of the applicant was a controlling
25    owner of the prior license; provided, however, that the
26    denial of an application for a license pursuant to this

 

 

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1    Section must be supported by evidence that the prior
2    revocation renders the applicant unqualified or incapable
3    of meeting or maintaining an establishment in accordance
4    with the standards and rules adopted by the Department
5    under this Act; or
6        (6) the establishment is not under the direct
7    supervision of a full-time director, as defined by rule.
8    The Department shall deny an application for a license if 6
9months after submitting its initial application the applicant
10has not provided the Department with all of the information
11required for review and approval or the applicant is not
12actively pursuing the processing of its application. In
13addition, the Department shall determine whether the applicant
14has violated any provision of the Nursing Home Care Act or the
15ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
16(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
17    (210 ILCS 9/145)
18    Sec. 145. Conversion of facilities. Entities licensed as
19facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
20Community Care Act may elect to convert to a license under this
21Act. Any facility that chooses to convert, in whole or in part,
22shall follow the requirements in the Nursing Home Care Act or
23the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, as applicable, and rules
24promulgated under those Acts regarding voluntary closure and
25notice to residents. Any conversion of existing beds licensed

 

 

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1under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community
2Care Act to licensure under this Act is exempt from review by
3the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.
4(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
596-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
6    Section 70. The Abuse Prevention Review Team Act is amended
7by changing Sections 10 and 50 as follows:
 
8    (210 ILCS 28/10)
9    Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
10context requires otherwise:
11    "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
12    "Director" means the Director of Public Health.
13    "Executive Council" means the Illinois Residential Health
14Care Facility Resident Sexual Assault and Death Review Teams
15Executive Council.
16    "Resident" means a person residing in and receiving
17personal care from a facility licensed under the Nursing Home
18Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
19    "Review team" means a residential health care facility
20resident sexual assault and death review team appointed under
21this Act.
22(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
23    (210 ILCS 28/50)

 

 

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1    Sec. 50. Funding. Notwithstanding any other provision of
2law, to the extent permitted by federal law, the Department
3shall use moneys from fines paid by facilities licensed under
4the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act
5for violating requirements for certification under Titles
6XVIII and XIX of the Social Security Act to implement the
7provisions of this Act. The Department shall use moneys
8deposited in the Long Term Care Monitor/Receiver Fund to pay
9the costs of implementing this Act that cannot be met by the
10use of federal civil monetary penalties.
11(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
12    Section 71. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care
13Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing
14Sections 3, 4, and 6 as follows:
 
15    (210 ILCS 30/3)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4163)
16    Sec. 3. As used in this Act unless the context otherwise
17requires:
18    a. "Department" means the Department of Public Health of
19the State of Illinois.
20    b. "Resident" means a person residing in and receiving
21personal care from a long term care facility, or residing in a
22mental health facility or developmental disability facility as
23defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
24Code.

 

 

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1    c. "Long term care facility" has the same meaning ascribed
2to such term in the Nursing Home Care Act, except that the term
3as used in this Act shall include any mental health facility or
4developmental disability facility as defined in the Mental
5Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The term also
6includes any facility licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD Community
7Care Act.
8    d. "Abuse" means any physical injury, sexual abuse or
9mental injury inflicted on a resident other than by accidental
10means.
11    e. "Neglect" means a failure in a long term care facility
12to provide adequate medical or personal care or maintenance,
13which failure results in physical or mental injury to a
14resident or in the deterioration of a resident's physical or
15mental condition.
16    f. "Protective services" means services provided to a
17resident who has been abused or neglected, which may include,
18but are not limited to alternative temporary institutional
19placement, nursing care, counseling, other social services
20provided at the nursing home where the resident resides or at
21some other facility, personal care and such protective services
22of voluntary agencies as are available.
23    g. Unless the context otherwise requires, direct or
24indirect references in this Act to the programs, personnel,
25facilities, services, service providers, or service recipients
26of the Department of Human Services shall be construed to refer

 

 

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1only to those programs, personnel, facilities, services,
2service providers, or service recipients that pertain to the
3Department of Human Services' mental health and developmental
4disabilities functions.
5(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
6    (210 ILCS 30/4)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4164)
7    Sec. 4. Any long term care facility administrator, agent or
8employee or any physician, hospital, surgeon, dentist,
9osteopath, chiropractor, podiatrist, accredited religious
10practitioner who provides treatment by spiritual means alone
11through prayer in accordance with the tenets and practices of
12the accrediting church, coroner, social worker, social
13services administrator, registered nurse, law enforcement
14officer, field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and
15Family Services, field personnel of the Illinois Department of
16Public Health and County or Municipal Health Departments,
17personnel of the Department of Human Services (acting as the
18successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental
19Disabilities or the Department of Public Aid), personnel of the
20Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, personnel of the State
21Fire Marshal, local fire department inspectors or other
22personnel, or personnel of the Illinois Department on Aging, or
23its subsidiary Agencies on Aging, or employee of a facility
24licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act,
25having reasonable cause to believe any resident with whom they

 

 

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1have direct contact has been subjected to abuse or neglect
2shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the
3Department. Persons required to make reports or cause reports
4to be made under this Section include all employees of the
5State of Illinois who are involved in providing services to
6residents, including professionals providing medical or
7rehabilitation services and all other persons having direct
8contact with residents; and further include all employees of
9community service agencies who provide services to a resident
10of a public or private long term care facility outside of that
11facility. Any long term care surveyor of the Illinois
12Department of Public Health who has reasonable cause to believe
13in the course of a survey that a resident has been abused or
14neglected and initiates an investigation while on site at the
15facility shall be exempt from making a report under this
16Section but the results of any such investigation shall be
17forwarded to the central register in a manner and form
18described by the Department.
19    The requirement of this Act shall not relieve any long term
20care facility administrator, agent or employee of
21responsibility to report the abuse or neglect of a resident
22under Section 3-610 of the Nursing Home Care Act or under
23Section 3-610 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
24    In addition to the above persons required to report
25suspected resident abuse and neglect, any other person may make
26a report to the Department, or to any law enforcement officer,

 

 

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1if such person has reasonable cause to suspect a resident has
2been abused or neglected.
3    This Section also applies to residents whose death occurs
4from suspected abuse or neglect before being found or brought
5to a hospital.
6    A person required to make reports or cause reports to be
7made under this Section who fails to comply with the
8requirements of this Section is guilty of a Class A
9misdemeanor.
10(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
11    (210 ILCS 30/6)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4166)
12    Sec. 6. All reports of suspected abuse or neglect made
13under this Act shall be made immediately by telephone to the
14Department's central register established under Section 14 on
15the single, State-wide, toll-free telephone number established
16under Section 13, or in person or by telephone through the
17nearest Department office. No long term care facility
18administrator, agent or employee, or any other person, shall
19screen reports or otherwise withhold any reports from the
20Department, and no long term care facility, department of State
21government, or other agency shall establish any rules,
22criteria, standards or guidelines to the contrary. Every long
23term care facility, department of State government and other
24agency whose employees are required to make or cause to be made
25reports under Section 4 shall notify its employees of the

 

 

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1provisions of that Section and of this Section, and provide to
2the Department documentation that such notification has been
3given. The Department of Human Services shall train all of its
4mental health and developmental disabilities employees in the
5detection and reporting of suspected abuse and neglect of
6residents. Reports made to the central register through the
7State-wide, toll-free telephone number shall be transmitted to
8appropriate Department offices and municipal health
9departments that have responsibility for licensing long term
10care facilities under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD
11MR/DD Community Care Act. All reports received through offices
12of the Department shall be forwarded to the central register,
13in a manner and form described by the Department. The
14Department shall be capable of receiving reports of suspected
15abuse and neglect 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Reports shall
16also be made in writing deposited in the U.S. mail, postage
17prepaid, within 24 hours after having reasonable cause to
18believe that the condition of the resident resulted from abuse
19or neglect. Such reports may in addition be made to the local
20law enforcement agency in the same manner. However, in the
21event a report is made to the local law enforcement agency, the
22reporter also shall immediately so inform the Department. The
23Department shall initiate an investigation of each report of
24resident abuse and neglect under this Act, whether oral or
25written, as provided for in Section 3-702 of the Nursing Home
26Care Act or Section 3-702 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care

 

 

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1Act, except that reports of abuse which indicate that a
2resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be
3investigated within 24 hours of such report. The Department may
4delegate to law enforcement officials or other public agencies
5the duty to perform such investigation.
6    With respect to investigations of reports of suspected
7abuse or neglect of residents of mental health and
8developmental disabilities institutions under the jurisdiction
9of the Department of Human Services, the Department shall
10transmit copies of such reports to the Department of State
11Police, the Department of Human Services, and the Inspector
12General appointed under Section 1-17 of the Department of Human
13Services Act. If the Department receives a report of suspected
14abuse or neglect of a recipient of services as defined in
15Section 1-123 of the Mental Health and Developmental
16Disabilities Code, the Department shall transmit copies of such
17report to the Inspector General and the Directors of the
18Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and the agency designated
19by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and Advocacy for
20Developmentally Disabled Persons Act. When requested by the
21Director of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the
22agency designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection
23and Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, or the
24Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the
25Department, the Department of Human Services and the Department
26of State Police shall make available a copy of the final

 

 

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1investigative report regarding investigations conducted by
2their respective agencies on incidents of suspected abuse or
3neglect of residents of mental health and developmental
4disabilities institutions or individuals receiving services at
5community agencies under the jurisdiction of the Department of
6Human Services. Such final investigative report shall not
7contain witness statements, investigation notes, draft
8summaries, results of lie detector tests, investigative files
9or other raw data which was used to compile the final
10investigative report. Specifically, the final investigative
11report of the Department of State Police shall mean the
12Director's final transmittal letter. The Department of Human
13Services shall also make available a copy of the results of
14disciplinary proceedings of employees involved in incidents of
15abuse or neglect to the Directors. All identifiable information
16in reports provided shall not be further disclosed except as
17provided by the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
18Confidentiality Act. Nothing in this Section is intended to
19limit or construe the power or authority granted to the agency
20designated by the Governor pursuant to the Protection and
21Advocacy for Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, pursuant to
22any other State or federal statute.
23    With respect to investigations of reported resident abuse
24or neglect, the Department shall effect with appropriate law
25enforcement agencies formal agreements concerning methods and
26procedures for the conduct of investigations into the criminal

 

 

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1histories of any administrator, staff assistant or employee of
2the nursing home or other person responsible for the residents
3care, as well as for other residents in the nursing home who
4may be in a position to abuse, neglect or exploit the patient.
5Pursuant to the formal agreements entered into with appropriate
6law enforcement agencies, the Department may request
7information with respect to whether the person or persons set
8forth in this paragraph have ever been charged with a crime and
9if so, the disposition of those charges. Unless the criminal
10histories of the subjects involved crimes of violence or
11resident abuse or neglect, the Department shall be entitled
12only to information limited in scope to charges and their
13dispositions. In cases where prior crimes of violence or
14resident abuse or neglect are involved, a more detailed report
15can be made available to authorized representatives of the
16Department, pursuant to the agreements entered into with
17appropriate law enforcement agencies. Any criminal charges and
18their disposition information obtained by the Department shall
19be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the
20Department, except as required herein, to authorized
21representatives or delegates of the Department, and may not be
22transmitted to anyone within the Department who is not duly
23authorized to handle resident abuse or neglect investigations.
24    The Department shall effect formal agreements with
25appropriate law enforcement agencies in the various counties
26and communities to encourage cooperation and coordination in

 

 

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1the handling of resident abuse or neglect cases pursuant to
2this Act. The Department shall adopt and implement methods and
3procedures to promote statewide uniformity in the handling of
4reports of abuse and neglect under this Act, and those methods
5and procedures shall be adhered to by personnel of the
6Department involved in such investigations and reporting. The
7Department shall also make information required by this Act
8available to authorized personnel within the Department, as
9well as its authorized representatives.
10    The Department shall keep a continuing record of all
11reports made pursuant to this Act, including indications of the
12final determination of any investigation and the final
13disposition of all reports.
14    The Department shall report annually to the General
15Assembly on the incidence of abuse and neglect of long term
16care facility residents, with special attention to residents
17who are mentally disabled. The report shall include but not be
18limited to data on the number and source of reports of
19suspected abuse or neglect filed under this Act, the nature of
20any injuries to residents, the final determination of
21investigations, the type and number of cases where abuse or
22neglect is determined to exist, and the final disposition of
23cases.
24(Source: P.A. 95-545, eff. 8-28-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
25    Section 72. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by

 

 

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1changing Sections 1-113 and 3-202.5 as follows:
 
2    (210 ILCS 45/1-113)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4151-113)
3    Sec. 1-113. "Facility" or "long-term care facility" means a
4private home, institution, building, residence, or any other
5place, whether operated for profit or not, or a county home for
6the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant to Division
75-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, or any similar institution
8operated by a political subdivision of the State of Illinois,
9which provides, through its ownership or management, personal
10care, sheltered care or nursing for 3 or more persons, not
11related to the applicant or owner by blood or marriage. It
12includes skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care
13facilities as those terms are defined in Title XVIII and Title
14XIX of the Federal Social Security Act. It also includes homes,
15institutions, or other places operated by or under the
16authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs.
17    "Facility" does not include the following:
18        (1) A home, institution, or other place operated by the
19    federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of
20    Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places
21    operated by or under the authority of the Illinois
22    Department of Veterans' Affairs;
23        (2) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose
24    principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and
25    treatment of human illness through the maintenance and

 

 

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1    operation as organized facilities therefor, which is
2    required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;
3        (3) Any "facility for child care" as defined in the
4    Child Care Act of 1969;
5        (4) Any "Community Living Facility" as defined in the
6    Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;
7        (5) Any "community residential alternative" as defined
8    in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;
9        (6) Any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by
10    and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by
11    spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the
12    creed or tenets of any well-recognized church or religious
13    denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium
14    shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to
15    sanitation and safety;
16        (7) Any facility licensed by the Department of Human
17    Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as
18    defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements
19    Licensure and Certification Act;
20        (8) Any "Supportive Residence" licensed under the
21    Supportive Residences Licensing Act;
22        (9) Any "supportive living facility" in good standing
23    with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the
24    Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the
25    employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;
26        (10) Any assisted living or shared housing

 

 

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1    establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and
2    Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the
3    employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;
4        (11) An Alzheimer's disease management center
5    alternative health care model licensed under the
6    Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or
7        (12) A facility licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD
8    Community Care Act.
9(Source: P.A. 95-380, eff. 8-23-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
10    (210 ILCS 45/3-202.5)
11    Sec. 3-202.5. Facility plan review; fees.
12    (a) Before commencing construction of a new facility or
13specified types of alteration or additions to an existing long
14term care facility involving major construction, as defined by
15rule by the Department, with an estimated cost greater than
16$100,000, architectural drawings and specifications for the
17facility shall be submitted to the Department for review and
18approval. A facility may submit architectural drawings and
19specifications for other construction projects for Department
20review according to subsection (b) that shall not be subject to
21fees under subsection (d). Review of drawings and
22specifications shall be conducted by an employee of the
23Department meeting the qualifications established by the
24Department of Central Management Services class specifications
25for such an individual's position or by a person contracting

 

 

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1with the Department who meets those class specifications. Final
2approval of the drawings and specifications for compliance with
3design and construction standards shall be obtained from the
4Department before the alteration, addition, or new
5construction is begun.
6    (b) The Department shall inform an applicant in writing
7within 10 working days after receiving drawings and
8specifications and the required fee, if any, from the applicant
9whether the applicant's submission is complete or incomplete.
10Failure to provide the applicant with this notice within 10
11working days shall result in the submission being deemed
12complete for purposes of initiating the 60-day review period
13under this Section. If the submission is incomplete, the
14Department shall inform the applicant of the deficiencies with
15the submission in writing. If the submission is complete the
16required fee, if any, has been paid, the Department shall
17approve or disapprove drawings and specifications submitted to
18the Department no later than 60 days following receipt by the
19Department. The drawings and specifications shall be of
20sufficient detail, as provided by Department rule, to enable
21the Department to render a determination of compliance with
22design and construction standards under this Act. If the
23Department finds that the drawings are not of sufficient detail
24for it to render a determination of compliance, the plans shall
25be determined to be incomplete and shall not be considered for
26purposes of initiating the 60 day review period. If a

 

 

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1submission of drawings and specifications is incomplete, the
2applicant may submit additional information. The 60-day review
3period shall not commence until the Department determines that
4a submission of drawings and specifications is complete or the
5submission is deemed complete. If the Department has not
6approved or disapproved the drawings and specifications within
760 days, the construction, major alteration, or addition shall
8be deemed approved. If the drawings and specifications are
9disapproved, the Department shall state in writing, with
10specificity, the reasons for the disapproval. The entity
11submitting the drawings and specifications may submit
12additional information in response to the written comments from
13the Department or request a reconsideration of the disapproval.
14A final decision of approval or disapproval shall be made
15within 45 days of the receipt of the additional information or
16reconsideration request. If denied, the Department shall state
17the specific reasons for the denial.
18    (c) The Department shall provide written approval for
19occupancy pursuant to subsection (g) and shall not issue a
20violation to a facility as a result of a licensure or complaint
21survey based upon the facility's physical structure if:
22        (1) the Department reviewed and approved or deemed
23    approved the drawings and specifications for compliance
24    with design and construction standards;
25        (2) the construction, major alteration, or addition
26    was built as submitted;

 

 

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1        (3) the law or rules have not been amended since the
2    original approval; and
3        (4) the conditions at the facility indicate that there
4    is a reasonable degree of safety provided for the
5    residents.
6    (d) The Department shall charge the following fees in
7connection with its reviews conducted before June 30, 2004
8under this Section:
9        (1) (Blank).
10        (2) (Blank).
11        (3) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration,
12    addition, or new construction is $100,000 or more but less
13    than $500,000, the fee shall be the greater of $2,400 or
14    1.2% of that value.
15        (4) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration,
16    addition, or new construction is $500,000 or more but less
17    than $1,000,000, the fee shall be the greater of $6,000 or
18    0.96% of that value.
19        (5) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration,
20    addition, or new construction is $1,000,000 or more but
21    less than $5,000,000, the fee shall be the greater of
22    $9,600 or 0.22% of that value.
23        (6) If the estimated dollar value of the alteration,
24    addition, or new construction is $5,000,000 or more, the
25    fee shall be the greater of $11,000 or 0.11% of that value,
26    but shall not exceed $40,000.

 

 

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1    The fees provided in this subsection (d) shall not apply to
2major construction projects involving facility changes that
3are required by Department rule amendments.
4    The fees provided in this subsection (d) shall also not
5apply to major construction projects if 51% or more of the
6estimated cost of the project is attributed to capital
7equipment. For major construction projects where 51% or more of
8the estimated cost of the project is attributed to capital
9equipment, the Department shall by rule establish a fee that is
10reasonably related to the cost of reviewing the project.
11    The Department shall not commence the facility plan review
12process under this Section until the applicable fee has been
13paid.
14    (e) All fees received by the Department under this Section
15shall be deposited into the Health Facility Plan Review Fund, a
16special fund created in the State Treasury. All fees paid by
17long-term care facilities under subsection (d) shall be used
18only to cover the costs relating to the Department's review of
19long-term care facility projects under this Section. Moneys
20shall be appropriated from that Fund to the Department only to
21pay the costs of conducting reviews under this Section or under
22Section 3-202.5 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act. None of
23the moneys in the Health Facility Plan Review Fund shall be
24used to reduce the amount of General Revenue Fund moneys
25appropriated to the Department for facility plan reviews
26conducted pursuant to this Section.

 

 

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1    (f) (1) The provisions of this amendatory Act of 1997
2    concerning drawings and specifications shall apply only to
3    drawings and specifications submitted to the Department on
4    or after October 1, 1997.
5        (2) On and after the effective date of this amendatory
6    Act of 1997 and before October 1, 1997, an applicant may
7    submit or resubmit drawings and specifications to the
8    Department and pay the fees provided in subsection (d). If
9    an applicant pays the fees provided in subsection (d) under
10    this paragraph (2), the provisions of subsection (b) shall
11    apply with regard to those drawings and specifications.
12    (g) The Department shall conduct an on-site inspection of
13the completed project no later than 30 days after notification
14from the applicant that the project has been completed and all
15certifications required by the Department have been received
16and accepted by the Department. The Department shall provide
17written approval for occupancy to the applicant within 5
18working days of the Department's final inspection, provided the
19applicant has demonstrated substantial compliance as defined
20by Department rule. Occupancy of new major construction is
21prohibited until Department approval is received, unless the
22Department has not acted within the time frames provided in
23this subsection (g), in which case the construction shall be
24deemed approved. Occupancy shall be authorized after any
25required health inspection by the Department has been
26conducted.

 

 

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1    (h) The Department shall establish, by rule, a procedure to
2conduct interim on-site review of large or complex construction
3projects.
4    (i) The Department shall establish, by rule, an expedited
5process for emergency repairs or replacement of like equipment.
6    (j) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to
7maintenance, upkeep, or renovation that does not affect the
8structural integrity of the building, does not add beds or
9services over the number for which the long-term care facility
10is licensed, and provides a reasonable degree of safety for the
11residents.
12(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
13    Section 73. The MR/DD Community Care Act is amended by
14changing Sections 1-101 and 1-113 as follows:
 
15    (210 ILCS 47/1-101)
16    Sec. 1-101. Short title. This Act may be cited as the ID/DD
17MR/DD Community Care Act.
18(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
19    (210 ILCS 47/1-113)
20    Sec. 1-113. Facility. "ID/DD MR/DD facility" or "facility"
21means an intermediate care facility for the developmentally
22disabled or a long-term care for under age 22 facility, whether
23operated for profit or not, which provides, through its

 

 

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1ownership or management, personal care or nursing for 3 or more
2persons not related to the applicant or owner by blood or
3marriage. It includes intermediate care facilities for the
4intellectually disabled mentally retarded as the term is
5defined in Title XVIII and Title XIX of the federal Social
6Security Act.
7    "Facility" does not include the following:
8        (1) A home, institution, or other place operated by the
9    federal government or agency thereof, or by the State of
10    Illinois, other than homes, institutions, or other places
11    operated by or under the authority of the Illinois
12    Department of Veterans' Affairs;
13        (2) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution whose
14    principal activity or business is the diagnosis, care, and
15    treatment of human illness through the maintenance and
16    operation as organized facilities therefore, which is
17    required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;
18        (3) Any "facility for child care" as defined in the
19    Child Care Act of 1969;
20        (4) Any "community living facility" as defined in the
21    Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;
22        (5) Any "community residential alternative" as defined
23    in the Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act;
24        (6) Any nursing home or sanatorium operated solely by
25    and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by
26    spiritual means through prayer, in accordance with the

 

 

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1    creed or tenets of any well recognized church or religious
2    denomination. However, such nursing home or sanatorium
3    shall comply with all local laws and rules relating to
4    sanitation and safety;
5        (7) Any facility licensed by the Department of Human
6    Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as
7    defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements
8    Licensure and Certification Act;
9        (8) Any "supportive residence" licensed under the
10    Supportive Residences Licensing Act;
11        (9) Any "supportive living facility" in good standing
12    with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the
13    Illinois Public Aid Code, except only for purposes of the
14    employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;
15        (10) Any assisted living or shared housing
16    establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and
17    Shared Housing Act, except only for purposes of the
18    employment of persons in accordance with Section 3-206.01;
19        (11) An Alzheimer's disease management center
20    alternative health care model licensed under the
21    Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or
22        (12) A home, institution, or other place operated by or
23    under the authority of the Illinois Department of Veterans'
24    Affairs.
25(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 74. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home
2Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section
32.08 as follows:
 
4    (210 ILCS 55/2.08)
5    Sec. 2.08. "Home services agency" means an agency that
6provides services directly, or acts as a placement agency, for
7the purpose of placing individuals as workers providing home
8services for consumers in their personal residences. "Home
9services agency" does not include agencies licensed under the
10Nurse Agency Licensing Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, the
11Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, or
12the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act and does not include
13an agency that limits its business exclusively to providing
14housecleaning services. Programs providing services
15exclusively through the Community Care Program of the Illinois
16Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services Office of
17Rehabilitation Services, or the United States Department of
18Veterans Affairs are not considered to be a home services
19agency under this Act.
20(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-577, eff. 8-18-09;
2196-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
22    Section 75. The Hospice Program Licensing Act is amended by
23changing Sections 3 and 4 as follows:
 

 

 

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1    (210 ILCS 60/3)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6103)
2    Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
3context otherwise requires:
4    (a) "Bereavement" means the period of time during which the
5hospice patient's family experiences and adjusts to the death
6of the hospice patient.
7    (a-5) "Bereavement services" means counseling services
8provided to an individual's family after the individual's
9death.
10    (a-10) "Attending physician" means a physician who:
11        (1) is a doctor of medicine or osteopathy; and
12        (2) is identified by an individual, at the time the
13    individual elects to receive hospice care, as having the
14    most significant role in the determination and delivery of
15    the individual's medical care.
16    (b) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public
17Health.
18    (c) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois
19Department of Public Health.
20    (d) "Hospice care" means a program of palliative care that
21provides for the physical, emotional, and spiritual care needs
22of a terminally ill patient and his or her family. The goal of
23such care is to achieve the highest quality of life as defined
24by the patient and his or her family through the relief of
25suffering and control of symptoms.
26    (e) "Hospice care team" means an interdisciplinary group or

 

 

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1groups composed of individuals who provide or supervise the
2care and services offered by the hospice.
3    (f) "Hospice patient" means a terminally ill person
4receiving hospice services.
5    (g) "Hospice patient's family" means a hospice patient's
6immediate family consisting of a spouse, sibling, child, parent
7and those individuals designated as such by the patient for the
8purposes of this Act.
9    (g-1) "Hospice residence" means a separately licensed
10home, apartment building, or similar building providing living
11quarters:
12        (1) that is owned or operated by a person licensed to
13    operate as a comprehensive hospice; and
14        (2) at which hospice services are provided to facility
15    residents.
16    A building that is licensed under the Hospital Licensing
17Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, or the ID/DD MR/DD Community
18Care Act is not a hospice residence.
19    (h) "Hospice services" means a range of professional and
20other supportive services provided to a hospice patient and his
21or her family. These services may include, but are not limited
22to, physician services, nursing services, medical social work
23services, spiritual counseling services, bereavement services,
24and volunteer services.
25    (h-5) "Hospice program" means a licensed public agency or
26private organization, or a subdivision of either of those, that

 

 

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1is primarily engaged in providing care to terminally ill
2individuals through a program of home care or inpatient care,
3or both home care and inpatient care, utilizing a medically
4directed interdisciplinary hospice care team of professionals
5or volunteers, or both professionals and volunteers. A hospice
6program may be licensed as a comprehensive hospice program or a
7volunteer hospice program.
8    (h-10) "Comprehensive hospice" means a program that
9provides hospice services and meets the minimum standards for
10certification under the Medicare program set forth in the
11Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 418 but is not
12required to be Medicare-certified.
13    (i) "Palliative care" means the management of pain and
14other distressing symptoms that incorporates medical, nursing,
15psychosocial, and spiritual care according to the needs,
16values, beliefs, and culture or cultures of the patient and his
17or her family. The evaluation and treatment is
18patient-centered, with a focus on the central role of the
19family unit in decision-making.
20    (j) "Hospice service plan" means a plan detailing the
21specific hospice services offered by a comprehensive or
22volunteer hospice program, and the administrative and direct
23care personnel responsible for those services. The plan shall
24include but not be limited to:
25        (1) Identification of the person or persons
26    administratively responsible for the program.

 

 

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1        (2) The estimated average monthly patient census.
2        (3) The proposed geographic area the hospice will
3    serve.
4        (4) A listing of those hospice services provided
5    directly by the hospice, and those hospice services
6    provided indirectly through a contractual agreement.
7        (5) The name and qualifications of those persons or
8    entities under contract to provide indirect hospice
9    services.
10        (6) The name and qualifications of those persons
11    providing direct hospice services, with the exception of
12    volunteers.
13        (7) A description of how the hospice plans to utilize
14    volunteers in the provision of hospice services.
15        (8) A description of the program's record keeping
16    system.
17    (k) "Terminally ill" means a medical prognosis by a
18physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches
19that a patient has an anticipated life expectancy of one year
20or less.
21    (l) "Volunteer" means a person who offers his or her
22services to a hospice without compensation. Reimbursement for a
23volunteer's expenses in providing hospice service shall not be
24considered compensation.
25    (l-5) "Employee" means a paid or unpaid member of the staff
26of a hospice program, or, if the hospice program is a

 

 

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1subdivision of an agency or organization, of the agency or
2organization, who is appropriately trained and assigned to the
3hospice program. "Employee" also means a volunteer whose duties
4are prescribed by the hospice program and whose performance of
5those duties is supervised by the hospice program.
6    (l-10) "Representative" means an individual who has been
7authorized under State law to terminate an individual's medical
8care or to elect or revoke the election of hospice care on
9behalf of a terminally ill individual who is mentally or
10physically incapacitated.
11    (m) "Volunteer hospice" means a program which provides
12hospice services to patients regardless of their ability to
13pay, with emphasis on the utilization of volunteers to provide
14services, under the administration of a not-for-profit agency.
15This definition does not prohibit the employment of staff.
16(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
17    (210 ILCS 60/4)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 6104)
18    Sec. 4. License.
19    (a) No person shall establish, conduct or maintain a
20comprehensive or volunteer hospice program without first
21obtaining a license from the Department. A hospice residence
22may be operated only at the locations listed on the license. A
23comprehensive hospice program owning or operating a hospice
24residence is not subject to the provisions of the Nursing Home
25Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act in owning or

 

 

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1operating a hospice residence.
2    (b) No public or private agency shall advertise or present
3itself to the public as a comprehensive or volunteer hospice
4program which provides hospice services without meeting the
5provisions of subsection (a).
6    (c) The license shall be valid only in the possession of
7the hospice to which it was originally issued and shall not be
8transferred or assigned to any other person, agency, or
9corporation.
10    (d) The license shall be renewed annually.
11    (e) The license shall be displayed in a conspicuous place
12inside the hospice program office.
13(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
14    Section 76. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by
15changing Sections 3, 6.09, and 6.11 as follows:
 
16    (210 ILCS 85/3)
17    Sec. 3. As used in this Act:
18    (A) "Hospital" means any institution, place, building,
19buildings on a campus, or agency, public or private, whether
20organized for profit or not, devoted primarily to the
21maintenance and operation of facilities for the diagnosis and
22treatment or care of 2 or more unrelated persons admitted for
23overnight stay or longer in order to obtain medical, including
24obstetric, psychiatric and nursing, care of illness, disease,

 

 

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1injury, infirmity, or deformity.
2    The term "hospital", without regard to length of stay,
3shall also include:
4        (a) any facility which is devoted primarily to
5    providing psychiatric and related services and programs
6    for the diagnosis and treatment or care of 2 or more
7    unrelated persons suffering from emotional or nervous
8    diseases;
9        (b) all places where pregnant females are received,
10    cared for, or treated during delivery irrespective of the
11    number of patients received.
12    The term "hospital" includes general and specialized
13hospitals, tuberculosis sanitaria, mental or psychiatric
14hospitals and sanitaria, and includes maternity homes,
15lying-in homes, and homes for unwed mothers in which care is
16given during delivery.
17    The term "hospital" does not include:
18        (1) any person or institution required to be licensed
19    pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
20    Community Care Act;
21        (2) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by
22    the State or any department or agency thereof, where such
23    department or agency has authority under law to establish
24    and enforce standards for the hospitalization or care
25    facilities under its management and control;
26        (3) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by

 

 

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1    the federal government or agencies thereof;
2        (4) hospitalization or care facilities maintained by
3    any university or college established under the laws of
4    this State and supported principally by public funds raised
5    by taxation;
6        (5) any person or facility required to be licensed
7    pursuant to the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and
8    Dependency Act;
9        (6) any facility operated solely by and for persons who
10    rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through
11    prayer, in accordance with the creed or tenets of any
12    well-recognized church or religious denomination;
13        (7) an Alzheimer's disease management center
14    alternative health care model licensed under the
15    Alternative Health Care Delivery Act; or
16        (8) any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a
17    veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the
18    Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or
19    maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded
20    university or college.
21    (B) "Person" means the State, and any political subdivision
22or municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership,
23corporation, company, association, or joint stock association,
24or the legal successor thereof.
25    (C) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of
26the State of Illinois.

 

 

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1    (D) "Director" means the Director of Public Health of the
2State of Illinois.
3    (E) "Perinatal" means the period of time between the
4conception of an infant and the end of the first month after
5birth.
6    (F) "Federally designated organ procurement agency" means
7the organ procurement agency designated by the Secretary of the
8U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for the service
9area in which a hospital is located; except that in the case of
10a hospital located in a county adjacent to Wisconsin which
11currently contracts with an organ procurement agency located in
12Wisconsin that is not the organ procurement agency designated
13by the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services for the
14service area in which the hospital is located, if the hospital
15applies for a waiver pursuant to 42 USC 1320b-8(a), it may
16designate an organ procurement agency located in Wisconsin to
17be thereafter deemed its federally designated organ
18procurement agency for the purposes of this Act.
19    (G) "Tissue bank" means any facility or program operating
20in Illinois that is certified by the American Association of
21Tissue Banks or the Eye Bank Association of America and is
22involved in procuring, furnishing, donating, or distributing
23corneas, bones, or other human tissue for the purpose of
24injecting, transfusing, or transplanting any of them into the
25human body. "Tissue bank" does not include a licensed blood
26bank. For the purposes of this Act, "tissue" does not include

 

 

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1organs.
2    (H) "Campus", as this terms applies to operations, has the
3same meaning as the term "campus" as set forth in federal
4Medicare regulations, 42 CFR 413.65.
5(Source: P.A. 96-219, eff. 8-10-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
696-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1515, eff. 2-4-11.)
 
7    (210 ILCS 85/6.09)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 147.09)
8    Sec. 6.09. (a) In order to facilitate the orderly
9transition of aged and disabled patients from hospitals to
10post-hospital care, whenever a patient who qualifies for the
11federal Medicare program is hospitalized, the patient shall be
12notified of discharge at least 24 hours prior to discharge from
13the hospital. With regard to pending discharges to a skilled
14nursing facility, the hospital must notify the case
15coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, at
16least 24 hours prior to discharge or, if home health services
17are ordered, the hospital must inform its designated case
18coordination unit, as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 240.260, of
19the pending discharge and must provide the patient with the
20case coordination unit's telephone number and other contact
21information.
22    (b) Every hospital shall develop procedures for a physician
23with medical staff privileges at the hospital or any
24appropriate medical staff member to provide the discharge
25notice prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section. The

 

 

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1procedures must include prohibitions against discharging or
2referring a patient to any of the following if unlicensed,
3uncertified, or unregistered: (i) a board and care facility, as
4defined in the Board and Care Home Act; (ii) an assisted living
5and shared housing establishment, as defined in the Assisted
6Living and Shared Housing Act; (iii) a facility licensed under
7the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care
8Act; (iv) a supportive living facility, as defined in Section
95-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; or (v) a free-standing
10hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing
11Act if licensure, certification, or registration is required.
12The Department of Public Health shall annually provide
13hospitals with a list of licensed, certified, or registered
14board and care facilities, assisted living and shared housing
15establishments, nursing homes, supportive living facilities,
16facilities licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act,
17and hospice facilities. Reliance upon this list by a hospital
18shall satisfy compliance with this requirement. The procedure
19may also include a waiver for any case in which a discharge
20notice is not feasible due to a short length of stay in the
21hospital by the patient, or for any case in which the patient
22voluntarily desires to leave the hospital before the expiration
23of the 24 hour period.
24    (c) At least 24 hours prior to discharge from the hospital,
25the patient shall receive written information on the patient's
26right to appeal the discharge pursuant to the federal Medicare

 

 

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1program, including the steps to follow to appeal the discharge
2and the appropriate telephone number to call in case the
3patient intends to appeal the discharge.
4    (d) Before transfer of a patient to a long term care
5facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act where elderly
6persons reside, a hospital shall as soon as practicable
7initiate a name-based criminal history background check by
8electronic submission to the Department of State Police for all
9persons between the ages of 18 and 70 years; provided, however,
10that a hospital shall be required to initiate such a background
11check only with respect to patients who:
12        (1) are transferring to a long term care facility for
13    the first time;
14        (2) have been in the hospital more than 5 days;
15        (3) are reasonably expected to remain at the long term
16    care facility for more than 30 days;
17        (4) have a known history of serious mental illness or
18    substance abuse; and
19        (5) are independently ambulatory or mobile for more
20    than a temporary period of time.
21    A hospital may also request a criminal history background
22check for a patient who does not meet any of the criteria set
23forth in items (1) through (5).
24    A hospital shall notify a long term care facility if the
25hospital has initiated a criminal history background check on a
26patient being discharged to that facility. In all circumstances

 

 

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1in which the hospital is required by this subsection to
2initiate the criminal history background check, the transfer to
3the long term care facility may proceed regardless of the
4availability of criminal history results. Upon receipt of the
5results, the hospital shall promptly forward the results to the
6appropriate long term care facility. If the results of the
7background check are inconclusive, the hospital shall have no
8additional duty or obligation to seek additional information
9from, or about, the patient.
10(Source: P.A. 95-80, eff. 8-13-07; 95-651, eff. 10-11-07;
1195-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1372, eff.
127-29-10.)
 
13    (210 ILCS 85/6.11)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 147.11)
14    Sec. 6.11. In licensing any hospital which provides for the
15diagnosis, care or treatment for persons suffering from mental
16or emotional disorders or for intellectually disabled mentally
17retarded persons, the Department shall consult with the
18Department of Human Services in developing standards for and
19evaluating the psychiatric programs of such hospitals.
20(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
21    Section 77. The Language Assistance Services Act is amended
22by changing Section 10 as follows:
 
23    (210 ILCS 87/10)

 

 

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1    Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
2    "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
3    "Interpreter" means a person fluent in English and in the
4necessary language of the patient who can accurately speak,
5read, and readily interpret the necessary second language, or a
6person who can accurately sign and read sign language.
7Interpreters shall have the ability to translate the names of
8body parts and to describe completely symptoms and injuries in
9both languages. Interpreters may include members of the medical
10or professional staff.
11    "Language or communication barriers" means either of the
12following:
13        (1) With respect to spoken language, barriers that are
14    experienced by limited-English-speaking or
15    non-English-speaking individuals who speak the same
16    primary language, if those individuals constitute at least
17    5% of the patients served by the health facility annually.
18        (2) With respect to sign language, barriers that are
19    experienced by individuals who are deaf and whose primary
20    language is sign language.
21    "Health facility" means a hospital licensed under the
22Hospital Licensing Act, a long-term care facility licensed
23under the Nursing Home Care Act, or a facility licensed under
24the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
25(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 78. Community-Integrated Living Arrangements
2Licensure and Certification Act is amended by changing Section
34 as follows:
 
4    (210 ILCS 135/4)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1704)
5    Sec. 4. (a) Any community mental health or developmental
6services agency who wishes to develop and support a variety of
7community-integrated living arrangements may do so pursuant to
8a license issued by the Department under this Act. However,
9programs established under or otherwise subject to the Child
10Care Act of 1969, the Nursing Home Care Act, or the ID/DD MR/DD
11Community Care Act, as now or hereafter amended, shall remain
12subject thereto, and this Act shall not be construed to limit
13the application of those Acts.
14    (b) The system of licensure established under this Act
15shall be for the purposes of:
16        (1) Insuring that all recipients residing in
17    community-integrated living arrangements are receiving
18    appropriate community-based services, including treatment,
19    training and habilitation or rehabilitation;
20        (2) Insuring that recipients' rights are protected and
21    that all programs provided to and placements arranged for
22    recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and
23    Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department
24    rules and regulations;
25        (3) Maintaining the integrity of communities by

 

 

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1    requiring regular monitoring and inspection of placements
2    and other services provided in community-integrated living
3    arrangements.
4    The licensure system shall be administered by a quality
5assurance unit within the Department which shall be
6administratively independent of units responsible for funding
7of agencies or community services.
8    (c) As a condition of being licensed by the Department as a
9community mental health or developmental services agency under
10this Act, the agency shall certify to the Department that:
11        (1) All recipients residing in community-integrated
12    living arrangements are receiving appropriate
13    community-based services, including treatment, training
14    and habilitation or rehabilitation;
15        (2) All programs provided to and placements arranged
16    for recipients are supervised by the agency; and
17        (3) All programs provided to and placements arranged
18    for recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and
19    Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department
20    rules and regulations.
21    (d) An applicant for licensure as a community mental health
22or developmental services agency under this Act shall submit an
23application pursuant to the application process established by
24the Department by rule and shall pay an application fee in an
25amount established by the Department, which amount shall not be
26more than $200.

