HB3804sam002 97TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

Sen. Kirk W. Dillard

Filed: 11/27/2012

09700HB3804sam002 LRB097 12822 MRW 72362 a

AMENDMENT TO HOUSE BILL 3804

AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend House Bill 3804, AS AMENDED, by replacing everything after the enacting clause with the following:

"Section 1. Findings. It is the intent of the General Assembly to implement the provisions of Public Act 97-1108 which changed the short title of the Criminal Code of 1961 to the Criminal Code of 2012. The purpose of this Act is to clarify the citations to offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012 and to previous citations under the Criminal Code of 1961 to aid law enforcement, prosecutors, defense attorneys, criminal defendants, the courts, and the public in the administration and understanding of the criminal law. It is not the intent of this Act to make any substantive changes to the law by the cross referencing changes regarding the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Criminal Code of 2012.

Section 5. The Statute on Statutes is amended by changing Section 1.39 as follows:

(5 ILCS 70/1.39)

Sec. 1.39. Criminal Code of 2012. Whenever there is a reference in any Act to the Criminal Code or Criminal Code of 1961, that reference shall be interpreted to mean the Criminal Code of 2012, unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 10. The Electronic Commerce Security Act is amended by changing Section 30-5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 175/30-5)

Sec. 30-5. Civil remedy. Whoever suffers loss by reason of a violation of Section 10-140, 15-210, 15-215, or 15-220 of this Act or Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 may, in a civil action against the violator, obtain appropriate relief. In a civil action under this Section, the court may award to the prevailing party reasonable attorneys fees and other litigation expenses.

(Source: P.A. 90-759, eff. 7-1-99.)

Section 15. The Elected Officials Misconduct Forfeiture Act is amended by changing Sections 15, 20, and 25 as follows:

(5 ILCS 282/15)

Sec. 15. Forfeiture action. The Attorney General may file an action in circuit court on behalf of the people of Illinois against an elected official who has, by his or her violation of Article 33 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or violation of a similar federal offense, injured the people of Illinois. The purpose of such suit is to recover all proceeds traceable to the elected official's offense and by so doing, prevent, restrain or remedy violations of Article 33 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or similar federal offenses.

(Source: P.A. 96-597, eff. 8-18-09.)

(5 ILCS 282/20)

Sec. 20. Procedure.

(a) The circuit court has jurisdiction to prevent, restrain, and remedy violations of Article 33 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or violations of a similar federal offense after a hearing or trial, as appropriate, by issuing appropriate orders. Prior to a determination of liability such orders may include, but are not limited to, issuing seizure warrants, entering findings of probable cause for in personam or in rem forfeiture, or taking such other actions, in connection with any property or other interest subject to forfeiture or other remedies or restraints pursuant to this Section as the court deems proper.

(b) If the Attorney General prevails in his or her action, the court shall order the forfeiture of all proceeds traceable to the elected official's violations of Article 33 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or similar federal offenses. Proceeds seized and forfeited as a result of the Attorney General's action will be deposited into the General Revenue Fund or the corporate county fund, as appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 96-597, eff. 8-18-09.)

(5 ILCS 282/25)

Sec. 25. Term of forfeiture. The maximum term of a civil forfeiture under this Act shall be equal to the term of imprisonment, probation and mandatory supervised release or parole received by the elected official as a result of his or her conviction for violating Article 33 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or similar federal offenses.

(Source: P.A. 96-597, eff. 8-18-09.)

Section 20. The Public Corruption Profit Forfeiture Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(5 ILCS 283/10)

Sec. 10. Penalties.

(a) A person who is convicted of a violation of any of the following Sections, subsections, and clauses of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) clause (a)(6) of Section 12-6 (intimidation by a public official),

(2) Section 33-1 (bribery),

(3) subsection (a) of Section 33E-7 (kickbacks), or

(4) Section 33C-4 or subsection (d) of Section 17-10.3 (fraudulently obtaining public moneys reserved for disadvantaged business enterprises), shall forfeit to the State of Illinois:

(A) any profits or proceeds and any property or property interest he or she has acquired or maintained in violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (a) that the court determines, after a forfeiture hearing under subsection (b) of this Section, to have been acquired or maintained as a result of violating any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (a); and

(B) any interest in, security of, claim against, or property or contractual right of any kind affording a source of influence over, any enterprise which he or she has established, operated, controlled, conducted, or participated in the conduct of, in violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (a) that the court determines, after a forfeiture hearing under subsection (b) of this Section, to have been acquired or maintained as a result of violating any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (a) or used to facilitate a violation of one of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (a).

(b) The court shall, upon petition by the Attorney General or State's Attorney, at any time after the filing of an information or return of an indictment, conduct a hearing to determine whether any property or property interest is subject to forfeiture under this Act. At the forfeiture hearing the people shall have the burden of establishing, by a preponderance of the evidence, that property or property interests are subject to forfeiture under this Act. There is a rebuttable presumption at such hearing that any property or property interest of a person charged by information or indictment with a violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section or who is convicted of a violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section is subject to forfeiture under this Section if the State establishes by a preponderance of the evidence that:

(1) such property or property interest was acquired by such person during the period of the violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section or within a reasonable time after such period; and

(2) there was no likely source for such property or property interest other than the violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) In an action brought by the People of the State of Illinois under this Act, wherein any restraining order, injunction or prohibition or any other action in connection with any property or property interest subject to forfeiture under this Act is sought, the circuit court which shall preside over the trial of the person or persons charged with any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section shall first determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the person or persons so charged have committed a violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section and whether the property or property interest is subject to forfeiture pursuant to this Act.

In order to make such a determination, prior to entering any such order, the court shall conduct a hearing without a jury, wherein the People shall establish that there is: (i) probable cause that the person or persons so charged have committed one of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section and (ii) probable cause that any property or property interest may be subject to forfeiture pursuant to this Act. Such hearing may be conducted simultaneously with a preliminary hearing, if the prosecution is commenced by information or complaint, or by motion of the People, at any stage in the proceedings. The court may accept a finding of probable cause at a preliminary hearing following the filing of a charge for violating one of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section or the return of an indictment by a grand jury charging one of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section as sufficient evidence of probable cause as provided in item (i) above.

Upon such a finding, the circuit court shall enter such restraining order, injunction or prohibition, or shall take such other action in connection with any such property or property interest subject to forfeiture under this Act, as is necessary to insure that such property is not removed from the jurisdiction of the court, concealed, destroyed or otherwise disposed of by the owner of that property or property interest prior to a forfeiture hearing under subsection (b) of this Section. The Attorney General or State's Attorney shall file a certified copy of such restraining order, injunction or other prohibition with the recorder of deeds or registrar of titles of each county where any such property of the defendant may be located. No such injunction, restraining order or other prohibition shall affect the rights of any bona fide purchaser, mortgagee, judgment creditor or other lien holder arising prior to the date of such filing.

The court may, at any time, upon verified petition by the defendant, conduct a hearing to release all or portions of any such property or interest which the court previously determined to be subject to forfeiture or subject to any restraining order, injunction, or prohibition or other action. The court may release such property to the defendant for good cause shown and within the sound discretion of the court.

(d) Prosecution under this Act may be commenced by the Attorney General or a State's Attorney.

(e) Upon an order of forfeiture being entered pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, the court shall authorize the Attorney General to seize any property or property interest declared forfeited under this Act and under such terms and conditions as the court shall deem proper. Any property or property interest that has been the subject of an entered restraining order, injunction or prohibition or any other action filed under subsection (c) shall be forfeited unless the claimant can show by a preponderance of the evidence that the property or property interest has not been acquired or maintained as a result of a violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section or has not been used to facilitate a violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(f) The Attorney General or his or her designee is authorized to sell all property forfeited and seized pursuant to this Act, unless such property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public, and, after the deduction of all requisite expenses of administration and sale, shall distribute the proceeds of such sale, along with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance with subsection (g).

(g) All monies and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized pursuant to this Act shall be distributed as follows:

(1) An amount equal to 50% shall be distributed to the unit of local government or other law enforcement agency whose officers or employees conducted the investigation into a violation of any of the offenses listed in clauses (1) through (4) of subsection (a) of this Section and caused the arrest or arrests and prosecution leading to the forfeiture. Amounts distributed to units of local government and law enforcement agencies shall be used for enforcement of laws governing public corruption, or for other law enforcement purposes. In the event, however, that the investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution leading to the forfeiture were undertaken solely by a State agency, the portion provided hereunder shall be paid into the State Asset Forfeiture Fund in the State treasury to be used by that State agency in accordance with law. If the investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution leading to the forfeiture were undertaken by the Attorney General, the portion provided hereunder shall be paid into the Attorney General's Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund in the State treasury to be used by the Attorney General in accordance with law.

(2) An amount equal to 12.5% shall be distributed to the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in accordance with law. If the prosecution was conducted by the Attorney General, then the amount provided under this subsection shall be paid into the Attorney General's Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund in the State treasury to be used by the Attorney General in accordance with law.

(3) An amount equal to 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited in the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor Anti-Corruption Fund, to be used by the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor for additional expenses incurred in prosecuting appeals arising under this Act. Any amounts remaining in the Fund after all additional expenses have been paid shall be used by the Office to reduce the participating county contributions to the Office on a prorated basis as determined by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor based on the populations of the participating counties. If the appeal is to be conducted by the Attorney General, then the amount provided under this subsection shall be paid into the Attorney General's Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund in the State treasury to be used by the Attorney General in accordance with law.

(4) An amount equal to 25% shall be paid into the State Asset Forfeiture Fund in the State treasury to be used by the Department of State Police for the funding of the investigation of public corruption activities. Any amounts remaining in the Fund after full funding of such investigations shall be used by the Department in accordance with law to fund its other enforcement activities.

(h) All moneys deposited pursuant to this Act in the State Asset Forfeiture Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Department of State Police in the manner set forth in this Section. All moneys deposited pursuant to this Act in the Attorney General's Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Attorney General for State law enforcement purposes and for the performance of the duties of that office. All moneys deposited pursuant to this Act in the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor Anti-Corruption Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor in the manner set forth in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1019, eff. 1-1-11; 97-657, eff. 1-13-12.)

Section 25. The Illinois Notary Public Act is amended by changing Section 7-104 as follows:

(5 ILCS 312/7-104) (from Ch. 102, par. 207-104)

Sec. 7-104. Official Misconduct Defined. The term "official misconduct" generally means the wrongful exercise of a power or the wrongful performance of a duty and is fully defined in Section 33-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. The term "wrongful" as used in the definition of official misconduct means unauthorized, unlawful, abusive, negligent, reckless, or injurious.

(Source: P.A. 85-293.)

Section 30. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 9-25.2, 11-4.1, 19A-10.5, and 29-13 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/9-25.2)

Sec. 9-25.2. Contributions; candidate or treasurer of political committee.

(a) No candidate may knowingly receive any contribution solicited or received in violation of Section 33-3.1 or Section 33-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(b) The receipt of political contributions in violation of this Section shall constitute a Class A misdemeanor.

The appropriate State's Attorney or the Attorney General shall bring actions in the name of the people of the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 92-853, eff. 8-28-02.)

(10 ILCS 5/11-4.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 11-4.1)

Sec. 11-4.1. (a) In appointing polling places under this Article, the county board or board of election commissioners shall, insofar as they are convenient and available, use schools and other public buildings as polling places.

(b) Upon request of the county board or board of election commissioners, the proper agency of government (including school districts and units of local government) shall make a public building under its control available for use as a polling place on an election day and for a reasonably necessary time before and after election day, without charge. If the county board or board of election commissioners chooses a school to be a polling place, then the school district must make the school available for use as a polling place. However, for the day of the election, a school district may choose to (i) keep the school open or (ii) hold a teachers institute on that day.

(c) A government agency which makes a public building under its control available for use as a polling place shall ensure the portion of the building to be used as the polling place is accessible to handicapped and elderly voters.

(d) If a qualified elector's precinct polling place is a school and the elector will be unable to enter that polling place without violating Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 because the elector is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, that elector may vote by absentee ballot in accordance with Article 19 of this Code or may vote early in accordance with Article 19A of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-440, eff. 8-27-07.)

(10 ILCS 5/19A-10.5)

Sec. 19A-10.5. Child sex offenders. If an election authority designates one or more permanent early voting polling places under this Article, the election authority must designate at least one permanent early voting polling place that a qualified elector who is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or Section 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 may enter without violating Section 11-9.3 or Section 11-9.4 of that Code, respectively.

If an election authority designates one or more temporary early voting polling places under this Article, the election authority must designate at least one temporary early voting polling place that a qualified elector who is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or Section 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 may enter without violating Section 11-9.3 or Section 11-9.4 of that Code, respectively.

(Source: P.A. 95-440, eff. 8-27-07.)

(10 ILCS 5/29-13) (from Ch. 46, par. 29-13)

Sec. 29-13. Attempt, solicitation and conspiracy. Each violation of this Code shall be an offense within the meaning of Section 2-12 of the Illinois Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended, so that the inchoate offenses of solicitation, conspiracy and attempt, and the punishment therefor, as provided in such Criminal Code shall apply to solicitation, conspiracy and attempt to violate the provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 78-887.)

Section 35. The Secretary of State Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10b.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 310/10b.1) (from Ch. 124, par. 110b.1)

Sec. 10b.1. Competitive examinations.

(a) For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions. Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into the Office of the Secretary of State and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education and experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical skill; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which would give him the powers of a peace officer, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio or other media.

The Director may, at his discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by Federal law or by the law of any State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Personnel and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Personnel for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(b) The Director of Personnel may require that each person seeking employment with the Secretary of State, as part of the application process, authorize an investigation to determine if the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime and if so, the disposition of those convictions; this authorization shall indicate the scope of the inquiry and the agencies which may be contacted. Upon this authorization, the Director of Personnel may request and receive information and assistance from any federal, state or local governmental agency as part of the authorized investigation. The investigation shall be undertaken after the fingerprinting of an applicant in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The investigation shall consist of a criminal history records check performed by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or some other entity that has the ability to check the applicant's fingerprints against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. If the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation conduct an investigation directly for the Secretary of State's Office, then the Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Department of State Police shall provide information concerning any criminal convictions, and their disposition, brought against the applicant or prospective employee of the Secretary of State upon request of the Department of Personnel when the request is made in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police. The information derived from this investigation, including the source of this information, and any conclusions or recommendations derived from this information by the Director of Personnel shall be provided to the applicant or prospective employee, or his designee, upon request to the Director of Personnel prior to any final action by the Director of Personnel on the application. No information obtained from such investigation may be placed in any automated information system. Any criminal convictions and their disposition information obtained by the Director of Personnel shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Office of the Secretary of State, except as required herein, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Office of the Secretary of State except as needed for the purpose of evaluating the application. The only physical identity materials which the applicant or prospective employee can be required to provide the Director of Personnel are photographs or fingerprints; these shall be returned to the applicant or prospective employee upon request to the Director of Personnel, after the investigation has been completed and no copy of these materials may be kept by the Director of Personnel or any agency to which such identity materials were transmitted. Only information and standards which bear a reasonable and rational relation to the performance of an employee shall be used by the Director of Personnel. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules and regulations for the administration of this Section. Any employee of the Secretary of State who gives or causes to be given away any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions and their disposition of an applicant or prospective employee shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 40. The Comptroller Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10b.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 410/10b.1) (from Ch. 15, par. 426)

Sec. 10b.1. Competitive examinations. For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions. Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into the Office of the Comptroller and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education and experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical skill; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which entails financial responsibilities, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio or other media.

The Director may, at his or her discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by Federal law or by the law of any State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Human Resources and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Human Resources for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 45. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 40-5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/40-5)

Sec. 40-5. Election of treatment. An addict or alcoholic who is charged with or convicted of a crime or any other person charged with or convicted of a misdemeanor violation of the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act and who has not been previously convicted of a violation of that Act may elect treatment under the supervision of a licensed program designated by the Department, referred to in this Article as "designated program", unless:

(1) the crime is a crime of violence;

(2) the crime is a violation of Section 401(a), 401(b), 401(c) where the person electing treatment has been previously convicted of a non-probationable felony or the violation is non-probationable, 401(d) where the violation is non-probationable, 401.1, 402(a), 405 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 4(d), 4(e), 4(f), 4(g), 5(d), 5(e), 5(f), 5(g), 5.1, 7 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 15, 20, 55, 60(b)(3), 60(b)(4), 60(b)(5), 60(b)(6), or 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or is otherwise ineligible for probation under Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(3) the person has a record of 2 or more convictions of a crime of violence;

(4) other criminal proceedings alleging commission of a felony are pending against the person;

(5) the person is on probation or parole and the appropriate parole or probation authority does not consent to that election;

(6) the person elected and was admitted to a designated program on 2 prior occasions within any consecutive 2-year period;

(7) the person has been convicted of residential burglary and has a record of one or more felony convictions;

(8) the crime is a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(9) the crime is a reckless homicide or a reckless homicide of an unborn child, as defined in Section 9-3 or 9-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the cause of death consists of the driving of a motor vehicle by a person under the influence of alcohol or any other drug or drugs at the time of the violation.

(Source: P.A. 96-1440, eff. 1-1-11; 97-889, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 50. The Personnel Code is amended by changing Section 8b.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 415/8b.1) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b108b.1)

Sec. 8b.1. For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions.

Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into or promotion within the service, and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education; investigation of experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical fitness; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment, unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which would give him the powers of a peace officer, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. The eligibility conditions specified for the position of Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services in the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in Section 5-230 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-230) shall be applied to that position in addition to other standards, tests or criteria established by the Director. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of the examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio and other media. The Director may, however, in his discretion, continue to receive applications and examine candidates long enough to assure a sufficient number of eligibles to meet the needs of the service and may add the names of successful candidates to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings.

The Director may, in his discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by federal law or by the law of any State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Central Management Services and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Central Management Services for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 55. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 7, and 9.3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005)

Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare services when not available through other public or private child care or program facilities.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes persons under age 21 who:

(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as amended, prior to the age of 18 and who continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or

(B) were accepted for care, service and training by the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best interest in the discretion of the Department would be served by continuing that care, service and training because of severe emotional disturbances, physical disability, social adjustment or any combination thereof, or because of the need to complete an educational or vocational training program.

(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their families.

(3) "Child welfare services" means public social services which are directed toward the accomplishment of the following purposes:

(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent or neglected children;

(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, exploitation or delinquency of children;

(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of children from their families by identifying family problems, assisting families in resolving their problems, and preventing the breakup of the family where the prevention of child removal is desirable and possible when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(D) restoring to their families children who have been removed, by the provision of services to the child and the families when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(E) placing children in suitable adoptive homes, in cases where restoration to the biological family is not safe, possible or appropriate;

(F) assuring safe and adequate care of children away from their homes, in cases where the child cannot be returned home or cannot be placed for adoption. At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of this Section so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child;

(G) (blank);

(H) (blank); and

(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the last year of high school education or vocational training, in an approved individual or group treatment program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure child care facility. The Department is not required to place or maintain children:

(i) who are in a foster home, or

(ii) who are persons with a developmental disability, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or

(iii) who are female children who are pregnant, pregnant and parenting or parenting, or

(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children 18 years of age and older and for children under 18 years of age.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the expenditure of public funds for the purpose of performing abortions.

(c) The Department shall establish and maintain tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end that services and care shall be available on an equal basis throughout the State to children requiring such services.

(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and the installment amount shall then be deducted from future bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under Section 17a-4.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals of child safety and protection, family preservation, family reunification, and adoption, including but not limited to:

(1) adoption;

(2) foster care;

(3) family counseling;

(4) protective services;

(5) (blank);

(6) homemaker service;

(7) return of runaway children;

(8) (blank);

(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and

(10) interstate services.

Rules and regulations established by the Department shall include provisions for training Department staff and the staff of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies or resources, in alcohol and drug abuse screening techniques approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the purpose of identifying children and adults who should be referred to an alcohol and drug abuse treatment program for professional evaluation.

(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate program or facility within or available to the Department for a ward and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and appropriate program or none agrees to accept the ward, the Department shall create an appropriate individualized, program-oriented plan for such ward. The plan may be developed within the Department or through purchase of services by the Department to the extent that it is within its statutory authority to do.

(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the State and shall include but not be limited to the following services:

(1) case management;

(2) homemakers;

(3) counseling;

(4) parent education;

(5) day care; and

(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.

In addition, the following services may be made available to assess and meet the needs of children and families:

(1) comprehensive family-based services;

(2) assessments;

(3) respite care; and

(4) in-home health services.

The Department shall provide transportation for any of the services it makes available to children or families or for which it refers children or families.

(j) The Department may provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and grants, to persons who adopt physically or mentally handicapped, older and other hard-to-place children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were legal wards of the Department or (ii) were determined eligible for financial assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become available for adoption because the prior adoption has been dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have died. The Department may continue to provide financial assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was determined eligible for financial assistance under this subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or parents. The Department may also provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children who were wards of the Department for 12 months immediately prior to the appointment of the guardian.

The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are allowed where the child requires special service but such costs may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian of the child.

Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of a judgment or debt.

(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement of a child for adoption if an approved family is available either outside of the Department region handling the case, or outside of the State of Illinois.

(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) The Department shall offer family preservation services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare, (ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the children's health or safety. With respect to children who are in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal other than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

The Department shall notify the child and his family of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. The child and his family shall be eligible for services as soon as the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's or family's willingness to accept services shall not be considered in the investigation. The Department may also provide services to any child or family who is the subject of any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer such child or family to services available from other agencies in the community, even if the report is determined to be unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide services to any child or family after completion of a family assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided under the "differential response program" provided for in subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

The Department may, at its discretion except for those children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted, as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall be committed to the Department by any court without the approval of the Department. A minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and implement a special program of family preservation services to support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive developmental disorder if the Department determines that those services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the child. The Department may offer services to any family whether or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or family to services available from other agencies in the community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop and implement a public information campaign to alert health and social service providers and the general public about these special family preservation services. The nature and scope of the services offered and the number of families served under the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be determined by the level of funding that the Department annually allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, including but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.

(l-1) The legislature recognizes that the best interests of the child require that the child be placed in the most permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically possible. To achieve this goal, the legislature directs the Department of Children and Family Services to conduct concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of the family when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.

When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the paramount concern.

When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the Department believes that further reunification services would be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is not required to provide further reunification services after such a finding.

A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent planning for reunification and permanency. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining appropriateness of concurrent planning:

(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;

(2) the past history of the family;

(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by the family;

(4) the level of cooperation of the family;

(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the family to reunite;

(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;

(7) the age of the child;

(8) placement of siblings.

(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any child if:

(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent having custody of the child if the parents are not living together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if the child is not in the custody of either parent, or

(2) the child is found in the State and neither a parent, guardian nor custodian of the child can be located.

If the child is found in his or her residence without a parent, guardian, custodian or responsible caretaker, the Department may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary custody, place an authorized representative of the Department in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's health and safety and assume charge of the child until a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall ensure that any child taken into custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical examination.

A parent, guardian or custodian of a child in the temporary custody of the Department who would have custody of the child if he were not in the temporary custody of the Department may deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the receipt of the request, during which period the Department may cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain temporary custody of the child until the court orders otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10 day period, the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting parent, guardian or custodian not later than the expiration of the 10 day period, at which time the authority and duties of the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the child shall terminate.

(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department that cares for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a determination is made by the facility director and the Director or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the child is a ward who was placed under the care of the Department before being subject to placement in a correctional facility and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of the child in a secure care facility.

(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the Department and the parents or guardians, except that no payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of such a child that exceed the average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a child in institutions for dependent or neglected children operated by the Department. However, such restriction on payments does not apply in cases where children require specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement of such children are not available at payment rates within the limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment or otherwise.

(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, provided that the minor consents to such services and has not yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have responsibility for the development and delivery of services under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under this Section through the Department of Children and Family Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. Youth participating in services under this Section shall cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The Department shall continue child welfare services under this Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child welfare services under this Section and how such services may be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations describing services intended to assist minors in achieving sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.

(o) The Department shall establish an administrative review and appeal process for children and families who request or receive child welfare services from the Department. Children who are wards of the Department and are placed by private child welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those children are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal rights as children and families in the case of placement by the Department, including the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall insure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts wards of the Department for placement, affords those rights to children and foster families. The Department shall accept for administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by (i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be conducted in an expedited manner.

(p) There is hereby created the Department of Children and Family Services Emergency Assistance Fund from which the Department may provide special financial assistance to families which are in economic crisis when such assistance is not available through other public or private sources and the assistance is deemed necessary to prevent dissolution of the family unit or to reunite families which have been separated due to child abuse and neglect. The Department shall establish administrative rules specifying the criteria for determining eligibility for and the amount and nature of assistance to be provided. The Department may also enter into written agreements with private and public social service agencies to provide emergency financial services to families referred by the Department. Special financial assistance payments shall be available to a family no more than once during each fiscal year and the total payments to a family may not exceed $500 during a fiscal year.

(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, for the benefit of children any gift, donation or bequest of money or other property which is received on behalf of such children, or any financial benefits to which such children are or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of the Department.

The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial institutions for children for whom the Department is legally responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans' Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this subsection.

In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the Department shall:

(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and federal laws for disbursing money from children's accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's "Guardianship Administrator" or his or her designee must approve disbursements from children's accounts. The Department shall be responsible for keeping complete records of all disbursements for each account for any purpose.

(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from State funds for the child's board and care, medical care not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2). The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child or his or her guardian, or to the issuing agency.

(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a hard-to-place or handicapped child and the names of such children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.

(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services for damages sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such purposes.

(t) The Department shall perform home studies and investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:

(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically directs the Department to perform such services; and

(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance with Department rules, or has determined that neither party is financially able to pay.

The Department shall provide written notification to the court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order. The Department shall send to the court information related to the costs incurred except in cases where the court has determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.

(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, whenever the Department places a child with a prospective adoptive parent or parents or in a licensed foster home, group home, child care institution, or in a relative home, the Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker:

(1) available detailed information concerning the child's educational and health history, copies of immunization records (including insurance and medical card information), a history of the child's previous placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes excluding any information that identifies or reveals the location of any previous caretaker;

(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and

(3) information containing details of the child's individualized educational plan when the child is receiving special education services.

The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or behavioral information (including, but not limited to, criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of the information required by this paragraph, which may be provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency placement, casework staff shall at least provide known information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently provide the information in writing as required by this subsection.

The information described in this subsection shall be provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection of written information, the Department shall provide such information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall obtain from the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a signed verification of receipt of the information provided. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory level.

(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster family home may continue to receive foster care payments only until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a foster family home or that their application for licensure is denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.

(v) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-355) if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for interactive computerized communication and processing equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the Department of State Police's central criminal history data repository. The Department shall comply with all certification requirements and provide certified operators who have been trained by personnel from the Department of State Police. In addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator shall have training in the use of the criminal history information access system and have access to the terminal. The Department of Children and Family Services and its employees shall abide by rules and regulations established by the Department of State Police relating to the access and dissemination of this information.

(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within the past 5 years.

(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for information concerning prospective foster and adoptive parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the Department shall request a check of that other state's child abuse and neglect registry.

(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for the development of in-state licensed secure child care facilities that care for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such facilities.

(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history checks to determine the financial history of children placed under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting when a ward turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General.

(y) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, a child with a disability who receives residential and educational services from the Department shall be eligible to receive transition services in accordance with Article 14 of the School Code from the age of 14.5 through age 21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's residential services arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "child with a disability" means a child with a disability as defined by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004.

(Source: P.A. 95-10, eff. 6-30-07; 95-601, eff. 9-11-07; 95-642, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-134, eff. 8-7-09; 96-581, eff. 1-1-10; 96-600, eff. 8-21-09; 96-619, eff. 1-1-10; 96-760, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1189, eff. 7-22-10.)

(20 ILCS 505/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 5007)

Sec. 7. Placement of children; considerations.

(a) In placing any child under this Act, the Department shall place the child, as far as possible, in the care and custody of some individual holding the same religious belief as the parents of the child, or with some child care facility which is operated by persons of like religious faith as the parents of such child.

(a-5) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall place the child with the child's sibling or siblings under Section 7.4 of this Act unless the placement is not in each child's best interest, or is otherwise not possible under the Department's rules. If the child is not placed with a sibling under the Department's rules, the Department shall consider placements that are likely to develop, preserve, nurture, and support sibling relationships, where doing so is in each child's best interest.

(b) In placing a child under this Act, the Department may place a child with a relative if the Department determines that the relative will be able to adequately provide for the child's safety and welfare based on the factors set forth in the Department's rules governing relative placements, and that the placement is consistent with the child's best interests, taking into consideration the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

When the Department first assumes custody of a child, in placing that child under this Act, the Department shall make reasonable efforts to identify and locate a relative who is ready, willing, and able to care for the child. At a minimum, these efforts shall be renewed each time the child requires a placement change and it is appropriate for the child to be cared for in a home environment. The Department must document its efforts to identify and locate such a relative placement and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that a placement with any identified relative is not in the child's best interests or that the relative does not meet the requirements to be a relative caregiver, as set forth in Department rules or by statute, the Department must document the basis for that decision and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If, pursuant to the Department's rules, any person files an administrative appeal of the Department's decision not to place a child with a relative, it is the Department's burden to prove that the decision is consistent with the child's best interests.

When the Department determines that the child requires placement in an environment, other than a home environment, the Department shall continue to make reasonable efforts to identify and locate relatives to serve as visitation resources for the child and potential future placement resources, except when the Department determines that those efforts would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests.

If the Department determines that efforts to identify and locate relatives would be futile or inconsistent with the child's best interests, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

If the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are inappropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination and maintain the documentation in the child's case file.

When the Department determines that an individual or a group of relatives are appropriate to serve as visitation resources or possible future placement resources, the Department shall document the basis of its determination, maintain the documentation in the child's case file, create a visitation or transition plan, or both, and incorporate the visitation or transition plan, or both, into the child's case plan. For the purpose of this subsection, any determination as to the child's best interests shall include consideration of the factors set out in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department may not place a child with a relative, with the exception of certain circumstances which may be waived as defined by the Department in rules, if the results of a check of the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) identifies a prior criminal conviction of the relative or any adult member of the relative's household for any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) murder;

(1.1) solicitation of murder;

(1.2) solicitation of murder for hire;

(1.3) intentional homicide of an unborn child;

(1.4) voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.5) involuntary manslaughter;

(1.6) reckless homicide;

(1.7) concealment of a homicidal death;

(1.8) involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.9) reckless homicide of an unborn child;

(1.10) drug-induced homicide;

(2) a sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45;

(3) kidnapping;

(3.1) aggravated unlawful restraint;

(3.2) forcible detention;

(3.3) aiding and abetting child abduction;

(4) aggravated kidnapping;

(5) child abduction;

(6) aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(7) criminal sexual assault;

(8) aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(8.1) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(9) criminal sexual abuse;

(10) aggravated sexual abuse;

(11) heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05;

(12) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05;

(13) tampering with food, drugs, or cosmetics;

(14) drug-induced infliction of great bodily harm as described in Section 12-4.7 or subdivision (g)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(15) aggravated stalking;

(16) home invasion;

(17) vehicular invasion;

(18) criminal transmission of HIV;

(19) criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly or disabled person as described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a;

(20) child abandonment;

(21) endangering the life or health of a child;

(22) ritual mutilation;

(23) ritualized abuse of a child;

(24) an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses.

For the purpose of this subsection, "relative" shall include any person, 21 years of age or over, other than the parent, who (i) is currently related to the child in any of the following ways by blood or adoption: grandparent, sibling, great-grandparent, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, first cousin, second cousin, godparent, great-uncle, or great-aunt; or (ii) is the spouse of such a relative; or (iii) is the child's step-father, step-mother, or adult step-brother or step-sister; "relative" also includes a person related in any of the foregoing ways to a sibling of a child, even though the person is not related to the child, when the child and its sibling are placed together with that person. For children who have been in the guardianship of the Department, have been adopted, and are subsequently returned to the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department, a "relative" may also include any person who would have qualified as a relative under this paragraph prior to the adoption, but only if the Department determines, and documents, that it would be in the child's best interests to consider this person a relative, based upon the factors for determining best interests set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. A relative with whom a child is placed pursuant to this subsection may, but is not required to, apply for licensure as a foster family home pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969; provided, however, that as of July 1, 1995, foster care payments shall be made only to licensed foster family homes pursuant to the terms of Section 5 of this Act.

(c) In placing a child under this Act, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In rejecting placement of a child with an identified relative, the Department shall ensure that the child's health, safety, and best interests are met. In evaluating the best interests of the child, the Department shall take into consideration the factors set forth in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall consider the individual needs of the child and the capacity of the prospective foster or adoptive parents to meet the needs of the child. When a child must be placed outside his or her home and cannot be immediately returned to his or her parents or guardian, a comprehensive, individualized assessment shall be performed of that child at which time the needs of the child shall be determined. Only if race, color, or national origin is identified as a legitimate factor in advancing the child's best interests shall it be considered. Race, color, or national origin shall not be routinely considered in making a placement decision. The Department shall make special efforts for the diligent recruitment of potential foster and adoptive families that reflect the ethnic and racial diversity of the children for whom foster and adoptive homes are needed. "Special efforts" shall include contacting and working with community organizations and religious organizations and may include contracting with those organizations, utilizing local media and other local resources, and conducting outreach activities.

(c-1) At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of Section 5, so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

(d) The Department may accept gifts, grants, offers of services, and other contributions to use in making special recruitment efforts.

(e) The Department in placing children in adoptive or foster care homes may not, in any policy or practice relating to the placement of children for adoption or foster care, discriminate against any child or prospective adoptive or foster parent on the basis of race.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 900, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 920, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(20 ILCS 505/9.3) (from Ch. 23, par. 5009.3)

Sec. 9.3. Declarations by Parents and Guardians. Information requested of parents and guardians shall be submitted on forms or questionnaires prescribed by the Department or units of local government as the case may be and shall contain a written declaration to be signed by the parent or guardian in substantially the following form:

"I declare under penalties of perjury that I have examined this form or questionnaire and all accompanying statements or documents pertaining to my income, or any other matter having bearing upon my status and ability to provide payment for care and training of my child, and to the best of my knowledge and belief the information supplied is true, correct, and complete".

A person who makes and subscribes a form or questionnaire which contains, as herein above provided, a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury, knowing it to be false, incorrect or incomplete, in respect to any material statement or representative bearing upon his status as a parent or guardian, or upon his income, resources, or other matter concerning his ability to provide parental payment, shall be subject to the penalties for perjury provided for in Section 32-2 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as amended.

Parents who refuse to provide such information after three written requests from the Department will be liable for the full cost of care provided, from the commencement of such care until the required information is received.

(Source: P.A. 83-1037.)

Section 60. The Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 805-540 as follows:

(20 ILCS 805/805-540) (was 20 ILCS 805/63b2.6)

Sec. 805-540. Enforcement of adjoining state's laws. The Director may grant authority to the officers of any adjoining state who are authorized and directed to enforce the laws of that state relating to the protection of flora and fauna to take any of the following actions and have the following powers within the State of Illinois:

(1) To follow, seize, and return to the adjoining state any flora or fauna or part thereof shipped or taken from the adjoining state in violation of the laws of that state and brought into this State.

(2) To dispose of any such flora or fauna or part thereof under the supervision of an Illinois Conservation Police Officer.

(3) To enforce as an agent of this State, with the same powers as an Illinois Conservation Police Officer, each of the following laws of this State:

(i) The Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act.

(ii) The Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(iii) The Wildlife Code.

(iv) The Wildlife Habitat Management Areas Act.

(v) Section 48-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 (hunter or fisherman interference).

(vi) The Illinois Non-Game Wildlife Protection Act.

(vii) The Ginseng Harvesting Act.

(viii) The State Forest Act.

(ix) The Forest Products Transportation Act.

(x) The Timber Buyers Licensing Act.

Any officer of an adjoining state acting under a power or authority granted by the Director pursuant to this Section shall act without compensation or other benefits from this State and without this State having any liability for the acts or omissions of that officer.

(Source: P.A. 96-397, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 65. The Department of Natural Resources (Mines and Minerals) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 1905-110 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1905/1905-110) (was 20 ILCS 1905/45.1)

Sec. 1905-110. Verified documents; penalty for fraud. Applications and other documents filed for the purpose of obtaining permits, certificates, or other licenses under Acts administered by the Department shall be verified or contain written affirmation that they are signed under the penalties of perjury. A person who knowingly signs a fraudulent document commits perjury as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 and for the purpose of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

Section 70. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-25 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-25) (was 20 ILCS 2105/60.01)

Sec. 2105-25. Perjury; penalty. Each document required to be filed under any Act administered by the Department shall be verified or contain a written affirmation that it is signed under the penalties of perjury. An applicant or registrant who knowingly signs a fraudulent document commits perjury as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 and for the purpose of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

Section 75. The Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2505-400 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2505/2505-400) (was 20 ILCS 2505/39b49)

Sec. 2505-400. Contracts for collection assistance.

(a) The Department has the power to contract for collection assistance on a contingent fee basis, with collection fees to be retained by the collection agency and the net collections to be paid to the Department. In the case of any liability referred to a collection agency on or after July 1, 2003, any fee charged to the State by the collection agency shall be considered additional State tax of the taxpayer imposed under the Act under which the tax being collected was imposed, shall be deemed assessed at the time payment of the tax is made to the collection agency, and shall be separately stated in any statement or notice of the liability issued by the collection agency to the taxpayer.

(b) The Department has the power to enter into written agreements with State's Attorneys for pursuit of civil liability under subsection (E) of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 against persons who have issued to the Department checks or other orders in violation of the provisions of paragraph (1) of subsection (B) of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. Of the amount collected, the Department shall retain the amount owing upon the dishonored check or order along with the dishonored check fee imposed under the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act. The balance of damages, fees, and costs collected under subsection (E) of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or under Section 17-1a of that Code shall be retained by the State's Attorney. The agreement shall not affect the allocation of fines and costs imposed in any criminal prosecution.

(c) The Department may issue the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States (or his or her delegate) notice, as required by Section 6402(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, of any past due, legally enforceable State income tax obligation of a taxpayer. The Department must notify the taxpayer that any fee charged to the State by the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States (or his or her delegate) under Internal Revenue Code Section 6402(e) is considered additional State income tax of the taxpayer with respect to whom the Department issued the notice, and is deemed assessed upon issuance by the Department of notice to the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States (or his or her delegate) under Section 6402(e) of the Internal Revenue Code; a notice of additional State income tax is not considered a notice of deficiency, and the taxpayer has no right of protest.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 80. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2605-390 and 2605-585 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-390) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)

Sec. 2605-390. Hate crimes.

(a) To collect and disseminate information relating to "hate crimes" as defined under Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 contingent upon the availability of State or federal funds to revise and upgrade the Illinois Uniform Crime Reporting System. All law enforcement agencies shall report monthly to the Department concerning those offenses in the form and in the manner prescribed by rules and regulations adopted by the Department. The information shall be compiled by the Department and be disseminated upon request to any local law enforcement agency, unit of local government, or State agency. Dissemination of the information shall be subject to all confidentiality requirements otherwise imposed by law.

(b) The Department shall provide training for State Police officers in identifying, responding to, and reporting all hate crimes. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall develop and certify a course of such training to be made available to local law enforcement officers.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 90-130, eff. 1-1-98; 90-372, eff. 7-1-98; 90-590, eff. 1-1-00; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 90-793, eff. 8-14-98; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-585)

Sec. 2605-585. Money Laundering Asset Recovery Fund. Moneys and the sale proceeds distributed to the Department of State Police pursuant to clause (h)(6)(C) of Section 29B-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be deposited in a special fund in the State treasury to be known as the Money Laundering Asset Recovery Fund. The moneys deposited in the Money Laundering Asset Recovery Fund shall be appropriated to and administered by the Department of State Police for State law enforcement purposes.

(Source: P.A. 96-1234, eff. 7-23-10.)

Section 85. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Sections 2.1, 2.2, and 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/2.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 206-2.1)

Sec. 2.1. For the purpose of maintaining complete and accurate criminal records of the Department of State Police, it is necessary for all policing bodies of this State, the clerk of the circuit court, the Illinois Department of Corrections, the sheriff of each county, and State's Attorney of each county to submit certain criminal arrest, charge, and disposition information to the Department for filing at the earliest time possible. Unless otherwise noted herein, it shall be the duty of all policing bodies of this State, the clerk of the circuit court, the Illinois Department of Corrections, the sheriff of each county, and the State's Attorney of each county to report such information as provided in this Section, both in the form and manner required by the Department and within 30 days of the criminal history event. Specifically:

(a) Arrest Information. All agencies making arrests for offenses which are required by statute to be collected, maintained or disseminated by the Department of State Police shall be responsible for furnishing daily to the Department fingerprints, charges and descriptions of all persons who are arrested for such offenses. All such agencies shall also notify the Department of all decisions by the arresting agency not to refer such arrests for prosecution. With approval of the Department, an agency making such arrests may enter into arrangements with other agencies for the purpose of furnishing daily such fingerprints, charges and descriptions to the Department upon its behalf.

(b) Charge Information. The State's Attorney of each county shall notify the Department of all charges filed and all petitions filed alleging that a minor is delinquent, including all those added subsequent to the filing of a case, and whether charges were not filed in cases for which the Department has received information required to be reported pursuant to paragraph (a) of this Section. With approval of the Department, the State's Attorney may enter into arrangements with other agencies for the purpose of furnishing the information required by this subsection (b) to the Department upon the State's Attorney's behalf.

(c) Disposition Information. The clerk of the circuit court of each county shall furnish the Department, in the form and manner required by the Supreme Court, with all final dispositions of cases for which the Department has received information required to be reported pursuant to paragraph (a) or (d) of this Section. Such information shall include, for each charge, all (1) judgments of not guilty, judgments of guilty including the sentence pronounced by the court, findings that a minor is delinquent and any sentence made based on those findings, discharges and dismissals in the court; (2) reviewing court orders filed with the clerk of the circuit court which reverse or remand a reported conviction or findings that a minor is delinquent or that vacate or modify a sentence or sentence made following a trial that a minor is delinquent; (3) continuances to a date certain in furtherance of an order of supervision granted under Section 5-6-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act, or Section 5-615 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987; and (4) judgments or court orders terminating or revoking a sentence to or juvenile disposition of probation, supervision or conditional discharge and any resentencing or new court orders entered by a juvenile court relating to the disposition of a minor's case involving delinquency after such revocation.

(d) Fingerprints After Sentencing.

(1) After the court pronounces sentence, sentences a minor following a trial in which a minor was found to be delinquent or issues an order of supervision or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act, or Section 5-615 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for any offense which is required by statute to be collected, maintained, or disseminated by the Department of State Police, the State's Attorney of each county shall ask the court to order a law enforcement agency to fingerprint immediately all persons appearing before the court who have not previously been fingerprinted for the same case. The court shall so order the requested fingerprinting, if it determines that any such person has not previously been fingerprinted for the same case. The law enforcement agency shall submit such fingerprints to the Department daily.

(2) After the court pronounces sentence or makes a disposition of a case following a finding of delinquency for any offense which is not required by statute to be collected, maintained, or disseminated by the Department of State Police, the prosecuting attorney may ask the court to order a law enforcement agency to fingerprint immediately all persons appearing before the court who have not previously been fingerprinted for the same case. The court may so order the requested fingerprinting, if it determines that any so sentenced person has not previously been fingerprinted for the same case. The law enforcement agency may retain such fingerprints in its files.

(e) Corrections Information. The Illinois Department of Corrections and the sheriff of each county shall furnish the Department with all information concerning the receipt, escape, execution, death, release, pardon, parole, commutation of sentence, granting of executive clemency or discharge of an individual who has been sentenced or committed to the agency's custody for any offenses which are mandated by statute to be collected, maintained or disseminated by the Department of State Police. For an individual who has been charged with any such offense and who escapes from custody or dies while in custody, all information concerning the receipt and escape or death, whichever is appropriate, shall also be so furnished to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(20 ILCS 2630/2.2)

Sec. 2.2. Notification to the Department. Upon judgment of conviction of a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012 when the defendant has been determined, pursuant to Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, to be subject to the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9), the circuit court clerk shall include notification and a copy of the written determination in a report of the conviction to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office to enable the office to perform its duties under Sections 4 and 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and to report that determination to the Federal Bureau of Investigation to assist the Bureau in identifying persons prohibited from purchasing and possessing a firearm pursuant to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 922. The written determination described in this Section shall be included in the defendant's record of arrest and conviction in the manner and form prescribed by the Department of State Police.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; revised 10-10-12.)

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement and sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (e), and (e-5) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision, an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)), or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) offenses defined as "crimes of violence" in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) offenses which are Class A misdemeanors under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) the sealing of the records of an arrest which results in the petitioner being charged with a felony offense or records of a charge not initiated by arrest for a felony offense unless:

(i) the charge is amended to a misdemeanor and is otherwise eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c);

(ii) the charge is brought along with another charge as a part of one case and the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, and another charge brought in the same case results in a disposition for a misdemeanor offense that is eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c) or a disposition listed in paragraph (i), (iii), or (iv) of this subsection;

(iii) the charge results in first offender probation as set forth in subsection (c)(2)(E);

(iv) the charge is for a Class 4 felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F) or the charge is amended to a Class 4 felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F). Records of arrests which result in the petitioner being charged with a Class 4 felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F), records of charges not initiated by arrest for Class 4 felony offenses listed in subsection (c)(2)(F), and records of charges amended to a Class 4 felony offense listed in (c)(2)(F) may be sealed, regardless of the disposition, subject to any waiting periods set forth in subsection (c)(3);

(v) the charge results in acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without conviction; or

(vi) the charge results in a conviction, but the conviction was reversed or vacated.

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when:

(A) He or she has never been convicted of a criminal offense; and

(B) Each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court shall enter an expungement order as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in Class 4 felony convictions for the following offenses:

(i) Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iii) Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iv) the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act; and

(v) the Steroid Control Act.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed (i) 3 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has never been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(D)); or (ii) 4 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has ever been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(D)).

(C) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 4 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b) and (e), and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, if not waived.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to seal felony records pursuant to clause (c)(2)(E), (c)(2)(F)(ii)-(v), or (e-5) or if he or she is petitioning to expunge felony records of a qualified probation pursuant to clause (b)(1)(B)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing, and shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Effect of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. The petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order.

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(Source: P.A. 96-409, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1401, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1532, eff. 1-1-12; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 905, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 925, eff. 7-1-11; 97-443, eff. 8-19-11; 97-698, eff, 1-1-13; 97-1026, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, 1-1-13; 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 90. The Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2635/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1603)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Whenever used in this Act, and for the purposes of this Act, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

(A) "Accurate" means factually correct, containing no mistake or error of a material nature.

(B) The phrase "administer the criminal laws" includes any of the following activities: intelligence gathering, surveillance, criminal investigation, crime detection and prevention (including research), apprehension, detention, pretrial or post-trial release, prosecution, the correctional supervision or rehabilitation of accused persons or criminal offenders, criminal identification activities, or the collection, maintenance or dissemination of criminal history record information.

(C) "The Authority" means the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority.

(D) "Automated" means the utilization of computers, telecommunication lines, or other automatic data processing equipment for data collection or storage, analysis, processing, preservation, maintenance, dissemination, or display and is distinguished from a system in which such activities are performed manually.

(E) "Complete" means accurately reflecting all the criminal history record information about an individual that is required to be reported to the Department pursuant to Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(F) "Conviction information" means data reflecting a judgment of guilt or nolo contendere. The term includes all prior and subsequent criminal history events directly relating to such judgments, such as, but not limited to: (1) the notation of arrest; (2) the notation of charges filed; (3) the sentence imposed; (4) the fine imposed; and (5) all related probation, parole, and release information. Information ceases to be "conviction information" when a judgment of guilt is reversed or vacated.

For purposes of this Act, continuances to a date certain in furtherance of an order of supervision granted under Section 5-6-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections or an order of probation granted under either Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act shall not be deemed "conviction information".

(G) "Criminal history record information" means data identifiable to an individual and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, pretrial proceedings, trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which individual are not identified and from which their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.

(H) "Criminal justice agency" means (1) a government agency or any subunit thereof which is authorized to administer the criminal laws and which allocates a substantial part of its annual budget for that purpose, or (2) an agency supported by public funds which is authorized as its principal function to administer the criminal laws and which is officially designated by the Department as a criminal justice agency for purposes of this Act.

(I) "The Department" means the Illinois Department of State Police.

(J) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of State Police.

(K) "Disseminate" means to disclose or transmit conviction information in any form, oral, written, or otherwise.

(L) "Exigency" means pending danger or the threat of pending danger to an individual or property.

(M) "Non-criminal justice agency" means a State agency, Federal agency, or unit of local government that is not a criminal justice agency. The term does not refer to private individuals, corporations, or non-governmental agencies or organizations.

(M-5) "Request" means the submission to the Department, in the form and manner required, the necessary data elements or fingerprints, or both, to allow the Department to initiate a search of its criminal history record information files.

(N) "Requester" means any private individual, corporation, organization, employer, employment agency, labor organization, or non-criminal justice agency that has made a request pursuant to this Act to obtain conviction information maintained in the files of the Department of State Police regarding a particular individual.

(O) "Statistical information" means data from which the identity of an individual cannot be ascertained, reconstructed, or verified and to which the identity of an individual cannot be linked by the recipient of the information.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 95. The Sex Offender Management Board Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4026/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Board" means the Sex Offender Management Board created in Section 15.

(b) "Sex offender" means any person who is convicted or found delinquent in the State of Illinois, or under any substantially similar federal law or law of another state, of any sex offense or attempt of a sex offense as defined in subsection (c) of this Section, or any former statute of this State that defined a felony sex offense, or who has been declared as a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act or declared a sexually violent person under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, or any substantially similar federal law or law of another state.