 

 

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1    (e) If an applicant meets the requirements established by
2the Department to be licensed as a community mental health or
3developmental services agency under this Act, after payment of
4the licensing fee, the Department shall issue a license valid
5for 3 years from the date thereof unless suspended or revoked
6by the Department or voluntarily surrendered by the agency.
7    (f) Upon application to the Department, the Department may
8issue a temporary permit to an applicant for a 6-month period
9to allow the holder of such permit reasonable time to become
10eligible for a license under this Act.
11    (g)(1) The Department may conduct site visits to an agency
12licensed under this Act, or to any program or placement
13certified by the agency, and inspect the records or premises,
14or both, of such agency, program or placement as it deems
15appropriate, for the purpose of determining compliance with
16this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
17Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations.
18    (2) If the Department determines that an agency licensed
19under this Act is not in compliance with this Act or the rules
20and regulations promulgated under this Act, the Department
21shall serve a notice of violation upon the licensee. Each
22notice of violation shall be prepared in writing and shall
23specify the nature of the violation, the statutory provision or
24rule alleged to have been violated, and that the licensee
25submit a plan of correction to the Department if required. The
26notice shall also inform the licensee of any other action which

 

 

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1the Department might take pursuant to this Act and of the right
2to a hearing.
3    (h) Upon the expiration of any license issued under this
4Act, a license renewal application shall be required of and a
5license renewal fee in an amount established by the Department
6shall be charged to a community mental health or developmental
7services agency, provided that such fee shall not be more than
8$200.
9(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
10    Section 79. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by
11changing Sections 2.06 and 7 as follows:
 
12    (225 ILCS 10/2.06)  (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.06)
13    Sec. 2.06. "Child care institution" means a child care
14facility where more than 7 children are received and maintained
15for the purpose of providing them with care or training or
16both. The term "child care institution" includes residential
17schools, primarily serving ambulatory handicapped children,
18and those operating a full calendar year, but does not include:
19    (a) Any State-operated institution for child care
20established by legislative action;
21    (b) Any juvenile detention or shelter care home established
22and operated by any county or child protection district
23established under the "Child Protection Act";
24    (c) Any institution, home, place or facility operating

 

 

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1under a license pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act or the
2ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act;
3    (d) Any bona fide boarding school in which children are
4primarily taught branches of education corresponding to those
5taught in public schools, grades one through 12, or taught in
6public elementary schools, high schools, or both elementary and
7high schools, and which operates on a regular academic school
8year basis; or
9    (e) Any facility licensed as a "group home" as defined in
10this Act.
11(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
12    (225 ILCS 10/7)  (from Ch. 23, par. 2217)
13    Sec. 7. (a) The Department must prescribe and publish
14minimum standards for licensing that apply to the various types
15of facilities for child care defined in this Act and that are
16equally applicable to like institutions under the control of
17the Department and to foster family homes used by and under the
18direct supervision of the Department. The Department shall seek
19the advice and assistance of persons representative of the
20various types of child care facilities in establishing such
21standards. The standards prescribed and published under this
22Act take effect as provided in the Illinois Administrative
23Procedure Act, and are restricted to regulations pertaining to
24the following matters and to any rules and regulations required
25or permitted by any other Section of this Act:

 

 

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1        (1) The operation and conduct of the facility and
2    responsibility it assumes for child care;
3        (2) The character, suitability and qualifications of
4    the applicant and other persons directly responsible for
5    the care and welfare of children served. All child day care
6    center licensees and employees who are required to report
7    child abuse or neglect under the Abused and Neglected Child
8    Reporting Act shall be required to attend training on
9    recognizing child abuse and neglect, as prescribed by
10    Department rules;
11        (3) The general financial ability and competence of the
12    applicant to provide necessary care for children and to
13    maintain prescribed standards;
14        (4) The number of individuals or staff required to
15    insure adequate supervision and care of the children
16    received. The standards shall provide that each child care
17    institution, maternity center, day care center, group
18    home, day care home, and group day care home shall have on
19    its premises during its hours of operation at least one
20    staff member certified in first aid, in the Heimlich
21    maneuver and in cardiopulmonary resuscitation by the
22    American Red Cross or other organization approved by rule
23    of the Department. Child welfare agencies shall not be
24    subject to such a staffing requirement. The Department may
25    offer, or arrange for the offering, on a periodic basis in
26    each community in this State in cooperation with the

 

 

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1    American Red Cross, the American Heart Association or other
2    appropriate organization, voluntary programs to train
3    operators of foster family homes and day care homes in
4    first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation;
5        (5) The appropriateness, safety, cleanliness and
6    general adequacy of the premises, including maintenance of
7    adequate fire prevention and health standards conforming
8    to State laws and municipal codes to provide for the
9    physical comfort, care and well-being of children
10    received;
11        (6) Provisions for food, clothing, educational
12    opportunities, program, equipment and individual supplies
13    to assure the healthy physical, mental and spiritual
14    development of children served;
15        (7) Provisions to safeguard the legal rights of
16    children served;
17        (8) Maintenance of records pertaining to the
18    admission, progress, health and discharge of children,
19    including, for day care centers and day care homes, records
20    indicating each child has been immunized as required by
21    State regulations. The Department shall require proof that
22    children enrolled in a facility have been immunized against
23    Haemophilus Influenzae B (HIB);
24        (9) Filing of reports with the Department;
25        (10) Discipline of children;
26        (11) Protection and fostering of the particular

 

 

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1    religious faith of the children served;
2        (12) Provisions prohibiting firearms on day care
3    center premises except in the possession of peace officers;
4        (13) Provisions prohibiting handguns on day care home
5    premises except in the possession of peace officers or
6    other adults who must possess a handgun as a condition of
7    employment and who reside on the premises of a day care
8    home;
9        (14) Provisions requiring that any firearm permitted
10    on day care home premises, except handguns in the
11    possession of peace officers, shall be kept in a
12    disassembled state, without ammunition, in locked storage,
13    inaccessible to children and that ammunition permitted on
14    day care home premises shall be kept in locked storage
15    separate from that of disassembled firearms, inaccessible
16    to children;
17        (15) Provisions requiring notification of parents or
18    guardians enrolling children at a day care home of the
19    presence in the day care home of any firearms and
20    ammunition and of the arrangements for the separate, locked
21    storage of such firearms and ammunition.
22    (b) If, in a facility for general child care, there are
23children diagnosed as mentally ill, intellectually disabled
24mentally retarded or physically handicapped, who are
25determined to be in need of special mental treatment or of
26nursing care, or both mental treatment and nursing care, the

 

 

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1Department shall seek the advice and recommendation of the
2Department of Human Services, the Department of Public Health,
3or both Departments regarding the residential treatment and
4nursing care provided by the institution.
5    (c) The Department shall investigate any person applying to
6be licensed as a foster parent to determine whether there is
7any evidence of current drug or alcohol abuse in the
8prospective foster family. The Department shall not license a
9person as a foster parent if drug or alcohol abuse has been
10identified in the foster family or if a reasonable suspicion of
11such abuse exists, except that the Department may grant a
12foster parent license to an applicant identified with an
13alcohol or drug problem if the applicant has successfully
14participated in an alcohol or drug treatment program, self-help
15group, or other suitable activities.
16    (d) The Department, in applying standards prescribed and
17published, as herein provided, shall offer consultation
18through employed staff or other qualified persons to assist
19applicants and licensees in meeting and maintaining minimum
20requirements for a license and to help them otherwise to
21achieve programs of excellence related to the care of children
22served. Such consultation shall include providing information
23concerning education and training in early childhood
24development to providers of day care home services. The
25Department may provide or arrange for such education and
26training for those providers who request such assistance.

 

 

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1    (e) The Department shall distribute copies of licensing
2standards to all licensees and applicants for a license. Each
3licensee or holder of a permit shall distribute copies of the
4appropriate licensing standards and any other information
5required by the Department to child care facilities under its
6supervision. Each licensee or holder of a permit shall maintain
7appropriate documentation of the distribution of the
8standards. Such documentation shall be part of the records of
9the facility and subject to inspection by authorized
10representatives of the Department.
11    (f) The Department shall prepare summaries of day care
12licensing standards. Each licensee or holder of a permit for a
13day care facility shall distribute a copy of the appropriate
14summary and any other information required by the Department,
15to the legal guardian of each child cared for in that facility
16at the time when the child is enrolled or initially placed in
17the facility. The licensee or holder of a permit for a day care
18facility shall secure appropriate documentation of the
19distribution of the summary and brochure. Such documentation
20shall be a part of the records of the facility and subject to
21inspection by an authorized representative of the Department.
22    (g) The Department shall distribute to each licensee and
23holder of a permit copies of the licensing or permit standards
24applicable to such person's facility. Each licensee or holder
25of a permit shall make available by posting at all times in a
26common or otherwise accessible area a complete and current set

 

 

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1of licensing standards in order that all employees of the
2facility may have unrestricted access to such standards. All
3employees of the facility shall have reviewed the standards and
4any subsequent changes. Each licensee or holder of a permit
5shall maintain appropriate documentation of the current review
6of licensing standards by all employees. Such records shall be
7part of the records of the facility and subject to inspection
8by authorized representatives of the Department.
9    (h) Any standards involving physical examinations,
10immunization, or medical treatment shall include appropriate
11exemptions for children whose parents object thereto on the
12grounds that they conflict with the tenets and practices of a
13recognized church or religious organization, of which the
14parent is an adherent or member, and for children who should
15not be subjected to immunization for clinical reasons.
16    (i) The Department, in cooperation with the Department of
17Public Health, shall work to increase immunization awareness
18and participation among parents of children enrolled in day
19care centers and day care homes by publishing on the
20Department's website information about the benefits of annual
21immunization against influenza for children 6 months of age to
225 years of age. The Department shall work with day care centers
23and day care homes licensed under this Act to ensure that the
24information is annually distributed to parents in August or
25September.
26(Source: P.A. 96-391, eff. 8-13-09.)
 

 

 

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1    Section 80. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is
2amended by changing Section 15 as follows:
 
3    (225 ILCS 46/15)
4    Sec. 15. Definitions. In this Act:
5    "Applicant" means an individual seeking employment with a
6health care employer who has received a bona fide conditional
7offer of employment.
8    "Conditional offer of employment" means a bona fide offer
9of employment by a health care employer to an applicant, which
10is contingent upon the receipt of a report from the Department
11of Public Health indicating that the applicant does not have a
12record of conviction of any of the criminal offenses enumerated
13in Section 25.
14    "Direct care" means the provision of nursing care or
15assistance with feeding, dressing, movement, bathing,
16toileting, or other personal needs, including home services as
17defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing
18Agency Licensing Act. The entity responsible for inspecting and
19licensing, certifying, or registering the health care employer
20may, by administrative rule, prescribe guidelines for
21interpreting this definition with regard to the health care
22employers that it licenses.
23    "Disqualifying offenses" means those offenses set forth in
24Section 25 of this Act.

 

 

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1    "Employee" means any individual hired, employed, or
2retained to which this Act applies.
3    "Fingerprint-based criminal history records check" means a
4livescan fingerprint-based criminal history records check
5submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and manner
6prescribed by the Department of State Police.
7    "Health care employer" means:
8        (1) the owner or licensee of any of the following:
9            (i) a community living facility, as defined in the
10        Community Living Facilities Act;
11            (ii) a life care facility, as defined in the Life
12        Care Facilities Act;
13            (iii) a long-term care facility;
14            (iv) a home health agency, home services agency, or
15        home nursing agency as defined in the Home Health, Home
16        Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act;
17            (v) a hospice care program or volunteer hospice
18        program, as defined in the Hospice Program Licensing
19        Act;
20            (vi) a hospital, as defined in the Hospital
21        Licensing Act;
22            (vii) (blank);
23            (viii) a nurse agency, as defined in the Nurse
24        Agency Licensing Act;
25            (ix) a respite care provider, as defined in the
26        Respite Program Act;

 

 

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1            (ix-a) an establishment licensed under the
2        Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;
3            (x) a supportive living program, as defined in the
4        Illinois Public Aid Code;
5            (xi) early childhood intervention programs as
6        described in 59 Ill. Adm. Code 121;
7            (xii) the University of Illinois Hospital,
8        Chicago;
9            (xiii) programs funded by the Department on Aging
10        through the Community Care Program;
11            (xiv) programs certified to participate in the
12        Supportive Living Program authorized pursuant to
13        Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code;
14            (xv) programs listed by the Emergency Medical
15        Services (EMS) Systems Act as Freestanding Emergency
16        Centers;
17            (xvi) locations licensed under the Alternative
18        Health Care Delivery Act;
19        (2) a day training program certified by the Department
20    of Human Services;
21        (3) a community integrated living arrangement operated
22    by a community mental health and developmental service
23    agency, as defined in the Community-Integrated Living
24    Arrangements Licensing and Certification Act; or
25        (4) the State Long Term Care Ombudsman Program,
26    including any regional long term care ombudsman programs

 

 

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1    under Section 4.04 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, only
2    for the purpose of securing background checks.
3    "Initiate" means obtaining from a student, applicant, or
4employee his or her social security number, demographics, a
5disclosure statement, and an authorization for the Department
6of Public Health or its designee to request a fingerprint-based
7criminal history records check; transmitting this information
8electronically to the Department of Public Health; conducting
9Internet searches on certain web sites, including without
10limitation the Illinois Sex Offender Registry, the Department
11of Corrections' Sex Offender Search Engine, the Department of
12Corrections' Inmate Search Engine, the Department of
13Corrections Wanted Fugitives Search Engine, the National Sex
14Offender Public Registry, and the website of the Health and
15Human Services Office of Inspector General to determine if the
16applicant has been adjudicated a sex offender, has been a
17prison inmate, or has committed Medicare or Medicaid fraud, or
18conducting similar searches as defined by rule; and having the
19student, applicant, or employee's fingerprints collected and
20transmitted electronically to the Department of State Police.
21    "Livescan vendor" means an entity whose equipment has been
22certified by the Department of State Police to collect an
23individual's demographics and inkless fingerprints and, in a
24manner prescribed by the Department of State Police and the
25Department of Public Health, electronically transmit the
26fingerprints and required data to the Department of State

 

 

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1Police and a daily file of required data to the Department of
2Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall negotiate
3a contract with one or more vendors that effectively
4demonstrate that the vendor has 2 or more years of experience
5transmitting fingerprints electronically to the Department of
6State Police and that the vendor can successfully transmit the
7required data in a manner prescribed by the Department of
8Public Health. Vendor authorization may be further defined by
9administrative rule.
10    "Long-term care facility" means a facility licensed by the
11State or certified under federal law as a long-term care
12facility, including without limitation facilities licensed
13under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community
14Care Act, a supportive living facility, an assisted living
15establishment, or a shared housing establishment or registered
16as a board and care home.
17(Source: P.A. 95-120, eff. 8-13-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07;
1896-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
19    Section 81. The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and
20Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 17 as
21follows:
 
22    (225 ILCS 70/4)  (from Ch. 111, par. 3654)
23    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
24    Sec. 4. Definitions. For purposes of this Act, the

 

 

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1following definitions shall have the following meanings,
2except where the context requires otherwise:
3        (1) "Act" means the Nursing Home Administrators
4    Licensing and Disciplinary Act.
5        (2) "Department" means the Department of Financial and
6    Professional Regulation.
7        (3) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
8    Professional Regulation.
9        (4) "Board" means the Nursing Home Administrators
10    Licensing and Disciplinary Board appointed by the
11    Governor.
12        (5) "Nursing home administrator" means the individual
13    licensed under this Act and directly responsible for
14    planning, organizing, directing and supervising the
15    operation of a nursing home, or who in fact performs such
16    functions, whether or not such functions are delegated to
17    one or more other persons.
18        (6) "Nursing home" or "facility" means any entity that
19    is required to be licensed by the Department of Public
20    Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, as amended, other
21    than a sheltered care home as defined thereunder, and
22    includes private homes, institutions, buildings,
23    residences, or other places, whether operated for profit or
24    not, irrespective of the names attributed to them, county
25    homes for the infirm and chronically ill operated pursuant
26    to the County Nursing Home Act, as amended, and any similar

 

 

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1    institutions operated by a political subdivision of the
2    State of Illinois that provide, though their ownership or
3    management, maintenance, personal care, and nursing for 3
4    or more persons, not related to the owner by blood or
5    marriage, or any similar facilities in which maintenance is
6    provided to 3 or more persons who by reason of illness of
7    physical infirmity require personal care and nursing. The
8    term also means any facility licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD
9    Community Care Act.
10        (7) "Maintenance" means food, shelter and laundry.
11        (8) "Personal care" means assistance with meals,
12    dressing, movement, bathing, or other personal needs, or
13    general supervision of the physical and mental well-being
14    of an individual who because of age, physical, or mental
15    disability, emotion or behavior disorder, or an
16    intellectual disability mental retardation is incapable of
17    managing his or her person, whether or not a guardian has
18    been appointed for such individual. For the purposes of
19    this Act, this definition does not include the professional
20    services of a nurse.
21        (9) "Nursing" means professional nursing or practical
22    nursing, as those terms are defined in the Nurse Practice
23    Act, for sick or infirm persons who are under the care and
24    supervision of licensed physicians or dentists.
25        (10) "Disciplinary action" means revocation,
26    suspension, probation, supervision, reprimand, required

 

 

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1    education, fines or any other action taken by the
2    Department against a person holding a license.
3        (11) "Impaired" means the inability to practice with
4    reasonable skill and safety due to physical or mental
5    disabilities as evidenced by a written determination or
6    written consent based on clinical evidence including
7    deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
8    skill, or abuse of drugs or alcohol, of sufficient degree
9    to diminish a person's ability to administer a nursing
10    home.
11        (12) "Address of record" means the designated address
12    recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's
13    application file or license file maintained by the
14    Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of
15    the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any
16    change of address, and such changes must be made either
17    through the Department's website or by contacting the
18    Department's licensure maintenance unit.
19(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-703, eff. 12-31-07;
2096-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
21    (225 ILCS 70/17)  (from Ch. 111, par. 3667)
22    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
23    Sec. 17. Grounds for disciplinary action.
24    (a) The Department may impose fines not to exceed $10,000
25or may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend,

 

 

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1place on probation, censure, reprimand or take other
2disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to the
3license of any person, for any one or combination of the
4following causes:
5        (1) Intentional material misstatement in furnishing
6    information to the Department.
7        (2) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo
8    contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of
9    the United States or any state or territory thereof or a
10    misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty or
11    that is directly related to the practice of the profession
12    of nursing home administration.
13        (3) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
14    obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this
15    Act.
16        (4) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such
17    as sexual abuse or sexual misconduct, related to the
18    licensee's practice.
19        (5) Failing to respond within 30 days, to a written
20    request made by the Department for information.
21        (6) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
22    unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
23    defraud or harm the public.
24        (7) Habitual use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics,
25    stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which
26    results in the inability to practice with reasonable

 

 

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1    judgment, skill or safety.
2        (8) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction if at least
3    one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or
4    substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.
5        (9) A finding by the Department that the licensee,
6    after having his or her license placed on probationary
7    status has violated the terms of probation.
8        (10) Willfully making or filing false records or
9    reports in his or her practice, including but not limited
10    to false records filed with State agencies or departments.
11        (11) Physical illness, mental illness, or other
12    impairment or disability, including, but not limited to,
13    deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor
14    skill that results in the inability to practice the
15    profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
16        (12) Disregard or violation of this Act or of any rule
17    issued pursuant to this Act.
18        (13) Aiding or abetting another in the violation of
19    this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant to this
20    Act.
21        (14) Allowing one's license to be used by an unlicensed
22    person.
23        (15) (Blank).
24        (16) Professional incompetence in the practice of
25    nursing home administration.
26        (17) Conviction of a violation of Section 12-19 of the

 

 

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1    Criminal Code of 1961 for the abuse and gross neglect of a
2    long term care facility resident.
3        (18) Violation of the Nursing Home Care Act or the
4    ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act or of any rule issued under
5    the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care
6    Act. A final adjudication of a Type "AA" violation of the
7    Nursing Home Care Act made by the Illinois Department of
8    Public Health, as identified by rule, relating to the
9    hiring, training, planning, organizing, directing, or
10    supervising the operation of a nursing home and a
11    licensee's failure to comply with this Act or the rules
12    adopted under this Act, shall create a rebuttable
13    presumption of a violation of this subsection.
14        (19) Failure to report to the Department any adverse
15    final action taken against the licensee by a licensing
16    authority of another state, territory of the United States,
17    or foreign country; or by any governmental or law
18    enforcement agency; or by any court for acts or conduct
19    similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds
20    for disciplinary action under this Section.
21        (20) Failure to report to the Department the surrender
22    of a license or authorization to practice as a nursing home
23    administrator in another state or jurisdiction for acts or
24    conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute
25    grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.
26        (21) Failure to report to the Department any adverse

 

 

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1    judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability
2    claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct
3    that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action
4    under this Section.
5    All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary
6status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department
7may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the
8foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after
9receipt by the Department of (i) a complaint alleging the
10commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the
11acts described herein or (ii) a referral for investigation
12under Section 3-108 of the Nursing Home Care Act.
13    The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court
14establishing that any person holding a license under this Act
15is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a
16suspension of that license. That person may resume their
17practice only upon the entry of a Department order based upon a
18finding by the Board that they have been determined to be
19recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Board's
20recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.
21    The Department, upon the recommendation of the Board, may
22adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining
23what constitutes:
24        (i) when a person will be deemed sufficiently
25    rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;
26        (ii) dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct

 

 

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1    of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the
2    public;
3        (iii) immoral conduct in the commission of any act
4    related to the licensee's practice; and
5        (iv) professional incompetence in the practice of
6    nursing home administration.
7    However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in
8any civil action except for review of a licensing or other
9disciplinary action under this Act.
10    In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a
11showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual
12licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for
13licensure pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or
14physical examination, or both, as required by and at the
15expense of the Department. The examining physician or
16physicians shall be those specifically designated by the
17Department or Board. The Department or Board may order the
18examining physician to present testimony concerning this
19mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No
20information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
21statutory privilege relating to communications between the
22licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
23individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense,
24another physician of his or her choice present during all
25aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit
26to mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be

 

 

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1grounds for suspension of his or her license until such time as
2the individual submits to the examination if the Department
3finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to
4the examination was without reasonable cause.
5    If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to
6practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the
7Department or Board shall require such individual to submit to
8care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or
9designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or
10restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to
11practice; or in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the
12Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the
13Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke,
14or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. Any
15individual whose license was granted pursuant to this Act or
16continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised,
17subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall
18fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions
19shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to
20whether the licensee shall have his or her license suspended
21immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. In instances
22in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under
23this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be
24convened by the Board within 30 days after such suspension and
25completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board
26shall have the authority to review the subject administrator's

 

 

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1record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to
2the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and
3regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical
4records.
5    An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this
6Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the
7Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in
8compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the
9provisions of his or her license.
10    (b) Any individual or organization acting in good faith,
11and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this
12Act by providing any report or other information to the
13Department, or assisting in the investigation or preparation of
14such information, or by participating in proceedings of the
15Department, or by serving as a member of the Board, shall not,
16as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution
17or civil damages.
18    (c) Members of the Board, and persons retained under
19contract to assist and advise in an investigation, shall be
20indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the
21scope of services on or for the Board, done in good faith and
22not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall
23defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that
24there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or
25that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were
26wilful and wanton.

 

 

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1    Should the Attorney General decline representation, a
2person entitled to indemnification under this Section shall
3have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose
4fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the
5Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court
6that the member's actions were not in good faith or were wilful
7and wanton.
8    A person entitled to indemnification under this Section
9must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of
10notice of the initiation of any action involving services of
11the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall
12constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and
13indemnification.
14    The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after
15receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to
16represent a person entitled to indemnification under this
17Section.
18    (d) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
19subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as
20provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
21Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. Such
22suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the
23patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or
24judicial admission and issues an order so finding and
25discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the
26Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume

 

 

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1his or her practice.
2    (e) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the
3license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the
4tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any
5final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by
6any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until
7such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are
8satisfied.
9    (f) The Department of Public Health shall transmit to the
10Department a list of those facilities which receive an "A"
11violation as defined in Section 1-129 of the Nursing Home Care
12Act.
13(Source: P.A. 95-703, eff. 12-31-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
1496-1372, eff. 7-29-10.)
 
15    Section 82. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by
16changing Section 3 as follows:
 
17    (225 ILCS 85/3)
18    (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
19    Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except
20where otherwise limited therein:
21    (a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every
22store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where
23pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs,
24medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale

 

 

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1at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where
2prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice
3nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatrists, or
4optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are
5compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or
6displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with
7it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist",
8"Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore",
9"Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary",
10"Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import,
11either in the English language or any other language; or (4)
12where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar
13design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place
14with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or
15designs are used in any advertisement.
16    (b) "Drugs" means and includes (l) articles recognized in
17the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary
18(USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and
19having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
20treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as
21approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but
22does not include devices or their components, parts, or
23accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having
24for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment
25or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved
26by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not

 

 

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1include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and
2(3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and
3intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of
4man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main
5use and intended for use as a component or any articles
6specified in clause (l), (2) or (3); but does not include
7devices or their components, parts or accessories.
8    (c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for
9human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and
10Drug Administration.
11    (d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and
12the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and
13implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing
14of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and
15device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the
16administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as
17follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use
18or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of
19age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing
20order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
21branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including
22how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set
23forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and
24appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy
25and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5) drug
26regimen review; (6) drug or drug-related research; (7) the

 

 

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1provision of patient counseling; (8) the practice of
2telepharmacy; (9) the provision of those acts or services
3necessary to provide pharmacist care; (10) medication therapy
4management; and (11) the responsibility for compounding and
5labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a
6manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription
7drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices),
8proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance
9of required records. A pharmacist who performs any of the acts
10defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be
11actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.
12    (e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral,
13facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or
14medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice
15medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, or
16podiatrist, or optometrist, within the limits of their
17licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with
18subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice nurse
19in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the
20following: (l) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription
21was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the
22medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for
23use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA
24number where required, for controlled substances. The
25prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness,
26disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being

 

 

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1prescribed. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug
2orders.
3    (f) "Person" means and includes a natural person,
4copartnership, association, corporation, government entity, or
5any other legal entity.
6    (g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and
7Professional Regulation.
8    (h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of
9Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional
10Regulation.
11    (i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
12Professional Regulation.
13    (j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a
14prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section
1525 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and
16Cosmetic Act.
17    (k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an
18authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility
19licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD MR/DD
20Community Care Act, or the Hospital Licensing Act, or "An Act
21in relation to the founding and operation of the University of
22Illinois Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois
23health care programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a
24facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services
25(as successor to the Department of Mental Health and
26Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

 

 

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1    (k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care
2professional and provider currently licensed by this State to
3engage in the practice of pharmacy.
4    (l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist
5whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible
6for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of
7pharmacy.
8    (m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation,
9evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order,
10including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a
11patient or patient's agent in a suitable container
12appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use
13by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal
14laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean
15the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's
16representative in a home or institution by a designee of a
17pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing"
18also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical
19device to a patient or patient's representative by a
20pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the
21pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.
22    (n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located
23in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States,
24other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes,
25through the United States Postal Service, commercially
26acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to

 

 

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1Illinois residents, any substance which requires a
2prescription.
3    (o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of
4components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a
5prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the
6prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of
7professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident
8to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale
9or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs
10or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug
11orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing
12patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded
13for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the
14following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not
15reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a
16timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the
17prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be
18compounded.
19    (p) (Blank).
20    (q) (Blank).
21    (r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a
22pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a
23pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about
24the patient's medication or device for the purpose of
25optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices.
26"Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1)

 

 

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1obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's
2allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the
3patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication;
4(4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential
5adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7)
6the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A
7pharmacy technician may only participate in the following
8aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a
9pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing
10the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist;
11and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.
12    (s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record"
13means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient
14prescription information, including prescriptions for
15controlled substances, and personal information.
16    (t) (Blank).
17    (u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus,
18implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or
19other similar or related article, including any component part
20or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label
21"Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of
22a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the
23purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases
24medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to
25be a licensed pharmacy.
26    (v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature,

 

 

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1handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other
2acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as
3approved by the Department.
4    (w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the
5price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.
6    (x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system
7located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location
8that performs operations or activities, other than compounding
9or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing,
10or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls,
11and maintains all transaction information.
12    (y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation
13of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known
14allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;
15(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of
16administration, taking into consideration factors such as age,
17gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for
18use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6)
19drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8)
20drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication;
21(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;
22(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization)
23and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.
24    (z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any
25prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of
26the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed

 

 

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1prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission
2prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.
3    (aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a
4distinct service or group of services offered by licensed
5pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all
6its branches, advanced practice nurses authorized in a written
7agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all
8its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines
9by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes
10for individual patients through improved medication use. In a
11retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy
12management services shall consist of the evaluation of
13prescription drug orders and patient medication records to
14resolve conflicts with the following:
15        (1) known allergies;
16        (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;
17        (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of
18    administration, taking into consideration factors such as
19    age, gender, and contraindications;
20        (4) reasonable directions for use;
21        (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;
22        (6) drug-drug interactions;
23        (7) drug-food interactions;
24        (8) drug-disease contraindications;
25        (9) identification of therapeutic duplication;
26        (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and

 

 

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1    available;
2        (11) proper utilization (including over or under
3    utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and
4        (12) drug abuse and misuse.
5"Medication therapy management services" includes the
6following:
7        (1) documenting the services delivered and
8    communicating the information provided to patients'
9    prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed
10    48 hours;
11        (2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a
12    patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or
13    her medications; and
14        (3) providing information, support services, and
15    resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with
16    his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.
17"Medication therapy management services" may also include
18patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to
19practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified
20patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or
21limitations in a standing order from the physician.
22"Medication therapy management services" in a licensed
23hospital may also include the following:
24        (1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health
25    status; and
26        (2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and

 

 

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1    therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of
2    medication orders.
3    (bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist
4of medication therapy management services, with or without the
5dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes
6that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and
7enhance patient safety.
8    (cc) "Protected health information" means individually
9identifiable health information that, except as otherwise
10provided, is:
11        (1) transmitted by electronic media;
12        (2) maintained in any medium set forth in the
13    definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health
14    Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or
15        (3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or
16    medium.
17"Protected health information" does not include individually
18identifiable health information found in:
19        (1) education records covered by the federal Family
20    Educational Right and Privacy Act; or
21        (2) employment records held by a licensee in its role
22    as an employer.
23    (dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient
24or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice
25medicine in all its branches in Illinois.
26    (ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the

 

 

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1Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or
2license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure
3maintenance unit.
4    (ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's
5primary operations.
6(Source: P.A. 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
796-673, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1353, eff.
87-28-10.)
 
9    Section 83. The Nurse Agency Licensing Act is amended by
10changing Section 3 as follows:
 
11    (225 ILCS 510/3)  (from Ch. 111, par. 953)
12    Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:
13    (a) "Certified nurse aide" means an individual certified as
14defined in Section 3-206 of the Nursing Home Care Act or
15Section 3-206 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, as now or
16hereafter amended.
17    (b) "Department" means the Department of Labor.
18    (c) "Director" means the Director of Labor.
19    (d) "Health care facility" is defined as in Section 3 of
20the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act, as now or
21hereafter amended.
22    (e) "Licensee" means any nursing agency which is properly
23licensed under this Act.
24    (f) "Nurse" means a registered nurse or a licensed

 

 

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1practical nurse as defined in the Nurse Practice Act.
2    (g) "Nurse agency" means any individual, firm,
3corporation, partnership or other legal entity that employs,
4assigns or refers nurses or certified nurse aides to a health
5care facility for a fee. The term "nurse agency" includes
6nurses registries. The term "nurse agency" does not include
7services provided by home health agencies licensed and operated
8under the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency
9Licensing Act or a licensed or certified individual who
10provides his or her own services as a regular employee of a
11health care facility, nor does it apply to a health care
12facility's organizing nonsalaried employees to provide
13services only in that facility.
14(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
15    Section 85. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by
16changing Sections 5-1.1, 5-5.4, 5-5.7, 5-5.17, 5-6, 5-13, 5B-1,
175C-1, 5E-5, 8A-11, and 11-4.1 and by changing and renumbering
18Section 12-4.40 as added by Public Act 96-1405 as follows:
 
19    (305 ILCS 5/5-1.1)  (from Ch. 23, par. 5-1.1)
20    Sec. 5-1.1. Definitions. The terms defined in this Section
21shall have the meanings ascribed to them, except when the
22context otherwise requires.
23    (a) "Nursing facility" means a facility, licensed by the
24Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act,

 

 

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1that provides nursing facility services within the meaning of
2Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act.
3    (b) "Intermediate care facility for the developmentally
4disabled" or "ICF/DD" means a facility, licensed by the
5Department of Public Health under the ID/DD MR/DD Community
6Care Act, that is an intermediate care facility for the
7mentally retarded within the meaning of Title XIX of the
8federal Social Security Act.
9    (c) "Standard services" means those services required for
10the care of all patients in the facility and shall, as a
11minimum, include the following: (1) administration; (2)
12dietary (standard); (3) housekeeping; (4) laundry and linen;
13(5) maintenance of property and equipment, including
14utilities; (6) medical records; (7) training of employees; (8)
15utilization review; (9) activities services; (10) social
16services; (11) disability services; and all other similar
17services required by either the laws of the State of Illinois
18or one of its political subdivisions or municipalities or by
19Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
20    (d) "Patient services" means those which vary with the
21number of personnel; professional and para-professional skills
22of the personnel; specialized equipment, and reflect the
23intensity of the medical and psycho-social needs of the
24patients. Patient services shall as a minimum include: (1)
25physical services; (2) nursing services, including restorative
26nursing; (3) medical direction and patient care planning; (4)

 

 

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1health related supportive and habilitative services and all
2similar services required by either the laws of the State of
3Illinois or one of its political subdivisions or municipalities
4or by Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
5    (e) "Ancillary services" means those services which
6require a specific physician's order and defined as under the
7medical assistance program as not being routine in nature for
8skilled nursing facilities and ICF/DDs. Such services
9generally must be authorized prior to delivery and payment as
10provided for under the rules of the Department of Healthcare
11and Family Services.
12    (f) "Capital" means the investment in a facility's assets
13for both debt and non-debt funds. Non-debt capital is the
14difference between an adjusted replacement value of the assets
15and the actual amount of debt capital.
16    (g) "Profit" means the amount which shall accrue to a
17facility as a result of its revenues exceeding its expenses as
18determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting
19principles.
20    (h) "Non-institutional services" means those services
21provided under paragraph (f) of Section 3 of the Disabled
22Persons Rehabilitation Act and those services provided under
23Section 4.02 of the Illinois Act on the Aging.
24    (i) "Exceptional medical care" means the level of medical
25care required by persons who are medically stable for discharge
26from a hospital but who require acute intensity hospital level

 

 

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1care for physician, nurse and ancillary specialist services,
2including persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
3(AIDS) or a related condition. Such care shall consist of those
4services which the Department shall determine by rule.
5    (j) "Institutionalized person" means an individual who is
6an inpatient in an ICF/DD or nursing facility, or who is an
7inpatient in a medical institution receiving a level of care
8equivalent to that of an ICF/DD or nursing facility, or who is
9receiving services under Section 1915(c) of the Social Security
10Act.
11    (k) "Institutionalized spouse" means an institutionalized
12person who is expected to receive services at the same level of
13care for at least 30 days and is married to a spouse who is not
14an institutionalized person.
15    (l) "Community spouse" is the spouse of an
16institutionalized spouse.
17(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11.)
 
18    (305 ILCS 5/5-5.4)  (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.4)
19    Sec. 5-5.4. Standards of Payment - Department of Healthcare
20and Family Services. The Department of Healthcare and Family
21Services shall develop standards of payment of nursing facility
22and ICF/DD services in facilities providing such services under
23this Article which:
24    (1) Provide for the determination of a facility's payment
25for nursing facility or ICF/DD services on a prospective basis.

 

 

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1The amount of the payment rate for all nursing facilities
2certified by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD
3MR/DD Community Care Act or the Nursing Home Care Act as
4Intermediate Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities,
5Long Term Care for Under Age 22 facilities, Skilled Nursing
6facilities, or Intermediate Care facilities under the medical
7assistance program shall be prospectively established annually
8on the basis of historical, financial, and statistical data
9reflecting actual costs from prior years, which shall be
10applied to the current rate year and updated for inflation,
11except that the capital cost element for newly constructed
12facilities shall be based upon projected budgets. The annually
13established payment rate shall take effect on July 1 in 1984
14and subsequent years. No rate increase and no update for
15inflation shall be provided on or after July 1, 1994 and before
16July 1, 2012, unless specifically provided for in this Section.
17The changes made by Public Act 93-841 extending the duration of
18the prohibition against a rate increase or update for inflation
19are effective retroactive to July 1, 2004.
20    For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
21under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
22Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
23Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998
24shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the
25Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as
26Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities,

 

 

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1the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an
2increase of 3% plus $1.10 per resident-day, as defined by the
3Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public
4Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care
5Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care
6for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January
71, 2006 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities
8licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing
9Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the
10Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22
11facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2009 shall
12include an increase sufficient to provide a $0.50 per hour wage
13increase for non-executive staff.
14    For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
15under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
16Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
17Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999
18shall include an increase of 1.6% plus $3.00 per resident-day,
19as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the
20Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as
21Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities,
22the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an
23increase of 1.6% and, for services provided on or after October
241, 1999, shall be increased by $4.00 per resident-day, as
25defined by the Department.
26    For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health

 

 

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1under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
2Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
3Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000
4shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined
5by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of
6Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled
7Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates
8taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5%
9per resident-day, as defined by the Department.
10    For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
11under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities
12or intermediate care facilities, a new payment methodology must
13be implemented for the nursing component of the rate effective
14July 1, 2003. The Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and
15Family Services) shall develop the new payment methodology
16using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) as the instrument to collect
17information concerning nursing home resident condition
18necessary to compute the rate. The Department shall develop the
19new payment methodology to meet the unique needs of Illinois
20nursing home residents while remaining subject to the
21appropriations provided by the General Assembly. A transition
22period from the payment methodology in effect on June 30, 2003
23to the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 shall be
24provided for a period not exceeding 3 years and 184 days after
25implementation of the new payment methodology as follows:
26        (A) For a facility that would receive a lower nursing

 

 

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1    component rate per patient day under the new system than
2    the facility received effective on the date immediately
3    preceding the date that the Department implements the new
4    payment methodology, the nursing component rate per
5    patient day for the facility shall be held at the level in
6    effect on the date immediately preceding the date that the
7    Department implements the new payment methodology until a
8    higher nursing component rate of reimbursement is achieved
9    by that facility.
10        (B) For a facility that would receive a higher nursing
11    component rate per patient day under the payment
12    methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 than the facility
13    received effective on the date immediately preceding the
14    date that the Department implements the new payment
15    methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for
16    the facility shall be adjusted.
17        (C) Notwithstanding paragraphs (A) and (B), the
18    nursing component rate per patient day for the facility
19    shall be adjusted subject to appropriations provided by the
20    General Assembly.
21    For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
22under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
23Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
24Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on March 1, 2001
25shall include a statewide increase of 7.85%, as defined by the
26Department.

 

 

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1    Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
2facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
3the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
4intermediate care facilities, except facilities participating
5in the Department's demonstration program pursuant to the
6provisions of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois
7Administrative Code, the numerator of the ratio used by the
8Department of Healthcare and Family Services to compute the
9rate payable under this Section using the Minimum Data Set
10(MDS) methodology shall incorporate the following annual
11amounts as the additional funds appropriated to the Department
12specifically to pay for rates based on the MDS nursing
13component methodology in excess of the funding in effect on
14December 31, 2006:
15        (i) For rates taking effect January 1, 2007,
16    $60,000,000.
17        (ii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2008,
18    $110,000,000.
19        (iii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2009,
20    $194,000,000.
21        (iv) For rates taking effect April 1, 2011, or the
22    first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after
23    the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th
24    General Assembly, $416,500,000 or an amount as may be
25    necessary to complete the transition to the MDS methodology
26    for the nursing component of the rate.

 

 

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1    Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
2facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
3the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
4intermediate care facilities, the support component of the
5rates taking effect on January 1, 2008 shall be computed using
6the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of
7Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005,
8updated for inflation to January 1, 2006.
9    For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
10under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
11Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
12Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on April 1, 2002
13shall include a statewide increase of 2.0%, as defined by the
14Department. This increase terminates on July 1, 2002; beginning
15July 1, 2002 these rates are reduced to the level of the rates
16in effect on March 31, 2002, as defined by the Department.
17    For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
18under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities
19or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on
20July 1, 2001 shall be computed using the most recent cost
21reports on file with the Department of Public Aid no later than
22April 1, 2000, updated for inflation to January 1, 2001. For
23rates effective July 1, 2001 only, rates shall be the greater
24of the rate computed for July 1, 2001 or the rate effective on
25June 30, 2001.
26    Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for

 

 

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1facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
2the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
3intermediate care facilities, the Illinois Department shall
4determine by rule the rates taking effect on July 1, 2002,
5which shall be 5.9% less than the rates in effect on June 30,
62002.
7    Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
8facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
9the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
10intermediate care facilities, if the payment methodologies
11required under Section 5A-12 and the waiver granted under 42
12CFR 433.68 are approved by the United States Centers for
13Medicare and Medicaid Services, the rates taking effect on July
141, 2004 shall be 3.0% greater than the rates in effect on June
1530, 2004. These rates shall take effect only upon approval and
16implementation of the payment methodologies required under
17Section 5A-12.
18    Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for
19facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
20the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
21intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on
22January 1, 2005 shall be 3% more than the rates in effect on
23December 31, 2004.
24    Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
25facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
26the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or

 

 

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1intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2009, the
2per diem support component of the rates effective on January 1,
32008, computed using the most recent cost reports on file with
4the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than
5April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006, shall
6be increased to the amount that would have been derived using
7standard Department of Healthcare and Family Services methods,
8procedures, and inflators.
9    Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for
10facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
11the Nursing Home Care Act as intermediate care facilities that
12are federally defined as Institutions for Mental Disease, a
13socio-development component rate equal to 6.6% of the
14facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006 shall
15be established and paid effective July 1, 2006. The
16socio-development component of the rate shall be increased by a
17factor of 2.53 on the first day of the month that begins at
18least 45 days after January 11, 2008 (the effective date of
19Public Act 95-707). As of August 1, 2008, the socio-development
20component rate shall be equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing
21component rate as of January 1, 2006, multiplied by a factor of
223.53. For services provided on or after April 1, 2011, or the
23first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the
24effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General
25Assembly, whichever is later, the Illinois Department may by
26rule adjust these socio-development component rates, and may

 

 

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1use different adjustment methodologies for those facilities
2participating, and those not participating, in the Illinois
3Department's demonstration program pursuant to the provisions
4of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois Administrative
5Code, but in no case may such rates be diminished below those
6in effect on August 1, 2008.
7    For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
8under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
9Developmentally Disabled facilities or as long-term care
10facilities for residents under 22 years of age, the rates
11taking effect on July 1, 2003 shall include a statewide
12increase of 4%, as defined by the Department.
13    For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
14under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
15Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
16Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on the first day of
17the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date
18of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall
19include a statewide increase of 2.5%, as defined by the
20Department.
21    Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
22facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
23the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
24intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2005,
25facility rates shall be increased by the difference between (i)
26a facility's per diem property, liability, and malpractice

 

 

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1insurance costs as reported in the cost report filed with the
2Department of Public Aid and used to establish rates effective
3July 1, 2001 and (ii) those same costs as reported in the
4facility's 2002 cost report. These costs shall be passed
5through to the facility without caps or limitations, except for
6adjustments required under normal auditing procedures.
7    Rates established effective each July 1 shall govern
8payment for services rendered throughout that fiscal year,
9except that rates established on July 1, 1996 shall be
10increased by 6.8% for services provided on or after January 1,
111997. Such rates will be based upon the rates calculated for
12the year beginning July 1, 1990, and for subsequent years
13thereafter until June 30, 2001 shall be based on the facility
14cost reports for the facility fiscal year ending at any point
15in time during the previous calendar year, updated to the
16midpoint of the rate year. The cost report shall be on file
17with the Department no later than April 1 of the current rate
18year. Should the cost report not be on file by April 1, the
19Department shall base the rate on the latest cost report filed
20by each skilled care facility and intermediate care facility,
21updated to the midpoint of the current rate year. In
22determining rates for services rendered on and after July 1,
231985, fixed time shall not be computed at less than zero. The
24Department shall not make any alterations of regulations which
25would reduce any component of the Medicaid rate to a level
26below what that component would have been utilizing in the rate

 

 

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1effective on July 1, 1984.
2    (2) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by
3facilities in providing services for recipients of skilled
4nursing and intermediate care services under the medical
5assistance program.
6    (3) Shall take into account the medical and psycho-social
7characteristics and needs of the patients.
8    (4) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by
9facilities in meeting licensing and certification standards
10imposed and prescribed by the State of Illinois, any of its
11political subdivisions or municipalities and by the U.S.
12Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title XIX
13of the Social Security Act.
14    The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall
15develop precise standards for payments to reimburse nursing
16facilities for any utilization of appropriate rehabilitative
17personnel for the provision of rehabilitative services which is
18authorized by federal regulations, including reimbursement for
19services provided by qualified therapists or qualified
20assistants, and which is in accordance with accepted
21professional practices. Reimbursement also may be made for
22utilization of other supportive personnel under appropriate
23supervision.
24    The Department shall develop enhanced payments to offset
25the additional costs incurred by a facility serving exceptional
26need residents and shall allocate at least $8,000,000 of the

 

 

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1funds collected from the assessment established by Section 5B-2
2of this Code for such payments. For the purpose of this
3Section, "exceptional needs" means, but need not be limited to,
4ventilator care, tracheotomy care, bariatric care, complex
5wound care, and traumatic brain injury care.
6    (5) Beginning July 1, 2012 the methodologies for
7reimbursement of nursing facility services as provided under
8this Section 5-5.4 shall no longer be applicable for bills
9payable for State fiscal years 2012 and thereafter.
10(Source: P.A. 95-12, eff. 7-2-07; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-707,
11eff. 1-11-08; 95-744, eff. 7-18-08; 96-45, eff. 7-15-09;
1296-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-959, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10;
1396-1530, eff. 2-16-11.)
 
14    (305 ILCS 5/5-5.7)  (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.7)
15    Sec. 5-5.7. Cost Reports - Audits. The Department of
16Healthcare and Family Services shall work with the Department
17of Public Health to use cost report information currently being
18collected under provisions of the Nursing Home Care Act and the
19ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act. The Department of Healthcare
20and Family Services may, in conjunction with the Department of
21Public Health, develop in accordance with generally accepted
22accounting principles a uniform chart of accounts which each
23facility providing services under the medical assistance
24program shall adopt, after a reasonable period.
25    Nursing homes licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or

 

 

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1the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act and providers of adult
2developmental training services certified by the Department of
3Human Services pursuant to Section 15.2 of the Mental Health
4and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act which
5provide services to clients eligible for medical assistance
6under this Article are responsible for submitting the required
7annual cost report to the Department of Healthcare and Family
8Services.
9    The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall
10audit the financial and statistical records of each provider
11participating in the medical assistance program as a nursing
12facility or ICF/DD over a 3 year period, beginning with the
13close of the first cost reporting year. Following the end of
14this 3-year term, audits of the financial and statistical
15records will be performed each year in at least 20% of the
16facilities participating in the medical assistance program
17with at least 10% being selected on a random sample basis, and
18the remainder selected on the basis of exceptional profiles.
19All audits shall be conducted in accordance with generally
20accepted auditing standards.
21    The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall
22establish prospective payment rates for categories of service
23needed within the nursing facility or ICF/DD levels of
24services, in order to more appropriately recognize the
25individual needs of patients in nursing facilities.
26    The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall

 

 

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1provide, during the process of establishing the payment rate
2for nursing facility or ICF/DD services, or when a substantial
3change in rates is proposed, an opportunity for public review
4and comment on the proposed rates prior to their becoming
5effective.
6(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10;
796-1530, eff. 2-16-11.)
 
8    (305 ILCS 5/5-5.17)  (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.17)
9    Sec. 5-5.17. Separate reimbursement rate. The Illinois
10Department may by rule establish a separate reimbursement rate
11to be paid to long term care facilities for adult developmental
12training services as defined in Section 15.2 of the Mental
13Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act which
14are provided to intellectually disabled mentally retarded
15residents of such facilities who receive aid under this
16Article. Any such reimbursement shall be based upon cost
17reports submitted by the providers of such services and shall
18be paid by the long term care facility to the provider within
19such time as the Illinois Department shall prescribe by rule,
20but in no case less than 3 business days after receipt of the
21reimbursement by such facility from the Illinois Department.
22The Illinois Department may impose a penalty upon a facility
23which does not make payment to the provider of adult
24developmental training services within the time so prescribed,
25up to the amount of payment not made to the provider.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
2    (305 ILCS 5/5-6)  (from Ch. 23, par. 5-6)
3    Sec. 5-6. Obligations incurred prior to death of a
4recipient. Obligations incurred but not paid for at the time of
5a recipient's death for services authorized under Section 5-5,
6including medical and other care in group care facilities as
7defined in the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
8Community Care Act, or in like facilities not required to be
9licensed under that Act, may be paid, subject to the rules and
10regulations of the Illinois Department, after the death of the
11recipient.
12(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
13    (305 ILCS 5/5-13)  (from Ch. 23, par. 5-13)
14    Sec. 5-13. Claim against estate of recipients. To the
15extent permitted under the federal Social Security Act, the
16amount expended under this Article (1) for a person of any age
17who is an inpatient in a nursing facility, an intermediate care
18facility for the intellectually disabled mentally retarded, or
19other medical institution, or (2) for a person aged 55 or more,
20shall be a claim against the person's estate or a claim against
21the estate of the person's spouse, regardless of the order of
22death, but no recovery may be had thereon until after the death
23of the surviving spouse, if any, and then only at such time
24when there is no surviving child who is under age 21, or blind,

 

 

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1or permanently and totally disabled. This Section, however,
2shall not bar recovery at the death of the person of amounts of
3medical assistance paid to or in his behalf to which he was not
4entitled; provided that such recovery shall not be enforced
5against any real estate while it is occupied as a homestead by
6the surviving spouse or other dependent, if no claims by other
7creditors have been filed against the estate, or if such claims
8have been filed, they remain dormant for failure of prosecution
9or failure of the claimant to compel administration of the
10estate for the purpose of payment. The term "estate", as used
11in this Section, with respect to a deceased person, means all
12real and personal property and other assets included within the
13person's estate, as that term is used in the Probate Act of
141975; however, in the case of a deceased person who has
15received (or is entitled to receive) benefits under a long-term
16care insurance policy in connection with which assets or
17resources are disregarded to the extent that payments are made
18or because the deceased person received (or was entitled to
19receive) benefits under a long-term care insurance policy,
20"estate" also includes any other real and personal property and
21other assets in which the deceased person had any legal title
22or interest at the time of his or her death (to the extent of
23that interest), including assets conveyed to a survivor, heir,
24or assignee of the deceased person through joint tenancy,
25tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate, living trust, or
26other arrangement. The term "homestead", as used in this

 

 

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1Section, means the dwelling house and contiguous real estate
2occupied by a surviving spouse or relative, as defined by the
3rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, regardless of
4the value of the property.
5    A claim arising under this Section against assets conveyed
6to a survivor, heir, or assignee of the deceased person through
7joint tenancy, tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate,
8living trust, or other arrangement is not effective until the
9claim is recorded or filed in the manner provided for a notice
10of lien in Section 3-10.2. The claim is subject to the same
11requirements and conditions to which liens on real property
12interests are subject under Sections 3-10.1 through 3-10.10. A
13claim arising under this Section attaches to interests owned or
14subsequently acquired by the estate of a recipient or the
15estate of a recipient's surviving spouse. The transfer or
16conveyance of any real or personal property of the estate as
17defined in this Section shall be subject to the fraudulent
18transfer conditions that apply to real property in Section 3-11
19of this Code.
20    The provisions of this Section shall not affect the
21validity of claims against estates for medical assistance
22provided prior to January 1, 1966 to aged, blind, or disabled
23persons receiving aid under Articles V, VII and VII-A of the
241949 Code.
25(Source: P.A. 88-85; 88-554, eff. 7-26-94; 89-21, eff. 7-1-95;
2689-437, eff. 12-15-95; 89-686, eff. 12-31-96.)
 

 

 

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1    (305 ILCS 5/5B-1)  (from Ch. 23, par. 5B-1)
2    Sec. 5B-1. Definitions. As used in this Article, unless the
3context requires otherwise:
4    "Fund" means the Long-Term Care Provider Fund.
5    "Long-term care facility" means (i) a nursing facility,
6whether public or private and whether organized for profit or
7not-for-profit, that is subject to licensure by the Illinois
8Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act or
9the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, including a county nursing
10home directed and maintained under Section 5-1005 of the
11Counties Code, and (ii) a part of a hospital in which skilled
12or intermediate long-term care services within the meaning of
13Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act are provided;
14except that the term "long-term care facility" does not include
15a facility operated by a State agency, a facility participating
16in the Illinois Department's demonstration program pursuant to
17the provisions of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois
18Administrative Code, or operated solely as an intermediate care
19facility for the mentally retarded within the meaning of Title
20XIX of the Social Security Act.
21    "Long-term care provider" means (i) a person licensed by
22the Department of Public Health to operate and maintain a
23skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care facility or (ii)
24a hospital provider that provides skilled or intermediate
25long-term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or

 

 

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1XIX of the Social Security Act. For purposes of this paragraph,
2"person" means any political subdivision of the State,
3municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership,
4corporation, company, limited liability company, association,
5joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor,
6trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order
7of any court. "Hospital provider" means a person licensed by
8the Department of Public Health to conduct, operate, or
9maintain a hospital.
10    "Occupied bed days" shall be computed separately for each
11long-term care facility operated or maintained by a long-term
12care provider, and means the sum for all beds of the number of
13days during the month on which each bed was occupied by a
14resident, other than a resident for whom Medicare Part A is the
15primary payer.
16(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1530, eff. 2-16-11.)
 
17    (305 ILCS 5/5C-1)  (from Ch. 23, par. 5C-1)
18    Sec. 5C-1. Definitions. As used in this Article, unless the
19context requires otherwise:
20    "Fund" means the Developmentally Disabled Care Provider
21Fund.
22    "Developmentally disabled care facility" means an
23intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled
24mentally retarded within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social
25Security Act, whether public or private and whether organized

 

 

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1for profit or not-for-profit, but shall not include any
2facility operated by the State.
3    "Developmentally disabled care provider" means a person
4conducting, operating, or maintaining a developmentally
5disabled care facility. For this purpose, "person" means any
6political subdivision of the State, municipal corporation,
7individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, limited
8liability company, association, joint stock association, or
9trust, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other
10representative appointed by order of any court.
11    "Adjusted gross developmentally disabled care revenue"
12shall be computed separately for each developmentally disabled
13care facility conducted, operated, or maintained by a
14developmentally disabled care provider, and means the
15developmentally disabled care provider's total revenue for
16inpatient residential services less contractual allowances and
17discounts on patients' accounts, but does not include
18non-patient revenue from sources such as contributions,
19donations or bequests, investments, day training services,
20television and telephone service, and rental of facility space.
21(Source: P.A. 87-861.)
 
22    (305 ILCS 5/5E-5)
23    Sec. 5E-5. Definitions. As used in this Article, unless the
24context requires otherwise:
25    "Nursing home" means (i) a skilled nursing or intermediate

 

 

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1long-term care facility, whether public or private and whether
2organized for profit or not-for-profit, that is subject to
3licensure by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the
4Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act,
5including a county nursing home directed and maintained under
6Section 5-1005 of the Counties Code, and (ii) a part of a
7hospital in which skilled or intermediate long-term care
8services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social
9Security Act are provided; except that the term "nursing home"
10does not include a facility operated solely as an intermediate
11care facility for the intellectually disabled mentally
12retarded within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security
13Act.
14    "Nursing home provider" means (i) a person licensed by the
15Department of Public Health to operate and maintain a skilled
16nursing or intermediate long-term care facility which charges
17its residents, a third party payor, Medicaid, or Medicare for
18skilled nursing or intermediate long-term care services, or
19(ii) a hospital provider that provides skilled or intermediate
20long-term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or
21XIX of the Social Security Act. For purposes of this paragraph,
22"person" means any political subdivision of the State,
23municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership,
24corporation, company, limited liability company, association,
25joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor,
26trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order

 

 

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1of any court. "Hospital provider" means a person licensed by
2the Department of Public Health to conduct, operate, or
3maintain a hospital.
4    "Licensed bed days" shall be computed separately for each
5nursing home operated or maintained by a nursing home provider
6and means, with respect to a nursing home provider, the sum for
7all nursing home beds of the number of days during a calendar
8quarter on which each bed is covered by a license issued to
9that provider under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Hospital
10Licensing Act.
11(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
12    (305 ILCS 5/8A-11)  (from Ch. 23, par. 8A-11)
13    Sec. 8A-11. (a) No person shall:
14        (1) Knowingly charge a resident of a nursing home for
15    any services provided pursuant to Article V of the Illinois
16    Public Aid Code, money or other consideration at a rate in
17    excess of the rates established for covered services by the
18    Illinois Department pursuant to Article V of The Illinois
19    Public Aid Code; or
20        (2) Knowingly charge, solicit, accept or receive, in
21    addition to any amount otherwise authorized or required to
22    be paid pursuant to Article V of The Illinois Public Aid
23    Code, any gift, money, donation or other consideration:
24            (i) As a precondition to admitting or expediting
25        the admission of a recipient or applicant, pursuant to

 

 

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1        Article V of The Illinois Public Aid Code, to a
2        long-term care facility as defined in Section 1-113 of
3        the Nursing Home Care Act or a facility as defined in
4        Section 1-113 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act;
5        and
6            (ii) As a requirement for the recipient's or
7        applicant's continued stay in such facility when the
8        cost of the services provided therein to the recipient
9        is paid for, in whole or in part, pursuant to Article V
10        of The Illinois Public Aid Code.
11    (b) Nothing herein shall prohibit a person from making a
12voluntary contribution, gift or donation to a long-term care
13facility.
14    (c) This paragraph shall not apply to agreements to provide
15continuing care or life care between a life care facility as
16defined by the Life Care Facilities Act, and a person
17financially eligible for benefits pursuant to Article V of The
18Illinois Public Aid Code.
19    (d) Any person who violates this Section shall be guilty of
20a business offense and fined not less than $5,000 nor more than
21$25,000.
22    (e) "Person", as used in this Section, means an individual,
23corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association.
24    (f) The State's Attorney of the county in which the
25facility is located and the Attorney General shall be notified
26by the Illinois Department of any alleged violations of this

 

 

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1Section known to the Department.
2    (g) The Illinois Department shall adopt rules and
3regulations to carry out the provisions of this Section.
4(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
5    (305 ILCS 5/11-4.1)
6    Sec. 11-4.1. Medical providers assisting with applications
7for medical assistance. A provider enrolled to provide medical
8assistance services may, upon the request of an individual,
9accompany, represent, and assist the individual in applying for
10medical assistance under Article V of this Code. If an
11individual is unable to request such assistance due to
12incapacity or mental incompetence and has no other
13representative willing or able to assist in the application
14process, a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or
15the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act or certified under this Code
16is authorized to assist the individual in applying for
17long-term care services. Subject to the provisions of the Free
18Healthcare Benefits Application Assistance Act, nothing in
19this Section shall be construed as prohibiting any individual
20or entity from assisting another individual in applying for
21medical assistance under Article V of this Code.
22(Source: P.A. 96-1439, eff. 8-20-10.)
 
23    (305 ILCS 5/12-4.42)
24    Sec. 12-4.42 12-4.40. Medicaid Revenue Maximization.

 

 

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1    (a) Purpose. The General Assembly finds that there is a
2need to make changes to the administration of services provided
3by State and local governments in order to maximize federal
4financial participation.
5    (b) Definitions. As used in this Section:
6    "Community Medicaid mental health services" means all
7mental health services outlined in Section 132 of Title 59 of
8the Illinois Administrative Code that are funded through DHS,
9eligible for federal financial participation, and provided by a
10community-based provider.
11    "Community-based provider" means an entity enrolled as a
12provider pursuant to Sections 140.11 and 140.12 of Title 89 of
13the Illinois Administrative Code and certified to provide
14community Medicaid mental health services in accordance with
15Section 132 of Title 59 of the Illinois Administrative Code.
16    "DCFS" means the Department of Children and Family
17Services.
18    "Department" means the Illinois Department of Healthcare
19and Family Services.
20    "Developmentally disabled care facility" means an
21intermediate care facility for the intellectually disabled
22mentally retarded within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social
23Security Act, whether public or private and whether organized
24for profit or not-for-profit, but shall not include any
25facility operated by the State.
26    "Developmentally disabled care provider" means a person

 

 

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1conducting, operating, or maintaining a developmentally
2disabled care facility. For purposes of this definition,
3"person" means any political subdivision of the State,
4municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership,
5corporation, company, limited liability company, association,
6joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor,
7trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order
8of any court.
9    "DHS" means the Illinois Department of Human Services.
10    "Hospital" means an institution, place, building, or
11agency located in this State that is licensed as a general
12acute hospital by the Illinois Department of Public Health
13under the Hospital Licensing Act, whether public or private and
14whether organized for profit or not-for-profit.
15    "Long term care facility" means (i) a skilled nursing or
16intermediate long term care facility, whether public or private
17and whether organized for profit or not-for-profit, that is
18subject to licensure by the Illinois Department of Public
19Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, including a county
20nursing home directed and maintained under Section 5-1005 of
21the Counties Code, and (ii) a part of a hospital in which
22skilled or intermediate long term care services within the
23meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act are
24provided; except that the term "long term care facility" does
25not include a facility operated solely as an intermediate care
26facility for the intellectually disabled mentally retarded

 

 

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1within the meaning of Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
2    "Long term care provider" means (i) a person licensed by
3the Department of Public Health to operate and maintain a
4skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility or (ii)
5a hospital provider that provides skilled or intermediate long
6term care services within the meaning of Title XVIII or XIX of
7the Social Security Act. For purposes of this definition,
8"person" means any political subdivision of the State,
9municipal corporation, individual, firm, partnership,
10corporation, company, limited liability company, association,
11joint stock association, or trust, or a receiver, executor,
12trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order
13of any court.
14    "State-operated developmentally disabled care facility"
15means an intermediate care facility for the intellectually
16disabled mentally retarded within the meaning of Title XIX of
17the Social Security Act operated by the State.
18    (c) Administration and deposit of Revenues. The Department
19shall coordinate the implementation of changes required by this
20amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly amongst the various
21State and local government bodies that administer programs
22referred to in this Section.
23    Revenues generated by program changes mandated by any
24provision in this Section, less reasonable administrative
25costs associated with the implementation of these program
26changes, shall be deposited into the Healthcare Provider Relief

 

 

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1Fund.
2    The Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly
3detailing the implementation progress of this amendatory Act of
4the 96th General Assembly as a part of the Department's Medical
5Programs annual report for fiscal years 2010 and 2011.
6    (d) Acceleration of payment vouchers. To the extent
7practicable and permissible under federal law, the Department
8shall create all vouchers for long term care facilities and
9developmentally disabled care facilities for dates of service
10in the month in which the enhanced federal medical assistance
11percentage (FMAP) originally set forth in the American Recovery
12and Reinvestment Act (ARRA) expires and for dates of service in
13the month prior to that month and shall, no later than the 15th
14of the month in which the enhanced FMAP expires, submit these
15vouchers to the Comptroller for payment.
16    The Department of Human Services shall create the necessary
17documentation for State-operated developmentally disabled care
18facilities so that the necessary data for all dates of service
19before the expiration of the enhanced FMAP originally set forth
20in the ARRA can be adjudicated by the Department no later than
21the 15th of the month in which the enhanced FMAP expires.
22    (e) Billing of DHS community Medicaid mental health
23services. No later than July 1, 2011, community Medicaid mental
24health services provided by a community-based provider must be
25billed directly to the Department.
26    (f) DCFS Medicaid services. The Department shall work with

 

 

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1DCFS to identify existing programs, pending qualifying
2services, that can be converted in an economically feasible
3manner to Medicaid in order to secure federal financial
4revenue.
5    (g) Third Party Liability recoveries. The Department shall
6contract with a vendor to support the Department in
7coordinating benefits for Medicaid enrollees. The scope of work
8shall include, at a minimum, the identification of other
9insurance for Medicaid enrollees and the recovery of funds paid
10by the Department when another payer was liable. The vendor may
11be paid a percentage of actual cash recovered when practical
12and subject to federal law.
13    (h) Public health departments. The Department shall
14identify unreimbursed costs for persons covered by Medicaid who
15are served by the Chicago Department of Public Health.
16    The Department shall assist the Chicago Department of
17Public Health in determining total unreimbursed costs
18associated with the provision of healthcare services to
19Medicaid enrollees.
20    The Department shall determine and draw the maximum
21allowable federal matching dollars associated with the cost of
22Chicago Department of Public Health services provided to
23Medicaid enrollees.
24    (i) Acceleration of hospital-based payments. The
25Department shall, by the 10th day of the month in which the
26enhanced FMAP originally set forth in the ARRA expires, create

 

 

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1vouchers for all State fiscal year 2011 hospital payments
2exempt from the prompt payment requirements of the ARRA. The
3Department shall submit these vouchers to the Comptroller for
4payment.
5(Source: P.A. 96-1405, eff. 7-29-10; revised 9-9-10.)
 
6    Section 90. The Medicaid Revenue Act is amended by changing
7Section 1-2 as follows:
 
8    (305 ILCS 35/1-2)  (from Ch. 23, par. 7051-2)
9    Sec. 1-2. Legislative finding and declaration. The General
10Assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares:
11        (1) It is in the public interest and it is the public
12    policy of this State to provide for and improve the basic
13    medical care and long-term health care services of its
14    indigent, most vulnerable citizens.
15        (2) Preservation of health, alleviation of sickness,
16    and correction of handicapping conditions for persons
17    requiring maintenance support are essential if those
18    persons are to have an opportunity to become
19    self-supporting or to attain a greater capacity for
20    self-care.
21        (3) For persons who are medically indigent but
22    otherwise able to provide themselves a livelihood, it is of
23    special importance to maintain their incentives for
24    continued independence and preserve their limited

 

 

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1    resources for ordinary maintenance needed to prevent their
2    total or substantial dependence on public support.
3        (4) The State has historically provided for care and
4    services, in conjunction with the federal government,
5    through the establishment and funding of a medical
6    assistance program administered by the Department of
7    Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of
8    Public Aid) and approved by the Secretary of Health and
9    Human Services under Title XIX of the federal Social
10    Security Act, that program being commonly referred to as
11    "Medicaid".
12        (5) The Medicaid program is a funding partnership
13    between the State of Illinois and the federal government,
14    with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services being
15    designated as the single State agency responsible for the
16    administration of the program, but with the State
17    historically receiving 50% of the amounts expended as
18    medical assistance under the Medicaid program from the
19    federal government.
20        (6) To raise a portion of Illinois' share of the
21    Medicaid funds after July 1, 1991, the General Assembly
22    enacted Public Act 87-13 to provide for the collection of
23    provider participation fees from designated health care
24    providers receiving Medicaid payments.
25        (7) On September 12, 1991, the Secretary of Health and
26    Human Services proposed regulations that could have

 

 

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1    reduced the federal matching of Medicaid expenditures
2    incurred on or after January 1, 1992 by the portion of the
3    expenditures paid from funds raised through the provider
4    participation fees.
5        (8) To prevent the Secretary from enacting those
6    regulations but at the same time to impose certain
7    statutory limitations on the means by which states may
8    raise Medicaid funds eligible for federal matching,
9    Congress enacted the Medicaid Voluntary Contribution and
10    Provider-Specific Tax Amendments of 1991, Public Law
11    102-234.
12        (9) Public Law 102-234 provides for a state's share of
13    Medicaid funding eligible for federal matching to be raised
14    through "broad-based health care related taxes", meaning,
15    generally, a tax imposed with respect to a class of health
16    care items or services (or providers thereof) specified
17    therein, which (i) is imposed on all items or services or
18    providers in the class in the state, except federal or
19    public providers, and (ii) is imposed uniformly on all
20    providers in the class at the same rate with respect to the
21    same base.
22        (10) The separate classes of health care items and
23    services established by P.L. 102-234 include inpatient and
24    outpatient hospital services, nursing facility services,
25    and services of intermediate care facilities for the
26    intellectually disabled mentally retarded.

 

 

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1        (11) The provider participation fees imposed under
2    P.A. 87-13 may not meet the standards under P.L. 102-234.
3        (12) The resulting hospital Medicaid reimbursement
4    reductions may force the closure of some hospitals now
5    serving a disproportionately high number of the needy, who
6    would then have to be cared for by remaining hospitals at
7    substantial cost to those remaining hospitals.
8        (13) The hospitals in the State are all part of and
9    benefit from a hospital system linked together in a number
10    of ways, including common licensing and regulation, health
11    care standards, education, research and disease control
12    reporting, patient transfers for specialist care, and
13    organ donor networks.
14        (14) Each hospital's patient population demographics,
15    including the proportion of patients whose care is paid by
16    Medicaid, is subject to change over time.
17        (15) Hospitals in the State have a special interest in
18    the payment of adequate reimbursement levels for hospital
19    care by Medicaid.
20        (16) Most hospitals are exempt from payment of most
21    federal, State, and local income, sales, property, and
22    other taxes.
23        (17) The hospital assessment enacted by this Act under
24    the guidelines of P.L. 102-234 is the most efficient means
25    of raising the federally matchable funds needed for
26    hospital care reimbursement.

 

 

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1        (18) Cook County Hospital and Oak Forest Hospital are
2    public hospitals owned and operated by Cook County with
3    unique fiscal problems, including a patient population
4    that is primarily Medicaid or altogether nonpaying, that
5    make an intergovernmental transfer payment arrangement a
6    more appropriate means of financing than the regular
7    hospital assessment and reimbursement provisions.
8        (19) Sole community hospitals provide access to
9    essential care that would otherwise not be reasonably
10    available in the community they serve, such that imposition
11    of assessments on them in their precarious financial
12    circumstances may force their closure and have the effect
13    of reducing access to health care.
14        (20) Each nursing home's resident population
15    demographics, including the proportion of residents whose
16    care is paid by Medicaid, is subject to change over time in
17    that, among other things, residents currently able to pay
18    the cost of nursing home care may become dependent on
19    Medicaid support for continued care and services as
20    resources are depleted.
21        (21) As the citizens of the State age, increased
22    pressures will be placed on limited facilities to provide
23    reasonable levels of care for a greater number of geriatric
24    residents, and all involved in the nursing home industry,
25    providers and residents, have a special interest in the
26    maintenance of adequate Medicaid support for all nursing

 

 

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1    facilities.
2        (22) The assessments on nursing homes enacted by this
3    Act under the guidelines of P.L. 102-234 are the most
4    efficient means of raising the federally matchable funds
5    needed for nursing home care reimbursement.
6        (23) All intermediate care facilities for persons with
7    developmental disabilities receive a high degree of
8    Medicaid support and benefits and therefore have a special
9    interest in the maintenance of adequate Medicaid support.
10        (24) The assessments on intermediate care facilities
11    for persons with developmental disabilities enacted by
12    this Act under the guidelines of P.L. 102-234 are the most
13    efficient means of raising the federally matchable funds
14    needed for reimbursement of providers of intermediate care
15    for persons with developmental disabilities.
16(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)
 
17    Section 91. The Nursing Home Grant Assistance Act is
18amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
 
19    (305 ILCS 40/5)  (from Ch. 23, par. 7100-5)
20    Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
21context requires otherwise:
22    "Applicant" means an eligible individual who makes a
23payment of at least $1 in a quarter to a nursing home.
24    "Application" means the receipt by a nursing home of at

 

 

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1least $1 from an eligible individual that is a resident of the
2home.
3    "Department" means the Department of Revenue.
4    "Director" means the Director of the Department of Revenue.
5    "Distribution agent" means a nursing home that is residence
6to one or more eligible individuals, which receives an
7application from one or more applicants for participation in
8the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Program provided for by this
9Act, and is thereby designated as distributing agent by such
10applicant or applicants, and which is thereby authorized by
11virtue of its license to receive from the Department and
12distribute to eligible individuals residing in the nursing home
13Nursing Home Grant Assistance payments under this Act.
14    "Qualified distribution agent" means a distribution agent
15that the Department of Public Health has certified to the
16Department of Revenue to be a licensed nursing home in good
17standing.
18    "Eligible individual" means an individual eligible for a
19nursing home grant assistance payment because he or she meets
20each of the following requirements:
21        (1) The individual resides, after June 30, 1992, in a
22    nursing home as defined in this Act.
23        (2) For each day for which nursing home grant
24    assistance is sought, the individual's nursing home care
25    was not paid for, in whole or in part, by a federal, State,
26    or combined federal-State medical care program; the

 

 

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1    receipt of Medicare Part B benefits does not make a person
2    ineligible for nursing home grant assistance.
3        (3) The individual's annual adjusted gross income,
4    after payment of any expenses for nursing home care, does
5    not exceed 250% of the federal poverty guidelines for an
6    individual as published annually by the U.S. Department of
7    Health and Human Services for purposes of determining
8    Medicaid eligibility.
9    "Fund" means the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Fund.
10    "Nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long
11term care facility that is subject to licensure by the Illinois
12Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act or
13the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
14    "Occupied bed days" means the sum for all beds of the
15number of days during a quarter for which grant assistance is
16sought under this Act on which a bed is occupied by an
17individual.
18(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
19    Section 92. The Elder Abuse and Neglect Act is amended by
20changing Section 2 as follows:
 
21    (320 ILCS 20/2)  (from Ch. 23, par. 6602)
22    Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
23context requires otherwise:
24    (a) "Abuse" means causing any physical, mental or sexual

 

 

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1injury to an eligible adult, including exploitation of such
2adult's financial resources.
3    Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an
4eligible adult is a victim of abuse, neglect, or self-neglect
5for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or
6relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone,
7in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized
8church or religious denomination.
9    Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an
10eligible adult is a victim of abuse because of health care
11services provided or not provided by licensed health care
12professionals.
13    (a-5) "Abuser" means a person who abuses, neglects, or
14financially exploits an eligible adult.
15    (a-7) "Caregiver" means a person who either as a result of
16a family relationship, voluntarily, or in exchange for
17compensation has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of
18the care of an eligible adult who needs assistance with
19activities of daily living.
20    (b) "Department" means the Department on Aging of the State
21of Illinois.
22    (c) "Director" means the Director of the Department.
23    (d) "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the
24eligible adult lives alone or with his or her family or a
25caregiver, or others, or a board and care home or other
26community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:

 

 

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1        (1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of
2    the Nursing Home Care Act;
3        (1.5) A facility licensed under the ID/DD MR/DD
4    Community Care Act;
5        (2) A "life care facility" as defined in the Life Care
6    Facilities Act;
7        (3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the
8    federal government or agency thereof or by the State of
9    Illinois;
10        (4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the
11    principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis,
12    care, and treatment of human illness through the
13    maintenance and operation of organized facilities
14    therefor, which is required to be licensed under the
15    Hospital Licensing Act;
16        (5) A "community living facility" as defined in the
17    Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;
18        (6) (Blank);
19        (7) A "community-integrated living arrangement" as
20    defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements
21    Licensure and Certification Act;
22        (8) An assisted living or shared housing establishment
23    as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;
24    or
25        (9) A supportive living facility as described in
26    Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

 

 

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1    (e) "Eligible adult" means a person 60 years of age or
2older who resides in a domestic living situation and is, or is
3alleged to be, abused, neglected, or financially exploited by
4another individual or who neglects himself or herself.
5    (f) "Emergency" means a situation in which an eligible
6adult is living in conditions presenting a risk of death or
7physical, mental or sexual injury and the provider agency has
8reason to believe the eligible adult is unable to consent to
9services which would alleviate that risk.
10    (f-5) "Mandated reporter" means any of the following
11persons while engaged in carrying out their professional
12duties:
13        (1) a professional or professional's delegate while
14    engaged in: (i) social services, (ii) law enforcement,
15    (iii) education, (iv) the care of an eligible adult or
16    eligible adults, or (v) any of the occupations required to
17    be licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act,
18    the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the
19    Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Dietetic and Nutrition
20    Services Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy
21    Licensing Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the
22    Naprapathic Practice Act, the Nurse Practice Act, the
23    Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary
24    Act, the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the
25    Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Pharmacy
26    Practice Act, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the

 

 

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1    Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Podiatric
2    Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice
3    Act, the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional
4    Counselor Licensing Act, the Illinois Speech-Language
5    Pathology and Audiology Practice Act, the Veterinary
6    Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, and the Illinois
7    Public Accounting Act;
8        (2) an employee of a vocational rehabilitation
9    facility prescribed or supervised by the Department of
10    Human Services;
11        (3) an administrator, employee, or person providing
12    services in or through an unlicensed community based
13    facility;
14        (4) any religious practitioner who provides treatment
15    by prayer or spiritual means alone in accordance with the
16    tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious
17    denomination, except as to information received in any
18    confession or sacred communication enjoined by the
19    discipline of the religious denomination to be held
20    confidential;
21        (5) field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and
22    Family Services, Department of Public Health, and
23    Department of Human Services, and any county or municipal
24    health department;
25        (6) personnel of the Department of Human Services, the
26    Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the State Fire

 

 

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1    Marshal, local fire departments, the Department on Aging
2    and its subsidiary Area Agencies on Aging and provider
3    agencies, and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman;
4        (7) any employee of the State of Illinois not otherwise
5    specified herein who is involved in providing services to
6    eligible adults, including professionals providing medical
7    or rehabilitation services and all other persons having
8    direct contact with eligible adults;
9        (8) a person who performs the duties of a coroner or
10    medical examiner; or
11        (9) a person who performs the duties of a paramedic or
12    an emergency medical technician.
13    (g) "Neglect" means another individual's failure to
14provide an eligible adult with or willful withholding from an
15eligible adult the necessities of life including, but not
16limited to, food, clothing, shelter or health care. This
17subsection does not create any new affirmative duty to provide
18support to eligible adults. Nothing in this Act shall be
19construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of neglect
20because of health care services provided or not provided by
21licensed health care professionals.
22    (h) "Provider agency" means any public or nonprofit agency
23in a planning and service area appointed by the regional
24administrative agency with prior approval by the Department on
25Aging to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected
26abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

 

 

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1    (i) "Regional administrative agency" means any public or
2nonprofit agency in a planning and service area so designated
3by the Department, provided that the designated Area Agency on
4Aging shall be designated the regional administrative agency if
5it so requests. The Department shall assume the functions of
6the regional administrative agency for any planning and service
7area where another agency is not so designated.
8    (i-5) "Self-neglect" means a condition that is the result
9of an eligible adult's inability, due to physical or mental
10impairments, or both, or a diminished capacity, to perform
11essential self-care tasks that substantially threaten his or
12her own health, including: providing essential food, clothing,
13shelter, and health care; and obtaining goods and services
14necessary to maintain physical health, mental health,
15emotional well-being, and general safety. The term includes
16compulsive hoarding, which is characterized by the acquisition
17and retention of large quantities of items and materials that
18produce an extensively cluttered living space, which
19significantly impairs the performance of essential self-care
20tasks or otherwise substantially threatens life or safety.
21    (j) "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged
22or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or
23self-neglect in which a provider agency, after assessment,
24determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or
25financial exploitation has occurred.
26(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07;

 

 

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195-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-526, eff. 1-1-10;
296-572, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
3    Section 93. The Older Adult Services Act is amended by
4changing Section 10 as follows:
 
5    (320 ILCS 42/10)
6    Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
7    "Advisory Committee" means the Older Adult Services
8Advisory Committee.
9    "Certified nursing home" means any nursing home licensed
10under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community
11Care Act and certified under Title XIX of the Social Security
12Act to participate as a vendor in the medical assistance
13program under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code.
14    "Comprehensive case management" means the assessment of
15needs and preferences of an older adult at the direction of the
16older adult or the older adult's designated representative and
17the arrangement, coordination, and monitoring of an optimum
18package of services to meet the needs of the older adult.
19    "Consumer-directed" means decisions made by an informed
20older adult from available services and care options, which may
21range from independently making all decisions and managing
22services directly to limited participation in decision-making,
23based upon the functional and cognitive level of the older
24adult.

 

 

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1    "Coordinated point of entry" means an integrated access
2point where consumers receive information and assistance,
3assessment of needs, care planning, referral, assistance in
4completing applications, authorization of services where
5permitted, and follow-up to ensure that referrals and services
6are accessed.
7    "Department" means the Department on Aging, in
8collaboration with the departments of Public Health and
9Healthcare and Family Services and other relevant agencies and
10in consultation with the Advisory Committee, except as
11otherwise provided.
12    "Departments" means the Department on Aging, the
13departments of Public Health and Healthcare and Family
14Services, and other relevant agencies in collaboration with
15each other and in consultation with the Advisory Committee,
16except as otherwise provided.
17    "Family caregiver" means an adult family member or another
18individual who is an uncompensated provider of home-based or
19community-based care to an older adult.
20    "Health services" means activities that promote, maintain,
21improve, or restore mental or physical health or that are
22palliative in nature.
23    "Older adult" means a person age 60 or older and, if
24appropriate, the person's family caregiver.
25    "Person-centered" means a process that builds upon an older
26adult's strengths and capacities to engage in activities that

 

 

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1promote community life and that reflect the older adult's
2preferences, choices, and abilities, to the extent
3practicable.
4    "Priority service area" means an area identified by the
5Departments as being less-served with respect to the
6availability of and access to older adult services in Illinois.
7The Departments shall determine by rule the criteria and
8standards used to designate such areas.
9    "Priority service plan" means the plan developed pursuant
10to Section 25 of this Act.
11    "Provider" means any supplier of services under this Act.
12    "Residential setting" means the place where an older adult
13lives.
14    "Restructuring" means the transformation of Illinois'
15comprehensive system of older adult services from funding
16primarily a facility-based service delivery system to
17primarily a home-based and community-based system, taking into
18account the continuing need for 24-hour skilled nursing care
19and congregate housing with services.
20    "Services" means the range of housing, health, financial,
21and supportive services, other than acute health care services,
22that are delivered to an older adult with functional or
23cognitive limitations, or socialization needs, who requires
24assistance to perform activities of daily living, regardless of
25the residential setting in which the services are delivered.
26    "Supportive services" means non-medical assistance given

 

 

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1over a period of time to an older adult that is needed to
2compensate for the older adult's functional or cognitive
3limitations, or socialization needs, or those services
4designed to restore, improve, or maintain the older adult's
5functional or cognitive abilities.
6(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
7    Section 94. The Mental Health and Developmental
8Disabilities Code is amended by changing Sections 1-106, 1-116,
91-122.4, 2-107, 3-200, 4-201, 4-201.1, 4-203, 4-209, 4-400,
104-500, and 4-701 and by changing the headings of Article IV of
11Chapter IV and Article IV of Chapter V as follows:
 
12    (405 ILCS 5/1-106)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-106)
13    Sec. 1-106. "Developmental disability" means a disability
14which is attributable to: (a) an intellectual disability mental
15retardation, cerebral palsy, epilepsy or autism; or to (b) any
16other condition which results in impairment similar to that
17caused by an intellectual disability mental retardation and
18which requires services similar to those required by
19intellectually disabled mentally retarded persons. Such
20disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be
21expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a
22substantial handicap.
23(Source: P.A. 80-1414.)
 