(c) "Sex offense" means any felony or misdemeanor offense described in this subsection (c) as follows:

(1) Indecent solicitation of a child, in violation of Section 11-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) Indecent solicitation of an adult, in violation of Section 11-6.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(3) Public indecency, in violation of Section 11-9 or 11-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) Sexual exploitation of a child, in violation of Section 11-9.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(5) Sexual relations within families, in violation of Section 11-11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(6) Promoting juvenile prostitution or soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, in violation of Section 11-14.4 or 11-15.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(7) Promoting juvenile prostitution or keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, in violation of Section 11-14.4 or 11-17.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(8) Patronizing a juvenile prostitute, in violation of Section 11-18.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(9) Promoting juvenile prostitution or juvenile pimping, in violation of Section 11-14.4 or 11-19.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(10) promoting juvenile prostitution or exploitation of a child, in violation of Section 11-14.4 or 11-19.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(11) Child pornography, in violation of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(11.5) Aggravated child pornography, in violation of Section 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961;

(12) Harmful material, in violation of Section 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(13) Criminal sexual assault, in violation of Section 11-1.20 or 12-13 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(13.5) Grooming, in violation of Section 11-25 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(14) Aggravated criminal sexual assault, in violation of Section 11-1.30 or 12-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(14.5) Traveling to meet a minor, in violation of Section 11-26 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(15) Predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, in violation of Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(16) Criminal sexual abuse, in violation of Section 11-1.50 or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(17) Aggravated criminal sexual abuse, in violation of Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(18) Ritualized abuse of a child, in violation of Section 12-33 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(19) An attempt to commit any of the offenses enumerated in this subsection (c); or

(20) Any felony offense under Illinois law that is sexually motivated.

(d) "Management" means treatment, and supervision of any sex offender that conforms to the standards created by the Board under Section 15.

(e) "Sexually motivated" means one or more of the facts of the underlying offense indicates conduct that is of a sexual nature or that shows an intent to engage in behavior of a sexual nature.

(f) "Sex offender evaluator" means a person licensed under the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act to conduct sex offender evaluations.

(g) "Sex offender treatment provider" means a person licensed under the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act to provide sex offender treatment services.

(h) "Associate sex offender provider" means a person licensed under the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act to provide sex offender evaluations and to provide sex offender treatment under the supervision of a licensed sex offender evaluator or a licensed sex offender treatment provider.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1098, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 110. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 45-57, 50-5, and 50-70 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/45-57)

Sec. 45-57. Veterans.

(a) Set-aside goal. It is the goal of the State to promote and encourage the continued economic development of small businesses owned and controlled by qualified veterans and that qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses (referred to as SDVOSB) and veteran-owned small businesses (referred to as VOSB) participate in the State's procurement process as both prime contractors and subcontractors. Not less than 3% of the total dollar amount of State contracts, as defined by the Director of Central Management Services, shall be established as a goal to be awarded to SDVOSB and VOSB. That portion of a contract under which the contractor subcontracts with a SDVOSB or VOSB may be counted toward the goal of this subsection. The Department of Central Management Services shall adopt rules to implement compliance with this subsection by all State agencies.

(b) Fiscal year reports. By each September 1, each chief procurement officer shall report to the Department of Central Management Services on all of the following for the immediately preceding fiscal year, and by each March 1 the Department of Central Management Services shall compile and report that information to the General Assembly:

(1) The total number of VOSB, and the number of SDVOSB, who submitted bids for contracts under this Code.

(2) The total number of VOSB, and the number of SDVOSB, who entered into contracts with the State under this Code and the total value of those contracts.

(c) Yearly review and recommendations. Each year, each chief procurement officer shall review the progress of all State agencies under its jurisdiction in meeting the goal described in subsection (a), with input from statewide veterans' service organizations and from the business community, including businesses owned by qualified veterans, and shall make recommendations to be included in the Department of Central Management Services' report to the General Assembly regarding continuation, increases, or decreases of the percentage goal. The recommendations shall be based upon the number of businesses that are owned by qualified veterans and on the continued need to encourage and promote businesses owned by qualified veterans.

(d) Governor's recommendations. To assist the State in reaching the goal described in subsection (a), the Governor shall recommend to the General Assembly changes in programs to assist businesses owned by qualified veterans.

(e) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, or service in active duty as defined under 38 U.S.C. Section 101. Service in the Merchant Marine that constitutes active duty under Section 401 of federal Public Act 95-202 shall also be considered service in the armed forces for purposes of this Section.

"Certification" means a determination made by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and the Department of Central Management Services that a business entity is a qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small business or a qualified veteran-owned small business for whatever purpose. A SDVOSB or VOSB owned and controlled by females, minorities, or persons with disabilities, as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act, shall select and designate whether that business is to be certified as a "female-owned business", "minority-owned business", or "business owned by a person with a disability", as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act, or as a qualified SDVOSB or qualified VOSB under this Section.

"Control" means the exclusive, ultimate, majority, or sole control of the business, including but not limited to capital investment and all other financial matters, property, acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters, officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring, operation responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and dividend matters, financial transactions, and rights of other shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real, substantial, and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall include the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the business and to make the day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy, management, and operations. Control shall be exemplified by possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the particular business, and control shall not include simple majority or absentee ownership.

"Qualified service-disabled veteran" means a veteran who has been found to have 10% or more service-connected disability by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs or the United States Department of Defense.

"Qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small business" or "SDVOSB" means a small business (i) that is at least 51% owned by one or more qualified service-disabled veterans living in Illinois or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock of which is owned by one or more qualified service-disabled veterans living in Illinois; (ii) that has its home office in Illinois; and (iii) for which items (i) and (ii) are factually verified annually by the Department of Central Management Services.

"Qualified veteran-owned small business" or "VOSB" means a small business (i) that is at least 51% owned by one or more qualified veterans living in Illinois or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock of which is owned by one or more qualified veterans living in Illinois; (ii) that has its home office in Illinois; and (iii) for which items (i) and (ii) are factually verified annually by the Department of Central Management Services.

"Service-connected disability" means a disability incurred in the line of duty in the active military, naval, or air service as described in 38 U.S.C. 101(16).

"Small business" means a business that has annual gross sales of less than $75,000,000 as evidenced by the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Department of Central Management Services for certification for a particular contract if the firm can demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on SDVOSB or VOSB as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of veterans or service-disabled veterans.

"State agency" has the same meaning as in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

"Time of hostilities with a foreign country" means any period of time in the past, present, or future during which a declaration of war by the United States Congress has been or is in effect or during which an emergency condition has been or is in effect that is recognized by the issuance of a Presidential proclamation or a Presidential executive order and in which the armed forces expeditionary medal or other campaign service medals are awarded according to Presidential executive order.

"Veteran" means a person who (i) has been a member of the armed forces of the United States or, while a citizen of the United States, was a member of the armed forces of allies of the United States in time of hostilities with a foreign country and (ii) has served under one or more of the following conditions: (a) the veteran served a total of at least 6 months; (b) the veteran served for the duration of hostilities regardless of the length of the engagement; (c) the veteran was discharged on the basis of hardship; or (d) the veteran was released from active duty because of a service connected disability and was discharged under honorable conditions.

(f) Certification program. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and the Department of Central Management Services shall work together to devise a certification procedure to assure that businesses taking advantage of this Section are legitimately classified as qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses or qualified veteran-owned small businesses.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Administrative penalties. The Department of Central Management Services shall suspend any person who commits a violation of Section 17-10.3 or subsection (d) of Section 33E-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to this Section from bidding on, or participating as a contractor, subcontractor, or supplier in, any State contract or project for a period of not less than 3 years, and, if the person is certified as a service-disabled veteran-owned small business or a veteran-owned small business, then the Department shall revoke the business's certification for a period of not less than 3 years. An additional or subsequent violation shall extend the periods of suspension and revocation for a period of not less than 5 years. The suspension and revocation shall apply to the principals of the business and any subsequent business formed or financed by, or affiliated with, those principals.

(2) Reports of violations. Each State agency shall report any alleged violation of Section 17-10.3 or subsection (d) of Section 33E-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to this Section to the Department of Central Management Services. The Department of Central Management Services shall subsequently report all such alleged violations to the Attorney General, who shall determine whether to bring a civil action against any person for the violation.

(3) List of suspended persons. The Department of Central Management Services shall monitor the status of all reported violations of Section 17-10.3 or subsection (d) of Section 33E-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to this Section and shall maintain and make available to all State agencies a central listing of all persons that committed violations resulting in suspension.

(4) Use of suspended persons. During the period of a person's suspension under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a State agency shall not enter into any contract with that person or with any contractor using the services of that person as a subcontractor.

(5) Duty to check list. Each State agency shall check the central listing provided by the Department of Central Management Services under paragraph (3) of this subsection to verify that a person being awarded a contract by that State agency, or to be used as a subcontractor or supplier on a contract being awarded by that State agency, is not under suspension pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 96-96, eff. 1-1-10; 97-260, eff. 8-5-11.)

(30 ILCS 500/50-5)

Sec. 50-5. Bribery.

(a) Prohibition. No person or business shall be awarded a contract or subcontract under this Code who:

(1) has been convicted under the laws of Illinois or any other state of bribery or attempting to bribe an officer or employee of the State of Illinois or any other state in that officer's or employee's official capacity; or

(2) has made an admission of guilt of that conduct that is a matter of record but has not been prosecuted for that conduct.

(b) Businesses. No business shall be barred from contracting with any unit of State or local government, or subcontracting under such a contract, as a result of a conviction under this Section of any employee or agent of the business if the employee or agent is no longer employed by the business and:

(1) the business has been finally adjudicated not guilty; or

(2) the business demonstrates to the governmental entity with which it seeks to contract or which is a signatory to the contract to which the subcontract relates, and that entity finds that the commission of the offense was not authorized, requested, commanded, or performed by a director, officer, or high managerial agent on behalf of the business as provided in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 5-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(c) Conduct on behalf of business. For purposes of this Section, when an official, agent, or employee of a business committed the bribery or attempted bribery on behalf of the business and in accordance with the direction or authorization of a responsible official of the business, the business shall be chargeable with the conduct.

(d) Certification. Every bid submitted to and contract executed by the State and every subcontract subject to Section 20-120 of this Code shall contain a certification by the contractor or the subcontractor, respectively, that the contractor or subcontractor is not barred from being awarded a contract or subcontract under this Section and acknowledges that the chief procurement officer may declare the related contract void if any certifications required by this Section are false. If the false certification is made by a subcontractor, then the contractor's submitted bid and the executed contract may not be declared void, unless the contractor refuses to terminate the subcontract upon the State's request after a finding that the subcontract's certification was false. A contractor or subcontractor who makes a false statement, material to the certification, commits a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-795, eff. 7-1-10 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 96-795); 97-895, eff. 8-3-12.)

(30 ILCS 500/50-70)

Sec. 50-70. Additional provisions. This Code is subject to applicable provisions of the following Acts:

(1) Article 33E of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(2) the Illinois Human Rights Act;

(3) the Discriminatory Club Act;

(4) the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act;

(5) the State Prompt Payment Act;

(6) the Public Officer Prohibited Activities Act;

(7) the Drug Free Workplace Act;

(8) the Illinois Power Agency Act;

(9) the Employee Classification Act; and

(10) the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-26, eff. 1-1-08; 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-795, eff. 7-1-10 (see Section 5 of P.A. 96-793 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 96-795).)

Section 115. The Intergovernmental Drug Laws Enforcement Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 715/3) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1703)

Sec. 3. A Metropolitan Enforcement Group which meets the minimum criteria established in this Section is eligible to receive State grants to help defray the costs of operation. To be eligible a MEG must:

(1) Be established and operating pursuant to intergovernmental contracts written and executed in conformity with the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, and involve 2 or more units of local government.

(2) Establish a MEG Policy Board composed of an elected official, or his designee, and the chief law enforcement officer, or his designee, from each participating unit of local government to oversee the operations of the MEG and make such reports to the Department of State Police as the Department may require.

(3) Designate a single appropriate elected official of a participating unit of local government to act as the financial officer of the MEG for all participating units of local government and to receive funds for the operation of the MEG.

(4) Limit its operations to enforcement of drug laws; enforcement of Sections 24-2.1, 24-2.2, 24-3, 24-3.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.4, 24-4, and 24-5 and subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7), 24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(c) of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and the investigation of streetgang related offenses.

(5) Cooperate with the Department of State Police in order to assure compliance with this Act and to enable the Department to fulfill its duties under this Act, and supply the Department with all information the Department deems necessary therefor.

(6) Receive funding of at least 50% of the total operating budget of the MEG from the participating units of local government.

(Source: P.A. 88-677, eff. 12-15-94.)

Section 120. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 504 and 1302 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/504) (from Ch. 120, par. 5-504)

Sec. 504. Verification. Each return or notice required to be filed under this Act shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent return under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 82-1009.)

(35 ILCS 5/1302) (from Ch. 120, par. 13-1302)

Sec. 1302. Willful Failure to Pay Over. Any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who willfully fails to remit such payment to the Department when due, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Any such person who purports to make such payment by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended. Any person whose commercial domicile or whose residence is in this State and who is charged with a violation under this Section shall be tried in the county where his commercial domicile or his residence is located unless he asserts a right to be tried in another venue. A prosecution for any act in violation of this Section may be commenced at any time within 5 years of the commission of that act.

(Source: P.A. 84-221.)

Section 125. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 14 and 15 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/14) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.14)

Sec. 14. When the amount due is under $300, any person subject to the provisions hereof who fails to file a return, or who violates any other provision of Section 9 or Section 10 hereof, or who fails to keep books and records as required herein, or who files a fraudulent return, or who wilfully violates any rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of the provisions hereof, or any officer or agent of a corporation or manager, member, or agent of a limited liability company subject hereto who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of such corporation or limited liability company, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act, or any person who violates any of the provisions of Sections 3, 5 or 7 hereof, or any purchaser who obtains a registration number or resale number from the Department through misrepresentation, or who represents to a seller that such purchaser has a registration number or a resale number from the Department when he knows that he does not, or who uses his registration number or resale number to make a seller believe that he is buying tangible personal property for resale when such purchaser in fact knows that this is not the case, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person who violates any provision of Section 6 hereof, or who engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail after his Certificate of Registration under this Act has been revoked in accordance with Section 12 of this Act, is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Each day any such person is engaged in business in violation of Section 6, or after his Certificate of Registration under this Act has been revoked, constitutes a separate offense.

When the amount due is under $300, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Any such person who purports to make such payment by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

When the amount due is $300 or more any person subject to the provisions hereof who fails to file a return or who violates any other provision of Section 9 or Section 10 hereof or who fails to keep books and records as required herein or who files a fraudulent return, or who wilfully violates any rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of the provisions hereof, or any officer or agent of a corporation or manager, member, or agent of a limited liability company subject hereto who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of such corporation or limited liability company, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act or any person who violates any of the provisions of Sections 3, 5 or 7 hereof or any purchaser who obtains a registration number or resale number from the Department through misrepresentation, or who represents to a seller that such purchaser has a registration number or a resale number from the Department when he knows that he does not or who uses his registration number or resale number to make a seller believe that he is buying tangible personal property for resale when such purchaser in fact knows that this is not the case, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

When the amount due is $300 or more any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any such person who purports to make such payment by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

Any seller who collects or attempts to collect use tax measured by receipts which such seller knows are not subject to use tax, or any seller who knowingly over-collects or attempts to over-collect use tax in a transaction which is subject to the tax that is imposed by this Act, shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each such offense. This paragraph does not apply to an amount collected by the seller as use tax on receipts which are subject to tax under this Act as long as such collection is made in compliance with the tax collection brackets prescribed by the Department in its Rules and Regulations.

Any taxpayer or agent of a taxpayer who with the intent to defraud purports to make a payment due to the Department by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

A prosecution for any act in violation of this Section may be commenced at any time within 3 years of the commission of that Act.

This Section does not apply if the violation in a particular case also constitutes a criminal violation of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(Source: P.A. 88-480.)

(35 ILCS 105/15) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.15)

Sec. 15. The tax herein imposed shall be in addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by the State of Illinois or by any municipal corporation or political subdivision thereof.

Any taxpayer or agent of a taxpayer who with the intent to defraud purports to make a payment due to the Department by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 84-221.)

Section 130. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/15) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.45)

Sec. 15. When the amount due is under $300, any person subject to the provisions hereof who fails to file a return, or who violates any other provision of Section 9 or Section 10 hereof, or who fails to keep books and records as required herein, or who files a fraudulent return, or who wilfully violates any Rule or Regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of the provisions hereof, or any officer or agent of a corporation, or manager, member, or agent of a limited liability company, subject hereto who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of such corporation or limited liability company, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act, or any person who violates any of the provisions of Sections 3 and 5 hereof, or any purchaser who obtains a registration number or resale number from the Department through misrepresentation, or who represents to a seller that such purchaser has a registration number or a resale number from the Department when he knows that he does not, or who uses his registration number or resale number to make a seller believe that he is buying tangible personal property for resale when such purchaser in fact knows that this is not the case, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person who violates any provision of Section 6 hereof, or who engages in the business of making sales of service after his Certificate of Registration under this Act has been revoked in accordance with Section 12 of this Act, is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Each day any such person is engaged in business in violation of Section 6, or after his Certificate of Registration under this Act has been revoked, constitutes a separate offense.

When the amount due is under $300, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Any such person who purports to make such payment by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person subject to the provisions hereof who fails to file a return, or who violates any other provision of Section 9 or Section 10 hereof, or who fails to keep books and records as required herein or who files a fraudulent return, or who willfully violates any rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of the provisions hereof, or any officer or agent of a corporation, or manager, member, or agent of a limited liability company, subject hereto who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of such corporation or limited liability company, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act, or any person who violates any of the provisions of Sections 3 and 5 hereof, or any purchaser who obtains a registration number or resale number from the Department through misrepresentation, or who represents to a seller that such purchaser has a registration number or a resale number from the Department when he knows that he does not, or who uses his registration number or resale number to make a seller believe that he is buying tangible personal property for resale when such purchaser in fact knows that this is not the case, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any such person who purports to make such payment by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

Any serviceman who collects or attempts to collect Service Use Tax measured by receipts or selling prices which such serviceman knows are not subject to Service Use Tax, or any serviceman who knowingly over-collects or attempts to over-collect Service Use Tax in a transaction which is subject to the tax that is imposed by this Act, shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each offense. This paragraph does not apply to an amount collected by the serviceman as Service Use Tax on receipts or selling prices which are subject to tax under this Act as long as such collection is made in compliance with the tax collection brackets prescribed by the Department in its Rules and Regulations.

Any taxpayer or agent of a taxpayer who with the intent to defraud purports to make a payment due to the Department by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

A prosecution for any Act in violation of this Section may be commenced at any time within 3 years of the commission of that Act.

This Section does not apply if the violation in a particular case also constitutes a criminal violation of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 91-51, eff. 6-30-99.)

Section 135. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/15) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.115)

Sec. 15. When the amount due is under $300, any person subject to the provisions hereof who fails to file a return, or who violates any other provision of Section 9 or Section 10 hereof, or who fails to keep books and records as required herein, or who files a fraudulent return, or who wilfully violates any Rule or Regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of the provisions hereof, or any officer or agent of a corporation, or manager, member, or agent of a limited liability company, subject hereto who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of such corporation or limited liability company, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act, or any person who violates any of the provisions of Sections 3, 5 or 7 hereof, or any purchaser who obtains a registration number or resale number from the Department through misrepresentation, or who represents to a seller that such purchaser has a registration number or a resale number from the Department when he knows that he does not, or who uses his registration number or resale number to make a seller believe that he is buying tangible personal property for resale when such purchaser in fact knows that this is not the case, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person who violates any provision of Section 6 hereof, or who engages in the business of making sales of service after his Certificate of Registration under this Act has been revoked in accordance with Section 12 of this Act, is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Each day any such person is engaged in business in violation of Section 6, or after his Certificate of Registration under this Act has been revoked, constitutes a separate offense.

When the amount due is under $300, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Any such person who purports to make such payment by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person subject to the provisions hereof who fails to file a return, or who violates any other provision of Section 9 or Section 10 hereof, or who fails to keep books and records as required herein, or who files a fraudulent return, or who wilfully violates any rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of the provisions hereof, or any officer or agent of a corporation, or manager, member, or agent of a limited liability company, subject hereto who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of such corporation or limited liability company, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act, or any person who violates any of the provisions of Sections 3, 5 or 7 hereof, or any purchaser who obtains a registration number or resale number from the Department through misrepresentation, or who represents to a seller that such purchaser has a registration number or a resale number from the Department when he knows that he does not, or who uses his registration number or resale number to make a seller believe that he is buying tangible personal property for resale when such purchaser in fact knows that this is not the case, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department but who fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any such person who purports to make such payment by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

Any serviceman who collects or attempts to collect Service Occupation Tax, measured by receipts which such serviceman knows are not subject to Service Occupation Tax, or any serviceman who collects or attempts to collect an amount (however designated) which purports to reimburse such serviceman for Service Occupation Tax liability measured by receipts or selling prices which such serviceman knows are not subject to Service Occupation Tax, or any serviceman who knowingly over-collects or attempts to over-collect Service Occupation Tax or an amount purporting to be reimbursement for Service Occupation Tax liability in a transaction which is subject to the tax that is imposed by this Act, shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each such offense. This paragraph does not apply to an amount collected by the serviceman as reimbursement for the serviceman's Service Occupation Tax liability on receipts or selling prices which are subject to tax under this Act, as long as such collection is made in compliance with the tax collection brackets prescribed by the Department in its Rules and Regulations.

A prosecution for any act in violation of this Section may be commenced at any time within 3 years of the commission of that act.

This Section does not apply if the violation in a particular case also constitutes a criminal violation of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or the Use Tax Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-51, eff. 6-30-99.)

Section 140. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/13) (from Ch. 120, par. 452)

Sec. 13. Criminal penalties.

(a) When the amount due is under $300, any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State who fails to file a return, or who files a fraudulent return, or any officer, employee or agent of a corporation, member, employee or agent of a partnership, or manager, member, agent, or employee of a limited liability company engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State who, as such officer, employee, agent, manager, or member is under a duty to file a return, or any officer, agent or employee of a corporation, member, agent, or employee of a partnership, or manager, member, agent, or employee of a limited liability company engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State who files or causes to be filed or signs or causes to be signed a fraudulent return filed on behalf of such corporation or limited liability company, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person who or any officer or director of any corporation, partner or member of any partnership, or manager or member of a limited liability company that: (a) violates Section 2a of this Act or (b) fails to keep books and records, or fails to produce books and records as required by Section 7 or (c) willfully violates a rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Any person, manager or member of a limited liability company, or officer or director of any corporation who engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail after the certificate of registration of that person, corporation, limited liability company, or partnership has been revoked is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Each day such person, corporation, or partnership is engaged in business without a certificate of registration or after the certificate of registration of that person, corporation, or partnership has been revoked constitutes a separate offense.

Any purchaser who obtains a registration number or resale number from the Department through misrepresentation, or who represents to a seller that such purchaser has a registration number or a resale number from the Department when he knows that he does not, or who uses his registration number or resale number to make a seller believe that he is buying tangible personal property for resale when such purchaser in fact knows that this is not the case is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any distributor, supplier or other reseller of motor fuel registered pursuant to Section 2a or 2c of this Act who fails to collect the prepaid tax on invoiced gallons of motor fuel sold or who fails to deliver a statement of tax paid to the purchaser or to the Department as required by Sections 2d and 2e of this Act, respectively, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor if the amount due is under $300, and a Class 4 felony if the amount due is $300 or more.

When the amount due is under $300, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any seller who collects or attempts to collect an amount (however designated) which purports to reimburse such seller for retailers' occupation tax liability measured by receipts which such seller knows are not subject to retailers' occupation tax, or any seller who knowingly over-collects or attempts to over-collect an amount purporting to reimburse such seller for retailers' occupation tax liability in a transaction which is subject to the tax that is imposed by this Act, shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each such offense. This paragraph does not apply to an amount collected by the seller as reimbursement for the seller's retailers' occupation tax liability on receipts which are subject to tax under this Act as long as such collection is made in compliance with the tax collection brackets prescribed by the Department in its Rules and Regulations.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State who fails to file a return, or who files a fraudulent return, or any officer, employee or agent of a corporation, member, employee or agent of a partnership, or manager, member, agent, or employee of a limited liability company engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State who, as such officer, employee, agent, manager, or member is under a duty to file a return and who fails to file such return or any officer, agent, or employee of a corporation, member, agent or employee of a partnership, or manager, member, agent, or employee of a limited liability company engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State who files or causes to be filed or signs or causes to be signed a fraudulent return filed on behalf of such corporation or limited liability company, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make payment to the Department but fails to remit such payment to the Department when due, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

Any person whose principal place of business is in this State and who is charged with a violation under this Section shall be tried in the county where his principal place of business is located unless he asserts a right to be tried in another venue.

Any taxpayer or agent of a taxpayer who with the intent to defraud purports to make a payment due to the Department by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

(b) A person commits the offense of sales tax evasion under this Act when he knowingly attempts in any manner to evade or defeat the tax imposed on him or on any other person, or the payment thereof, and he commits an affirmative act in furtherance of the evasion. For purposes of this Section, an "affirmative act in furtherance of the evasion" means an act designed in whole or in part to (i) conceal, misrepresent, falsify, or manipulate any material fact or (ii) tamper with or destroy documents or materials related to a person's tax liability under this Act. Two or more acts of sales tax evasion may be charged as a single count in any indictment, information, or complaint and the amount of tax deficiency may be aggregated for purposes of determining the amount of tax which is attempted to be or is evaded and the period between the first and last acts may be alleged as the date of the offense.

(1) When the amount of tax, the assessment or payment of which is attempted to be or is evaded is less than $500 a person is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(2) When the amount of tax, the assessment or payment of which is attempted to be or is evaded is $500 or more but less than $10,000, a person is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(3) When the amount of tax, the assessment or payment of which is attempted to be or is evaded is $10,000 or more but less than $100,000, a person is guilty of a Class 2 felony.

(4) When the amount of tax, the assessment or payment of which is attempted to be or is evaded is $100,000 or more, a person is guilty of a Class 1 felony.

(c) A prosecution for any act in violation of this Section may be commenced at any time within 5 years of the commission of that act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1074, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 145. The Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10-50 as follows:

(35 ILCS 143/10-50)

Sec. 10-50. Violations and penalties. When the amount due is under $300, any distributor who fails to file a return, wilfully fails or refuses to make any payment to the Department of the tax imposed by this Act, or files a fraudulent return, or any officer or agent of a corporation engaged in the business of distributing tobacco products to retailers and consumers located in this State who signs a fraudulent return filed on behalf of the corporation, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person who violates any provision of Section 10-20 of this Act, fails to keep books and records as required under this Act, or wilfully violates a rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of this Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person commits a separate offense on each day that he or she engages in business in violation of Section 10-20 of this Act.

When the amount due is under $300, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit the payment to the Department when due, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any distributor who files, or causes to be filed, a fraudulent return, or any officer or agent of a corporation engaged in the business of distributing tobacco products to retailers and consumers located in this State who files or causes to be filed or signs or causes to be signed a fraudulent return filed on behalf of the corporation, or any accountant or other agent who knowingly enters false information on the return of any taxpayer under this Act is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person engaged in the business of distributing tobacco products to retailers and consumers located in this State who fails to file a return, wilfully fails or refuses to make any payment to the Department of the tax imposed by this Act, or accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make payment to the Department but fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

Any person whose principal place of business is in this State and who is charged with a violation under this Section shall be tried in the county where his or her principal place of business is located unless he or she asserts a right to be tried in another venue. If the taxpayer does not have his or her principal place of business in this State, however, the hearing must be held in Sangamon County unless the taxpayer asserts a right to be tried in another venue.

Any taxpayer or agent of a taxpayer who with the intent to defraud purports to make a payment due to the Department by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, is guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

A prosecution for a violation described in this Section may be commenced within 3 years after the commission of the act constituting the violation.

(Source: P.A. 92-231, eff. 8-2-01.)

Section 150. The Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(35 ILCS 145/8) (from Ch. 120, par. 481b.38)

Sec. 8. When the amount due is under $300, any person engaged in the business of renting, leasing or letting hotel rooms in this State who fails to make a return, or to keep books and records as required herein, or who makes a fraudulent return, or who wilfully violates any rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this Act, or any officer or agent of a corporation engaged in the business of renting, leasing or letting hotel rooms in this State who signs a fraudulent return made on behalf of such corporation, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person who violates any provision of Section 5 of this Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Each and every day any such person is engaged in business in violation of said Section 5 shall constitute a separate offense.

When the amount due is under $300, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit such payment to the Department when due is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Any such person who purports to make such payment by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

Any hotel operator who collects or attempts to collect an amount (however designated) which purports to reimburse such operator for hotel operators' occupation tax liability measured by receipts which such operator knows are not subject to hotel operators' occupation tax, or any hotel operator who knowingly over-collects or attempts to over-collect an amount purporting to reimburse such operator for hotel operators' occupation tax liability in a transaction which is subject to the tax that is imposed by this Act, shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person engaged in the business of renting, leasing or letting hotel rooms in this State who fails to make a return, or to keep books and records as required herein, or who makes a fraudulent return, or who wilfully violates any rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this Act, or any officer or agent of a corporation engaged in the business of renting, leasing or letting hotel rooms in this State who signs a fraudulent return made on behalf of such corporation is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

When the amount due is $300 or more, any person who accepts money that is due to the Department under this Act from a taxpayer for the purpose of acting as the taxpayer's agent to make the payment to the Department, but who fails to remit such payment to the Department is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any such person who purports to make such payment by issuing or delivering a check or other order upon a real or fictitious depository for the payment of money, knowing that it will not be paid by the depository, shall be guilty of a deceptive practice in violation of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended.

A prosecution for any act in violation of this Section may be commenced at any time within 3 years of the commission of that act.

(Source: P.A. 85-299.)

Section 155. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 15-172 and 15-177 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Property Tax Relief Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-355, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-177)

Sec. 15-177. The long-time occupant homestead exemption.

(a) If the county has elected, under Section 15-176, to be subject to the provisions of the alternative general homestead exemption, then, for taxable years 2007 and thereafter, regardless of whether the exemption under Section 15-176 applies, qualified homestead property is entitled to an annual homestead exemption equal to a reduction in the property's equalized assessed value calculated as provided in this Section.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Adjusted homestead value" means the lesser of the following values:

(1) The property's base homestead value increased by: (i) 10% for each taxable year after the base year through and including the current tax year for qualified taxpayers with a household income of more than $75,000 but not exceeding $100,000; or (ii) 7% for each taxable year after the base year through and including the current tax year for qualified taxpayers with a household income of $75,000 or less. The increase each year is an increase over the prior year; or

(2) The property's equalized assessed value for the current tax year minus the general homestead deduction.

"Base homestead value" means:

(1) if the property did not have an adjusted homestead value under Section 15-176 for the base year, then an amount equal to the equalized assessed value of the property for the base year prior to exemptions, minus the general homestead deduction, provided that the property's assessment was not based on a reduced assessed value resulting from a temporary irregularity in the property for that year; or

(2) if the property had an adjusted homestead value under Section 15-176 for the base year, then an amount equal to the adjusted homestead value of the property under Section 15-176 for the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year in which the taxpayer first qualifies for the exemption under this Section.

"Current taxable year" means the taxable year for which the exemption under this Section is being applied.

"Equalized assessed value" means the property's assessed value as equalized by the Department.

"Homestead" or "homestead property" means residential property that as of January 1 of the tax year is occupied by a qualified taxpayer as his or her principal dwelling place, or that is a leasehold interest on which a single family residence is situated, that is occupied as a residence by a qualified taxpayer who has a legal or equitable interest therein evidenced by a written instrument, as an owner or as a lessee, and on which the person is liable for the payment of property taxes. Residential units in an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative, or as a life care facility, which are occupied by persons who hold a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building or life care facility as owners or lessees, and who are liable by contract for the payment of property taxes, are included within this definition of homestead property. A homestead includes the dwelling place, appurtenant structures, and so much of the surrounding land constituting the parcel on which the dwelling place is situated as is used for residential purposes. If the assessor has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the homestead, then the homestead is limited to the property within that description.

"Household income" has the meaning set forth under Section 15-172 of this Code.

"General homestead deduction" means the amount of the general homestead exemption under Section 15-175.

"Life care facility" means a facility defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Qualified homestead property" means homestead property owned by a qualified taxpayer.

"Qualified taxpayer" means any individual:

(1) who, for at least 10 continuous years as of January 1 of the taxable year, has occupied the same homestead property as a principal residence and domicile or who, for at least 5 continuous years as of January 1 of the taxable year, has occupied the same homestead property as a principal residence and domicile if that person received assistance in the acquisition of the property as part of a government or nonprofit housing program; and

(2) who has a household income of $100,000 or less.

(c) The base homestead value must remain constant, except that the assessor may revise it under any of the following circumstances:

(1) If the equalized assessed value of a homestead property for the current tax year is less than the previous base homestead value for that property, then the current equalized assessed value (provided it is not based on a reduced assessed value resulting from a temporary irregularity in the property) becomes the base homestead value in subsequent tax years.

(2) For any year in which new buildings, structures, or other improvements are constructed on the homestead property that would increase its assessed value, the assessor shall adjust the base homestead value with due regard to the value added by the new improvements.

(d) The amount of the exemption under this Section is the greater of: (i) the equalized assessed value of the homestead property for the current tax year minus the adjusted homestead value; or (ii) the general homestead deduction.

(e) In the case of an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative, or as a life care facility, that contains residential units that qualify as homestead property of a qualified taxpayer under this Section, the maximum cumulative exemption amount attributed to the entire building or facility shall not exceed the sum of the exemptions calculated for each unit that is a qualified homestead property. The cooperative association, management firm, or other person or entity that manages or controls the cooperative apartment building or life care facility shall credit the exemption attributable to each residential unit only to the apportioned tax liability of the qualified taxpayer as to that unit. Any person who willfully refuses to so credit the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(f) When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided under this Section may be claimed by only one such person and for only one residence. No person who receives an exemption under Section 15-172 of this Code may receive an exemption under this Section. No person who receives an exemption under this Section may receive an exemption under Section 15-175 or 15-176 of this Code.

(g) In the event of a sale or other transfer in ownership of the homestead property between spouses or between a parent and a child, the exemption under this Section remains in effect if the new owner has a household income of $100,000 or less.

(h) In the event of a sale or other transfer in ownership of the homestead property other than subsection (g) of this Section, the exemption under this Section shall remain in effect for the remainder of the tax year and be calculated using the same base homestead value in which the sale or transfer occurs.

(i) To receive the exemption, a person must submit an application to the county assessor during the period specified by the county assessor.

The county assessor shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication.

The taxpayer must submit, with the application, an affidavit of the taxpayer's total household income, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Long-time Occupant Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

(j) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07.)

Section 160. The Coin-Operated Amusement Device and Redemption Machine Tax Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(35 ILCS 510/1) (from Ch. 120, par. 481b.1)

Sec. 1. There is imposed, on the privilege of operating every coin-in-the-slot-operated amusement device, including a device operated or operable by insertion of coins, tokens, chips or similar objects, in this State which returns to the player thereof no money or property or right to receive money or property, and on the privilege of operating in this State a redemption machine as defined in Section 28-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, an annual privilege tax of $30 for each device for a period beginning on or after August 1 of any year and prior to August 1 of the succeeding year.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 7-1-03.)

Section 165. The Cannabis and Controlled Substances Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 19 as follows:

(35 ILCS 520/15) (from Ch. 120, par. 2165)

Sec. 15. Lien for Tax.

(a) In general. The Department shall have a lien for the tax herein imposed or any portion thereof, or for any penalty provided for in this Act, or for any amount of interest which may be due, upon all the real and personal property of any person assessed with a tax under this Act; however, the lien shall not be available on property which is the subject of forfeiture proceedings under the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act or the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act until all forfeiture proceedings are concluded. Property forfeited shall not be subject to a lien under this Act.

(b) Notice of lien. The lien created by assessment shall terminate unless a notice of lien is filed, as provided in Section 17 hereof, within 3 years from the date all proceedings in court for the review of such assessment have terminated or the time for the taking thereof has expired without such proceedings being instituted.

(Source: P.A. 88-669, eff. 11-29-94.)

(35 ILCS 520/19) (from Ch. 120, par. 2169)

Sec. 19. Release of Liens.

(a) In general. The Department shall release all or any portion of the property subject to any lien provided for in this Act if it determines that the release will not endanger or jeopardize the collection of the amount secured thereby. The Department shall release its lien on property which is the subject of forfeiture proceedings under the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act, the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, or the Drug Asset Forfeiture Procedure Act until all forfeiture proceedings are concluded. Property forfeited shall not be subject to a lien under this Act.

(b) Judicial determination. If on judicial review the final judgment of the court is that the taxpayer does not owe some or all of the amount secured by the lien against him, or that no jeopardy to the revenue exists, the Department shall release its lien to the extent of such finding of nonliability, or to the extent of such finding of no jeopardy to the revenue.

(c) Payment. The Department shall also release its jeopardy assessment lien against the taxpayer whenever the tax and penalty covered by such lien, plus any interest which may be due, are paid.

(d) Certificate of release. The Department shall issue a certificate of complete or partial release of the lien:

(1) To the extent that the fair market value of any property subject to the lien exceeds the amount of the lien plus the amount of all prior liens upon such property;

(2) To the extent that such lien shall become unenforceable;

(3) To the extent that the amount of such lien is paid by the person whose property is subject to such lien, together with any interest and penalty which may become due under this Act between the date when the notice of lien is filed and the date when the amount of such lien is paid;

(4) To the extent and under the circumstances specified in this Section. A certificate of complete or partial release of any lien shall be held conclusive that the lien upon the property covered by the certificate is extinguished to the extent indicated by such certificate.

Such release of lien shall be issued to the person, or his agent, against whom the lien was obtained and shall contain in legible letters a statement as follows:

FOR THE PROTECTION OF THE OWNER, THIS RELEASE SHALL

BE FILED WITH THE RECORDER OR THE REGISTRAR

OF TITLES, IN WHOSE OFFICE, THE LIEN WAS FILED.

(e) Filing. When a certificate of complete or partial release of lien issued by the Department is presented for filing in the office of the recorder or Registrar of Titles where a notice of lien or notice of jeopardy assessment lien was filed:

(1) The recorder, in the case of nonregistered property, shall permanently attach the certificate of release to the notice of lien or notice of jeopardy assessment lien and shall enter the certificate of release and the date in the "State Tax Lien Index" on the line where the notice of lien or notice of jeopardy assessment lien is entered; and

(2) In the case of registered property, the Registrar of Titles shall file and enter upon each folium of the register of titles affected thereby a memorial of the certificate of release which memorial when so entered shall act as a release pro tanto of any memorial of such notice of lien or notice of jeopardy assessment lien previously filed and registered.

(Source: P.A. 88-669, eff. 11-29-94.)

Section 170. The Public Officer Prohibited Activities Act is amended by changing Section 4.5 as follows:

(50 ILCS 105/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. False verification; perjury. A person is guilty of perjury who:

(1) In swearing on oath or otherwise affirming a statement in writing as required under this Act, knowingly makes a false statement as to, or knowingly omits a material fact relating to, the identification of an individual or entity that has an ownership interest in real property, or that is material to an issue or point in question in the written disclosure pertaining to a contract for the ownership or use of real property.

(2) Having taken a lawful oath or made affirmation, testifies willfully and falsely as to any of those matters for the purpose of inducing the State or any local governmental unit or any agency of either to enter into a contract for the ownership or use of real property.

(3) Suborns any other person to so swear, affirm, or testify.

Upon conviction of perjury, a person shall be sentenced as provided in Section 32-2 or 32-3, respectively, of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 for those offenses.

This Section applies to written statements made or testimony given on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995.

(Source: P.A. 89-91, eff. 6-30-95.)

Section 175. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Sections 6 and 6.1 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/6) (from Ch. 85, par. 506)

Sec. 6. Selection and certification of schools. The Board shall select and certify schools within the State of Illinois for the purpose of providing basic training for probationary police officers, probationary county corrections officers, and court security officers and of providing advanced or in-service training for permanent police officers or permanent county corrections officers, which schools may be either publicly or privately owned and operated. In addition, the Board has the following power and duties:

a. To require local governmental units to furnish such reports and information as the Board deems necessary to fully implement this Act.

b. To establish appropriate mandatory minimum standards relating to the training of probationary local law enforcement officers or probationary county corrections officers.

c. To provide appropriate certification to those probationary officers who successfully complete the prescribed minimum standard basic training course.

d. To review and approve annual training curriculum for county sheriffs.

e. To review and approve applicants to ensure no applicant is admitted to a certified academy unless the applicant is a person of good character and has not been convicted of a felony offense, any of the misdemeanors in Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-17, 11-19, 12-2, 12-15, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 28-3, 29-1, 31-1, 31-6, 31-7, 32-4a, or 32-7 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act, or a crime involving moral turpitude under the laws of this State or any other state which if committed in this State would be punishable as a felony or a crime of moral turpitude. The Board may appoint investigators who shall enforce the duties conferred upon the Board by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(50 ILCS 705/6.1)

Sec. 6.1. Decertification of full-time and part-time police officers.

(a) The Board must review police officer conduct and records to ensure that no police officer is certified or provided a valid waiver if that police officer has been convicted of a felony offense under the laws of this State or any other state which if committed in this State would be punishable as a felony. The Board must also ensure that no police officer is certified or provided a valid waiver if that police officer has been convicted on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999 of any misdemeanor specified in this Section or if committed in any other state would be an offense similar to Section 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-17, 11-19, 12-2, 12-15, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 28-3, 29-1, 31-1, 31-6, 31-7, 32-4a, or 32-7 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, to subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or to Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act. The Board must appoint investigators to enforce the duties conferred upon the Board by this Act.

(b) It is the responsibility of the sheriff or the chief executive officer of every local law enforcement agency or department within this State to report to the Board any arrest or conviction of any officer for an offense identified in this Section.

(c) It is the duty and responsibility of every full-time and part-time police officer in this State to report to the Board within 30 days, and the officer's sheriff or chief executive officer, of his or her arrest or conviction for an offense identified in this Section. Any full-time or part-time police officer who knowingly makes, submits, causes to be submitted, or files a false or untruthful report to the Board must have his or her certificate or waiver immediately decertified or revoked.

(d) Any person, or a local or State agency, or the Board is immune from liability for submitting, disclosing, or releasing information of arrests or convictions in this Section as long as the information is submitted, disclosed, or released in good faith and without malice. The Board has qualified immunity for the release of the information.

(e) Any full-time or part-time police officer with a certificate or waiver issued by the Board who is convicted of any offense described in this Section immediately becomes decertified or no longer has a valid waiver. The decertification and invalidity of waivers occurs as a matter of law. Failure of a convicted person to report to the Board his or her conviction as described in this Section or any continued law enforcement practice after receiving a conviction is a Class 4 felony.

(f) The Board's investigators are peace officers and have all the powers possessed by policemen in cities and by sheriff's, provided that the investigators may exercise those powers anywhere in the State, only after contact and cooperation with the appropriate local law enforcement authorities.

(g) The Board must request and receive information and assistance from any federal, state, or local governmental agency as part of the authorized criminal background investigation. The Department of State Police must process, retain, and additionally provide and disseminate information to the Board concerning criminal charges, arrests, convictions, and their disposition, that have been filed before, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly against a basic academy applicant, law enforcement applicant, or law enforcement officer whose fingerprint identification cards are on file or maintained by the Department of State Police. The Federal Bureau of Investigation must provide the Board any criminal history record information contained in its files pertaining to law enforcement officers or any applicant to a Board certified basic law enforcement academy as described in this Act based on fingerprint identification. The Board must make payment of fees to the Department of State Police for each fingerprint card submission in conformance with the requirements of paragraph 22 of Section 55a of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(h) A police officer who has been certified or granted a valid waiver shall also be decertified or have his or her waiver revoked upon a determination by the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel that he or she, while under oath, has knowingly and willfully made false statements as to a material fact going to an element of the offense of murder. If an appeal is filed, the determination shall be stayed.

(1) In the case of an acquittal on a charge of murder, a verified complaint may be filed:

(A) by the defendant; or

(B) by a police officer with personal knowledge of perjured testimony.

The complaint must allege that a police officer, while under oath, knowingly and willfully made false statements as to a material fact going to an element of the offense of murder. The verified complaint must be filed with the Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board within 2 years of the judgment of acquittal.

(2) Within 30 days, the Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall review the verified complaint and determine whether the verified complaint is frivolous and without merit, or whether further investigation is warranted. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall notify the officer and the Executive Director of the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel of the filing of the complaint and any action taken thereon. If the Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board determines that the verified complaint is frivolous and without merit, it shall be dismissed. The Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board has sole discretion to make this determination and this decision is not subject to appeal.

(i) If the Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board determines that the verified complaint warrants further investigation, he or she shall refer the matter to a task force of investigators created for this purpose. This task force shall consist of 8 sworn police officers: 2 from the Illinois State Police, 2 from the City of Chicago Police Department, 2 from county police departments, and 2 from municipal police departments. These investigators shall have a minimum of 5 years of experience in conducting criminal investigations. The investigators shall be appointed by the Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board. Any officer or officers acting in this capacity pursuant to this statutory provision will have statewide police authority while acting in this investigative capacity. Their salaries and expenses for the time spent conducting investigations under this paragraph shall be reimbursed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(j) Once the Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board has determined that an investigation is warranted, the verified complaint shall be assigned to an investigator or investigators. The investigator or investigators shall conduct an investigation of the verified complaint and shall write a report of his or her findings. This report shall be submitted to the Executive Director of the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel.

Within 30 days, the Executive Director of the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel shall review the investigative report and determine whether sufficient evidence exists to conduct an evidentiary hearing on the verified complaint. If the Executive Director of the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel determines upon his or her review of the investigatory report that a hearing should not be conducted, the complaint shall be dismissed. This decision is in the Executive Director's sole discretion, and this dismissal may not be appealed.

If the Executive Director of the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel determines that there is sufficient evidence to warrant a hearing, a hearing shall be ordered on the verified complaint, to be conducted by an administrative law judge employed by the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel. The Executive Director of the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel shall inform the Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board and the person who filed the complaint of either the dismissal of the complaint or the issuance of the complaint for hearing. The Executive Director shall assign the complaint to the administrative law judge within 30 days of the decision granting a hearing.

(k) In the case of a finding of guilt on the offense of murder, if a new trial is granted on direct appeal, or a state post-conviction evidentiary hearing is ordered, based on a claim that a police officer, under oath, knowingly and willfully made false statements as to a material fact going to an element of the offense of murder, the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel shall hold a hearing to determine whether the officer should be decertified if an interested party requests such a hearing within 2 years of the court's decision. The complaint shall be assigned to an administrative law judge within 30 days so that a hearing can be scheduled.

At the hearing, the accused officer shall be afforded the opportunity to:

(1) Be represented by counsel of his or her own choosing;

(2) Be heard in his or her own defense;

(3) Produce evidence in his or her defense;

(4) Request that the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel compel the attendance of witnesses and production of related documents including but not limited to court documents and records.

Once a case has been set for hearing, the verified complaint shall be referred to the Department of Professional Regulation. That office shall prosecute the verified complaint at the hearing before the administrative law judge. The Department of Professional Regulation shall have the opportunity to produce evidence to support the verified complaint and to request the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel to compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of related documents, including, but not limited to, court documents and records. The Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel shall have the power to issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of and testimony of witnesses and the production of related documents including, but not limited to, court documents and records and shall have the power to administer oaths.

The administrative law judge shall have the responsibility of receiving into evidence relevant testimony and documents, including court records, to support or disprove the allegations made by the person filing the verified complaint and, at the close of the case, hear arguments. If the administrative law judge finds that there is not clear and convincing evidence to support the verified complaint that the police officer has, while under oath, knowingly and willfully made false statements as to a material fact going to an element of the offense of murder, the administrative law judge shall make a written recommendation of dismissal to the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel. If the administrative law judge finds that there is clear and convincing evidence that the police officer has, while under oath, knowingly and willfully made false statements as to a material fact that goes to an element of the offense of murder, the administrative law judge shall make a written recommendation so concluding to the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel. The hearings shall be transcribed. The Executive Director of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall be informed of the administrative law judge's recommended findings and decision and the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel's subsequent review of the recommendation.

(l) An officer named in any complaint filed pursuant to this Act shall be indemnified for his or her reasonable attorney's fees and costs by his or her employer. These fees shall be paid in a regular and timely manner. The State, upon application by the public employer, shall reimburse the public employer for the accused officer's reasonable attorney's fees and costs. At no time and under no circumstances will the accused officer be required to pay his or her own reasonable attorney's fees or costs.

(m) The accused officer shall not be placed on unpaid status because of the filing or processing of the verified complaint until there is a final non-appealable order sustaining his or her guilt and his or her certification is revoked. Nothing in this Act, however, restricts the public employer from pursuing discipline against the officer in the normal course and under procedures then in place.

(n) The Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel shall review the administrative law judge's recommended decision and order and determine by a majority vote whether or not there was clear and convincing evidence that the accused officer, while under oath, knowingly and willfully made false statements as to a material fact going to the offense of murder. Within 30 days of service of the administrative law judge's recommended decision and order, the parties may file exceptions to the recommended decision and order and briefs in support of their exceptions with the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel. The parties may file responses to the exceptions and briefs in support of the responses no later than 15 days after the service of the exceptions. If exceptions are filed by any of the parties, the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel shall review the matter and make a finding to uphold, vacate, or modify the recommended decision and order. If the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel concludes that there is clear and convincing evidence that the accused officer, while under oath, knowingly and willfully made false statements as to a material fact going to an element of the offense murder, the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel shall inform the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board and the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board shall revoke the accused officer's certification. If the accused officer appeals that determination to the Appellate Court, as provided by this Act, he or she may petition the Appellate Court to stay the revocation of his or her certification pending the court's review of the matter.

(o) None of the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel's findings or determinations shall set any precedent in any of its decisions decided pursuant to the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act by the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel or the courts.

(p) A party aggrieved by the final order of the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel may apply for and obtain judicial review of an order of the Illinois Labor Relations Board State Panel, in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, except that such judicial review shall be afforded directly in the Appellate Court for the district in which the accused officer resides. Any direct appeal to the Appellate Court shall be filed within 35 days from the date that a copy of the decision sought to be reviewed was served upon the party affected by the decision.

(q) Interested parties. Only interested parties to the criminal prosecution in which the police officer allegedly, while under oath, knowingly and willfully made false statements as to a material fact going to an element of the offense of murder may file a verified complaint pursuant to this Section. For purposes of this Section, "interested parties" shall be limited to the defendant and any police officer who has personal knowledge that the police officer who is the subject of the complaint has, while under oath, knowingly and willfully made false statements as to a material fact going to an element of the offense of murder.