 

 

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1    (405 ILCS 5/1-116)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-116)
2    Sec. 1-116. "Intellectual disability" "Mental retardation"
3means significantly subaverage general intellectual
4functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in
5adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18
6years.
7(Source: P.A. 80-1414.)
 
8    (405 ILCS 5/1-122.4)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1-122.4)
9    Sec. 1-122.4. "Qualified intellectual disabilities mental
10retardation professional" as used in this Act means those
11persons who meet this definition under Section 483.430 of
12Chapter 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations, subpart G.
13(Source: P.A. 86-1416.)
 
14    (405 ILCS 5/2-107)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 2-107)
15    Sec. 2-107. Refusal of services; informing of risks.
16    (a) An adult recipient of services or the recipient's
17guardian, if the recipient is under guardianship, and the
18recipient's substitute decision maker, if any, must be informed
19of the recipient's right to refuse medication or
20electroconvulsive therapy. The recipient and the recipient's
21guardian or substitute decision maker shall be given the
22opportunity to refuse generally accepted mental health or
23developmental disability services, including but not limited
24to medication or electroconvulsive therapy. If such services

 

 

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1are refused, they shall not be given unless such services are
2necessary to prevent the recipient from causing serious and
3imminent physical harm to the recipient or others and no less
4restrictive alternative is available. The facility director
5shall inform a recipient, guardian, or substitute decision
6maker, if any, who refuses such services of alternate services
7available and the risks of such alternate services, as well as
8the possible consequences to the recipient of refusal of such
9services.
10    (b) Psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy
11may be administered under this Section for up to 24 hours only
12if the circumstances leading up to the need for emergency
13treatment are set forth in writing in the recipient's record.
14    (c) Administration of medication or electroconvulsive
15therapy may not be continued unless the need for such treatment
16is redetermined at least every 24 hours based upon a personal
17examination of the recipient by a physician or a nurse under
18the supervision of a physician and the circumstances
19demonstrating that need are set forth in writing in the
20recipient's record.
21    (d) Neither psychotropic medication nor electroconvulsive
22therapy may be administered under this Section for a period in
23excess of 72 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays,
24unless a petition is filed under Section 2-107.1 and the
25treatment continues to be necessary under subsection (a) of
26this Section. Once the petition has been filed, treatment may

 

 

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1continue in compliance with subsections (a), (b), and (c) of
2this Section until the final outcome of the hearing on the
3petition.
4    (e) The Department shall issue rules designed to insure
5that in State-operated mental health facilities psychotropic
6medication and electroconvulsive therapy are administered in
7accordance with this Section and only when appropriately
8authorized and monitored by a physician or a nurse under the
9supervision of a physician in accordance with accepted medical
10practice. The facility director of each mental health facility
11not operated by the State shall issue rules designed to insure
12that in that facility psychotropic medication and
13electroconvulsive therapy are administered in accordance with
14this Section and only when appropriately authorized and
15monitored by a physician or a nurse under the supervision of a
16physician in accordance with accepted medical practice. Such
17rules shall be available for public inspection and copying
18during normal business hours.
19    (f) The provisions of this Section with respect to the
20emergency administration of psychotropic medication and
21electroconvulsive therapy do not apply to facilities licensed
22under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community
23Care Act.
24    (g) Under no circumstances may long-acting psychotropic
25medications be administered under this Section.
26    (h) Whenever psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive

 

 

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1therapy is refused pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section
2at least once that day, the physician shall determine and state
3in writing the reasons why the recipient did not meet the
4criteria for administration of medication or electroconvulsive
5therapy under subsection (a) and whether the recipient meets
6the standard for administration of psychotropic medication or
7electroconvulsive therapy under Section 2-107.1 of this Code.
8If the physician determines that the recipient meets the
9standard for administration of psychotropic medication or
10electroconvulsive therapy under Section 2-107.1, the facility
11director or his or her designee shall petition the court for
12administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive
13therapy pursuant to that Section unless the facility director
14or his or her designee states in writing in the recipient's
15record why the filing of such a petition is not warranted. This
16subsection (h) applies only to State-operated mental health
17facilities.
18    (i) The Department shall conduct annual trainings for all
19physicians and registered nurses working in State-operated
20mental health facilities on the appropriate use of emergency
21administration of psychotropic medication and
22electroconvulsive therapy, standards for their use, and the
23methods of authorization under this Section.
24(Source: P.A. 95-172, eff. 8-14-07; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
25    (405 ILCS 5/3-200)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 3-200)

 

 

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1    Sec. 3-200. (a) A person may be admitted as an inpatient to
2a mental health facility for treatment of mental illness only
3as provided in this Chapter, except that a person may be
4transferred by the Department of Corrections pursuant to the
5Unified Code of Corrections. A person transferred by the
6Department of Corrections in this manner may be released only
7as provided in the Unified Code of Corrections.
8    (b) No person who is diagnosed as intellectually disabled
9mentally retarded or a person with a developmental disability
10may be admitted or transferred to a Department mental health
11facility or, any portion thereof, except as provided in this
12Chapter. However, the evaluation and placement of such persons
13shall be governed by Article II of Chapter 4 of this Code.
14(Source: P.A. 88-380.)
 
15    (405 ILCS 5/4-201)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-201)
16    Sec. 4-201. (a) An intellectually disabled A mentally
17retarded person shall not reside in a Department mental health
18facility unless the person is evaluated and is determined to be
19a person with mental illness and the facility director
20determines that appropriate treatment and habilitation are
21available and will be provided to such person on the unit. In
22all such cases the Department mental health facility director
23shall certify in writing within 30 days of the completion of
24the evaluation and every 30 days thereafter, that the person
25has been appropriately evaluated, that services specified in

 

 

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1the treatment and habilitation plan are being provided, that
2the setting in which services are being provided is appropriate
3to the person's needs, and that provision of such services
4fully complies with all applicable federal statutes and
5regulations concerning the provision of services to persons
6with a developmental disability. Those regulations shall
7include, but not be limited to the regulations which govern the
8provision of services to persons with a developmental
9disability in facilities certified under the Social Security
10Act for federal financial participation, whether or not the
11facility or portion thereof in which the recipient has been
12placed is presently certified under the Social Security Act or
13would be eligible for such certification under applicable
14federal regulations. The certifications shall be filed in the
15recipient's record and with the office of the Secretary of the
16Department. A copy of the certification shall be given to the
17person, an attorney or advocate who is representing the person
18and the person's guardian.
19    (b) Any person admitted to a Department mental health
20facility who is reasonably suspected of being mildly or
21moderately intellectually disabled mentally retarded,
22including those who also have a mental illness, shall be
23evaluated by a multidisciplinary team which includes a
24qualified intellectual disabilities mental retardation
25professional designated by the Department facility director.
26The evaluation shall be consistent with Section 4-300 of

 

 

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1Article III in this Chapter, and shall include: (1) a written
2assessment of whether the person needs a habilitation plan and,
3if so, (2) a written habilitation plan consistent with Section
44-309, and (3) a written determination whether the admitting
5facility is capable of providing the specified habilitation
6services. This evaluation shall occur within a reasonable
7period of time, but in no case shall that period exceed 14 days
8after admission. In all events, a treatment plan shall be
9prepared for the person within 3 days of admission, and
10reviewed and updated every 30 days, consistent with Section
113-209 of this Code.
12    (c) Any person admitted to a Department mental health
13facility with an admitting diagnosis of a severe or profound
14intellectual disability mental retardation shall be
15transferred to an appropriate facility or unit for persons with
16a developmental disability within 72 hours of admission unless
17transfer is contraindicated by the person's medical condition
18documented by appropriate medical personnel. Any person
19diagnosed as severely or profoundly intellectually disabled
20mentally retarded while in a Department mental health facility
21shall be transferred to an appropriate facility or unit for
22persons with a developmental disability within 72 hours of such
23diagnosis unless transfer is contraindicated by the person's
24medical condition documented by appropriate medical personnel.
25    (d) The Secretary of the Department shall designate a
26qualified intellectual disabilities mental retardation

 

 

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1professional in each of its mental health facilities who has
2responsibility for insuring compliance with the provisions of
3Sections 4-201 and 4-201.1.
4(Source: P.A. 88-380; 89-439, eff. 6-1-96; 89-507, eff.
57-1-97.)
 
6    (405 ILCS 5/4-201.1)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-201.1)
7    Sec. 4-201.1. (a) A person residing in a Department mental
8health facility who is evaluated as being mildly or moderately
9intellectually disabled mentally retarded, an attorney or
10advocate representing the person, or a guardian of such person
11may object to the Department facility director's certification
12required in Section 4-201, the treatment and habilitation plan,
13or appropriateness of setting, and obtain an administrative
14decision requiring revision of a treatment or habilitation plan
15or change of setting, by utilization review as provided in
16Sections 3-207 and 4-209 of this Code. As part of this
17utilization review, the Committee shall include as one of its
18members a qualified intellectual disabilities mental
19retardation professional.
20    (b) The mental health facility director shall give written
21notice to each person evaluated as being mildly or moderately
22intellectually disabled mentally retarded, the person's
23attorney and guardian, if any, or in the case of a minor, to
24his or her attorney, to the parent, guardian or person in loco
25parentis and to the minor if 12 years of age or older, of the

 

 

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1person's right to request a review of the facility director's
2initial or subsequent determination that such person is
3appropriately placed or is receiving appropriate services. The
4notice shall also provide the address and phone number of the
5Legal Advocacy Service of the Guardianship and Advocacy
6Commission, which the person or guardian can contact for legal
7assistance. If requested, the facility director shall assist
8the person or guardian in contacting the Legal Advocacy
9Service. This notice shall be given within 24 hours of
10Department's evaluation that the person is mildly or moderately
11intellectually disabled mentally retarded.
12    (c) Any recipient of services who successfully challenges a
13final decision of the Secretary of the Department (or his or
14her designee) reviewing an objection to the certification
15required under Section 4-201, the treatment and habilitation
16plan, or the appropriateness of the setting shall be entitled
17to recover reasonable attorney's fees incurred in that
18challenge, unless the Department's position was substantially
19justified.
20(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
21    (405 ILCS 5/4-203)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-203)
22    Sec. 4-203. (a) Every developmental disabilities facility
23shall maintain adequate records which shall include the Section
24of this Act under which the client was admitted, any subsequent
25change in the client's status, and requisite documentation for

 

 

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1such admission and status.
2    (b) The Department shall ensure that a monthly report is
3maintained for each Department mental health facility, and each
4unit of a Department developmental disability facility for
5dually diagnosed persons, which lists (1) initials of persons
6admitted to, residing at, or discharged from a Department
7mental health facility or unit for dually diagnosed persons of
8Department developmental disability facility during that month
9with a primary or secondary diagnosis of intellectual
10disability mental retardation, (2) the date and facility and
11unit of admission or continuing, care, (3) the legal admission
12status, (4) the recipient's diagnosis, (5) the date and
13facility and unit of transfer or discharge, (6) whether or not
14there is a public or private guardian, (7) whether the facility
15director has certified that appropriate treatment and
16habilitation are available for and being provided to such
17person pursuant to Section 4-203 of this Chapter, and (8)
18whether the person or a guardian has requested review as
19provided in Section 4-209 of this Chapter and, if so, the
20outcome of the review. The Secretary of the Department shall
21furnish a copy of each monthly report upon request to the
22Guardianship and Advocacy Commission and the agency designated
23by the Governor under Section 1 of "An Act in relation to the
24protection and advocacy of the rights of persons with
25developmental disabilities, and amending certain Acts therein
26named", approved September 20, 1985, and under Section 1 of "An

 

 

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1Act for the protection and advocacy of mentally ill persons",
2approved September 20, 1987.
3    (c) Nothing contained in this Chapter shall be construed to
4limit or otherwise affect the power of any developmental
5disabilities facility to determine the qualifications of
6persons permitted to admit clients to such facility. This
7subsection shall not affect or limit the powers of any court to
8order admission to a developmental disabilities facility as set
9forth in this Chapter.
10(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
11    (405 ILCS 5/4-209)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-209)
12    Sec. 4-209. (a) Hearings under Sections 4-201.1, 4-312,
134-704 and 4-709 of this Chapter shall be conducted by a
14utilization review committee. The Secretary shall appoint a
15utilization review committee at each Department facility. Each
16such committee shall consist of multi-disciplinary
17professional staff members who are trained and equipped to deal
18with the habilitation needs of clients. At least one member of
19the committee shall be a qualified intellectual disabilities
20mental retardation professional. The client and the objector
21may be represented by persons of their choice.
22    (b) The utilization review committee shall not be bound by
23rules of evidence or procedure but shall conduct the
24proceedings in a manner intended to ensure a fair hearing. The
25committee may make such investigation as it deems necessary. It

 

 

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1may administer oaths and compel by subpoena testimony and the
2production of records. A stenographic or audio recording of the
3proceedings shall be made and shall be kept in the client's
4record. Within 3 days of conclusion of the hearing, the
5committee shall submit to the facility director its written
6recommendations which include its factual findings and
7conclusions. A copy of the recommendations shall be given to
8the client and the objector.
9    (c) Within 7 days of receipt of the recommendations, the
10facility director shall give written notice to the client and
11objector of his acceptance or rejection of the recommendations
12and his reason therefor. If the facility director rejects the
13recommendations or if the client or objector requests review of
14the facility director's decision, the facility director shall
15promptly forward a copy of his decision, the recommendations,
16and the record of the hearing to the Secretary of the
17Department for final review. The review of the facility
18director's decision shall be decided by the Secretary or his or
19her designee within 30 days of the receipt of a request for
20final review. The decision of the facility director, or the
21decision of the Secretary (or his or her designee) if review
22was requested, shall be considered a final administrative
23decision, and shall be subject to review under and in
24accordance with Article III of the Code of Civil Procedure. The
25decision of the facility director, or the decision of the
26Secretary (or his or her designee) if review was requested,

 

 

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1shall be considered a final administrative decision.
2(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)
 
3    (405 ILCS 5/Ch. IV Art. IV heading)
4
ARTICLE IV. EMERGENCY ADMISSION
5
OF THE INTELLECTUALLY DISABLED MENTALLY RETARDED

 
6    (405 ILCS 5/4-400)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-400)
7    Sec. 4-400. (a) A person 18 years of age or older may be
8admitted on an emergency basis to a facility under this Article
9if the facility director of the facility determines: (1) that
10he is intellectually disabled mentally retarded; (2) that he is
11reasonably expected to inflict serious physical harm upon
12himself or another in the near future; and (3) that immediate
13admission is necessary to prevent such harm.
14    (b) Persons with a developmental disability under 18 years
15of age and persons with a developmental disability 18 years of
16age or over who are under guardianship or who are seeking
17admission on their own behalf may be admitted for emergency
18care under Section 4-311.
19(Source: P.A. 88-380.)
 
20    (405 ILCS 5/Ch. IV Art. V heading)
21
ARTICLE V. JUDICIAL ADMISSION FOR THE INTELLECTUALLY DISABLED
22
MENTALLY RETARDED

 

 

 

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1    (405 ILCS 5/4-500)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-500)
2    Sec. 4-500. A person 18 years of age or older may be
3admitted to a facility upon court order under this Article if
4the court determines: (1) that he is intellectually disabled
5mentally retarded; and (2) that he is reasonably expected to
6inflict serious physical harm upon himself or another in the
7near future.
8(Source: P.A. 80-1414.)
 
9    (405 ILCS 5/4-701)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 4-701)
10    Sec. 4-701. (a) Any client admitted to a developmental
11disabilities facility under this Chapter may be discharged
12whenever the facility director determines that he is suitable
13for discharge.
14    (b) Any client admitted to a facility or program of
15nonresidential services upon court order under Article V of
16this Chapter or admitted upon court order as intellectually
17disabled mentally retarded or mentally deficient under any
18prior statute shall be discharged whenever the facility
19director determines that he no longer meets the standard for
20judicial admission. When the facility director believes that
21continued residence is advisable for such a client, he shall
22inform the client and his guardian, if any, that the client may
23remain at the facility on administrative admission status. When
24a facility director discharges or changes the status of such
25client, he shall promptly notify the clerk of the court who

 

 

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1shall note the action in the court record.
2    (c) When the facility director discharges a client pursuant
3to subsection (b) of this Section, he shall promptly notify the
4State's Attorney of the county in which the client resided
5immediately prior to his admission to a development
6disabilities facility. Upon receipt of such notice, the State's
7Attorney may notify such peace officers that he deems
8appropriate.
9    (d) The facility director may grant a temporary release to
10any client when such release is appropriate and consistent with
11the habilitation needs of the client.
12(Source: P.A. 80-1414.)
 
13    Section 95. The Community Mental Health Act is amended by
14changing Section 3e as follows:
 
15    (405 ILCS 20/3e)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 303e)
16    Sec. 3e. Board's powers and duties.
17    (1) Every community mental health board shall, immediately
18after appointment, meet and organize, by the election of one of
19its number as president and one as secretary and such other
20officers as it may deem necessary. It shall make rules and
21regulations concerning the rendition or operation of services
22and facilities which it directs, supervises or funds, not
23inconsistent with the provisions of this Act. It shall:
24        (a) Hold a meeting prior to July 1 of each year at

 

 

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1    which officers shall be elected for the ensuing year
2    beginning July 1;
3        (b) Hold meetings at least quarterly;
4        (c) Hold special meetings upon a written request signed
5    by at least 2 members and filed with the secretary;
6        (d) Review and evaluate community mental health
7    services and facilities, including services and facilities
8    for the treatment of alcoholism, drug addiction,
9    developmental disabilities, and intellectual disabilities
10    mental retardation;
11        (e) Authorize the disbursement of money from the
12    community mental health fund for payment for the ordinary
13    and contingent expenses of the board;
14        (f) Submit to the appointing officer and the members of
15    the governing body a written plan for a program of
16    community mental health services and facilities for
17    persons with a mental illness, a developmental disability,
18    or a substance use disorder. Such plan shall be for the
19    ensuing 12 month period. In addition, a plan shall be
20    developed for the ensuing 3 year period and such plan shall
21    be reviewed at the end of every 12 month period and shall
22    be modified as deemed advisable.
23        (g) Within amounts appropriated therefor, execute such
24    programs and maintain such services and facilities as may
25    be authorized under such appropriations, including amounts
26    appropriated under bond issues, if any;

 

 

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1        (h) Publish the annual budget and report within 120
2    days after the end of the fiscal year in a newspaper
3    distributed within the jurisdiction of the board, or, if no
4    newspaper is published within the jurisdiction of the
5    board, then one published in the county, or, if no
6    newspaper is published in the county, then in a newspaper
7    having general circulation within the jurisdiction of the
8    board. The report shall show the condition of its trust of
9    that year, the sums of money received from all sources,
10    giving the name of any donor, how all monies have been
11    expended and for what purpose, and such other statistics
12    and program information in regard to the work of the board
13    as it may deem of general interest. A copy of the budget
14    and the annual report shall be made available to the
15    Department of Human Services and to members of the General
16    Assembly whose districts include any part of the
17    jurisdiction of such board. The names of all employees,
18    consultants, and other personnel shall be set forth along
19    with the amounts of money received;
20        (i) Consult with other appropriate private and public
21    agencies in the development of local plans for the most
22    efficient delivery of mental health, developmental
23    disabilities, and substance use disorder services. The
24    Board is authorized to join and to participate in the
25    activities of associations organized for the purpose of
26    promoting more efficient and effective services and

 

 

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1    programs;
2        (j) Have the authority to review and comment on all
3    applications for grants by any person, corporation, or
4    governmental unit providing services within the
5    geographical area of the board which provides mental health
6    facilities and services, including services for the person
7    with a mental illness, a developmental disability, or a
8    substance use disorder. The board may require funding
9    applicants to send a copy of their funding application to
10    the board at the time such application is submitted to the
11    Department of Human Services or to any other local, State
12    or federal funding source or governmental agency. Within 60
13    days of the receipt of any application, the board shall
14    submit its review and comments to the Department of Human
15    Services or to any other appropriate local, State or
16    federal funding source or governmental agency. A copy of
17    the review and comments shall be submitted to the funding
18    applicant. Within 60 days thereafter, the Department of
19    Human Services or any other appropriate local or State
20    governmental agency shall issue a written response to the
21    board and the funding applicant. The Department of Human
22    Services shall supply any community mental health board
23    such information about purchase-of-care funds, State
24    facility utilization, and costs in its geographical area as
25    the board may request provided that the information
26    requested is for the purpose of the Community Mental Health

 

 

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1    Board complying with the requirements of Section 3f,
2    subsection (f) of this Act;
3        (k) Perform such other acts as may be necessary or
4    proper to carry out the purposes of this Act.
5    (2) The community mental health board has the following
6powers:
7        (a) The board may enter into multiple-year contracts
8    for rendition or operation of services, facilities and
9    educational programs.
10        (b) The board may arrange through intergovernmental
11    agreements or intragovernmental agreements or both for the
12    rendition of services and operation of facilities by other
13    agencies or departments of the governmental unit or county
14    in which the governmental unit is located with the approval
15    of the governing body.
16        (c) To employ, establish compensation for, and set
17    policies for its personnel, including legal counsel, as may
18    be necessary to carry out the purposes of this Act and
19    prescribe the duties thereof. The board may enter into
20    multiple-year employment contracts as may be necessary for
21    the recruitment and retention of personnel and the proper
22    functioning of the board.
23        (d) The board may enter into multiple-year joint
24    agreements, which shall be written, with other mental
25    health boards and boards of health to provide jointly
26    agreed upon community mental health facilities and

 

 

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1    services and to pool such funds as may be deemed necessary
2    and available for this purpose.
3        (e) The board may organize a not-for-profit
4    corporation for the purpose of providing direct recipient
5    services. Such corporations shall have, in addition to all
6    other lawful powers, the power to contract with persons to
7    furnish services for recipients of the corporation's
8    facilities, including psychiatrists and other physicians
9    licensed in this State to practice medicine in all of its
10    branches. Such physicians shall be considered independent
11    contractors, and liability for any malpractice shall not
12    extend to such corporation, nor to the community mental
13    health board, except for gross negligence in entering into
14    such a contract.
15        (f) The board shall not operate any direct recipient
16    services for more than a 2-year period when such services
17    are being provided in the governmental unit, but shall
18    encourage, by financial support, the development of
19    private agencies to deliver such needed services, pursuant
20    to regulations of the board.
21        (g) Where there are multiple boards within the same
22    planning area, as established by the Department of Human
23    Services, services may be purchased through a single
24    delivery system. In such areas, a coordinating body with
25    representation from each board shall be established to
26    carry out the service functions of this Act. In the event

 

 

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1    any such coordinating body purchases or improves real
2    property, such body shall first obtain the approval of the
3    governing bodies of the governmental units in which the
4    coordinating body is located.
5        (h) The board may enter into multiple-year joint
6    agreements with other governmental units located within
7    the geographical area of the board. Such agreements shall
8    be written and shall provide for the rendition of services
9    by the board to the residents of such governmental units.
10        (i) The board may enter into multiple-year joint
11    agreements with federal, State, and local governments,
12    including the Department of Human Services, whereby the
13    board will provide certain services. All such joint
14    agreements must provide for the exchange of relevant data.
15    However, nothing in this Act shall be construed to permit
16    the abridgement of the confidentiality of patient records.
17        (j) The board may receive gifts from private sources
18    for purposes not inconsistent with the provisions of this
19    Act.
20        (k) The board may receive Federal, State and local
21    funds for purposes not inconsistent with the provisions of
22    this Act.
23        (l) The board may establish scholarship programs. Such
24    programs shall require equivalent service or reimbursement
25    pursuant to regulations of the board.
26        (m) The board may sell, rent, or lease real property

 

 

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1    for purposes consistent with this Act.
2        (n) The board may: (i) own real property, lease real
3    property as lessee, or acquire real property by purchase,
4    construction, lease-purchase agreement, or otherwise; (ii)
5    take title to the property in the board's name; (iii)
6    borrow money and issue debt instruments, mortgages,
7    purchase-money mortgages, and other security instruments
8    with respect to the property; and (iv) maintain, repair,
9    remodel, or improve the property. All of these activities
10    must be for purposes consistent with this Act as may be
11    reasonably necessary for the housing and proper
12    functioning of the board. The board may use moneys in the
13    Community Mental Health Fund for these purposes.
14        (o) The board may organize a not-for-profit
15    corporation (i) for the purpose of raising money to be
16    distributed by the board for providing community mental
17    health services and facilities for the treatment of
18    alcoholism, drug addiction, developmental disabilities,
19    and intellectual disabilities mental retardation or (ii)
20    for other purposes not inconsistent with this Act.
21(Source: P.A. 95-336, eff. 8-21-07.)
 
22    Section 100. The Specialized Living Centers Act is amended
23by changing Section 2.03 as follows:
 
24    (405 ILCS 25/2.03)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 602.03)

 

 

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1    Sec. 2.03. "Person with a developmental disability" means
2individuals whose disability is attributable to an
3intellectual disability mental retardation, cerebral palsy,
4epilepsy or other neurological condition which generally
5originates before such individuals attain age 18 which had
6continued or can be expected to continue indefinitely and which
7constitutes a substantial handicap to such individuals.
8(Source: P.A. 88-380.)
 
9    Section 101. The Protection and Advocacy for
10Developmentally Disabled Persons Act is amended by changing
11Section 1 as follows:
 
12    (405 ILCS 40/1)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1151)
13    Sec. 1. The Governor may designate a private not-for-profit
14corporation as the agency to administer a State plan to protect
15and advocate the rights of persons with developmental
16disabilities pursuant to the requirements of the federal
17Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act,
1842 U.S.C. 6001 to 6081, as now or hereafter amended. The
19designated agency may pursue legal, administrative, and other
20appropriate remedies to ensure the protection of the rights of
21such persons who are receiving treatment, services or
22habilitation within this State. The agency designated by the
23Governor shall be independent of any agency which provides
24treatment, services, guardianship, or habilitation to persons

 

 

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1with developmental disabilities, and such agency shall not be
2administered by the Governor's Planning Council on
3Developmental Disabilities or any successor State Planning
4Council organized pursuant to federal law.
5    The designated agency may receive and expend funds to
6protect and advocate the rights of persons with developmental
7disabilities. In order to properly exercise its powers and
8duties, such agency shall have access to developmental
9disability facilities and mental health facilities, as defined
10under Sections 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and
11Developmental Disabilities Code, and facilities as defined in
12Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act or Section 1-113 of
13the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act. Such access shall be
14granted for the purposes of meeting with residents and staff,
15informing them of services available from the agency,
16distributing written information about the agency and the
17rights of persons with developmental disabilities, conducting
18scheduled and unscheduled visits, and performing other
19activities designed to protect the rights of persons with
20developmental disabilities. The agency also shall have access,
21for the purpose of inspection and copying, to the records of a
22person with developmental disabilities who resides in any such
23facility subject to the limitations of this Act, the Mental
24Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, the
25Nursing Home Care Act, and the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
26The agency also shall have access, for the purpose of

 

 

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1inspection and copying, to the records of a person with
2developmental disabilities who resides in any such facility if
3(1) a complaint is received by the agency from or on behalf of
4the person with a developmental disability, and (2) such person
5does not have a legal guardian or the State or the designee of
6the State is the legal guardian of such person. The designated
7agency shall provide written notice to the person with
8developmental disabilities and the State guardian of the nature
9of the complaint based upon which the designated agency has
10gained access to the records. No record or the contents of any
11record shall be redisclosed by the designated agency unless the
12person with developmental disabilities and the State guardian
13are provided 7 days advance written notice, except in emergency
14situations, of the designated agency's intent to redisclose
15such record, during which time the person with developmental
16disabilities or the State guardian may seek to judicially
17enjoin the designated agency's redisclosure of such record on
18the grounds that such redisclosure is contrary to the interests
19of the person with developmental disabilities. Any person who
20in good faith complains to the designated agency on behalf of a
21person with developmental disabilities, or provides
22information or participates in the investigation of any such
23complaint shall have immunity from any liability, civil,
24criminal or otherwise, and shall not be subject to any
25penalties, sanctions, restrictions or retaliation as a
26consequence of making such complaint, providing such

 

 

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1information or participating in such investigation.
2    Upon request, the designated agency shall be entitled to
3inspect and copy any records or other materials which may
4further the agency's investigation of problems affecting
5numbers of persons with developmental disabilities. When
6required by law any personally identifiable information of
7persons with developmental disabilities shall be removed from
8the records. However, the designated agency may not inspect or
9copy any records or other materials when the removal of
10personally identifiable information imposes an unreasonable
11burden on mental health and developmental disabilities
12facilities pursuant to the Mental Health and Developmental
13Disabilities Code or facilities as defined in the Nursing Home
14Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
15    The Governor shall not redesignate the agency to administer
16the State plan to protect and advocate the rights of persons
17with developmental disabilities unless there is good cause for
18the redesignation and unless notice of the intent to make such
19redesignation is given to persons with developmental
20disabilities or their representatives, the federal Secretary
21of Health and Human Services, and the General Assembly at least
2260 days prior thereto.
23    As used in this Act, the term "developmental disability"
24means a severe, chronic disability of a person which:
25        (A) is attributable to a mental or physical impairment
26    or combination of mental and physical impairments;

 

 

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1        (B) is manifested before the person attains age 22;
2        (C) is likely to continue indefinitely;
3        (D) results in substantial functional limitations in 3
4    or more of the following areas of major life activity: (i)
5    self-care, (ii) receptive and expressive language, (iii)
6    learning, (iv) mobility, (v) self-direction, (vi) capacity
7    for independent living, and (vii) economic
8    self-sufficiency; and
9        (E) reflects the person's need for combination and
10    sequence of special, interdisciplinary or generic care,
11    treatment or other services which are of lifelong or
12    extended duration and are individually planned and
13    coordinated.
14(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
15    Section 102. The Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill
16Persons Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:
 
17    (405 ILCS 45/3)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1353)
18    Sec. 3. Powers and Duties.
19    (A) In order to properly exercise its powers and duties,
20the agency shall have the authority to:
21        (1) Investigate incidents of abuse and neglect of
22    mentally ill persons if the incidents are reported to the
23    agency or if there is probable cause to believe that the
24    incidents occurred. In case of conflict with provisions of

 

 

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1    the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or the Nursing
2    Home Care Act, the provisions of those Acts shall apply.
3        (2) Pursue administrative, legal and other appropriate
4    remedies to ensure the protection of the rights of mentally
5    ill persons who are receiving care and treatment in this
6    State.
7        (3) Pursue administrative, legal and other remedies on
8    behalf of an individual who:
9            (a) was a mentally ill individual; and
10            (b) is a resident of this State, but only with
11        respect to matters which occur within 90 days after the
12        date of the discharge of such individual from a
13        facility providing care and treatment.
14        (4) Establish a board which shall:
15            (a) advise the protection and advocacy system on
16        policies and priorities to be carried out in protecting
17        and advocating the rights of mentally ill individuals;
18        and
19            (b) include attorneys, mental health
20        professionals, individuals from the public who are
21        knowledgeable about mental illness, a provider of
22        mental health services, individuals who have received
23        or are receiving mental health services and family
24        members of such individuals. At least one-half the
25        members of the board shall be individuals who have
26        received or are receiving mental health services or who

 

 

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1        are family members of such individuals.
2        (5) On January 1, 1988, and on January 1 of each
3    succeeding year, prepare and transmit to the Secretary of
4    the United States Department of Health and Human Services
5    and to the Illinois Secretary of Human Services a report
6    describing the activities, accomplishments and
7    expenditures of the protection and advocacy system during
8    the most recently completed fiscal year.
9    (B) The agency shall have access to all mental health
10facilities as defined in Sections 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental
11Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, all facilities as
12defined in Section 1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act, all
13facilities as defined in Section 1-113 of the ID/DD MR/DD
14Community Care Act, all facilities as defined in Section 2.06
15of the Child Care Act of 1969, as now or hereafter amended, and
16all other facilities providing care or treatment to mentally
17ill persons. Such access shall be granted for the purposes of
18meeting with residents and staff, informing them of services
19available from the agency, distributing written information
20about the agency and the rights of persons who are mentally
21ill, conducting scheduled and unscheduled visits, and
22performing other activities designed to protect the rights of
23mentally ill persons.
24    (C) The agency shall have access to all records of mentally
25ill persons who are receiving care or treatment from a
26facility, subject to the limitations of this Act, the Mental

 

 

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1Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, the
2Nursing Home Care Act and the Child Care Act of 1969, as now or
3hereafter amended. If the mentally ill person has a legal
4guardian other than the State or a designee of the State, the
5facility director shall disclose the guardian's name, address
6and telephone number to the agency upon its request. In cases
7of conflict with provisions of the Abused and Neglected Child
8Reporting Act and the Nursing Home Care Act, the provisions of
9the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and the Nursing
10Home Care Act shall apply. The agency shall also have access,
11for the purpose of inspection and copying, to the records of a
12mentally ill person (i) who by reason of his or her mental or
13physical condition is unable to authorize the agency to have
14such access; (ii) who does not have a legal guardian or for
15whom the State or a designee of the State is the legal
16guardian; and (iii) with respect to whom a complaint has been
17received by the agency or with respect to whom there is
18probable cause to believe that such person has been subjected
19to abuse or neglect.
20    The agency shall provide written notice to the mentally ill
21person and the State guardian of the nature of the complaint
22based upon which the agency has gained access to the records.
23No record or the contents of the record shall be redisclosed by
24the agency unless the person who is mentally ill and the State
25guardian are provided 7 days advance written notice, except in
26emergency situations, of the agency's intent to redisclose such

 

 

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1record. Within such 7-day period, the mentally ill person or
2the State guardian may seek an injunction prohibiting the
3agency's redisclosure of such record on the grounds that such
4redisclosure is contrary to the interests of the mentally ill
5person.
6    Upon request, the authorized agency shall be entitled to
7inspect and copy any clinical or trust fund records of mentally
8ill persons which may further the agency's investigation of
9alleged problems affecting numbers of mentally ill persons.
10When required by law, any personally identifiable information
11of mentally ill persons shall be removed from the records.
12However, the agency may not inspect or copy any records or
13other materials when the removal of personally identifiable
14information imposes an unreasonable burden on any facility as
15defined by the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
16Code, the Nursing Home Care Act or the Child Care Act of 1969,
17or any other facility providing care or treatment to mentally
18ill persons.
19    (D) Prior to instituting any legal action in a federal or
20State court on behalf of a mentally ill individual, an eligible
21protection and advocacy system, or a State agency or nonprofit
22organization which entered into a contract with such an
23eligible system under Section 104(a) of the federal Protection
24and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act of 1986, shall
25exhaust in a timely manner all administrative remedies where
26appropriate. If, in pursuing administrative remedies, the

 

 

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1system, State agency or organization determines that any matter
2with respect to such individual will not be resolved within a
3reasonable time, the system, State agency or organization may
4pursue alternative remedies, including the initiation of
5appropriate legal action.
6(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
7    Section 105. The Developmental Disability and Mental
8Disability Services Act is amended by changing Sections 2-3,
92-5, 2-17, 3-3, 3-5, 5-1, 5-4, and 6-1 as follows:
 
10    (405 ILCS 80/2-3)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-3)
11    Sec. 2-3. As used in this Article, unless the context
12requires otherwise:
13    (a) "Agency" means an agency or entity licensed by the
14Department pursuant to this Article or pursuant to the
15Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act.
16    (b) "Department" means the Department of Human Services, as
17successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental
18Disabilities.
19    (c) "Home-based services" means services provided to a
20mentally disabled adult who lives in his or her own home. These
21services include but are not limited to:
22        (1) home health services;
23        (2) case management;
24        (3) crisis management;

 

 

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1        (4) training and assistance in self-care;
2        (5) personal care services;
3        (6) habilitation and rehabilitation services;
4        (7) employment-related services;
5        (8) respite care; and
6        (9) other skill training that enables a person to
7    become self-supporting.
8    (d) "Legal guardian" means a person appointed by a court of
9competent jurisdiction to exercise certain powers on behalf of
10a mentally disabled adult.
11    (e) "Mentally disabled adult" means a person over the age
12of 18 years who lives in his or her own home; who needs
13home-based services, but does not require 24-hour-a-day
14supervision; and who has one of the following conditions:
15severe autism, severe mental illness, a severe or profound
16intellectual disability mental retardation, or severe and
17multiple impairments.
18    (f) In one's "own home" means that a mentally disabled
19adult lives alone; or that a mentally disabled adult is in
20full-time residence with his or her parents, legal guardian, or
21other relatives; or that a mentally disabled adult is in
22full-time residence in a setting not subject to licensure under
23the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act,
24or the Child Care Act of 1969, as now or hereafter amended,
25with 3 or fewer other adults unrelated to the mentally disabled
26adult who do not provide home-based services to the mentally

 

 

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1disabled adult.
2    (g) "Parent" means the biological or adoptive parent of a
3mentally disabled adult, or a person licensed as a foster
4parent under the laws of this State who acts as a mentally
5disabled adult's foster parent.
6    (h) "Relative" means any of the following relationships by
7blood, marriage or adoption: parent, son, daughter, brother,
8sister, grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, great
9grandparent, great uncle, great aunt, stepbrother, stepsister,
10stepson, stepdaughter, stepparent or first cousin.
11    (i) "Severe autism" means a lifelong developmental
12disability which is typically manifested before 30 months of
13age and is characterized by severe disturbances in reciprocal
14social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and
15imaginative activity; and repertoire of activities and
16interests. A person shall be determined severely autistic, for
17purposes of this Article, if both of the following are present:
18        (1) Diagnosis consistent with the criteria for
19    autistic disorder in the current edition of the Diagnostic
20    and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
21        (2) Severe disturbances in reciprocal social
22    interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and
23    imaginative activity; repertoire of activities and
24    interests. A determination of severe autism shall be based
25    upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an
26    evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or

 

 

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1    psychiatrist. A determination of severe autism shall not be
2    based solely on behaviors relating to environmental,
3    cultural or economic differences.
4    (j) "Severe mental illness" means the manifestation of all
5of the following characteristics:
6        (1) A primary diagnosis of one of the major mental
7    disorders in the current edition of the Diagnostic and
8    Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders listed below:
9            (A) Schizophrenia disorder.
10            (B) Delusional disorder.
11            (C) Schizo-affective disorder.
12            (D) Bipolar affective disorder.
13            (E) Atypical psychosis.
14            (F) Major depression, recurrent.
15        (2) The individual's mental illness must substantially
16    impair his or her functioning in at least 2 of the
17    following areas:
18            (A) Self-maintenance.
19            (B) Social functioning.
20            (C) Activities of community living.
21            (D) Work skills.
22        (3) Disability must be present or expected to be
23    present for at least one year.
24    A determination of severe mental illness shall be based
25upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation
26by a licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist, and shall

 

 

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1not be based solely on behaviors relating to environmental,
2cultural or economic differences.
3    (k) "Severe or profound intellectual disability mental
4retardation" means a manifestation of all of the following
5characteristics:
6        (1) A diagnosis which meets Classification in Mental
7    Retardation or criteria in the current edition of the
8    Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders for
9    severe or profound mental retardation (an IQ of 40 or
10    below). This must be measured by a standardized instrument
11    for general intellectual functioning.
12        (2) A severe or profound level of disturbed adaptive
13    behavior. This must be measured by a standardized adaptive
14    behavior scale or informal appraisal by the professional in
15    keeping with illustrations in Classification in Mental
16    Retardation, 1983.
17        (3) Disability diagnosed before age of 18.
18    A determination of a severe or profound intellectual
19disability mental retardation shall be based upon a
20comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a
21licensed clinical psychologist or certified school
22psychologist or a psychiatrist, and shall not be based solely
23on behaviors relating to environmental, cultural or economic
24differences.
25    (l) "Severe and multiple impairments" means the
26manifestation of all of the following characteristics:

 

 

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1        (1) The evaluation determines the presence of a
2    developmental disability which is expected to continue
3    indefinitely, constitutes a substantial handicap and is
4    attributable to any of the following:
5            (A) Intellectual disability Mental retardation,
6        which is defined as general intellectual functioning
7        that is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean
8        concurrent with impairment of adaptive behavior which
9        is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean.
10        Assessment of the individual's intellectual
11        functioning must be measured by a standardized
12        instrument for general intellectual functioning.
13            (B) Cerebral palsy.
14            (C) Epilepsy.
15            (D) Autism.
16            (E) Any other condition which results in
17        impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual
18        disability mental retardation and which requires
19        services similar to those required by intellectually
20        disabled mentally retarded persons.
21        (2) The evaluation determines multiple handicaps in
22    physical, sensory, behavioral or cognitive functioning
23    which constitute a severe or profound impairment
24    attributable to one or more of the following:
25            (A) Physical functioning, which severely impairs
26        the individual's motor performance that may be due to:

 

 

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1                (i) Neurological, psychological or physical
2            involvement resulting in a variety of disabling
3            conditions such as hemiplegia, quadriplegia or
4            ataxia,
5                (ii) Severe organ systems involvement such as
6            congenital heart defect,
7                (iii) Physical abnormalities resulting in the
8            individual being non-mobile and non-ambulatory or
9            confined to bed and receiving assistance in
10            transferring, or
11                (iv) The need for regular medical or nursing
12            supervision such as gastrostomy care and feeding.
13            Assessment of physical functioning must be based
14        on clinical medical assessment by a physician licensed
15        to practice medicine in all its branches, using the
16        appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of
17        measurement required by the professional.
18            (B) Sensory, which involves severe restriction due
19        to hearing or visual impairment limiting the
20        individual's movement and creating dependence in
21        completing most daily activities. Hearing impairment
22        is defined as a loss of 70 decibels aided or speech
23        discrimination of less than 50% aided. Visual
24        impairment is defined as 20/200 corrected in the better
25        eye or a visual field of 20 degrees or less. Sensory
26        functioning must be based on clinical medical

 

 

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1        assessment by a physician licensed to practice
2        medicine in all its branches using the appropriate
3        instruments, techniques and standards of measurement
4        required by the professional.
5            (C) Behavioral, which involves behavior that is
6        maladaptive and presents a danger to self or others, is
7        destructive to property by deliberately breaking,
8        destroying or defacing objects, is disruptive by
9        fighting, or has other socially offensive behaviors in
10        sufficient frequency or severity to seriously limit
11        social integration. Assessment of behavioral
12        functioning may be measured by a standardized scale or
13        informal appraisal by a clinical psychologist or
14        psychiatrist.
15            (D) Cognitive, which involves intellectual
16        functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment
17        of cognitive functioning must be measured by a
18        standardized instrument for general intelligence.
19        (3) The evaluation determines that development is
20    substantially less than expected for the age in cognitive,
21    affective or psychomotor behavior as follows:
22            (A) Cognitive, which involves intellectual
23        functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment
24        of cognitive functioning must be measured by a
25        standardized instrument for general intelligence.
26            (B) Affective behavior, which involves over and

 

 

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1        under responding to stimuli in the environment and may
2        be observed in mood, attention to awareness, or in
3        behaviors such as euphoria, anger or sadness that
4        seriously limit integration into society. Affective
5        behavior must be based on clinical assessment using the
6        appropriate instruments, techniques and standards of
7        measurement required by the professional.
8            (C) Psychomotor, which includes a severe
9        developmental delay in fine or gross motor skills so
10        that development in self-care, social interaction,
11        communication or physical activity will be greatly
12        delayed or restricted.
13        (4) A determination that the disability originated
14    before the age of 18 years.
15    A determination of severe and multiple impairments shall be
16based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an
17evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or
18psychiatrist.
19    If the examiner is a licensed clinical psychologist,
20ancillary evaluation of physical impairment, cerebral palsy or
21epilepsy must be made by a physician licensed to practice
22medicine in all its branches.
23    Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary
24evaluation of visual impairment must be made by an
25ophthalmologist or a licensed optometrist.
26    Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary

 

 

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1evaluation of hearing impairment must be made by an
2otolaryngologist or an audiologist with a certificate of
3clinical competency.
4    The only exception to the above is in the case of a person
5with cerebral palsy or epilepsy who, according to the
6eligibility criteria listed below, has multiple impairments
7which are only physical and sensory. In such a case, a
8physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may
9serve as the examiner.
10    (m) "Twenty-four-hour-a-day supervision" means
1124-hour-a-day care by a trained mental health or developmental
12disability professional on an ongoing basis.
13(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
14    (405 ILCS 80/2-5)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-5)
15    Sec. 2-5. The Department shall establish eligibility
16standards for the Program, taking into consideration the
17disability levels and service needs of the target population.
18The Department shall create application forms which shall be
19used to determine the eligibility of mentally disabled adults
20to participate in the Program. The forms shall be made
21available by the Department and shall require at least the
22following items of information which constitute eligibility
23criteria for participation in the Program:
24        (a) A statement that the mentally disabled adult
25    resides in the State of Illinois and is over the age of 18

 

 

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1    years.
2        (b) Verification that the mentally disabled adult has
3    one of the following conditions: severe autism, severe
4    mental illness, a severe or profound intellectual
5    disability mental retardation, or severe and multiple
6    impairments.
7        (c) Verification that the mentally disabled adult has
8    applied and is eligible for federal Supplemental Security
9    Income or federal Social Security Disability Income
10    benefits.
11        (d) Verification that the mentally disabled adult
12    resides full-time in his or her own home or that, within 2
13    months of receipt of services under this Article, he or she
14    will reside full-time in his or her own home.
15    The Department may by rule adopt provisions establishing
16liability of responsible relatives of a recipient of services
17under this Article for the payment of sums representing charges
18for services to such recipient. Such rules shall be
19substantially similar to the provisions for such liability
20contained in Chapter 5 of the Mental Health and Developmental
21Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, and rules
22adopted pursuant thereto.
23(Source: P.A. 86-921; 87-447.)
 