(r) Semi-annual reports. The Executive Director of the Illinois Labor Relations Board shall submit semi-annual reports to the Governor, President, and Minority Leader of the Senate, and to the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives beginning on June 30, 2004, indicating:

(1) the number of verified complaints received since the date of the last report;

(2) the number of investigations initiated since the date of the last report;

(3) the number of investigations concluded since the date of the last report;

(4) the number of investigations pending as of the reporting date;

(5) the number of hearings held since the date of the last report; and

(6) the number of officers decertified since the date of the last report.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 180. The Peace Officer Firearm Training Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(50 ILCS 710/2) (from Ch. 85, par. 516)

Sec. 2. Training course for peace officers.

(a) Successful completion of a 40 hour course of training in use of a suitable type firearm shall be a condition precedent to the possession and use of that respective firearm by any peace officer in this State in connection with the officer's official duties. The training must be approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board ("the Board") and may be given in logical segments but must be completed within 6 months from the date of the officer's initial employment. To satisfy the requirements of this Act, the training must include the following:

(1) Instruction in the dangers of misuse of the firearm, safety rules, and care and cleaning of the firearm.

(2) Practice firing on a range and qualification with the firearm in accordance with the standards established by the Board.

(3) Instruction in the legal use of firearms under the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 and relevant court decisions.

(4) A forceful presentation of the ethical and moral considerations assumed by any person who uses a firearm.

(b) Any officer who successfully completes the Basic Training Course prescribed for recruits by the Board shall be presumed to have satisfied the requirements of this Act.

(c) The Board shall cause the training courses to be conducted twice each year within each of the Mobile Team Regions, but no training course need be held when there are no police officers requiring the training.

(d) (Blank).

(e) The Board may waive, or may conditionally waive, the 40 hour course of training if, in the Board's opinion, the officer has previously successfully completed a course of similar content and duration. In cases of waiver, the officer shall demonstrate his or her knowledge and proficiency by passing the written examination on firearms and by successfully passing the range qualification portion of the prescribed course of training.

(Source: P.A. 94-984, eff. 6-30-06.)

Section 185. The Uniform Peace Officers' Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 5 as follows:

(50 ILCS 725/2) (from Ch. 85, par. 2552)

Sec. 2. For the purposes of this Act, unless clearly required otherwise, the terms defined in this Section have the meaning ascribed herein:

(a) "Officer" means any peace officer, as defined by Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as now or hereafter amended, who is employed by any unit of local government or a State college or university, including supervisory and command personnel, and any pay-grade investigator for the Secretary of State as defined in Section 14-110 of the Illinois Pension Code, including Secretary of State sergeants, lieutenants, commanders, and investigator trainees. The term does not include crossing guards, parking enforcement personnel, traffic wardens or employees of any State's Attorney's office.

(b) "Informal inquiry" means a meeting by supervisory or command personnel with an officer upon whom an allegation of misconduct has come to the attention of such supervisory or command personnel, the purpose of which meeting is to mediate a citizen complaint or discuss the facts to determine whether a formal investigation should be commenced.

(c) "Formal investigation" means the process of investigation ordered by a commanding officer during which the questioning of an officer is intended to gather evidence of misconduct which may be the basis for filing charges seeking his or her removal, discharge or suspension in excess of 3 days.

(d) "Interrogation" means the questioning of an officer pursuant to the formal investigation procedures of the respective State agency or local governmental unit in connection with an alleged violation of such agency's or unit's rules which may be the basis for filing charges seeking his or her suspension, removal, or discharge. The term does not include questioning (1) as part of an informal inquiry or (2) relating to minor infractions of agency rules which may be noted on the officer's record but which may not in themselves result in removal, discharge or suspension in excess of 3 days.

(e) "Administrative proceeding" means any non-judicial hearing which is authorized to recommend, approve or order the suspension, removal, or discharge of an officer.

(Source: P.A. 95-293, eff. 1-1-08.)

(50 ILCS 725/5) (from Ch. 85, par. 2566)

Sec. 5. This Act does not apply to any officer charged with violating any provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961, the Criminal Code of 2012, or any other federal, State, or local criminal law.

(Source: P.A. 83-981.)

Section 190. The Firemen's Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(50 ILCS 745/5) (from Ch. 85, par. 2516)

Sec. 5. This Act does not apply to any fireman charged with violating any provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961, the Criminal Code of 2012, or any other federal, State, or local criminal law.

(Source: P.A. 83-783.)

Section 195. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Sections 6 and 15.2 as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/6) (from Ch. 134, par. 36)

Sec. 6. Capabilities of system; pay telephones. All systems shall be designed to meet the specific requirements of each community and public agency served by the system. Every system, whether basic or sophisticated, shall be designed to have the capability of utilizing at least 1 of the methods specified in Sections 2.03 through 2.06, in response to emergency calls. The General Assembly finds and declares that the most critical aspect of the design of any system is the procedure established for handling a telephone request for emergency services.

In addition, to maximize efficiency and utilization of the system, all pay telephones within each system shall, within 3 years after the implementation date or by December 31, 1985, whichever is later, enable a caller to dial "9-1-1" for emergency services without the necessity of inserting a coin. This paragraph does not apply to pay telephones located in penal institutions, as defined in Section 2-14 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, that have been designated for the exclusive use of committed persons.

(Source: P.A. 91-518, eff. 8-13-99.)

(50 ILCS 750/15.2) (from Ch. 134, par. 45.2)

Sec. 15.2. Any person calling the number "911" for the purpose of making a false alarm or complaint and reporting false information is subject to the provisions of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 92-502, eff. 12-19-01.)

Section 200. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-9005, 3-9007, 4-2002, 5-1103, and 5-1117 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-9005) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-9005)

Sec. 3-9005. Powers and duties of State's attorney.

(a) The duty of each State's attorney shall be:

(1) To commence and prosecute all actions, suits, indictments and prosecutions, civil and criminal, in the circuit court for his county, in which the people of the State or county may be concerned.

(2) To prosecute all forfeited bonds and recognizances, and all actions and proceedings for the recovery of debts, revenues, moneys, fines, penalties and forfeitures accruing to the State or his county, or to any school district or road district in his county; also, to prosecute all suits in his county against railroad or transportation companies, which may be prosecuted in the name of the People of the State of Illinois.

(3) To commence and prosecute all actions and proceedings brought by any county officer in his official capacity.

(4) To defend all actions and proceedings brought against his county, or against any county or State officer, in his official capacity, within his county.

(5) To attend the examination of all persons brought before any judge on habeas corpus, when the prosecution is in his county.

(6) To attend before judges and prosecute charges of felony or misdemeanor, for which the offender is required to be recognized to appear before the circuit court, when in his power so to do.

(7) To give his opinion, without fee or reward, to any county officer in his county, upon any question or law relating to any criminal or other matter, in which the people or the county may be concerned.

(8) To assist the attorney general whenever it may be necessary, and in cases of appeal from his county to the Supreme Court, to which it is the duty of the attorney general to attend, he shall furnish the attorney general at least 10 days before such is due to be filed, a manuscript of a proposed statement, brief and argument to be printed and filed on behalf of the people, prepared in accordance with the rules of the Supreme Court. However, if such brief, argument or other document is due to be filed by law or order of court within this 10 day period, then the State's attorney shall furnish such as soon as may be reasonable.

(9) To pay all moneys received by him in trust, without delay, to the officer who by law is entitled to the custody thereof.

(10) To notify, by first class mail, complaining witnesses of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information.

(11) To perform such other and further duties as may, from time to time, be enjoined on him by law.

(12) To appear in all proceedings by collectors of taxes against delinquent taxpayers for judgments to sell real estate, and see that all the necessary preliminary steps have been legally taken to make the judgment legal and binding.

(13) To notify, by first-class mail, the State Superintendent of Education, the applicable regional superintendent of schools, and the superintendent of the employing school district or the chief school administrator of the employing nonpublic school, if any, upon the conviction of any individual known to possess a certificate or license issued pursuant to Article 21 or 21B, respectively, of the School Code of any offense set forth in Section 21B-80 of the School Code or any other felony conviction, providing the name of the certificate holder, the fact of the conviction, and the name and location of the court where the conviction occurred. The certificate holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice.

(b) The State's Attorney of each county shall have authority to appoint one or more special investigators to serve subpoenas, make return of process and conduct investigations which assist the State's Attorney in the performance of his duties. A special investigator shall not carry firearms except with permission of the State's Attorney and only while carrying appropriate identification indicating his employment and in the performance of his assigned duties.

Subject to the qualifications set forth in this subsection, special investigators shall be peace officers and shall have all the powers possessed by investigators under the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

No special investigator employed by the State's Attorney shall have peace officer status or exercise police powers unless he or she successfully completes the basic police training course mandated and approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board or such board waives the training requirement by reason of the special investigator's prior law enforcement experience or training or both. Any State's Attorney appointing a special investigator shall consult with all affected local police agencies, to the extent consistent with the public interest, if the special investigator is assigned to areas within that agency's jurisdiction.

Before a person is appointed as a special investigator, his fingerprints shall be taken and transmitted to the Department of State Police. The Department shall examine its records and submit to the State's Attorney of the county in which the investigator seeks appointment any conviction information concerning the person on file with the Department. No person shall be appointed as a special investigator if he has been convicted of a felony or other offense involving moral turpitude. A special investigator shall be paid a salary and be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in performing his assigned duties. The county board shall approve the salary and actual expenses and appropriate the salary and expenses in the manner prescribed by law or ordinance.

(c) The State's Attorney may request and receive from employers, labor unions, telephone companies, and utility companies location information concerning putative fathers and noncustodial parents for the purpose of establishing a child's paternity or establishing, enforcing, or modifying a child support obligation. In this subsection, "location information" means information about (i) the physical whereabouts of a putative father or noncustodial parent, (ii) the putative father or noncustodial parent's employer, or (iii) the salary, wages, and other compensation paid and the health insurance coverage provided to the putative father or noncustodial parent by the employer of the putative father or noncustodial parent or by a labor union of which the putative father or noncustodial parent is a member.

(d) For each State fiscal year, the State's Attorney of Cook County shall appear before the General Assembly and request appropriations to be made from the Capital Litigation Trust Fund to the State Treasurer for the purpose of providing assistance in the prosecution of capital cases in Cook County and for the purpose of providing assistance to the State in post-conviction proceedings in capital cases under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and in relation to petitions filed under Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure in relation to capital cases. The State's Attorney may appear before the General Assembly at other times during the State's fiscal year to request supplemental appropriations from the Trust Fund to the State Treasurer.

(e) The State's Attorney shall have the authority to enter into a written agreement with the Department of Revenue for pursuit of civil liability under subsection (E) of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 against persons who have issued to the Department checks or other orders in violation of the provisions of paragraph (1) of subsection (B) of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, with the Department to retain the amount owing upon the dishonored check or order along with the dishonored check fee imposed under the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, with the balance of damages, fees, and costs collected under subsection (E) of Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or under Section 17-1a of that Code to be retained by the State's Attorney. The agreement shall not affect the allocation of fines and costs imposed in any criminal prosecution.

(Source: P.A. 96-431, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-607, eff. 8-26-11.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-9007) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-9007)

Sec. 3-9007. Home rule unit liquor tax ordinance; prosecutions. Where any county, municipality or other unit of local government has adopted any ordinance or other regulation imposing a tax upon the privilege of engaging in business as a manufacturer, importing distributor, retailer or distributor of beer, alcohol or other spirits, pursuant to its home rule powers under Article VII, Section 6 of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, nothing shall prohibit a State's attorney from prosecuting any offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 which may also constitute a violation of the applicable ordinance or regulation.

(Source: P.A. 86-962.)

(55 ILCS 5/4-2002) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-2002)

Sec. 4-2002. State's attorney fees in counties under 3,000,000 population. This Section applies only to counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants.

(a) State's attorneys shall be entitled to the following fees, however, the fee requirement of this subsection does not apply to county boards:

For each conviction in prosecutions on indictments for first degree murder, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, kidnapping, arson and forgery, $30. All other cases punishable by imprisonment in the penitentiary, $30.

For each conviction in other cases tried before judges of the circuit court, $15; except that if the conviction is in a case which may be assigned to an associate judge, whether or not it is in fact assigned to an associate judge, the fee shall be $10.

For preliminary examinations for each defendant held to bail or recognizance, $10.

For each examination of a party bound over to keep the peace, $10.

For each defendant held to answer in a circuit court on a charge of paternity, $10.

For each trial on a charge of paternity, $30.

For each case of appeal taken from his county or from the county to which a change of venue is taken to his county to the Supreme or Appellate Court when prosecuted or defended by him, $50.

For each day actually employed in the trial of a case, $25; in which case the court before whom the case is tried shall make an order specifying the number of days for which a per diem shall be allowed.

For each day actually employed in the trial of cases of felony arising in their respective counties and taken by change of venue to another county, $25; and the court before whom the case is tried shall make an order specifying the number of days for which said per diem shall be allowed; and it is hereby made the duty of each State's attorney to prepare and try each case of felony arising when so taken by change of venue.

For assisting in a trial of each case on an indictment for felony brought by change of venue to their respective counties, the same fees they would be entitled to if such indictment had been found for an offense committed in his county, and it shall be the duty of the State's attorney of the county to which such cause is taken by change of venue to assist in the trial thereof.

For each case of forfeited recognizance where the forfeiture is set aside at the instance of the defense, in addition to the ordinary costs, $10 for each defendant.

For each proceeding in a circuit court to inquire into the alleged mental illness of any person, $10 for each defendant.

For each proceeding in a circuit court to inquire into the alleged dependency or delinquency of any child, $10.

For each day actually employed in the hearing of a case of habeas corpus in which the people are interested, $25.

For each violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and the Illinois Vehicle Code in which a defendant has entered a plea of guilty or a defendant has stipulated to the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt and the court has entered an order of supervision, $10.

State's attorneys shall be entitled to a $2 fee to be paid by the defendant on a judgment of guilty or a grant of supervision for a violation of any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or any felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense to discharge the expenses of the State's Attorney's office for establishing and maintaining automated record keeping systems. The fee shall be remitted monthly to the county treasurer, to be deposited by him or her into a special fund designated as the State's Attorney Records Automation Fund. Expenditures from this fund may be made by the State's Attorney for hardware, software, research, and development costs and personnel related thereto.

All the foregoing fees shall be taxed as costs to be collected from the defendant, if possible, upon conviction. But in cases of inquiry into the mental illness of any person alleged to be mentally ill, in cases on a charge of paternity and in cases of appeal in the Supreme or Appellate Court, where judgment is in favor of the accused, the fees allowed the State's attorney therein shall be retained out of the fines and forfeitures collected by them in other cases.

Ten per cent of all moneys except revenue, collected by them and paid over to the authorities entitled thereto, which per cent together with the fees provided for herein that are not collected from the parties tried or examined, shall be paid out of any fines and forfeited recognizances collected by them, provided however, that in proceedings to foreclose the lien of delinquent real estate taxes State's attorneys shall receive a fee, to be credited to the earnings of their office, of 10% of the total amount realized from the sale of real estate sold in such proceedings. Such fees shall be paid from the total amount realized from the sale of the real estate sold in such proceedings.

State's attorneys shall have a lien for their fees on all judgments for fines or forfeitures procured by them and on moneys except revenue received by them until such fees and earnings are fully paid.

No fees shall be charged on more than 10 counts in any one indictment or information on trial and conviction; nor on more than 10 counts against any one defendant on pleas of guilty.

The Circuit Court may direct that of all monies received, by restitution or otherwise, which monies are ordered paid to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) or the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) as a direct result of the efforts of the State's attorney and which payments arise from Civil or Criminal prosecutions involving the Illinois Public Aid Code or the Criminal Code, the following amounts shall be paid quarterly by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or the Department of Human Services to the General Corporate Fund of the County in which the prosecution or cause of action took place:

(1) where the monies result from child support obligations, not more than 25% of the federal share of the monies received,

(2) where the monies result from other than child support obligations, not more than 25% of the State's share of the monies received.

In addition to any other amounts to which State's Attorneys are entitled under this Section, State's Attorneys are entitled to $10 of the fine that is imposed under Section 5-9-1.17 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as set forth in that Section.

(b) A municipality shall be entitled to a $25 prosecution fee for each conviction for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code prosecuted by the municipal attorney pursuant to Section 16-102 of that Code which results in a finding of guilt before a circuit or associate judge or in which a defendant has stipulated to the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt and the court has entered an order of supervision and shall be entitled to a $25 prosecution fee for each conviction for a violation of a municipal vehicle ordinance or nontraffic ordinance which results in a finding of guilt before a circuit or associate judge or in which a defendant has stipulated to the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt and the court has entered an order of supervision. Such fee shall be taxed as costs to be collected from the defendant, if possible, upon disposition of the case. A municipality shall have a lien for such prosecution fees on all judgments or fines procured by the municipal attorney from prosecutions for violations of the Illinois Vehicle Code and municipal vehicle ordinances or nontraffic ordinances.

For the purposes of this subsection (b), "municipal vehicle ordinance" means any ordinance enacted pursuant to Sections 11-40-1, 11-40-2, 11-40-2a and 11-40-3 of the Illinois Municipal Code or any ordinance enacted by a municipality which is similar to a provision of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-707, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1186, eff. 7-22-10; 97-331, eff. 8-12-11; 97-673, eff. 6-1-12; revised 10-16-12.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1103) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1103)

Sec. 5-1103. Court services fee. A county board may enact by ordinance or resolution a court services fee dedicated to defraying court security expenses incurred by the sheriff in providing court services or for any other court services deemed necessary by the sheriff to provide for court security, including without limitation court services provided pursuant to Section 3-6023, as now or hereafter amended. Such fee shall be paid in civil cases by each party at the time of filing the first pleading, paper or other appearance; provided that no additional fee shall be required if more than one party is represented in a single pleading, paper or other appearance. In criminal, local ordinance, county ordinance, traffic and conservation cases, such fee shall be assessed against the defendant upon a plea of guilty, stipulation of facts or findings of guilty, resulting in a judgment of conviction, or order of supervision, or sentence of probation without entry of judgment pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. In setting such fee, the county board may impose, with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located by administrative order entered by the Chief Judge, differential rates for the various types or categories of criminal and civil cases, but the maximum rate shall not exceed $25. All proceeds from this fee must be used to defray court security expenses incurred by the sheriff in providing court services. No fee shall be imposed or collected, however, in traffic, conservation, and ordinance cases in which fines are paid without a court appearance. The fees shall be collected in the manner in which all other court fees or costs are collected and shall be deposited into the county general fund for payment solely of costs incurred by the sheriff in providing court security or for any other court services deemed necessary by the sheriff to provide for court security.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1117) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1117)

Sec. 5-1117. Discharge of firearms.

(a) The county board of any county may, by ordinance, regulate or prohibit within unincorporated areas the discharge of firearms in any residential area where such discharge is likely to subject residents or passersby to the risk of injury. However, such an ordinance shall not limit the right to discharge a firearm for the lawful defense of persons or property, or in the course of making a lawful arrest, when such use of force is justified under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, a "residential area" is any area within 300 yards of at least 3 single or multi-family residential structures.

(Source: P.A. 87-580.)

Section 205. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 10-1-7, 10-1-7.1, 10-2.1-6, and 10-2.1-6.3 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-7) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-1-7)

Sec. 10-1-7. Examination of applicants; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for offices or places in the classified service, except those mentioned in Section 10-1-17, are subject to examination. The examination shall be public, competitive, and open to all citizens of the United States, with specified limitations as to residence, age, health, habits and moral character.

(b) Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire or police service of a municipality (other than a municipality that has more than 1,000,000 inhabitants) cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of Fire or Police Chief.

(c) No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and subsections (1), (6) and (8) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or arrested for any cause but not convicted on that cause shall be disqualified from taking the examination on grounds of habits or moral character, unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position on the police department, in which case the conviction or arrest may be considered as a factor in determining the person's habits or moral character.

(d) Persons entitled to military preference under Section 10-1-16 shall not be subject to limitations specifying age unless they are applicants for a position as a fireman or a policeman having no previous employment status as a fireman or policeman in the regularly constituted fire or police department of the municipality, in which case they must not have attained their 35th birthday, except any person who has served as an auxiliary police officer under Section 3.1-30-20 for at least 5 years and is under 40 years of age.

(e) All employees of a municipality of less than 500,000 population (except those who would be excluded from the classified service as provided in this Division 1) who are holding that employment as of the date a municipality adopts this Division 1, or as of July 17, 1959, whichever date is the later, and who have held that employment for at least 2 years immediately before that later date, and all firemen and policemen regardless of length of service who were either appointed to their respective positions by the board of fire and police commissioners under the provisions of Division 2 of this Article or who are serving in a position (except as a temporary employee) in the fire or police department in the municipality on the date a municipality adopts this Division 1, or as of July 17, 1959, whichever date is the later, shall become members of the classified civil service of the municipality without examination.

(f) The examinations shall be practical in their character, and shall relate to those matters that will fairly test the relative capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek to be appointed. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications, health, and (when appropriate) manual skill. If an applicant is unable to pass the physical examination solely as the result of an injury received by the applicant as the result of the performance of an act of duty while working as a temporary employee in the position for which he or she is being examined, however, the physical examination shall be waived and the applicant shall be considered to have passed the examination. No questions in any examination shall relate to political or religious opinions or affiliations. Results of examinations and the eligible registers prepared from the results shall be published by the commission within 60 days after any examinations are held.

(g) The commission shall control all examinations, and may, whenever an examination is to take place, designate a suitable number of persons, either in or not in the official service of the municipality, to be examiners. The examiners shall conduct the examinations as directed by the commission and shall make a return or report of the examinations to the commission. If the appointed examiners are in the official service of the municipality, the examiners shall not receive extra compensation for conducting the examinations unless the examiners are subject to a collective bargaining agreement with the municipality. The commission may at any time substitute any other person, whether or not in the service of the municipality, in the place of any one selected as an examiner. The commission members may themselves at any time act as examiners without appointing examiners. The examiners at any examination shall not all be members of the same political party.

(h) In municipalities of 500,000 or more population, no person who has attained his or her 35th birthday shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a fireman or a policeman unless the person has had previous employment status as a policeman or fireman in the regularly constituted police or fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section.

(i) In municipalities of more than 5,000 but not more than 200,000 inhabitants, no person who has attained his or her 35th birthday shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a fireman or a policeman unless the person has had previous employment status as a policeman or fireman in the regularly constituted police or fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section.

(j) In all municipalities, applicants who are 20 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of law enforcement studies at an accredited college or university may be considered for appointment to active duty with the police department. An applicant described in this subsection (j) who is appointed to active duty shall not have power of arrest, nor shall the applicant be permitted to carry firearms, until he or she reaches 21 years of age.

(k) In municipalities of more than 500,000 population, applications for examination for and appointment to positions as firefighters or police shall be made available at various branches of the public library of the municipality.

(l) No municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 shall require that any fireman appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year. The limitation on periods of probationary employment provided in this amendatory Act of 1989 is an exclusive power and function of the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 must comply with this limitation on periods of probationary employment, which is a denial and limitation of home rule powers. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

(m) To the extent that this Section or any other Section in this Division conflicts with Section 10-1-7.1 or 10-1-7.2, then Section 10-1-7.1 or 10-1-7.2 shall control.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-7.1)

Sec. 10-1-7.1. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 10-1-7.2, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not administer its fire department process for original appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and functions exercised by the State.

A municipality that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by this Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the municipality's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the Civil Service Commission. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the commission upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by the commission. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is located, State, or nation. Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district, or

(2) any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time that the municipality begins to use full-time firefighters to provide all or part of its fire protection service.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the municipality or their designees and agents.

No municipality shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Division 1 has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means a score that is at or above the median score for all applicants participating in the written test. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the median score. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the median score.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum fixed by this Section and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained certification as an Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT-B or EMT-I, licensed paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from outside the municipality who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or another municipality may be awarded up to 5 experience preference points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than one point for each complete year of full-time service.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside the municipality the governing body of any fire protection district or any other municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category except (1). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories, that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-6) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-2.1-6)

Sec. 10-2.1-6. Examination of applicants; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for a position in either the fire or police department of the municipality shall be under 35 years of age, shall be subject to an examination that shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants (unless the council or board of trustees by ordinance limit applicants to electors of the municipality, county, state or nation) and shall be subject to reasonable limitations as to residence, health, habits, and moral character. The municipality may not charge or collect any fee from an applicant who has met all prequalification standards established by the municipality for any such position. With respect to a police department, a veteran shall be allowed to exceed the maximum age provision of this Section by the number of years served on active military duty, but by no more than 10 years of active military duty.

(b) Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire or police service of a municipality (other than a municipality that has more than 1,000,000 inhabitants) cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of Fire or Police Chief.

(c) No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and subsections (1), (6) and (8) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted on that cause shall be disqualified from taking the examination to qualify for a position in the fire department on grounds of habits or moral character.

(d) The age limitation in subsection (a) does not apply (i) to any person previously employed as a policeman or fireman in a regularly constituted police or fire department of (I) any municipality, regardless of whether the municipality is located in Illinois or in another state, or (II) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, (ii) to any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer fireman for 5 years immediately preceding the time that municipality begins to use full time firemen to provide all or part of its fire protection service, or (iii) to any person who has served as an auxiliary police officer under Section 3.1-30-20 for at least 5 years and is under 40 years of age, (iv) to any person who has served as a deputy under Section 3-6008 of the Counties Code and otherwise meets necessary training requirements, or (v) to any person who has served as a sworn officer as a member of the Illinois Department of State Police.

(e) Applicants who are 20 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of law enforcement studies at an accredited college or university may be considered for appointment to active duty with the police department. An applicant described in this subsection (e) who is appointed to active duty shall not have power of arrest, nor shall the applicant be permitted to carry firearms, until he or she reaches 21 years of age.

(f) Applicants who are 18 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques, amounting to a total of 4 high school credits, within the cadet program of a municipality may be considered for appointment to active duty with the fire department of any municipality.

(g) The council or board of trustees may by ordinance provide that persons residing outside the municipality are eligible to take the examination.

(h) The examinations shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that will fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek appointment. No person shall be appointed to the police or fire department if he or she does not possess a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education. A board of fire and police commissioners may, by its rules, require police applicants to have obtained an associate's degree or a bachelor's degree as a prerequisite for employment. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications and health. A board of fire and police commissioners may, by its rules, waive portions of the required examination for police applicants who have previously been full-time sworn officers of a regular police department in any municipal, county, university, or State law enforcement agency, provided they are certified by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board and have been with their respective law enforcement agency within the State for at least 2 years. No person shall be appointed to the police or fire department if he or she has suffered the amputation of any limb unless the applicant's duties will be only clerical or as a radio operator. No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the board of fire and police commissioners of the municipality as provided in this Division 2.1.

(i) No person who is classified by his local selective service draft board as a conscientious objector, or who has ever been so classified, may be appointed to the police department.

(j) No person shall be appointed to the police or fire department unless he or she is a person of good character and not an habitual drunkard, gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. No person, however, shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of his or her record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and subsections (1), (6) and (8) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction on that cause. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought and after a trial as provided in this Division 2.1.

(Source: P.A. 95-165, eff. 1-1-08; 95-931, eff. 1-1-09; 96-472, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-6.3)

Sec. 10-2.1-6.3. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 10-2.1-6.4, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not administer its fire department process for original appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and functions exercised by the State.

A municipality that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by this Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the municipality's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the board of fire and police commissioners. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the board upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by action of the board. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is located, State, or nation. Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district, or

(2) any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time that the municipality begins to use full-time firefighters to provide all or part of its fire protection service.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the municipality or their designees and agents.

No municipality shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means a score that is at or above the median score for all applicants participating in the written test. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the median score. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the median score.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum fixed by this Section and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained certification as an Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT-B or EMT-I, or any combination of those capacities shall be awarded 0.5 point for each year of successful service in one or more of those capacities, up to a maximum of 5 points. Certified Firefighter III and State of Illinois or nationally licensed paramedics shall be awarded one point per year up to a maximum of 5 points. Applicants from outside the municipality who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or another municipality for at least 2 years shall be awarded 5 experience preference points. These additional points presuppose a rating scale totaling 100 points available for the eligibility list. If more or fewer points are used in the rating scale for the eligibility list, the points awarded under this subsection shall be increased or decreased by a factor equal to the total possible points available for the examination divided by 100.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside the municipality the governing body of any fire protection district or any other municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category except (1). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories, that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12.)

Section 210. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by changing Sections 16.06 and 16.06b as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/16.06) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 37.06)

Sec. 16.06. Eligibility for positions in fire department; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for a position in the fire department of the fire protection district shall be under 35 years of age and shall be subjected to examination, which shall be public, competitive, and free to all applicants, subject to reasonable limitations as to health, habits, and moral character; provided that the foregoing age limitation shall not apply in the case of any person having previous employment status as a fireman in a regularly constituted fire department of any fire protection district, and further provided that each fireman or fire chief who is a member in good standing in a regularly constituted fire department of any municipality which shall be or shall have subsequently been included within the boundaries of any fire protection district now or hereafter organized shall be given a preference for original appointment in the same class, grade or employment over all other applicants. The examinations shall be practical in their character and shall relate to those matters which will fairly test the persons examined as to their relative capacity to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek appointment. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications and health. No applicant, however, shall be examined concerning his political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the board of fire commissioners.

In any fire protection district that employs full-time firefighters and is subject to a collective bargaining agreement, a person who has not qualified for regular appointment under the provisions of this Section shall not be used as a temporary or permanent substitute for certificated members of a fire district's fire department or for regular appointment as a certificated member of a fire district's fire department unless mutually agreed to by the employee's certified bargaining agent. Such agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining. Fire protection districts covered by the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that are using non-certificated employees as substitutes immediately prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly may, by mutual agreement with the certified bargaining agent, continue the existing practice or a modified practice and that agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining.

(b) No person shall be appointed to the fire department unless he or she is a person of good character and not a person who has been convicted of a felony in Illinois or convicted in another jurisdiction for conduct that would be a felony under Illinois law, or convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude. No person, however, shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of his or her record of misdemeanor convictions, except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and subsections (1), (6), and (8) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 95-490, eff. 6-1-08; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(70 ILCS 705/16.06b)

Sec. 16.06b. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 16.06c, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in a no less stringent manner than the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, Fire Protection District Act, fire district ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A fire protection district that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes required by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by the Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the fire district's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the board of fire commissioners, or board of trustees serving in the capacity of a board of fire commissioners. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the commission upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by action of the commission. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the district shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the district, county or counties in which the district is located, State, or nation. Districts may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any fire protection district may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a district cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that district, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the district, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district, or

(2) any person who has served a fire district as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time that the district begins to use full-time firefighters to provide all or part of its fire protection service.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the district or their designees and agents.

No district shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a certified paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic certification.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the district, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the district, or (ii) on the fire protection district's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means a score that is at or above the median score for all applicants participating in the written test. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the median score. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the median score.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum fixed by this Section and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained certification as an Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a district who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT-B or EMT-I, licensed paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from outside the district who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or municipality for at least 2 years may be awarded up to 5 experience preference points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than one point for each complete year of full-time service.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the district or in the case of applicants from outside the district the governing body of any other fire protection district or any municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category except (1). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories, that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Section, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12.)

Section 215. The Park District Code is amended by changing Section 8-23 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1205/8-23)

Sec. 8-23. Criminal background investigations.

(a) An applicant for employment with a park district is required as a condition of employment to authorize an investigation to determine if the applicant has been convicted of, or adjudicated a delinquent minor for, any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the park district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the investigation shall be furnished by the applicant to the park district. Upon receipt of this authorization, the park district shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, and social security number to the Department of State Police on forms prescribed by the Department of State Police. The Department of State Police shall conduct a search of the Illinois criminal history records database to ascertain if the applicant being considered for employment has been convicted of, or adjudicated a delinquent minor for, committing or attempting to commit any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit, within 7 years of the application for employment with the park district, any other felony under the laws of this State. The Department of State Police shall charge the park district a fee for conducting the investigation, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry. The applicant shall not be charged a fee by the park district for the investigation.

(b) If the search of the Illinois criminal history record database indicates that the applicant has been convicted of, or adjudicated a delinquent minor for, committing or attempting to commit any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit, within 7 years of the application for employment with the park district, any other felony under the laws of this State, the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint based background check, records of convictions or adjudications as a delinquent minor, until expunged, to the president of the park district. Any information concerning the record of convictions or adjudications as a delinquent minor obtained by the president shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to those persons who are necessary to the decision on whether to hire the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions or adjudications as a delinquent minor obtained from the Department of State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Any person who releases any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions or adjudications as a delinquent minor of an applicant for employment shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless the release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(c) No park district shall knowingly employ a person who has been convicted, or adjudicated a delinquent minor, for committing attempted first degree murder or for committing or attempting to commit first degree murder, a Class X felony, or any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those defined in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those defined in the Cannabis Control Act, except those defined in Sections 4(a), 4(b), and 5(a) of that Act; (iii) those defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses. Further, no park district shall knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. No park district shall knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal background investigation has not been initiated.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-700, eff. 6-22-12.)

Section 220. The Chicago Park District Act is amended by changing Sections 16a-5 and 26.3 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1505/16a-5)

Sec. 16a-5. Criminal background investigations.

(a) An applicant for employment with the Chicago Park District is required as a condition of employment to authorize an investigation to determine if the applicant has been convicted of, or adjudicated a delinquent minor for, any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the Chicago Park District, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the investigation shall be furnished by the applicant to the Chicago Park District. Upon receipt of this authorization, the Chicago Park District shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, and social security number to the Department of State Police on forms prescribed by the Department of State Police. The Department of State Police shall conduct a search of the Illinois criminal history record information database to ascertain if the applicant being considered for employment has been convicted of, or adjudicated a delinquent minor for, committing or attempting to commit any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has been convicted, of committing or attempting to commit within 7 years of the application for employment with the Chicago Park District, any other felony under the laws of this State. The Department of State Police shall charge the Chicago Park District a fee for conducting the investigation, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry. The applicant shall not be charged a fee by the Chicago Park District for the investigation.

(b) If the search of the Illinois criminal history record database indicates that the applicant has been convicted of, or adjudicated a delinquent minor for, committing or attempting to commit any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) or has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit, within 7 years of the application for employment with the Chicago Park District, any other felony under the laws of this State, the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint based background check, records of convictions or adjudications as a delinquent minor, until expunged, to the General Superintendent and Chief Executive Officer of the Chicago Park District. Any information concerning the record of convictions or adjudications as a delinquent minor obtained by the General Superintendent and Chief Executive Officer shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to those persons who are necessary to the decision on whether to hire the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions or adjudications as a delinquent minor obtained from the Department of State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Any person who releases any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions or adjudications as a delinquent minor of an applicant for employment shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless the release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(c) The Chicago Park District may not knowingly employ a person who has been convicted, or adjudicated a delinquent minor, for committing attempted first degree murder or for committing or attempting to commit first degree murder, a Class X felony, or any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those defined in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those defined in the Cannabis Control Act, except those defined in Sections 4(a), 4(b), and 5(a) of that Act; (iii) those defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses. Further, the Chicago Park District may not knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Chicago Park District may not knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal background investigation has not been initiated.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-700, eff. 6-22-12.)

(70 ILCS 1505/26.3) (from Ch. 105, par. 333.23n)

Sec. 26.3. The Chicago Park District, to carry out the purposes of this section, has all the rights and powers over its harbor as it does over its other property, and its rights and powers include but are not limited to the following:

(a) To furnish complete harbor facilities and services, including but not limited to: launching, mooring, docking, storing, and repairing facilities and services; parking facilities for motor vehicles and boat trailers; and roads for access to the harbor.

(b) To acquire by gift, legacy, grant, purchase, lease, or by condemnation in the manner provided for the exercise of the right of eminent domain under the Eminent Domain Act, any property necessary or appropriate for the purposes of this Section, including riparian rights, within or without the Chicago Park District.

(c) To use, occupy and reclaim submerged land under the public waters of the State and artificially made or reclaimed land anywhere within the jurisdiction of the Chicago Park District, or in, over, and upon bordering public waters.

(d) To acquire property by agreeing on a boundary line in accordance with the provisions of "An Act to enable the commissioners of Lincoln Park to extend certain parks, boulevards and driveways under its control from time to time and granting submerged lands for the purpose of such extensions and providing for the acquisition of riparian rights and shore lands and interests therein for the purpose of such extensions and to defray the cost thereof," approved May 25, 1931, and "An Act to enable Park Commissioners having control of a park or parks bordering upon public waters in this state, to enlarge and connect the same from time to time by extensions over lands and the bed of such waters, and defining the use which may be made of such extensions, and granting lands for the purpose of such enlargements," approved May 14, 1903, as amended, and the other Statutes pertaining to Park Districts bordering on navigable waters in the State of Illinois.

(e) To locate and establish dock, shore and harbor lines.

(f) To license, regulate, and control the use and operation of the harbor, including the operation of all water-borne vessels in the harbor, or otherwise within the jurisdiction of the Chicago Park District.

(g) To establish and collect fees for all facilities and services, and compensation for materials furnished. Fees charged nonresidents of such district need not be the same as fees charged to residents of the district.

(h) To appoint a director of special services, harbor masters and other personnel, defining their duties and authority.

(i) To enter into contracts and leases of every kind, dealing in any manner with the objects and purposes of this section, upon such terms and conditions as the Chicago Park District determines.

(j) To establish an impoundment area or areas within the jurisdiction of the Chicago Park District.

(k) To remove and store within the impoundment area or areas a water-borne vessel that:

(1) is tied or attached to any docks, piers or buoys or other moorings in or upon any harbors or waters of the park system in contravention of those Sections of the Code of the Chicago Park District pertaining to the use of harbors or any rules promulgated by the general superintendent thereunder;

(2) is located in the waters or harbors for a period of 12 hours or more without a proper permit;

(3) is abandoned or left unattended in the waters or harbors that impedes navigation on the waters;

(4) is impeding navigation on the waters, because the persons in charge are incapacitated due to injury or illness;

(5) is abandoned in the waters or harbors for a period of 10 hours or more;

(6) is seized under Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, having been used in the commission of a crime;

(7) is reported stolen and the owner has not been located after a reasonable search.

(l) To impose a duty on the director of special services or other appointed official to manage and operate the impoundment process and to keep any impounded vessel until such vessel is repossessed by the owner or other person legally entitled to possession thereof or otherwise disposed of in accordance with ordinances or regulations established by the Chicago Park District.

(m) To impose fees and charges for redemption of any impounded vessel to cover the cost of towing and storage of the vessel while in custody of the Chicago Park District.

(n) To release any impounded vessel to a person entitled to possession or to dispose of such vessel which remains unclaimed after a reasonable search for the owner has been made in full compliance with ordinances and regulations of the Chicago Park District.

(o) To control, license and regulate, including the establishment of permits and fees therefor, the chartering, renting or letting for hire of any vessel operating on the waters or harbors within the jurisdiction of the Chicago Park District.

(p) To rent storage space to owners of vessels during such seasons and at such fees as are prescribed from time to time in regulations of the Chicago Park District.

(Source: P.A. 94-1055, eff. 1-1-07.)

Section 225. The Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act is amended by changing Section 7g as follows:

(70 ILCS 2605/7g) (from Ch. 42, par. 326g)

Sec. 7g. Any person who takes or who knowingly permits his agent or employee to take industrial wastes or other wastes from a point of origin and intentionally discharges such wastes by means of mobile or portable equipment into any sewer, sewer manhole, or any appurtenances thereto, or directly or indirectly to any waters without possession of a valid and legally issued permit shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent offense shall constitute a Class 4 felony.

Any mobile or portable equipment used in the commission of any act which is a violation of this Section shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture in the manner provided for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft in Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as now or hereafter amended. The person causing the intentional discharge shall be liable for the costs of seizure, storage, and disposal of the mobile or portable equipment.

The terms "industrial waste" and "other wastes" shall have the same meaning as these terms are defined in Section 7a of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-354, eff. 8-8-97.)

Section 230. The Metropolitan Transit Authority Act is amended by changing Section 28b as follows:

(70 ILCS 3605/28b) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 328b)

Sec. 28b. Any person applying for a position as a driver of a vehicle owned by a private carrier company which provides public transportation pursuant to an agreement with the Authority shall be required to authorize an investigation by the private carrier company to determine if the applicant has been convicted of any of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 9-1, 9-1.2, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-6, 10-7, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-30, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-6, 12-7.1, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, and 33A-2, in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, in subdivisions (a)(1), (b)(1), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses. Upon receipt of this authorization, the private carrier company shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, fingerprints and social security number to the Department of State Police on forms prescribed by the Department. The Department of State Police shall conduct an investigation to ascertain if the applicant has been convicted of any of the above enumerated offenses. The Department shall charge the private carrier company a fee for conducting the investigation, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such investigation by the private carrier company. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of convictions, until expunged, to the private carrier company which requested the investigation. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Department shall be provided to the applicant. Any record of conviction received by the private carrier company shall be confidential. Any person who releases any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions of an applicant shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, unless authorized by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 920, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 960, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 235. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 10-3, 10-10, 10-22.6, 10-22.39, 10-27.1A, 14-6.02, 21B-80, 27-9.1, 33-2, 34-2.1, 34-4, 34-84a.1, and 34-84b as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/10-3) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-3)

Sec. 10-3. Eligibility of directors. Any person who, on the date of his or her election, is a citizen of the United States, of the age of 18 years or over, is a resident of the State and of the territory of the district for at least one year immediately preceding his or her election, is a registered voter as provided in the general election law, is not a school trustee or a school treasurer, and is not a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall be eligible to the office of school director.

(Source: P.A. 93-309, eff. 1-1-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-10) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-10)

Sec. 10-10. Board of education; Term; Vacancy. All school districts having a population of not fewer than 1,000 and not more than 500,000 inhabitants, as ascertained by any special or general census, and not governed by special Acts, shall be governed by a board of education consisting of 7 members, serving without compensation except as herein provided. Each member shall be elected for a term of 4 years for the initial members of the board of education of a combined school district to which that subsection applies. If 5 members are elected in 1983 pursuant to the extension of terms provided by law for transition to the consolidated election schedule under the general election law, 2 of those members shall be elected to serve terms of 2 years and 3 shall be elected to serve terms of 4 years; their successors shall serve for a 4 year term. When the voters of a district have voted to elect members of the board of education for 6 year terms, as provided in Section 9-5, the terms of office of members of the board of education of that district expire when their successors assume office but not later than 7 days after such election. If at the regular school election held in the first odd-numbered year after the determination to elect members for 6 year terms 2 members are elected, they shall serve for a 6 year term; and of the members elected at the next regular school election 3 shall serve for a term of 6 years and 2 shall serve a term of 2 years. Thereafter members elected in such districts shall be elected to a 6 year term. If at the regular school election held in the first odd-numbered year after the determination to elect members for 6 year terms 3 members are elected, they shall serve for a 6 year term; and of the members elected at the next regular school election 2 shall serve for a term of 2 years and 2 shall serve for a term of 6 years. Thereafter members elected in such districts shall be elected to a 6 year term. If at the regular school election held in the first odd-numbered year after the determination to elect members for 6 year terms 4 members are elected, 3 shall serve for a term of 6 years and one shall serve for a term of 2 years; and of the members elected at the next regular school election 2 shall serve for terms of 6 years and 2 shall serve for terms of 2 years. Thereafter members elected in such districts shall be elected to a 6 year term. If at the regular school election held in the first odd-numbered year after the determination to elect members for a 6 year term 5 members are elected, 3 shall serve for a term of 6 years and 2 shall serve for a term of 2 years; and of the members elected at the next regular school election 2 shall serve for terms of 6 years and 2 shall serve for terms of 2 years. Thereafter members elected in such districts shall be elected to a 6 year term. An election for board members shall not be held in school districts which by consolidation, annexation or otherwise shall cease to exist as a school district within 6 months after the election date, and the term of all board members which would otherwise terminate shall be continued until such district shall cease to exist. Each member, on the date of his or her election, shall be a citizen of the United States of the age of 18 years or over, shall be a resident of the State and the territory of the district for at least one year immediately preceding his or her election, shall be a registered voter as provided in the general election law, shall not be a school trustee, and shall not be a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. When the board of education is the successor of the school directors, all rights of property, and all rights regarding causes of action existing or vested in such directors, shall vest in it as fully as they were vested in the school directors. Terms of members are subject to Section 2A-54 of the Election Code.

Nomination papers filed under this Section are not valid unless the candidate named therein files with the secretary of the board of education or with a person designated by the board to receive nominating petitions a receipt from the county clerk showing that the candidate has filed a statement of economic interests as required by the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act. Such receipt shall be so filed either previously during the calendar year in which his nomination papers were filed or within the period for the filing of nomination papers in accordance with the general election law.

Whenever a vacancy occurs, the remaining members shall notify the regional superintendent of that vacancy within 5 days after its occurrence and shall proceed to fill the vacancy until the next regular school election, at which election a successor shall be elected to serve the remainder of the unexpired term. However, if the vacancy occurs with less than 868 days remaining in the term, or if the vacancy occurs less than 88 days before the next regularly scheduled election for this office then the person so appointed shall serve the remainder of the unexpired term, and no election to fill the vacancy shall be held. Should they fail so to act, within 45 days after the vacancy occurs, the regional superintendent of schools under whose supervision and control the district is operating, as defined in Section 3-14.2 of this Act, shall within 30 days after the remaining members have failed to fill the vacancy, fill the vacancy as provided for herein. Upon the regional superintendent's failure to fill the vacancy, the vacancy shall be filled at the next regularly scheduled election. Whether elected or appointed by the remaining members or regional superintendent, the successor shall be an inhabitant of the particular area from which his or her predecessor was elected if the residential requirements contained in Section 10-10.5 or 12-2 of this Code apply.

A board of education may appoint a student to the board to serve in an advisory capacity. The student member shall serve for a term as determined by the board. The board may not grant the student member any voting privileges, but shall consider the student member as an advisor. The student member may not participate in or attend any executive session of the board.

(Source: P.A. 96-538, eff. 8-14-09.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6)

Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of pupils; school searches.

(a) To expel pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means, and no action shall lie against them for such expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents have been requested to appear at a meeting of the board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it finds appropriate. An expelled pupil may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the school bus from riding the school bus, and no action shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed 10 school days. If a pupil is suspended due to gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board may suspend the pupil in excess of 10 school days for safety reasons. Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the parents or guardian of such pupil along with a full statement of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the notice, including the reason for the suspension and the suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardian the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall review such action of the superintendent or principal, assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review the parents or guardian of the pupil may appear and discuss the suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds appropriate. A pupil who is suspended in excess of 20 school days may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the suspension, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall be invited to send a representative to consult with the board at such meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be the cause for expulsion or suspension.

(d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case by case basis. A student who is determined to have brought one of the following objects to school, any school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be expelled for a period of not less than one year:

(1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, firearm as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. The expulsion period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.

(2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner consistent with the Federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with Article 13A of the School Code. The provisions of this subsection (d) apply in all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34.

(d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case by case basis, if (i) that student has been determined to have made an explicit threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet website through which the threat was made is a site that was accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or was available to third parties who worked or studied within the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to the safety and security of the threatened individual because of his or her duties or employment status or status as a student inside the school. The provisions of this subsection (d-5) apply in all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as personal effects left in those places and areas by students, without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects left in these places and areas. School authorities may request the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs. If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces evidence that the student has violated or is violating either the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules, such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities. The provisions of this subsection (e) apply in all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34.

(f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or expulsion from school and all school activities and a prohibition from being present on school grounds.

(g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any public or private school in this or any other state, the student must complete the entire term of the suspension or expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the school district if there is no threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program. This subsection (g) applies to all school districts, including special charter districts and districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-633, eff. 8-24-09; 96-998, eff. 7-2-10; 97-340, eff. 1-1-12; 97-495, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.39)

Sec. 10-22.39. In-service training programs.

(a) To conduct in-service training programs for teachers.

(b) In addition to other topics at in-service training programs, school guidance counselors, teachers, school social workers, and other school personnel who work with pupils in grades 7 through 12 shall be trained to identify the warning signs of suicidal behavior in adolescents and teens and shall be taught appropriate intervention and referral techniques.

(c) School guidance counselors, nurses, teachers and other school personnel who work with pupils may be trained to have a basic knowledge of matters relating to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), including the nature of the disease, its causes and effects, the means of detecting it and preventing its transmission, and the availability of appropriate sources of counseling and referral, and any other information that may be appropriate considering the age and grade level of such pupils. The School Board shall supervise such training. The State Board of Education and the Department of Public Health shall jointly develop standards for such training.

(d) In this subsection (d):

"Domestic violence" means abuse by a family or household member, as "abuse" and "family or household members" are defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Sexual violence" means sexual assault, abuse, or stalking of an adult or minor child proscribed in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-12, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16, including sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are strangers to the victim and sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are known or related by blood or marriage to the victim.

At least once every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils, including, but not limited to, school and school district administrators, teachers, school guidance counselors, school social workers, school counselors, school psychologists, and school nurses, must be conducted by persons with expertise in domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth and shall include training concerning (i) communicating with and listening to youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth, (ii) connecting youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth to appropriate in-school services and other agencies, programs, and services as needed, and (iii) implementing the school district's policies, procedures, and protocols with regard to such youth, including confidentiality. At a minimum, school personnel must be trained to understand, provide information and referrals, and address issues pertaining to youth who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence.

(e) At least every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils must be conducted by persons with expertise in anaphylactic reactions and management.

(f) At least once every 2 years, a school board shall conduct in-service training on educator ethics, teacher-student conduct, and school employee-student conduct for all personnel.

(Source: P.A. 95-558, eff. 8-30-07; 96-349, eff. 8-13-09; 96-431, eff. 8-13-09; 96-951, eff. 6-28-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-27.1A)

Sec. 10-27.1A. Firearms in schools.

(a) All school officials, including teachers, guidance counselors, and support staff, shall immediately notify the office of the principal in the event that they observe any person in possession of a firearm on school grounds; provided that taking such immediate action to notify the office of the principal would not immediately endanger the health, safety, or welfare of students who are under the direct supervision of the school official or the school official. If the health, safety, or welfare of students under the direct supervision of the school official or of the school official is immediately endangered, the school official shall notify the office of the principal as soon as the students under his or her supervision and he or she are no longer under immediate danger. A report is not required by this Section when the school official knows that the person in possession of the firearm is a law enforcement official engaged in the conduct of his or her official duties. Any school official acting in good faith who makes such a report under this Section shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred as a result of making the report. The identity of the school official making such report shall not be disclosed except as expressly and specifically authorized by law. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply with this Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent offense is a Class C misdemeanor.