24    (405 ILCS 80/2-17)
25    Sec. 2-17. Transition from special education.

 

 

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1    (a) If a person receiving special educational services
2under Article 14 of the School Code at a school in this State
3has severe autism, severe mental illness, a severe or profound
4intellectual disability mental retardation, or severe and
5multiple impairments and is not over 18 years of age but is
6otherwise eligible to participate in the Program, the person
7shall be determined eligible to participate in the Program,
8subject to the availability of funds appropriated for this
9purpose, when he or she becomes an adult and no longer receives
10special educational services.
11    (b) The Department shall implement this Section for fiscal
12years beginning July 1, 1996 and thereafter.
13(Source: P.A. 89-425, eff. 6-1-96.)
 
14    (405 ILCS 80/3-3)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1803-3)
15    Sec. 3-3. As used in this Article, unless the context
16requires otherwise:
17    (a) "Agency" means an agency or entity licensed by the
18Department pursuant to this Article or pursuant to the
19Community Residential Alternatives Licensing Act.
20    (b) "Department" means the Department of Human Services, as
21successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental
22Disabilities.
23    (c) "Department-funded out-of-home placement services"
24means those services for which the Department pays the partial
25or full cost of care of the residential placement.

 

 

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1    (d) "Family" or "families" means a family member or members
2and his, her or their parents or legal guardians.
3    (e) "Family member" means a child 17 years old or younger
4who has one of the following conditions: severe autism, severe
5emotional disturbance, a severe or profound intellectual
6disability mental retardation, or severe and multiple
7impairments.
8    (f) "Legal guardian" means a person appointed by a court of
9competent jurisdiction to exercise certain powers on behalf of
10a family member and with whom the family member resides.
11    (g) "Parent" means a biological or adoptive parent with
12whom the family member resides, or a person licensed as a
13foster parent under the laws of this State, acting as a family
14member's foster parent, and with whom the family member
15resides.
16    (h) "Severe autism" means a lifelong developmental
17disability which is typically manifested before 30 months of
18age and is characterized by severe disturbances in reciprocal
19social interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and
20imaginative activity; and repertoire of activities and
21interests. A person shall be determined severely autistic, for
22purposes of this Article, if both of the following are present:
23        (1) Diagnosis consistent with the criteria for
24    autistic disorder in the current edition of the Diagnostic
25    and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders;
26        (2) Severe disturbances in reciprocal social

 

 

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1    interactions; verbal and nonverbal communication and
2    imaginative activity; and repertoire of activities and
3    interests. A determination of severe autism shall be based
4    upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an
5    evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or
6    psychiatrist. A determination of severe autism shall not be
7    based solely on behaviors relating to environmental,
8    cultural or economic differences.
9    (i) "Severe mental illness" means the manifestation of all
10of the following characteristics:
11        (1) a severe mental illness characterized by the
12    presence of a mental disorder in children or adolescents,
13    classified in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of
14    Mental Disorders (Third Edition - Revised), as now or
15    hereafter revised, excluding V-codes (as that term is used
16    in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical
17    Manual of Mental Disorders), adjustment disorders, the
18    presence of an intellectual disability mental retardation
19    when no other mental disorder is present, alcohol or
20    substance abuse, or other forms of dementia based upon
21    organic or physical disorders; and
22        (2) a functional disability of an extended duration
23    which results in substantial limitations in major life
24    activities.
25    A determination of severe mental illness shall be based
26upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation

 

 

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1by a licensed clinical psychologist or a psychiatrist.
2    (j) "Severe or profound intellectual disability mental
3retardation" means a manifestation of all of the following
4characteristics:
5        (1) A diagnosis which meets Classification in Mental
6    Retardation or criteria in the current edition of the
7    Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders for
8    severe or profound mental retardation (an IQ of 40 or
9    below). This must be measured by a standardized instrument
10    for general intellectual functioning.
11        (2) A severe or profound level of adaptive behavior.
12    This must be measured by a standardized adaptive behavior
13    scale or informal appraisal by the professional in keeping
14    with illustrations in Classification in Mental
15    Retardation, 1983.
16        (3) Disability diagnosed before age of 18.
17    A determination of a severe or profound intellectual
18disability mental retardation shall be based upon a
19comprehensive, documented assessment with an evaluation by a
20licensed clinical psychologist, certified school psychologist,
21a psychiatrist or other physician licensed to practice medicine
22in all its branches, and shall not be based solely on behaviors
23relating to environmental, cultural or economic differences.
24    (k) "Severe and multiple impairments" means the
25manifestation of all the following characteristics:
26        (1) The evaluation determines the presence of a

 

 

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1    developmental disability which is expected to continue
2    indefinitely, constitutes a substantial handicap and is
3    attributable to any of the following:
4            (A) Intellectual disability Mental retardation,
5        which is defined as general intellectual functioning
6        that is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean
7        concurrent with impairment of adaptive behavior which
8        is 2 or more standard deviations below the mean.
9        Assessment of the individual's intellectual
10        functioning must be measured by a standardized
11        instrument for general intellectual functioning.
12            (B) Cerebral palsy.
13            (C) Epilepsy.
14            (D) Autism.
15            (E) Any other condition which results in
16        impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual
17        disability mental retardation and which requires
18        services similar to those required by intellectually
19        disabled mentally retarded persons.
20        (2) The evaluation determines multiple handicaps in
21    physical, sensory, behavioral or cognitive functioning
22    which constitute a severe or profound impairment
23    attributable to one or more of the following:
24            (A) Physical functioning, which severely impairs
25        the individual's motor performance that may be due to:
26                (i) Neurological, psychological or physical

 

 

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1            involvement resulting in a variety of disabling
2            conditions such as hemiplegia, quadriplegia or
3            ataxia,
4                (ii) Severe organ systems involvement such as
5            congenital heart defect,
6                (iii) Physical abnormalities resulting in the
7            individual being non-mobile and non-ambulatory or
8            confined to bed and receiving assistance in
9            transferring, or
10                (iv) The need for regular medical or nursing
11            supervision such as gastrostomy care and feeding.
12            Assessment of physical functioning must be based
13        on clinical medical assessment, using the appropriate
14        instruments, techniques and standards of measurement
15        required by the professional.
16            (B) Sensory, which involves severe restriction due
17        to hearing or visual impairment limiting the
18        individual's movement and creating dependence in
19        completing most daily activities. Hearing impairment
20        is defined as a loss of 70 decibels aided or speech
21        discrimination of less than 50% aided. Visual
22        impairment is defined as 20/200 corrected in the better
23        eye or a visual field of 20 degrees or less. Sensory
24        functioning must be based on clinical medical
25        assessment using the appropriate instruments,
26        techniques and standards of measurement required by

 

 

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1        the professional.
2            (C) Behavioral, which involves behavior that is
3        maladaptive and presents a danger to self or others, is
4        destructive to property by deliberately breaking,
5        destroying or defacing objects, is disruptive by
6        fighting, or has other socially offensive behaviors in
7        sufficient frequency or severity to seriously limit
8        social integration. Assessment of behavioral
9        functioning may be measured by a standardized scale or
10        informal appraisal by the medical professional.
11            (D) Cognitive, which involves intellectual
12        functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment
13        of cognitive functioning must be measured by a
14        standardized instrument for general intelligence.
15        (3) The evaluation determines that development is
16    substantially less than expected for the age in cognitive,
17    affective or psychomotor behavior as follows:
18            (A) Cognitive, which involves intellectual
19        functioning at a measured IQ of 70 or below. Assessment
20        of cognitive functioning must be measured by a
21        standardized instrument for general intelligence.
22            (B) Affective behavior, which involves over and
23        under responding to stimuli in the environment and may
24        be observed in mood, attention to awareness, or in
25        behaviors such as euphoria, anger or sadness that
26        seriously limit integration into society. Affective

 

 

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1        behavior must be based on clinical medical and
2        psychiatric assessment using the appropriate
3        instruments, techniques and standards of measurement
4        required by the professional.
5            (C) Psychomotor, which includes a severe
6        developmental delay in fine or gross motor skills so
7        that development in self-care, social interaction,
8        communication or physical activity will be greatly
9        delayed or restricted.
10        (4) A determination that the disability originated
11    before the age of 18 years.
12    A determination of severe and multiple impairments shall be
13based upon a comprehensive, documented assessment with an
14evaluation by a licensed clinical psychologist or
15psychiatrist. If the examiner is a licensed clinical
16psychologist, ancillary evaluation of physical impairment,
17cerebral palsy or epilepsy must be made by a physician licensed
18to practice medicine in all its branches.
19    Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary
20evaluation of visual impairment must be made by an
21ophthalmologist or a licensed optometrist.
22    Regardless of the discipline of the examiner, ancillary
23evaluation of hearing impairment must be made by an
24otolaryngologist or an audiologist with a certificate of
25clinical competency.
26    The only exception to the above is in the case of a person

 

 

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1with cerebral palsy or epilepsy who, according to the
2eligibility criteria listed below, has multiple impairments
3which are only physical and sensory. In such a case, a
4physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may
5serve as the examiner.
6(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97.)
 
7    (405 ILCS 80/3-5)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1803-5)
8    Sec. 3-5. The Department shall create application forms
9which shall be used to determine the eligibility of families
10for the Program. The forms shall require at least the following
11items of information which constitute the eligibility criteria
12for participation in the Program:
13    (a) A statement that the family resides in the State of
14Illinois.
15    (b) A statement that the family member is 17 years of age
16or younger.
17    (c) A statement that the family member resides, or is
18expected to reside, with his or her parent or legal guardian,
19or that the family member resides in an out-of-home placement
20with the expectation of residing with the parent or legal
21guardian within 2 months of the date of the application.
22    (d) Verification that the family member has one of the
23following conditions: severe autism, severe mental illness, a
24severe or profound intellectual disability mental retardation,
25or severe and multiple impairments. Verification of the family

 

 

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1member's condition shall be:
2        (1) by the family member's local school district for
3    family members enrolled with a local school district; or
4        (2) by an entity designated by the Department.
5    (e) Verification that the taxable income for the family for
6the year immediately preceding the date of the application did
7not exceed an amount to be established by rule of the
8Department, unless it can be verified that the taxable income
9for the family for the year in which the application is made
10will be less than such amount. The maximum taxable family
11income set by rule of the Department may not be less than
12$65,000 beginning January 1, 2008.
13(Source: P.A. 95-112, eff. 8-13-07.)
 
14    (405 ILCS 80/5-1)  (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1805-1)
15    Sec. 5-1. As the mental health and developmental
16disabilities or intellectual disabilities mental retardation
17authority for the State of Illinois, the Department of Human
18Services shall have the authority to license, certify and
19prescribe standards governing the programs and services
20provided under this Act, as well as all other agencies or
21programs which provide home-based or community-based services
22to the mentally disabled, except those services, programs or
23agencies established under or otherwise subject to the Child
24Care Act of 1969 or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, as now
25or hereafter amended, and this Act shall not be construed to

 

 

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1limit the application of those Acts.
2(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
3    (405 ILCS 80/5-4)
4    Sec. 5-4. Home and Community-Based Services Waivers;
5autism spectrum disorder. A person diagnosed with an autism
6spectrum disorder may be assessed for eligibility for services
7under Home and Community-Based Services Waivers for persons
8with developmental disabilities, without regard to whether
9that person is also diagnosed with an intellectual disability
10mental retardation, so long as the person otherwise meets
11applicable level-of-care criteria under those waivers. This
12amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly does not create any
13new entitlement to a service, program, or benefit, but shall
14not affect any entitlement to a service, program, or benefit
15created by any other law.
16(Source: P.A. 95-251, eff. 8-17-07.)
 
17    (405 ILCS 80/6-1)
18    Sec. 6-1. Community Residential Choices Program.
19    (a) The purpose of this Article is to promote greater
20compatibility among individuals with developmental
21disabilities who live together by allowing individuals with
22developmental disabilities who meet either the emergency or
23critical need criteria of the Department of Human Services as
24defined under the Department's developmental disabilities

 

 

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1cross-disability database (as required by Section 10-26 of the
2Department of Human Services Act), and who also meet the
3Department's developmental disabilities priority population
4criteria for residential services as defined in the
5Department's developmental disabilities Community Services
6Agreement and whose parents are over the age of 60, to choose
7to live together in a community-based residential program.
8    (b) For purposes of this Article:
9    "Community-based residential program" means one of a
10variety of living arrangements for persons with developmental
11disabilities, including existing settings such as
12community-integrated living arrangements, and may also include
13newly developed settings that are consistent with this
14definition.
15    "Developmental disability" may include an autism spectrum
16disorder.
17    (c) A person diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder may
18be assessed for eligibility for services under Home and
19Community-Based Services Waivers for persons with
20developmental disabilities without regard to whether that
21person is also diagnosed with an intellectual disability mental
22retardation, so long as the person otherwise meets applicable
23level-of-care criteria under those waivers. This provision
24does not create any new entitlement to a service, program, or
25benefit, but shall not affect any entitlement to a service,
26program, or benefit created by any other law.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 95-636, eff. 10-5-07.)
 
2    Section 110. The Medical Patient Rights Act is amended by
3changing Section 2.03 as follows:
 
4    (410 ILCS 50/2.03)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 5402.03)
5    Sec. 2.03. "Health care provider" means any public or
6private facility that provides, on an inpatient or outpatient
7basis, preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, convalescent,
8rehabilitation, mental health, or intellectual disability
9mental retardation services, including general or special
10hospitals, skilled nursing homes, extended care facilities,
11intermediate care facilities and mental health centers.
12(Source: P.A. 81-1167.)
 
13    Section 115. The Newborn Metabolic Screening Act is amended
14by changing Section 2 as follows:
 
15    (410 ILCS 240/2)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4904)
16    Sec. 2. The Department of Public Health shall administer
17the provisions of this Act and shall:
18    (a) Institute and carry on an intensive educational program
19among physicians, hospitals, public health nurses and the
20public concerning the diseases phenylketonuria,
21hypothyroidism, galactosemia and other metabolic diseases.
22This educational program shall include information about the

 

 

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1nature of the diseases and examinations for the detection of
2the diseases in early infancy in order that measures may be
3taken to prevent the intellectual disabilities mental
4retardation resulting from the diseases.
5    (a-5) Beginning July 1, 2002, provide all newborns with
6expanded screening tests for the presence of genetic,
7endocrine, or other metabolic disorders, including
8phenylketonuria, galactosemia, hypothyroidism, congenital
9adrenal hyperplasia, biotinidase deficiency, and sickling
10disorders, as well as other amino acid disorders, organic acid
11disorders, fatty acid oxidation disorders, and other
12abnormalities detectable through the use of a tandem mass
13spectrometer. If by July 1, 2002, the Department is unable to
14provide expanded screening using the State Laboratory, it shall
15temporarily provide such screening through an accredited
16laboratory selected by the Department until the Department has
17the capacity to provide screening through the State Laboratory.
18If expanded screening is provided on a temporary basis through
19an accredited laboratory, the Department shall substitute the
20fee charged by the accredited laboratory, plus a 5% surcharge
21for documentation and handling, for the fee authorized in
22subsection (e) of this Section.
23    (a-6) In accordance with the timetable specified in this
24subsection, provide all newborns with expanded screening tests
25for the presence of certain Lysosomal Storage Disorders known
26as Krabbe, Pompe, Gaucher, Fabry, and Niemann-Pick. The testing

 

 

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1shall begin within 6 months following the occurrence of all of
2the following:
3        (i) the registration with the federal Food and Drug
4    Administration of the necessary reagents;
5        (ii) the availability of the necessary reagents from
6    the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention;
7        (iii) the availability of quality assurance testing
8    methodology for these processes; and
9        (iv) the acquisition and installment by the Department
10    of the equipment necessary to implement the expanded
11    screening tests.
12    It is the goal of this amendatory Act of the 95th General
13Assembly that the expanded screening for the specified
14Lysosomal Storage Disorders begins within 3 years after the
15effective date of this Act. The Department is authorized to
16implement an additional fee for the screening prior to
17beginning the testing in order to accumulate the resources for
18start-up and other costs associated with implementation of the
19screening and thereafter to support the costs associated with
20screening and follow-up programs for the specified Lysosomal
21Storage Disorders.
22    (b) Maintain a registry of cases including information of
23importance for the purpose of follow-up services to prevent
24intellectual disabilities mental retardation.
25    (c) Supply the necessary metabolic treatment formulas
26where practicable for diagnosed cases of amino acid metabolism

 

 

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1disorders, including phenylketonuria, organic acid disorders,
2and fatty acid oxidation disorders for as long as medically
3indicated, when the product is not available through other
4State agencies.
5    (d) Arrange for or provide public health nursing, nutrition
6and social services and clinical consultation as indicated.
7    (e) Require that all specimens collected pursuant to this
8Act or the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder be
9submitted for testing to the nearest Department of Public
10Health laboratory designated to perform such tests. The
11Department may develop a reasonable fee structure and may levy
12fees according to such structure to cover the cost of providing
13this testing service. Fees collected from the provision of this
14testing service shall be placed in a special fund in the State
15Treasury, hereafter known as the Metabolic Screening and
16Treatment Fund. Other State and federal funds for expenses
17related to metabolic screening, follow-up and treatment
18programs may also be placed in such Fund. Moneys shall be
19appropriated from such Fund to the Department of Public Health
20solely for the purposes of providing metabolic screening,
21follow-up and treatment programs. Nothing in this Act shall be
22construed to prohibit any licensed medical facility from
23collecting additional specimens for testing for metabolic or
24neonatal diseases or any other diseases or conditions, as it
25deems fit. Any person violating the provisions of this
26subsection (e) is guilty of a petty offense.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 95-695, eff. 11-5-07.)
 
2    Section 120. The Developmental Disability Prevention Act
3is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:
 
4    (410 ILCS 250/2)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2102)
5    Sec. 2.
6    As used in this Act:
7    a "perinatal" means the period of time between the
8conception of an infant and the end of the first month of life;
9    b "congenital" means those intrauterine factors which
10influence the growth, development and function of the fetus;
11    c "environmental" means those extrauterine factors which
12influence the adaptation, well being or life of the newborn and
13may lead to disability;
14    d "high risk" means an increased level of risk of harm or
15mortality to the woman of childbearing age, fetus or newborn
16from congenital and/or environmental factors;
17    e "perinatal center" means a referral facility intended to
18care for the high risk patient before, during, or after labor
19and delivery and characterized by sophistication and
20availability of personnel, equipment, laboratory,
21transportation techniques, consultation and other support
22services;
23    f "developmental disability" means an intellectual
24disability mental retardation, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or

 

 

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1other neurological handicapping conditions of an individual
2found to be closely related to an intellectual disability
3mental retardation or to require treatment similar to that
4required by intellectually disabled mentally retarded
5individuals, and the disability originates before such
6individual attains age 18, and has continued, or can be
7expected to continue indefinitely, and constitutes a
8substantial handicap of such individuals;
9    g "disability" means a condition characterized by
10temporary or permanent, partial or complete impairment of
11physical, mental or physiological function;
12    h "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
13(Source: P.A. 78-557.)
 
14    Section 125. The Communicable Disease Prevention Act is
15amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
 
16    (410 ILCS 315/1)  (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 22.11)
17    Sec. 1. Certain communicable diseases such as measles,
18poliomyelitis, invasive pneumococcal disease, and tetanus, may
19and do result in serious physical and mental disability
20including an intellectual disability mental retardation,
21permanent paralysis, encephalitis, convulsions, pneumonia, and
22not infrequently, death.
23    Most of these diseases attack young children, and if they
24have not been immunized, may spread to other susceptible

 

 

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1children and possibly, adults, thus, posing serious threats to
2the health of the community. Effective, safe and widely used
3vaccines and immunization procedures have been developed and
4are available to prevent these diseases and to limit their
5spread. Even though such immunization procedures are
6available, many children fail to receive this protection either
7through parental oversight, lack of concern, knowledge or
8interest, or lack of available facilities or funds. The
9existence of susceptible children in the community constitutes
10a health hazard to the individual and to the public at large by
11serving as a focus for the spread of these communicable
12diseases.
13    It is declared to be the public policy of this State that
14all children shall be protected, as soon after birth as
15medically indicated, by the appropriate vaccines and
16immunizing procedures to prevent communicable diseases which
17are or which may in the future become preventable by
18immunization.
19(Source: P.A. 95-159, eff. 8-14-07.)
 
20    Section 126. The Arthritis Quality of Life Initiative Act
21is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
 
22    (410 ILCS 503/5)
23    Sec. 5. Legislative findings. The General Assembly finds
24and declares that:

 

 

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1        (1) Arthritis is the most common, physically disabling
2    crippling, and costly chronic disease in the United States;
3    it affects 14.5% of the population or more than 40,000,000
4    Americans of all ages. One in every 7 people and one in
5    every 3 families are affected by the disease.
6        (2) Arthritis is the nation's number one disabling
7    disease and disables 7,000,000 Americans. It is one of the
8    most common and disabling chronic conditions reported by
9    women and far exceeds the reporting of hypertension, heart
10    disease, diabetes, and breast, cervical, and ovarian
11    cancers.
12        (3) With an aggregate cost of about 1.1% of the gross
13    national product or an estimated $64,800,000,000 annually
14    in medical expenses, lost wages, and associated economic
15    losses, arthritis and other rheumatic diseases have a
16    significant economic impact on the nation.
17        (4) As the leading cause of industrial absenteeism
18    after the common cold, arthritis accounts nationally for
19    500,000,000 days of restricted activity and 27,000,000
20    days lost from work each year.
21        (5) The federal Centers for Disease Control and
22    Prevention project that by the year 2020, the incidence of
23    arthritis will increase by 59% in the State and throughout
24    the country, affecting 20% of the population.
25        (6) Programs and services presently are available that
26    can dramatically impact on early diagnosis and treatment as

 

 

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1    well as the quality of life of people with arthritis.
2        (7) A mechanism for broader dissemination of these
3    programs and services aimed at prevention, information,
4    and education is needed to help reduce the physical and
5    emotional impact of arthritis and its associated health
6    care and related costs.
7(Source: P.A. 91-750, eff. 1-1-01.)
 
8    Section 128. The Facilities Requiring Smoke Detectors Act
9is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
 
10    (425 ILCS 10/1)  (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 821)
11    Sec. 1. For purposes of this Act, unless the context
12requires otherwise:
13    (a) "Facility" means:
14        (1) Any long-term care facility as defined in Section
15    1-113 of the Nursing Home Care Act or any facility as
16    defined in Section 1-113 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care
17    Act, as amended;
18        (2) Any community residential alternative as defined
19    in paragraph (4) of Section 3 of the Community Residential
20    Alternatives Licensing Act, as amended; and
21        (3) Any child care facility as defined in Section 2.05
22    of the Child Care Act of 1969, as amended.
23    (b) "Approved smoke detector" or "detector" means a smoke
24detector of the ionization or photoelectric type which complies

 

 

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1with all the requirements of the rules and regulations of the
2Illinois State Fire Marshal.
3(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
4    Section 130. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is
5amended by changing Sections 4 and 8 as follows:
 
6    (430 ILCS 65/4)  (from Ch. 38, par. 83-4)
7    Sec. 4. (a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's
8Identification Card must:
9        (1) Make application on blank forms prepared and
10    furnished at convenient locations throughout the State by
11    the Department of State Police, or by electronic means, if
12    and when made available by the Department of State Police;
13    and
14        (2) Submit evidence to the Department of State Police
15    that:
16            (i) He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he
17        or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the
18        written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian
19        to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition
20        and that he or she has never been convicted of a
21        misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged
22        delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or
23        legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from
24        having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files

 

 

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1        an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the
2        Department stating that he or she is not an individual
3        prohibited from having a Card;
4            (ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony
5        under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;
6            (iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;
7            (iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental
8        institution within the past 5 years and he or she has
9        not been adjudicated as a mental defective;
10            (v) He or she is not intellectually disabled
11        mentally retarded;
12            (vi) He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully
13        present in the United States under the laws of the
14        United States;
15            (vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order
16        of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a
17        firearm;
18            (viii) He or she has not been convicted within the
19        past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault,
20        violation of an order of protection, or a substantially
21        similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a
22        firearm was used or possessed;
23            (ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic
24        battery or a substantially similar offense in another
25        jurisdiction committed on or after the effective date
26        of this amendatory Act of 1997;

 

 

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1            (x) He or she has not been convicted within the
2        past 5 years of domestic battery or a substantially
3        similar offense in another jurisdiction committed
4        before the effective date of this amendatory Act of
5        1997;
6            (xi) He or she is not an alien who has been
7        admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant
8        visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of
9        the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.
10        1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has
11        been lawfully admitted to the United States under a
12        non-immigrant visa if that alien is:
13                (1) admitted to the United States for lawful
14            hunting or sporting purposes;
15                (2) an official representative of a foreign
16            government who is:
17                    (A) accredited to the United States
18                Government or the Government's mission to an
19                international organization having its
20                headquarters in the United States; or
21                    (B) en route to or from another country to
22                which that alien is accredited;
23                (3) an official of a foreign government or
24            distinguished foreign visitor who has been so
25            designated by the Department of State;
26                (4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a

 

 

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1            friendly foreign government entering the United
2            States on official business; or
3                (5) one who has received a waiver from the
4            Attorney General of the United States pursuant to
5            18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);
6            (xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a
7        petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile
8        Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a
9        delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that
10        if committed by an adult would be a felony; and
11            (xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been
12        adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile
13        Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that
14        if committed by an adult would be a felony; and
15        (3) Upon request by the Department of State Police,
16    sign a release on a form prescribed by the Department of
17    State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and
18    requesting the disclosure to the Department of State Police
19    of limited mental health institution admission information
20    from another state, the District of Columbia, any other
21    territory of the United States, or a foreign nation
22    concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of
23    determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a
24    mental health institution and disqualified because of that
25    status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification
26    Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be

 

 

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1    requested. The information received shall be destroyed
2    within one year of receipt.
3    (a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
4Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Department
5of State Police either his or her driver's license number or
6Illinois Identification Card number.
7    (a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
8Card, who is employed as an armed security officer at a nuclear
9energy, storage, weapons, or development facility regulated by
10the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and who is not an Illinois
11resident, shall furnish to the Department of State Police his
12or her driver's license number or state identification card
13number from his or her state of residence. The Department of
14State Police may promulgate rules to enforce the provisions of
15this subsection (a-10).
16    (b) Each application form shall include the following
17statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false
18information on an application for a Firearm Owner's
19Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in
20accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm
21Owners Identification Card Act.".
22    (c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4,
23paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the
24consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the
25applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.
26(Source: P.A. 95-581, eff. 6-1-08.)
 

 

 

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1    (430 ILCS 65/8)  (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)
2    Sec. 8. The Department of State Police has authority to
3deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm
4Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act
5only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person
6to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:
7    (a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted
8of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged
9delinquent;
10    (b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have the
11written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and
12possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or
13guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent
14or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's
15Identification Card;
16    (c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this
17or any other jurisdiction;
18    (d) A person addicted to narcotics;
19    (e) A person who has been a patient of a mental institution
20within the past 5 years or has been adjudicated as a mental
21defective;
22    (f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature
23that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any
24other person or persons or the community;
25    For the purposes of this Section, "mental condition" means

 

 

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1a state of mind manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening or
2assaultive behavior.
3    (g) A person who is intellectually disabled mentally
4retarded;
5    (h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in
6the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;
7    (i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States
8under the laws of the United States;
9    (i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States
10under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section
11101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.
121101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply
13to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United
14States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:
15        (1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or
16    sporting purposes;
17        (2) an official representative of a foreign government
18    who is:
19            (A) accredited to the United States Government or
20        the Government's mission to an international
21        organization having its headquarters in the United
22        States; or
23            (B) en route to or from another country to which
24        that alien is accredited;
25        (3) an official of a foreign government or
26    distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by

 

 

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1    the Department of State;
2        (4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly
3    foreign government entering the United States on official
4    business; or
5        (5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney
6    General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C.
7    922(y)(3);
8    (j) (Blank);
9    (k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years
10of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order
11of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another
12jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;
13    (l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery or
14a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction
15committed on or after January 1, 1998;
16    (m) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years
17of domestic battery or a substantially similar offense in
18another jurisdiction committed before January 1, 1998;
19    (n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing
20firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or
21by federal law;
22    (o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520
23of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a
24delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if
25committed by an adult would be a felony; or
26    (p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor

 

 

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1under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an
2offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony.
3(Source: P.A. 95-581, eff. 6-1-08; 96-701, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
4    Section 135. The Criminal Code of 1961 is amended by
5changing Sections 2-10.1, 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-14.1, 11-15.1,
611-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.3, 12-4.3,
712-14, 12-16, 12-19, 12-21, 17-29, 24-3, 24-3.1, and 26-1 as
8follows:
 
9    (720 ILCS 5/2-10.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 2-10.1)
10    Sec. 2-10.1. "Severely or profoundly intellectually
11disabled mentally retarded person" means a person (i) whose
12intelligence quotient does not exceed 40 or (ii) whose
13intelligence quotient does not exceed 55 and who suffers from
14significant mental illness to the extent that the person's
15ability to exercise rational judgment is impaired. In any
16proceeding in which the defendant is charged with committing a
17violation of Section 10-2, 10-5, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2,
1811-20.1, 12-4.3, 12-14, or 12-16 of this Code against a victim
19who is alleged to be a severely or profoundly intellectually
20disabled mentally retarded person, any findings concerning the
21victim's status as a severely or profoundly intellectually
22disabled mentally retarded person, made by a court after a
23judicial admission hearing concerning the victim under
24Articles V and VI of Chapter 4 of the Mental Health and

 

 

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1Developmental Disabilities Code shall be admissible.
2(Source: P.A. 92-434, eff. 1-1-02.)
 
3    (720 ILCS 5/10-1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 10-1)
4    Sec. 10-1. Kidnapping.
5    (a) A person commits the offense of kidnapping when he or
6she knowingly:
7        (1) and secretly confines another against his or her
8    will;
9        (2) by force or threat of imminent force carries
10    another from one place to another with intent secretly to
11    confine that other person against his or her will; or
12        (3) by deceit or enticement induces another to go from
13    one place to another with intent secretly to confine that
14    other person against his or her will.
15    (b) Confinement of a child under the age of 13 years, or of
16a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
17retarded person, is against that child's or person's will
18within the meaning of this Section if that confinement is
19without the consent of that child's or person's parent or legal
20guardian.
21    (c) Sentence. Kidnapping is a Class 2 felony.
22(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
23    (720 ILCS 5/10-2)  (from Ch. 38, par. 10-2)
24    Sec. 10-2. Aggravated kidnaping.

 

 

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1    (a) A person commits the offense of aggravated kidnaping
2when he or she commits kidnapping and:
3        (1) kidnaps with the intent to obtain ransom from the
4    person kidnaped or from any other person;
5        (2) takes as his or her victim a child under the age of
6    13 years, or a severely or profoundly intellectually
7    disabled mentally retarded person;
8        (3) inflicts great bodily harm, other than by the
9    discharge of a firearm, or commits another felony upon his
10    or her victim;
11        (4) wears a hood, robe, or mask or conceals his or her
12    identity;
13        (5) commits the offense of kidnaping while armed with a
14    dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, as defined in
15    Section 33A-1 of this Code;
16        (6) commits the offense of kidnaping while armed with a
17    firearm;
18        (7) during the commission of the offense of kidnaping,
19    personally discharges a firearm; or
20        (8) during the commission of the offense of kidnaping,
21    personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes
22    great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent
23    disfigurement, or death to another person.
24    As used in this Section, "ransom" includes money, benefit,
25or other valuable thing or concession.
26    (b) Sentence. Aggravated kidnaping in violation of

 

 

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1paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of subsection (a) is a
2Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(6) is a Class X
3felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of
4imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection
5(a)(7) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to
6the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of
7subsection (a)(8) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up
8to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of
9imprisonment imposed by the court.
10    A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense
11of aggravated kidnaping shall be sentenced to a term of natural
12life imprisonment; except that a sentence of natural life
13imprisonment shall not be imposed under this Section unless the
14second or subsequent offense was committed after conviction on
15the first offense.
16(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
17    (720 ILCS 5/10-5)  (from Ch. 38, par. 10-5)
18    Sec. 10-5. Child abduction.
19    (a) For purposes of this Section, the following terms have
20the following meanings:
21        (1) "Child" means a person who, at the time the alleged
22    violation occurred, was under the age of 18 or severely or
23    profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded.
24        (2) "Detains" means taking or retaining physical
25    custody of a child, whether or not the child resists or

 

 

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1    objects.
2        (3) "Lawful custodian" means a person or persons
3    granted legal custody of a child or entitled to physical
4    possession of a child pursuant to a court order. It is
5    presumed that, when the parties have never been married to
6    each other, the mother has legal custody of the child
7    unless a valid court order states otherwise. If an
8    adjudication of paternity has been completed and the father
9    has been assigned support obligations or visitation
10    rights, such a paternity order should, for the purposes of
11    this Section, be considered a valid court order granting
12    custody to the mother.
13        (4) "Putative father" means a man who has a reasonable
14    belief that he is the father of a child born of a woman who
15    is not his wife.
16    (b) A person commits the offense of child abduction when he
17or she does any one of the following:
18        (1) Intentionally violates any terms of a valid court
19    order granting sole or joint custody, care, or possession
20    to another by concealing or detaining the child or removing
21    the child from the jurisdiction of the court.
22        (2) Intentionally violates a court order prohibiting
23    the person from concealing or detaining the child or
24    removing the child from the jurisdiction of the court.
25        (3) Intentionally conceals, detains, or removes the
26    child without the consent of the mother or lawful custodian

 

 

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1    of the child if the person is a putative father and either:
2    (A) the paternity of the child has not been legally
3    established or (B) the paternity of the child has been
4    legally established but no orders relating to custody have
5    been entered. Notwithstanding the presumption created by
6    paragraph (3) of subsection (a), however, a mother commits
7    child abduction when she intentionally conceals or removes
8    a child, whom she has abandoned or relinquished custody of,
9    from an unadjudicated father who has provided sole ongoing
10    care and custody of the child in her absence.
11        (4) Intentionally conceals or removes the child from a
12    parent after filing a petition or being served with process
13    in an action affecting marriage or paternity but prior to
14    the issuance of a temporary or final order determining
15    custody.
16        (5) At the expiration of visitation rights outside the
17    State, intentionally fails or refuses to return or impedes
18    the return of the child to the lawful custodian in
19    Illinois.
20        (6) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents of
21    that child are or have been married and there has been no
22    court order of custody, knowingly conceals the child for 15
23    days, and fails to make reasonable attempts within the
24    15-day period to notify the other parent as to the specific
25    whereabouts of the child, including a means by which to
26    contact the child, or to arrange reasonable visitation or

 

 

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1    contact with the child. It is not a violation of this
2    Section for a person fleeing domestic violence to take the
3    child with him or her to housing provided by a domestic
4    violence program.
5        (7) Being a parent of the child, and if the parents of
6    the child are or have been married and there has been no
7    court order of custody, knowingly conceals, detains, or
8    removes the child with physical force or threat of physical
9    force.
10        (8) Knowingly conceals, detains, or removes the child
11    for payment or promise of payment at the instruction of a
12    person who has no legal right to custody.
13        (9) Knowingly retains in this State for 30 days a child
14    removed from another state without the consent of the
15    lawful custodian or in violation of a valid court order of
16    custody.
17        (10) Intentionally lures or attempts to lure a child
18    under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building,
19    housetrailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the
20    child's parent or lawful custodian for other than a lawful
21    purpose. For the purposes of this item (10), the luring or
22    attempted luring of a child under the age of 16 into a
23    motor vehicle, building, housetrailer, or dwelling place
24    without the consent of the child's parent or lawful
25    custodian is prima facie evidence of other than a lawful
26    purpose.

 

 

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1        (11) With the intent to obstruct or prevent efforts to
2    locate the child victim of a child abduction, knowingly
3    destroys, alters, conceals, or disguises physical evidence
4    or furnishes false information.
5    (c) It is an affirmative defense to subsections (b)(1)
6through (b)(10) of this Section that:
7        (1) the person had custody of the child pursuant to a
8    court order granting legal custody or visitation rights
9    that existed at the time of the alleged violation;
10        (2) the person had physical custody of the child
11    pursuant to a court order granting legal custody or
12    visitation rights and failed to return the child as a
13    result of circumstances beyond his or her control, and the
14    person notified and disclosed to the other parent or legal
15    custodian the specific whereabouts of the child and a means
16    by which the child could be contacted or made a reasonable
17    attempt to notify the other parent or lawful custodian of
18    the child of those circumstances and made the disclosure
19    within 24 hours after the visitation period had expired and
20    returned the child as soon as possible;
21        (3) the person was fleeing an incidence or pattern of
22    domestic violence; or
23        (4) the person lured or attempted to lure a child under
24    the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, housetrailer,
25    or dwelling place for a lawful purpose in prosecutions
26    under paragraph (10) of subsection (b).

 

 

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1    (d) A person convicted of child abduction under this
2Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person convicted of a
3second or subsequent violation of paragraph (10) of subsection
4(b) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony. It is a
5factor in aggravation under subsections (b)(1) through (b)(10)
6of this Section for which a court may impose a more severe
7sentence under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5
8of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections if, upon
9sentencing, the court finds evidence of any of the following
10aggravating factors:
11        (1) that the defendant abused or neglected the child
12    following the concealment, detention, or removal of the
13    child;
14        (2) that the defendant inflicted or threatened to
15    inflict physical harm on a parent or lawful custodian of
16    the child or on the child with intent to cause that parent
17    or lawful custodian to discontinue criminal prosecution of
18    the defendant under this Section;
19        (3) that the defendant demanded payment in exchange for
20    return of the child or demanded that he or she be relieved
21    of the financial or legal obligation to support the child
22    in exchange for return of the child;
23        (4) that the defendant has previously been convicted of
24    child abduction;
25        (5) that the defendant committed the abduction while
26    armed with a deadly weapon or the taking of the child

 

 

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1    resulted in serious bodily injury to another; or
2        (6) that the defendant committed the abduction while in
3    a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; in
4    a playground; on any conveyance owned, leased, or
5    contracted by a school to transport students to or from
6    school or a school related activity; on the real property
7    of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the
8    real property comprising any school or playground. For
9    purposes of this paragraph (6), "playground" means a piece
10    of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government
11    that is designated by the unit of local government for use
12    solely or primarily for children's recreation; and
13    "school" means a public or private elementary or secondary
14    school, community college, college, or university.
15    (e) The court may order the child to be returned to the
16parent or lawful custodian from whom the child was concealed,
17detained, or removed. In addition to any sentence imposed, the
18court may assess any reasonable expense incurred in searching
19for or returning the child against any person convicted of
20violating this Section.
21    (f) Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to
22limit the court's contempt power.
23    (g) Every law enforcement officer investigating an alleged
24incident of child abduction shall make a written police report
25of any bona fide allegation and the disposition of that
26investigation. Every police report completed pursuant to this

 

 

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1Section shall be compiled and recorded within the meaning of
2Section 5.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.
3    (h) Whenever a law enforcement officer has reasons to
4believe a child abduction has occurred, she or he shall provide
5the lawful custodian a summary of her or his rights under this
6Code, including the procedures and relief available to her or
7him.
8    (i) If during the course of an investigation under this
9Section the child is found in the physical custody of the
10defendant or another, the law enforcement officer shall return
11the child to the parent or lawful custodian from whom the child
12was concealed, detained, or removed, unless there is good cause
13for the law enforcement officer or the Department of Children
14and Family Services to retain temporary protective custody of
15the child pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting
16Act.
17(Source: P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; ;
1896-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
19    (720 ILCS 5/11-14.1)
20    Sec. 11-14.1. Solicitation of a sexual act.
21    (a) Any person who offers a person not his or her spouse
22any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of
23value for that person or any other person not his or her spouse
24to perform any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section
2512-12 of this Code, or any touching or fondling of the sex

 

 

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1organs of one person by another person for the purpose of
2sexual arousal or gratification, commits the offense of
3solicitation of a sexual act.
4    (b) Sentence. Solicitation of a sexual act is a Class A
5misdemeanor. Solicitation of a sexual act from a person who is
6under the age of 18 or who is severely or profoundly
7intellectually disabled mentally retarded is a Class 4 felony.
8    (b-5) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of
9solicitation of a sexual act with a person who is under the age
10of 18 or who is severely or profoundly intellectually disabled
11mentally retarded that the accused reasonably believed the
12person was of the age of 18 years or over or was not a severely
13or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person
14at the time of the act giving rise to the charge.
15(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10.)
 
16    (720 ILCS 5/11-15.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 11-15.1)
17    Sec. 11-15.1. Soliciting for a minor engaged in
18prostitution.
19    (a) Any person who violates any of the provisions of
20Section 11-15(a) of this Act commits soliciting for a minor
21engaged in prostitution where the person for whom such person
22is soliciting is under 18 years of age or is a severely or
23profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person.
24    (b) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of soliciting
25for a minor engaged in prostitution that the accused reasonably

 

 

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1believed the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was
2not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
3retarded person at the time of the act giving rise to the
4charge.
5    (c) Sentence.
6    Soliciting for a minor engaged in prostitution is a Class 1
7felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation
8of this Section, or of any combination of such number of
9convictions under this Section and Sections 11-14, 11-14.1,
1011-15, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1,
11or 11-19.2 of this Code, is guilty of a Class X felony. The
12fact of such prior conviction is not an element of the offense
13and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless
14otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during the trial.
15    (c-5) A person who violates this Section within 1,000 feet
16of real property comprising a school commits a Class X felony.
17(Source: P.A. 95-95, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10.)
 
18    (720 ILCS 5/11-17.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 11-17.1)
19    Sec. 11-17.1. Keeping a Place of Juvenile Prostitution.
20    (a) Any person who knowingly violates any of the provisions
21of Section 11-17 of this Act commits keeping a place of
22juvenile prostitution when any person engaged in prostitution
23in the place of prostitution is under 18 years of age or is a
24severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
25retarded person.

 

 

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1    (b) If the accused did not have a reasonable opportunity to
2observe the person, it is an affirmative defense to a charge of
3keeping a place of juvenile prostitution that the accused
4reasonably believed the person was of the age of 18 years or
5over or was not a severely or profoundly intellectually
6disabled mentally retarded person at the time of the act giving
7rise to the charge.
8    (c) Sentence. Keeping a place of juvenile prostitution is a
9Class 1 felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent
10violation of this Section, or of any combination of such number
11of convictions under this Section and Sections 11-14, 11-14.1,
1211-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1,
13or 11-19.2 of this Code, is guilty of a Class X felony.
14    (d) Forfeiture. Any person convicted under this Section is
15subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in
16Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
17(Source: P.A. 95-95, eff. 1-1-08; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1464,
18eff. 8-20-10.)
 
19    (720 ILCS 5/11-18.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 11-18.1)
20    Sec. 11-18.1. Patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution.
21    (a) Any person who engages in an act of sexual penetration
22as defined in Section 12-12 of this Code with a person engaged
23in prostitution who is under 18 years of age or is a severely
24or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person
25commits the offense of patronizing a minor engaged in

 

 

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1prostitution.
2    (b) It is an affirmative defense to the charge of
3patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution that the accused
4reasonably believed that the person was of the age of 18 years
5or over or was not a severely or profoundly intellectually
6disabled mentally retarded person at the time of the act giving
7rise to the charge.
8    (c) Sentence. A person who commits patronizing a juvenile
9prostitute is guilty of a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of
10a second or subsequent violation of this Section, or of any
11combination of such number of convictions under this Section
12and Sections 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17,
1311-17.1, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, or 11-19.2 of this Code, is
14guilty of a Class 2 felony. The fact of such conviction is not
15an element of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury
16during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly
17raised during such trial. A person who violates this Section
18within 1,000 feet of real property comprising a school commits
19a Class 2 felony.
20(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10.)
 
21    (720 ILCS 5/11-19.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 11-19.1)
22    Sec. 11-19.1. Juvenile Pimping and aggravated juvenile
23pimping.
24    (a) A person commits the offense of juvenile pimping if the
25person knowingly receives any form of consideration derived

 

 

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1from the practice of prostitution, in whole or in part, and
2        (1) the prostituted person was under the age of 18 at
3    the time the act of prostitution occurred; or
4        (2) the prostitute was a severely or profoundly
5    intellectually disabled mentally retarded person at the
6    time the act of prostitution occurred.
7    (b) A person commits the offense of aggravated juvenile
8pimping if the person knowingly receives any form of
9consideration derived from the practice of prostitution, in
10whole or in part, and the prostituted person was under the age
11of 13 at the time the act of prostitution occurred.
12    (c) If the accused did not have a reasonable opportunity to
13observe the prostituted person, it is an affirmative defense to
14a charge of juvenile pimping that the accused reasonably
15believed the person was of the age of 18 years or over or was
16not a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
17retarded person at the time of the act giving rise to the
18charge.
19    (d) Sentence.
20    A person who commits a violation of subsection (a) is
21guilty of a Class 1 felony. A person convicted of a second or
22subsequent violation of this Section, or of any combination of
23such number of convictions under this Section and Sections
2411-14, 11-14.1, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18,
2511-18.1, 11-19, or 11-19.2 of this Code, is guilty of a Class X
26felony. A person who commits a violation of subsection (b) is

 

 

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1guilty of a Class X felony.
2    (e) For the purposes of this Section, "prostituted person"
3means any person who engages in, or agrees or offers to engage
4in, any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 12-12
5of this Code for any money, property, token, object, or article
6or anything of value, or any touching or fondling of the sex
7organs of one person by another person, for any money,
8property, token, object, or article or anything of value, for
9the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification.
10(Source: P.A. 95-95, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10.)
 
11    (720 ILCS 5/11-19.2)  (from Ch. 38, par. 11-19.2)
12    Sec. 11-19.2. Exploitation of a child.
13    (A) A person commits exploitation of a child when he or she
14confines a child under the age of 18 or a severely or
15profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person
16against his or her will by the infliction or threat of imminent
17infliction of great bodily harm, permanent disability or
18disfigurement or by administering to the child or severely or
19profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person
20without his or her consent or by threat or deception and for
21other than medical purposes, any alcoholic intoxicant or a drug
22as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the
23Cannabis Control Act or methamphetamine as defined in the
24Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and:
25        (1) compels the child or severely or profoundly

 

 

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1    intellectually disabled mentally retarded person to engage
2    in prostitution; or
3        (2) arranges a situation in which the child or severely
4    or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
5    person may practice prostitution; or
6        (3) receives any money, property, token, object, or
7    article or anything of value from the child or severely or
8    profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
9    person knowing it was obtained in whole or in part from the
10    practice of prostitution.
11    (B) For purposes of this Section, administering drugs, as
12defined in subsection (A), or an alcoholic intoxicant to a
13child under the age of 13 or a severely or profoundly
14intellectually disabled mentally retarded person shall be
15deemed to be without consent if such administering is done
16without the consent of the parents or legal guardian or if such
17administering is performed by the parents or legal guardians
18for other than medical purposes.
19    (C) Exploitation of a child is a Class X felony, for which
20the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not
21less than 6 years and not more than 60 years.
22    (D) Any person convicted under this Section is subject to
23the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of
24the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
25(Source: P.A. 95-640, eff. 6-1-08; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10;
2696-1464, eff. 8-20-10.)
 

 

 

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1    (720 ILCS 5/11-20.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 11-20.1)
2    Sec. 11-20.1. Child pornography.
3    (a) A person commits the offense of child pornography who:
4        (1) films, videotapes, photographs, or otherwise
5    depicts or portrays by means of any similar visual medium
6    or reproduction or depicts by computer any child whom he
7    knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18
8    or any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled
9    mentally retarded person where such child or severely or
10    profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
11    person is:
12            (i) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of
13        sexual penetration or sexual conduct with any person or
14        animal; or
15            (ii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act
16        of sexual penetration or sexual conduct involving the
17        sex organs of the child or severely or profoundly
18        intellectually disabled mentally retarded person and
19        the mouth, anus, or sex organs of another person or
20        animal; or which involves the mouth, anus or sex organs
21        of the child or severely or profoundly intellectually
22        disabled mentally retarded person and the sex organs of
23        another person or animal; or
24            (iii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act
25        of masturbation; or

 

 

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1            (iv) actually or by simulation portrayed as being
2        the object of, or otherwise engaged in, any act of lewd
3        fondling, touching, or caressing involving another
4        person or animal; or
5            (v) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of
6        excretion or urination within a sexual context; or
7            (vi) actually or by simulation portrayed or
8        depicted as bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic,
9        masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in any sexual
10        context; or
11            (vii) depicted or portrayed in any pose, posture or
12        setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or
13        transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks,
14        or, if such person is female, a fully or partially
15        developed breast of the child or other person; or
16        (2) with the knowledge of the nature or content
17    thereof, reproduces, disseminates, offers to disseminate,
18    exhibits or possesses with intent to disseminate any film,
19    videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction
20    or depiction by computer of any child or severely or
21    profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
22    person whom the person knows or reasonably should know to
23    be under the age of 18 or to be a severely or profoundly
24    intellectually disabled mentally retarded person, engaged
25    in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through
26    (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or

 

 

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1        (3) with knowledge of the subject matter or theme
2    thereof, produces any stage play, live performance, film,
3    videotape or other similar visual portrayal or depiction by
4    computer which includes a child whom the person knows or
5    reasonably should know to be under the age of 18 or a
6    severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
7    retarded person engaged in any activity described in
8    subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this
9    subsection; or
10        (4) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or
11    coerces any child whom he knows or reasonably should know
12    to be under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly
13    intellectually disabled mentally retarded person to appear
14    in any stage play, live presentation, film, videotape,
15    photograph or other similar visual reproduction or
16    depiction by computer in which the child or severely or
17    profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
18    person is or will be depicted, actually or by simulation,
19    in any act, pose or setting described in subparagraphs (i)
20    through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or
21        (5) is a parent, step-parent, legal guardian or other
22    person having care or custody of a child whom the person
23    knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 18
24    or a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled
25    mentally retarded person and who knowingly permits,
26    induces, promotes, or arranges for such child or severely

 

 

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1    or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
2    person to appear in any stage play, live performance, film,
3    videotape, photograph or other similar visual
4    presentation, portrayal or simulation or depiction by
5    computer of any act or activity described in subparagraphs
6    (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or
7        (6) with knowledge of the nature or content thereof,
8    possesses any film, videotape, photograph or other similar
9    visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child
10    or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
11    retarded person whom the person knows or reasonably should
12    know to be under the age of 18 or to be a severely or
13    profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
14    person, engaged in any activity described in subparagraphs
15    (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or
16        (7) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or
17    coerces a person to provide a child under the age of 18 or
18    a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
19    retarded person to appear in any videotape, photograph,
20    film, stage play, live presentation, or other similar
21    visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which the
22    child or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled
23    mentally retarded person will be depicted, actually or by
24    simulation, in any act, pose, or setting described in
25    subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this
26    subsection.

 

 

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1    (b) (1) It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge of
2    child pornography that the defendant reasonably believed,
3    under all of the circumstances, that the child was 18 years
4    of age or older or that the person was not a severely or
5    profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
6    person but only where, prior to the act or acts giving rise
7    to a prosecution under this Section, he took some
8    affirmative action or made a bonafide inquiry designed to
9    ascertain whether the child was 18 years of age or older or
10    that the person was not a severely or profoundly
11    intellectually disabled mentally retarded person and his
12    reliance upon the information so obtained was clearly
13    reasonable.
14        (2) (Blank).
15        (3) The charge of child pornography shall not apply to
16    the performance of official duties by law enforcement or
17    prosecuting officers or persons employed by law
18    enforcement or prosecuting agencies, court personnel or
19    attorneys, nor to bonafide treatment or professional
20    education programs conducted by licensed physicians,
21    psychologists or social workers.
22        (4) Possession by the defendant of more than one of the
23    same film, videotape or visual reproduction or depiction by
24    computer in which child pornography is depicted shall raise
25    a rebuttable presumption that the defendant possessed such
26    materials with the intent to disseminate them.

 

 

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1        (5) The charge of child pornography does not apply to a
2    person who does not voluntarily possess a film, videotape,
3    or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in which
4    child pornography is depicted. Possession is voluntary if
5    the defendant knowingly procures or receives a film,
6    videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction for a
7    sufficient time to be able to terminate his or her
8    possession.
9        (6) Any violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5),
10    or (7) of subsection (a) that includes a child engaged in,
11    solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual
12    penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic,
13    masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context
14    shall be deemed a crime of violence.
15    (c) Violation of paragraph (1), (4), (5), or (7) of
16subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a mandatory minimum
17fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000. Violation of
18paragraph (3) of subsection (a) is a Class 1 felony with a
19mandatory minimum fine of $1500 and a maximum fine of $100,000.
20Violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 1
21felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum
22fine of $100,000. Violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a)
23is a Class 3 felony with a mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and
24a maximum fine of $100,000.
25    (d) If a person is convicted of a second or subsequent
26violation of this Section within 10 years of a prior

 

 

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1conviction, the court shall order a presentence psychiatric
2examination of the person. The examiner shall report to the
3court whether treatment of the person is necessary.
4    (e) Any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual
5reproduction or depiction by computer which includes a child
6under the age of 18 or a severely or profoundly intellectually
7disabled mentally retarded person engaged in any activity
8described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) or paragraph 1 of
9subsection (a), and any material or equipment used or intended
10for use in photographing, filming, printing, producing,
11reproducing, manufacturing, projecting, exhibiting, depiction
12by computer, or disseminating such material shall be seized and
13forfeited in the manner, method and procedure provided by
14Section 36-1 of this Code for the seizure and forfeiture of
15vessels, vehicles and aircraft.
16    In addition, any person convicted under this Section is
17subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in
18Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
19    (e-5) Upon the conclusion of a case brought under this
20Section, the court shall seal all evidence depicting a victim
21or witness that is sexually explicit. The evidence may be
22unsealed and viewed, on a motion of the party seeking to unseal
23and view the evidence, only for good cause shown and in the
24discretion of the court. The motion must expressly set forth
25the purpose for viewing the material. The State's attorney and
26the victim, if possible, shall be provided reasonable notice of

 

 

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1the hearing on the motion to unseal the evidence. Any person
2entitled to notice of a hearing under this subsection (e-5) may
3object to the motion.
4    (f) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:
5        (1) "Disseminate" means (i) to sell, distribute,
6    exchange or transfer possession, whether with or without
7    consideration or (ii) to make a depiction by computer
8    available for distribution or downloading through the
9    facilities of any telecommunications network or through
10    any other means of transferring computer programs or data
11    to a computer.
12        (2) "Produce" means to direct, promote, advertise,
13    publish, manufacture, issue, present or show.
14        (3) "Reproduce" means to make a duplication or copy.
15        (4) "Depict by computer" means to generate or create,
16    or cause to be created or generated, a computer program or
17    data that, after being processed by a computer either alone
18    or in conjunction with one or more computer programs,
19    results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor,
20    screen, or display.
21        (5) "Depiction by computer" means a computer program or
22    data that, after being processed by a computer either alone
23    or in conjunction with one or more computer programs,
24    results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor,
25    screen, or display.
26        (6) "Computer", "computer program", and "data" have

 

 

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1    the meanings ascribed to them in Section 16D-2 of this
2    Code.
3        (7) "Child" includes a film, videotape, photograph, or
4    other similar visual medium or reproduction or depiction by
5    computer that is, or appears to be, that of a person,
6    either in part, or in total, under the age of 18,
7    regardless of the method by which the film, videotape,
8    photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction
9    or depiction by computer is created, adopted, or modified
10    to appear as such. "Child" also includes a film, videotape,
11    photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction
12    or depiction by computer that is advertised, promoted,
13    presented, described, or distributed in such a manner that
14    conveys the impression that the film, videotape,
15    photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction
16    or depiction by computer is of a person under the age of
17    18.
18        (8) "Sexual penetration" and "sexual conduct" have the
19    meanings ascribed to them in Section 12-12 of this Code.
20    (g) Re-enactment; findings; purposes.
21        (1) The General Assembly finds and declares that:
22            (i) Section 50-5 of Public Act 88-680, effective
23        January 1, 1995, contained provisions amending the
24        child pornography statute, Section 11-20.1 of the
25        Criminal Code of 1961. Section 50-5 also contained
26        other provisions.

 

 

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1            (ii) In addition, Public Act 88-680 was entitled
2        "AN ACT to create a Safe Neighborhoods Law". (A)
3        Article 5 was entitled JUVENILE JUSTICE and amended the
4        Juvenile Court Act of 1987. (B) Article 15 was entitled
5        GANGS and amended various provisions of the Criminal
6        Code of 1961 and the Unified Code of Corrections. (C)
7        Article 20 was entitled ALCOHOL ABUSE and amended
8        various provisions of the Illinois Vehicle Code. (D)
9        Article 25 was entitled DRUG ABUSE and amended the
10        Cannabis Control Act and the Illinois Controlled
11        Substances Act. (E) Article 30 was entitled FIREARMS
12        and amended the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Code of
13        Criminal Procedure of 1963. (F) Article 35 amended the
14        Criminal Code of 1961, the Rights of Crime Victims and
15        Witnesses Act, and the Unified Code of Corrections. (G)
16        Article 40 amended the Criminal Code of 1961 to
17        increase the penalty for compelling organization
18        membership of persons. (H) Article 45 created the
19        Secure Residential Youth Care Facility Licensing Act
20        and amended the State Finance Act, the Juvenile Court
21        Act of 1987, the Unified Code of Corrections, and the
22        Private Correctional Facility Moratorium Act. (I)
23        Article 50 amended the WIC Vendor Management Act, the
24        Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Juvenile
25        Court Act of 1987, the Criminal Code of 1961, the
26        Wrongs to Children Act, and the Unified Code of

 

 

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1        Corrections.
2            (iii) On September 22, 1998, the Third District
3        Appellate Court in People v. Dainty, 701 N.E. 2d 118,
4        ruled that Public Act 88-680 violates the single
5        subject clause of the Illinois Constitution (Article
6        IV, Section 8 (d)) and was unconstitutional in its
7        entirety. As of the time this amendatory Act of 1999
8        was prepared, People v. Dainty was still subject to
9        appeal.
10            (iv) Child pornography is a vital concern to the
11        people of this State and the validity of future
12        prosecutions under the child pornography statute of
13        the Criminal Code of 1961 is in grave doubt.
14        (2) It is the purpose of this amendatory Act of 1999 to
15    prevent or minimize any problems relating to prosecutions
16    for child pornography that may result from challenges to
17    the constitutional validity of Public Act 88-680 by
18    re-enacting the Section relating to child pornography that
19    was included in Public Act 88-680.
20        (3) This amendatory Act of 1999 re-enacts Section
21    11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961, as it has been
22    amended. This re-enactment is intended to remove any
23    question as to the validity or content of that Section; it
24    is not intended to supersede any other Public Act that
25    amends the text of the Section as set forth in this
26    amendatory Act of 1999. The material is shown as existing

 

 

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1    text (i.e., without underscoring) because, as of the time
2    this amendatory Act of 1999 was prepared, People v. Dainty
3    was subject to appeal to the Illinois Supreme Court.
4        (4) The re-enactment by this amendatory Act of 1999 of
5    Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 relating to
6    child pornography that was amended by Public Act 88-680 is
7    not intended, and shall not be construed, to imply that
8    Public Act 88-680 is invalid or to limit or impair any
9    legal argument concerning whether those provisions were
10    substantially re-enacted by other Public Acts.
11(Source: P.A. ; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10;
1296-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
13    (720 ILCS 5/11-20.3)
14    Sec. 11-20.3. Aggravated child pornography.
15    (a) A person commits the offense of aggravated child
16pornography who:
17        (1) films, videotapes, photographs, or otherwise
18    depicts or portrays by means of any similar visual medium
19    or reproduction or depicts by computer any child whom he or
20    she knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of
21    13 years where such child is:
22            (i) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of
23        sexual penetration or sexual conduct with any person or
24        animal; or
25            (ii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act

 

 

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1        of sexual penetration or sexual conduct involving the
2        sex organs of the child and the mouth, anus, or sex
3        organs of another person or animal; or which involves
4        the mouth, anus or sex organs of the child and the sex
5        organs of another person or animal; or
6            (iii) actually or by simulation engaged in any act
7        of masturbation; or
8            (iv) actually or by simulation portrayed as being
9        the object of, or otherwise engaged in, any act of lewd
10        fondling, touching, or caressing involving another
11        person or animal; or
12            (v) actually or by simulation engaged in any act of
13        excretion or urination within a sexual context; or
14            (vi) actually or by simulation portrayed or
15        depicted as bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic,
16        masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in any sexual
17        context; or
18            (vii) depicted or portrayed in any pose, posture or
19        setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or
20        transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks,
21        or, if such person is female, a fully or partially
22        developed breast of the child or other person; or
23        (2) with the knowledge of the nature or content
24    thereof, reproduces, disseminates, offers to disseminate,
25    exhibits or possesses with intent to disseminate any film,
26    videotape, photograph or other similar visual reproduction

 

 

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1    or depiction by computer of any child whom the person knows
2    or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 engaged
3    in any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through
4    (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or
5        (3) with knowledge of the subject matter or theme
6    thereof, produces any stage play, live performance, film,
7    videotape or other similar visual portrayal or depiction by
8    computer which includes a child whom the person knows or
9    reasonably should know to be under the age of 13 engaged in
10    any activity described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii)
11    of paragraph (1) of this subsection; or
12        (4) solicits, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or
13    coerces any child whom he or she knows or reasonably should
14    know to be under the age of 13 to appear in any stage play,
15    live presentation, film, videotape, photograph or other
16    similar visual reproduction or depiction by computer in
17    which the child or severely or profoundly intellectually
18    disabled mentally retarded person is or will be depicted,
19    actually or by simulation, in any act, pose or setting
20    described in subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph
21    (1) of this subsection; or
22        (5) is a parent, step-parent, legal guardian or other
23    person having care or custody of a child whom the person
24    knows or reasonably should know to be under the age of 13
25    and who knowingly permits, induces, promotes, or arranges
26    for such child to appear in any stage play, live

 

 

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1    performance, film, videotape, photograph or other similar
2    visual presentation, portrayal or simulation or depiction
3    by computer of any act or activity described in
4    subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this
5    subsection; or
6        (6) with knowledge of the nature or content thereof,
7    possesses any film, videotape, photograph or other similar
8    visual reproduction or depiction by computer of any child
9    whom the person knows or reasonably should know to be under
10    the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in
11    subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of this
12    subsection; or
13        (7) solicits, or knowingly uses, persuades, induces,
14    entices, or coerces a person to provide a child under the
15    age of 13 to appear in any videotape, photograph, film,
16    stage play, live presentation, or other similar visual
17    reproduction or depiction by computer in which the child
18    will be depicted, actually or by simulation, in any act,
19    pose, or setting described in subparagraphs (i) through
20    (vii) of paragraph (1) of this subsection.
21    (b)(1) It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge of
22aggravated child pornography that the defendant reasonably
23believed, under all of the circumstances, that the child was 13
24years of age or older, but only where, prior to the act or acts
25giving rise to a prosecution under this Section, he or she took
26some affirmative action or made a bonafide inquiry designed to

 

 

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1ascertain whether the child was 13 years of age or older and
2his or her reliance upon the information so obtained was
3clearly reasonable.
4    (2) The charge of aggravated child pornography shall not
5apply to the performance of official duties by law enforcement
6or prosecuting officers or persons employed by law enforcement
7or prosecuting agencies, court personnel or attorneys, nor to
8bonafide treatment or professional education programs
9conducted by licensed physicians, psychologists or social
10workers.
11    (3) If the defendant possessed more than 3 of the same
12film, videotape or visual reproduction or depiction by computer
13in which aggravated child pornography is depicted, then the
14trier of fact may infer that the defendant possessed such
15materials with the intent to disseminate them.
16    (4) The charge of aggravated child pornography does not
17apply to a person who does not voluntarily possess a film,
18videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction by computer in
19which aggravated child pornography is depicted. Possession is
20voluntary if the defendant knowingly procures or receives a
21film, videotape, or visual reproduction or depiction for a
22sufficient time to be able to terminate his or her possession.
23    (5) Any violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or
24(7) of subsection (a) that includes a child engaged in,
25solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual
26penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic,

 

 

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1masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context shall
2be deemed a crime of violence.
3    (c) Sentence: (1) A person who commits a violation of
4paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) is
5guilty of a Class X felony with a mandatory minimum fine of
6$2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.
7    (2) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (6) of
8subsection (a) is guilty of a Class 2 felony with a mandatory
9minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.
10    (3) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (1), (2),
11(3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) where the defendant has
12previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any
13other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated
14child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse,
15aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual
16assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as
17rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child,
18or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim
19was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is
20substantially equivalent to those offenses, is guilty of a
21Class X felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a
22term of imprisonment of not less than 9 years with a mandatory
23minimum fine of $2,000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.
24    (4) A person who commits a violation of paragraph (6) of
25subsection (a) where the defendant has previously been
26convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of

 

 

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1the offense of child pornography, aggravated child
2pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated
3criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a
4child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate
5sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated
6indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the
7age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent
8to those offenses, is guilty of a Class 1 felony with a
9mandatory minimum fine of $1000 and a maximum fine of $100,000.
10    (d) If a person is convicted of a second or subsequent
11violation of this Section within 10 years of a prior
12conviction, the court shall order a presentence psychiatric
13examination of the person. The examiner shall report to the
14court whether treatment of the person is necessary.
15    (e) Any film, videotape, photograph or other similar visual
16reproduction or depiction by computer which includes a child
17under the age of 13 engaged in any activity described in
18subparagraphs (i) through (vii) of paragraph (1) of subsection
19(a), and any material or equipment used or intended for use in
20photographing, filming, printing, producing, reproducing,
21manufacturing, projecting, exhibiting, depiction by computer,
22or disseminating such material shall be seized and forfeited in
23the manner, method and procedure provided by Section 36-1 of
24this Code for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles
25and aircraft.
26    In addition, any person convicted under this Section is

 

 

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1subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in
2Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
3    (e-5) Upon the conclusion of a case brought under this
4Section, the court shall seal all evidence depicting a victim
5or witness that is sexually explicit. The evidence may be
6unsealed and viewed, on a motion of the party seeking to unseal
7and view the evidence, only for good cause shown and in the
8discretion of the court. The motion must expressly set forth
9the purpose for viewing the material. The State's attorney and
10the victim, if possible, shall be provided reasonable notice of
11the hearing on the motion to unseal the evidence. Any person
12entitled to notice of a hearing under this subsection (e-5) may
13object to the motion.
14    (f) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:
15        (1) "Disseminate" means (i) to sell, distribute,
16    exchange or transfer possession, whether with or without
17    consideration or (ii) to make a depiction by computer
18    available for distribution or downloading through the
19    facilities of any telecommunications network or through
20    any other means of transferring computer programs or data
21    to a computer.
22        (2) "Produce" means to direct, promote, advertise,
23    publish, manufacture, issue, present or show.
24        (3) "Reproduce" means to make a duplication or copy.
25        (4) "Depict by computer" means to generate or create,
26    or cause to be created or generated, a computer program or

 

 

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1    data that, after being processed by a computer either alone
2    or in conjunction with one or more computer programs,
3    results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor,
4    screen, or display.
5        (5) "Depiction by computer" means a computer program or
6    data that, after being processed by a computer either alone
7    or in conjunction with one or more computer programs,
8    results in a visual depiction on a computer monitor,
9    screen, or display.
10        (6) "Computer", "computer program", and "data" have
11    the meanings ascribed to them in Section 16D-2 of this
12    Code.
13        (7) For the purposes of this Section, "child" means a
14    person, either in part or in total, under the age of 13,
15    regardless of the method by which the film, videotape,
16    photograph, or other similar visual medium or reproduction
17    or depiction by computer is created, adopted, or modified
18    to appear as such.
19        (8) "Sexual penetration" and "sexual conduct" have the
20    meanings ascribed to them in Section 12-12 of this Code.
21    (g) When a charge of aggravated child pornography is
22brought, the age of the child is an element of the offense to
23be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not
24exceeding the age in question. The trier of fact can rely on
25its own everyday observations and common experiences in making
26this determination.

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 95-579, eff. 6-1-08; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-712,
2eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
 
3    (720 ILCS 5/12-4.3)  (from Ch. 38, par. 12-4.3)
4    Sec. 12-4.3. Aggravated battery of a child.
5    (a) Any person of the age 18 years and upwards who
6intentionally or knowingly, and without legal justification
7and by any means, causes great bodily harm or permanent
8disability or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13
9years or to any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled
10mentally retarded person, commits the offense of aggravated
11battery of a child.
12    (a-5) Any person of the age 18 years and upwards who
13intentionally or knowingly, and without legal justification
14and by any means, causes bodily harm or disability or
15disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years or to any
16severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
17retarded person, commits the offense of aggravated battery of a
18child.
19    (b) Sentence.
20    (1) Aggravated battery of a child under subsection (a) of
21this Section is a Class X felony, except that:
22        (A) if the person committed the offense while armed
23    with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of
24    imprisonment imposed by the court;
25        (B) if, during the commission of the offense, the

 

 

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1    person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be
2    added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;
3        (C) if, during the commission of the offense, the
4    person personally discharged a firearm that proximately
5    caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent
6    disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up
7    to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of
8    imprisonment imposed by the court.
9    (2) Aggravated battery of a child under subsection (a-5) of
10this Section is a Class 3 felony.
11(Source: P.A. 95-768, eff. 1-1-09.)
 
12    (720 ILCS 5/12-14)  (from Ch. 38, par. 12-14)
13    Sec. 12-14. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Assault.
14    (a) The accused commits aggravated criminal sexual assault
15if he or she commits criminal sexual assault and any of the
16following aggravating circumstances existed during, or for the
17purposes of paragraph (7) of this subsection (a) as part of the
18same course of conduct as, the commission of the offense:
19        (1) the accused displayed, threatened to use, or used a
20    dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, or any object
21    fashioned or utilized in such a manner as to lead the
22    victim under the circumstances reasonably to believe it to
23    be a dangerous weapon; or
24        (2) the accused caused bodily harm, except as provided
25    in subsection (a)(10), to the victim; or

 

 

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1        (3) the accused acted in such a manner as to threaten
2    or endanger the life of the victim or any other person; or
3        (4) the criminal sexual assault was perpetrated during
4    the course of the commission or attempted commission of any
5    other felony by the accused; or
6        (5) the victim was 60 years of age or over when the
7    offense was committed; or
8        (6) the victim was a physically handicapped person; or
9        (7) the accused delivered (by injection, inhalation,
10    ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) to
11    the victim without his or her consent, or by threat or
12    deception, and for other than medical purposes, any
13    controlled substance; or
14        (8) the accused was armed with a firearm; or
15        (9) the accused personally discharged a firearm during
16    the commission of the offense; or
17        (10) the accused, during the commission of the offense,
18    personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused
19    great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent
20    disfigurement, or death to another person.
21    (b) The accused commits aggravated criminal sexual assault
22if the accused was under 17 years of age and (i) commits an act
23of sexual penetration with a victim who was under 9 years of
24age when the act was committed; or (ii) commits an act of
25sexual penetration with a victim who was at least 9 years of
26age but under 13 years of age when the act was committed and

 

 

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1the accused used force or threat of force to commit the act.
2    (c) The accused commits aggravated criminal sexual assault
3if he or she commits an act of sexual penetration with a victim
4who was a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled
5mentally retarded person at the time the act was committed.
6    (d) Sentence.
7        (1) Aggravated criminal sexual assault in violation of
8    paragraph (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) of subsection (a)
9    or in violation of subsection (b) or (c) is a Class X
10    felony. A violation of subsection (a)(1) is a Class X
11    felony for which 10 years shall be added to the term of
12    imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of
13    subsection (a)(8) is a Class X felony for which 15 years
14    shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the
15    court. A violation of subsection (a)(9) is a Class X felony
16    for which 20 years shall be added to the term of
17    imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of
18    subsection (a)(10) is a Class X felony for which 25 years
19    or up to a term of natural life imprisonment shall be added
20    to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.
21        (2) A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent
22    offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, or who is
23    convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual
24    assault after having previously been convicted of the
25    offense of criminal sexual assault or the offense of
26    predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or who is

 

 

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1    convicted of the offense of aggravated criminal sexual
2    assault after having previously been convicted under the
3    laws of this or any other state of an offense that is
4    substantially equivalent to the offense of criminal sexual
5    assault, the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault
6    or the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a
7    child, shall be sentenced to a term of natural life
8    imprisonment. The commission of the second or subsequent
9    offense is required to have been after the initial
10    conviction for this paragraph (2) to apply.
11(Source: P.A. 91-404, eff. 1-1-00; 92-434, eff. 1-1-02; 92-502,
12eff. 12-19-01; 92-721, eff. 1-1-03.)
 
13    (720 ILCS 5/12-16)  (from Ch. 38, par. 12-16)
14    Sec. 12-16. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Abuse.
15    (a) The accused commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if
16he or she commits criminal sexual abuse as defined in
17subsection (a) of Section 12-15 of this Code and any of the
18following aggravating circumstances existed during, or for the
19purposes of paragraph (7) of this subsection (a) as part of the
20same course of conduct as, the commission of the offense:
21        (1) the accused displayed, threatened to use or used a
22    dangerous weapon or any object fashioned or utilized in
23    such a manner as to lead the victim under the circumstances
24    reasonably to believe it to be a dangerous weapon; or
25        (2) the accused caused bodily harm to the victim; or

 

 

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1        (3) the victim was 60 years of age or over when the
2    offense was committed; or
3        (4) the victim was a physically handicapped person; or
4        (5) the accused acted in such a manner as to threaten
5    or endanger the life of the victim or any other person; or
6        (6) the criminal sexual abuse was perpetrated during
7    the course of the commission or attempted commission of any
8    other felony by the accused; or
9        (7) the accused delivered (by injection, inhalation,
10    ingestion, transfer of possession, or any other means) to
11    the victim without his or her consent, or by threat or
12    deception, and for other than medical purposes, any
13    controlled substance.
14    (b) The accused commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if
15he or she commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who
16was under 18 years of age when the act was committed and the
17accused was a family member.
18    (c) The accused commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse
19if:
20        (1) the accused was 17 years of age or over and (i)
21    commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who was
22    under 13 years of age when the act was committed; or (ii)
23    commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who was at
24    least 13 years of age but under 17 years of age when the
25    act was committed and the accused used force or threat of
26    force to commit the act; or

 

 

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1        (2) the accused was under 17 years of age and (i)
2    commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who was
3    under 9 years of age when the act was committed; or (ii)
4    commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who was at
5    least 9 years of age but under 17 years of age when the act
6    was committed and the accused used force or threat of force
7    to commit the act.
8    (d) The accused commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if
9he or she commits an act of sexual penetration or sexual
10conduct with a victim who was at least 13 years of age but
11under 17 years of age and the accused was at least 5 years
12older than the victim.
13    (e) The accused commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if
14he or she commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who
15was a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
16retarded person at the time the act was committed.
17    (f) The accused commits aggravated criminal sexual abuse if
18he or she commits an act of sexual conduct with a victim who
19was at least 13 years of age but under 18 years of age when the
20act was committed and the accused was 17 years of age or over
21and held a position of trust, authority or supervision in
22relation to the victim.
23    (g) Sentence. Aggravated criminal sexual abuse is a Class 2
24felony.
25(Source: P.A. 92-434, eff. 1-1-02.)
 

 

 

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1    (720 ILCS 5/12-19)  (from Ch. 38, par. 12-19)
2    Sec. 12-19. Abuse and Criminal Neglect of a Long Term Care
3Facility Resident.
4    (a) Any person or any owner or licensee of a long term care
5facility who abuses a long term care facility resident is
6guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any person or any owner or licensee
7of a long term care facility who criminally neglects a long
8term care facility resident is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A
9person whose criminal neglect of a long term care facility
10resident results in the resident's death is guilty of a Class 3
11felony. However, nothing herein shall be deemed to apply to a
12physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or
13a duly licensed nurse providing care within the scope of his or
14her professional judgment and within the accepted standards of
15care within the community.
16    (b) Notwithstanding the penalties in subsections (a) and
17(c) and in addition thereto, if a licensee or owner of a long
18term care facility or his or her employee has caused neglect of
19a resident, the licensee or owner is guilty of a petty offense.
20An owner or licensee is guilty under this subsection (b) only
21if the owner or licensee failed to exercise reasonable care in
22the hiring, training, supervising or providing of staff or
23other related routine administrative responsibilities.
24    (c) Notwithstanding the penalties in subsections (a) and
25(b) and in addition thereto, if a licensee or owner of a long
26term care facility or his or her employee has caused gross

 

 

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1neglect of a resident, the licensee or owner is guilty of a
2business offense for which a fine of not more than $10,000 may
3be imposed. An owner or licensee is guilty under this
4subsection (c) only if the owner or licensee failed to exercise
5reasonable care in the hiring, training, supervising or
6providing of staff or other related routine administrative
7responsibilities.
8    (d) For the purpose of this Section:
9        (1) "Abuse" means intentionally or knowingly causing
10    any physical or mental injury or committing any sexual
11    offense set forth in this Code.
12        (2) "Criminal neglect" means an act whereby a person
13    recklessly (i) performs acts that cause an elderly person's
14    or person with a disability's life to be endangered, health
15    to be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition
16    to deteriorate or that create the substantial likelihood
17    that an elderly person's or person with a disability's life
18    will be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing
19    physical or mental condition will deteriorate, or (ii)
20    fails to perform acts that he or she knows or reasonably
21    should know are necessary to maintain or preserve the life
22    or health of an elderly person or person with a disability,
23    and that failure causes the elderly person's or person with
24    a disability's life to be endangered, health to be injured,
25    or pre-existing physical or mental condition to
26    deteriorate or that create the substantial likelihood that

 

 

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1    an elderly person's or person with a disability's life will
2    be endangered, health will be injured, or pre-existing
3    physical or mental condition will deteriorate, or (iii)
4    abandons an elderly person or person with a disability.
5        (3) "Neglect" means negligently failing to provide
6    adequate medical or personal care or maintenance, which
7    failure results in physical or mental injury or the
8    deterioration of a physical or mental condition.
9        (4) "Resident" means a person residing in a long term
10    care facility.
11        (5) "Owner" means the person who owns a long term care
12    facility as provided under the Nursing Home Care Act, a
13    facility as provided under the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care
14    Act, or an assisted living or shared housing establishment
15    under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.
16        (6) "Licensee" means the individual or entity licensed
17    to operate a facility under the Nursing Home Care Act, the
18    MR/DD Community Care Act, or the Assisted Living and Shared
19    Housing Act.
20        (7) "Facility" or "long term care facility" means a
21    private home, institution, building, residence, or any
22    other place, whether operated for profit or not, or a
23    county home for the infirm and chronically ill operated
24    pursuant to Division 5-21 or 5-22 of the Counties Code, or
25    any similar institution operated by the State of Illinois
26    or a political subdivision thereof, which provides,

 

 

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1    through its ownership or management, personal care,
2    sheltered care or nursing for 3 or more persons not related
3    to the owner by blood or marriage. The term also includes
4    skilled nursing facilities and intermediate care
5    facilities as defined in Title XVIII and Title XIX of the
6    federal Social Security Act and assisted living
7    establishments and shared housing establishments licensed
8    under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.
9    (e) Nothing contained in this Section shall be deemed to
10apply to the medical supervision, regulation or control of the
11remedial care or treatment of residents in a facility conducted
12for those who rely upon treatment by prayer or spiritual means
13in accordance with the creed or tenets of any well recognized
14church or religious denomination and which is licensed in
15accordance with Section 3-803 of the Nursing Home Care Act or
16Section 3-803 of the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act.
17(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1373, eff. 7-29-10.)
 