(b) Upon receiving a report from any school official pursuant to this Section, or from any other person, the principal or his or her designee shall immediately notify a local law enforcement agency. If the person found to be in possession of a firearm on school grounds is a student, the principal or his or her designee shall also immediately notify that student's parent or guardian. Any principal or his or her designee acting in good faith who makes such reports under this Section shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of making the reports. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply with this Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent offense is a Class C misdemeanor. If the person found to be in possession of the firearm on school grounds is a minor, the law enforcement agency shall detain that minor until such time as the agency makes a determination pursuant to clause (a) of subsection (1) of Section 5-401 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as to whether the agency reasonably believes that the minor is delinquent. If the law enforcement agency determines that probable cause exists to believe that the minor committed a violation of item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 while on school grounds, the agency shall detain the minor for processing pursuant to Section 5-407 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(c) On or after January 1, 1997, upon receipt of any written, electronic, or verbal report from any school personnel regarding a verified incident involving a firearm in a school or on school owned or leased property, including any conveyance owned, leased, or used by the school for the transport of students or school personnel, the superintendent or his or her designee shall report all such firearm-related incidents occurring in a school or on school property to the local law enforcement authorities immediately and to the Department of State Police in a form, manner, and frequency as prescribed by the Department of State Police.

The State Board of Education shall receive an annual statistical compilation and related data associated with incidents involving firearms in schools from the Department of State Police. The State Board of Education shall compile this information by school district and make it available to the public.

(d) As used in this Section, the term "firearm" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

As used in this Section, the term "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school.

As used in this Section, the term "school grounds" includes the real property comprising any school, any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school.

(Source: P.A. 91-11, eff. 6-4-99; 91-491, eff. 8-13-99.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-6.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-6.02)

Sec. 14-6.02. Service animals. Service animals such as guide dogs, signal dogs or any other animal individually trained to perform tasks for the benefit of a student with a disability shall be permitted to accompany that student at all school functions, whether in or outside the classroom. For the purposes of this Section, "service animal" has the same meaning as in Section 48-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1 of the Service Animal Access Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-956, eff. 8-14-12; revised 9-20-12.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-80)

Sec. 21B-80. Conviction of certain offenses as grounds for revocation of license.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Narcotics offense" means any one or more of the following offenses:

(1) Any offense defined in the Cannabis Control Act, except those defined in subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 4 and subdivision (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act and any offense for which the holder of a license is placed on probation under the provisions of Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, provided that if the terms and conditions of probation required by the court are not fulfilled, the offense is not eligible for this exception.

(2) Any offense defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, except any offense for which the holder of a license is placed on probation under the provisions of Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, provided that if the terms and conditions of probation required by the court are not fulfilled, the offense is not eligible for this exception.

(3) Any offense defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, except any offense for which the holder of a license is placed on probation under the provision of Section 70 of that Act, provided that if the terms and conditions of probation required by the court are not fulfilled, the offense is not eligible for this exception.

(4) Any attempt to commit any of the offenses listed in items (1) through (3) of this definition.

(5) Any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the offenses listed in items (1) through (4) of this definition. The changes made by Public Act 96-431 to the definition of "narcotics offense" are declaratory of existing law.

"Sex offense" means any one or more of the following offenses:

(A) Any offense defined in Sections 11-6, 11-9 through 11-9.5, inclusive, and 11-30, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; Sections 11-14 through 11-21, inclusive, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; Sections 11-23 (if punished as a Class 3 felony), 11-24, 11-25, and 11-26 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-4.9, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-32, 12-33, and 12C-45 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(B) Any attempt to commit any of the offenses listed in item (A) of this definition.

(C) Any offense committed or attempted in any other state that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the offenses listed in items (A) and (B) of this definition.

(b) Whenever the holder of any license issued pursuant to this Article has been convicted of any sex offense or narcotics offense, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith suspend the license. If the conviction is reversed and the holder is acquitted of the offense in a new trial or the charges against him or her are dismissed, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith terminate the suspension of the license. When the conviction becomes final, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith revoke the license.

(c) Whenever the holder of a license issued pursuant to this Article has been convicted of attempting to commit, conspiring to commit, soliciting, or committing first degree murder or a Class X felony or any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith suspend the license. If the conviction is reversed and the holder is acquitted of that offense in a new trial or the charges that he or she committed that offense are dismissed, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith terminate the suspension of the license. When the conviction becomes final, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith revoke the license.

(Source: P.A. 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; incorporates 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-9.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-9.1)

Sec. 27-9.1. Sex Education.

(a) No pupil shall be required to take or participate in any class or course in comprehensive sex education if his parent or guardian submits written objection thereto, and refusal to take or participate in such course or program shall not be reason for suspension or expulsion of such pupil. Each class or course in comprehensive sex education offered in any of grades 6 through 12 shall include instruction on the prevention, transmission and spread of AIDS. Nothing in this Section prohibits instruction in sanitation, hygiene or traditional courses in biology.

(b) All public elementary, junior high, and senior high school classes that teach sex education and discuss sexual intercourse shall emphasize that abstinence is the expected norm in that abstinence from sexual intercourse is the only protection that is 100% effective against unwanted teenage pregnancy, sexually transmitted diseases, and acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) when transmitted sexually.

(c) All sex education courses that discuss sexual intercourse shall satisfy the following criteria:

(1) Course material and instruction shall be age appropriate.

(2) Course material and instruction shall teach honor and respect for monogamous heterosexual marriage.

(3) Course material and instruction shall stress that pupils should abstain from sexual intercourse until they are ready for marriage.

(4) Course material and instruction shall include a discussion of the possible emotional and psychological consequences of preadolescent and adolescent sexual intercourse outside of marriage and the consequences of unwanted adolescent pregnancy.

(5) Course material and instruction shall stress that sexually transmitted diseases are serious possible hazards of sexual intercourse. Pupils shall be provided with statistics based on the latest medical information citing the failure and success rates of condoms in preventing AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases.

(6) Course material and instruction shall advise pupils of the laws pertaining to their financial responsibility to children born in and out of wedlock.

(7) Course material and instruction shall advise pupils of the circumstances under which it is unlawful for males to have sexual relations with females under the age of 18 to whom they are not married pursuant to Article 11 12 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as now or hereafter amended.

(8) Course material and instruction shall teach pupils to not make unwanted physical and verbal sexual advances and how to say no to unwanted sexual advances. Pupils shall be taught that it is wrong to take advantage of or to exploit another person. The material and instruction shall also encourage youth to resist negative peer pressure.

(9) (Blank).

(10) Course material and instruction shall teach pupils about the dangers associated with drug and alcohol consumption during pregnancy.

(d) An opportunity shall be afforded to parents or guardians to examine the instructional materials to be used in such class or course.

(Source: P.A. 96-1082, eff. 7-16-10.)

(105 ILCS 5/33-2) (from Ch. 122, par. 33-2)

Sec. 33-2. Eligibility. To be eligible for election to the board, a person shall be a citizen of the United States, shall have been a resident of the district for at least one year immediately preceding his or her election, and shall not be a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. Permanent removal from the district by any member constitutes a resignation from and creates a vacancy in the board. Board members shall serve without compensation.

Notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary in any special charter, petitions nominating candidates for the board of education shall be signed by at least 200 voters of the district; and the polls, whether they be located within a city lying in the district or outside of a city, shall remain open during the hours specified in the Election Code.

(Source: P.A. 93-309, eff. 1-1-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-2.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-2.1)

Sec. 34-2.1. Local School Councils - Composition - Voter-Eligibility - Elections - Terms.

(a) A local school council shall be established for each attendance center within the school district. Each local school council shall consist of the following 12 voting members: the principal of the attendance center, 2 teachers employed and assigned to perform the majority of their employment duties at the attendance center, 6 parents of students currently enrolled at the attendance center, one employee of the school district employed and assigned to perform the majority of his or her employment duties at the attendance center who is not a teacher, and 2 community residents. Neither the parents nor the community residents who serve as members of the local school council shall be employees of the Board of Education. In each secondary attendance center, the local school council shall consist of 13 voting members -- the 12 voting members described above and one full-time student member, appointed as provided in subsection (m) below. In the event that the chief executive officer of the Chicago School Reform Board of Trustees determines that a local school council is not carrying out its financial duties effectively, the chief executive officer is authorized to appoint a representative of the business community with experience in finance and management to serve as an advisor to the local school council for the purpose of providing advice and assistance to the local school council on fiscal matters. The advisor shall have access to relevant financial records of the local school council. The advisor may attend executive sessions. The chief executive officer shall issue a written policy defining the circumstances under which a local school council is not carrying out its financial duties effectively.

(b) Within 7 days of January 11, 1991, the Mayor shall appoint the members and officers (a Chairperson who shall be a parent member and a Secretary) of each local school council who shall hold their offices until their successors shall be elected and qualified. Members so appointed shall have all the powers and duties of local school councils as set forth in this amendatory Act of 1991. The Mayor's appointments shall not require approval by the City Council.

The membership of each local school council shall be encouraged to be reflective of the racial and ethnic composition of the student population of the attendance center served by the local school council.

(c) Beginning with the 1995-1996 school year and in every even-numbered year thereafter, the Board shall set second semester Parent Report Card Pick-up Day for Local School Council elections and may schedule elections at year-round schools for the same dates as the remainder of the school system. Elections shall be conducted as provided herein by the Board of Education in consultation with the local school council at each attendance center.

(d) Beginning with the 1995-96 school year, the following procedures shall apply to the election of local school council members at each attendance center:

(i) The elected members of each local school council shall consist of the 6 parent members and the 2 community resident members.

(ii) Each elected member shall be elected by the eligible voters of that attendance center to serve for a two-year term commencing on July 1 immediately following the election described in subsection (c). Eligible voters for each attendance center shall consist of the parents and community residents for that attendance center.

(iii) Each eligible voter shall be entitled to cast one vote for up to a total of 5 candidates, irrespective of whether such candidates are parent or community resident candidates.

(iv) Each parent voter shall be entitled to vote in the local school council election at each attendance center in which he or she has a child currently enrolled. Each community resident voter shall be entitled to vote in the local school council election at each attendance center for which he or she resides in the applicable attendance area or voting district, as the case may be.

(v) Each eligible voter shall be entitled to vote once, but not more than once, in the local school council election at each attendance center at which the voter is eligible to vote.

(vi) The 2 teacher members and the non-teacher employee member of each local school council shall be appointed as provided in subsection (l) below each to serve for a two-year term coinciding with that of the elected parent and community resident members.

(vii) At secondary attendance centers, the voting student member shall be appointed as provided in subsection (m) below to serve for a one-year term coinciding with the beginning of the terms of the elected parent and community members of the local school council.

(e) The Council shall publicize the date and place of the election by posting notices at the attendance center, in public places within the attendance boundaries of the attendance center and by distributing notices to the pupils at the attendance center, and shall utilize such other means as it deems necessary to maximize the involvement of all eligible voters.

(f) Nomination. The Council shall publicize the opening of nominations by posting notices at the attendance center, in public places within the attendance boundaries of the attendance center and by distributing notices to the pupils at the attendance center, and shall utilize such other means as it deems necessary to maximize the involvement of all eligible voters. Not less than 2 weeks before the election date, persons eligible to run for the Council shall submit their name, date of birth, social security number, if available, and some evidence of eligibility to the Council. The Council shall encourage nomination of candidates reflecting the racial/ethnic population of the students at the attendance center. Each person nominated who runs as a candidate shall disclose, in a manner determined by the Board, any economic interest held by such person, by such person's spouse or children, or by each business entity in which such person has an ownership interest, in any contract with the Board, any local school council or any public school in the school district. Each person nominated who runs as a candidate shall also disclose, in a manner determined by the Board, if he or she ever has been convicted of any of the offenses specified in subsection (c) of Section 34-18.5; provided that neither this provision nor any other provision of this Section shall be deemed to require the disclosure of any information that is contained in any law enforcement record or juvenile court record that is confidential or whose accessibility or disclosure is restricted or prohibited under Section 5-901 or 5-905 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Failure to make such disclosure shall render a person ineligible for election or to serve on the local school council. The same disclosure shall be required of persons under consideration for appointment to the Council pursuant to subsections (l) and (m) of this Section.

(f-5) Notwithstanding disclosure, a person who has been convicted of any of the following offenses at any time shall be ineligible for election or appointment to a local school council and ineligible for appointment to a local school council pursuant to subsections (l) and (m) of this Section: (i) those defined in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4, 11-16, 11-17.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16, or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 11-14.3, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or (ii) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses. Notwithstanding disclosure, a person who has been convicted of any of the following offenses within the 10 years previous to the date of nomination or appointment shall be ineligible for election or appointment to a local school council: (i) those defined in Section 401.1, 405.1, or 405.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or (ii) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses.

Immediately upon election or appointment, incoming local school council members shall be required to undergo a criminal background investigation, to be completed prior to the member taking office, in order to identify any criminal convictions under the offenses enumerated in Section 34-18.5. The investigation shall be conducted by the Department of State Police in the same manner as provided for in Section 34-18.5. However, notwithstanding Section 34-18.5, the social security number shall be provided only if available. If it is determined at any time that a local school council member or member-elect has been convicted of any of the offenses enumerated in this Section or failed to disclose a conviction of any of the offenses enumerated in Section 34-18.5, the general superintendent shall notify the local school council member or member-elect of such determination and the local school council member or member-elect shall be removed from the local school council by the Board, subject to a hearing, convened pursuant to Board rule, prior to removal.

(g) At least one week before the election date, the Council shall publicize, in the manner provided in subsection (e), the names of persons nominated for election.

(h) Voting shall be in person by secret ballot at the attendance center between the hours of 6:00 a.m. and 7:00 p.m.

(i) Candidates receiving the highest number of votes shall be declared elected by the Council. In cases of a tie, the Council shall determine the winner by lot.

(j) The Council shall certify the results of the election and shall publish the results in the minutes of the Council.

(k) The general superintendent shall resolve any disputes concerning election procedure or results and shall ensure that, except as provided in subsections (e) and (g), no resources of any attendance center shall be used to endorse or promote any candidate.

(l) Beginning with the 1995-1996 school year and in every even numbered year thereafter, the Board shall appoint 2 teacher members to each local school council. These appointments shall be made in the following manner:

(i) The Board shall appoint 2 teachers who are employed and assigned to perform the majority of their employment duties at the attendance center to serve on the local school council of the attendance center for a two-year term coinciding with the terms of the elected parent and community members of that local school council. These appointments shall be made from among those teachers who are nominated in accordance with subsection (f).

(ii) A non-binding, advisory poll to ascertain the preferences of the school staff regarding appointments of teachers to the local school council for that attendance center shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures used to elect parent and community Council representatives. At such poll, each member of the school staff shall be entitled to indicate his or her preference for up to 2 candidates from among those who submitted statements of candidacy as described above. These preferences shall be advisory only and the Board shall maintain absolute discretion to appoint teacher members to local school councils, irrespective of the preferences expressed in any such poll.

(iii) In the event that a teacher representative is unable to perform his or her employment duties at the school due to illness, disability, leave of absence, disciplinary action, or any other reason, the Board shall declare a temporary vacancy and appoint a replacement teacher representative to serve on the local school council until such time as the teacher member originally appointed pursuant to this subsection (l) resumes service at the attendance center or for the remainder of the term. The replacement teacher representative shall be appointed in the same manner and by the same procedures as teacher representatives are appointed in subdivisions (i) and (ii) of this subsection (l).

(m) Beginning with the 1995-1996 school year, and in every year thereafter, the Board shall appoint one student member to each secondary attendance center. These appointments shall be made in the following manner:

(i) Appointments shall be made from among those students who submit statements of candidacy to the principal of the attendance center, such statements to be submitted commencing on the first day of the twentieth week of school and continuing for 2 weeks thereafter. The form and manner of such candidacy statements shall be determined by the Board.

(ii) During the twenty-second week of school in every year, the principal of each attendance center shall conduct a non-binding, advisory poll to ascertain the preferences of the school students regarding the appointment of a student to the local school council for that attendance center. At such poll, each student shall be entitled to indicate his or her preference for up to one candidate from among those who submitted statements of candidacy as described above. The Board shall promulgate rules to ensure that these non-binding, advisory polls are conducted in a fair and equitable manner and maximize the involvement of all school students. The preferences expressed in these non-binding, advisory polls shall be transmitted by the principal to the Board. However, these preferences shall be advisory only and the Board shall maintain absolute discretion to appoint student members to local school councils, irrespective of the preferences expressed in any such poll.

(iii) For the 1995-96 school year only, appointments shall be made from among those students who submitted statements of candidacy to the principal of the attendance center during the first 2 weeks of the school year. The principal shall communicate the results of any nonbinding, advisory poll to the Board. These results shall be advisory only, and the Board shall maintain absolute discretion to appoint student members to local school councils, irrespective of the preferences expressed in any such poll.

(n) The Board may promulgate such other rules and regulations for election procedures as may be deemed necessary to ensure fair elections.

(o) In the event that a vacancy occurs during a member's term, the Council shall appoint a person eligible to serve on the Council, to fill the unexpired term created by the vacancy, except that any teacher vacancy shall be filled by the Board after considering the preferences of the school staff as ascertained through a non-binding advisory poll of school staff.

(p) If less than the specified number of persons is elected within each candidate category, the newly elected local school council shall appoint eligible persons to serve as members of the Council for two-year terms.

(q) The Board shall promulgate rules regarding conflicts of interest and disclosure of economic interests which shall apply to local school council members and which shall require reports or statements to be filed by Council members at regular intervals with the Secretary of the Board. Failure to comply with such rules or intentionally falsifying such reports shall be grounds for disqualification from local school council membership. A vacancy on the Council for disqualification may be so declared by the Secretary of the Board. Rules regarding conflicts of interest and disclosure of economic interests promulgated by the Board shall apply to local school council members. No less than 45 days prior to the deadline, the general superintendent shall provide notice, by mail, to each local school council member of all requirements and forms for compliance with economic interest statements.

(r) (1) If a parent member of a local school council ceases to have any child enrolled in the attendance center governed by the Local School Council due to the graduation or voluntary transfer of a child or children from the attendance center, the parent's membership on the Local School Council and all voting rights are terminated immediately as of the date of the child's graduation or voluntary transfer. If the child of a parent member of a local school council dies during the member's term in office, the member may continue to serve on the local school council for the balance of his or her term. Further, a local school council member may be removed from the Council by a majority vote of the Council as provided in subsection (c) of Section 34-2.2 if the Council member has missed 3 consecutive regular meetings, not including committee meetings, or 5 regular meetings in a 12 month period, not including committee meetings. If a parent member of a local school council ceases to be eligible to serve on the Council for any other reason, he or she shall be removed by the Board subject to a hearing, convened pursuant to Board rule, prior to removal. A vote to remove a Council member by the local school council shall only be valid if the Council member has been notified personally or by certified mail, mailed to the person's last known address, of the Council's intent to vote on the Council member's removal at least 7 days prior to the vote. The Council member in question shall have the right to explain his or her actions and shall be eligible to vote on the question of his or her removal from the Council. The provisions of this subsection shall be contained within the petitions used to nominate Council candidates.

(2) A person may continue to serve as a community resident member of a local school council as long as he or she resides in the attendance area served by the school and is not employed by the Board nor is a parent of a student enrolled at the school. If a community resident member ceases to be eligible to serve on the Council, he or she shall be removed by the Board subject to a hearing, convened pursuant to Board rule, prior to removal.

(3) A person may continue to serve as a teacher member of a local school council as long as he or she is employed and assigned to perform a majority of his or her duties at the school, provided that if the teacher representative resigns from employment with the Board or voluntarily transfers to another school, the teacher's membership on the local school council and all voting rights are terminated immediately as of the date of the teacher's resignation or upon the date of the teacher's voluntary transfer to another school. If a teacher member of a local school council ceases to be eligible to serve on a local school council for any other reason, that member shall be removed by the Board subject to a hearing, convened pursuant to Board rule, prior to removal.

(Source: P.A. 95-1015, eff. 12-15-08; 96-1412, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-4) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-4)

Sec. 34-4. Eligibility. To be eligible for appointment to the board, a person shall be a citizen of the United States, shall be a registered voter as provided in the Election Code, shall have been a resident of the city for at least 3 years immediately preceding his or her appointment, and shall not be a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. Permanent removal from the city by any member of the board during his term of office constitutes a resignation therefrom and creates a vacancy in the board. Except for the President of the Chicago School Reform Board of Trustees who may be paid compensation for his or her services as chief executive officer as determined by the Mayor as provided in subsection (a) of Section 34-3, board members shall serve without any compensation; provided, that board members shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred while in the performance of their duties upon submission of proper receipts or upon submission of a signed voucher in the case of an expense allowance evidencing the amount of such reimbursement or allowance to the president of the board for verification and approval. The board of education may continue to provide health care insurance coverage, employer pension contributions, employee pension contributions, and life insurance premium payments for an employee required to resign from an administrative, teaching, or career service position in order to qualify as a member of the board of education. They shall not hold other public office under the Federal, State or any local government other than that of Director of the Regional Transportation Authority, member of the economic development commission of a city having a population exceeding 500,000, notary public or member of the National Guard, and by accepting any such office while members of the board, or by not resigning any such office held at the time of being appointed to the board within 30 days after such appointment, shall be deemed to have vacated their membership in the board.

(Source: P.A. 93-309, eff. 1-1-04.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-84a.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-84a.1)

Sec. 34-84a.1. Principals shall report incidents of intimidation. The principal of each attendance center shall promptly notify and report to the local law enforcement authorities for inclusion in the Department of State Police's Illinois Uniform Crime Reporting Program each incident of intimidation of which he or she has knowledge and each alleged incident of intimidation which is reported to him or her, either orally or in writing, by any pupil or by any teacher or other certificated or non-certificated personnel employed at the attendance center. "Intimidation" shall have the meaning ascribed to it by Section 12-6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-84b) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-84b)

Sec. 34-84b. Conviction of sex or narcotics offense, first degree murder, attempted first degree murder, or Class X felony as grounds for revocation of certificate.

(a) Whenever the holder of any certificate issued by the board of education has been convicted of any sex offense or narcotics offense as defined in this Section, the board of education shall forthwith suspend the certificate. If the conviction is reversed and the holder is acquitted of the offense in a new trial or the charges against him are dismissed, the board shall forthwith terminate the suspension of the certificate. When the conviction becomes final, the board shall forthwith revoke the certificate. "Sex offense" as used in this Section means any one or more of the following offenses: (1) any offense defined in Sections 11-6, 11-9, and 11-30, Sections 11-14 through 11-21, inclusive, and Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (2) any attempt to commit any of the foregoing offenses, and (3) any offense committed or attempted in any other state which, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses. "Narcotics offense" as used in this Section means any one or more of the following offenses: (1) any offense defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those defined in Sections 4(a), 4(b) and 5(a) of that Act and any offense for which the holder of any certificate is placed on probation under the provisions of Section 10 of that Act and fulfills the terms and conditions of probation as may be required by the court; (2) any offense defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act except any offense for which the holder of any certificate is placed on probation under the provisions of Section 410 of that Act and fulfills the terms and conditions of probation as may be required by the court; (3) any offense defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act except any offense for which the holder of any certificate is placed on probation under the provision of Section 70 of that Act and fulfills the terms and conditions of probation as may be required by the court; (4) any attempt to commit any of the foregoing offenses; and (5) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States which, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses.

(b) Whenever the holder of any certificate issued by the board of education or pursuant to Article 21 or any other provisions of the School Code has been convicted of first degree murder, attempted first degree murder, or a Class X felony, the board of education or the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith suspend the certificate. If the conviction is reversed and the holder is acquitted of that offense in a new trial or the charges that he or she committed that offense are dismissed, the suspending authority shall forthwith terminate the suspension of the certificate. When the conviction becomes final, the State Superintendent of Education shall forthwith revoke the certificate. The stated offenses of "first degree murder", "attempted first degree murder", and "Class X felony" referred to in this Section include any offense committed in another state that, if committed in this State, would have been punishable as any one of the stated offenses.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 240. The Medical School Matriculant Criminal History Records Check Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 57/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions.

"Matriculant" means an individual who is conditionally admitted as a student to a medical school located in Illinois, pending the medical school's consideration of his or her criminal history records check under this Act.

"Sex offender" means any person who is convicted pursuant to Illinois law or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law with any of the following sex offenses set forth in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) Indecent solicitation of a child.

(2) Sexual exploitation of a child.

(3) Custodial sexual misconduct.

(4) Exploitation of a child.

(5) Child pornography.

(6) Aggravated child pornography.

"Violent felony" means any of the following offenses, as defined by the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) First degree murder.

(2) Second degree murder.

(3) Predatory criminal sexual assault of a child.

(4) Aggravated criminal sexual assault.

(5) Criminal sexual assault.

(6) Aggravated arson.

(7) Aggravated kidnapping.

(8) Kidnapping.

(9) Aggravated battery resulting in great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 245. The Board of Higher Education Act is amended by changing Section 9.21 as follows:

(110 ILCS 205/9.21) (from Ch. 144, par. 189.21)

Sec. 9.21. Human Relations.

(a) The Board shall monitor, budget, evaluate, and report to the General Assembly in accordance with Section 9.16 of this Act on programs to improve human relations to include race, ethnicity, gender and other issues related to improving human relations. The programs shall at least:

(1) require each public institution of higher education to include, in the general education requirements for obtaining a degree, coursework on improving human relations to include race, ethnicity, gender and other issues related to improving human relations to address racism and sexual harassment on their campuses, through existing courses;

(2) require each public institution of higher education to report monthly to the Department of Human Rights and the Attorney General on each adjudicated case in which a finding of racial, ethnic or religious intimidation or sexual harassment made in a grievance, affirmative action or other proceeding established by that institution to investigate and determine allegations of racial, ethnic or religious intimidation and sexual harassment; and

(3) require each public institution of higher education to forward to the local State's Attorney any report received by campus security or by a university police department alleging the commission of a hate crime as defined under Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98.)

Section 250. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 4-7 as follows:

(205 ILCS 635/4-7)

Sec. 4-7. Additional investigation and examination authority. In addition to any authority allowed under this Act, the Director shall have the authority to conduct investigations and examinations as follows:

(a) For purposes of initial licensing, license renewal, license suspension, license conditioning, license revocation or termination, or general or specific inquiry or investigation to determine compliance with this Act, the Commissioner shall have the authority to access, receive, and use any books, accounts, records, files, documents, information, or evidence including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) criminal, civil, and administrative history information, including nonconviction data as specified in the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(2) personal history and experience information, including independent credit reports obtained from a consumer reporting agency described in Section 603(p) of the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act; and

(3) any other documents, information, or evidence the Commissioner deems relevant to the inquiry or investigation regardless of the location, possession, control, or custody of the documents, information, or evidence.

(b) For the purposes of investigating violations or complaints arising under this Act, or for the purposes of examination, the Commissioner may review, investigate, or examine any licensee, individual, or person subject to this Act, as often as necessary in order to carry out the purposes of this Act. The Commissioner may direct, subpoena, or order the attendance of and examine under oath all persons whose testimony may be required about the loans or the business or subject matter of any such examination or investigation, and may direct, subpoena, or order the person to produce books, accounts, records, files, and any other documents the Commissioner deems relevant to the inquiry.

(c) Each licensee, individual, or person subject to this Act shall make available to the Commissioner upon request the books and records relating to the operations of such licensee, individual, or person subject to this Act. The Commissioner shall have access to such books and records and interview the officers, principals, mortgage loan originators, employees, independent contractors, agents, and customers of the licensee, individual, or person subject to this Act concerning their business.

(d) Each licensee, individual, or person subject to this Act shall make or compile reports or prepare other information as directed by the Commissioner in order to carry out the purposes of this Section including, but not limited to:

(1) accounting compilations;

(2) information lists and data concerning loan transactions in a format prescribed by the Commissioner; or

(3) other information deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of this Section.

(e) In making any examination or investigation authorized by this Act, the Commissioner may control access to any documents and records of the licensee or person under examination or investigation. The Commissioner may take possession of the documents and records or place a person in exclusive charge of the documents and records in the place where they are usually kept. During the period of control, no individual or person shall remove or attempt to remove any of the documents and records except pursuant to a court order or with the consent of the Commissioner. Unless the Commissioner has reasonable grounds to believe the documents or records of the licensee have been, or are at risk of being altered or destroyed for purposes of concealing a violation of this Act, the licensee or owner of the documents and records shall have access to the documents or records as necessary to conduct its ordinary business affairs.

(f) In order to carry out the purposes of this Section, the Commissioner may:

(1) retain attorneys, accountants, or other professionals and specialists as examiners, auditors, or investigators to conduct or assist in the conduct of examinations or investigations;

(2) enter into agreements or relationships with other government officials or regulatory associations in order to improve efficiencies and reduce regulatory burden by sharing resources, standardized or uniform methods or procedures, and documents, records, information or evidence obtained under this Section;

(3) use, hire, contract, or employ public or privately available analytical systems, methods, or software to examine or investigate the licensee, individual, or person subject to this Act;

(4) accept and rely on examination or investigation reports made by other government officials, within or without this State; or

(5) accept audit reports made by an independent certified public accountant for the licensee, individual, or person subject to this Act in the course of that part of the examination covering the same general subject matter as the audit and may incorporate the audit report in the report of the examination, report of investigation, or other writing of the Commissioner.

(g) The authority of this Section shall remain in effect, whether such a licensee, individual, or person subject to this Act acts or claims to act under any licensing or registration law of this State, or claims to act without the authority.

(h) No licensee, individual, or person subject to investigation or examination under this Section may knowingly withhold, abstract, remove, mutilate, destroy, or secrete any books, records, computer records, or other information.

(Source: P.A. 96-112, eff. 7-31-09.)

Section 255. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Section 3-702 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/3-702) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-702)

Sec. 3-702. (a) A person who believes that this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act may have been violated may request an investigation. The request may be submitted to the Department in writing, by telephone, or by personal visit. An oral complaint shall be reduced to writing by the Department. The Department shall request information identifying the complainant, including the name, address and telephone number, to help enable appropriate follow-up. The Department shall act on such complaints via on-site visits or other methods deemed appropriate to handle the complaints with or without such identifying information, as otherwise provided under this Section. The complainant shall be informed that compliance with such request is not required to satisfy the procedures for filing a complaint under this Act.

(b) The substance of the complaint shall be provided in writing to the licensee, owner or administrator no earlier than at the commencement of an on-site inspection of the facility which takes place pursuant to the complaint.

(c) The Department shall not disclose the name of the complainant unless the complainant consents in writing to the disclosure or the investigation results in a judicial proceeding, or unless disclosure is essential to the investigation. The complainant shall be given the opportunity to withdraw the complaint before disclosure. Upon the request of the complainant, the Department may permit the complainant or a representative of the complainant to accompany the person making the on-site inspection of the facility.

(d) Upon receipt of a complaint, the Department shall determine whether this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act has been or is being violated. The Department shall investigate all complaints alleging abuse or neglect within 7 days after the receipt of the complaint except that complaints of abuse or neglect which indicate that a resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be investigated within 24 hours after receipt of the complaint. All other complaints shall be investigated within 30 days after the receipt of the complaint. The Department employees investigating a complaint shall conduct a brief, informal exit conference with the facility to alert its administration of any suspected serious deficiency that poses a direct threat to the health, safety or welfare of a resident to enable an immediate correction for the alleviation or elimination of such threat. Such information and findings discussed in the brief exit conference shall become a part of the investigating record but shall not in any way constitute an official or final notice of violation as provided under Section 3-301. All complaints shall be classified as "an invalid report", "a valid report", or "an undetermined report". For any complaint classified as "a valid report", the Department must determine within 30 working days if any rule or provision of this Act has been or is being violated.

(d-1) The Department shall, whenever possible, combine an on-site investigation of a complaint in a facility with other inspections in order to avoid duplication of inspections.

(e) In all cases, the Department shall inform the complainant of its findings within 10 days of its determination unless otherwise indicated by the complainant, and the complainant may direct the Department to send a copy of such findings to another person. The Department's findings may include comments or documentation provided by either the complainant or the licensee pertaining to the complaint. The Department shall also notify the facility of such findings within 10 days of the determination, but the name of the complainant or residents shall not be disclosed in this notice to the facility. The notice of such findings shall include a copy of the written determination; the correction order, if any; the warning notice, if any; the inspection report; or the State licensure form on which the violation is listed.

(f) A written determination, correction order, or warning notice concerning a complaint, together with the facility's response, shall be available for public inspection, but the name of the complainant or resident shall not be disclosed without his consent.

(g) A complainant who is dissatisfied with the determination or investigation by the Department may request a hearing under Section 3-703. The facility shall be given notice of any such hearing and may participate in the hearing as a party. If a facility requests a hearing under Section 3-703 which concerns a matter covered by a complaint, the complainant shall be given notice and may participate in the hearing as a party. A request for a hearing by either a complainant or a facility shall be submitted in writing to the Department within 30 days after the mailing of the Department's findings as described in subsection (e) of this Section. Upon receipt of the request the Department shall conduct a hearing as provided under Section 3-703.

(h) Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(8) of Section 26-1 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961".

(Source: P.A. 85-1378.)

Section 260. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by changing Section 3-702 as follows:

(210 ILCS 47/3-702)

Sec. 3-702. Request for investigation of violation.

(a) A person who believes that this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act may have been violated may request an investigation. The request may be submitted to the Department in writing, by telephone, or by personal visit. An oral complaint shall be reduced to writing by the Department. The Department shall request information identifying the complainant, including the name, address and telephone number, to help enable appropriate follow up. The Department shall act on such complaints via on-site visits or other methods deemed appropriate to handle the complaints with or without such identifying information, as otherwise provided under this Section. The complainant shall be informed that compliance with such request is not required to satisfy the procedures for filing a complaint under this Act.

(b) The substance of the complaint shall be provided in writing to the licensee, owner or administrator no earlier than at the commencement of an on-site inspection of the facility which takes place pursuant to the complaint.

(c) The Department shall not disclose the name of the complainant unless the complainant consents in writing to the disclosure or the investigation results in a judicial proceeding, or unless disclosure is essential to the investigation. The complainant shall be given the opportunity to withdraw the complaint before disclosure. Upon the request of the complainant, the Department may permit the complainant or a representative of the complainant to accompany the person making the on-site inspection of the facility.

(d) Upon receipt of a complaint, the Department shall determine whether this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act has been or is being violated. The Department shall investigate all complaints alleging abuse or neglect within 7 days after the receipt of the complaint except that complaints of abuse or neglect which indicate that a resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be investigated within 24 hours after receipt of the complaint. All other complaints shall be investigated within 30 days after the receipt of the complaint. The Department employees investigating a complaint shall conduct a brief, informal exit conference with the facility to alert its administration of any suspected serious deficiency that poses a direct threat to the health, safety or welfare of a resident to enable an immediate correction for the alleviation or elimination of such threat. Such information and findings discussed in the brief exit conference shall become a part of the investigating record but shall not in any way constitute an official or final notice of violation as provided under Section 3-301. All complaints shall be classified as "an invalid report", "a valid report", or "an undetermined report". For any complaint classified as "a valid report", the Department must determine within 30 working days if any rule or provision of this Act has been or is being violated.

(d-1) The Department shall, whenever possible, combine an on site investigation of a complaint in a facility with other inspections in order to avoid duplication of inspections.

(e) In all cases, the Department shall inform the complainant of its findings within 10 days of its determination unless otherwise indicated by the complainant, and the complainant may direct the Department to send a copy of such findings to another person. The Department's findings may include comments or documentation provided by either the complainant or the licensee pertaining to the complaint. The Department shall also notify the facility of such findings within 10 days of the determination, but the name of the complainant or residents shall not be disclosed in this notice to the facility. The notice of such findings shall include a copy of the written determination; the correction order, if any; the warning notice, if any; the inspection report; or the State licensure form on which the violation is listed.

(f) A written determination, correction order, or warning notice concerning a complaint, together with the facility's response, shall be available for public inspection, but the name of the complainant or resident shall not be disclosed without his or her consent.

(g) A complainant who is dissatisfied with the determination or investigation by the Department may request a hearing under Section 3-703. The facility shall be given notice of any such hearing and may participate in the hearing as a party. If a facility requests a hearing under Section 3-703 which concerns a matter covered by a complaint, the complainant shall be given notice and may participate in the hearing as a party. A request for a hearing by either a complainant or a facility shall be submitted in writing to the Department within 30 days after the mailing of the Department's findings as described in subsection (e) of this Section. Upon receipt of the request the Department shall conduct a hearing as provided under Section 3-703.

(h) Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(8) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10.)

Section 265. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act is amended by changing Section 3-702 as follows:

(210 ILCS 48/3-702)

Sec. 3-702. Request for investigation of violation.

(a) A person who believes that this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act may have been violated may request an investigation. The request may be submitted to the Department in writing, by telephone, or by personal visit. An oral complaint shall be reduced to writing by the Department. The Department shall request information identifying the complainant, including the name, address and telephone number, to help enable appropriate follow up. The Department shall act on such complaints via on-site visits or other methods deemed appropriate to handle the complaints with or without such identifying information, as otherwise provided under this Section. The complainant shall be informed that compliance with such request is not required to satisfy the procedures for filing a complaint under this Act.

(b) The substance of the complaint shall be provided in writing to the licensee, owner or administrator no earlier than at the commencement of an on-site inspection of the facility which takes place pursuant to the complaint.

(c) The Department shall not disclose the name of the complainant unless the complainant consents in writing to the disclosure or the investigation results in a judicial proceeding, or unless disclosure is essential to the investigation. The complainant shall be given the opportunity to withdraw the complaint before disclosure. Upon the request of the complainant, the Department may permit the complainant or a representative of the complainant to accompany the person making the on-site inspection of the facility.

(d) Upon receipt of a complaint, the Department shall determine whether this Act or a rule promulgated under this Act has been or is being violated. The Department shall investigate all complaints alleging abuse or neglect within 7 days after the receipt of the complaint except that complaints of abuse or neglect which indicate that a resident's life or safety is in imminent danger shall be investigated within 24 hours after receipt of the complaint. All other complaints shall be investigated within 30 days after the receipt of the complaint. The Department employees investigating a complaint shall conduct a brief, informal exit conference with the facility to alert its administration of any suspected serious deficiency that poses a direct threat to the health, safety or welfare of a resident to enable an immediate correction for the alleviation or elimination of such threat. Such information and findings discussed in the brief exit conference shall become a part of the investigating record but shall not in any way constitute an official or final notice of violation as provided under Section 3-301. All complaints shall be classified as "an invalid report", "a valid report", or "an undetermined report". For any complaint classified as "a valid report", the Department must determine within 30 working days if any rule or provision of this Act has been or is being violated.

(d-1) The Department shall, whenever possible, combine an on-site investigation of a complaint in a facility with other inspections in order to avoid duplication of inspections.

(e) In all cases, the Department shall inform the complainant of its findings within 10 days of its determination unless otherwise indicated by the complainant, and the complainant may direct the Department to send a copy of such findings to another person. The Department's findings may include comments or documentation provided by either the complainant or the licensee pertaining to the complaint. The Department shall also notify the facility of such findings within 10 days of the determination, but the name of the complainant or residents shall not be disclosed in this notice to the facility. The notice of such findings shall include a copy of the written determination; the correction order, if any; the warning notice, if any; the inspection report; or the State licensure form on which the violation is listed.

(f) A written determination, correction order, or warning notice concerning a complaint, together with the facility's response, shall be available for public inspection, but the name of the complainant or resident shall not be disclosed without his or her consent.

(g) A complainant who is dissatisfied with the determination or investigation by the Department may request a hearing under Section 3-703. The facility shall be given notice of any such hearing and may participate in the hearing as a party. If a facility requests a hearing under Section 3-703 which concerns a matter covered by a complaint, the complainant shall be given notice and may participate in the hearing as a party. A request for a hearing by either a complainant or a facility shall be submitted in writing to the Department within 30 days after the mailing of the Department's findings as described in subsection (e) of this Section. Upon receipt of the request, the Department shall conduct a hearing as provided under Section 3-703.

(h) Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(8) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11.)

Section 270. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Section 3.133 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.133)

Sec. 3.133. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 94-577, eff. 1-1-06.)

Section 275. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 356e and 367 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/356e) (from Ch. 73, par. 968e)

Sec. 356e. Victims of certain offenses.

(1) No policy of accident and health insurance, which provides benefits for hospital or medical expenses based upon the actual expenses incurred, delivered or issued for delivery to any person in this State shall contain any specific exception to coverage which would preclude the payment under that policy of actual expenses incurred in the examination and testing of a victim of an offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, as now or hereafter amended, or an attempt to commit such offense to establish that sexual contact did occur or did not occur, and to establish the presence or absence of sexually transmitted disease or infection, and examination and treatment of injuries and trauma sustained by a victim of such offense arising out of the offense. Every policy of accident and health insurance which specifically provides benefits for routine physical examinations shall provide full coverage for expenses incurred in the examination and testing of a victim of an offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, as now or hereafter amended, or an attempt to commit such offense as set forth in this Section. This Section shall not apply to a policy which covers hospital and medical expenses for specified illnesses or injuries only.

(2) For purposes of enabling the recovery of State funds, any insurance carrier subject to this Section shall upon reasonable demand by the Department of Public Health disclose the names and identities of its insureds entitled to benefits under this provision to the Department of Public Health whenever the Department of Public Health has determined that it has paid, or is about to pay, hospital or medical expenses for which an insurance carrier is liable under this Section. All information received by the Department of Public Health under this provision shall be held on a confidential basis and shall not be subject to subpoena and shall not be made public by the Department of Public Health or used for any purpose other than that authorized by this Section.

(3) Whenever the Department of Public Health finds that it has paid all or part of any hospital or medical expenses which an insurance carrier is obligated to pay under this Section, the Department of Public Health shall be entitled to receive reimbursement for its payments from such insurance carrier provided that the Department of Public Health has notified the insurance carrier of its claims before the carrier has paid such benefits to its insureds or in behalf of its insureds.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(215 ILCS 5/367) (from Ch. 73, par. 979)

Sec. 367. Group accident and health insurance.

(1) Group accident and health insurance is hereby declared to be that form of accident and health insurance covering not less than 2 employees, members, or employees of members, written under a master policy issued to any governmental corporation, unit, agency or department thereof, or to any corporation, copartnership, individual employer, or to any association upon application of an executive officer or trustee of such association having a constitution or bylaws and formed in good faith for purposes other than that of obtaining insurance, where officers, members, employees, employees of members or classes or department thereof, may be insured for their individual benefit. In addition a group accident and health policy may be written to insure any group which may be insured under a group life insurance policy. The term "employees" shall include the officers, managers and employees of subsidiary or affiliated corporations, and the individual proprietors, partners and employees of affiliated individuals and firms, when the business of such subsidiary or affiliated corporations, firms or individuals, is controlled by a common employer through stock ownership, contract or otherwise.

(2) Any insurance company authorized to write accident and health insurance in this State shall have power to issue group accident and health policies. No policy of group accident and health insurance may be issued or delivered in this State unless a copy of the form thereof shall have been filed with the department and approved by it in accordance with Section 355, and it contains in substance those provisions contained in Sections 357.1 through 357.30 as may be applicable to group accident and health insurance and the following provisions:

(a) A provision that the policy, the application of the employer, or executive officer or trustee of any association, and the individual applications, if any, of the employees, members or employees of members insured shall constitute the entire contract between the parties, and that all statements made by the employer, or the executive officer or trustee, or by the individual employees, members or employees of members shall (in the absence of fraud) be deemed representations and not warranties, and that no such statement shall be used in defense to a claim under the policy, unless it is contained in a written application.

(b) A provision that the insurer will issue to the employer, or to the executive officer or trustee of the association, for delivery to the employee, member or employee of a member, who is insured under such policy, an individual certificate setting forth a statement as to the insurance protection to which he is entitled and to whom payable.

(c) A provision that to the group or class thereof originally insured shall be added from time to time all new employees of the employer, members of the association or employees of members eligible to and applying for insurance in such group or class.

(3) Anything in this code to the contrary notwithstanding, any group accident and health policy may provide that all or any portion of any indemnities provided by any such policy on account of hospital, nursing, medical or surgical services, may, at the insurer's option, be paid directly to the hospital or person rendering such services; but the policy may not require that the service be rendered by a particular hospital or person. Payment so made shall discharge the insurer's obligation with respect to the amount of insurance so paid. Nothing in this subsection (3) shall prohibit an insurer from providing incentives for insureds to utilize the services of a particular hospital or person.

(4) Special group policies may be issued to school districts providing medical or hospital service, or both, for pupils of the district injured while participating in any athletic activity under the jurisdiction of or sponsored or controlled by the district or the authorities of any school thereof. The provisions of this Section governing the issuance of group accident and health insurance shall, insofar as applicable, control the issuance of such policies issued to schools.

(5) No policy of group accident and health insurance may be issued or delivered in this State unless it provides that upon the death of the insured employee or group member the dependents' coverage, if any, continues for a period of at least 90 days subject to any other policy provisions relating to termination of dependents' coverage.

(6) No group hospital policy covering miscellaneous hospital expenses issued or delivered in this State shall contain any exception or exclusion from coverage which would preclude the payment of expenses incurred for the processing and administration of blood and its components.

(7) No policy of group accident and health insurance, delivered in this State more than 120 days after the effective day of the Section, which provides inpatient hospital coverage for sicknesses shall exclude from such coverage the treatment of alcoholism. This subsection shall not apply to a policy which covers only specified sicknesses.

(8) No policy of group accident and health insurance, which provides benefits for hospital or medical expenses based upon the actual expenses incurred, issued or delivered in this State shall contain any specific exception to coverage which would preclude the payment of actual expenses incurred in the examination and testing of a victim of an offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or an attempt to commit such offense, to establish that sexual contact did occur or did not occur, and to establish the presence or absence of sexually transmitted disease or infection, and examination and treatment of injuries and trauma sustained by the victim of such offense, arising out of the offense. Every group policy of accident and health insurance which specifically provides benefits for routine physical examinations shall provide full coverage for expenses incurred in the examination and testing of a victim of an offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or an attempt to commit such offense, as set forth in this Section. This subsection shall not apply to a policy which covers hospital and medical expenses for specified illnesses and injuries only.

(9) For purposes of enabling the recovery of State funds, any insurance carrier subject to this Section shall upon reasonable demand by the Department of Public Health disclose the names and identities of its insureds entitled to benefits under this provision to the Department of Public Health whenever the Department of Public Health has determined that it has paid, or is about to pay, hospital or medical expenses for which an insurance carrier is liable under this Section. All information received by the Department of Public Health under this provision shall be held on a confidential basis and shall not be subject to subpoena and shall not be made public by the Department of Public Health or used for any purpose other than that authorized by this Section.

(10) Whenever the Department of Public Health finds that it has paid all or part of any hospital or medical expenses which an insurance carrier is obligated to pay under this Section, the Department of Public Health shall be entitled to receive reimbursement for its payments from such insurance carrier provided that the Department of Public Health has notified the insurance carrier of its claim before the carrier has paid the benefits to its insureds or the insureds' assignees.

(11) (a) No group hospital, medical or surgical expense policy shall contain any provision whereby benefits otherwise payable thereunder are subject to reduction solely on account of the existence of similar benefits provided under other group or group-type accident and sickness insurance policies where such reduction would operate to reduce total benefits payable under these policies below an amount equal to 100% of total allowable expenses provided under these policies.

(b) When dependents of insureds are covered under 2 policies, both of which contain coordination of benefits provisions, benefits of the policy of the insured whose birthday falls earlier in the year are determined before those of the policy of the insured whose birthday falls later in the year. Birthday, as used herein, refers only to the month and day in a calendar year, not the year in which the person was born. The Department of Insurance shall promulgate rules defining the order of benefit determination pursuant to this paragraph (b).

(12) Every group policy under this Section shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 356g and 356n of this Code.

(13) No accident and health insurer providing coverage for hospital or medical expenses on an expense incurred basis shall deny reimbursement for an otherwise covered expense incurred for any organ transplantation procedure solely on the basis that such procedure is deemed experimental or investigational unless supported by the determination of the Office of Health Care Technology Assessment within the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research within the federal Department of Health and Human Services that such procedure is either experimental or investigational or that there is insufficient data or experience to determine whether an organ transplantation procedure is clinically acceptable. If an accident and health insurer has made written request, or had one made on its behalf by a national organization, for determination by the Office of Health Care Technology Assessment within the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research within the federal Department of Health and Human Services as to whether a specific organ transplantation procedure is clinically acceptable and said organization fails to respond to such a request within a period of 90 days, the failure to act may be deemed a determination that the procedure is deemed to be experimental or investigational.

(14) Whenever a claim for benefits by an insured under a dental prepayment program is denied or reduced, based on the review of x-ray films, such review must be performed by a dentist.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 280. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 4-4 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/4-4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1408.4)

Sec. 4-4. Sexual assault or abuse victims; coverage of expenses; recovery of State funds; reimbursement of Department of Public Health.

(1) Contracts or evidences of coverage issued by a health maintenance organization, which provide benefits for health care services, shall to the full extent of coverage provided for any other emergency or accident care, provide for the payment of actual expenses incurred, without offset or reduction for benefit deductibles or co-insurance amounts, in the examination and testing of a victim of an offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, as now or hereafter amended, or an attempt to commit such offense, to establish that sexual contact did occur or did not occur, and to establish the presence or absence of sexually transmitted disease or infection, and examination and treatment of injuries and trauma sustained by a victim of such offense.

(2) For purposes of enabling the recovery of State funds, any health maintenance organization subject to this Section shall upon reasonable demand by the Department of Public Health disclose the names and identities of its enrollees entitled to benefits under this provision to the Department of Public Health whenever the Department of Public Health has determined that it has paid, or is about to pay for, health care services for which a health maintenance organization is liable under this Section. All information received by the Department of Public Health under this provision shall be held on a confidential basis and shall not be subject to subpoena and shall not be made public by the Department of Public Health or used for any purpose other than that authorized by this Section.

(3) Whenever the Department of Public Health finds that it has paid for all or part of any health care services for which a health maintenance organization is obligated to pay under this Section, the Department of Public Health shall be entitled to receive reimbursement for its payments from such organization provided that the Department of Public Health has notified the organization of its claims before the organization has paid such benefits to its enrollees or in behalf of its enrollees.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 285. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 15.8 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/15.8) (from Ch. 32, par. 609.8)

Sec. 15.8. Sexual assault or abuse victims.