18    (720 ILCS 5/12-21)  (from Ch. 38, par. 12-21)
19    Sec. 12-21. Criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person
20or person with a disability.
21    (a) A person commits the offense of criminal abuse or
22neglect of an elderly person or person with a disability when
23he or she is a caregiver and he or she knowingly:
24        (1) performs acts that cause the elderly person or
25    person with a disability's life to be endangered, health to

 

 

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1    be injured, or pre-existing physical or mental condition to
2    deteriorate; or
3        (2) fails to perform acts that he or she knows or
4    reasonably should know are necessary to maintain or
5    preserve the life or health of the elderly person or person
6    with a disability and such failure causes the elderly
7    person or person with a disability's life to be endangered,
8    health to be injured or pre-existing physical or mental
9    condition to deteriorate; or
10        (3) abandons the elderly person or person with a
11    disability; or
12        (4) physically abuses, harasses, intimidates, or
13    interferes with the personal liberty of the elderly person
14    or person with a disability or exposes the elderly person
15    or person with a disability to willful deprivation.
16    Criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly person or person
17with a disability is a Class 3 felony. Criminal neglect of an
18elderly person or person with a disability is a Class 2 felony
19if the criminal neglect results in the death of the person
20neglected for which the defendant, if sentenced to a term of
21imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3
22years and not more than 14 years.
23    (b) For purposes of this Section:
24        (1) "Elderly person" means a person 60 years of age or
25    older who is incapable of adequately providing for his own
26    health and personal care.

 

 

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1        (2) "Person with a disability" means a person who
2    suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment,
3    resulting from disease, injury, functional disorder or
4    congenital condition which renders such person incapable
5    of adequately providing for his own health and personal
6    care.
7        (3) "Caregiver" means a person who has a duty to
8    provide for an elderly person or person with a disability's
9    health and personal care, at such person's place of
10    residence, including but not limited to, food and
11    nutrition, shelter, hygiene, prescribed medication and
12    medical care and treatment.
13        "Caregiver" shall include:
14            (A) a parent, spouse, adult child or other relative
15        by blood or marriage who resides with or resides in the
16        same building with or regularly visits the elderly
17        person or person with a disability, knows or reasonably
18        should know of such person's physical or mental
19        impairment and knows or reasonably should know that
20        such person is unable to adequately provide for his own
21        health and personal care;
22            (B) a person who is employed by the elderly person
23        or person with a disability or by another to reside
24        with or regularly visit the elderly person or person
25        with a disability and provide for such person's health
26        and personal care;

 

 

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1            (C) a person who has agreed for consideration to
2        reside with or regularly visit the elderly person or
3        person with a disability and provide for such person's
4        health and personal care; and
5            (D) a person who has been appointed by a private or
6        public agency or by a court of competent jurisdiction
7        to provide for the elderly person or person with a
8        disability's health and personal care.
9        "Caregiver" shall not include a long-term care
10    facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care
11    Act or a facility licensed or certified under the ID/DD
12    MR/DD Community Care Act, or any administrative, medical or
13    other personnel of such a facility, or a health care
14    provider who is licensed under the Medical Practice Act of
15    1987 and renders care in the ordinary course of his
16    profession.
17        (4) "Abandon" means to desert or knowingly forsake an
18    elderly person or person with a disability under
19    circumstances in which a reasonable person would continue
20    to provide care and custody.
21        (5) "Willful deprivation" has the meaning ascribed to
22    it in paragraph (15) of Section 103 of the Illinois
23    Domestic Violence Act of 1986.
24    (c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the
25remedies available to the victim under the Illinois Domestic
26Violence Act.

 

 

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1    (d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose
2criminal liability on a person who has made a good faith effort
3to provide for the health and personal care of an elderly
4person or person with a disability, but through no fault of his
5own has been unable to provide such care.
6    (e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as
7prohibiting a person from providing treatment by spiritual
8means through prayer alone and care consistent therewith in
9lieu of medical care and treatment in accordance with the
10tenets and practices of any church or religious denomination of
11which the elderly person or person with a disability is a
12member.
13    (f) It is not a defense to criminal abuse or neglect of an
14elderly person or person with a disability that the accused
15reasonably believed that the victim was not an elderly person
16or person with a disability.
17(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
18    (720 ILCS 5/17-29)
19    Sec. 17-29. Businesses owned by minorities, females, and
20persons with disabilities; fraudulent contracts with
21governmental units.
22    (a) In this Section:
23        "Minority person" means a person who is: (1) African
24    American (a person having origins in any of the black
25    racial groups in Africa); (2) Hispanic (a person of Spanish

 

 

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1    or Portuguese culture with origins in Mexico, South or
2    Central America, or the Caribbean Islands, regardless of
3    race); (3) Asian American (a person having origins in any
4    of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia,
5    the Indian Subcontinent or the Pacific Islands); or (4)
6    Native American or Alaskan Native (a person having origins
7    in any of the original peoples of North America).
8        "Female" means a person who is of the female gender.
9        "Person with a disability" means a person who is a
10    person qualifying as being disabled.
11        "Disabled" means a severe physical or mental
12    disability that: (1) results from: amputation, arthritis,
13    autism, blindness, burn injury, cancer, cerebral palsy,
14    cystic fibrosis, deafness, head injury, heart disease,
15    hemiplegia, hemophilia, respiratory or pulmonary
16    dysfunction, an intellectual disability mental
17    retardation, mental illness, multiple sclerosis, muscular
18    dystrophy, musculoskeletal disorders, neurological
19    disorders, including stroke and epilepsy, paraplegia,
20    quadriplegia and other spinal cord conditions, sickle cell
21    anemia, specific learning disabilities, or end stage renal
22    failure disease; and (2) substantially limits one or more
23    of the person's major life activities.
24        "Minority owned business" means a business concern
25    that is at least 51% owned by one or more minority persons,
26    or in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock

 

 

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1    in which is owned by one or more minority persons; and the
2    management and daily business operations of which are
3    controlled by one or more of the minority individuals who
4    own it.
5        "Female owned business" means a business concern that
6    is at least 51% owned by one or more females, or, in the
7    case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock in which
8    is owned by one or more females; and the management and
9    daily business operations of which are controlled by one or
10    more of the females who own it.
11        "Business owned by a person with a disability" means a
12    business concern that is at least 51% owned by one or more
13    persons with a disability and the management and daily
14    business operations of which are controlled by one or more
15    of the persons with disabilities who own it. A
16    not-for-profit agency for persons with disabilities that
17    is exempt from taxation under Section 501 of the Internal
18    Revenue Code of 1986 is also considered a "business owned
19    by a person with a disability".
20        "Governmental unit" means the State, a unit of local
21    government, or school district.
22    (b) In addition to any other penalties imposed by law or by
23an ordinance or resolution of a unit of local government or
24school district, any individual or entity that knowingly
25obtains, or knowingly assists another to obtain, a contract
26with a governmental unit, or a subcontract or written

 

 

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1commitment for a subcontract under a contract with a
2governmental unit, by falsely representing that the individual
3or entity, or the individual or entity assisted, is a minority
4owned business, female owned business, or business owned by a
5person with a disability is guilty of a Class 2 felony,
6regardless of whether the preference for awarding the contract
7to a minority owned business, female owned business, or
8business owned by a person with a disability was established by
9statute or by local ordinance or resolution.
10    (c) In addition to any other penalties authorized by law,
11the court shall order that an individual or entity convicted of
12a violation of this Section must pay to the governmental unit
13that awarded the contract a penalty equal to one and one-half
14times the amount of the contract obtained because of the false
15representation.
16(Source: P.A. 94-126, eff. 1-1-06; 94-863, eff. 6-16-06.)
 
17    (720 ILCS 5/24-3)  (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)
18    Sec. 24-3. Unlawful Sale of Firearms.
19    (A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale of
20firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:
21        (a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be
22    concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of
23    age.
24        (b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21
25    years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other

 

 

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1    than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.
2        (c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.
3        (d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has
4    been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any
5    other jurisdiction.
6        (e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has
7    been a patient in a mental hospital within the past 5
8    years.
9        (f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is
10    intellectually disabled mentally retarded.
11        (g) Delivers any firearm of a size which may be
12    concealed upon the person, incidental to a sale, without
13    withholding delivery of such firearm for at least 72 hours
14    after application for its purchase has been made, or
15    delivers any rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a stun
16    gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding
17    delivery of such rifle, shotgun or other long gun, or a
18    stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application
19    for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g)
20    does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law
21    enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that
22    the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a
23    law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a
24    person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in
25    promoting the public interest incident to his or her
26    employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other

 

 

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1    similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm to a
2    nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed
3    to a point outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) the sale
4    of a firearm to a nonresident of Illinois while at a
5    firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois
6    Department of State Police; or (4) the sale of a firearm to
7    a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under
8    Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18
9    U.S.C. 923). For purposes of this paragraph (g),
10    "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an
11    agreement to purchase a firearm.
12        (h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer,
13    manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control
14    Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any
15    unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame
16    or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any
17    other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a
18    temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For
19    purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in
20    the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2)
21    "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and
22    fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a
23    combination of parts from which such a firearm can be
24    assembled.
25        (i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person
26    under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm

 

 

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1    Owner's Identification Card.
2        (j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the
3    business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without
4    being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section
5    923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).
6    In this paragraph (j):
7        A person "engaged in the business" means a person who
8    devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the
9    activity as a regular course of trade or business with the
10    principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not
11    include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms
12    or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or
13    trigger mechanisms to firearms.
14        "With the principal objective of livelihood and
15    profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or
16    disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining
17    livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents,
18    such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms
19    collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required
20    as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive
21    purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes
22    or terrorism.
23        (k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a
24    person who does not display to the seller or transferor of
25    the firearm a currently valid Firearm Owner's
26    Identification Card that has previously been issued in the

 

 

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1    transferee's name by the Department of State Police under
2    the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
3    Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a
4    firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of
5    possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under
6    Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
7    For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm
8    Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm Owner's
9    Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) if the
10    transferor is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under
11    Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18
12    U.S.C. 923), an approval number issued in accordance with
13    Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act
14    shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card
15    was valid.
16    (B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include
17firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act
1878-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973),
19nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or
20purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of
21Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the
22provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355
23shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm
24if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months
25after the enactment of that Public Act.
26    (C) Sentence.

 

 

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1        (1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms
2    in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of
3    subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.
4        (2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms
5    in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A)
6    commits a Class 3 felony.
7        (3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms
8    in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a
9    Class 2 felony.
10        (4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms
11    in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection
12    (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a
13    school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a
14    school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000
15    feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a
16    school or school district to transport students to or from
17    school or a school related activity, regardless of the time
18    of day or time of year at which the offense was committed,
19    commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second
20    or subsequent violation of unlawful sale of firearms in
21    violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A)
22    in any school, on the real property comprising a school,
23    within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school,
24    at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of
25    any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or
26    school district to transport students to or from school or

 

 

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1    a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or
2    time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a
3    Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of
4    imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15
5    years.
6        (5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms
7    in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in
8    residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
9    public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
10    as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in
11    a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property
12    owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or
13    leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered
14    site or mixed-income development, on the real property
15    comprising any public park, on the real property comprising
16    any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of
17    the real property comprising any public park, courthouse,
18    or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a
19    public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency
20    as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development
21    commits a Class 2 felony.
22        (6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms
23    in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a
24    Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a
25    Class 4 felony.
26        (7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms

 

 

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1    in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a
2    Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent conviction for a
3    violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1
4    felony.
5        (8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of
6    unlawful sale of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or
7    (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or
8    given to another person under 18 years of age was used in
9    the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony,
10    shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the
11    maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so
12    committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age
13    who was sold or given the firearm.
14        (9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale of firearms
15    in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a
16    Class 3 felony.
17    (D) For purposes of this Section:
18    "School" means a public or private elementary or secondary
19school, community college, college, or university.
20    "School related activity" means any sporting, social,
21academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or
22participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in
23part by a school or school district.
24    (E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of
25subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years
26after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a

 

 

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1violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of
2subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years
3after the commission of the offense defined in the particular
4paragraph.
5(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-735, eff. 7-16-08;
696-190, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
7    (720 ILCS 5/24-3.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.1)
8    Sec. 24-3.1. Unlawful possession of firearms and firearm
9ammunition.
10    (a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of
11firearms or firearm ammunition when:
12        (1) He is under 18 years of age and has in his
13    possession any firearm of a size which may be concealed
14    upon the person; or
15        (2) He is under 21 years of age, has been convicted of
16    a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged
17    delinquent and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in
18    his possession; or
19        (3) He is a narcotic addict and has any firearms or
20    firearm ammunition in his possession; or
21        (4) He has been a patient in a mental hospital within
22    the past 5 years and has any firearms or firearm ammunition
23    in his possession; or
24        (5) He is intellectually disabled mentally retarded
25    and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his

 

 

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1    possession; or
2        (6) He has in his possession any explosive bullet.
3    For purposes of this paragraph "explosive bullet" means the
4projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or
5carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact
6with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a
7tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front
8thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the
9propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and
10the cap.
11    (b) Sentence.
12    Unlawful possession of firearms, other than handguns, and
13firearm ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor. Unlawful
14possession of handguns is a Class 4 felony. The possession of
15each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section
16constitutes a single and separate violation.
17    (c) Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this
18Section prohibits a person under 18 years of age from
19participating in any lawful recreational activity with a
20firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at
21targets upon established public or private target ranges or
22hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife
23Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.
24(Source: P.A. 94-284, eff. 7-21-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)
 
25    (720 ILCS 5/26-1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 26-1)

 

 

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1    Sec. 26-1. Elements of the Offense.
2    (a) A person commits disorderly conduct when he knowingly:
3        (1) Does any act in such unreasonable manner as to
4    alarm or disturb another and to provoke a breach of the
5    peace; or
6        (2) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner
7    to the fire department of any city, town, village or fire
8    protection district a false alarm of fire, knowing at the
9    time of such transmission that there is no reasonable
10    ground for believing that such fire exists; or
11        (3) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner
12    to another a false alarm to the effect that a bomb or other
13    explosive of any nature or a container holding poison gas,
14    a deadly biological or chemical contaminant, or
15    radioactive substance is concealed in such place that its
16    explosion or release would endanger human life, knowing at
17    the time of such transmission that there is no reasonable
18    ground for believing that such bomb, explosive or a
19    container holding poison gas, a deadly biological or
20    chemical contaminant, or radioactive substance is
21    concealed in such place; or
22        (4) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner
23    to any peace officer, public officer or public employee a
24    report to the effect that an offense will be committed, is
25    being committed, or has been committed, knowing at the time
26    of such transmission that there is no reasonable ground for

 

 

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1    believing that such an offense will be committed, is being
2    committed, or has been committed; or
3        (5) Enters upon the property of another and for a lewd
4    or unlawful purpose deliberately looks into a dwelling on
5    the property through any window or other opening in it; or
6        (6) While acting as a collection agency as defined in
7    the "Collection Agency Act" or as an employee of such
8    collection agency, and while attempting to collect an
9    alleged debt, makes a telephone call to the alleged debtor
10    which is designed to harass, annoy or intimidate the
11    alleged debtor; or
12        (7) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false
13    report to the Department of Children and Family Services
14    under Section 4 of the "Abused and Neglected Child
15    Reporting Act"; or
16        (8) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false
17    report to the Department of Public Health under the Nursing
18    Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act; or
19        (9) Transmits or causes to be transmitted in any manner
20    to the police department or fire department of any
21    municipality or fire protection district, or any privately
22    owned and operated ambulance service, a false request for
23    an ambulance, emergency medical technician-ambulance or
24    emergency medical technician-paramedic knowing at the time
25    there is no reasonable ground for believing that such
26    assistance is required; or

 

 

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1        (10) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false
2    report under Article II of "An Act in relation to victims
3    of violence and abuse", approved September 16, 1984, as
4    amended; or
5        (11) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a false
6    report to any public safety agency without the reasonable
7    grounds necessary to believe that transmitting such a
8    report is necessary for the safety and welfare of the
9    public; or
10        (12) Calls the number "911" for the purpose of making
11    or transmitting a false alarm or complaint and reporting
12    information when, at the time the call or transmission is
13    made, the person knows there is no reasonable ground for
14    making the call or transmission and further knows that the
15    call or transmission could result in the emergency response
16    of any public safety agency; or
17        (13) Transmits or causes to be transmitted a threat of
18    destruction of a school building or school property, or a
19    threat of violence, death, or bodily harm directed against
20    persons at a school, school function, or school event,
21    whether or not school is in session.
22    (b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a)(1) of this
23Section is a Class C misdemeanor. A violation of subsection
24(a)(5) or (a)(11) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A
25violation of subsection (a)(8) or (a)(10) of this Section is a
26Class B misdemeanor. A violation of subsection (a)(2), (a)(4),

 

 

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1(a)(7), (a)(9), (a)(12), or (a)(13) of this Section is a Class
24 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) of this Section is a
3Class 3 felony, for which a fine of not less than $3,000 and no
4more than $10,000 shall be assessed in addition to any other
5penalty imposed.
6    A violation of subsection (a)(6) of this Section is a
7Business Offense and shall be punished by a fine not to exceed
8$3,000. A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a)(7)
9or (a)(11) of this Section is a Class 4 felony. A third or
10subsequent violation of subsection (a)(5) of this Section is a
11Class 4 felony.
12    (c) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed,
13a court shall order any person convicted of disorderly conduct
14to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more
15than 120 hours, if community service is available in the
16jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of
17the county where the offense was committed. In addition,
18whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged
19offense under this Section, the supervision shall be
20conditioned upon the performance of the community service.
21    This subsection does not apply when the court imposes a
22sentence of incarceration.
23    (d) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed,
24the court shall order any person convicted of disorderly
25conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) involving a false
26alarm of a threat that a bomb or explosive device has been

 

 

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1placed in a school to reimburse the unit of government that
2employs the emergency response officer or officers that were
3dispatched to the school for the cost of the search for a bomb
4or explosive device. For the purposes of this Section,
5"emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by
6a police officer, a firefighter, a State Fire Marshal employee,
7or an ambulance.
8(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-413, eff. 8-13-09;
996-772, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1261, eff.
101-1-11.)
 
11    Section 140. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is
12amended by changing Sections 102-23, 106B-5, 114-15, 115-10,
13and 122-2.2 as follows:
 
14    (725 ILCS 5/102-23)
15    Sec. 102-23. "Moderately intellectually disabled mentally
16retarded person" means a person whose intelligence quotient is
17between 41 and 55 and who does not suffer from significant
18mental illness to the extent that the person's ability to
19exercise rational judgment is impaired.
20(Source: P.A. 92-434, eff. 1-1-02.)
 
21    (725 ILCS 5/106B-5)
22    Sec. 106B-5. Testimony by a victim who is a child or a
23moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled

 

 

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1mentally retarded person or a person affected by a
2developmental disability.
3    (a) In a proceeding in the prosecution of an offense of
4criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a
5child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual
6abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, a court may order
7that the testimony of a victim who is a child under the age of
818 years or a moderately, severely, or profoundly
9intellectually disabled mentally retarded person or a person
10affected by a developmental disability be taken outside the
11courtroom and shown in the courtroom by means of a closed
12circuit television if:
13        (1) the testimony is taken during the proceeding; and
14        (2) the judge determines that testimony by the child
15    victim or moderately, severely, or profoundly
16    intellectually disabled mentally retarded victim or victim
17    affected by a developmental disability in the courtroom
18    will result in the child or moderately, severely, or
19    profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
20    person or person affected by a developmental disability
21    suffering serious emotional distress such that the child or
22    moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually
23    disabled mentally retarded person or person affected by a
24    developmental disability cannot reasonably communicate or
25    that the child or moderately, severely, or profoundly
26    intellectually disabled mentally retarded person or person

 

 

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1    affected by a developmental disability will suffer severe
2    emotional distress that is likely to cause the child or
3    moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually
4    disabled mentally retarded person or person affected by a
5    developmental disability to suffer severe adverse effects.
6    (b) Only the prosecuting attorney, the attorney for the
7defendant, and the judge may question the child or moderately,
8severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
9retarded person or person affected by a developmental
10disability.
11    (c) The operators of the closed circuit television shall
12make every effort to be unobtrusive.
13    (d) Only the following persons may be in the room with the
14child or moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually
15disabled mentally retarded person or person affected by a
16developmental disability when the child or moderately,
17severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally
18retarded person or person affected by a developmental
19disability testifies by closed circuit television:
20        (1) the prosecuting attorney;
21        (2) the attorney for the defendant;
22        (3) the judge;
23        (4) the operators of the closed circuit television
24    equipment; and
25        (5) any person or persons whose presence, in the
26    opinion of the court, contributes to the well-being of the

 

 

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1    child or moderately, severely, or profoundly
2    intellectually disabled mentally retarded person or person
3    affected by a developmental disability, including a person
4    who has dealt with the child in a therapeutic setting
5    concerning the abuse, a parent or guardian of the child or
6    moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually
7    disabled mentally retarded person or person affected by a
8    developmental disability, and court security personnel.
9    (e) During the child's or moderately, severely, or
10profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person's
11or person affected by a developmental disability's testimony by
12closed circuit television, the defendant shall be in the
13courtroom and shall not communicate with the jury if the cause
14is being heard before a jury.
15    (f) The defendant shall be allowed to communicate with the
16persons in the room where the child or moderately, severely, or
17profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded person or
18person affected by a developmental disability is testifying by
19any appropriate electronic method.
20    (g) The provisions of this Section do not apply if the
21defendant represents himself pro se.
22    (h) This Section may not be interpreted to preclude, for
23purposes of identification of a defendant, the presence of both
24the victim and the defendant in the courtroom at the same time.
25    (i) This Section applies to prosecutions pending on or
26commenced on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act

 

 

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1of 1994.
2    (j) For the purposes of this Section, "developmental
3disability" includes, but is not limited to, cerebral palsy,
4epilepsy, and autism.
5(Source: P.A. 95-897, eff. 1-1-09.)
 
6    (725 ILCS 5/114-15)
7    Sec. 114-15. Intellectual disability Mental retardation.
8    (a) In a first degree murder case in which the State seeks
9the death penalty as an appropriate sentence, any party may
10raise the issue of the defendant's intellectual disabilities
11mental retardation by motion. A defendant wishing to raise the
12issue of his or her intellectual disabilities mental
13retardation shall provide written notice to the State and the
14court as soon as the defendant reasonably believes such issue
15will be raised.
16    (b) The issue of the defendant's intellectual disabilities
17mental retardation shall be determined in a pretrial hearing.
18The court shall be the fact finder on the issue of the
19defendant's intellectual disabilities mental retardation and
20shall determine the issue by a preponderance of evidence in
21which the moving party has the burden of proof. The court may
22appoint an expert in the field of intellectual disabilities
23mental retardation. The defendant and the State may offer
24experts from the field of intellectual disabilities mental
25retardation. The court shall determine admissibility of

 

 

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1evidence and qualification as an expert.
2    (c) If after a plea of guilty to first degree murder, or a
3finding of guilty of first degree murder in a bench trial, or a
4verdict of guilty for first degree murder in a jury trial, or
5on a matter remanded from the Supreme Court for sentencing for
6first degree murder, and the State seeks the death penalty as
7an appropriate sentence, the defendant may raise the issue of
8defendant's intellectual disabilities mental retardation not
9at eligibility but at aggravation and mitigation. The defendant
10and the State may offer experts from the field of intellectual
11disabilities mental retardation. The court shall determine
12admissibility of evidence and qualification as an expert.
13    (d) In determining whether the defendant is intellectually
14disabled mentally retarded, the intellectual disability mental
15retardation must have manifested itself by the age of 18. IQ
16tests and psychometric tests administered to the defendant must
17be the kind and type recognized by experts in the field of
18intellectual disabilities mental retardation. In order for the
19defendant to be considered intellectually disabled mentally
20retarded, a low IQ must be accompanied by significant deficits
21in adaptive behavior in at least 2 of the following skill
22areas: communication, self-care, social or interpersonal
23skills, home living, self-direction, academics, health and
24safety, use of community resources, and work. An intelligence
25quotient (IQ) of 75 or below is presumptive evidence of an
26intellectual disability mental retardation.

 

 

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1    (e) Evidence of an intellectual disability mental
2retardation that did not result in disqualifying the case as a
3capital case, may be introduced as evidence in mitigation
4during a capital sentencing hearing. A failure of the court to
5determine that the defendant is intellectually disabled
6mentally retarded does not preclude the court during trial from
7allowing evidence relating to mental disability should the
8court deem it appropriate.
9    (f) If the court determines at a pretrial hearing or after
10remand that a capital defendant is intellectually disabled
11mentally retarded, and the State does not appeal pursuant to
12Supreme Court Rule 604, the case shall no longer be considered
13a capital case and the procedural guidelines established for
14capital cases shall no longer be applicable to the defendant.
15In that case, the defendant shall be sentenced under the
16sentencing provisions of Chapter V of the Unified Code of
17Corrections.
18(Source: P.A. 93-605, eff. 11-19-03.)
 
19    (725 ILCS 5/115-10)  (from Ch. 38, par. 115-10)
20    Sec. 115-10. Certain hearsay exceptions.
21    (a) In a prosecution for a physical or sexual act
22perpetrated upon or against a child under the age of 13, or a
23person who was a moderately, severely, or profoundly
24intellectually disabled mentally retarded person as defined in
25this Code and in Section 2-10.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 at

 

 

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1the time the act was committed, including but not limited to
2prosecutions for violations of Sections 12-13 through 12-16 of
3the Criminal Code of 1961 and prosecutions for violations of
4Sections 10-1 (kidnapping), 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), 10-3
5(unlawful restraint), 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint),
610-4 (forcible detention), 10-5 (child abduction), 10-6
7(harboring a runaway), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child
8abduction), 11-9 (public indecency), 11-11 (sexual relations
9within families), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-1 (assault),
1012-2 (aggravated assault), 12-3 (battery), 12-3.2 (domestic
11battery), 12-4 (aggravated battery), 12-4.1 (heinous battery),
1212-4.2 (aggravated battery with a firearm), 12-4.3 (aggravated
13battery of a child), 12-4.7 (drug induced infliction of great
14bodily harm), 12-5 (reckless conduct), 12-6 (intimidation),
1512-6.1 (compelling organization membership of persons), 12-7.1
16(hate crime), 12-7.3 (stalking), 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking),
1712-10 (tattooing body of minor), 12-11 (home invasion), 12-21.5
18(child abandonment), 12-21.6 (endangering the life or health of
19a child) or 12-32 (ritual mutilation) of the Criminal Code of
201961 or any sex offense as defined in subsection (B) of Section
212 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the following evidence
22shall be admitted as an exception to the hearsay rule:
23        (1) testimony by the victim of an out of court
24    statement made by the victim that he or she complained of
25    such act to another; and
26        (2) testimony of an out of court statement made by the

 

 

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1    victim describing any complaint of such act or matter or
2    detail pertaining to any act which is an element of an
3    offense which is the subject of a prosecution for a sexual
4    or physical act against that victim.
5    (b) Such testimony shall only be admitted if:
6        (1) The court finds in a hearing conducted outside the
7    presence of the jury that the time, content, and
8    circumstances of the statement provide sufficient
9    safeguards of reliability; and
10        (2) The child or moderately, severely, or profoundly
11    intellectually disabled mentally retarded person either:
12            (A) testifies at the proceeding; or
13            (B) is unavailable as a witness and there is
14        corroborative evidence of the act which is the subject
15        of the statement; and
16        (3) In a case involving an offense perpetrated against
17    a child under the age of 13, the out of court statement was
18    made before the victim attained 13 years of age or within 3
19    months after the commission of the offense, whichever
20    occurs later, but the statement may be admitted regardless
21    of the age of the victim at the time of the proceeding.
22    (c) If a statement is admitted pursuant to this Section,
23the court shall instruct the jury that it is for the jury to
24determine the weight and credibility to be given the statement
25and that, in making the determination, it shall consider the
26age and maturity of the child, or the intellectual capabilities

 

 

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1of the moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually
2disabled mentally retarded person, the nature of the statement,
3the circumstances under which the statement was made, and any
4other relevant factor.
5    (d) The proponent of the statement shall give the adverse
6party reasonable notice of his intention to offer the statement
7and the particulars of the statement.
8    (e) Statements described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of
9subsection (a) shall not be excluded on the basis that they
10were obtained as a result of interviews conducted pursuant to a
11protocol adopted by a Child Advocacy Advisory Board as set
12forth in subsections (c), (d), and (e) of Section 3 of the
13Children's Advocacy Center Act or that an interviewer or
14witness to the interview was or is an employee, agent, or
15investigator of a State's Attorney's office.
16(Source: P.A. 95-892, eff. 1-1-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
17    (725 ILCS 5/122-2.2)
18    Sec. 122-2.2. Intellectual disability Mental retardation
19and post-conviction relief.
20    (a) In cases where no determination of an intellectual
21disability mental retardation was made and a defendant has been
22convicted of first-degree murder, sentenced to death, and is in
23custody pending execution of the sentence of death, the
24following procedures shall apply:
25        (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law or rule

 

 

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1    of court, a defendant may seek relief from the death
2    sentence through a petition for post-conviction relief
3    under this Article alleging that the defendant was
4    intellectually disabled mentally retarded as defined in
5    Section 114-15 at the time the offense was alleged to have
6    been committed.
7        (2) The petition must be filed within 180 days of the
8    effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General
9    Assembly or within 180 days of the issuance of the mandate
10    by the Illinois Supreme Court setting the date of
11    execution, whichever is later.
12    (3) All other provisions of this Article governing
13petitions for post-conviction relief shall apply to a petition
14for post-conviction relief alleging an intellectual disability
15mental retardation.
16(Source: P.A. 93-605, eff. 11-19-03.)
 
17    Section 145. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by
18changing Sections 5-1-8, 5-1-13, 5-2-6, and 5-5-3.1 as follows:
 
19    (730 ILCS 5/5-1-8)  (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-1-8)
20    Sec. 5-1-8. Defendant in Need of Mental Treatment.
21    "Defendant in need of mental treatment" means any defendant
22afflicted with a mental disorder, not including a person who is
23intellectually disabled mentally retarded, if that defendant,
24as a result of such mental disorder, is reasonably expected at

 

 

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1the time of determination or within a reasonable time
2thereafter to intentionally or unintentionally physically
3injure himself or other persons, or is unable to care for
4himself so as to guard himself from physical injury or to
5provide for his own physical needs.
6(Source: P.A. 77-2097.)
 
7    (730 ILCS 5/5-1-13)  (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-1-13)
8    Sec. 5-1-13. Intellectually Disabled Mentally Retarded.
9    "Intellectually disabled" Mentally retarded and
10"intellectual disability mental retardation" mean sub-average
11general intellectual functioning generally originating during
12the developmental period and associated with impairment in
13adaptive behavior reflected in delayed maturation or reduced
14learning ability or inadequate social adjustment.
15(Source: P.A. 77-2097.)
 
16    (730 ILCS 5/5-2-6)  (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-2-6)
17    Sec. 5-2-6. Sentencing and Treatment of Defendant Found
18Guilty but Mentally Ill.
19    (a) After a plea or verdict of guilty but mentally ill
20under Sections 115-2, 115-3 or 115-4 of the Code of Criminal
21Procedure of 1963, the court shall order a presentence
22investigation and report pursuant to Sections 5-3-1 and 5-3-2
23of this Act, and shall set a date for a sentencing hearing. The
24court may impose any sentence upon the defendant which could be

 

 

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1imposed pursuant to law upon a defendant who had been convicted
2of the same offense without a finding of mental illness.
3    (b) If the court imposes a sentence of imprisonment upon a
4defendant who has been found guilty but mentally ill, the
5defendant shall be committed to the Department of Corrections,
6which shall cause periodic inquiry and examination to be made
7concerning the nature, extent, continuance, and treatment of
8the defendant's mental illness. The Department of Corrections
9shall provide such psychiatric, psychological, or other
10counseling and treatment for the defendant as it determines
11necessary.
12    (c) The Department of Corrections may transfer the
13defendant's custody to the Department of Human Services in
14accordance with the provisions of Section 3-8-5 of this Act.
15    (d) (1) The Department of Human Services shall return to
16the Department of Corrections any person committed to it
17pursuant to this Section whose sentence has not expired and
18whom the Department of Human Services deems no longer requires
19hospitalization for mental treatment, an intellectual
20disability mental retardation, or addiction.
21    (2) The Department of Corrections shall notify the
22Secretary of Human Services of the expiration of the sentence
23of any person transferred to the Department of Human Services
24under this Section. If the Department of Human Services
25determines that any such person requires further
26hospitalization, it shall file an appropriate petition for

 

 

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1involuntary commitment pursuant to the Mental Health and
2Developmental Disabilities Code.
3    (e) (1) All persons found guilty but mentally ill, whether
4by plea or by verdict, who are placed on probation or sentenced
5to a term of periodic imprisonment or a period of conditional
6discharge shall be required to submit to a course of mental
7treatment prescribed by the sentencing court.
8    (2) The course of treatment prescribed by the court shall
9reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in
10treatment or habilitation and for the safety of the defendant
11and others. The court shall consider terms, conditions and
12supervision which may include, but need not be limited to,
13notification and discharge of the person to the custody of his
14family, community adjustment programs, periodic checks with
15legal authorities and outpatient care and utilization of local
16mental health or developmental disabilities facilities.
17    (3) Failure to continue treatment, except by agreement with
18the treating person or agency and the court, shall be a basis
19for the institution of probation revocation proceedings.
20    (4) The period of probation shall be in accordance with
21Article 4.5 of Chapter V of this Code and shall not be
22shortened without receipt and consideration of such
23psychiatric or psychological report or reports as the court may
24require.
25(Source: P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09.)
 

 

 

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1    (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.1)  (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3.1)
2    Sec. 5-5-3.1. Factors in Mitigation.
3    (a) The following grounds shall be accorded weight in favor
4of withholding or minimizing a sentence of imprisonment:
5        (1) The defendant's criminal conduct neither caused
6    nor threatened serious physical harm to another.
7        (2) The defendant did not contemplate that his criminal
8    conduct would cause or threaten serious physical harm to
9    another.
10        (3) The defendant acted under a strong provocation.
11        (4) There were substantial grounds tending to excuse or
12    justify the defendant's criminal conduct, though failing
13    to establish a defense.
14        (5) The defendant's criminal conduct was induced or
15    facilitated by someone other than the defendant.
16        (6) The defendant has compensated or will compensate
17    the victim of his criminal conduct for the damage or injury
18    that he sustained.
19        (7) The defendant has no history of prior delinquency
20    or criminal activity or has led a law-abiding life for a
21    substantial period of time before the commission of the
22    present crime.
23        (8) The defendant's criminal conduct was the result of
24    circumstances unlikely to recur.
25        (9) The character and attitudes of the defendant
26    indicate that he is unlikely to commit another crime.

 

 

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1        (10) The defendant is particularly likely to comply
2    with the terms of a period of probation.
3        (11) The imprisonment of the defendant would entail
4    excessive hardship to his dependents.
5        (12) The imprisonment of the defendant would endanger
6    his or her medical condition.
7        (13) The defendant was intellectually disabled
8    mentally retarded as defined in Section 5-1-13 of this
9    Code.
10    (b) If the court, having due regard for the character of
11the offender, the nature and circumstances of the offense and
12the public interest finds that a sentence of imprisonment is
13the most appropriate disposition of the offender, or where
14other provisions of this Code mandate the imprisonment of the
15offender, the grounds listed in paragraph (a) of this
16subsection shall be considered as factors in mitigation of the
17term imposed.
18(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)
 
19    Section 146. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by
20changing Section 5-5-3.2 as follows:
 
21    (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)
22    Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation and Extended-Term
23Sentencing.
24    (a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor

 

 

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1of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the
2court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section
35-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:
4        (1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened
5    serious harm;
6        (2) the defendant received compensation for committing
7    the offense;
8        (3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or
9    criminal activity;
10        (4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by
11    his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense
12    committed or to bring the offenders committing it to
13    justice;
14        (5) the defendant held public office at the time of the
15    offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that
16    office;
17        (6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation
18    or position in the community to commit the offense, or to
19    afford him an easier means of committing it;
20        (7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from
21    committing the same crime;
22        (8) the defendant committed the offense against a
23    person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;
24        (9) the defendant committed the offense against a
25    person who is physically handicapped or such person's
26    property;

 

 

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1        (10) by reason of another individual's actual or
2    perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender,
3    sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or
4    national origin, the defendant committed the offense
5    against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii)
6    the person or property of a person who has an association
7    with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other
8    individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative
9    (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i)
10    or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual
11    orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or
12    bisexuality;
13        (11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on
14    the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to,
15    during or immediately following worship services. For
16    purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall
17    mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or
18    place used primarily for religious worship;
19        (12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed
20    while he was released on bail or his own recognizance
21    pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such
22    prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony
23    committed while he was serving a period of probation,
24    conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release
25    under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;
26        (13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a

 

 

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1    felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the
2    purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any
3    device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the
4    wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;
5        (14) the defendant held a position of trust or
6    supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as
7    defined in Section 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 1961,
8    teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in
9    relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the
10    defendant committed an offense in violation of Section
11    11-6, 11-11, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 12-13,
12    12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961
13    against that victim;
14        (15) the defendant committed an offense related to the
15    activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this
16    factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in
17    Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention
18    Act;
19        (16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of
20    one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless
21    of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance
22    owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport
23    students to or from school or a school related activity; on
24    the real property of a school; or on a public way within
25    1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school:
26    Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1,

 

 

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1    11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3,
2    12-6, 12-6.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or
3    33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;
4        (16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation
5    of one of the following Sections while in a day care
6    center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on
7    the real property of a day care center, regardless of the
8    time of day or time of year; or on a public way within
9    1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care
10    center, regardless of the time of day or time of year:
11    Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1,
12    11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3,
13    12-6, 12-6.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or
14    33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961;
15        (17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of
16    any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or
17    to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a
18    community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this
19    Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning
20    ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of
21    1961;
22        (18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing
23    home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For
24    the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a
25    skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility
26    that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of

 

 

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1    Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD
2    MR/DD Community Care Act;
3        (19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm
4    dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of
5    subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners
6    Identification Card Act and has now committed either a
7    felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
8    Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;
9        (20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of
10    reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of
11    1961 or the offense of driving under the influence of
12    alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or
13    compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501
14    of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a
15    local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in
16    excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as
17    provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois
18    Vehicle Code;
19        (21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of
20    reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under
21    Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was
22    operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour
23    over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of
24    Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
25        (22) the defendant committed the offense against a
26    person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have

 

 

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1    known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United
2    States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause
3    (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces
4    of the United States, including a member of any reserve
5    component thereof or National Guard unit called to active
6    duty;
7        (23) the defendant committed the offense against a
8    person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm by taking
9    advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the
10    elderly, disabled, or infirm person;
11        (24) the defendant committed any offense under Section
12    11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 and possessed 100 or
13    more images;
14        (25) the defendant committed the offense while the
15    defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other
16    vehicle used for public transportation; or
17        (26) the defendant committed the offense of child
18    pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically
19    including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of
20    subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of
21    1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in,
22    or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound,
23    fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or
24    sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically
25    including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of
26    subsection (a) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of

 

 

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1    1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in,
2    or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound,
3    fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or
4    sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context; or
5        (27) the defendant committed the offense of first
6    degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery,
7    aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated
8    robbery against a person who was a veteran and the
9    defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the
10    person was a veteran performing duties as a representative
11    of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this
12    paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who
13    has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a
14    member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the
15    United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization"
16    means an organization comprised of members of which
17    substantially all are individuals who are veterans or
18    spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary
19    purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members
20    and to provide assistance to the general public in such a
21    way as to confer a public benefit.
22    For the purposes of this Section:
23    "School" is defined as a public or private elementary or
24secondary school, community college, college, or university.
25    "Day care center" means a public or private State certified
26and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the

 

 

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1Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view
2stating that the property is a day care center.
3    "Public transportation" means the transportation or
4conveyance of persons by means available to the general public,
5and includes paratransit services.
6    (b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be
7considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term
8sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:
9        (1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after
10    having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other
11    jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater
12    class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10
13    years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent
14    in custody, and such charges are separately brought and
15    tried and arise out of different series of acts; or
16        (2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the
17    court finds that the offense was accompanied by
18    exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of
19    wanton cruelty; or
20        (3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony
21    committed against:
22            (i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of
23        the offense or such person's property;
24            (ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time
25        of the offense or such person's property; or
26            (iii) a person physically handicapped at the time

 

 

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1        of the offense or such person's property; or
2        (4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the
3    offense involved any of the following types of specific
4    misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite,
5    initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity
6    of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social
7    group:
8            (i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or
9        animals;
10            (ii) the theft of human corpses;
11            (iii) the kidnapping of humans;
12            (iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious,
13        fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or
14        other building or property; or
15            (v) ritualized abuse of a child; or
16        (5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other
17    than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was
18    committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons
19    to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to
20    the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer,
21    supervisor, financier, or any other position of management
22    or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony
23    committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal
24    activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the
25    defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or
26        (6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense

 

 

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1    committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached
2    to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has
3    the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24.6-5 of the
4    Criminal Code of 1961; or
5        (7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age
6    at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted
7    of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a
8    delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for
9    an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or
10    Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10
11    years after the previous adjudication, excluding time
12    spent in custody; or
13        (8) When a defendant commits any felony and the
14    defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or
15    otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement
16    officer engaged in the execution of his or her official
17    duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an
18    organized gang in which the defendant is engaged.
19    (c) The following factors may be considered by the court as
20reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2
21(730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:
22        (1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree
23    murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois
24    of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section
25    5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred
26    within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding

 

 

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1    time spent in custody, and the charges are separately
2    brought and tried and arise out of different series of
3    acts.
4        (1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree
5    murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic
6    battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery
7    (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after
8    having been previously convicted of violation of an order
9    of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim
10    was the protected person.
11        (2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary
12    manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary
13    manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant
14    has been convicted of causing the death of more than one
15    individual.
16        (3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated
17    criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when
18    there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault
19    or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same
20    victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant
21    voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of
22    the participation of the others in the crime, and the
23    commission of the crime was part of a single course of
24    conduct during which there was no substantial change in the
25    nature of the criminal objective.
26        (4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time

 

 

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1    of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is
2    convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or
3    predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under
4    subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code
5    of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/12-14.1).
6        (5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation
7    of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS
8    5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a
9    member of an organized gang.
10        (6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of
11    weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961
12    (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not
13    readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in
14    Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS
15    5/24-1).
16        (7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense
17    involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled
18    substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled
19    Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture
20    of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine
21    Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or
22    the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency
23    response officer in the performance of his or her duties is
24    killed or injured at the scene of the offense while
25    responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the
26    offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation

 

 

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1    in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy;
2    and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer,
3    community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical
4    technician-ambulance, emergency medical
5    technician-intermediate, emergency medical
6    technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical
7    assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency
8    room personnel.
9    (d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has
10the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois
11Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
12    (e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under
13Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been
14convicted of a felony violation of Section 12-13, 12-14,
1512-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 when the
16victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of
17the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the
18offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol,
19regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the
20offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of
21the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had
22consumed alcohol.
23(Source: P.A. 95-85, eff. 1-1-08; 95-362, eff. 1-1-08; 95-569,
24eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 95-942, eff. 1-1-09;
2595-1052, eff. 7-1-09; 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10;
2696-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff.