(1) Policies, contracts or subscription certificates issued by a health services plan corporation, which provide benefits for hospital or medical expenses based upon the actual expenses incurred, shall to the full extent of coverage provided for any other emergency or accident care, provide for the payment of actual expenses incurred, without offset or reduction for benefit deductibles or co-insurance amounts, in the examination and testing of a victim of an offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, as now or hereafter amended, or attempt to commit such offense, to establish that sexual contact did occur or did not occur, and to establish the presence or absence of sexually transmitted disease or infection, and examination and treatment of injuries and trauma sustained by a victim of such offense.

(2) For purposes of enabling the recovery of State Funds, any health services plan corporation subject to this Section shall upon reasonable demand by the Department of Public Health disclose the names and identities of its insureds or subscribers entitled to benefits under this provision to the Department of Public Health whenever the Department of Public Health has determined that it has paid, or is about to pay, hospital or medical expenses for which a health care service corporation is liable under this Section. All information received by the Department of Public Health under this provision shall be held on a confidential basis and shall not be subject to subpoena and shall not be made public by the Department of Public Health or used for any purpose other than that authorized by this Section.

(3) Whenever the Department of Public Health finds that it has paid all or part of any hospital or medical expenses which a health services plan corporation is obligated to pay under this Section, the Department of Public Health shall be entitled to receive reimbursement for its payments from such corporation provided that the Department of Public Health has notified the corporation of its claims before the corporation has paid such benefits to its subscribers or in behalf of its subscribers.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 290. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 2-202, 4-201, 18-106, and 22-501 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/2-202) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 2-202)

Sec. 2-202. Policy; Public Utility Fund; tax.

(a) It is declared to be the public policy of this State that in order to maintain and foster the effective regulation of public utilities under this Act in the interests of the People of the State of Illinois and the public utilities as well, the public utilities subject to regulation under this Act and which enjoy the privilege of operating as public utilities in this State, shall bear the expense of administering this Act by means of a tax on such privilege measured by the annual gross revenue of such public utilities in the manner provided in this Section. For purposes of this Section, "expense of administering this Act" includes any costs incident to studies, whether made by the Commission or under contract entered into by the Commission, concerning environmental pollution problems caused or contributed to by public utilities and the means for eliminating or abating those problems. Such proceeds shall be deposited in the Public Utility Fund in the State treasury.

(b) All of the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Commission incident to the administration of this Act shall be paid out of the Public Utility Fund except the compensation of the members of the Commission which shall be paid from the General Revenue Fund. Notwithstanding other provisions of this Act to the contrary, the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Commission incident to the administration of the Illinois Commercial Transportation Law may be paid from appropriations from the Public Utility Fund through the end of fiscal year 1986.

(c) A tax is imposed upon each public utility subject to the provisions of this Act equal to .08% of its gross revenue for each calendar year commencing with the calendar year beginning January 1, 1982, except that the Commission may, by rule, establish a different rate no greater than 0.1%. For purposes of this Section, "gross revenue" shall not include revenue from the production, transmission, distribution, sale, delivery, or furnishing of electricity. "Gross revenue" shall not include amounts paid by telecommunications retailers under the Telecommunications Infrastructure Maintenance Fee Act.

(d) Annual gross revenue returns shall be filed in accordance with paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (d).

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d), on or before January 10 of each year each public utility subject to the provisions of this Act shall file with the Commission an estimated annual gross revenue return containing an estimate of the amount of its gross revenue for the calendar year commencing January 1 of said year and a statement of the amount of tax due for said calendar year on the basis of that estimate. Public utilities may also file revised returns containing updated estimates and updated amounts of tax due during the calendar year. These revised returns, if filed, shall form the basis for quarterly payments due during the remainder of the calendar year. In addition, on or before March 31 of each year, each public utility shall file an amended return showing the actual amount of gross revenues shown by the company's books and records as of December 31 of the previous year. Forms and instructions for such estimated, revised, and amended returns shall be devised and supplied by the Commission.

(2) Beginning with returns due after January 1, 2002, the requirements of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) shall not apply to any public utility in any calendar year for which the total tax the public utility owes under this Section is less than $10,000. For such public utilities with respect to such years, the public utility shall file with the Commission, on or before March 31 of the following year, an annual gross revenue return for the year and a statement of the amount of tax due for that year on the basis of such a return. Forms and instructions for such returns and corrected returns shall be devised and supplied by the Commission.

(e) All returns submitted to the Commission by a public utility as provided in this subsection (e) or subsection (d) of this Section shall contain or be verified by a written declaration by an appropriate officer of the public utility that the return is made under the penalties of perjury. The Commission may audit each such return submitted and may, under the provisions of Section 5-101 of this Act, take such measures as are necessary to ascertain the correctness of the returns submitted. The Commission has the power to direct the filing of a corrected return by any utility which has filed an incorrect return and to direct the filing of a return by any utility which has failed to submit a return. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent return under this Section is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(f) (1) For all public utilities subject to paragraph (1) of subsection (d), at least one quarter of the annual amount of tax due under subsection (c) shall be paid to the Commission on or before the tenth day of January, April, July, and October of the calendar year subject to tax. In the event that an adjustment in the amount of tax due should be necessary as a result of the filing of an amended or corrected return under subsection (d) or subsection (e) of this Section, the amount of any deficiency shall be paid by the public utility together with the amended or corrected return and the amount of any excess shall, after the filing of a claim for credit by the public utility, be returned to the public utility in the form of a credit memorandum in the amount of such excess or be refunded to the public utility in accordance with the provisions of subsection (k) of this Section. However, if such deficiency or excess is less than $1, then the public utility need not pay the deficiency and may not claim a credit.

(2) Any public utility subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (d) shall pay the amount of tax due under subsection (c) on or before March 31 next following the end of the calendar year subject to tax. In the event that an adjustment in the amount of tax due should be necessary as a result of the filing of a corrected return under subsection (e), the amount of any deficiency shall be paid by the public utility at the time the corrected return is filed. Any excess tax payment by the public utility shall be returned to it after the filing of a claim for credit, in the form of a credit memorandum in the amount of the excess. However, if such deficiency or excess is less than $1, the public utility need not pay the deficiency and may not claim a credit.

(g) Each installment or required payment of the tax imposed by subsection (c) becomes delinquent at midnight of the date that it is due. Failure to make a payment as required by this Section shall result in the imposition of a late payment penalty, an underestimation penalty, or both, as provided by this subsection. The late payment penalty shall be the greater of:

(1) $25 for each month or portion of a month that the installment or required payment is unpaid or

(2) an amount equal to the difference between what should have been paid on the due date, based upon the most recently filed estimated, annual, or amended return, and what was actually paid, times 1%, for each month or portion of a month that the installment or required payment goes unpaid. This penalty may be assessed as soon as the installment or required payment becomes delinquent.

The underestimation penalty shall apply to those public utilities subject to paragraph (1) of subsection (d) and shall be calculated after the filing of the amended return. It shall be imposed if the amount actually paid on any of the dates specified in subsection (f) is not equal to at least one-fourth of the amount actually due for the year, and shall equal the greater of:

(1) $25 for each month or portion of a month that the amount due is unpaid or

(2) an amount equal to the difference between what should have been paid, based on the amended return, and what was actually paid as of the date specified in subsection (f), times a percentage equal to 1/12 of the sum of 10% and the percentage most recently established by the Commission for interest to be paid on customer deposits under 83 Ill. Adm. Code 280.70(e)(1), for each month or portion of a month that the amount due goes unpaid, except that no underestimation penalty shall be assessed if the amount actually paid on or before each of the dates specified in subsection (f) was based on an estimate of gross revenues at least equal to the actual gross revenues for the previous year. The Commission may enforce the collection of any delinquent installment or payment, or portion thereof by legal action or in any other manner by which the collection of debts due the State of Illinois may be enforced under the laws of this State. The executive director or his designee may excuse the payment of an assessed penalty or a portion of an assessed penalty if he determines that enforced collection of the penalty as assessed would be unjust.

(h) All sums collected by the Commission under the provisions of this Section shall be paid promptly after the receipt of the same, accompanied by a detailed statement thereof, into the Public Utility Fund in the State treasury.

(i) During the month of October of each odd-numbered year the Commission shall:

(1) determine the amount of all moneys deposited in the Public Utility Fund during the preceding fiscal biennium plus the balance, if any, in that fund at the beginning of that biennium;

(2) determine the sum total of the following items: (A) all moneys expended or obligated against appropriations made from the Public Utility Fund during the preceding fiscal biennium, plus (B) the sum of the credit memoranda then outstanding against the Public Utility Fund, if any; and

(3) determine the amount, if any, by which the sum determined as provided in item (1) exceeds the amount determined as provided in item (2).

If the amount determined as provided in item (3) of this subsection exceeds 50% of the previous fiscal year's appropriation level, the Commission shall then compute the proportionate amount, if any, which (x) the tax paid hereunder by each utility during the preceding biennium, and (y) the amount paid into the Public Utility Fund during the preceding biennium by the Department of Revenue pursuant to Sections 2-9 and 2-11 of the Electricity Excise Tax Law, bears to the difference between the amount determined as provided in item (3) of this subsection (i) and 50% of the previous fiscal year's appropriation level. The Commission shall cause the proportionate amount determined with respect to payments made under the Electricity Excise Tax Law to be transferred into the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury, and notify each public utility that it may file during the 3 month period after the date of notification a claim for credit for the proportionate amount determined with respect to payments made hereunder by the public utility. If the proportionate amount is less than $10, no notification will be sent by the Commission, and no right to a claim exists as to that amount. Upon the filing of a claim for credit within the period provided, the Commission shall issue a credit memorandum in such amount to such public utility. Any claim for credit filed after the period provided for in this Section is void.

(j) Credit memoranda issued pursuant to subsection (f) and credit memoranda issued after notification and filing pursuant to subsection (i) may be applied for the 2 year period from the date of issuance, against the payment of any amount due during that period under the tax imposed by subsection (c), or, subject to reasonable rule of the Commission including requirement of notification, may be assigned to any other public utility subject to regulation under this Act. Any application of credit memoranda after the period provided for in this Section is void.

(k) The chairman or executive director may make refund of fees, taxes or other charges whenever he shall determine that the person or public utility will not be liable for payment of such fees, taxes or charges during the next 24 months and he determines that the issuance of a credit memorandum would be unjust.

(Source: P.A. 95-1027, eff. 6-1-09.)

(220 ILCS 5/4-201) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 4-201)

Sec. 4-201. It is hereby made the duty of the Commission to see that the provisions of the Constitution and statutes of this State affecting public utilities, the enforcement of which is not specifically vested in some other officer or tribunal, are enforced and obeyed, and that violations thereof are promptly prosecuted and penalties due the State therefor recovered and collected, and to this end it may sue in the name of the People of the State.

It shall be the duty of the Commission, at the direction and discretion of the Chairman, to assemble and maintain an electronic trespass enforcement assistance staff consisting of experts in computer systems, electronics and other professional disciplines to aid public utilities, businesses, individuals and law enforcement agencies in detecting and preventing electronic trespass violations and enforcing the provisions of Sections 17-50, 17-51, and 17-52 Section 16-9 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as amended or any other relevant statute.

No cause of action shall exist and no liability may be imposed either civil or criminal, against the State, the Chairman of the Commission or any of its members, or any employee of the Commission, for any act or omission by them in the performance of any power or duty authorized by this Section, unless such act or omission was performed in bad faith and with intent to injure a particular person.

(Source: P.A. 84-617.)

(220 ILCS 5/18-106)

Sec. 18-106. Grantee instruments.

(a) If an electric utility to which grantee instruments have been issued discontinues providing electric power and energy services prior to the maturity date of such grantee instruments, such electric utility shall not be entitled to receive any payment on such grantee instruments on and after the date of such discontinuance.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section, any assignee holding such grantee instruments or any holder of transitional funding instruments which are secured by such grantee instruments shall nevertheless be entitled to recover amounts payable by such grantee under such grantee instruments in accordance with their terms as if such electric utility had not discontinued the provision of electric power and energy.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the issuance of any grantee instruments in accordance with the terms and provisions of a transitional funding order shall for all purposes be exempt from the application of Section 17-59 or Article 39 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or the Criminal Code of 1961 and the Interest Act.

(Source: P.A. 90-561, eff. 12-16-97.)

(220 ILCS 5/22-501)

Sec. 22-501. Customer service and privacy protection. All cable or video providers in this State shall comply with the following customer service requirements and privacy protections. The provisions of this Act shall not apply to an incumbent cable operator prior to January 1, 2008. For purposes of this paragraph, an incumbent cable operator means a person or entity that provided cable services in a particular area under a franchise agreement with a local unit of government pursuant to Section 11-42-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code or Section 5-1095 of the Counties Code on January 1, 2007. A master antenna television, satellite master antenna television, direct broadcast satellite, multipoint distribution service, and other provider of video programming shall only be subject to the provisions of this Article to the extent permitted by federal law.

The following definitions apply to the terms used in this Article:

"Basic cable or video service" means any service offering or tier that includes the retransmission of local television broadcast signals.

"Cable or video provider" means any person or entity providing cable service or video service pursuant to authorization under (i) the Cable and Video Competition Law of 2007; (ii) Section 11-42-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (iii) Section 5-1095 of the Counties Code; or (iv) a master antenna television, satellite master antenna television, direct broadcast satellite, multipoint distribution services, and other providers of video programming, whatever their technology. A cable or video provider shall not include a landlord providing only broadcast video programming to a single-family home or other residential dwelling consisting of 4 units or less.

"Franchise" has the same meaning as found in 47 U.S.C. 522(9).

"Local unit of government" means a city, village, incorporated town, or a county.

"Normal business hours" means those hours during which most similar businesses in the geographic area of the local unit of government are open to serve customers. In all cases, "normal business hours" must include some evening hours at least one night per week or some weekend hours.

"Normal operating conditions" means those service conditions that are within the control of cable or video providers. Those conditions that are not within the control of cable or video providers include, but are not limited to, natural disasters, civil disturbances, power outages, telephone network outages, and severe or unusual weather conditions. Those conditions that are ordinarily within the control of cable or video providers include, but are not limited to, special promotions, pay-per-view events, rate increases, regular peak or seasonal demand periods, and maintenance or upgrade of the cable service or video service network.

"Service interruption" means the loss of picture or sound on one or more cable service or video service on one or more cable or video channels.

"Service line drop" means the point of connection between a premises and the cable or video network that enables the premises to receive cable service or video service.

(a) General customer service standards:

(1) Cable or video providers shall establish general standards related to customer service, which shall include, but not be limited to, installation, disconnection, service and repair obligations; appointment hours and employee ID requirements; customer service telephone numbers and hours; procedures for billing, charges, deposits, refunds, and credits; procedures for termination of service; notice of deletion of programming service; changes related to transmission of programming; changes or increases in rates; the use and availability of parental control or lock-out devices; the use and availability of an A/B switch if applicable; complaint procedures and procedures for bill dispute resolution; a description of the rights and remedies available to consumers if the cable or video provider does not materially meet its customer service standards; and special services for customers with visual, hearing, or mobility disabilities.

(2) Cable or video providers' rates for each level of service, rules, regulations, and policies related to its cable service or video service described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a) must be made available to the public and displayed clearly and conspicuously on the cable or video provider's site on the Internet. If a promotional price or a price for a specified period of time is offered, the cable or video provider shall display the price at the end of the promotional period or specified period of time clearly and conspicuously with the display of the promotional price or price for a specified period of time. The cable or video provider shall provide this information upon request.

(3) Cable or video providers shall provide notice concerning their general customer service standards to all customers. This notice shall be offered when service is first activated and annually thereafter. The information in the notice shall include all of the information specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a), as well as the following: a listing of services offered by the cable or video providers, which shall clearly describe programming for all services and all levels of service; the rates for all services and levels of service; a telephone number through which customers may subscribe to, change, or terminate service, request customer service, or seek general or billing information; instructions on the use of the cable or video services; and a description of rights and remedies that the cable or video providers shall make available to their customers if they do not materially meet the general customer service standards described in this Act.

(b) General customer service obligations:

(1) Cable or video providers shall render reasonably efficient service, promptly make repairs, and interrupt service only as necessary and for good cause, during periods of minimum use of the system and for no more than 24 hours.

(2) All service representatives or any other person who contacts customers or potential customers on behalf of the cable or video provider shall have a visible identification card with their name and photograph and shall orally identify themselves upon first contact with the customer. Customer service representatives shall orally identify themselves to callers immediately following the greeting during each telephone contact with the public.

(3) The cable or video providers shall: (i) maintain a customer service facility within the boundaries of a local unit of government staffed by customer service representatives that have the capacity to accept payment, adjust bills, and respond to repair, installation, reconnection, disconnection, or other service calls and distribute or receive converter boxes, remote control units, digital stereo units, or other equipment related to the provision of cable or video service; (ii) provide customers with bill payment facilities through retail, financial, or other commercial institutions located within the boundaries of a local unit of government; (iii) provide an address, toll-free telephone number or electronic address to accept bill payments and correspondence and provide secure collection boxes for the receipt of bill payments and the return of equipment, provided that if a cable or video provider provides secure collection boxes, it shall provide a printed receipt when items are deposited; or (iv) provide an address, toll-free telephone number, or electronic address to accept bill payments and correspondence and provide a method for customers to return equipment to the cable or video provider at no cost to the customer.

(4) In each contact with a customer, the service representatives or any other person who contacts customers or potential customers on behalf of the cable or video provider shall state the estimated cost of the service, repair, or installation orally prior to delivery of the service or before any work is performed, shall provide the customer with an oral statement of the total charges before terminating the telephone call or other contact in which a service is ordered, whether in-person or over the Internet, and shall provide a written statement of the total charges before leaving the location at which the work was performed. In the event that the cost of service is a promotional price or is for a limited period of time, the cost of service at the end of the promotion or limited period of time shall be disclosed.

(5) Cable or video providers shall provide customers a minimum of 30 days' written notice before increasing rates or eliminating transmission of programming and shall submit the notice to the local unit of government in advance of distribution to customers, provided that the cable or video provider is not in violation of this provision if the elimination of transmission of programming was outside the control of the provider, in which case the provider shall use reasonable efforts to provide as much notice as possible, and any rate decrease related to the elimination of transmission of programming shall be applied to the date of the change.

(6) Cable or video providers shall provide clear visual and audio reception that meets or exceeds applicable Federal Communications Commission technical standards. If a customer experiences poor video or audio reception due to the equipment of the cable or video provider, the cable or video provider shall promptly repair the problem at its own expense.

(c) Bills, payment, and termination:

(1) Cable or video providers shall render monthly bills that are clear, accurate, and understandable.

(2) Every residential customer who pays bills directly to the cable or video provider shall have at least 28 days from the date of the bill to pay the listed charges.

(3) Customer payments shall be posted promptly. When the payment is sent by United States mail, payment is considered paid on the date it is postmarked.

(4) Cable or video providers may not terminate residential service for nonpayment of a bill unless the cable or video provider furnishes notice of the delinquency and impending termination at least 21 days prior to the proposed termination. Notice of proposed termination shall be mailed, postage prepaid, to the customer to whom service is billed. Notice of proposed termination shall not be mailed until the 29th day after the date of the bill for services. Notice of delinquency and impending termination may be part of a billing statement only if the notice is presented in a different color than the bill and is designed to be conspicuous. The cable or video providers may not assess a late fee prior to the 29th day after the date of the bill for service.

(5) Every notice of impending termination shall include all of the following: the name and address of customer; the amount of the delinquency; the date on which payment is required to avoid termination; and the telephone number of the cable or video provider's service representative to make payment arrangements and to provide additional information about the charges for failure to return equipment and for reconnection, if any. No customer may be charged a fee for termination or disconnection of service, irrespective of whether the customer initiated termination or disconnection or the cable or video provider initiated termination or disconnection.

(6) Service may only be terminated on days when the customer is able to reach a service representative of the cable or video providers, either in person or by telephone.

(7) Any service terminated by a cable or video provider without good cause shall be restored without any reconnection fee, charge, or penalty; good cause for termination includes, but is not limited to, failure to pay a bill by the date specified in the notice of impending termination, payment by check for which there are insufficient funds, theft of service, abuse of equipment or personnel, or other similar subscriber actions.

(8) Cable or video providers shall cease charging a customer for any or all services within one business day after it receives a request to immediately terminate service or on the day requested by the customer if such a date is at least 5 days from the date requested by the customer. Nothing in this subsection (c) shall prohibit the provider from billing for charges that the customer incurs prior to the date of termination. Cable or video providers shall issue a credit or a refund or return a deposit within 10 business days after the close of the customer's billing cycle following the request for termination or the return of equipment, if any, whichever is later.

(9) The customers or subscribers of a cable or video provider shall be allowed to disconnect their service at any time within the first 60 days after subscribing to or upgrading the service. Within this 60-day period, cable or video providers shall not charge or impose any fees or penalties on the customer for disconnecting service, including, but not limited to, any installation charge or the imposition of an early termination charge, except the cable or video provider may impose a charge or fee to offset any rebates or credits received by the customer and may impose monthly service or maintenance charges, including pay-per-view and premium services charges, during such 60-day period.

(10) Cable and video providers shall guarantee customer satisfaction for new or upgraded service and the customer shall receive a pro-rata credit in an amount equal to the pro-rata charge for the remaining days of service being disconnected or replaced upon the customers request if the customer is dissatisfied with the service and requests to discontinue the service within the first 60 days after subscribing to the upgraded service.

(d) Response to customer inquiries:

(1) Cable or video providers will maintain a toll-free telephone access line that is available to customers 24 hours a day, 7 days a week to accept calls regarding installation, termination, service, and complaints. Trained, knowledgeable, qualified service representatives of the cable or video providers will be available to respond to customer telephone inquiries during normal business hours. Customer service representatives shall be able to provide credit, waive fees, schedule appointments, and change billing cycles. Any difficulties that cannot be resolved by the customer service representatives shall be referred to a supervisor who shall make his or her best efforts to resolve the issue immediately. If the supervisor does not resolve the issue to the customer's satisfaction, the customer shall be informed of the cable or video provider's complaint procedures and procedures for billing dispute resolution and given a description of the rights and remedies available to customers to enforce the terms of this Article, including the customer's rights to have the complaint reviewed by the local unit of government, to request mediation, and to review in a court of competent jurisdiction.

(2) After normal business hours, the access line may be answered by a service or an automated response system, including an answering machine. Inquiries received by telephone or e-mail after normal business hours shall be responded to by a trained service representative on the next business day. The cable or video provider shall respond to a written billing inquiry within 10 days of receipt of the inquiry.

(3) Cable or video providers shall provide customers seeking non-standard installations with a total installation cost estimate and an estimated date of completion. The actual charge to the customer shall not exceed 10% of the estimated cost without the written consent of the customer.

(4) If the cable or video provider receives notice that an unsafe condition exists with respect to its equipment, it shall investigate such condition immediately and shall take such measures as are necessary to remove or eliminate the unsafe condition. The cable or video provider shall inform the local unit of government promptly, but no later than 2 hours after it receives notification of an unsafe condition that it has not remedied.

(5) Under normal operating conditions, telephone answer time by the cable or video provider's customer representative, including wait time, shall not exceed 30 seconds when the connection is made. If the call needs to be transferred, transfer time shall not exceed 30 seconds. These standards shall be met no less than 90% of the time under normal operating conditions, measured on a quarterly basis.

(6) Under normal operating conditions, the cable or video provider's customers will receive a busy signal less than 3% of the time.

(e) Under normal operating conditions, each of the following standards related to installations, outages, and service calls will be met no less than 95% of the time measured on a quarterly basis:

(1) Standard installations will be performed within 7 business days after an order has been placed. "Standard" installations are those that are located up to 125 feet from the existing distribution system.

(2) Excluding conditions beyond the control of the cable or video providers, the cable or video providers will begin working on "service interruptions" promptly and in no event later than 24 hours after the interruption is reported by the customer or otherwise becomes known to the cable or video providers. Cable or video providers must begin actions to correct other service problems the next business day after notification of the service problem and correct the problem within 48 hours after the interruption is reported by the customer 95% of the time, measured on a quarterly basis.

(3) The "appointment window" alternatives for installations, service calls, and other installation activities will be either a specific time or, at a maximum, a 4-hour time block during evening, weekend, and normal business hours. The cable or video provider may schedule service calls and other installation activities outside of these hours for the express convenience of the customer.

(4) Cable or video providers may not cancel an appointment with a customer after 5:00 p.m. on the business day prior to the scheduled appointment. If the cable or video provider's representative is running late for an appointment with a customer and will not be able to keep the appointment as scheduled, the customer will be contacted. The appointment will be rescheduled, as necessary, at a time that is convenient for the customer, even if the rescheduled appointment is not within normal business hours.

(f) Public benefit obligation:

(1) All cable or video providers offering service pursuant to the Cable and Video Competition Law of 2007, the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Counties Code shall provide a free service line drop and free basic service to all current and future public buildings within their footprint, including, but not limited to, all local unit of government buildings, public libraries, and public primary and secondary schools, whether owned or leased by that local unit of government ("eligible buildings"). Such service shall be used in a manner consistent with the government purpose for the eligible building and shall not be resold.

(2) This obligation only applies to those cable or video service providers whose cable service or video service systems pass eligible buildings and its cable or video service is generally available to residential subscribers in the same local unit of government in which the eligible building is located. The burden of providing such service at each eligible building shall be shared by all cable and video providers whose systems pass the eligible buildings in an equitable and competitively neutral manner, and nothing herein shall require duplicative installations by more than one cable or video provider at each eligible building. Cable or video providers operating in a local unit of government shall meet as necessary and determine who will provide service to eligible buildings under this subsection (f). If the cable or video providers are unable to reach an agreement, they shall meet with the local unit of government, which shall determine which cable or video providers will serve each eligible building. The local unit of government shall bear the costs of any inside wiring or video equipment costs not ordinarily provided as part of the cable or video provider's basic offering.

(g) After the cable or video providers have offered service for one year, the cable or video providers shall make an annual report to the Commission, to the local unit of government, and to the Attorney General that it is meeting the standards specified in this Article, identifying the number of complaints it received over the prior year in the State and specifying the number of complaints related to each of the following: (1) billing, charges, refunds, and credits; (2) installation or termination of service; (3) quality of service and repair; (4) programming; and (5) miscellaneous complaints that do not fall within these categories. Thereafter, the cable or video providers shall also provide, upon request by the local unit of government where service is offered and to the Attorney General, an annual public report that includes performance data described in subdivisions (5) and (6) of subsection (d) and subdivisions (1) and (2) of subsection (e) of this Section for cable services or video services. The performance data shall be disaggregated for each requesting local unit of government or local exchange, as that term is defined in Section 13-206 of this Act, in which the cable or video providers have customers.

(h) To the extent consistent with federal law, cable or video providers shall offer the lowest-cost basic cable or video service as a stand-alone service to residential customers at reasonable rates. Cable or video providers shall not require the subscription to any service other than the lowest-cost basic service or to any telecommunications or information service, as a condition of access to cable or video service, including programming offered on a per channel or per program basis. Cable or video providers shall not discriminate between subscribers to the lowest-cost basic service, subscribers to other cable services or video services, and other subscribers with regard to the rates charged for cable or video programming offered on a per channel or per program basis.

(i) To the extent consistent with federal law, cable or video providers shall ensure that charges for changes in the subscriber's selection of services or equipment shall be based on the cost of such change and shall not exceed nominal amounts when the system's configuration permits changes in service tier selection to be effected solely by coded entry on a computer terminal or by other similarly simple method.

(j) To the extent consistent with federal law, cable or video providers shall have a rate structure for the provision of cable or video service that is uniform throughout the area within the boundaries of the local unit of government. This subsection (j) is not intended to prohibit bulk discounts to multiple dwelling units or to prohibit reasonable discounts to senior citizens or other economically disadvantaged groups.

(k) To the extent consistent with federal law, cable or video providers shall not charge a subscriber for any service or equipment that the subscriber has not affirmatively requested by name. For purposes of this subsection (k), a subscriber's failure to refuse a cable or video provider's proposal to provide service or equipment shall not be deemed to be an affirmative request for such service or equipment.

(l) No contract or service agreement containing an early termination clause offering residential cable or video services or any bundle including such services shall be for a term longer than 2 years. Any contract or service offering with a term of service that contains an early termination fee shall limit the early termination fee to not more than the value of any additional goods or services provided with the cable or video services, the amount of the discount reflected in the price for cable services or video services for the period during which the consumer benefited from the discount, or a declining fee based on the remainder of the contract term.

(m) Cable or video providers shall not discriminate in the provision of services for the hearing and visually impaired, and shall comply with the accessibility requirements of 47 U.S.C. 613. Cable or video providers shall deliver and pick-up or provide customers with pre-paid shipping and packaging for the return of converters and other necessary equipment at the home of customers with disabilities. Cable or video providers shall provide free use of a converter or remote control unit to mobility impaired customers.

(n)(1) To the extent consistent with federal law, cable or video providers shall comply with the provisions of 47 U.S.C. 532(h) and (j). The cable or video providers shall not exercise any editorial control over any video programming provided pursuant to this Section, or in any other way consider the content of such programming, except that a cable or video provider may refuse to transmit any leased access program or portion of a leased access program that contains obscenity, indecency, or nudity and may consider such content to the minimum extent necessary to establish a reasonable price for the commercial use of designated channel capacity by an unaffiliated person. This subsection (n) shall permit cable or video providers to enforce prospectively a written and published policy of prohibiting programming that the cable or video provider reasonably believes describes or depicts sexual or excretory activities or organs in a patently offensive manner as measured by contemporary community standards.

(2) Upon customer request, the cable or video provider shall, without charge, fully scramble or otherwise fully block the audio and video programming of each channel carrying such programming so that a person who is not a subscriber does not receive the channel or programming.

(3) In providing sexually explicit adult programming or other programming that is indecent on any channel of its service primarily dedicated to sexually oriented programming, the cable or video provider shall fully scramble or otherwise fully block the video and audio portion of such channel so that a person who is not a subscriber to such channel or programming does not receive it.

(4) Scramble means to rearrange the content of the signal of the programming so that the programming cannot be viewed or heard in an understandable manner.

(o) Cable or video providers will maintain a listing, specific to the level of street address, of the areas where its cable or video services are available. Customers who inquire about purchasing cable or video service shall be informed about whether the cable or video provider's cable or video services are currently available to them at their specific location.

(p) Cable or video providers shall not disclose the name, address, telephone number or other personally identifying information of a cable service or video service customer to be used in mailing lists or to be used for other commercial purposes not reasonably related to the conduct of its business unless the cable or video provider has provided to the customer a notice, separately or included in any other customer service notice, that clearly and conspicuously describes the customer's ability to prohibit the disclosure. Cable or video providers shall provide an address and telephone number for a customer to use without a toll charge to prevent disclosure of the customer's name and address in mailing lists or for other commercial purposes not reasonably related to the conduct of its business to other businesses or affiliates of the cable or video provider. Cable or video providers shall comply with the consumer privacy requirements of Section 26-4.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, the Restricted Call Registry Act, and 47 U.S.C. 551 that are in effect as of June 30, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-9) and as amended thereafter.

(q) Cable or video providers shall implement an informal process for handling inquiries from local units of government and customers concerning billing issues, service issues, privacy concerns, and other consumer complaints. In the event that an issue is not resolved through this informal process, a local unit of government or the customer may request nonbinding mediation with the cable or video provider, with each party to bear its own costs of such mediation. Selection of the mediator will be by mutual agreement, and preference will be given to mediation services that do not charge the consumer for their services. In the event that the informal process does not produce a satisfactory result to the customer or the local unit of government, enforcement may be pursued as provided in subdivision (4) of subsection (r) of this Section.

(r) The Attorney General and the local unit of government may enforce all of the customer service and privacy protection standards of this Section with respect to complaints received from residents within the local unit of government's jurisdiction, but it may not adopt or seek to enforce any additional or different customer service or performance standards under any other authority or provision of law.

(1) The local unit of government may, by ordinance, provide a schedule of penalties for any material breach of this Section by cable or video providers in addition to the penalties provided herein. No monetary penalties shall be assessed for a material breach if it is out of the reasonable control of the cable or video providers or its affiliate. Monetary penalties adopted in an ordinance pursuant to this Section shall apply on a competitively neutral basis to all providers of cable service or video service within the local unit of government's jurisdiction. In no event shall the penalties imposed under this subsection (r) exceed $750 for each day of the material breach, and these penalties shall not exceed $25,000 for each occurrence of a material breach per customer.

(2) For purposes of this Section, "material breach" means any substantial failure of a cable or video service provider to comply with service quality and other standards specified in any provision of this Act. The Attorney General or the local unit of government shall give the cable or video provider written notice of any alleged material breaches of this Act and allow such provider at least 30 days from receipt of the notice to remedy the specified material breach.

(3) A material breach, for the purposes of assessing penalties, shall be deemed to have occurred for each day that a material breach has not been remedied by the cable service or video service provider after the expiration of the period specified in subdivision (2) of this subsection (r) in each local unit of government's jurisdiction, irrespective of the number of customers affected.

(4) Any customer, the Attorney General, or a local unit of government may pursue alleged violations of this Act by the cable or video provider in a court of competent jurisdiction. A cable or video provider may seek judicial review of a decision of a local unit of government imposing penalties in a court of competent jurisdiction. No local unit of government shall be subject to suit for damages or other relief based upon its action in connection with its enforcement or review of any of the terms, conditions, and rights contained in this Act except a court may require the return of any penalty it finds was not properly assessed or imposed.

(s) Cable or video providers shall credit customers for violations in the amounts stated herein. The credits shall be applied on the statement issued to the customer for the next monthly billing cycle following the violation or following the discovery of the violation. Cable or video providers are responsible for providing the credits described herein and the customer is under no obligation to request the credit. If the customer is no longer taking service from the cable or video provider, the credit amount will be refunded to the customer by check within 30 days of the termination of service. A local unit of government may, by ordinance, adopt a schedule of credits payable directly to customers for breach of the customer service standards and obligations contained in this Article, provided the schedule of customer credits applies on a competitively neutral basis to all providers of cable service or video service in the local unit of government's jurisdiction and the credits are not greater than the credits provided in this Section.

(1) Failure to provide notice of customer service standards upon initiation of service: $25.00.

(2) Failure to install service within 7 days: Waiver of 50% of the installation fee or the monthly fee for the lowest-cost basic service, whichever is greater. Failure to install service within 14 days: Waiver of 100% of the installation fee or the monthly fee for the lowest-cost basic service, whichever is greater.

(3) Failure to remedy service interruptions or poor video or audio service quality within 48 hours: Pro-rata credit of total regular monthly charges equal to the number of days of the service interruption.

(4) Failure to keep an appointment or to notify the customer prior to the close of business on the business day prior to the scheduled appointment: $25.00.

(5) Violation of privacy protections: $150.00.

(6) Failure to comply with scrambling requirements: $50.00 per month.

(7) Violation of customer service and billing standards in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section: $25.00 per occurrence.

(8) Violation of the bundling rules in subsection (h) of this Section: $25.00 per month.

(t) The enforcement powers granted to the Attorney General in Article XXI of this Act shall apply to this Article, except that the Attorney General may not seek penalties for violation of this Article other than in the amounts specified herein. Nothing in this Section shall limit or affect the powers of the Attorney General to enforce the provisions of Article XXI of this Act or the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(u) This Article applies to all cable and video providers in the State, including but not limited to those operating under a local franchise as that term is used in 47 U.S.C. 522(9), those operating under authorization pursuant to Section 11-42-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, those operating under authorization pursuant to Section 5-1095 of the Counties Code, and those operating under a State-issued authorization pursuant to Article XXI of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-927, eff. 6-15-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 295. The Acupuncture Practice Act is amended by changing Section 117 as follows:

(225 ILCS 2/117)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 117. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 300. The Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act is amended by changing Section 16.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 5/16.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 16.5. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 305. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by changing Sections 4.2 and 14.6 as follows:

(225 ILCS 10/4.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 2214.2)

Sec. 4.2. (a) No applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a licensed child care facility who refuses to authorize an investigation as required by Section 4.1.

(b) In addition to the other provisions of this Section, no applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a child care facility licensed by the Department who has been declared a sexually dangerous person under "An Act in relation to sexually dangerous persons, and providing for their commitment, detention and supervision", approved July 6, 1938, as amended, or convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses stipulated under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) murder;

(1.1) solicitation of murder;

(1.2) solicitation of murder for hire;

(1.3) intentional homicide of an unborn child;

(1.4) voluntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.5) involuntary manslaughter;

(1.6) reckless homicide;

(1.7) concealment of a homicidal death;

(1.8) involuntary manslaughter of an unborn child;

(1.9) reckless homicide of an unborn child;

(1.10) drug-induced homicide;

(2) a sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45;

(3) kidnapping;

(3.1) aggravated unlawful restraint;

(3.2) forcible detention;

(3.3) harboring a runaway;

(3.4) aiding and abetting child abduction;

(4) aggravated kidnapping;

(5) child abduction;

(6) aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(7) criminal sexual assault;

(8) aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(8.1) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(9) criminal sexual abuse;

(10) aggravated sexual abuse;

(11) heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05;

(12) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05;

(13) tampering with food, drugs, or cosmetics;

(14) drug induced infliction of great bodily harm as described in Section 12-4.7 or subdivision (g)(1) of Section 12-3.05;

(15) hate crime;

(16) stalking;

(17) aggravated stalking;

(18) threatening public officials;

(19) home invasion;

(20) vehicular invasion;

(21) criminal transmission of HIV;

(22) criminal abuse or neglect of an elderly or disabled person as described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a;

(23) child abandonment;

(24) endangering the life or health of a child;

(25) ritual mutilation;

(26) ritualized abuse of a child;

(27) an offense in any other jurisdiction the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses.

(b-1) In addition to the other provisions of this Section, beginning January 1, 2004, no new applicant and, on the date of licensure renewal, no current licensee may operate or receive a license from the Department to operate, no person may be employed by, and no adult person may reside in a child care facility licensed by the Department who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses or an offense in any other jurisdiction the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the following offenses:

(I) BODILY HARM

(1) Felony aggravated assault.

(2) Vehicular endangerment.

(3) Felony domestic battery.

(4) Aggravated battery.

(5) Heinous battery.

(6) Aggravated battery with a firearm.

(7) Aggravated battery of an unborn child.

(8) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen.

(9) Intimidation.

(10) Compelling organization membership of persons.

(11) Abuse and criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(12) Felony violation of an order of protection.

(II) OFFENSES AFFECTING PUBLIC HEALTH, SAFETY, AND DECENCY

(1) Felony unlawful use of weapons.

(2) Aggravated discharge of a firearm.

(3) Reckless discharge of a firearm.

(4) Unlawful use of metal piercing bullets.

(5) Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms on the premises of any school.

(6) Disarming a police officer.

(7) Obstructing justice.

(8) Concealing or aiding a fugitive.

(9) Armed violence.

(10) Felony contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile.

(III) DRUG OFFENSES

(1) Possession of more than 30 grams of cannabis.

(2) Manufacture of more than 10 grams of cannabis.

(3) Cannabis trafficking.

(4) Delivery of cannabis on school grounds.

(5) Unauthorized production of more than 5 cannabis sativa plants.

(6) Calculated criminal cannabis conspiracy.

(7) Unauthorized manufacture or delivery of controlled substances.

(8) Controlled substance trafficking.

(9) Manufacture, distribution, or advertisement of look-alike substances.

(10) Calculated criminal drug conspiracy.

(11) Street gang criminal drug conspiracy.

(12) Permitting unlawful use of a building.

(13) Delivery of controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances to persons under age 18, or at truck stops, rest stops, or safety rest areas, or on school property.

(14) Using, engaging, or employing persons under 18 to deliver controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances.

(15) Delivery of controlled substances.

(16) Sale or delivery of drug paraphernalia.

(17) Felony possession, sale, or exchange of instruments adapted for use of a controlled substance, methamphetamine, or cannabis by subcutaneous injection.

(18) Felony possession of a controlled substance.

(19) Any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b-1.5) In addition to any other provision of this Section, for applicants with access to confidential financial information or who submit documentation to support billing, no applicant whose initial application was considered after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly may receive a license from the Department or a child care facility licensed by the Department who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following felony offenses:

(1) financial institution fraud under Section 17-10.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) identity theft under Section 16-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(3) financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability under Section 17-56 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) computer tampering under Section 17-51 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(5) aggravated computer tampering under Section 17-52 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(6) computer fraud under Section 17-50 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(7) deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(8) forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(9) State benefits fraud under Section 17-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(10) mail fraud and wire fraud under Section 17-24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(11) theft under paragraphs (1.1) through (11) of subsection (b) of Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b-2) Notwithstanding subsection (b-1), the Department may make an exception and, for child care facilities other than foster family homes, issue a new child care facility license to or renew the existing child care facility license of an applicant, a person employed by a child care facility, or an applicant who has an adult residing in a home child care facility who was convicted of an offense described in subsection (b-1), provided that all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The relevant criminal offense occurred more than 5 years prior to the date of application or renewal, except for drug offenses. The relevant drug offense must have occurred more than 10 years prior to the date of application or renewal, unless the applicant passed a drug test, arranged and paid for by the child care facility, no less than 5 years after the offense.

(2) The Department must conduct a background check and assess all convictions and recommendations of the child care facility to determine if hiring or licensing the applicant is in accordance with Department administrative rules and procedures.

(3) The applicant meets all other requirements and qualifications to be licensed as the pertinent type of child care facility under this Act and the Department's administrative rules.

(c) In addition to the other provisions of this Section, no applicant may receive a license from the Department to operate a foster family home, and no adult person may reside in a foster family home licensed by the Department, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses stipulated under the Criminal Code of 1961, the Criminal Code of 2012, the Cannabis Control Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Illinois Controlled Substances Act:

(I) OFFENSES DIRECTED AGAINST THE PERSON

(A) KIDNAPPING AND RELATED OFFENSES

(1) Unlawful restraint.

(B) BODILY HARM

(2) Felony aggravated assault.

(3) Vehicular endangerment.

(4) Felony domestic battery.

(5) Aggravated battery.

(6) Heinous battery.

(7) Aggravated battery with a firearm.

(8) Aggravated battery of an unborn child.

(9) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen.

(10) Intimidation.

(11) Compelling organization membership of persons.

(12) Abuse and criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(13) Felony violation of an order of protection.

(II) OFFENSES DIRECTED AGAINST PROPERTY

(14) Felony theft.

(15) Robbery.

(16) Armed robbery.

(17) Aggravated robbery.

(18) Vehicular hijacking.

(19) Aggravated vehicular hijacking.

(20) Burglary.

(21) Possession of burglary tools.

(22) Residential burglary.

(23) Criminal fortification of a residence or building.

(24) Arson.

(25) Aggravated arson.

(26) Possession of explosive or explosive incendiary devices.

(III) OFFENSES AFFECTING PUBLIC HEALTH, SAFETY, AND DECENCY

(27) Felony unlawful use of weapons.

(28) Aggravated discharge of a firearm.

(29) Reckless discharge of a firearm.

(30) Unlawful use of metal piercing bullets.

(31) Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms on the premises of any school.

(32) Disarming a police officer.

(33) Obstructing justice.

(34) Concealing or aiding a fugitive.

(35) Armed violence.

(36) Felony contributing to the criminal delinquency of a juvenile.

(IV) DRUG OFFENSES

(37) Possession of more than 30 grams of cannabis.

(38) Manufacture of more than 10 grams of cannabis.

(39) Cannabis trafficking.

(40) Delivery of cannabis on school grounds.

(41) Unauthorized production of more than 5 cannabis sativa plants.

(42) Calculated criminal cannabis conspiracy.

(43) Unauthorized manufacture or delivery of controlled substances.

(44) Controlled substance trafficking.

(45) Manufacture, distribution, or advertisement of look-alike substances.

(46) Calculated criminal drug conspiracy.

(46.5) Streetgang criminal drug conspiracy.

(47) Permitting unlawful use of a building.

(48) Delivery of controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances to persons under age 18, or at truck stops, rest stops, or safety rest areas, or on school property.

(49) Using, engaging, or employing persons under 18 to deliver controlled, counterfeit, or look-alike substances.

(50) Delivery of controlled substances.

(51) Sale or delivery of drug paraphernalia.

(52) Felony possession, sale, or exchange of instruments adapted for use of a controlled substance, methamphetamine, or cannabis by subcutaneous injection.

(53) Any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (c), the Department may make an exception and issue a new foster family home license or may renew an existing foster family home license of an applicant who was convicted of an offense described in subsection (c), provided all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The relevant criminal offense or offenses occurred more than 10 years prior to the date of application or renewal.

(2) The applicant had previously disclosed the conviction or convictions to the Department for purposes of a background check.

(3) After the disclosure, the Department either placed a child in the home or the foster family home license was issued.

(4) During the background check, the Department had assessed and waived the conviction in compliance with the existing statutes and rules in effect at the time of the hire or licensure.

(5) The applicant meets all other requirements and qualifications to be licensed as a foster family home under this Act and the Department's administrative rules.

(6) The applicant has a history of providing a safe, stable home environment and appears able to continue to provide a safe, stable home environment.

(e) In evaluating the exception pursuant to subsections (b-2) and (d), the Department must carefully review any relevant documents to determine whether the applicant, despite the disqualifying convictions, poses a substantial risk to State resources or clients. In making such a determination, the following guidelines shall be used:

(1) the age of the applicant when the offense was committed;

(2) the circumstances surrounding the offense;

(3) the length of time since the conviction;

(4) the specific duties and responsibilities necessarily related to the license being applied for and the bearing, if any, that the applicant's conviction history may have on his or her fitness to perform these duties and responsibilities;

(5) the applicant's employment references;

(6) the applicant's character references and any certificates of achievement;

(7) an academic transcript showing educational attainment since the disqualifying conviction;

(8) a Certificate of Relief from Disabilities or Certificate of Good Conduct; and

(9) anything else that speaks to the applicant's character.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 925, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 990, eff. 7-1-11; 97-874, eff. 7-31-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(225 ILCS 10/14.6)

Sec. 14.6. Agency payment of salaries or other compensation.

(a) A licensed child welfare agency may pay salaries or other compensation to its officers, employees, agents, contractors, or any other persons acting on its behalf for providing adoption services, provided that all of the following limitations apply:

(1) The fees, wages, salaries, or other compensation of any description paid to the officers, employees, contractors, or any other person acting on behalf of a child welfare agency providing adoption services shall not be unreasonably high in relation to the services actually rendered. Every form of compensation shall be taken into account in determining whether fees, wages, salaries, or compensation are unreasonably high, including, but not limited to, salary, bonuses, deferred and non-cash compensation, retirement funds, medical and liability insurance, loans, and other benefits such as the use, purchase, or lease of vehicles, expense accounts, and food, housing, and clothing allowances.

(2) Any earnings, if applicable, or compensation paid to the child welfare agency's directors, stockholders, or members of its governing body shall not be unreasonably high in relation to the services rendered.

(3) Persons providing adoption services for a child welfare agency may be compensated only for services actually rendered and only on a fee-for-service, hourly wage, or salary basis.

(b) The Department may adopt rules setting forth the criteria to determine what constitutes unreasonably high fees and compensation as those terms are used in this Section. In determining the reasonableness of fees, wages, salaries, and compensation under paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, the Department shall take into account the location, number, and qualifications of staff, workload requirements, budget, and size of the agency or person and available norms for compensation within the adoption community. Every licensed child welfare agency providing adoption services shall provide the Department and the Attorney General with a report, on an annual basis, providing a description of the fees, wages, salaries and other compensation described in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this Section. Nothing in Section 12C-70 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall be construed to prevent a child welfare agency from charging fees or the payment of salaries and compensation as limited in this Section and any applicable Section of this Act or the Adoption Act.

(c) This Section does not apply to international adoption services performed by those child welfare agencies governed by the 1993 Hague Convention on Protection of Children and Cooperation in Respect of Intercountry Adoption and the Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000.

(d) Eligible agencies may be deemed compliant with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 310. The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 15.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 15/15.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 15.1. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 315. The Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act is amended by changing Section 19.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 20/19.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 19.5. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 320. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Section 23c as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/23c)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 23c. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 325. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/25)

Sec. 25. Persons ineligible to be hired by health care employers and long-term care facilities.

(a) In the discretion of the Director of Public Health, as soon after January 1, 1996, January 1, 1997, January 1, 2006, or October 1, 2007, as applicable, and as is reasonably practical, no health care employer shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the following offenses: those defined in Sections 8-1(b), 8-1.1, 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.1, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 9-3.4, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-7, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-9.5, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-19, 12-21, 12-21.6, 12-32, 12-33, 12C-5, 16-1, 16-1.3, 16-25, 16A-3, 17-3, 17-56, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-1, 19-3, 19-4, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 24-1, 24-1.2, 24-1.5, or 33A-2, or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or in subsection (a) of Section 12-3 or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; those provided in Section 4 of the Wrongs to Children Act; those provided in Section 53 of the Criminal Jurisprudence Act; those defined in Section 5, 5.1, 5.2, 7, or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act; those defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or those defined in Sections 401, 401.1, 404, 405, 405.1, 407, or 407.1 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40.

(a-1) In the discretion of the Director of Public Health, as soon after January 1, 2004 or October 1, 2007, as applicable, and as is reasonably practical, no health care employer shall knowingly hire any individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has (i) been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the offenses defined in Section 12-3.3, 12-4.2-5, 16-2, 16-30, 16G-15, 16G-20, 17-33, 17-34, 17-36, 17-44, 18-5, 20-1.2, 24-1.1, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-3.2, or 24-3.3, or subsection (b) of Section 17-32, subsection (b) of Section 18-1, or subsection (b) of Section 20-1, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; Section 4, 5, 6, 8, or 17.02 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act; or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or Section 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act; or (ii) violated Section 50-50 of the Nurse Practice Act, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40 of this Act.

A health care employer is not required to retain an individual in a position with duties involving direct care for clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility is required to retain an individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, who has been convicted of committing or attempting to commit one or more of the offenses enumerated in this subsection.

(b) A health care employer shall not hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties involving direct care of clients, patients, or residents, and no long-term care facility shall knowingly hire, employ, or retain any individual in a position with duties that involve or may involve contact with residents or access to the living quarters or the financial, medical, or personal records of residents, if the health care employer becomes aware that the individual has been convicted in another state of committing or attempting to commit an offense that has the same or similar elements as an offense listed in subsection (a) or (a-1), as verified by court records, records from a state agency, or an FBI criminal history record check, unless the applicant or employee obtains a waiver pursuant to Section 40 of this Act. This shall not be construed to mean that a health care employer has an obligation to conduct a criminal history records check in other states in which an employee has resided.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 930, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 995, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-40, eff. 7-1-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 330. The Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act is amended by changing Section 18.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 50/18.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 18.5. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 335. The Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act is amended by changing Section 77 as follows:

(225 ILCS 51/77)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 77. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 340. The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 87 as follows:

(225 ILCS 55/87)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 87. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 345. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 22.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/22.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2012)

Sec. 22.5. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 350. The Naprapathic Practice Act is amended by changing Section 113 as follows:

(225 ILCS 63/113)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 113. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 355. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Section 70-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/70-20) (was 225 ILCS 65/20-13)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 70-20. Suspension of license or registration for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 360. The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 70/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 3667)

Sec. 17. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may impose fines not to exceed $10,000 or may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, censure, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to the license of any person, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Intentional material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof or a misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty or that is directly related to the practice of the profession of nursing home administration.

(3) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act.

(4) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse or sexual misconduct, related to the licensee's practice.

(5) Failing to respond within 30 days, to a written request made by the Department for information.

(6) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(7) Habitual use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.

(9) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

(10) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including but not limited to false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(11) Physical illness, mental illness, or other impairment or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(12) Disregard or violation of this Act or of any rule issued pursuant to this Act.

(13) Aiding or abetting another in the violation of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant to this Act.

(14) Allowing one's license to be used by an unlicensed person.

(15) (Blank).

(16) Professional incompetence in the practice of nursing home administration.

(17) Conviction of a violation of Section 12-19 or subsection (a) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for the abuse and criminal neglect of a long term care facility resident.

(18) Violation of the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act or of any rule issued under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act. A final adjudication of a Type "AA" violation of the Nursing Home Care Act made by the Illinois Department of Public Health, as identified by rule, relating to the hiring, training, planning, organizing, directing, or supervising the operation of a nursing home and a licensee's failure to comply with this Act or the rules adopted under this Act, shall create a rebuttable presumption of a violation of this subsection.

(19) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against the licensee by a licensing authority of another state, territory of the United States, or foreign country; or by any governmental or law enforcement agency; or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.

(20) Failure to report to the Department the surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a nursing home administrator in another state or jurisdiction for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.

(21) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this Section.

All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of (i) a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein or (ii) a referral for investigation under Section 3-108 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Department order based upon a finding by the Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Board, may adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining what constitutes:

(i) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(ii) dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(iii) immoral conduct in the commission of any act related to the licensee's practice; and

(iv) professional incompetence in the practice of nursing home administration.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physician or physicians shall be those specifically designated by the Department or Board. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until such time as the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board shall require such individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. Any individual whose license was granted pursuant to this Act or continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Board within 30 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject administrator's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(b) Any individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Act by providing any report or other information to the Department, or assisting in the investigation or preparation of such information, or by participating in proceedings of the Department, or by serving as a member of the Board, shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(c) Members of the Board, and persons retained under contract to assist and advise in an investigation, shall be indemnified by the State for any actions occurring within the scope of services on or for the Board, done in good faith and not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in such representation or that the actions complained of were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

Should the Attorney General decline representation, a person entitled to indemnification under this Section shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not in good faith or were wilful and wanton.

A person entitled to indemnification under this Section must notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action involving services of the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.

The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving such notice, whether he or she will undertake to represent a person entitled to indemnification under this Section.

(d) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(e) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(f) The Department of Public Health shall transmit to the Department a list of those facilities which receive an "A" violation as defined in Section 1-129 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 365. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 19.17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 75/19.17)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 19.17. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 370. The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 24.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 80/24.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)

Sec. 24.5. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 375. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act is amended by changing Section 93 as follows:

(225 ILCS 84/93)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 93. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 380. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Section 30.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/30.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 30.5. Suspension of license or certificate for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 385. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by changing Section 17.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 90/17.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 17.5. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 390. The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 21.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 95/21.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 21.5. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 395. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 24.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 100/24.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 24.5. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 400. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended by changing Section 97 as follows:

(225 ILCS 106/97)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 97. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 405. The Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act is amended by changing Section 83 as follows:

(225 ILCS 107/83)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 83. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 410. The Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act is amended by changing Section 16.3 as follows:

(225 ILCS 110/16.3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 16.3. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 415. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 is amended by changing Sections 19, 25, and 25.19 as follows:

(225 ILCS 115/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 7019)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 19. Any person filing or attempting to file as his own, the diploma of another, or a forged, fictitious or fraudulently obtained diploma or certificate, shall upon conviction be subject to such fine and imprisonment as are set forth in the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as amended, for the crime of forgery.

(Source: P.A. 83-1016.)

(225 ILCS 115/25) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 25. Disciplinary actions.

1. The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $1,000 for each violation, with regard to any license or certificate for any one or combination of the following:

A. Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

B. Violations of this Act, or of the rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

C. Conviction of any crime under the laws of the United States or any state or territory of the United States that is a felony or that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or of any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

D. Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licensure or certification, or violating any provision of this Act or the rules adopted pursuant to this Act pertaining to advertising.

E. Professional incompetence.

F. Gross malpractice.

G. Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

H. Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

I. Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

J. Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

K. Discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein.

L. Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered.

M. A finding by the Board that the licensee or certificate holder, after having his license or certificate placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

N. Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his practice, including but not limited to false records filed with State agencies or departments.

O. Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

P. Solicitation of professional services other than permitted advertising.

Q. Having professional connection with or lending one's name, directly or indirectly, to any illegal practitioner of veterinary medicine and surgery and the various branches thereof.

R. Conviction of or cash compromise of a charge or violation of the Harrison Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, regulating narcotics.

S. Fraud or dishonesty in applying, treating, or reporting on tuberculin or other biological tests.

T. Failing to report, as required by law, or making false report of any contagious or infectious diseases.

U. Fraudulent use or misuse of any health certificate, shipping certificate, brand inspection certificate, or other blank forms used in practice that might lead to the dissemination of disease or the transportation of diseased animals dead or alive; or dilatory methods, willful neglect, or misrepresentation in the inspection of milk, meat, poultry, and the by-products thereof.

V. Conviction on a charge of cruelty to animals.

W. Failure to keep one's premises and all equipment therein in a clean and sanitary condition.

X. Failure to provide satisfactory proof of having participated in approved continuing education programs.

Y. Failure to (i) file a return, (ii) pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or (iii) pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until the requirements of that tax Act are satisfied.

Z. Conviction by any court of competent jurisdiction, either within or outside this State, of any violation of any law governing the practice of veterinary medicine, if the Department determines, after investigation, that the person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust.

AA. Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in any manner to exploit the client for financial gain of the veterinarian.

BB. Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

CC. Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

DD. Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

EE. Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act.

FF. Using, prescribing, or selling a prescription drug or the extra-label use of a prescription drug by any means in the absence of a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship.

GG. Failing to report a case of suspected aggravated cruelty, torture, or animal fighting pursuant to Section 3.07 or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

2. The determination by a circuit court that a licensee or certificate holder is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee or certificate holder be allowed to resume his practice.

3. All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license or certificate on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 3 years after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described in this Section. Except for proceedings brought for violations of items (CC), (DD), or (EE), no action shall be commenced more than 5 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, the claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed or certified under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of one year from the date of the settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and begin formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 25.2 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license or certificate was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

4. The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Department of Revenue.

5. In enforcing this Section, the Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel a licensee or applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physicians or clinical psychologists shall be those specifically designated by the Board. The Board or the Department may order (i) the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of a licensee or applicant or (ii) the examining clinical psychologist to present testimony concerning the mental examination of a licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between a licensee or applicant and the examining physician or clinical psychologist. An individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician or clinical psychologist of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, is grounds for suspension of his or her license. The license must remain suspended until the person submits to the examination or the Board finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was with reasonable cause.

If the Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Board must require the individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by a physician or clinical psychologist approved by the Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. In lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Board may recommend that the Department file a complaint to immediately suspend or revoke the license of the individual or otherwise discipline the licensee.

Any individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, or renewed subject to conditions, terms, or restrictions, as provided for in this Section, or any individual who was disciplined or placed on supervision pursuant to this Section must be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the person shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-1322, eff. 7-27-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(225 ILCS 115/25.19)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 25.19. Mandatory reporting. Nothing in this Act exempts a licensee from the mandatory reporting requirements regarding suspected acts of aggravated cruelty, torture, and animal fighting imposed under Sections 3.07 and 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 420. The Perfusionist Practice Act is amended by changing Section 107 as follows:

(225 ILCS 125/107)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 107. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 425. The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act is amended by changing Section 77 as follows:

(225 ILCS 130/77)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 77. Suspension of registration for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 430. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 97 as follows:

(225 ILCS 135/97)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)

Sec. 97. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 435. The Fire Sprinkler Contractor Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 32 as follows:

(225 ILCS 317/32)

Sec. 32. Application for building permit; identity theft. A person who knowingly, in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the license number of a fire sprinkler contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the fire sprinkler portion of the project commits identity theft under paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of Section 16-30 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-1455, eff. 8-20-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 440. The Illinois Roofing Industry Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 335/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 7505)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

Sec. 5. Display of license number; building permits; advertising.

(a) Each State licensed roofing contractor shall affix the roofing contractor license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license, to all of his or her contracts and bids. In addition, the official issuing building permits shall affix the roofing contractor license number to each application for a building permit and on each building permit issued and recorded.

(a-3) A municipality or a county that requires a building permit may not issue a building permit to a roofing contractor unless that contractor has provided sufficient proof that he or she is licensed currently as a roofing contractor by the State. Holders of an unlimited roofing license may be issued permits for residential, commercial, and industrial roofing projects. Holders of a limited roofing license are restricted to permits for work on residential properties consisting of 8 units or less.

(a-5) A person who knowingly, in the course of applying for a building permit with a unit of local government, provides the roofing license number or name of a roofing contractor whom he or she does not intend to have perform the work on the roofing portion of the project commits identity theft under paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of Section 16-30 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(a-10) A building permit applicant must present a government-issued identification along with the building permit application. Except for the name of the individual, all other personal information contained in the government-issued identification shall be exempt from disclosure under subsection (c) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act. The official issuing the building permit shall maintain the name and identification number, as it appears on the government-issued identification, in the building permit application file. It is not necessary that the building permit applicant be the qualifying party. This subsection shall not apply to a county or municipality whose building permit process occurs through electronic means.

(b) (Blank).

(c) Every holder of a license shall display it in a conspicuous place in his or her principal office, place of business, or place of employment.

(d) No person licensed under this Act may advertise services regulated by this Act unless that person includes in the advertisement the roofing contractor license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license. Nothing contained in this subsection requires the publisher of advertising for roofing contractor services to investigate or verify the accuracy of the license number provided by the licensee.

(e) A person who advertises services regulated by this Act who knowingly (i) fails to display the license number and the licensee's name, as it appears on the license, in any manner required by this Section, (ii) fails to provide a publisher with the correct license number as required by subsection (d), or (iii) provides a publisher with a false license number or a license number of another person, or a person who knowingly allows his or her license number to be displayed or used by another person to circumvent any provisions of this Section, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor with a fine of $1,000, and, in addition, is subject to the administrative enforcement provisions of this Act. Each day that an advertisement runs or each day that a person knowingly allows his or her license to be displayed or used in violation of this Section constitutes a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-624, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1324, eff. 7-27-10; 97-235, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-965, eff. 8-15-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 450. The Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 87 as follows:

(225 ILCS 427/87)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 87. Suspension of license for failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act who has been certified by court order as not having paid restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the restitution is made in full.

(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10.)

Section 455. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 is amended by changing Sections 20-20 and 25-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 447/20-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 20-20. Training; private alarm contractor and employees.

(a) Registered employees of the private alarm contractor agency who carry a firearm and respond to alarm systems shall complete, within 30 days of their employment, a minimum of 20 hours of classroom training provided by a qualified instructor and shall include all of the following subjects:

(1) The law regarding arrest and search and seizure as it applies to the private alarm industry.

(2) Civil and criminal liability for acts related to the private alarm industry.

(3) The use of force, including but not limited to the use of nonlethal force (i.e., disabling spray, baton, stungun, or similar weapon).

(4) Arrest and control techniques.

(5) The offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 that are directly related to the protection of persons and property.

(6) The law on private alarm forces and on reporting to law enforcement agencies.

(7) Fire prevention, fire equipment, and fire safety.

(8) Civil rights and public relations.

(9) The identification of terrorists, acts of terrorism, and terrorist organizations, as defined by federal and State statutes.

Pursuant to directives set forth by the U.S. Department of Homeland Security and the provisions set forth by the National Fire Protection Association in the National Fire Alarm Code and the Life Safety Code, training may include the installation, repair, and maintenance of emergency communication systems and mass notification systems.

(b) All other employees of a private alarm contractor agency shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of training provided by a qualified instructor within 30 days of their employment. The substance of the training shall be related to the work performed by the registered employee.

(c) It is the responsibility of the employer to certify, on forms provided by the Department, that the employee has successfully completed the training. The form shall be a permanent record of training completed by the employee and shall be placed in the employee's file with the employer for the term the employee is retained by the employer. A private alarm contractor agency may place a notarized copy of the Department form in lieu of the original into the permanent employee registration card file. The form shall be returned to the employee when his or her employment is terminated. Failure to return the form to the employee is grounds for discipline. The employee shall not be required to complete the training required under this Act once the employee has been issued a form.

(d) Nothing in this Act prevents any employer from providing or requiring additional training beyond the required 20 hours that the employer feels is necessary and appropriate for competent job performance.

(e) Any certification of completion of the 20-hour basic training issued under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, and Locksmith Act of 1993 or any prior Act shall be accepted as proof of training under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-613, eff. 9-11-07; 96-847, eff. 6-1-10.)

(225 ILCS 447/25-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014)

Sec. 25-20. Training; private security contractor and employees.

(a) Registered employees of the private security contractor agency who provide traditional guarding or other private security related functions or who respond to alarm systems shall complete, within 30 days of their employment, a minimum of 20 hours of classroom basic training provided by a qualified instructor, which shall include the following subjects:

(1) The law regarding arrest and search and seizure as it applies to private security.

(2) Civil and criminal liability for acts related to private security.

(3) The use of force, including but not limited to the use of nonlethal force (i.e., disabling spray, baton, stungun or similar weapon).

(4) Arrest and control techniques.

(5) The offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 that are directly related to the protection of persons and property.

(6) The law on private security forces and on reporting to law enforcement agencies.

(7) Fire prevention, fire equipment, and fire safety.

(8) The procedures for service of process and for report writing.

(9) Civil rights and public relations.

(10) The identification of terrorists, acts of terrorism, and terrorist organizations, as defined by federal and State statutes.

(b) All other employees of a private security contractor agency shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of training provided by the qualified instructor within 30 days of their employment. The substance of the training shall be related to the work performed by the registered employee.

(c) Registered employees of the private security contractor agency who provide guarding or other private security related functions, in addition to the classroom training required under subsection (a), within 6 months of their employment, shall complete an additional 8 hours of training on subjects to be determined by the employer, which training may be site-specific and may be conducted on the job.

(d) In addition to the basic training provided for in subsections (a) and (c), registered employees of the private security contractor agency who provide guarding or other private security related functions shall complete an additional 8 hours of refresher training on subjects to be determined by the employer each calendar year commencing with the calendar year following the employee's first employment anniversary date, which refresher training may be site-specific and may be conducted on the job.

(e) It is the responsibility of the employer to certify, on a form provided by the Department, that the employee has successfully completed the basic and refresher training. The form shall be a permanent record of training completed by the employee and shall be placed in the employee's file with the employer for the period the employee remains with the employer. An agency may place a notarized copy of the Department form in lieu of the original into the permanent employee registration card file. The original form shall be given to the employee when his or her employment is terminated. Failure to return the original form to the employee is grounds for disciplinary action. The employee shall not be required to repeat the required training once the employee has been issued the form. An employer may provide or require additional training.

(f) Any certification of completion of the 20-hour basic training issued under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security and Locksmith Act of 1993 or any prior Act shall be accepted as proof of training under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-613, eff. 9-11-07.)

Section 460. The Solicitation for Charity Act is amended by changing Sections 7.5, 9, and 16.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 460/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Public Safety Personnel Organization.

(a) Every Public Safety Personnel Organization that solicits contributions from the public shall, in addition to other provisions of this Act:

(1) Have as a condition of public solicitation a provision included in every professional fund raiser contract providing that the professional fund raiser shall: (A) maintain and deliver to the organization a list of the names and addresses of all contributors and purchasers of merchandise, goods, services, memberships, and advertisements; (B) deliver the list of the current year semiannually of each contribution or purchase and specify the amount of the contribution or purchase and the date of the transaction; and (C) assign ownership of the list to the Public Safety Personnel Organization.

The obligation required by this subdivision (1) does not apply to a professional fund raiser under the following conditions:

(i) the professional fund raiser does not have access to information to create and maintain the list and the Public Safety Personnel Organization obtained the information to create and maintain the list under the fund raising campaign by other means; or

(ii) the Public Safety Personnel Organization and the professional fund raiser agree to waive the obligation required by this subdivision (1).

(2) Act in accordance with Section 17-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, and violation of this Section shall also be subject to separate civil remedy hereunder.

(b) Any professional fund raiser who willfully violates the provisions of this Section may in addition to other remedies be subject to a fine of $2,000 for each violation, forfeiture of all solicitation fees, and enjoined from operating and soliciting the public.

(c) This Section does not apply to a contract that is in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly (unless the contract is extended, renewed, or revised on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly, in which case this Section applies to the contract on and after the date on which the extension, renewal, or revision takes place).

(Source: P.A. 91-301, eff. 7-29-99.)

(225 ILCS 460/9) (from Ch. 23, par. 5109)

Sec. 9. (a) An action for violation of this Act may be prosecuted by the Attorney General in the name of the people of the State, and in any such action, the Attorney General shall exercise all the powers and perform all duties which the State's Attorney would otherwise be authorized to exercise or to perform therein.

(b) This Act shall not be construed to limit or restrict the exercise of the powers or the performance of the duties of the Attorney General which he otherwise is authorized to exercise or perform under any other provision of law by statute or otherwise.

(c) Whenever the Attorney General shall have reason to believe that any charitable organization, professional fund raiser, or professional solicitor is operating in violation of the provisions of this Act, or if any of the principal officers of any charitable organization has refused or failed, after notice, to produce any records of such organization or there is employed or is about to be employed in any solicitation or collection of contributions for a charitable organization any device, scheme, or artifice to defraud or for obtaining money or property by means of any false pretense, representation or promise, or any false statement has been made in any application, registration or statement required to be filed pursuant to this Act, in addition to any other action authorized by law, he may bring in the circuit court an action in the name, and on behalf of the people of the State of Illinois against such charitable organization and any other person who has participated or is about to participate in such solicitation or collection by employing such device, scheme, artifice, false representation or promise, to enjoin such charitable organization or other person from continuing such solicitation or collection or engaging therein or doing any acts in furtherance thereof, or to cancel any registration statement previously filed with the Attorney General.

In connection with such proposed action the Attorney General is authorized to take proof in the manner provided in Section 2-1003 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(d) Upon a showing by the Attorney General in an application for an injunction that any person engaged in the solicitation or collection of funds for charitable purposes, either as an individual or as a member of a copartnership, or as an officer of a corporation or as an agent for some other person, or copartnership or corporation, has been convicted in this State or elsewhere of a felony or of a misdemeanor where such felony or misdemeanor involved the misappropriation, misapplication or misuse of the money or property of another, he may enjoin such persons from engaging in any solicitation or collection of funds for charitable purposes.

(e) The Attorney General may exercise the authority granted in this Section against any charitable organization or person which or who operates under the guise or pretense of being an organization exempted by the provisions of Section 3 and is not in fact an organization entitled to such an exemption.

(f) In any action brought under the provisions of this Act, the Attorney General is entitled to recover costs for the use of this State.

(g) Any person who knowingly violates this Section may be enjoined from such conduct, removed from office, enjoined from acting for charity and subject to punitive damages as deemed appropriate by the circuit court.

(h) Any person who violates this Section shall not be entitled to keep or receive monies, fees, salaries, commissions or any compensation, as a result of the solicitations or fund raising campaigns, and at the request of the Attorney General such monies, fees, salaries, commissions or any compensation shall be forfeited and subject to distribution to charitable use as a court of equity determines.

(i) The Attorney General may publish an annual report of all charitable organizations based on information contained in reports filed hereunder stating the amount of money each organization received through solicitation and the amount of money which was expended on program service activity and the percentage of the solicited assets that were expended on charitable activity.

(j) The Attorney General shall cancel the registration of any organization, professional fund raiser, or professional solicitor who violates the provisions of this Section.

(k) Any person who solicits financial contributions or the sale of merchandise, goods, services, memberships, or advertisements in violation of the prohibitions of subsection (d-1) of Section 11 of this Act, or commits false personation, use of title, or solicitation as defined by Section 17-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall, in addition to any other penalties provided for by law, be subject to civil remedy by cause of action brought by the Attorney General or a Public Safety Personnel Organization affected by the violation.

In addition to equitable relief, a successful claimant or the Attorney General shall recover damages of triple the amount collected as a result of solicitations made in violation of this Act, plus reasonable attorney's fees and costs.

A plaintiff in any suit filed under this Section shall serve a copy of all pleadings on the Attorney General and the State's Attorney for the county in which the suit is filed.

(Source: P.A. 91-301, eff. 7-29-99.)

(225 ILCS 460/16.5)

Sec. 16.5. Terrorist acts.

(a) Any person or organization subject to registration under this Act, who knowingly acts to further, directly or indirectly, or knowingly uses charitable assets to conduct or further, directly or indirectly, an act or actions as set forth in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, is thereby engaged in an act or actions contrary to public policy and antithetical to charity, and all of the funds, assets, and records of the person or organization shall be subject to temporary and permanent injunction from use or expenditure and the appointment of a temporary and permanent receiver to take possession of all of the assets and related records.

(b) An ex parte action may be commenced by the Attorney General, and, upon a showing of probable cause of a violation of this Section or Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, an immediate seizure of books and records by the Attorney General by and through his or her assistants or investigators or the Department of State Police and freezing of all assets shall be made by order of a court to protect the public, protect the assets, and allow a full review of the records.

(c) Upon a finding by a court after a hearing that a person or organization has acted or is in violation of this Section, the person or organization shall be permanently enjoined from soliciting funds from the public, holding charitable funds, or acting as a trustee or fiduciary within Illinois. Upon a finding of violation all assets and funds held by the person or organization shall be forfeited to the People of the State of Illinois or otherwise ordered by the court to be accounted for and marshaled and then delivered to charitable causes and uses within the State of Illinois by court order.

(d) A determination under this Section may be made by any court separate and apart from any criminal proceedings and the standard of proof shall be that for civil proceedings.

(e) Any knowing use of charitable assets to conduct or further, directly or indirectly, an act or actions set forth in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall be a misuse of charitable assets and breach of fiduciary duty relative to all other Sections of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

Section 465. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 3.15, 3.29, and 41 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/3.15) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-3.15)

Sec. 3.15. "Public official" means a person who is a public officer, as defined in Section 2-18 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, of the State or any municipality, county or township.

(Source: P.A. 79-1185.)

(230 ILCS 5/3.29)

Sec. 3.29. Advance deposit wagering. "Advance deposit wagering" means a method of pari-mutuel wagering in which an individual may establish an account, deposit money into the account, and use the account balance to pay for pari-mutuel wagering authorized by this Act. An advance deposit wager may be placed in person at a wagering facility or from any other location via a telephone-type device or any other electronic means. Any person who accepts an advance deposit wager who is not licensed by the Board as an advance deposit wagering licensee shall be considered in violation of this Act and the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. Any advance deposit wager placed in person at a wagering facility shall be deemed to have been placed at that wagering facility.

(Source: P.A. 96-762, eff. 8-25-09.)

(230 ILCS 5/41) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-41)

Sec. 41. Article 28 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", as now or hereafter amended, and all other Acts or parts of Acts inconsistent with the provisions of this Act shall not apply to pari-mutuel wagering in manner and form as provided by this Act at any horse race meeting held by any person having an organization license for the holding of such horse race meeting as provided by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-16, eff. 5-30-95.)

Section 470. The Riverboat Gambling Act is amended by changing Sections 7, 7.4, 8, 9, 18, and 19 as follows:

(230 ILCS 10/7) (from Ch. 120, par. 2407)

Sec. 7. Owners Licenses.

(a) The Board shall issue owners licenses to persons, firms or corporations which apply for such licenses upon payment to the Board of the non-refundable license fee set by the Board, upon payment of a $25,000 license fee for the first year of operation and a $5,000 license fee for each succeeding year and upon a determination by the Board that the applicant is eligible for an owners license pursuant to this Act and the rules of the Board. From the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly until (i) 3 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, (ii) the date any organization licensee begins to operate a slot machine or video game of chance under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 or this Act, (iii) the date that payments begin under subsection (c-5) of Section 13 of the Act, or (iv) the wagering tax imposed under Section 13 of this Act is increased by law to reflect a tax rate that is at least as stringent or more stringent than the tax rate contained in subsection (a-3) of Section 13, whichever occurs first, as a condition of licensure and as an alternative source of payment for those funds payable under subsection (c-5) of Section 13 of the Riverboat Gambling Act, any owners licensee that holds or receives its owners license on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, other than an owners licensee operating a riverboat with adjusted gross receipts in calendar year 2004 of less than $200,000,000, must pay into the Horse Racing Equity Trust Fund, in addition to any other payments required under this Act, an amount equal to 3% of the adjusted gross receipts received by the owners licensee. The payments required under this Section shall be made by the owners licensee to the State Treasurer no later than 3:00 o'clock p.m. of the day after the day when the adjusted gross receipts were received by the owners licensee. A person, firm or corporation is ineligible to receive an owners license if:

(1) the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State, any other state, or the United States;

(2) the person has been convicted of any violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or substantially similar laws of any other jurisdiction;

(3) the person has submitted an application for a license under this Act which contains false information;

(4) the person is a member of the Board;

(5) a person defined in (1), (2), (3) or (4) is an officer, director or managerial employee of the firm or corporation;

(6) the firm or corporation employs a person defined in (1), (2), (3) or (4) who participates in the management or operation of gambling operations authorized under this Act;

(7) (blank); or

(8) a license of the person, firm or corporation issued under this Act, or a license to own or operate gambling facilities in any other jurisdiction, has been revoked.

The Board is expressly prohibited from making changes to the requirement that licensees make payment into the Horse Racing Equity Trust Fund without the express authority of the Illinois General Assembly and making any other rule to implement or interpret this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. For the purposes of this paragraph, "rules" is given the meaning given to that term in Section 1-70 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(b) In determining whether to grant an owners license to an applicant, the Board shall consider:

(1) the character, reputation, experience and financial integrity of the applicants and of any other or separate person that either:

(A) controls, directly or indirectly, such applicant, or

(B) is controlled, directly or indirectly, by such applicant or by a person which controls, directly or indirectly, such applicant;

(2) the facilities or proposed facilities for the conduct of riverboat gambling;

(3) the highest prospective total revenue to be derived by the State from the conduct of riverboat gambling;

(4) the extent to which the ownership of the applicant reflects the diversity of the State by including minority persons, females, and persons with a disability and the good faith affirmative action plan of each applicant to recruit, train and upgrade minority persons, females, and persons with a disability in all employment classifications;

(5) the financial ability of the applicant to purchase and maintain adequate liability and casualty insurance;

(6) whether the applicant has adequate capitalization to provide and maintain, for the duration of a license, a riverboat;

(7) the extent to which the applicant exceeds or meets other standards for the issuance of an owners license which the Board may adopt by rule; and

(8) The amount of the applicant's license bid.

(c) Each owners license shall specify the place where riverboats shall operate and dock.

(d) Each applicant shall submit with his application, on forms provided by the Board, 2 sets of his fingerprints.

(e) The Board may issue up to 10 licenses authorizing the holders of such licenses to own riverboats. In the application for an owners license, the applicant shall state the dock at which the riverboat is based and the water on which the riverboat will be located. The Board shall issue 5 licenses to become effective not earlier than January 1, 1991. Three of such licenses shall authorize riverboat gambling on the Mississippi River, or, with approval by the municipality in which the riverboat was docked on August 7, 2003 and with Board approval, be authorized to relocate to a new location, in a municipality that (1) borders on the Mississippi River or is within 5 miles of the city limits of a municipality that borders on the Mississippi River and (2), on August 7, 2003, had a riverboat conducting riverboat gambling operations pursuant to a license issued under this Act; one of which shall authorize riverboat gambling from a home dock in the city of East St. Louis. One other license shall authorize riverboat gambling on the Illinois River south of Marshall County. The Board shall issue one additional license to become effective not earlier than March 1, 1992, which shall authorize riverboat gambling on the Des Plaines River in Will County. The Board may issue 4 additional licenses to become effective not earlier than March 1, 1992. In determining the water upon which riverboats will operate, the Board shall consider the economic benefit which riverboat gambling confers on the State, and shall seek to assure that all regions of the State share in the economic benefits of riverboat gambling.

In granting all licenses, the Board may give favorable consideration to economically depressed areas of the State, to applicants presenting plans which provide for significant economic development over a large geographic area, and to applicants who currently operate non-gambling riverboats in Illinois. The Board shall review all applications for owners licenses, and shall inform each applicant of the Board's decision. The Board may grant an owners license to an applicant that has not submitted the highest license bid, but if it does not select the highest bidder, the Board shall issue a written decision explaining why another applicant was selected and identifying the factors set forth in this Section that favored the winning bidder.

In addition to any other revocation powers granted to the Board under this Act, the Board may revoke the owners license of a licensee which fails to begin conducting gambling within 15 months of receipt of the Board's approval of the application if the Board determines that license revocation is in the best interests of the State.

(f) The first 10 owners licenses issued under this Act shall permit the holder to own up to 2 riverboats and equipment thereon for a period of 3 years after the effective date of the license. Holders of the first 10 owners licenses must pay the annual license fee for each of the 3 years during which they are authorized to own riverboats.

(g) Upon the termination, expiration, or revocation of each of the first 10 licenses, which shall be issued for a 3 year period, all licenses are renewable annually upon payment of the fee and a determination by the Board that the licensee continues to meet all of the requirements of this Act and the Board's rules. However, for licenses renewed on or after May 1, 1998, renewal shall be for a period of 4 years, unless the Board sets a shorter period.

(h) An owners license shall entitle the licensee to own up to 2 riverboats. A licensee shall limit the number of gambling participants to 1,200 for any such owners license. A licensee may operate both of its riverboats concurrently, provided that the total number of gambling participants on both riverboats does not exceed 1,200. Riverboats licensed to operate on the Mississippi River and the Illinois River south of Marshall County shall have an authorized capacity of at least 500 persons. Any other riverboat licensed under this Act shall have an authorized capacity of at least 400 persons.

(i) A licensed owner is authorized to apply to the Board for and, if approved therefor, to receive all licenses from the Board necessary for the operation of a riverboat, including a liquor license, a license to prepare and serve food for human consumption, and other necessary licenses. All use, occupation and excise taxes which apply to the sale of food and beverages in this State and all taxes imposed on the sale or use of tangible personal property apply to such sales aboard the riverboat.

(j) The Board may issue or re-issue a license authorizing a riverboat to dock in a municipality or approve a relocation under Section 11.2 only if, prior to the issuance or re-issuance of the license or approval, the governing body of the municipality in which the riverboat will dock has by a majority vote approved the docking of riverboats in the municipality. The Board may issue or re-issue a license authorizing a riverboat to dock in areas of a county outside any municipality or approve a relocation under Section 11.2 only if, prior to the issuance or re-issuance of the license or approval, the governing body of the county has by a majority vote approved of the docking of riverboats within such areas.

(Source: P.A. 95-1008, eff. 12-15-08; 96-1392, eff. 1-1-11.)

(230 ILCS 10/7.4)

Sec. 7.4. Managers licenses.

(a) A qualified person may apply to the Board for a managers license to operate and manage any gambling operation conducted by the State. The application shall be made on forms provided by the Board and shall contain such information as the Board prescribes, including but not limited to information required in Sections 6(a), (b), and (c) and information relating to the applicant's proposed price to manage State gambling operations and to provide the riverboat, gambling equipment, and supplies necessary to conduct State gambling operations.

(b) Each applicant must submit evidence to the Board that minority persons and females hold ownership interests in the applicant of at least 16% and 4%, respectively.

(c) A person, firm, or corporation is ineligible to receive a managers license if:

(1) the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State, any other state, or the United States;

(2) the person has been convicted of any violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or substantially similar laws of any other jurisdiction;

(3) the person has submitted an application for a license under this Act which contains false information;

(4) the person is a member of the Board;

(5) a person defined in (1), (2), (3), or (4) is an officer, director, or managerial employee of the firm or corporation;

(6) the firm or corporation employs a person defined in (1), (2), (3), or (4) who participates in the management or operation of gambling operations authorized under this Act; or

(7) a license of the person, firm, or corporation issued under this Act, or a license to own or operate gambling facilities in any other jurisdiction, has been revoked.

(d) Each applicant shall submit with his or her application, on forms prescribed by the Board, 2 sets of his or her fingerprints.

(e) The Board shall charge each applicant a fee, set by the Board, to defray the costs associated with the background investigation conducted by the Board.

(f) A person who knowingly makes a false statement on an application is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(g) The managers license shall be for a term not to exceed 10 years, shall be renewable at the Board's option, and shall contain such terms and provisions as the Board deems necessary to protect or enhance the credibility and integrity of State gambling operations, achieve the highest prospective total revenue to the State, and otherwise serve the interests of the citizens of Illinois.

(h) Issuance of a managers license shall be subject to an open and competitive bidding process. The Board may select an applicant other than the lowest bidder by price. If it does not select the lowest bidder, the Board shall issue a notice of who the lowest bidder was and a written decision as to why another bidder was selected.

(Source: P.A. 93-28, eff. 6-20-03.)

(230 ILCS 10/8) (from Ch. 120, par. 2408)

Sec. 8. Suppliers licenses.

(a) The Board may issue a suppliers license to such persons, firms or corporations which apply therefor upon the payment of a non-refundable application fee set by the Board, upon a determination by the Board that the applicant is eligible for a suppliers license and upon payment of a $5,000 annual license fee.

(b) The holder of a suppliers license is authorized to sell or lease, and to contract to sell or lease, gambling equipment and supplies to any licensee involved in the ownership or management of gambling operations.

(c) Gambling supplies and equipment may not be distributed unless supplies and equipment conform to standards adopted by rules of the Board.

(d) A person, firm or corporation is ineligible to receive a suppliers license if:

(1) the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State, any other state, or the United States;

(2) the person has been convicted of any violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or substantially similar laws of any other jurisdiction;

(3) the person has submitted an application for a license under this Act which contains false information;

(4) the person is a member of the Board;

(5) the firm or corporation is one in which a person defined in (1), (2), (3) or (4), is an officer, director or managerial employee;

(6) the firm or corporation employs a person who participates in the management or operation of riverboat gambling authorized under this Act;

(7) the license of the person, firm or corporation issued under this Act, or a license to own or operate gambling facilities in any other jurisdiction, has been revoked.

(e) Any person that supplies any equipment, devices, or supplies to a licensed riverboat gambling operation must first obtain a suppliers license. A supplier shall furnish to the Board a list of all equipment, devices and supplies offered for sale or lease in connection with gambling games authorized under this Act. A supplier shall keep books and records for the furnishing of equipment, devices and supplies to gambling operations separate and distinct from any other business that the supplier might operate. A supplier shall file a quarterly return with the Board listing all sales and leases. A supplier shall permanently affix its name to all its equipment, devices, and supplies for gambling operations. Any supplier's equipment, devices or supplies which are used by any person in an unauthorized gambling operation shall be forfeited to the State. A licensed owner may own its own equipment, devices and supplies. Each holder of an owners license under the Act shall file an annual report listing its inventories of gambling equipment, devices and supplies.

(f) Any person who knowingly makes a false statement on an application is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(g) Any gambling equipment, devices and supplies provided by any licensed supplier may either be repaired on the riverboat or removed from the riverboat to an on-shore facility owned by the holder of an owners license for repair.

(Source: P.A. 86-1029; 87-826.)

(230 ILCS 10/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 2409)

Sec. 9. Occupational licenses.

(a) The Board may issue an occupational license to an applicant upon the payment of a non-refundable fee set by the Board, upon a determination by the Board that the applicant is eligible for an occupational license and upon payment of an annual license fee in an amount to be established. To be eligible for an occupational license, an applicant must:

(1) be at least 21 years of age if the applicant will perform any function involved in gaming by patrons. Any applicant seeking an occupational license for a non-gaming function shall be at least 18 years of age;

(2) not have been convicted of a felony offense, a violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar statute of any other jurisdiction;

(2.5) not have been convicted of a crime, other than a crime described in item (2) of this subsection (a), involving dishonesty or moral turpitude, except that the Board may, in its discretion, issue an occupational license to a person who has been convicted of a crime described in this item (2.5) more than 10 years prior to his or her application and has not subsequently been convicted of any other crime;

(3) have demonstrated a level of skill or knowledge which the Board determines to be necessary in order to operate gambling aboard a riverboat; and

(4) have met standards for the holding of an occupational license as adopted by rules of the Board. Such rules shall provide that any person or entity seeking an occupational license to manage gambling operations hereunder shall be subject to background inquiries and further requirements similar to those required of applicants for an owners license. Furthermore, such rules shall provide that each such entity shall be permitted to manage gambling operations for only one licensed owner.

(b) Each application for an occupational license shall be on forms prescribed by the Board and shall contain all information required by the Board. The applicant shall set forth in the application: whether he has been issued prior gambling related licenses; whether he has been licensed in any other state under any other name, and, if so, such name and his age; and whether or not a permit or license issued to him in any other state has been suspended, restricted or revoked, and, if so, for what period of time.

(c) Each applicant shall submit with his application, on forms provided by the Board, 2 sets of his fingerprints. The Board shall charge each applicant a fee set by the Department of State Police to defray the costs associated with the search and classification of fingerprints obtained by the Board with respect to the applicant's application. These fees shall be paid into the State Police Services Fund.

(d) The Board may in its discretion refuse an occupational license to any person: (1) who is unqualified to perform the duties required of such applicant; (2) who fails to disclose or states falsely any information called for in the application; (3) who has been found guilty of a violation of this Act or whose prior gambling related license or application therefor has been suspended, restricted, revoked or denied for just cause in any other state; or (4) for any other just cause.

(e) The Board may suspend, revoke or restrict any occupational licensee: (1) for violation of any provision of this Act; (2) for violation of any of the rules and regulations of the Board; (3) for any cause which, if known to the Board, would have disqualified the applicant from receiving such license; or (4) for default in the payment of any obligation or debt due to the State of Illinois; or (5) for any other just cause.

(f) A person who knowingly makes a false statement on an application is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(g) Any license issued pursuant to this Section shall be valid for a period of one year from the date of issuance.

(h) Nothing in this Act shall be interpreted to prohibit a licensed owner from entering into an agreement with a public community college or a school approved under the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012 for the training of any occupational licensee. Any training offered by such a school shall be in accordance with a written agreement between the licensed owner and the school.

(i) Any training provided for occupational licensees may be conducted either on the riverboat or at a school with which a licensed owner has entered into an agreement pursuant to subsection (h).

(Source: P.A. 96-1392, eff. 1-1-11; 97-650, eff. 2-1-12.)

(230 ILCS 10/18) (from Ch. 120, par. 2418)

Sec. 18. Prohibited Activities - Penalty.

(a) A person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for doing any of the following:

(1) Conducting gambling where wagering is used or to be used without a license issued by the Board.

(2) Conducting gambling where wagering is permitted other than in the manner specified by Section 11.

(b) A person is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor for doing any of the following:

(1) permitting a person under 21 years to make a wager; or

(2) violating paragraph (12) of subsection (a) of Section 11 of this Act.

(c) A person wagering or accepting a wager at any location outside the riverboat is subject to the penalties in paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 28-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(d) A person commits a Class 4 felony and, in addition, shall be barred for life from riverboats under the jurisdiction of the Board, if the person does any of the following:

(1) Offers, promises, or gives anything of value or benefit to a person who is connected with a riverboat owner including, but not limited to, an officer or employee of a licensed owner or holder of an occupational license pursuant to an agreement or arrangement or with the intent that the promise or thing of value or benefit will influence the actions of the person to whom the offer, promise, or gift was made in order to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a gambling game, or to influence official action of a member of the Board.

(2) Solicits or knowingly accepts or receives a promise of anything of value or benefit while the person is connected with a riverboat including, but not limited to, an officer or employee of a licensed owner, or holder of an occupational license, pursuant to an understanding or arrangement or with the intent that the promise or thing of value or benefit will influence the actions of the person to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a gambling game, or to influence official action of a member of the Board.

(3) Uses or possesses with the intent to use a device to assist:

(i) In projecting the outcome of the game.

(ii) In keeping track of the cards played.

(iii) In analyzing the probability of the occurrence of an event relating to the gambling game.

(iv) In analyzing the strategy for playing or betting to be used in the game except as permitted by the Board.

(4) Cheats at a gambling game.

(5) Manufactures, sells, or distributes any cards, chips, dice, game or device which is intended to be used to violate any provision of this Act.

(6) Alters or misrepresents the outcome of a gambling game on which wagers have been made after the outcome is made sure but before it is revealed to the players.

(7) Places a bet after acquiring knowledge, not available to all players, of the outcome of the gambling game which is subject of the bet or to aid a person in acquiring the knowledge for the purpose of placing a bet contingent on that outcome.

(8) Claims, collects, or takes, or attempts to claim, collect, or take, money or anything of value in or from the gambling games, with intent to defraud, without having made a wager contingent on winning a gambling game, or claims, collects, or takes an amount of money or thing of value of greater value than the amount won.

(9) Uses counterfeit chips or tokens in a gambling game.

(10) Possesses any key or device designed for the purpose of opening, entering, or affecting the operation of a gambling game, drop box, or an electronic or mechanical device connected with the gambling game or for removing coins, tokens, chips or other contents of a gambling game. This paragraph (10) does not apply to a gambling licensee or employee of a gambling licensee acting in furtherance of the employee's employment.

(e) The possession of more than one of the devices described in subsection (d), paragraphs (3), (5), or (10) permits a rebuttable presumption that the possessor intended to use the devices for cheating.

(f) A person under the age of 21 who, except as authorized under paragraph (10) of Section 11, enters upon a riverboat commits a petty offense and is subject to a fine of not less than $100 or more than $250 for a first offense and of not less than $200 or more than $500 for a second or subsequent offense.

An action to prosecute any crime occurring on a riverboat shall be tried in the county of the dock at which the riverboat is based.

(Source: P.A. 96-1392, eff. 1-1-11.)

(230 ILCS 10/19) (from Ch. 120, par. 2419)

Sec. 19. Forfeiture of property. (a) Except as provided in subsection (b), any riverboat used for the conduct of gambling games in violation of this Act shall be considered a gambling place in violation of Section 28-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as now or hereafter amended. Every gambling device found on a riverboat operating gambling games in violation of this Act shall be subject to seizure, confiscation and destruction as provided in Section 28-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as now or hereafter amended.

(b) It is not a violation of this Act for a riverboat or other watercraft which is licensed for gaming by a contiguous state to dock on the shores of this State if the municipality having jurisdiction of the shores, or the county in the case of unincorporated areas, has granted permission for docking and no gaming is conducted on the riverboat or other watercraft while it is docked on the shores of this State. No gambling device shall be subject to seizure, confiscation or destruction if the gambling device is located on a riverboat or other watercraft which is licensed for gaming by a contiguous state and which is docked on the shores of this State if the municipality having jurisdiction of the shores, or the county in the case of unincorporated areas, has granted permission for docking and no gaming is conducted on the riverboat or other watercraft while it is docked on the shores of this State.

(Source: P.A. 86-1029.)

Section 475. The Raffles Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 8.1 as follows:

(230 ILCS 15/1) (from Ch. 85, par. 2301)

Sec. 1. Definitions.) For the purposes of this Act the terms defined in this Section have the meanings given them.

"Net Proceeds" means the gross receipts from the conduct of raffles, less reasonable sums expended for prizes, local license fees and other reasonable operating expenses incurred as a result of operating a raffle.

"Raffle" means a form of lottery, as defined in Section 28-2 (b) of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", conducted by an organization licensed under this Act, in which:

(1) the player pays or agrees to pay something of value for a chance, represented and differentiated by a number or by a combination of numbers or by some other medium, one or more of which chances is to be designated the winning chance;

(2) the winning chance is to be determined through a drawing or by some other method based on an element of chance by an act or set of acts on the part of persons conducting or connected with the lottery, except that the winning chance shall not be determined by the outcome of a publicly exhibited sporting contest.

(Source: P.A. 81-1365.)

(230 ILCS 15/8.1) (from Ch. 85, par. 2308.1)

Sec. 8.1. (a) Political Committees. For the purposes of this Section the terms defined in this subsection have the meanings given them.

"Net Proceeds" means the gross receipts from the conduct of raffles, less reasonable sums expended for prizes, license fees and other reasonable operating expenses incurred as a result of operating a raffle.

"Raffle" means a form of lottery, as defined in Section 28-2 (b) of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", conducted by a political committee licensed under this Section, in which:

(1) the player pays or agrees to pay something of value for a chance, represented and differentiated by a number or by a combination of numbers or by some other medium, one or more of which chances is to be designated the winning chance;

(2) the winning chance is to be determined through a drawing or by some other method based on an element of chance by an act or set of acts on the part of persons conducting or connected with the lottery, except that the winning chance shall not be determined by the outcome of a publicly exhibited sporting contest.

"Unresolved claim" means a claim for civil penalty under Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code which has been begun by the State Board of Elections, has been disputed by the political committee under the applicable rules of the State Board of Elections, and has not been finally decided either by the State Board of Elections, or, where application for review has been made to the Courts of Illinois, remains finally undecided by the Courts.

"Owes" means that a political committee has been finally determined under applicable rules of the State Board of Elections to be liable for a civil penalty under Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code.

(b) Licenses issued pursuant to this Section shall be valid for one raffle or for a specified number of raffles to be conducted during a specified period not to exceed one year and may be suspended or revoked for any violation of this Section. The State Board of Elections shall act on a license application within 30 days from the date of application.

(c) Licenses issued by the State Board of Elections are subject to the following restrictions:

(1) No political committee shall conduct raffles or chances without having first obtained a license therefor pursuant to this Section.

(2) The application for license shall be prepared in accordance with regulations of the State Board of Elections and must specify the area or areas within the State in which raffle chances will be sold or issued, the time period during which raffle chances will be sold or issued, the time of determination of winning chances and the location or locations at which winning chances will be determined.

(3) A license authorizes the licensee to conduct raffles as defined in this Section.

The following are ineligible for any license under this Section:

(i) any political committee which has an officer who has been convicted of a felony;

(ii) any political committee which has an officer who is or has been a professional gambler or gambling promoter;

(iii) any political committee which has an officer who is not of good moral character;

(iv) any political committee which has an officer who is also an officer of a firm or corporation in which a person defined in (i), (ii) or (iii) has a proprietary, equitable or credit interest, or in which such a person is active or employed;

(v) any political committee in which a person defined in (i), (ii) or (iii) is an officer, director, or employee, whether compensated or not;

(vi) any political committee in which a person defined in (i), (ii) or (iii) is to participate in the management or operation of a raffle as defined in this Section;

(vii) any committee which, at the time of its application for a license to conduct a raffle, owes the State Board of Elections any unpaid civil penalty authorized by Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code, or is the subject of an unresolved claim for a civil penalty under Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code;

(viii) any political committee which, at the time of its application to conduct a raffle, has not submitted any report or document required to be filed by Article 9 of The Election Code and such report or document is more than 10 days overdue.

(d) (1) The conducting of raffles is subject to the following restrictions:

(i) The entire net proceeds of any raffle must be exclusively devoted to the lawful purposes of the political committee permitted to conduct that game.

(ii) No person except a bona fide member of the political committee may participate in the management or operation of the raffle.

(iii) No person may receive any remuneration or profit for participating in the management or operation of the raffle.

(iv) Raffle chances may be sold or issued only within the area specified on the license and winning chances may be determined only at those locations specified on the license.

(v) A person under the age of 18 years may participate in the conducting of raffles or chances only with the permission of a parent or guardian. A person under the age of 18 years may be within the area where winning chances are being determined only when accompanied by his parent or guardian.

(2) If a lessor rents premises where a winning chance or chances on a raffle are determined, the lessor shall not be criminally liable if the person who uses the premises for the determining of winning chances does not hold a license issued under the provisions of this Section.

(e) (1) Each political committee licensed to conduct raffles and chances shall keep records of its gross receipts, expenses and net proceeds for each single gathering or occasion at which winning chances are determined. All deductions from gross receipts for each single gathering or occasion shall be documented with receipts or other records indicating the amount, a description of the purchased item or service or other reason for the deduction, and the recipient. The distribution of net proceeds shall be itemized as to payee, purpose, amount and date of payment.

(2) Each political committee licensed to conduct raffles shall report on the next report due to be filed under Article 9 of The Election Code its gross receipts, expenses and net proceeds from raffles, and the distribution of net proceeds itemized as required in this subsection.

Such reports shall be included in the regular reports required of political committees by Article 9 of The Election Code.

(3) Records required by this subsection shall be preserved for 3 years, and political committees shall make available their records relating to operation of raffles for public inspection at reasonable times and places.

(f) Violation of any provision of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the conducting or operating of any gambling scheme, enterprise, activity or device other than raffles as provided for herein.

(Source: P.A. 93-615, eff. 11-19-03.)

Section 480. The Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act is amended by changing Sections 2.1, 6, and 7 as follows:

(230 ILCS 20/2.1)

Sec. 2.1. Ineligibility for a license. The following are ineligible for any license under this Act:

(1) Any person who has been convicted of a felony within the last 10 years prior to the date of the application.

(2) Any person who has been convicted of a violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(3) Any person who has had a bingo, pull tabs and jar games, or charitable games license revoked by the Department.

(4) Any person who is or has been a professional gambler.

(5) Any person found gambling in a manner not authorized by the Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act, the Bingo License and Tax Act, or the Charitable Games Act, participating in such gambling, or knowingly permitting such gambling on premises where pull tabs and jar games are authorized to be conducted.