 

 

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17-2-10; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1228, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1390,
2eff. 1-1-11; revised 9-16-10.)
 
3    Section 147. The Secure Residential Youth Care Facility
4Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 45-10 as follows:
 
5    (730 ILCS 175/45-10)
6    Sec. 45-10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
7    "Department" means the Illinois Department of Corrections.
8    "Director" means the Director of Corrections.
9    "Secure residential youth care facility" means a facility
10(1) where youth are placed and reside for care, treatment, and
11custody; (2) that is designed and operated so as to ensure that
12all entrances and exits from the facility, or from a building
13or distinct part of a building within the facility, are under
14the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or
15not the youth has freedom of movement within the perimeter of
16the facility or within the perimeter of a building or distinct
17part of a building within the facility; and (3) that uses
18physically restrictive construction including, but not limited
19to, locks, bolts, gates, doors, bars, fences, and screen
20barriers. This definition does not include jails, prisons,
21detention centers, or other such correctional facilities;
22State operated mental health facilities; or facilities
23operating as psychiatric hospitals under a license pursuant to
24the ID/DD MR/DD Community Care Act, the Nursing Home Care Act,

 

 

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1or the Hospital Licensing Act.
2    "Youth" means an adjudicated delinquent who is 18 years of
3age or under and is transferred to the Department pursuant to
4Section 3-10-11 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
5(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
6    Section 150. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by
7changing Sections 2-203 and 8-201 as follows:
 
8    (735 ILCS 5/2-203)  (from Ch. 110, par. 2-203)
9    Sec. 2-203. Service on individuals.
10    (a) Except as otherwise expressly provided, service of
11summons upon an individual defendant shall be made (1) by
12leaving a copy of the summons with the defendant personally,
13(2) by leaving a copy at the defendant's usual place of abode,
14with some person of the family or a person residing there, of
15the age of 13 years or upwards, and informing that person of
16the contents of the summons, provided the officer or other
17person making service shall also send a copy of the summons in
18a sealed envelope with postage fully prepaid, addressed to the
19defendant at his or her usual place of abode, or (3) as
20provided in Section 1-2-9.2 of the Illinois Municipal Code with
21respect to violation of an ordinance governing parking or
22standing of vehicles in cities with a population over 500,000.
23The certificate of the officer or affidavit of the person that
24he or she has sent the copy in pursuance of this Section is

 

 

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1evidence that he or she has done so. No employee of a facility
2licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the ID/DD MR/DD
3Community Care Act shall obstruct an officer or other person
4making service in compliance with this Section.
5    (b) The officer, in his or her certificate or in a record
6filed and maintained in the Sheriff's office, or other person
7making service, in his or her affidavit or in a record filed
8and maintained in his or her employer's office, shall (1)
9identify as to sex, race, and approximate age the defendant or
10other person with whom the summons was left and (2) state the
11place where (whenever possible in terms of an exact street
12address) and the date and time of the day when the summons was
13left with the defendant or other person.
14    (c) Any person who knowingly sets forth in the certificate
15or affidavit any false statement, shall be liable in civil
16contempt. When the court holds a person in civil contempt under
17this Section, it shall award such damages as it determines to
18be just and, when the contempt is prosecuted by a private
19attorney, may award reasonable attorney's fees.
20(Source: P.A. 95-858, eff. 8-18-08; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)
 
21    (735 ILCS 5/8-201)  (from Ch. 110, par. 8-201)
22    Sec. 8-201. Dead-Man's Act. In the trial of any action in
23which any party sues or defends as the representative of a
24deceased person or person under a legal disability, no adverse
25party or person directly interested in the action shall be

 

 

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1allowed to testify on his or her own behalf to any conversation
2with the deceased or person under legal disability or to any
3event which took place in the presence of the deceased or
4person under legal disability, except in the following
5instances:
6    (a) If any person testifies on behalf of the representative
7to any conversation with the deceased or person under legal
8disability or to any event which took place in the presence of
9the deceased or person under legal disability, any adverse
10party or interested person, if otherwise competent, may testify
11concerning the same conversation or event.
12    (b) If the deposition of the deceased or person under legal
13disability is admitted in evidence on behalf of the
14representative, any adverse party or interested person, if
15otherwise competent, may testify concerning the same matters
16admitted in evidence.
17    (c) Any testimony competent under Section 8-401 of this
18Act, is not barred by this Section.
19    (d) No person shall be barred from testifying as to any
20fact relating to the heirship of a decedent.
21    As used in this Section:
22    (a) "Person under legal disability" means any person who is
23adjudged by the court in the pending civil action to be unable
24to testify by reason of mental illness, an intellectual
25disability, mental retardation or deterioration of mentality.
26    (b) "Representative" means an executor, administrator,

 

 

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1heir or legatee of a deceased person and any guardian or
2trustee of any such heir or legatee, or a guardian or guardian
3ad litem for a person under legal disability.
4    (c) "Person directly interested in the action" or
5"interested person" does not include a person who is interested
6solely as executor, trustee or in any other fiduciary capacity,
7whether or not he or she receives or expects to receive
8compensation for acting in that capacity.
9    (d) This Section applies to proceedings filed on or after
10October 1, 1973.
11(Source: P.A. 82-280.)
 
12    Section 155. The Predator Accountability Act is amended by
13changing Section 10 as follows:
 
14    (740 ILCS 128/10)
15    Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
16    "Sex trade" means any act, which if proven beyond a
17reasonable doubt could support a conviction for a violation or
18attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the
19Criminal Code of 1961: 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute);
2011-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute); 11-16
21(pandering); 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution); 11-17.1
22(keeping a place of juvenile prostitution); 11-19 (pimping);
2311-19.1 (juvenile pimping and aggravated juvenile pimping);
2411-19.2 (exploitation of a child); 11-20 (obscenity); or

 

 

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111-20.1 (child pornography); or Section 10-9 of the Criminal
2Code of 1961 (trafficking of persons and involuntary
3servitude).
4    "Sex trade" activity may involve adults and youth of all
5genders and sexual orientations.
6    "Victim of the sex trade" means, for the following sex
7trade acts, the person or persons indicated:
8        (1) soliciting for a prostitute: the prostitute who is
9    the object of the solicitation;
10        (2) soliciting for a juvenile prostitute: the juvenile
11    prostitute, or severely or profoundly intellectually
12    disabled mentally retarded person, who is the object of the
13    solicitation;
14        (3) pandering: the person intended or compelled to act
15    as a prostitute;
16        (4) keeping a place of prostitution: any person
17    intended or compelled to act as a prostitute, while present
18    at the place, during the time period in question;
19        (5) keeping a place of juvenile prostitution: any
20    juvenile intended or compelled to act as a prostitute,
21    while present at the place, during the time period in
22    question;
23        (6) pimping: the prostitute from whom anything of value
24    is received;
25        (7) juvenile pimping and aggravated juvenile pimping:
26    the juvenile, or severely or profoundly intellectually

 

 

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1    disabled mentally retarded person, from whom anything of
2    value is received for that person's act of prostitution;
3        (8) exploitation of a child: the juvenile, or severely
4    or profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
5    person, intended or compelled to act as a prostitute or
6    from whom anything of value is received for that person's
7    act of prostitution;
8        (9) obscenity: any person who appears in or is
9    described or depicted in the offending conduct or material;
10        (10) child pornography: any child, or severely or
11    profoundly intellectually disabled mentally retarded
12    person, who appears in or is described or depicted in the
13    offending conduct or material; or
14        (11) trafficking of persons or involuntary servitude:
15    a "trafficking victim" as defined in Section 10-9 of the
16    Criminal Code of 1961.
17(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)
 
18    Section 160. The Sports Volunteer Immunity Act is amended
19by changing Section 1 as follows:
 
20    (745 ILCS 80/1)  (from Ch. 70, par. 701)
21    Sec. 1. Manager, coach, umpire or referee negligence
22standard. (a) General rule. Except as provided otherwise in
23this Section, no person who, without compensation and as a
24volunteer, renders services as a manager, coach, instructor,

 

 

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1umpire or referee or who, without compensation and as a
2volunteer, assists a manager, coach, instructor, umpire or
3referee in a sports program of a nonprofit association, shall
4be liable to any person for any civil damages as a result of
5any acts or omissions in rendering such services or in
6conducting or sponsoring such sports program, unless the
7conduct of such person falls substantially below the standards
8generally practiced and accepted in like circumstances by
9similar persons rendering such services or conducting or
10sponsoring such sports programs, and unless it is shown that
11such person did an act or omitted the doing of an act which
12such person was under a recognized duty to another to do,
13knowing or having reason to know that such act or omission
14created a substantial risk of actual harm to the person or
15property of another. It shall be insufficient to impose
16liability to establish only that the conduct of such person
17fell below ordinary standards of care.
18    (b) Exceptions.
19    (1) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as affecting
20or modifying the liability of such person or a nonprofit
21association for any of the following:
22    (i) acts or omissions relating to the transportation of
23participants in a sports program or others to or from a game,
24event or practice.
25    (ii) acts or omissions relating to the care and maintenance
26of real estate unrelated to the practice or playing areas which

 

 

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1such persons or nonprofit associations own, possess or control.
2    (2) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as affecting
3or modifying any existing legal basis for determining the
4liability, or any defense thereto, of any person not covered by
5the standard of negligence established by this Section.
6    (c) Assumption of risk or comparative fault. Nothing in
7this Section shall be construed as affecting or modifying the
8doctrine of assumption of risk or comparative fault on the part
9of the participant.
10    (d) Definitions. As used in this Act the following words
11and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this
12subsection:
13    "Compensation" means any payment for services performed
14but does not include reimbursement for reasonable expenses
15actually incurred or to be incurred or, solely in the case of
16umpires or referees, a modest honorarium.
17    "Nonprofit association" means an entity which is organized
18as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of this State or
19the United States or a nonprofit unincorporated association or
20any entity which is authorized to do business in this State as
21a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of this State,
22including, but not limited to, youth or athletic associations,
23volunteer fire, ambulance, religious, charitable, fraternal,
24veterans, civic, county fair or agricultural associations, or
25any separately chartered auxiliary of the foregoing, if
26organized and operated on a nonprofit basis.

 

 

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1    "Sports program" means baseball (including softball),
2football, basketball, soccer or any other competitive sport
3formally recognized as a sport by the United States Olympic
4Committee as specified by and under the jurisdiction of the
5Amateur Sports Act of 1978 (36 U.S.C. 371 et seq.), the Amateur
6Athletic Union or the National Collegiate Athletic
7Association. The term shall be limited to a program or that
8portion of a program that is organized for recreational
9purposes and whose activities are substantially for such
10purposes and which is primarily for participants who are 18
11years of age or younger or whose 19th birthday occurs during
12the year of participation or the competitive season, whichever
13is longer. There shall, however, be no age limitation for
14programs operated for the physically handicapped or
15intellectually disabled mentally retarded.
16    (e) Nothing in this Section is intended to bar any cause of
17action against a nonprofit association or change the liability
18of such an association which arises out of an act or omission
19of any person exempt from liability under this Act.
20(Source: P.A. 85-959.)
 
21    Section 165. The Adoption Act is amended by changing
22Sections 1 and 12 as follows:
 
23    (750 ILCS 50/1)  (from Ch. 40, par. 1501)
24    Sec. 1. Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the

 

 

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1context otherwise requires:
2    A. "Child" means a person under legal age subject to
3adoption under this Act.
4    B. "Related child" means a child subject to adoption where
5either or both of the adopting parents stands in any of the
6following relationships to the child by blood or marriage:
7parent, grand-parent, brother, sister, step-parent,
8step-grandparent, step-brother, step-sister, uncle, aunt,
9great-uncle, great-aunt, or cousin of first degree. A child
10whose parent has executed a final irrevocable consent to
11adoption or a final irrevocable surrender for purposes of
12adoption, or whose parent has had his or her parental rights
13terminated, is not a related child to that person, unless the
14consent is determined to be void or is void pursuant to
15subsection O of Section 10.
16    C. "Agency" for the purpose of this Act means a public
17child welfare agency or a licensed child welfare agency.
18    D. "Unfit person" means any person whom the court shall
19find to be unfit to have a child, without regard to the
20likelihood that the child will be placed for adoption. The
21grounds of unfitness are any one or more of the following,
22except that a person shall not be considered an unfit person
23for the sole reason that the person has relinquished a child in
24accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act:
25        (a) Abandonment of the child.
26        (a-1) Abandonment of a newborn infant in a hospital.

 

 

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1        (a-2) Abandonment of a newborn infant in any setting
2    where the evidence suggests that the parent intended to
3    relinquish his or her parental rights.
4        (b) Failure to maintain a reasonable degree of
5    interest, concern or responsibility as to the child's
6    welfare.
7        (c) Desertion of the child for more than 3 months next
8    preceding the commencement of the Adoption proceeding.
9        (d) Substantial neglect of the child if continuous or
10    repeated.
11        (d-1) Substantial neglect, if continuous or repeated,
12    of any child residing in the household which resulted in
13    the death of that child.
14        (e) Extreme or repeated cruelty to the child.
15        (f) There is a rebuttable presumption, which can be
16    overcome only by clear and convincing evidence, that a
17    parent is unfit if:
18            (1) Two or more findings of physical abuse have
19        been entered regarding any children under Section 2-21
20        of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the most recent of
21        which was determined by the juvenile court hearing the
22        matter to be supported by clear and convincing
23        evidence; or
24            (2) The parent has been convicted or found not
25        guilty by reason of insanity and the conviction or
26        finding resulted from the death of any child by

 

 

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1        physical abuse; or
2            (3) There is a finding of physical child abuse
3        resulting from the death of any child under Section
4        2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
5            No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant
6        to Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be
7        considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of
8        applying any presumption under this item (f).
9        (g) Failure to protect the child from conditions within
10    his environment injurious to the child's welfare.
11        (h) Other neglect of, or misconduct toward the child;
12    provided that in making a finding of unfitness the court
13    hearing the adoption proceeding shall not be bound by any
14    previous finding, order or judgment affecting or
15    determining the rights of the parents toward the child
16    sought to be adopted in any other proceeding except such
17    proceedings terminating parental rights as shall be had
18    under either this Act, the Juvenile Court Act or the
19    Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
20        (i) Depravity. Conviction of any one of the following
21    crimes shall create a presumption that a parent is depraved
22    which can be overcome only by clear and convincing
23    evidence: (1) first degree murder in violation of paragraph
24    1 or 2 of subsection (a) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal
25    Code of 1961 or conviction of second degree murder in
26    violation of subsection (a) of Section 9-2 of the Criminal

 

 

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1    Code of 1961 of a parent of the child to be adopted; (2)
2    first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in
3    violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; (3) attempt or
4    conspiracy to commit first degree murder or second degree
5    murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of
6    1961; (4) solicitation to commit murder of any child,
7    solicitation to commit murder of any child for hire, or
8    solicitation to commit second degree murder of any child in
9    violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; (5) predatory
10    criminal sexual assault of a child in violation of Section
11    12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961; (6) heinous battery
12    of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; or
13    (7) aggravated battery of any child in violation of the
14    Criminal Code of 1961.
15        There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is
16    depraved if the parent has been criminally convicted of at
17    least 3 felonies under the laws of this State or any other
18    state, or under federal law, or the criminal laws of any
19    United States territory; and at least one of these
20    convictions took place within 5 years of the filing of the
21    petition or motion seeking termination of parental rights.
22        There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is
23    depraved if that parent has been criminally convicted of
24    either first or second degree murder of any person as
25    defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 within 10 years of the
26    filing date of the petition or motion to terminate parental

 

 

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1    rights.
2        No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to
3    Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be
4    considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of
5    applying any presumption under this item (i).
6        (j) Open and notorious adultery or fornication.
7        (j-1) (Blank).
8        (k) Habitual drunkenness or addiction to drugs, other
9    than those prescribed by a physician, for at least one year
10    immediately prior to the commencement of the unfitness
11    proceeding.
12        There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is
13    unfit under this subsection with respect to any child to
14    which that parent gives birth where there is a confirmed
15    test result that at birth the child's blood, urine, or
16    meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as
17    defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois
18    Controlled Substances Act or metabolites of such
19    substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was
20    not the result of medical treatment administered to the
21    mother or the newborn infant; and the biological mother of
22    this child is the biological mother of at least one other
23    child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under
24    subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of
25    1987.
26        (l) Failure to demonstrate a reasonable degree of

 

 

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1    interest, concern or responsibility as to the welfare of a
2    new born child during the first 30 days after its birth.
3        (m) Failure by a parent (i) to make reasonable efforts
4    to correct the conditions that were the basis for the
5    removal of the child from the parent, or (ii) to make
6    reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the
7    parent within 9 months after an adjudication of neglected
8    or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act
9    of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act,
10    or (iii) to make reasonable progress toward the return of
11    the child to the parent during any 9-month period after the
12    end of the initial 9-month period following the
13    adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3
14    of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under
15    Section 2-4 of that Act. If a service plan has been
16    established as required under Section 8.2 of the Abused and
17    Neglected Child Reporting Act to correct the conditions
18    that were the basis for the removal of the child from the
19    parent and if those services were available, then, for
20    purposes of this Act, "failure to make reasonable progress
21    toward the return of the child to the parent" includes (I)
22    the parent's failure to substantially fulfill his or her
23    obligations under the service plan and correct the
24    conditions that brought the child into care within 9 months
25    after the adjudication under Section 2-3 or 2-4 of the
26    Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and (II) the parent's failure to

 

 

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1    substantially fulfill his or her obligations under the
2    service plan and correct the conditions that brought the
3    child into care during any 9-month period after the end of
4    the initial 9-month period following the adjudication
5    under Section 2-3 or 2-4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
6    Notwithstanding any other provision, when a petition or
7    motion seeks to terminate parental rights on the basis of
8    item (iii) of this subsection (m), the petitioner shall
9    file with the court and serve on the parties a pleading
10    that specifies the 9-month period or periods relied on. The
11    pleading shall be filed and served on the parties no later
12    than 3 weeks before the date set by the court for closure
13    of discovery, and the allegations in the pleading shall be
14    treated as incorporated into the petition or motion.
15    Failure of a respondent to file a written denial of the
16    allegations in the pleading shall not be treated as an
17    admission that the allegations are true.
18        (m-1) Pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, a
19    child has been in foster care for 15 months out of any 22
20    month period which begins on or after the effective date of
21    this amendatory Act of 1998 unless the child's parent can
22    prove by a preponderance of the evidence that it is more
23    likely than not that it will be in the best interests of
24    the child to be returned to the parent within 6 months of
25    the date on which a petition for termination of parental
26    rights is filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The

 

 

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1    15 month time limit is tolled during any period for which
2    there is a court finding that the appointed custodian or
3    guardian failed to make reasonable efforts to reunify the
4    child with his or her family, provided that (i) the finding
5    of no reasonable efforts is made within 60 days of the
6    period when reasonable efforts were not made or (ii) the
7    parent filed a motion requesting a finding of no reasonable
8    efforts within 60 days of the period when reasonable
9    efforts were not made. For purposes of this subdivision
10    (m-1), the date of entering foster care is the earlier of:
11    (i) the date of a judicial finding at an adjudicatory
12    hearing that the child is an abused, neglected, or
13    dependent minor; or (ii) 60 days after the date on which
14    the child is removed from his or her parent, guardian, or
15    legal custodian.
16        (n) Evidence of intent to forgo his or her parental
17    rights, whether or not the child is a ward of the court,
18    (1) as manifested by his or her failure for a period of 12
19    months: (i) to visit the child, (ii) to communicate with
20    the child or agency, although able to do so and not
21    prevented from doing so by an agency or by court order, or
22    (iii) to maintain contact with or plan for the future of
23    the child, although physically able to do so, or (2) as
24    manifested by the father's failure, where he and the mother
25    of the child were unmarried to each other at the time of
26    the child's birth, (i) to commence legal proceedings to

 

 

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1    establish his paternity under the Illinois Parentage Act of
2    1984 or the law of the jurisdiction of the child's birth
3    within 30 days of being informed, pursuant to Section 12a
4    of this Act, that he is the father or the likely father of
5    the child or, after being so informed where the child is
6    not yet born, within 30 days of the child's birth, or (ii)
7    to make a good faith effort to pay a reasonable amount of
8    the expenses related to the birth of the child and to
9    provide a reasonable amount for the financial support of
10    the child, the court to consider in its determination all
11    relevant circumstances, including the financial condition
12    of both parents; provided that the ground for termination
13    provided in this subparagraph (n)(2)(ii) shall only be
14    available where the petition is brought by the mother or
15    the husband of the mother.
16        Contact or communication by a parent with his or her
17    child that does not demonstrate affection and concern does
18    not constitute reasonable contact and planning under
19    subdivision (n). In the absence of evidence to the
20    contrary, the ability to visit, communicate, maintain
21    contact, pay expenses and plan for the future shall be
22    presumed. The subjective intent of the parent, whether
23    expressed or otherwise, unsupported by evidence of the
24    foregoing parental acts manifesting that intent, shall not
25    preclude a determination that the parent has intended to
26    forgo his or her parental rights. In making this

 

 

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1    determination, the court may consider but shall not require
2    a showing of diligent efforts by an authorized agency to
3    encourage the parent to perform the acts specified in
4    subdivision (n).
5        It shall be an affirmative defense to any allegation
6    under paragraph (2) of this subsection that the father's
7    failure was due to circumstances beyond his control or to
8    impediments created by the mother or any other person
9    having legal custody. Proof of that fact need only be by a
10    preponderance of the evidence.
11        (o) Repeated or continuous failure by the parents,
12    although physically and financially able, to provide the
13    child with adequate food, clothing, or shelter.
14        (p) Inability to discharge parental responsibilities
15    supported by competent evidence from a psychiatrist,
16    licensed clinical social worker, or clinical psychologist
17    of mental impairment, mental illness or an intellectual
18    disability mental retardation as defined in Section 1-116
19    of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code,
20    or developmental disability as defined in Section 1-106 of
21    that Code, and there is sufficient justification to believe
22    that the inability to discharge parental responsibilities
23    shall extend beyond a reasonable time period. However, this
24    subdivision (p) shall not be construed so as to permit a
25    licensed clinical social worker to conduct any medical
26    diagnosis to determine mental illness or mental

 

 

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1    impairment.
2        (q) (Blank).
3        (r) The child is in the temporary custody or
4    guardianship of the Department of Children and Family
5    Services, the parent is incarcerated as a result of
6    criminal conviction at the time the petition or motion for
7    termination of parental rights is filed, prior to
8    incarceration the parent had little or no contact with the
9    child or provided little or no support for the child, and
10    the parent's incarceration will prevent the parent from
11    discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the
12    child for a period in excess of 2 years after the filing of
13    the petition or motion for termination of parental rights.
14        (s) The child is in the temporary custody or
15    guardianship of the Department of Children and Family
16    Services, the parent is incarcerated at the time the
17    petition or motion for termination of parental rights is
18    filed, the parent has been repeatedly incarcerated as a
19    result of criminal convictions, and the parent's repeated
20    incarceration has prevented the parent from discharging
21    his or her parental responsibilities for the child.
22        (t) A finding that at birth the child's blood, urine,
23    or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance
24    as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois
25    Controlled Substances Act, or a metabolite of a controlled
26    substance, with the exception of controlled substances or

 

 

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1    metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in
2    the newborn infant was the result of medical treatment
3    administered to the mother or the newborn infant, and that
4    the biological mother of this child is the biological
5    mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a
6    neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the
7    Juvenile Court Act of 1987, after which the biological
8    mother had the opportunity to enroll in and participate in
9    a clinically appropriate substance abuse counseling,
10    treatment, and rehabilitation program.
11    E. "Parent" means the father or mother of a lawful child of
12the parties or child born out of wedlock. For the purpose of
13this Act, a person who has executed a final and irrevocable
14consent to adoption or a final and irrevocable surrender for
15purposes of adoption, or whose parental rights have been
16terminated by a court, is not a parent of the child who was the
17subject of the consent or surrender, unless the consent is void
18pursuant to subsection O of Section 10.
19    F. A person is available for adoption when the person is:
20        (a) a child who has been surrendered for adoption to an
21    agency and to whose adoption the agency has thereafter
22    consented;
23        (b) a child to whose adoption a person authorized by
24    law, other than his parents, has consented, or to whose
25    adoption no consent is required pursuant to Section 8 of
26    this Act;

 

 

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1        (c) a child who is in the custody of persons who intend
2    to adopt him through placement made by his parents;
3        (c-1) a child for whom a parent has signed a specific
4    consent pursuant to subsection O of Section 10;
5        (d) an adult who meets the conditions set forth in
6    Section 3 of this Act; or
7        (e) a child who has been relinquished as defined in
8    Section 10 of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.
9    A person who would otherwise be available for adoption
10shall not be deemed unavailable for adoption solely by reason
11of his or her death.
12    G. The singular includes the plural and the plural includes
13the singular and the "male" includes the "female", as the
14context of this Act may require.
15    H. "Adoption disruption" occurs when an adoptive placement
16does not prove successful and it becomes necessary for the
17child to be removed from placement before the adoption is
18finalized.
19    I. "Foreign placing agency" is an agency or individual
20operating in a country or territory outside the United States
21that is authorized by its country to place children for
22adoption either directly with families in the United States or
23through United States based international agencies.
24    J. "Immediate relatives" means the biological parents, the
25parents of the biological parents and siblings of the
26biological parents.

 

 

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1    K. "Intercountry adoption" is a process by which a child
2from a country other than the United States is adopted.
3    L. "Intercountry Adoption Coordinator" is a staff person of
4the Department of Children and Family Services appointed by the
5Director to coordinate the provision of services by the public
6and private sector to prospective parents of foreign-born
7children.
8    M. "Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children" is a
9law enacted by most states for the purpose of establishing
10uniform procedures for handling the interstate placement of
11children in foster homes, adoptive homes, or other child care
12facilities.
13    N. "Non-Compact state" means a state that has not enacted
14the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children.
15    O. "Preadoption requirements" are any conditions
16established by the laws or regulations of the Federal
17Government or of each state that must be met prior to the
18placement of a child in an adoptive home.
19    P. "Abused child" means a child whose parent or immediate
20family member, or any person responsible for the child's
21welfare, or any individual residing in the same home as the
22child, or a paramour of the child's parent:
23        (a) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be
24    inflicted upon the child physical injury, by other than
25    accidental means, that causes death, disfigurement,
26    impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or

 

 

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1    impairment of any bodily function;
2        (b) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to
3    the child by other than accidental means which would be
4    likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of
5    physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any
6    bodily function;
7        (c) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense
8    against the child, as sex offenses are defined in the
9    Criminal Code of 1961 and extending those definitions of
10    sex offenses to include children under 18 years of age;
11        (d) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of
12    torture upon the child; or
13        (e) inflicts excessive corporal punishment.
14    Q. "Neglected child" means any child whose parent or other
15person responsible for the child's welfare withholds or denies
16nourishment or medically indicated treatment including food or
17care denied solely on the basis of the present or anticipated
18mental or physical impairment as determined by a physician
19acting alone or in consultation with other physicians or
20otherwise does not provide the proper or necessary support,
21education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care
22recognized under State law as necessary for a child's
23well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being,
24including adequate food, clothing and shelter; or who is
25abandoned by his or her parents or other person responsible for
26the child's welfare.

 

 

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1    A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the
2sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible
3for his or her welfare depends upon spiritual means through
4prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial
5care as provided under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected
6Child Reporting Act. A child shall not be considered neglected
7or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other
8person responsible for the child's welfare failed to vaccinate,
9delayed vaccination, or refused vaccination for the child due
10to a waiver on religious or medical grounds as permitted by
11law.
12    R. "Putative father" means a man who may be a child's
13father, but who (1) is not married to the child's mother on or
14before the date that the child was or is to be born and (2) has
15not established paternity of the child in a court proceeding
16before the filing of a petition for the adoption of the child.
17The term includes a male who is less than 18 years of age.
18"Putative father" does not mean a man who is the child's father
19as a result of criminal sexual abuse or assault as defined
20under Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961.
21    S. "Standby adoption" means an adoption in which a parent
22consents to custody and termination of parental rights to
23become effective upon the occurrence of a future event, which
24is either the death of the parent or the request of the parent
25for the entry of a final judgment of adoption.
26    T. (Blank).

 

 

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1(Source: P.A. 93-732, eff. 1-1-05; 94-229, eff. 1-1-06; 94-563,
2eff. 1-1-06; 94-939, eff. 1-1-07.)
 
3    (750 ILCS 50/12)  (from Ch. 40, par. 1514)
4    Sec. 12. Consent of child or adult. If, upon the date of
5the entry of the judgment the person sought to be adopted is of
6the age of 14 years or upwards, the adoption shall not be made
7without the consent of such person. Such consent shall be in
8writing and shall be acknowledged by such person as provided in
9Section 10 of this Act, provided, that if such person is in
10need of mental treatment or is intellectually disabled mentally
11retarded, the court may waive the provisions of this Section.
12No consent shall be required under this Section if the person
13sought to be adopted has died before giving such consent.
14(Source: P.A. 85-517.)
 
15    Section 170. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing
16Section 11a-1 as follows:
 
17    (755 ILCS 5/11a-1)  (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-1)
18    Sec. 11a-1. Developmental disability defined.)
19"Developmental disability" means a disability which is
20attributable to: (a) an intellectual disability mental
21retardation, cerebral palsy, epilepsy or autism; or to (b) any
22other condition which results in impairment similar to that
23caused by an intellectual disability mental retardation and

 

 

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1which requires services similar to those required by
2intellectually disabled mentally retarded persons. Such
3disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be
4expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a
5substantial handicap.
6(Source: P.A. 80-1415.)
 
7    Section 175. The Health Care Surrogate Act is amended by
8changing Section 20 as follows:
 
9    (755 ILCS 40/20)  (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 851-20)
10    Sec. 20. Private decision making process.     (a)
11Decisions whether to forgo life-sustaining or any other form of
12medical treatment involving an adult patient with decisional
13capacity may be made by that adult patient.
14    (b) Decisions whether to forgo life-sustaining treatment
15on behalf of a patient without decisional capacity are lawful,
16without resort to the courts or legal process, if the patient
17has a qualifying condition and if the decisions are made in
18accordance with one of the following paragraphs in this
19subsection and otherwise meet the requirements of this Act:
20        (1) Decisions whether to forgo life-sustaining
21    treatment on behalf of a minor or an adult patient who
22    lacks decisional capacity may be made by a surrogate
23    decision maker or makers in consultation with the attending
24    physician, in the order or priority provided in Section 25.

 

 

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1    A surrogate decision maker shall make decisions for the
2    adult patient conforming as closely as possible to what the
3    patient would have done or intended under the
4    circumstances, taking into account evidence that includes,
5    but is not limited to, the patient's personal,
6    philosophical, religious and moral beliefs and ethical
7    values relative to the purpose of life, sickness, medical
8    procedures, suffering, and death. Where possible, the
9    surrogate shall determine how the patient would have
10    weighed the burdens and benefits of initiating or
11    continuing life-sustaining treatment against the burdens
12    and benefits of that treatment. In the event an unrevoked
13    advance directive, such as a living will, a declaration for
14    mental health treatment, or a power of attorney for health
15    care, is no longer valid due to a technical deficiency or
16    is not applicable to the patient's condition, that document
17    may be used as evidence of a patient's wishes. The absence
18    of a living will, declaration for mental health treatment,
19    or power of attorney for health care shall not give rise to
20    any presumption as to the patient's preferences regarding
21    the initiation or continuation of life-sustaining
22    procedures. If the adult patient's wishes are unknown and
23    remain unknown after reasonable efforts to discern them or
24    if the patient is a minor, the decision shall be made on
25    the basis of the patient's best interests as determined by
26    the surrogate decision maker. In determining the patient's

 

 

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1    best interests, the surrogate shall weigh the burdens on
2    and benefits to the patient of initiating or continuing
3    life-sustaining treatment against the burdens and benefits
4    of that treatment and shall take into account any other
5    information, including the views of family and friends,
6    that the surrogate decision maker believes the patient
7    would have considered if able to act for herself or
8    himself.
9        (2) Decisions whether to forgo life-sustaining
10    treatment on behalf of a minor or an adult patient who
11    lacks decisional capacity, but without any surrogate
12    decision maker or guardian being available determined
13    after reasonable inquiry by the health care provider, may
14    be made by a court appointed guardian. A court appointed
15    guardian shall be treated as a surrogate for the purposes
16    of this Act.
17    (b-5) Decisions concerning medical treatment on behalf of a
18patient without decisional capacity are lawful, without resort
19to the courts or legal process, if the patient does not have a
20qualifying condition and if decisions are made in accordance
21with one of the following paragraphs in this subsection and
22otherwise meet the requirements of this Act:
23        (1) Decisions concerning medical treatment on behalf
24    of a minor or adult patient who lacks decisional capacity
25    may be made by a surrogate decision maker or makers in
26    consultation with the attending physician, in the order of

 

 

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1    priority provided in Section 25 with the exception that
2    decisions to forgo life-sustaining treatment may be made
3    only when a patient has a qualifying condition. A surrogate
4    decision maker shall make decisions for the patient
5    conforming as closely as possible to what the patient would
6    have done or intended under the circumstances, taking into
7    account evidence that includes, but is not limited to, the
8    patient's personal, philosophical, religious, and moral
9    beliefs and ethical values relative to the purpose of life,
10    sickness, medical procedures, suffering, and death. In the
11    event an unrevoked advance directive, such as a living
12    will, a declaration for mental health treatment, or a power
13    of attorney for health care, is no longer valid due to a
14    technical deficiency or is not applicable to the patient's
15    condition, that document may be used as evidence of a
16    patient's wishes. The absence of a living will, declaration
17    for mental health treatment, or power of attorney for
18    health care shall not give rise to any presumption as to
19    the patient's preferences regarding any process. If the
20    adult patient's wishes are unknown and remain unknown after
21    reasonable efforts to discern them or if the patient is a
22    minor, the decision shall be made on the basis of the
23    patient's best interests as determined by the surrogate
24    decision maker. In determining the patient's best
25    interests, the surrogate shall weigh the burdens on and
26    benefits to the patient of the treatment against the

 

 

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1    burdens and benefits of that treatment and shall take into
2    account any other information, including the views of
3    family and friends, that the surrogate decision maker
4    believes the patient would have considered if able to act
5    for herself or himself.
6        (2) Decisions concerning medical treatment on behalf
7    of a minor or adult patient who lacks decisional capacity,
8    but without any surrogate decision maker or guardian being
9    available as determined after reasonable inquiry by the
10    health care provider, may be made by a court appointed
11    guardian. A court appointed guardian shall be treated as a
12    surrogate for the purposes of this Act.
13    (c) For the purposes of this Act, a patient or surrogate
14decision maker is presumed to have decisional capacity in the
15absence of actual notice to the contrary without regard to
16advanced age. With respect to a patient, a diagnosis of mental
17illness or an intellectual disability mental retardation, of
18itself, is not a bar to a determination of decisional capacity.
19A determination that an adult patient lacks decisional capacity
20shall be made by the attending physician to a reasonable degree
21of medical certainty. The determination shall be in writing in
22the patient's medical record and shall set forth the attending
23physician's opinion regarding the cause, nature, and duration
24of the patient's lack of decisional capacity. Before
25implementation of a decision by a surrogate decision maker to
26forgo life-sustaining treatment, at least one other qualified

 

 

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1physician must concur in the determination that an adult
2patient lacks decisional capacity. The concurring
3determination shall be made in writing in the patient's medical
4record after personal examination of the patient. The attending
5physician shall inform the patient that it has been determined
6that the patient lacks decisional capacity and that a surrogate
7decision maker will be making life-sustaining treatment
8decisions on behalf of the patient. Moreover, the patient shall
9be informed of the identity of the surrogate decision maker and
10any decisions made by that surrogate. If the person identified
11as the surrogate decision maker is not a court appointed
12guardian and the patient objects to the statutory surrogate
13decision maker or any decision made by that surrogate decision
14maker, then the provisions of this Act shall not apply.
15    (d) A surrogate decision maker acting on behalf of the
16patient shall express decisions to forgo life-sustaining
17treatment to the attending physician and one adult witness who
18is at least 18 years of age. This decision and the substance of
19any known discussion before making the decision shall be
20documented by the attending physician in the patient's medical
21record and signed by the witness.
22    (e) The existence of a qualifying condition shall be
23documented in writing in the patient's medical record by the
24attending physician and shall include its cause and nature, if
25known. The written concurrence of another qualified physician
26is also required.

 

 

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1    (f) Once the provisions of this Act are complied with, the
2attending physician shall thereafter promptly implement the
3decision to forgo life-sustaining treatment on behalf of the
4patient unless he or she believes that the surrogate decision
5maker is not acting in accordance with his or her
6responsibilities under this Act, or is unable to do so for
7reasons of conscience or other personal views or beliefs.
8    (g) In the event of a patient's death as determined by a
9physician, all life-sustaining treatment and other medical
10care is to be terminated, unless the patient is an organ donor,
11in which case appropriate organ donation treatment may be
12applied or continued temporarily.
13(Source: P.A. 93-794, eff. 7-22-04.)
 
14    Section 177. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business
15Practices Act is amended by changing Section 2BBB as follows:
 
16    (815 ILCS 505/2BBB)
17    Sec. 2BBB. Long term care or ID/DD MR/DD facility; Consumer
18Choice Information Report. A long term care facility that fails
19to comply with Section 2-214 of the Nursing Home Care Act or a
20facility that fails to comply with Section 2-214 of the ID/DD
21MR/DD Community Care Act commits an unlawful practice within
22the meaning of this Act.
23(Source: P.A. 95-823, eff. 1-1-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09;
2496-339, eff. 7-1-10.)