(6) Any firm or corporation in which a person defined in (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) has any proprietary, equitable, or credit interest or in which such person is active or employed.

(7) Any organization in which a person defined in (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) is an officer, director, or employee, whether compensated or not.

(8) Any organization in which a person defined in (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) is to participate in the management or operation of pull tabs and jar games.

The Department of State Police shall provide the criminal background of any supplier as requested by the Department of Revenue.

(Source: P.A. 95-228, eff. 8-16-07.)

(230 ILCS 20/6) (from Ch. 120, par. 1056)

Sec. 6. Each licensee must keep a complete record of pull tabs and jar games conducted within the previous 3 years. Such record shall be available for inspection by any employee of the Department of Revenue during reasonable business hours. The Department may require that any person, organization, or corporation licensed under this Act obtain from an Illinois certified public accounting firm at its own expense a certified and unqualified financial statement and verification of records of such organization. Failure of a pull tabs and jar games licensee to comply with this requirement within 90 days of receiving notice from the Department may result in suspension or revocation of the licensee's license.

The Department of Revenue may, at its discretion, suspend or revoke any license if it finds that the licensee or any person connected therewith has violated or is violating this Act. A suspension or revocation shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other civil penalties or assessments that are authorized by this Act. No licensee under this Act, while pull tabs and jar games chances are being conducted, shall knowingly permit entry to any part of the licensed premises by any person who has been convicted of a felony or a violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 95-228, eff. 8-16-07.)

(230 ILCS 20/7) (from Ch. 120, par. 1057)

Sec. 7. Violations.

(a) Any person who conducts or knowingly participates in an unlicensed pull tabs and jar game commits the offense of gambling in violation of Section 28-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended. Any person who violates any other provision of this Act, or any person who knowingly fails to file a pull tabs and jar games return or who knowingly files a fraudulent application or return under this Act, or any person who wilfully violates any rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of this Act, or any officer or agent of an organization licensed under this Act who signs a fraudulent application or return filed on behalf of such an organization, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Any organization that illegally conducts pull tabs or jar games, in addition to other penalties provided for in this Act, shall be subject to a civil penalty equal to the amount of gross proceeds derived from those unlicensed games, as well as confiscation and forfeiture of all pull tabs and jar games equipment used in the conduct of those unlicensed games.

(c) Any organization licensed to conduct pull tabs and jar games which allows any form of illegal gambling to be conducted on the premises where pull tabs and jar games are being conducted, in addition to other penalties provided for in this Act, shall be subject to a civil penalty equal to the amount of gross proceeds derived on that day from pull tabs and jar games and any illegal game that may have been conducted, as well as confiscation and forfeiture of all pull tabs and jar games equipment used in the conduct of any unlicensed or illegal games.

(Source: P.A. 95-228, eff. 8-16-07.)

Section 485. The Bingo License and Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 1.2, 4, and 5 as follows:

(230 ILCS 25/1.2)

Sec. 1.2. Ineligibility for licensure. The following are ineligible for any license under this Act:

(1) Any person who has been convicted of a felony within the last 10 years prior to the date of application.

(2) Any person who has been convicted of a violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(3) Any person who has had a bingo, pull tabs and jar games, or charitable games license revoked by the Department.

(4) Any person who is or has been a professional gambler.

(5) Any person found gambling in a manner not authorized by the Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act, Bingo License and Tax Act, or the Charitable Games Act, participating in such gambling, or knowingly permitting such gambling on premises where a bingo event is authorized to be conducted or has been conducted.

(6) Any organization in which a person defined in (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) has a proprietary, equitable, or credit interest, or in which such person is active or employed.

(7) Any organization in which a person defined in (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) is an officer, director, or employee, whether compensated or not.

(8) Any organization in which a person defined in (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) is to participate in the management or operation of a bingo game.

The Department of State Police shall provide the criminal background of any person requested by the Department of Revenue.

(Source: P.A. 95-228, eff. 8-16-07.)

(230 ILCS 25/4) (from Ch. 120, par. 1104)

Sec. 4. Each licensee must keep a complete record of bingo games conducted within the previous 3 years. Such record shall be available for inspection by any employee of the Department of Revenue during reasonable business hours.

The Department may require that any person, organization or corporation licensed under this Act obtain from an Illinois certified public accounting firm at its own expense a certified and unqualified financial statement and verification of records of such organization. Failure of a bingo licensee to comply with this requirement within 90 days of receiving notice from the Director may result in suspension or revocation of the licensee's license.

The Department of Revenue may, at its discretion, suspend or revoke any license if it finds that the licensee or any person connected therewith has violated or is violating the provisions of this Act. A suspension or revocation shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other civil penalties or assessments that are authorized by this Act. No licensee under this Act, while a bingo game is being conducted, shall knowingly permit entry into any part of the licensed premises by any person who has been convicted of a felony or a violation of Article 28 of the "Criminal Code of 1961" or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 95-228, eff. 8-16-07.)

(230 ILCS 25/5) (from Ch. 120, par. 1105)

Sec. 5. Penalties.

(a) Any person who conducts or knowingly participates in an unlicensed bingo game commits the offense of gambling in violation of Section 28-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended. Any person who violates any other provision of this Act, or any person who knowingly fails to file a bingo return or who knowingly files a fraudulent application or return under this Act, or any person who wilfully violates any rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of this Act, or any officer or agent of an organization licensed under this Act who signs a fraudulent application or return filed on behalf of such an organization, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(b) Any organization that illegally conducts bingo, in addition to other penalties provided for in this Act, shall be subject to a civil penalty equal to the gross proceeds derived from those unlicensed games, as well as confiscation and forfeiture of all bingo equipment used in the conduct of those unlicensed games.

(c) Any organization licensed to conduct bingo which allows any form of illegal gambling to be conducted on the premises where bingo is being conducted, in addition to other penalties provided for in this Act, shall be subject to a civil penalty equal to the amount of gross proceeds derived on that day from bingo and any illegal game that may have been conducted, as well as confiscation and forfeiture of all bingo equipment used in the conduct of any unlicensed or illegal games.

(d) Any person or organization, in addition to other penalties provided for in this Act, shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000 for any of the following violations:

(1) Providing premises for the conduct of bingo without first obtaining a license or a special permit to do so.

(2) Allowing unlicensed organizations to conduct bingo on its premises.

(3) Allowing any form of illegal gambling to be conducted on the premises where bingo is being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 95-228, eff. 8-16-07.)

Section 490. The Charitable Games Act is amended by changing Sections 7, 10, and 12 as follows:

(230 ILCS 30/7) (from Ch. 120, par. 1127)

Sec. 7. Ineligible Persons. The following are ineligible for any license under this Act:

(a) any person who has been convicted of a felony within the last 10 years before the date of the application;

(b) any person who has been convicted of a violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(c) any person who has had a bingo, pull tabs and jar games, or charitable games license revoked by the Department;

(d) any person who is or has been a professional gambler;

(d-1) any person found gambling in a manner not authorized by this Act, the Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act, or the Bingo License and Tax Act participating in such gambling, or knowingly permitting such gambling on premises where an authorized charitable games event is authorized to be conducted or has been conducted;

(e) any organization in which a person defined in (a), (b), (c), (d), or (d-1) has a proprietary, equitable, or credit interest, or in which the person is active or employed;

(f) any organization in which a person defined in (a), (b), (c), (d), or (d-1) is an officer, director, or employee, whether compensated or not;

(g) any organization in which a person defined in (a), (b), (c), (d), or (d-1) is to participate in the management or operation of charitable games.

The Department of State Police shall provide the criminal background of any person requested by the Department of Revenue.

(Source: P.A. 94-986, eff. 6-30-06; 95-228, eff. 8-16-07.)

(230 ILCS 30/10) (from Ch. 120, par. 1130)

Sec. 10. Each licensee must keep a complete record of charitable games conducted within the previous 3 years. Such record shall be open to inspection by any employee of the Department of Revenue during reasonable business hours.

The Department may require that any person, organization or corporation licensed under this Act obtain from an Illinois certified public accounting firm at its own expense a certified and unqualified financial statement and verification of records of such organization. Failure of a charitable games licensee to comply with this requirement within 90 days of receiving notice from the Department may result in suspension or revocation of the licensee's license.

The Department of Revenue may, at its discretion, suspend or revoke any license if it finds that the licensee or any person connected therewith has violated or is violating the provisions of this Act. A revocation or suspension shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other civil penalties or assessments that are authorized by this Act. No licensee under this Act, while a charitable game is being conducted, shall knowingly permit the entry into any part of the licensed premises by any person who has been convicted of a violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 94-986, eff. 6-30-06; 95-228, eff. 8-16-07.)

(230 ILCS 30/12) (from Ch. 120, par. 1132)

Sec. 12. Penalties.

(1) Any person who conducts or knowingly participates in an unlicensed charitable game commits the offense of gambling in violation of Section 28-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended. Any person who violates any provision of this Act, or any person who fails to file a charitable games return or who files a fraudulent return or application under this Act, or any person who willfully violates any rule or regulation of the Department for the administration and enforcement of this Act, or any officer or agent of an organization licensed under this Act who signs a fraudulent return or application filed on behalf of such an organization, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Any second or subsequent violation of this Act constitutes a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any organization that illegally conducts charitable games, in addition to other penalties provided for in this Act, shall be subject to a civil penalty equal to the amount of gross proceeds derived from those unlicensed games, as well as confiscation and forfeiture of all charitable games equipment used in the conduct of those unlicensed games.

(3) Any organization licensed to conduct charitable games that allows any form of illegal gambling to be conducted on the premises where charitable games are being conducted, in addition to other penalties provided for in this Act, shall be subject to a civil penalty equal to the amount of gross proceeds derived on that day from charitable games and any illegal game that may have been conducted, as well as confiscation and forfeiture of all charitable games equipment used in the conduct of any unlicensed or illegal games.

(4) Any person who violates any provision of this Act or knowingly violates any rule of the Department for the administration of this Act, in addition to other penalties provided, shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $250 for each separate violation.

(5) No person shall sell, lease, or distribute for compensation within this State, or possess with intent to sell, lease, or distribute for compensation within this State, any chips, representations of money, wheels, or any devices or equipment designed for use or used in the play of charitable games without first having obtained a license to do so from the Department of Revenue. Any person that knowingly violates this paragraph is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, the fine for which shall not exceed $50,000.

(Source: P.A. 94-986, eff. 6-30-06; 95-228, eff. 8-16-07.)

Section 495. The Video Gaming Act is amended by changing Sections 35 and 45 as follows:

(230 ILCS 40/35)

Sec. 35. Display of license; confiscation; violation as felony.

(a) Each video gaming terminal shall be licensed by the Board before placement or operation on the premises of a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment. The license of each video gaming terminal shall be maintained at the location where the video gaming terminal is operated. Failure to do so is a petty offense with a fine not to exceed $100. Any licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment used for the conduct of gambling games in violation of this Act shall be considered a gambling place in violation of Section 28-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. Every gambling device found in a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment operating gambling games in violation of this Act shall be subject to seizure, confiscation, and destruction as provided in Section 28-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. Any license issued under the Liquor Control Act of 1934 to any owner or operator of a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment that operates or permits the operation of a video gaming terminal within its establishment in violation of this Act shall be immediately revoked. No person may own, operate, have in his or her possession or custody or under his or her control, or permit to be kept in any place under his or her possession or control, any device that awards credits and contains a circuit, meter, or switch capable of removing and recording the removal of credits when the award of credits is dependent upon chance. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony. All devices that are owned, operated, or possessed in violation of this Section are hereby declared to be public nuisances and shall be subject to seizure, confiscation, and destruction as provided in Section 28-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. The provisions of this Section do not apply to devices or electronic video game terminals licensed pursuant to this Act. A video gaming terminal operated for amusement only and bearing a valid amusement tax sticker shall not be subject to this Section until 30 days after the Board establishes that the central communications system is functional.

(b) (1) The odds of winning each video game shall be posted on or near each video gaming terminal. The manner in which the odds are calculated and how they are posted shall be determined by the Board by rule.

(2) No video gaming terminal licensed under this Act may be played except during the legal hours of operation allowed for the consumption of alcoholic beverages at the licensed establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment. A licensed establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment that violates this subsection is subject to termination of its license by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-1410, eff. 7-30-10.)

(230 ILCS 40/45)

Sec. 45. Issuance of license.

(a) The burden is upon each applicant to demonstrate his suitability for licensure. Each video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, and licensed veterans establishment shall be licensed by the Board. The Board may issue or deny a license under this Act to any person pursuant to the same criteria set forth in Section 9 of the Riverboat Gambling Act.

(a-5) The Board shall not grant a license to a person who has facilitated, enabled, or participated in the use of coin-operated devices for gambling purposes or who is under the significant influence or control of such a person. For the purposes of this Act, "facilitated, enabled, or participated in the use of coin-operated amusement devices for gambling purposes" means that the person has been convicted of any violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. If there is pending legal action against a person for any such violation, then the Board shall delay the licensure of that person until the legal action is resolved.

(b) Each person seeking and possessing a license as a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment shall submit to a background investigation conducted by the Board with the assistance of the State Police or other law enforcement. The background investigation shall include each beneficiary of a trust, each partner of a partnership, and each director and officer and all stockholders of 5% or more in a parent or subsidiary corporation of a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, or licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment.

(c) Each person seeking and possessing a license as a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment shall disclose the identity of every person, association, trust, corporation, or limited liability company having a greater than 1% direct or indirect pecuniary interest in the video gaming terminal operation for which the license is sought. If the disclosed entity is a trust, the application shall disclose the names and addresses of the beneficiaries; if a corporation, the names and addresses of all stockholders and directors; if a limited liability company, the names and addresses of all members; or if a partnership, the names and addresses of all partners, both general and limited.

(d) No person may be licensed as a video gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment if that person has been found by the Board to:

(1) have a background, including a criminal record, reputation, habits, social or business associations, or prior activities that pose a threat to the public interests of the State or to the security and integrity of video gaming;

(2) create or enhance the dangers of unsuitable, unfair, or illegal practices, methods, and activities in the conduct of video gaming; or

(3) present questionable business practices and financial arrangements incidental to the conduct of video gaming activities.

(e) Any applicant for any license under this Act has the burden of proving his or her qualifications to the satisfaction of the Board. The Board may adopt rules to establish additional qualifications and requirements to preserve the integrity and security of video gaming in this State.

(f) A non-refundable application fee shall be paid at the time an application for a license is filed with the Board in the following amounts:

(1) Manufacturer..........................$5,000

(2) Distributor...........................$5,000

(3) Terminal operator.....................$5,000

(4) Supplier..............................$2,500

(5) Technician..............................$100

(6) Terminal Handler..............................$50

(g) The Board shall establish an annual fee for each license not to exceed the following:

(1) Manufacturer.........................$10,000

(2) Distributor..........................$10,000

(3) Terminal operator.....................$5,000

(4) Supplier..............................$2,000

(5) Technician..............................$100

(6) Licensed establishment, licensed truck stop

establishment, licensed fraternal establishment,

or licensed veterans establishment..............$100

(7) Video gaming terminal...................$100

(8) Terminal Handler..............................$50

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1410, eff. 7-30-10.)

Section 500. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Section 6-2 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/6-2) (from Ch. 43, par. 120)

Sec. 6-2. Issuance of licenses to certain persons prohibited.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b) of this Section and in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12, no license of any kind issued by the State Commission or any local commission shall be issued to:

(1) A person who is not a resident of any city, village or county in which the premises covered by the license are located; except in case of railroad or boat licenses.

(2) A person who is not of good character and reputation in the community in which he resides.

(3) A person who is not a citizen of the United States.

(4) A person who has been convicted of a felony under any Federal or State law, unless the Commission determines that such person has been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust after considering matters set forth in such person's application and the Commission's investigation. The burden of proof of sufficient rehabilitation shall be on the applicant.

(5) A person who has been convicted of keeping a place of prostitution or keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, promoting prostitution that involves keeping a place of prostitution, or promoting juvenile prostitution that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution.

(6) A person who has been convicted of pandering or other crime or misdemeanor opposed to decency and morality.

(7) A person whose license issued under this Act has been revoked for cause.

(8) A person who at the time of application for renewal of any license issued hereunder would not be eligible for such license upon a first application.

(9) A copartnership, if any general partnership thereof, or any limited partnership thereof, owning more than 5% of the aggregate limited partner interest in such copartnership would not be eligible to receive a license hereunder for any reason other than residence within the political subdivision, unless residency is required by local ordinance.

(10) A corporation or limited liability company, if any member, officer, manager or director thereof, or any stockholder or stockholders owning in the aggregate more than 5% of the stock of such corporation, would not be eligible to receive a license hereunder for any reason other than citizenship and residence within the political subdivision.

(10a) A corporation or limited liability company unless it is incorporated or organized in Illinois, or unless it is a foreign corporation or foreign limited liability company which is qualified under the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or the Limited Liability Company Act to transact business in Illinois. The Commission shall permit and accept from an applicant for a license under this Act proof prepared from the Secretary of State's website that the corporation or limited liability company is in good standing and is qualified under the Business Corporation Act of 1983 or the Limited Liability Company Act to transact business in Illinois.

(11) A person whose place of business is conducted by a manager or agent unless the manager or agent possesses the same qualifications required by the licensee.

(12) A person who has been convicted of a violation of any Federal or State law concerning the manufacture, possession or sale of alcoholic liquor, subsequent to the passage of this Act or has forfeited his bond to appear in court to answer charges for any such violation.

(13) A person who does not beneficially own the premises for which a license is sought, or does not have a lease thereon for the full period for which the license is to be issued.

(14) Any law enforcing public official, including members of local liquor control commissions, any mayor, alderman, or member of the city council or commission, any president of the village board of trustees, any member of a village board of trustees, or any president or member of a county board; and no such official shall have a direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor, except that a license may be granted to such official in relation to premises that are not located within the territory subject to the jurisdiction of that official if the issuance of such license is approved by the State Liquor Control Commission and except that a license may be granted, in a city or village with a population of 50,000 or less, to any alderman, member of a city council, or member of a village board of trustees in relation to premises that are located within the territory subject to the jurisdiction of that official if (i) the sale of alcoholic liquor pursuant to the license is incidental to the selling of food, (ii) the issuance of the license is approved by the State Commission, (iii) the issuance of the license is in accordance with all applicable local ordinances in effect where the premises are located, and (iv) the official granted a license does not vote on alcoholic liquor issues pending before the board or council to which the license holder is elected. Notwithstanding any provision of this paragraph (14) to the contrary, an alderman or member of a city council or commission, a member of a village board of trustees other than the president of the village board of trustees, or a member of a county board other than the president of a county board may have a direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor as long as he or she is not a law enforcing public official, a mayor, a village board president, or president of a county board. To prevent any conflict of interest, the elected official with the direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor shall not participate in any meetings, hearings, or decisions on matters impacting the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor. Furthermore, the mayor of a city with a population of 50,000 or less or the president of a village with a population of 50,000 or less may have an interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor as long as the council or board over which he or she presides has made a local liquor control commissioner appointment that complies with the requirements of Section 4-2 of this Act.

(15) A person who is not a beneficial owner of the business to be operated by the licensee.

(16) A person who has been convicted of a gambling offense as proscribed by any of subsections (a) (3) through (a) (11) of Section 28-1 of, or as proscribed by Section 28-1.1 or 28-3 of, the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or as proscribed by a statute replaced by any of the aforesaid statutory provisions.

(17) A person or entity to whom a federal wagering stamp has been issued by the federal government, unless the person or entity is eligible to be issued a license under the Raffles Act or the Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games Act.

(18) A person who intends to sell alcoholic liquors for use or consumption on his or her licensed retail premises who does not have liquor liability insurance coverage for that premises in an amount that is at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set out in subsection (a) of Section 6-21.

(b) A criminal conviction of a corporation is not grounds for the denial, suspension, or revocation of a license applied for or held by the corporation if the criminal conviction was not the result of a violation of any federal or State law concerning the manufacture, possession or sale of alcoholic liquor, the offense that led to the conviction did not result in any financial gain to the corporation and the corporation has terminated its relationship with each director, officer, employee, or controlling shareholder whose actions directly contributed to the conviction of the corporation. The Commission shall determine if all provisions of this subsection (b) have been met before any action on the corporation's license is initiated.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1059, eff. 8-24-12.)

Section 505. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 2-18, 4-1.7, 8A-2, 10-5, and 12-4.25 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/2-18)

Sec. 2-18. Domestic or sexual violence. "Domestic or sexual violence" means domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking. Domestic or sexual violence may occur through electronic communication.

"Domestic violence" means "abuse" as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 by a "family or household member" as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Sexual assault" means any conduct proscribed by Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Stalking" means any conduct proscribed by Sections 12-7.3, 12-7.4, and 12-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Electronic communication" includes communications via telephone, mobile phone, computer, e-mail, video recorder, fax machine, telex, or pager, or any other "electronic communication" as defined in Section 12-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-866, eff. 7-1-10.)

(305 ILCS 5/4-1.7) (from Ch. 23, par. 4-1.7)

Sec. 4-1.7. Enforcement of Parental Child Support Obligation. If the parent or parents of the child are failing to meet or are delinquent in their legal obligation to support the child, the parent or other person having custody of the child or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may request the law enforcement officer authorized or directed by law to so act to file action for the enforcement of such remedies as the law provides for the fulfillment of the child support obligation.

If a parent has a judicial remedy against the other parent to compel child support, or if, as the result of an action initiated by or in behalf of one parent against the other, a child support order has been entered in respect to which there is noncompliance or delinquency, or where the order so entered may be changed upon petition to the court to provide additional support, the parent or other person having custody of the child or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may request the appropriate law enforcement officer to seek enforcement of the remedy, or of the support order, or a change therein to provide additional support. If the law enforcement officer is not authorized by law to so act in these instances, the parent, or if so authorized by law the other person having custody of the child, or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may initiate an action to enforce these remedies.

A parent or other person having custody of the child must comply with the requirements of Title IV of the federal Social Security Act, and the regulations duly promulgated thereunder, and any rules promulgated by the Illinois Department regarding enforcement of the child support obligation. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services may provide by rule for the grant or continuation of aid to the person for a temporary period if he or she accepts counseling or other services designed to increase his or her motivation to seek enforcement of the child support obligation.

In addition to any other definition of failure or refusal to comply with the requirements of Title IV of the federal Social Security Act, or Illinois Department rule, in the case of failure to attend court hearings, the parent or other person can show cooperation by attending a court hearing or, if a court hearing cannot be scheduled within 14 days following the court hearing that was missed, by signing a statement that the parent or other person is now willing to cooperate in the child support enforcement process and will appear at any later scheduled court date. The parent or other person can show cooperation by signing such a statement only once. If failure to attend the court hearing or other failure to cooperate results in the case being dismissed, such a statement may be signed after 2 months.

No denial or termination of medical assistance pursuant to this Section shall commence during pregnancy of the parent or other person having custody of the child or for 30 days after the termination of such pregnancy. The termination of medical assistance may commence thereafter if the Department of Healthcare and Family Services determines that the failure or refusal to comply with this Section persists. Postponement of denial or termination of medical assistance during pregnancy under this paragraph shall be effective only to the extent it does not conflict with federal law or regulation.

Any evidence a parent or other person having custody of the child gives in order to comply with the requirements of this Section shall not render him or her liable to prosecution under Section 11-35 or 11-40 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as amended.

When so requested, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall provide such services and assistance as the law enforcement officer may require in connection with the filing of any action hereunder.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services, as an expense of administration, may also provide applicants for and recipients of aid with such services and assistance, including assumption of the reasonable costs of prosecuting any action or proceeding, as may be necessary to enable them to enforce the child support liability required hereunder.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as a requirement that an applicant or recipient file an action for dissolution of marriage against his or her spouse.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(305 ILCS 5/8A-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 8A-2)

Sec. 8A-2. Recipient Fraud. (a) Any person, who by means of any false statement, willful misrepresentation or failure to notify the county department or the local governmental unit, as the case may be, of a change in his status as required by Sections 11-18 and 11-19, or any person who knowingly causes any applicant or recipient without knowledge to make such a false statement or willful misrepresentation, or by withholding information causes the applicant or recipient to fail to notify the county department or local governmental unit as required, for the purpose of preventing the denial, cancellation or suspension of any grant, or a variation in the amount thereof, or through other fraudulent device obtains or attempts to obtain, or aids or abets any person in obtaining public aid under this Code to which he is not entitled is guilty of a violation of this Article and shall be punished as provided in Section 8A-6.

(b) If an applicant makes and subscribes an application form under Section 11-15 which contains a written declaration that it is made under penalties of perjury, knowing it to be false, incorrect or incomplete in respect to any material statement or representation bearing on his eligibility, income or resources, the offender shall be subject to the penalties for perjury as provided in Section 32-2 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961".

(Source: P.A. 82-440.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 10-5)

Sec. 10-5. Declarations by Responsible Relatives-Penalty.

Information requested of responsible relatives shall be submitted on forms or questionnaires prescribed by the Illinois Department or local governmental units, as the case may be, and shall contain a written declaration to be signed by the relative in substantially the following form:

"I declare under penalties of perjury that I have examined this form (or questionnaire) and all accompanying statements or documents pertaining to my income, resources, or any other matter having bearing upon my status and ability to provide support, and to the best of my knowledge and belief the information supplied is true, correct, and complete".

A person who makes and subscribes a form or questionnaire which contains, as hereinabove provided, a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury, knowing it to be false, incorrect or incomplete, in respect to any material statement or representation bearing upon his status as a responsible relative, or upon his income, resources, or other matter concerning his ability to provide support, shall be subject to the penalties for perjury provided for in Section 32-2 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as amended.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 122.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.25) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-4.25)

Sec. 12-4.25. Medical assistance program; vendor participation.

(A) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor, and may deny, suspend, or recover payments, if after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing the Illinois Department finds:

(a) Such vendor is not complying with the Department's policy or rules and regulations, or with the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its vendor agreement, which document shall be developed by the Department as a result of negotiations with each vendor category, including physicians, hospitals, long term care facilities, pharmacists, optometrists, podiatrists and dentists setting forth the terms and conditions applicable to the participation of each vendor group in the program; or

(b) Such vendor has failed to keep or make available for inspection, audit or copying, after receiving a written request from the Illinois Department, such records regarding payments claimed for providing services. This section does not require vendors to make available patient records of patients for whom services are not reimbursed under this Code; or

(c) Such vendor has failed to furnish any information requested by the Department regarding payments for providing goods or services; or

(d) Such vendor has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false statement or representation of a material fact in connection with the administration of the medical assistance program; or

(e) Such vendor has furnished goods or services to a recipient which are (1) in excess of need, (2) harmful, or (3) of grossly inferior quality, all of such determinations to be based upon competent medical judgment and evaluations; or

(f) The vendor; a person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship which is a vendor; or a partner in a partnership which is a vendor, either:

(1) was previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in another state or federal medical assistance or health care program; or

(2) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in another state or federal medical assistance or health care program during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(3) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in a state or federal medical assistance or health care program during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(4) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner of a partnership previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in a state or federal medical assistance or health care program during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(f-1) Such vendor has a delinquent debt owed to the Illinois Department; or

(g) The vendor; a person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship which is a vendor; or a partner in a partnership which is a vendor, either:

(1) has engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(2) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor at the time that such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(3) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a vendor at the time such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(4) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner of a partnership which was a vendor at the time such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation; or

(h) The direct or indirect ownership of the vendor (including the ownership of a vendor that is a sole proprietorship, a partner's interest in a vendor that is a partnership, or ownership of 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor) has been transferred by an individual who is terminated, suspended, or excluded or barred from participating as a vendor to the individual's spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

(A-5) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor, if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds that the vendor; a person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship that is a vendor; or a partner in a partnership that is a vendor has been convicted of an offense based on fraud or willful misrepresentation related to any of the following:

(1) The medical assistance program under Article V of this Code.

(2) A medical assistance or health care program in another state.

(3) The Medicare program under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act.

(4) The provision of health care services.

(5) A violation of this Code, as provided in Article VIIIA, or another state or federal medical assistance program or health care program.

(A-10) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor, if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds that (i) the vendor, (ii) a person with management responsibility for a vendor, (iii) an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor, (iv) an owner of a sole proprietorship that is a vendor, or (v) a partner in a partnership that is a vendor has been convicted of an offense related to any of the following:

(1) Murder.

(2) A Class X felony under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(3) Sexual misconduct that may subject recipients to an undue risk of harm.

(4) A criminal offense that may subject recipients to an undue risk of harm.

(5) A crime of fraud or dishonesty.

(6) A crime involving a controlled substance.

(7) A misdemeanor relating to fraud, theft, embezzlement, breach of fiduciary responsibility, or other financial misconduct related to a health care program.

(A-15) The Illinois Department may deny the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds:

(1) The applicant or any person with management responsibility for the applicant; an officer or member of the board of directors of an applicant; an entity owning (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor applicant; an owner of a sole proprietorship applicant; a partner in a partnership applicant; or a technical or other advisor to an applicant has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by the applicant.

(2) The applicant or any person with management responsibility for the applicant; an officer or member of the board of directors of an applicant; an entity owning (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor applicant; an owner of a sole proprietorship applicant; a partner in a partnership vendor applicant; or a technical or other advisor to an applicant was (i) a person with management responsibility, (ii) an officer or member of the board of directors of an applicant, (iii) an entity owning (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor, (iv) an owner of a sole proprietorship, (v) a partner in a partnership vendor, (vi) a technical or other advisor to a vendor, during a period of time where the conduct of that vendor resulted in a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor.

(3) There is a credible allegation of the use, transfer, or lease of assets of any kind to an applicant from a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor or the vendor's alternate payee, and the applicant knows or should have known of such debt.

(4) There is a credible allegation of a transfer of management responsibilities, or direct or indirect ownership, to an applicant from a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor or the vendor's alternate payee, and the applicant knows or should have known of such debt.

(5) There is a credible allegation of the use, transfer, or lease of assets of any kind to an applicant who is a spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, relative by marriage, nephew, cousin, or relative of a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department have been made.

(6) There is a credible allegation that the applicant's previous affiliations with a provider of medical services that has an uncollected debt, a provider that has been or is subject to a payment suspension under a federal health care program, or a provider that has been previously excluded from participation in the medical assistance program, poses a risk of fraud, waste, or abuse to the Illinois Department.

As used in this subsection, "credible allegation" is defined to include an allegation from any source, including, but not limited to, fraud hotline complaints, claims data mining, patterns identified through provider audits, civil actions filed under the Illinois False Claims Act, and law enforcement investigations. An allegation is considered to be credible when it has indicia of reliability.

(B) The Illinois Department shall deny, suspend or terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution or other legal entity to participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a vendor:

(1) immediately, if such vendor is not properly licensed, certified, or authorized;

(2) within 30 days of the date when such vendor's professional license, certification or other authorization has been refused renewal, restricted, revoked, suspended, or otherwise terminated; or

(3) if such vendor has been convicted of a violation of this Code, as provided in Article VIIIA.

(C) Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a vendor of goods or services from participation in the medical assistance program authorized by this Article, a person with management responsibility for such vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion is barred from participation in the medical assistance program.

Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a corporate vendor, the officers and persons owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in the vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion are barred from participation in the medical assistance program. A person who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor may not transfer his or her ownership interest in that vendor to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a sole proprietorship or partnership, the owner or partners during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion are barred from participation in the medical assistance program. The owner of a terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor that is a sole proprietorship, and a partner in a terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor that is a partnership, may not transfer his or her ownership or partnership interest in that vendor to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

A person who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor who owes a debt to the Department, if that vendor has not made payment arrangements acceptable to the Department, shall not transfer his or her ownership interest in that vendor, or vendor assets of any kind, to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

Rules adopted by the Illinois Department to implement these provisions shall specifically include a definition of the term "management responsibility" as used in this Section. Such definition shall include, but not be limited to, typical job titles, and duties and descriptions which will be considered as within the definition of individuals with management responsibility for a provider.

A vendor or a prior vendor who has been terminated, excluded, or suspended from the medical assistance program, or from another state or federal medical assistance or health care program, and any individual currently or previously barred from the medical assistance program, or from another state or federal medical assistance or health care program, as a result of being an officer or a person owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion, may be required to post a surety bond as part of a condition of enrollment or participation in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of the bond.

A vendor or a prior vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department and any individual currently or previously barred from the medical assistance program, or from another state or federal medical assistance or health care program, as a result of being an officer or a person owning, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in that corporate or limited liability company vendor during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for the debt, may be required to post a surety bond as part of a condition of enrollment or participation in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of the bond.

(D) If a vendor has been suspended from the medical assistance program under Article V of the Code, the Director may require that such vendor correct any deficiencies which served as the basis for the suspension. The Director shall specify in the suspension order a specific period of time, which shall not exceed one year from the date of the order, during which a suspended vendor shall not be eligible to participate. At the conclusion of the period of suspension the Director shall reinstate such vendor, unless he finds that such vendor has not corrected deficiencies upon which the suspension was based.

If a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded from the medical assistance program under Article V, such vendor shall be barred from participation for at least one year, except that if a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded based on a conviction of a violation of Article VIIIA or a conviction of a felony based on fraud or a willful misrepresentation related to (i) the medical assistance program under Article V, (ii) a federal or another state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the provision of health care services, then the vendor shall be barred from participation for 5 years or for the length of the vendor's sentence for that conviction, whichever is longer. At the end of one year a vendor who has been terminated, suspended, or excluded may apply for reinstatement to the program. Upon proper application to be reinstated such vendor may be deemed eligible by the Director providing that such vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code. If such vendor is deemed not eligible for reinstatement, he shall be barred from again applying for reinstatement for one year from the date his application for reinstatement is denied.

A vendor whose termination, suspension, or exclusion from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program under Article V was based solely on an action by a governmental entity other than the Illinois Department may, upon reinstatement by that governmental entity or upon reversal of the termination, suspension, or exclusion, apply for rescission of the termination, suspension, or exclusion from participation in the Illinois medical assistance program. Upon proper application for rescission, the vendor may be deemed eligible by the Director if the vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code.

If a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded and reinstated to the medical assistance program under Article V and the vendor is terminated, suspended, or excluded a second or subsequent time from the medical assistance program, the vendor shall be barred from participation for at least 2 years, except that if a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded a second time based on a conviction of a violation of Article VIIIA or a conviction of a felony based on fraud or a willful misrepresentation related to (i) the medical assistance program under Article V, (ii) a federal or another state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the provision of health care services, then the vendor shall be barred from participation for life. At the end of 2 years, a vendor who has been terminated, suspended, or excluded may apply for reinstatement to the program. Upon application to be reinstated, the vendor may be deemed eligible if the vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code. If the vendor is deemed not eligible for reinstatement, the vendor shall be barred from again applying for reinstatement for 2 years from the date the vendor's application for reinstatement is denied.

(E) The Illinois Department may recover money improperly or erroneously paid, or overpayments, either by setoff, crediting against future billings or by requiring direct repayment to the Illinois Department. The Illinois Department may suspend or deny payment, in whole or in part, if such payment would be improper or erroneous or would otherwise result in overpayment.

(1) Payments may be suspended, denied, or recovered from a vendor or alternate payee: (i) for services rendered in violation of the Illinois Department's provider notices, statutes, rules, and regulations; (ii) for services rendered in violation of the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its vendor agreement; (iii) for any vendor who fails to grant the Office of Inspector General timely access to full and complete records, including, but not limited to, records relating to recipients under the medical assistance program for the most recent 6 years, in accordance with Section 140.28 of Title 89 of the Illinois Administrative Code, and other information for the purpose of audits, investigations, or other program integrity functions, after reasonable written request by the Inspector General; this subsection (E) does not require vendors to make available the medical records of patients for whom services are not reimbursed under this Code or to provide access to medical records more than 6 years old; (iv) when the vendor has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false statement or representation of a material fact in connection with the administration of the medical assistance program; or (v) when the vendor previously rendered services while terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation in the medical assistance program or while terminated or excluded from participation in another state or federal medical assistance or health care program.

(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a vendor has the same taxpayer identification number (assigned under Section 6109 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) as is assigned to a vendor with past-due financial obligations to the Illinois Department, the Illinois Department may make any necessary adjustments to payments to that vendor in order to satisfy any past-due obligations, regardless of whether the vendor is assigned a different billing number under the medical assistance program.

If the Illinois Department establishes through an administrative hearing that the overpayments resulted from the vendor or alternate payee knowingly making, using, or causing to be made or used, a false record or statement to obtain payment or other benefit from the medical assistance program under Article V, the Department may recover interest on the amount of the payment or other benefit at the rate of 5% per annum. In addition to any other penalties that may be prescribed by law, such a vendor or alternate payee shall be subject to civil penalties consisting of an amount not to exceed 3 times the amount of payment or other benefit resulting from each such false record or statement, and the sum of $2,000 for each such false record or statement for payment or other benefit. For purposes of this paragraph, "knowingly" means that a vendor or alternate payee with respect to information: (i) has actual knowledge of the information, (ii) acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the information, or (iii) acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the information. No proof of specific intent to defraud is required.

(F) The Illinois Department may withhold payments to any vendor or alternate payee prior to or during the pendency of any audit or proceeding under this Section, and through the pendency of any administrative appeal or administrative review by any court proceeding. The Illinois Department shall state by rule with as much specificity as practicable the conditions under which payments will not be withheld under this Section. Payments may be denied for bills submitted with service dates occurring during the pendency of a proceeding, after a final decision has been rendered, or after the conclusion of any administrative appeal, where the final administrative decision is to terminate, exclude, or suspend eligibility to participate in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall state by rule with as much specificity as practicable the conditions under which payments will not be denied for such bills. The Illinois Department shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a vendor or alternate payee may request full or partial release of payments withheld under this subsection. The Department must complete a proceeding under this Section in a timely manner.

Notwithstanding recovery allowed under subsection (E) or this subsection (F), the Illinois Department may withhold payments to any vendor or alternate payee who is not properly licensed, certified, or in compliance with State or federal agency regulations. Payments may be denied for bills submitted with service dates occurring during the period of time that a vendor is not properly licensed, certified, or in compliance with State or federal regulations. Facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act shall have payments denied or withheld pursuant to subsection (I) of this Section.

(F-5) The Illinois Department may temporarily withhold payments to a vendor or alternate payee if any of the following individuals have been indicted or otherwise charged under a law of the United States or this or any other state with an offense that is based on alleged fraud or willful misrepresentation on the part of the individual related to (i) the medical assistance program under Article V of this Code, (ii) a federal or another state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the provision of health care services:

(1) If the vendor or alternate payee is a corporation: an officer of the corporation or an individual who owns, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidence of ownership of the corporation.

(2) If the vendor is a sole proprietorship: the owner of the sole proprietorship.

(3) If the vendor or alternate payee is a partnership: a partner in the partnership.

(4) If the vendor or alternate payee is any other business entity authorized by law to transact business in this State: an officer of the entity or an individual who owns, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the evidences of ownership of the entity.

If the Illinois Department withholds payments to a vendor or alternate payee under this subsection, the Department shall not release those payments to the vendor or alternate payee while any criminal proceeding related to the indictment or charge is pending unless the Department determines that there is good cause to release the payments before completion of the proceeding. If the indictment or charge results in the individual's conviction, the Illinois Department shall retain all withheld payments, which shall be considered forfeited to the Department. If the indictment or charge does not result in the individual's conviction, the Illinois Department shall release to the vendor or alternate payee all withheld payments.

(F-10) If the Illinois Department establishes that the vendor or alternate payee owes a debt to the Illinois Department, and the vendor or alternate payee subsequently fails to pay or make satisfactory payment arrangements with the Illinois Department for the debt owed, the Illinois Department may seek all remedies available under the law of this State to recover the debt, including, but not limited to, wage garnishment or the filing of claims or liens against the vendor or alternate payee.

(F-15) Enforcement of judgment.

(1) Any fine, recovery amount, other sanction, or costs imposed, or part of any fine, recovery amount, other sanction, or cost imposed, remaining unpaid after the exhaustion of or the failure to exhaust judicial review procedures under the Illinois Administrative Review Law is a debt due and owing the State and may be collected using all remedies available under the law.

(2) After expiration of the period in which judicial review under the Illinois Administrative Review Law may be sought for a final administrative decision, unless stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction, the findings, decision, and order of the Director may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(3) In any case in which any person or entity has failed to comply with a judgment ordering or imposing any fine or other sanction, any expenses incurred by the Illinois Department to enforce the judgment, including, but not limited to, attorney's fees, court costs, and costs related to property demolition or foreclosure, after they are fixed by a court of competent jurisdiction or the Director, shall be a debt due and owing the State and may be collected in accordance with applicable law. Prior to any expenses being fixed by a final administrative decision pursuant to this subsection (F-15), the Illinois Department shall provide notice to the individual or entity that states that the individual or entity shall appear at a hearing before the administrative hearing officer to determine whether the individual or entity has failed to comply with the judgment. The notice shall set the date for such a hearing, which shall not be less than 7 days from the date that notice is served. If notice is served by mail, the 7-day period shall begin to run on the date that the notice was deposited in the mail.

(4) Upon being recorded in the manner required by Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure or by the Uniform Commercial Code, a lien shall be imposed on the real estate or personal estate, or both, of the individual or entity in the amount of any debt due and owing the State under this Section. The lien may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction. A lien shall attach to all property and assets of such person, firm, corporation, association, agency, institution, or other legal entity until the judgment is satisfied.

(5) The Director may set aside any judgment entered by default and set a new hearing date upon a petition filed at any time (i) if the petitioner's failure to appear at the hearing was for good cause, or (ii) if the petitioner established that the Department did not provide proper service of process. If any judgment is set aside pursuant to this paragraph (5), the hearing officer shall have authority to enter an order extinguishing any lien which has been recorded for any debt due and owing the Illinois Department as a result of the vacated default judgment.

(G) The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Illinois Department under this Section. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(G-5) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm.

(1) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, the Department may terminate, suspend, or exclude vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm from participation in the medical assistance program prior to an evidentiary hearing but after reasonable notice and opportunity to respond as established by the Department by rule.

(2) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm shall submit to a fingerprint-based criminal background check on current and future information available in the State system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system by submitting all necessary fees and information in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The following individuals shall be subject to the check:

(A) In the case of a vendor that is a corporation, every shareholder who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the outstanding shares of the corporation.

(B) In the case of a vendor that is a partnership, every partner.

(C) In the case of a vendor that is a sole proprietorship, the sole proprietor.

(D) Each officer or manager of the vendor.

Each such vendor shall be responsible for payment of the cost of the criminal background check.

(3) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm may be required to post a surety bond. The Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of the bond.

(4) The Department, or its agents, may refuse to accept requests for authorization from specific vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm, including prior-approval and post-approval requests, if:

(A) the Department has initiated a notice of termination, suspension, or exclusion of the vendor from participation in the medical assistance program; or

(B) the Department has issued notification of its withholding of payments pursuant to subsection (F-5) of this Section; or

(C) the Department has issued a notification of its withholding of payments due to reliable evidence of fraud or willful misrepresentation pending investigation.

(5) As used in this subsection, the following terms are defined as follows:

(A) "Fraud" means an intentional deception or misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge that the deception could result in some unauthorized benefit to himself or herself or some other person. It includes any act that constitutes fraud under applicable federal or State law.

(B) "Abuse" means provider practices that are inconsistent with sound fiscal, business, or medical practices and that result in an unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program or in reimbursement for services that are not medically necessary or that fail to meet professionally recognized standards for health care. It also includes recipient practices that result in unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program. Abuse does not include diagnostic or therapeutic measures conducted primarily as a safeguard against possible vendor liability.

(C) "Waste" means the unintentional misuse of medical assistance resources, resulting in unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program. Waste does not include diagnostic or therapeutic measures conducted primarily as a safeguard against possible vendor liability.

(D) "Harm" means physical, mental, or monetary damage to recipients or to the medical assistance program.

(G-6) The Illinois Department, upon making a determination based upon information in the possession of the Illinois Department that continuation of participation in the medical assistance program by a vendor would constitute an immediate danger to the public, may immediately suspend such vendor's participation in the medical assistance program without a hearing. In instances in which the Illinois Department immediately suspends the medical assistance program participation of a vendor under this Section, a hearing upon the vendor's participation must be convened by the Illinois Department within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. Such hearing shall be held to determine whether to recommend to the Director that the vendor's medical assistance program participation be denied, terminated, suspended, placed on provisional status, or reinstated. In the hearing, any evidence relevant to the vendor constituting an immediate danger to the public may be introduced against such vendor; provided, however, that the vendor, or his or her counsel, shall have the opportunity to discredit, impeach, and submit evidence rebutting such evidence.

(H) Nothing contained in this Code shall in any way limit or otherwise impair the authority or power of any State agency responsible for licensing of vendors.

(I) Based on a finding of noncompliance on the part of a nursing home with any requirement for certification under Title XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et seq. or 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396 et seq.), the Illinois Department may impose one or more of the following remedies after notice to the facility:

(1) Termination of the provider agreement.

(2) Temporary management.

(3) Denial of payment for new admissions.

(4) Civil money penalties.

(5) Closure of the facility in emergency situations or transfer of residents, or both.

(6) State monitoring.

(7) Denial of all payments when the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services has imposed this sanction.

The Illinois Department shall by rule establish criteria governing continued payments to a nursing facility subsequent to termination of the facility's provider agreement if, in the sole discretion of the Illinois Department, circumstances affecting the health, safety, and welfare of the facility's residents require those continued payments. The Illinois Department may condition those continued payments on the appointment of temporary management, sale of the facility to new owners or operators, or other arrangements that the Illinois Department determines best serve the needs of the facility's residents.

Except in the case of a facility that has a right to a hearing on the finding of noncompliance before an agency of the federal government, a facility may request a hearing before a State agency on any finding of noncompliance within 60 days after the notice of the intent to impose a remedy. Except in the case of civil money penalties, a request for a hearing shall not delay imposition of the penalty. The choice of remedies is not appealable at a hearing. The level of noncompliance may be challenged only in the case of a civil money penalty. The Illinois Department shall provide by rule for the State agency that will conduct the evidentiary hearings.

The Illinois Department may collect interest on unpaid civil money penalties.

The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to implement this subsection (I).

(J) The Illinois Department, by rule, may permit individual practitioners to designate that Department payments that may be due the practitioner be made to an alternate payee or alternate payees.

(a) Such alternate payee or alternate payees shall be required to register as an alternate payee in the Medical Assistance Program with the Illinois Department.

(b) If a practitioner designates an alternate payee, the alternate payee and practitioner shall be jointly and severally liable to the Department for payments made to the alternate payee. Pursuant to subsection (E) of this Section, any Department action to suspend or deny payment or recover money or overpayments from an alternate payee shall be subject to an administrative hearing.

(c) Registration as an alternate payee or alternate payees in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program shall be conditional. At any time, the Illinois Department may deny or cancel any alternate payee's registration in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program without cause. Any such denial or cancellation is not subject to an administrative hearing.

(d) The Illinois Department may seek a revocation of any alternate payee, and all owners, officers, and individuals with management responsibility for such alternate payee shall be permanently prohibited from participating as an owner, an officer, or an individual with management responsibility with an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, if after reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing the Illinois Department finds that:

(1) the alternate payee is not complying with the Department's policy or rules and regulations, or with the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its alternate payee registration agreement; or

(2) the alternate payee has failed to keep or make available for inspection, audit, or copying, after receiving a written request from the Illinois Department, such records regarding payments claimed as an alternate payee; or

(3) the alternate payee has failed to furnish any information requested by the Illinois Department regarding payments claimed as an alternate payee; or

(4) the alternate payee has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false statement or representation of a material fact in connection with the administration of the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(5) the alternate payee, a person with management responsibility for an alternate payee, an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate alternate payee, or a partner in a partnership which is an alternate payee:

(a) was previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code; or

(b) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code, during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion or alternate payee's revocation; or

(c) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code, during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or

(d) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner in a partnership previously terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation as a vendor in a medical assistance program in another state that is of the same kind as the program of medical assistance provided under Article V of this Code, during the time of conduct which was the basis for that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion or alternate payee's revocation; or

(6) the alternate payee, a person with management responsibility for an alternate payee, an officer or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate alternate payee, or a partner in a partnership which is an alternate payee:

(a) has engaged in conduct prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(b) was a person with management responsibility for a vendor or alternate payee at the time that the vendor or alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(c) was an officer, or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a vendor or alternate payee at the time such vendor or alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(d) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or partner in a partnership which was a vendor or alternate payee at the time such vendor or alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by applicable federal or State law or regulation relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance Program; or

(7) the direct or indirect ownership of the vendor or alternate payee (including the ownership of a vendor or alternate payee that is a partner's interest in a vendor or alternate payee, or ownership of 5% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor or alternate payee) has been transferred by an individual who is terminated, suspended, or excluded or barred from participating as a vendor or is prohibited or revoked as an alternate payee to the individual's spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.

(K) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services may withhold payments, in whole or in part, to a provider or alternate payee where there is credible evidence, received from State or federal law enforcement or federal oversight agencies or from the results of a preliminary Department audit, that the circumstances giving rise to the need for a withholding of payments may involve fraud or willful misrepresentation under the Illinois Medical Assistance program. The Department shall by rule define what constitutes "credible" evidence for purposes of this subsection. The Department may withhold payments without first notifying the provider or alternate payee of its intention to withhold such payments. A provider or alternate payee may request a reconsideration of payment withholding, and the Department must grant such a request. The Department shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a provider or alternate payee may request full or partial release of payments withheld under this subsection. This request may be made at any time after the Department first withholds such payments.

(a) The Illinois Department must send notice of its withholding of program payments within 5 days of taking such action. The notice must set forth the general allegations as to the nature of the withholding action, but need not disclose any specific information concerning its ongoing investigation. The notice must do all of the following:

(1) State that payments are being withheld in accordance with this subsection.

(2) State that the withholding is for a temporary period, as stated in paragraph (b) of this subsection, and cite the circumstances under which withholding will be terminated.

(3) Specify, when appropriate, which type or types of Medicaid claims withholding is effective.

(4) Inform the provider or alternate payee of the right to submit written evidence for reconsideration of the withholding by the Illinois Department.

(5) Inform the provider or alternate payee that a written request may be made to the Illinois Department for full or partial release of withheld payments and that such requests may be made at any time after the Department first withholds such payments.

(b) All withholding-of-payment actions under this subsection shall be temporary and shall not continue after any of the following:

(1) The Illinois Department or the prosecuting authorities determine that there is insufficient evidence of fraud or willful misrepresentation by the provider or alternate payee.

(2) Legal proceedings related to the provider's or alternate payee's alleged fraud, willful misrepresentation, violations of this Act, or violations of the Illinois Department's administrative rules are completed.

(3) The withholding of payments for a period of 3 years.

(c) The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to implement this subsection (K).

(K-5) The Illinois Department may withhold payments, in whole or in part, to a provider or alternate payee upon initiation of an audit, quality of care review, investigation when there is a credible allegation of fraud, or the provider or alternate payee demonstrating a clear failure to cooperate with the Illinois Department such that the circumstances give rise to the need for a withholding of payments. As used in this subsection, "credible allegation" is defined to include an allegation from any source, including, but not limited to, fraud hotline complaints, claims data mining, patterns identified through provider audits, civil actions filed under the Illinois False Claims Act, and law enforcement investigations. An allegation is considered to be credible when it has indicia of reliability. The Illinois Department may withhold payments without first notifying the provider or alternate payee of its intention to withhold such payments. A provider or alternate payee may request a hearing or a reconsideration of payment withholding, and the Illinois Department must grant such a request. The Illinois Department shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a provider or alternate payee may request a hearing or a reconsideration for the full or partial release of payments withheld under this subsection. This request may be made at any time after the Illinois Department first withholds such payments.

(a) The Illinois Department must send notice of its withholding of program payments within 5 days of taking such action. The notice must set forth the general allegations as to the nature of the withholding action but need not disclose any specific information concerning its ongoing investigation. The notice must do all of the following:

(1) State that payments are being withheld in accordance with this subsection.

(2) State that the withholding is for a temporary period, as stated in paragraph (b) of this subsection, and cite the circumstances under which withholding will be terminated.

(3) Specify, when appropriate, which type or types of claims are withheld.

(4) Inform the provider or alternate payee of the right to request a hearing or a reconsideration of the withholding by the Illinois Department, including the ability to submit written evidence.

(5) Inform the provider or alternate payee that a written request may be made to the Illinois Department for a hearing or a reconsideration for the full or partial release of withheld payments and that such requests may be made at any time after the Illinois Department first withholds such payments.

(b) All withholding of payment actions under this subsection shall be temporary and shall not continue after any of the following:

(1) The Illinois Department determines that there is insufficient evidence of fraud, or the provider or alternate payee demonstrates clear cooperation with the Illinois Department, as determined by the Illinois Department, such that the circumstances do not give rise to the need for withholding of payments; or

(2) The withholding of payments has lasted for a period in excess of 3 years.

(c) The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to implement this subsection (K-5).

(L) The Illinois Department shall establish a protocol to enable health care providers to disclose an actual or potential violation of this Section pursuant to a self-referral disclosure protocol, referred to in this subsection as "the protocol". The protocol shall include direction for health care providers on a specific person, official, or office to whom such disclosures shall be made. The Illinois Department shall post information on the protocol on the Illinois Department's public website. The Illinois Department may adopt rules necessary to implement this subsection (L). In addition to other factors that the Illinois Department finds appropriate, the Illinois Department may consider a health care provider's timely use or failure to use the protocol in considering the provider's failure to comply with this Code.

(M) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department, at its discretion, may exempt an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act and the ID/DD Community Care Act from the provisions of subsections (A-15), (B), and (C) of this Section if the licensed entity is in receivership.

(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 8-3-12.)

Section 510. The Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(325 ILCS 2/25)

Sec. 25. Immunity for relinquishing person.

(a) The act of relinquishing a newborn infant to a hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility in accordance with this Act does not, by itself, constitute a basis for a finding of abuse, neglect, or abandonment of the infant pursuant to the laws of this State nor does it, by itself, constitute a violation of Section 12C-5 or 12C-10 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(b) If there is suspected child abuse or neglect that is not based solely on the newborn infant's relinquishment to a hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility, the personnel of the hospital, police station, fire station, or emergency medical facility who are mandated reporters under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act must report the abuse or neglect pursuant to that Act.

(c) Neither a child protective investigation nor a criminal investigation may be initiated solely because a newborn infant is relinquished pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 515. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, 4.5, 7, 7.6, and 7.8 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 2053)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act unless the context otherwise requires:

"Adult resident" means any person between 18 and 22 years of age who resides in any facility licensed by the Department under the Child Care Act of 1969. For purposes of this Act, the criteria set forth in the definitions of "abused child" and "neglected child" shall be used in determining whether an adult resident is abused or neglected.

"Blatant disregard" means an incident where the real, significant, and imminent risk of harm would be so obvious to a reasonable parent or caretaker that it is unlikely that a reasonable parent or caretaker would have exposed the child to the danger without exercising precautionary measures to protect the child from harm.

"Child" means any person under the age of 18 years, unless legally emancipated by reason of marriage or entry into a branch of the United States armed services.

"Department" means Department of Children and Family Services.

"Local law enforcement agency" means the police of a city, town, village or other incorporated area or the sheriff of an unincorporated area or any sworn officer of the Illinois Department of State Police.

"Abused child" means a child whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the child's welfare, or any individual residing in the same home as the child, or a paramour of the child's parent:

(a) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon such child physical injury, by other than accidental means, which causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(b) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to such child by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(c) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against such child, as such sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended, or in the Wrongs to Children Act, and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include children under 18 years of age;

(d) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon such child;

(e) inflicts excessive corporal punishment;

(f) commits or allows to be committed the offense of female genital mutilation, as defined in Section 12-34 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, against the child;

(g) causes to be sold, transferred, distributed, or given to such child under 18 years of age, a controlled substance as defined in Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act in violation of Article IV of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or in violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, except for controlled substances that are prescribed in accordance with Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and are dispensed to such child in a manner that substantially complies with the prescription; or

(h) commits or allows to be committed the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons as defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 against the child.

A child shall not be considered abused for the sole reason that the child has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

"Neglected child" means any child who is not receiving the proper or necessary nourishment or medically indicated treatment including food or care not provided solely on the basis of the present or anticipated mental or physical impairment as determined by a physician acting alone or in consultation with other physicians or otherwise is not receiving the proper or necessary support or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a child's well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being, including adequate food, clothing and shelter; or who is subjected to an environment which is injurious insofar as (i) the child's environment creates a likelihood of harm to the child's health, physical well-being, or welfare and (ii) the likely harm to the child is the result of a blatant disregard of parent or caretaker responsibilities; or who is abandoned by his or her parents or other person responsible for the child's welfare without a proper plan of care; or who has been provided with interim crisis intervention services under Section 3-5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and whose parent, guardian, or custodian refuses to permit the child to return home and no other living arrangement agreeable to the parent, guardian, or custodian can be made, and the parent, guardian, or custodian has not made any other appropriate living arrangement for the child; or who is a newborn infant whose blood, urine, or meconium contains any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a metabolite thereof, with the exception of a controlled substance or metabolite thereof whose presence in the newborn infant is the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant. A child shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for his or her welfare has left the child in the care of an adult relative for any period of time. A child shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the child has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act. A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that such child's parent or other person responsible for his or her welfare depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care as provided under Section 4 of this Act. A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of The School Code, as amended.

"Child Protective Service Unit" means certain specialized State employees of the Department assigned by the Director to perform the duties and responsibilities as provided under Section 7.2 of this Act.

"Person responsible for the child's welfare" means the child's parent; guardian; foster parent; relative caregiver; any person responsible for the child's welfare in a public or private residential agency or institution; any person responsible for the child's welfare within a public or private profit or not for profit child care facility; or any other person responsible for the child's welfare at the time of the alleged abuse or neglect, including any person that is the custodian of a child under 18 years of age who commits or allows to be committed, against the child, the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons for forced labor or services, as provided in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, or any person who came to know the child through an official capacity or position of trust, including but not limited to health care professionals, educational personnel, recreational supervisors, members of the clergy, and volunteers or support personnel in any setting where children may be subject to abuse or neglect.

"Temporary protective custody" means custody within a hospital or other medical facility or a place previously designated for such custody by the Department, subject to review by the Court, including a licensed foster home, group home, or other institution; but such place shall not be a jail or other place for the detention of criminal or juvenile offenders.

"An unfounded report" means any report made under this Act for which it is determined after an investigation that no credible evidence of abuse or neglect exists.

"An indicated report" means a report made under this Act if an investigation determines that credible evidence of the alleged abuse or neglect exists.

"An undetermined report" means any report made under this Act in which it was not possible to initiate or complete an investigation on the basis of information provided to the Department.

"Subject of report" means any child reported to the central register of child abuse and neglect established under Section 7.7 of this Act as an alleged victim of child abuse or neglect and the parent or guardian of the alleged victim or other person responsible for the alleged victim's welfare who is named in the report or added to the report as an alleged perpetrator of child abuse or neglect.

"Perpetrator" means a person who, as a result of investigation, has been determined by the Department to have caused child abuse or neglect.

"Member of the clergy" means a clergyman or practitioner of any religious denomination accredited by the religious body to which he or she belongs.

(Source: P.A. 96-1196, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1446, eff. 8-20-10; 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-803, eff. 7-13-12; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1063, eff. 8-24-12; revised 9-20-12.)

(325 ILCS 5/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 2054)

Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged communications; transmitting false report. Any physician, resident, intern, hospital, hospital administrator and personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of persons, surgeon, dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatrist, physician assistant, substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home director or employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical technician, acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel, school personnel (including administrators and both certified and non-certified school employees), personnel of institutions of higher education, educational advocate assigned to a child pursuant to the School Code, member of a school board or the Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private school (but only to the extent required in accordance with other provisions of this Section expressly concerning the duty of school board members to report suspected child abuse), truant officers, social worker, social services administrator, domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, genetic counselor, respiratory care practitioner, advanced practice nurse, home health aide, director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day care center, recreational or athletic program or facility personnel, early intervention provider as defined in the Early Intervention Services System Act, law enforcement officer, licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical professional counselor, registered psychologist and assistants working under the direct supervision of a psychologist, psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Juvenile Justice, Public Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid), Corrections, Human Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, probation officer, animal control officer or Illinois Department of Agriculture Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare field investigator, or any other foster parent, homemaker or child care worker having reasonable cause to believe a child known to them in their professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe that a child known to that member of the clergy in his or her professional capacity may be an abused child as defined in item (c) of the definition of "abused child" in Section 3 of this Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any physician, physician's assistant, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified nursing assistant, social worker, or licensed professional counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives having reasonable cause to believe a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

If an allegation is raised to a school board member during the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an employee of a school district has made a report or caused a report to be made to the Department under this Act involving the conduct of a current or former employee of the school district and a request is made by another school district for the provision of information concerning the job performance or qualifications of the current or former employee because he or she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school district, the general superintendent of the school district to which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting school district the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school district to which the request for information concerning the applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases where the employee and the general superintendent have not been informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded. An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her employment with the school district must be informed by that school district that if he or she applies for employment with another school district, the general superintendent of the former school district, upon the request of the school district to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting school district that the employee is or was the subject of such a report.

Whenever such person is required to report under this Act in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of such report to the Department.

The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused or neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for failure to share information or documents with the Department during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in writing that the information or documents disclosed by the professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation.

A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives shall provide to all office personnel copies of written information and training materials about abuse and neglect and the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child. In addition to the above persons required to report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any other person may make a report if such person has reasonable cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected child.

Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1, 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the statement shall be borne by the employer.

The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon request, to all employers employing persons who shall be required under the provisions of this Section to report under this Act.

Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961". A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.

Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent violation of transmitting a false report as described in the preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other prior offense).

A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices such beliefs.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.

Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-494, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1446, eff. 8-20-10; 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-254, eff. 1-1-12; 97-387, eff. 8-15-11; 97-711, eff. 6-27-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(325 ILCS 5/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Electronic and information technology workers; reporting child pornography.

(a) In this Section:

"Child pornography" means child pornography as described in Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or aggravated child pornography as described in Section 11-20.1B of the Criminal Code of 1961.

"Electronic and information technology equipment" means equipment used in the creation, manipulation, storage, display, or transmission of data, including internet and intranet systems, software applications, operating systems, video and multimedia, telecommunications products, kiosks, information transaction machines, copiers, printers, and desktop and portable computers.

"Electronic and information technology equipment worker" means a person who in the scope and course of his or her employment or business installs, repairs, or otherwise services electronic and information technology equipment for a fee but does not include (i) an employee, independent contractor, or other agent of a telecommunications carrier or telephone or telecommunications cooperative, as those terms are defined in the Public Utilities Act, or (ii) an employee, independent contractor, or other agent of a provider of commercial mobile radio service, as defined in 47 C.F.R. 20.3.

(b) If an electronic and information technology equipment worker discovers any depiction of child pornography while installing, repairing, or otherwise servicing an item of electronic and information technology equipment, that worker or the worker's employer shall immediately report the discovery to the local law enforcement agency or to the Cyber Tipline at the National Center for Missing & Exploited Children.

(c) If a report is filed in accordance with the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 13032, the requirements of this Section 4.5 will be deemed to have been met.

(d) An electronic and information technology equipment worker or electronic and information technology equipment worker's employer who reports a discovery of child pornography as required under this Section is immune from any criminal, civil, or administrative liability in connection with making the report, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) Failure to report a discovery of child pornography as required under this Section is a business offense subject to a fine of $1,001.

(Source: P.A. 95-944, eff. 8-29-08; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(325 ILCS 5/7) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057)

Sec. 7. Time and manner of making reports. All reports of suspected child abuse or neglect made under this Act shall be made immediately by telephone to the central register established under Section 7.7 on the single, State-wide, toll-free telephone number established in Section 7.6, or in person or by telephone through the nearest Department office. The Department shall, in cooperation with school officials, distribute appropriate materials in school buildings listing the toll-free telephone number established in Section 7.6, including methods of making a report under this Act. The Department may, in cooperation with appropriate members of the clergy, distribute appropriate materials in churches, synagogues, temples, mosques, or other religious buildings listing the toll-free telephone number established in Section 7.6, including methods of making a report under this Act.

Wherever the Statewide number is posted, there shall also be posted the following notice:

"Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. A violation of this subsection is a Class 4 felony."

The report required by this Act shall include, if known, the name and address of the child and his parents or other persons having his custody; the child's age; the nature of the child's condition including any evidence of previous injuries or disabilities; and any other information that the person filing the report believes might be helpful in establishing the cause of such abuse or neglect and the identity of the person believed to have caused such abuse or neglect. Reports made to the central register through the State-wide, toll-free telephone number shall be immediately transmitted by the Department to the appropriate Child Protective Service Unit. All such reports alleging the death of a child, serious injury to a child including, but not limited to, brain damage, skull fractures, subdural hematomas, and internal injuries, torture of a child, malnutrition of a child, and sexual abuse to a child, including, but not limited to, sexual intercourse, sexual exploitation, sexual molestation, and sexually transmitted disease in a child age 12 and under, shall also be immediately transmitted by the Department to the appropriate local law enforcement agency. The Department shall within 24 hours orally notify local law enforcement personnel and the office of the State's Attorney of the involved county of the receipt of any report alleging the death of a child, serious injury to a child including, but not limited to, brain damage, skull fractures, subdural hematomas, and, internal injuries, torture of a child, malnutrition of a child, and sexual abuse to a child, including, but not limited to, sexual intercourse, sexual exploitation, sexual molestation, and sexually transmitted disease in a child age twelve and under. All oral reports made by the Department to local law enforcement personnel and the office of the State's Attorney of the involved county shall be confirmed in writing within 24 hours of the oral report. All reports by persons mandated to report under this Act shall be confirmed in writing to the appropriate Child Protective Service Unit, which may be on forms supplied by the Department, within 48 hours of any initial report.

Written confirmation reports from persons not required to report by this Act may be made to the appropriate Child Protective Service Unit. Written reports from persons required by this Act to report shall be admissible in evidence in any judicial proceeding or administrative hearing relating to child abuse or neglect. Reports involving known or suspected child abuse or neglect in public or private residential agencies or institutions shall be made and received in the same manner as all other reports made under this Act.

For purposes of this Section "child" includes an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1446, eff. 8-20-10; 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-387, eff. 8-15-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(325 ILCS 5/7.6) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.6)

Sec. 7.6. There shall be a single State-wide, toll-free telephone number established and maintained by the Department which all persons, whether or not mandated by law, may use to report suspected child abuse or neglect at any hour of the day or night, on any day of the week. Immediately upon receipt of such reports, the Department shall transmit the contents of the report, either orally or electronically, to the appropriate Child Protective Service Unit. Any other person may use the State-wide number to obtain assistance or information concerning the handling of child abuse and neglect cases.

Wherever the Statewide number is posted, there shall also be posted the following notice:

"Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. A violation of this subsection is a Class 4 felony."

(Source: P.A. 97-189, eff. 7-22-11.)

(325 ILCS 5/7.8) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.8)

Sec. 7.8. Upon receiving an oral or written report of suspected child abuse or neglect, the Department shall immediately notify, either orally or electronically, the Child Protective Service Unit of a previous report concerning a subject of the present report or other pertinent information. In addition, upon satisfactory identification procedures, to be established by Department regulation, any person authorized to have access to records under Section 11.1 relating to child abuse and neglect may request and shall be immediately provided the information requested in accordance with this Act. However, no information shall be released unless it prominently states the report is "indicated", and only information from "indicated" reports shall be released, except that information concerning pending reports may be released to any person authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3) and (11) of Section 11.1. In addition, State's Attorneys are authorized to receive unfounded reports for prosecution purposes related to the transmission of false reports of child abuse or neglect in violation of subsection (a), paragraph (7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 and guardians ad litem appointed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall receive the classified reports set forth in Section 7.14 of this Act in conformance with paragraph (19) of Section 11.1 and Section 7.14 of this Act. The names and other identifying data and the dates and the circumstances of any persons requesting or receiving information from the central register shall be entered in the register record.

(Source: P.A. 86-904; 86-1293; 87-649.)

Section 520. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 1a as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/1a) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-1a)

Sec. 1a. Definitions. In this Act:

"Ambulance provider" means an individual or entity that owns and operates a business or service using ambulances or emergency medical services vehicles to transport emergency patients.

"Areawide sexual assault treatment plan" means a plan, developed by the hospitals in the community or area to be served, which provides for hospital emergency services to sexual assault survivors that shall be made available by each of the participating hospitals.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Emergency contraception" means medication as approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that can significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within 72 hours after sexual assault.

"Follow-up healthcare" means healthcare services related to a sexual assault, including laboratory services and pharmacy services, rendered within 90 days of the initial visit for hospital emergency services.

"Forensic services" means the collection of evidence pursuant to a statewide sexual assault evidence collection program administered by the Department of State Police, using the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit.

"Health care professional" means a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse.

"Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Hospital emergency services" means healthcare delivered to outpatients within or under the care and supervision of personnel working in a designated emergency department of a hospital, including, but not limited to, care ordered by such personnel for a sexual assault survivor in the emergency department.

"Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit" means a prepackaged set of materials and forms to be used for the collection of evidence relating to sexual assault. The standardized evidence collection kit for the State of Illinois shall be the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit.

"Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

"Sexual assault" means an act of nonconsensual sexual conduct or sexual penetration, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, including, without limitation, acts prohibited under Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

"Sexual assault survivor" means a person who presents for hospital emergency services in relation to injuries or trauma resulting from a sexual assault.

"Sexual assault transfer plan" means a written plan developed by a hospital and approved by the Department, which describes the hospital's procedures for transferring sexual assault survivors to another hospital in order to receive emergency treatment.

"Sexual assault treatment plan" means a written plan developed by a hospital that describes the hospital's procedures and protocols for providing hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors who present themselves for such services, either directly or through transfer from another hospital.

"Transfer services" means the appropriate medical screening examination and necessary stabilizing treatment prior to the transfer of a sexual assault survivor to a hospital that provides hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors pursuant to a sexual assault treatment plan or areawide sexual assault treatment plan.

(Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 525. The Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 210/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)

Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to practice medicine or surgery, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes provision of services for minors, or a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide services for minors renders emergency treatment or first aid or a licensed dentist renders emergency dental treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole opinion of the physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of consent is not reasonably feasible under the circumstances without adversely affecting the condition of such minor's health.

(b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or criminal sexual abuse, as provided in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as now or hereafter amended, the consent of the minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained to authorize a hospital, physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or other medical personnel to furnish medical care or counseling related to the diagnosis or treatment of any disease or injury arising from such offense. The minor may consent to such counseling, diagnosis or treatment as if the minor had reached his or her age of majority. Such consent shall not be voidable, nor subject to later disaffirmance, because of minority.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 530. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/9) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7309)

Sec. 9. No person may disclose or be compelled to disclose the identity of any person upon whom a test is performed, or the results of such a test in a manner which permits identification of the subject of the test, except to the following persons:

(a) The subject of the test or the subject's legally authorized representative. A physician may notify the spouse of the test subject, if the test result is positive and has been confirmed pursuant to rules adopted by the Department, provided that the physician has first sought unsuccessfully to persuade the patient to notify the spouse or that, a reasonable time after the patient has agreed to make the notification, the physician has reason to believe that the patient has not provided the notification. This paragraph shall not create a duty or obligation under which a physician must notify the spouse of the test results, nor shall such duty or obligation be implied. No civil liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall be imposed for any disclosure or non-disclosure of a test result to a spouse by a physician acting in good faith under this paragraph. For the purpose of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of any physician acting under this paragraph shall be presumed.

(b) Any person designated in a legally effective release of the test results executed by the subject of the test or the subject's legally authorized representative.

(c) An authorized agent or employee of a health facility or health care provider if the health facility or health care provider itself is authorized to obtain the test results, the agent or employee provides patient care or handles or processes specimens of body fluids or tissues, and the agent or employee has a need to know such information.

(d) The Department and local health authorities serving a population of over 1,000,000 residents or other local health authorities as designated by the Department, in accordance with rules for reporting and controlling the spread of disease, as otherwise provided by State law. The Department, local health authorities, and authorized representatives shall not disclose information and records held by them relating to known or suspected cases of AIDS or HIV infection, publicly or in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, or agency. AIDS and HIV infection data shall be protected from disclosure in accordance with the provisions of Sections 8-2101 through 8-2105 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) A health facility or health care provider which procures, processes, distributes or uses: (i) a human body part from a deceased person with respect to medical information regarding that person; or (ii) semen provided prior to the effective date of this Act for the purpose of artificial insemination.

(f) Health facility staff committees for the purposes of conducting program monitoring, program evaluation or service reviews.

(f-5) A court in accordance with the provisions of Section 12-5.01 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Any health care provider or employee of a health facility, and any firefighter or EMT-A, EMT-P, or EMT-I, involved in an accidental direct skin or mucous membrane contact with the blood or bodily fluids of an individual which is of a nature that may transmit HIV, as determined by a physician in his medical judgment.

(i) Any law enforcement officer, as defined in subsection (c) of Section 7, involved in the line of duty in a direct skin or mucous membrane contact with the blood or bodily fluids of an individual which is of a nature that may transmit HIV, as determined by a physician in his medical judgment.

(j) A temporary caretaker of a child taken into temporary protective custody by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to Section 5 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(k) In the case of a minor under 18 years of age whose test result is positive and has been confirmed pursuant to rules adopted by the Department, the health care provider who ordered the test shall make a reasonable effort to notify the minor's parent or legal guardian if, in the professional judgment of the health care provider, notification would be in the best interest of the child and the health care provider has first sought unsuccessfully to persuade the minor to notify the parent or legal guardian or a reasonable time after the minor has agreed to notify the parent or legal guardian, the health care provider has reason to believe that the minor has not made the notification. This subsection shall not create a duty or obligation under which a health care provider must notify the minor's parent or legal guardian of the test results, nor shall a duty or obligation be implied. No civil liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall be imposed for any notification or non-notification of a minor's test result by a health care provider acting in good faith under this subsection. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal, the good faith of any health care provider acting under this subsection shall be presumed.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 97-1046, eff. 8-21-12.)

Section 535. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act is amended by changing Section 5.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 325/5.5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7405.5)

Sec. 5.5. Risk assessment.

(a) Whenever the Department receives a report of HIV infection or AIDS pursuant to this Act and the Department determines that the subject of the report may present or may have presented a possible risk of HIV transmission, the Department shall, when medically appropriate, investigate the subject of the report and that person's contacts as defined in subsection (c), to assess the potential risks of transmission. Any investigation and action shall be conducted in a timely fashion. All contacts other than those defined in subsection (c) shall be investigated in accordance with Section 5 of this Act.

(b) If the Department determines that there is or may have been potential risks of HIV transmission from the subject of the report to other persons, the Department shall afford the subject the opportunity to submit any information and comment on proposed actions the Department intends to take with respect to the subject's contacts who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to notification of the subject's contacts. The Department shall also afford the subject of the report the opportunity to notify the subject's contacts in a timely fashion who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to the Department taking any steps to notify such contacts. If the subject declines to notify such contacts or if the Department determines the notices to be inadequate or incomplete, the Department shall endeavor to notify such other persons of the potential risk, and offer testing and counseling services to these individuals. When the contacts are notified, they shall be informed of the disclosure provisions of the AIDS Confidentiality Act and the penalties therein and this Section.

(c) Contacts investigated under this Section shall in the case of HIV infection include (i) individuals who have undergone invasive procedures performed by an HIV infected health care provider and (ii) health care providers who have performed invasive procedures for persons infected with HIV, provided the Department has determined that there is or may have been potential risk of HIV transmission from the health care provider to those individuals or from infected persons to health care providers. The Department shall have access to the subject's records to review for the identity of contacts. The subject's records shall not be copied or seized by the Department.

For purposes of this subsection, the term "invasive procedures" means those procedures termed invasive by the Centers for Disease Control in current guidelines or recommendations for the prevention of HIV transmission in health care settings, and the term "health care provider" means any physician, dentist, podiatrist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, nurse, or other person providing health care services of any kind.

(d) All information and records held by the Department and local health authorities pertaining to activities conducted pursuant to this Section shall be strictly confidential and exempt from copying and inspection under the Freedom of Information Act. Such information and records shall not be released or made public by the Department or local health authorities, and shall not be admissible as evidence, nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency or person and shall be treated in the same manner as the information and those records subject to the provisions of Part 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure except under the following circumstances:

(1) When made with the written consent of all persons to whom this information pertains;

(2) When authorized under Section 8 to be released under court order or subpoena pursuant to Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(3) When made by the Department for the purpose of seeking a warrant authorized by Sections 6 and 7 of this Act. Such disclosure shall conform to the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 8 of this Act.

(e) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates any information or report concerning the existence of any disease under this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 540. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 22.2, and 44 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1002)

Sec. 2. (a) The General Assembly finds:

(i) that environmental damage seriously endangers the public health and welfare, as more specifically described in later sections of this Act;

(ii) that because environmental damage does not respect political boundaries, it is necessary to establish a unified state-wide program for environmental protection and to cooperate fully with other States and with the United States in protecting the environment;

(iii) that air, water, and other resource pollution, public water supply, solid waste disposal, noise, and other environmental problems are closely interrelated and must be dealt with as a unified whole in order to safeguard the environment;

(iv) that it is the obligation of the State Government to manage its own activities so as to minimize environmental damage; to encourage and assist local governments to adopt and implement environmental-protection programs consistent with this Act; to promote the development of technology for environmental protection and conservation of natural resources; and in appropriate cases to afford financial assistance in preventing environmental damage;

(v) that in order to alleviate the burden on enforcement agencies, to assure that all interests are given a full hearing, and to increase public participation in the task of protecting the environment, private as well as governmental remedies must be provided;

(vi) that despite the existing laws and regulations concerning environmental damage there exist continuing destruction and damage to the environment and harm to the public health, safety and welfare of the people of this State, and that among the most significant sources of this destruction, damage, and harm are the improper and unsafe transportation, treatment, storage, disposal, and dumping of hazardous wastes;

(vii) that it is necessary to supplement and strengthen existing criminal sanctions regarding environmental damage, by enacting specific penalties for injury to public health and welfare and the environment.

(b) It is the purpose of this Act, as more specifically described in later sections, to establish a unified, state-wide program supplemented by private remedies, to restore, protect and enhance the quality of the environment, and to assure that adverse effects upon the environment are fully considered and borne by those who cause them.

(c) The terms and provisions of this Act shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes of this Act as set forth in subsection (b) of this Section, but to the extent that this Act prescribes criminal penalties, it shall be construed in accordance with the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", as amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-1101.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1022.2)

Sec. 22.2. Hazardous waste; fees; liability.

(a) There are hereby created within the State Treasury 2 special funds to be known respectively as the "Hazardous Waste Fund" and the "Hazardous Waste Research Fund", constituted from the fees collected pursuant to this Section. In addition to the fees collected under this Section, the Hazardous Waste Fund shall include other moneys made available from any source for deposit into the Fund.

(b)(1) On and after January 1, 1989, the Agency shall collect from the owner or operator of each of the following sites a fee in the amount of:

(A) 9 cents per gallon or $18.18 per cubic yard, if the hazardous waste disposal site is located off the site where such waste was produced. The maximum amount payable under this subdivision (A) with respect to the hazardous waste generated by a single generator and deposited in monofills is $30,000 per year. If, as a result of the use of multiple monofills, waste fees in excess of the maximum are assessed with respect to a single waste generator, the generator may apply to the Agency for a credit.

(B) 9 cents or $18.18 per cubic yard, if the hazardous waste disposal site is located on the site where such waste was produced, provided however the maximum amount of fees payable under this paragraph (B) is $30,000 per year for each such hazardous waste disposal site.

(C) If the hazardous waste disposal site is an underground injection well, $6,000 per year if not more than 10,000,000 gallons per year are injected, $15,000 per year if more than 10,000,000 gallons but not more than 50,000,000 gallons per year are injected, and $27,000 per year if more than 50,000,000 gallons per year are injected.

(D) 3 cents per gallon or $6.06 per cubic yard of hazardous waste received for treatment at a hazardous waste treatment site, if the hazardous waste treatment site is located off the site where such waste was produced and if such hazardous waste treatment site is owned, controlled and operated by a person other than the generator of such waste. After treatment at such hazardous waste treatment site, the waste shall not be subject to any other fee imposed by this subsection (b). For purposes of this subsection (b), the term "treatment" is defined as in Section 3.505 but shall not include recycling, reclamation or reuse.

(2) The General Assembly shall annually appropriate to the Fund such amounts as it deems necessary to fulfill the purposes of this Act.

(3) The Agency shall have the authority to accept, receive, and administer on behalf of the State any moneys made available to the State from any source for the purposes of the Hazardous Waste Fund set forth in subsection (d) of this Section.

(4) Of the amount collected as fees provided for in this Section, the Agency shall manage the use of such funds to assure that sufficient funds are available for match towards federal expenditures for response action at sites which are listed on the National Priorities List; provided, however, that this shall not apply to additional monies appropriated to the Fund by the General Assembly, nor shall it apply in the event that the Director finds that revenues in the Hazardous Waste Fund must be used to address conditions which create or may create an immediate danger to the environment or public health or to the welfare of the people of the State of Illinois.

(5) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this subsection (b), sludge from a publicly-owned sewage works generated in Illinois, coal mining wastes and refuse generated in Illinois, bottom boiler ash, flyash and flue gas desulphurization sludge from public utility electric generating facilities located in Illinois, and bottom boiler ash and flyash from all incinerators which process solely municipal waste shall not be subject to the fee.

(6) For the purposes of this subsection (b), "monofill" means a facility, or a unit at a facility, that accepts only wastes bearing the same USEPA hazardous waste identification number, or compatible wastes as determined by the Agency.

(c) The Agency shall establish procedures, not later than January 1, 1984, relating to the collection of the fees authorized by this Section. Such procedures shall include, but not be limited to: (1) necessary records identifying the quantities of hazardous waste received or disposed; (2) the form and submission of reports to accompany the payment of fees to the Agency; and (3) the time and manner of payment of fees to the Agency, which payments shall be not more often than quarterly.

(d) Beginning July 1, 1996, the Agency shall deposit all such receipts in the State Treasury to the credit of the Hazardous Waste Fund, except as provided in subsection (e) of this Section. All monies in the Hazardous Waste Fund shall be used by the Agency for the following purposes:

(1) Taking whatever preventive or corrective action is necessary or appropriate, in circumstances certified by the Director, including but not limited to removal or remedial action whenever there is a release or substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide; provided, the Agency shall expend no more than $1,000,000 on any single incident without appropriation by the General Assembly.

(2) To meet any requirements which must be met by the State in order to obtain federal funds pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980, (P.L. 96-510).

(3) In an amount up to 30% of the amount collected as fees provided for in this Section, for use by the Agency to conduct groundwater protection activities, including providing grants to appropriate units of local government which are addressing protection of underground waters pursuant to the provisions of this Act.

(4) To fund the development and implementation of the model pesticide collection program under Section 19.1 of the Illinois Pesticide Act.

(5) To the extent the Agency has received and deposited monies in the Fund other than fees collected under subsection (b) of this Section, to pay for the cost of Agency employees for services provided in reviewing the performance of response actions pursuant to Title XVII of this Act.

(6) In an amount up to 15% of the fees collected annually under subsection (b) of this Section, for use by the Agency for administration of the provisions of this Section.

(e) The Agency shall deposit 10% of all receipts collected under subsection (b) of this Section, but not to exceed $200,000 per year, in the State Treasury to the credit of the Hazardous Waste Research Fund established by this Act. Pursuant to appropriation, all monies in such Fund shall be used by the University of Illinois for the purposes set forth in this subsection.

The University of Illinois may enter into contracts with business, industrial, university, governmental or other qualified individuals or organizations to assist in the research and development intended to recycle, reduce the volume of, separate, detoxify or reduce the hazardous properties of hazardous wastes in Illinois. Monies in the Fund may also be used by the University of Illinois for technical studies, monitoring activities, and educational and research activities which are related to the protection of underground waters. Monies in the Hazardous Waste Research Fund may be used to administer the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act. Monies in the Hazardous Waste Research Fund shall not be used for any sanitary landfill or the acquisition or construction of any facility. This does not preclude the purchase of equipment for the purpose of public demonstration projects. The University of Illinois shall adopt guidelines for cost sharing, selecting, and administering projects under this subsection.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision or rule of law, and subject only to the defenses set forth in subsection (j) of this Section, the following persons shall be liable for all costs of removal or remedial action incurred by the State of Illinois or any unit of local government as a result of a release or substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide:

(1) the owner and operator of a facility or vessel from which there is a release or substantial threat of release of a hazardous substance or pesticide;

(2) any person who at the time of disposal, transport, storage or treatment of a hazardous substance or pesticide owned or operated the facility or vessel used for such disposal, transport, treatment or storage from which there was a release or substantial threat of a release of any such hazardous substance or pesticide;

(3) any person who by contract, agreement, or otherwise has arranged with another party or entity for transport, storage, disposal or treatment of hazardous substances or pesticides owned, controlled or possessed by such person at a facility owned or operated by another party or entity from which facility there is a release or substantial threat of a release of such hazardous substances or pesticides; and

(4) any person who accepts or accepted any hazardous substances or pesticides for transport to disposal, storage or treatment facilities or sites from which there is a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide.

Any monies received by the State of Illinois pursuant to this subsection (f) shall be deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of the Hazardous Waste Fund.

In accordance with the other provisions of this Section, costs of removal or remedial action incurred by a unit of local government may be recovered in an action before the Board brought by the unit of local government under subsection (i) of this Section. Any monies so recovered shall be paid to the unit of local government.

(g)(1) No indemnification, hold harmless, or similar agreement or conveyance shall be effective to transfer from the owner or operator of any vessel or facility or from any person who may be liable for a release or substantial threat of a release under this Section, to any other person the liability imposed under this Section. Nothing in this Section shall bar any agreement to insure, hold harmless or indemnify a party to such agreements for any liability under this Section.

(2) Nothing in this Section, including the provisions of paragraph (g)(1) of this Section, shall bar a cause of action that an owner or operator or any other person subject to liability under this Section, or a guarantor, has or would have, by reason of subrogation or otherwise against any person.

(h) For purposes of this Section:

(1) The term "facility" means:

(A) any building, structure, installation, equipment, pipe or pipeline including but not limited to any pipe into a sewer or publicly owned treatment works, well, pit, pond, lagoon, impoundment, ditch, landfill, storage container, motor vehicle, rolling stock, or aircraft; or

(B) any site or area where a hazardous substance has been deposited, stored, disposed of, placed, or otherwise come to be located.

(2) The term "owner or operator" means:

(A) any person owning or operating a vessel or facility;

(B) in the case of an abandoned facility, any person owning or operating the abandoned facility or any person who owned, operated, or otherwise controlled activities at the abandoned facility immediately prior to such abandonment;

(C) in the case of a land trust as defined in Section 2 of the Land Trustee as Creditor Act, the person owning the beneficial interest in the land trust;

(D) in the case of a fiduciary (other than a land trustee), the estate, trust estate, or other interest in property held in a fiduciary capacity, and not the fiduciary. For the purposes of this Section, "fiduciary" means a trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, receiver, conservator or other person holding a facility or vessel in a fiduciary capacity;

(E) in the case of a "financial institution", meaning the Illinois Housing Development Authority and that term as defined in Section 2 of the Illinois Banking Act, that has acquired ownership, operation, management, or control of a vessel or facility through foreclosure or under the terms of a security interest held by the financial institution or under the terms of an extension of credit made by the financial institution, the financial institution only if the financial institution takes possession of the vessel or facility and the financial institution exercises actual, direct, and continual or recurrent managerial control in the operation of the vessel or facility that causes a release or substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide resulting in removal or remedial action;

(F) In the case of an owner of residential property, the owner if the owner is a person other than an individual, or if the owner is an individual who owns more than 10 dwelling units in Illinois, or if the owner, or an agent, representative, contractor, or employee of the owner, has caused, contributed to, or allowed the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance or pesticide. The term "residential property" means single family residences of one to 4 dwelling units, including accessory land, buildings, or improvements incidental to those dwellings that are exclusively used for the residential use. For purposes of this subparagraph (F), the term "individual" means a natural person, and shall not include corporations, partnerships, trusts, or other non-natural persons.

(G) In the case of any facility, title or control of which was conveyed due to bankruptcy, foreclosure, tax delinquency, abandonment, or similar means to a unit of State or local government, any person who owned, operated, or otherwise controlled activities at the facility immediately beforehand.

(H) The term "owner or operator" does not include a unit of State or local government which acquired ownership or control through bankruptcy, tax delinquency, abandonment, or other circumstances in which the government acquires title by virtue of its function as sovereign. The exclusion provided under this paragraph shall not apply to any State or local government which has caused or contributed to the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance from the facility, and such a State or local government shall be subject to the provisions of this Act in the same manner and to the same extent, both procedurally and substantively, as any nongovernmental entity, including liability under Section 22.2(f).

(i) The costs and damages provided for in this Section may be imposed by the Board in an action brought before the Board in accordance with Title VIII of this Act, except that Section 33(c) of this Act shall not apply to any such action.

(j)(1) There shall be no liability under this Section for a person otherwise liable who can establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the release or substantial threat of release of a hazardous substance and the damages resulting therefrom were caused solely by:

(A) an act of God;

(B) an act of war;

(C) an act or omission of a third party other than an employee or agent of the defendant, or other than one whose act or omission occurs in connection with a contractual relationship, existing directly or indirectly, with the defendant (except where the sole contractual arrangement arises from a published tariff and acceptance for carriage by a common carrier by rail), if the defendant establishes by a preponderance of the evidence that (i) he exercised due care with respect to the hazardous substance concerned, taking into consideration the characteristics of such hazardous substance, in light of all relevant facts and circumstances, and (ii) he took precautions against foreseeable acts or omissions of any such third party and the consequences that could foreseeably result from such acts or omissions; or

(D) any combination of the foregoing paragraphs.

(2) There shall be no liability under this Section for any release permitted by State or federal law.

(3) There shall be no liability under this Section for damages as a result of actions taken or omitted in the course of rendering care, assistance, or advice in accordance with this Section or the National Contingency Plan pursuant to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 (P.L. 96-510) or at the direction of an on-scene coordinator appointed under such plan, with respect to an incident creating a danger to public health or welfare or the environment as a result of any release of a hazardous substance or a substantial threat thereof. This subsection shall not preclude liability for damages as the result of gross negligence or intentional misconduct on the part of such person. For the purposes of the preceding sentence, reckless, willful, or wanton misconduct shall constitute gross negligence.

(4) There shall be no liability under this Section for any person (including, but not limited to, an owner of residential property who applies a pesticide to the residential property or who has another person apply a pesticide to the residential property) for response costs or damages as the result of the storage, handling and use, or recommendation for storage, handling and use, of a pesticide consistent with:

(A) its directions for storage, handling and use as stated in its label or labeling;

(B) its warnings and cautions as stated in its label or labeling; and

(C) the uses for which it is registered under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act and the Illinois Pesticide Act.

(4.5) There shall be no liability under subdivision (f)(1) of this Section for response costs or damages as the result of a release of a pesticide from an agrichemical facility site if the Agency has received notice from the Department of Agriculture pursuant to Section 19.3 of the Illinois Pesticide Act, the owner or operator of the agrichemical facility is proceeding with a corrective action plan under the Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program implemented under that Section, and the Agency has provided a written endorsement of a corrective action plan.

(4.6) There shall be no liability under subdivision (f)(1) of this Section for response costs or damages as the result of a substantial threat of a release of a pesticide from an agrichemical facility site if the Agency has received notice from the Department of Agriculture pursuant to Section 19.3 of the Illinois Pesticide Act and the owner or operator of the agrichemical facility is proceeding with a corrective action plan under the Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program implemented under that Section.

(5) Nothing in this subsection (j) shall affect or modify in any way the obligations or liability of any person under any other provision of this Act or State or federal law, including common law, for damages, injury, or loss resulting from a release or substantial threat of a release of any hazardous substance or for removal or remedial action or the costs of removal or remedial action of such hazardous substance.

(6)(A) The term "contractual relationship", for the purpose of this subsection includes, but is not limited to, land contracts, deeds or other instruments transferring title or possession, unless the real property on which the facility concerned is located was acquired by the defendant after the disposal or placement of the hazardous substance on, in, or at the facility, and one or more of the circumstances described in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph is also established by the defendant by a preponderance of the evidence:

(i) At the time the defendant acquired the facility the defendant did not know and had no reason to know that any hazardous substance which is the subject of the release or threatened release was disposed of on, in or at the facility.

(ii) The defendant is a government entity which acquired the facility by escheat, or through any other involuntary transfer or acquisition, or through the exercise of eminent domain authority by purchase or condemnation.

(iii) The defendant acquired the facility by inheritance or bequest.

In addition to establishing the foregoing, the defendant must establish that he has satisfied the requirements of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (l) of this subsection (j).

(B) To establish the defendant had no reason to know, as provided in clause (i) of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, the defendant must have undertaken, at the time of acquisition, all appropriate inquiry into the previous ownership and uses of the property consistent with good commercial or customary practice in an effort to minimize liability. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the court shall take into account any specialized knowledge or experience on the part of the defendant, the relationship of the purchase price to the value of the property if uncontaminated, commonly known or reasonably ascertainable information about the property, the obviousness of the presence or likely presence of contamination at the property, and the ability to detect such contamination by appropriate inspection.

(C) Nothing in this paragraph (6) or in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall diminish the liability of any previous owner or operator of such facility who would otherwise be liable under this Act. Notwithstanding this paragraph (6), if the defendant obtained actual knowledge of the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance at such facility when the defendant owned the real property and then subsequently transferred ownership of the property to another person without disclosing such knowledge, such defendant shall be treated as liable under subsection (f) of this Section and no defense under subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be available to such defendant.

(D) Nothing in this paragraph (6) shall affect the liability under this Act of a defendant who, by any act or omission, caused or contributed to the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance which is the subject of the action relating to the facility.

(E)(i) Except as provided in clause (ii) of this subparagraph (E), a defendant who has acquired real property shall have established a rebuttable presumption against all State claims and a conclusive presumption against all private party claims that the defendant has made all appropriate inquiry within the meaning of subdivision (6)(B) of this subsection (j) if the defendant proves that immediately prior to or at the time of the acquisition:

(I) the defendant obtained a Phase I Environmental Audit of the real property that meets or exceeds the requirements of this subparagraph (E), and the Phase I Environmental Audit did not disclose the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property; or

(II) the defendant obtained a Phase II Environmental Audit of the real property that meets or exceeds the requirements of this subparagraph (E), and the Phase II Environmental Audit did not disclose the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property.

(ii) No presumption shall be created under clause (i) of this subparagraph (E), and a defendant shall be precluded from demonstrating that the defendant has made all appropriate inquiry within the meaning of subdivision (6)(B) of this subsection (j), if:

(I) the defendant fails to obtain all Environmental Audits required under this subparagraph (E) or any such Environmental Audit fails to meet or exceed the requirements of this subparagraph (E);

(II) a Phase I Environmental Audit discloses the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from real property, and the defendant fails to obtain a Phase II Environmental Audit;

(III) a Phase II Environmental Audit discloses the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property;

(IV) the defendant fails to maintain a written compilation and explanatory summary report of the information reviewed in the course of each Environmental Audit under this subparagraph (E); or

(V) there is any evidence of fraud, material concealment, or material misrepresentation by the defendant of environmental conditions or of related information discovered during the course of an Environmental Audit.

(iii) For purposes of this subparagraph (E), the term "environmental professional" means an individual (other than a practicing attorney) who, through academic training, occupational experience, and reputation (such as engineers, industrial hygienists, or geologists) can objectively conduct one or more aspects of an Environmental Audit and who either:

(I) maintains at the time of the Environmental Audit and for at least one year thereafter at least $500,000 of environmental consultants' professional liability insurance coverage issued by an insurance company licensed to do business in Illinois; or

(II) is an Illinois licensed professional engineer or an Illinois licensed industrial hygienist.

An environmental professional may employ persons who are not environmental professionals to assist in the preparation of an Environmental Audit if such persons are under the direct supervision and control of the environmental professional.

(iv) For purposes of this subparagraph (E), the term "real property" means any interest in any parcel of land, and includes, but is not limited to, buildings, fixtures, and improvements.

(v) For purposes of this subparagraph (E), the term "Phase I Environmental Audit" means an investigation of real property, conducted by environmental professionals, to discover the presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from real property, and whether a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide has occurred or may occur at, on, to, or from the real property. Until such time as the United States Environmental Protection Agency establishes standards for making appropriate inquiry into the previous ownership and uses of the facility pursuant to 42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601(35)(B)(ii), the investigation shall comply with the procedures of the American Society for Testing and Materials, including the document known as Standard E1527-97, entitled "Standard Procedures for Environmental Site Assessment: Phase 1 Environmental Site Assessment Process". Upon their adoption, the standards promulgated by USEPA pursuant to 42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601(35)(B)(ii) shall govern the performance of Phase I Environmental Audits. In addition to the above requirements, the Phase I Environmental Audit shall include a review of recorded land title records for the purpose of determining whether the real property is subject to an environmental land use restriction such as a No Further Remediation Letter, Environmental Land Use Control, or Highway Authority Agreement.

(vi) For purposes of subparagraph (E), the term "Phase II Environmental Audit" means an investigation of real property, conducted by environmental professionals, subsequent to a Phase I Environmental Audit. If the Phase I Environmental Audit discloses the presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or a pesticide or a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide:

(I) In or to soil, the defendant, as part of the Phase II Environmental Audit, shall perform a series of soil borings sufficient to determine whether there is a presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or pesticide and whether there is or has been a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property.

(II) In or to groundwater, the defendant, as part of the Phase II Environmental Audit, shall: review information regarding local geology, water well locations, and locations of waters of the State as may be obtained from State, federal, and local government records, including but not limited to the United States Geological Survey, the State Geological Survey of the University of Illinois, and the State Water Survey of the University of Illinois; and perform groundwater monitoring sufficient to determine whether there is a presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or pesticide, and whether there is or has been a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property.

(III) On or to media other than soil or groundwater, the defendant, as part of the Phase II Environmental Audit, shall perform an investigation sufficient to determine whether there is a presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance or pesticide, and whether there is or has been a release or a substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the real property.

(vii) The findings of each Environmental Audit prepared under this subparagraph (E) shall be set forth in a written audit report. Each audit report shall contain an affirmation by the defendant and by each environmental professional who prepared the Environmental Audit that the facts stated in the report are true and are made under a penalty of perjury as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. It is perjury for any person to sign an audit report that contains a false material statement that the person does not believe to be true.

(viii) The Agency is not required to review, approve, or certify the results of any Environmental Audit. The performance of an Environmental Audit shall in no way entitle a defendant to a presumption of Agency approval or certification of the results of the Environmental Audit.

The presence or absence of a disclosure document prepared under the Responsible Property Transfer Act of 1988 shall not be a defense under this Act and shall not satisfy the requirements of subdivision (6)(A) of this subsection (j).

(7) No person shall be liable under this Section for response costs or damages as the result of a pesticide release if the Agency has found that a pesticide release occurred based on a Health Advisory issued by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency or an action level developed by the Agency, unless the Agency notified the manufacturer of the pesticide and provided an opportunity of not less than 30 days for the manufacturer to comment on the technical and scientific justification supporting the Health Advisory or action level.

(8) No person shall be liable under this Section for response costs or damages as the result of a pesticide release that occurs in the course of a farm pesticide collection program operated under Section 19.1 of the Illinois Pesticide Act, unless the release results from gross negligence or intentional misconduct.

(k) If any person who is liable for a release or substantial threat of release of a hazardous substance or pesticide fails without sufficient cause to provide removal or remedial action upon or in accordance with a notice and request by the Agency or upon or in accordance with any order of the Board or any court, such person may be liable to the State for punitive damages in an amount at least equal to, and not more than 3 times, the amount of any costs incurred by the State of Illinois as a result of such failure to take such removal or remedial action. The punitive damages imposed by the Board shall be in addition to any costs recovered from such person pursuant to this Section and in addition to any other penalty or relief provided by this Act or any other law.

Any monies received by the State pursuant to this subsection (k) shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund.

(l) Beginning January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 2013, the Agency shall annually collect a $250 fee for each Special Waste Hauling Permit Application and, in addition, shall collect a fee of $20 for each waste hauling vehicle identified in the annual permit application and for each vehicle which is added to the permit during the annual period. Beginning January 1, 2013, the Agency shall issue 3-year Special Waste Hauling Permits instead of annual Special Waste Hauling Permits and shall collect a $750 fee for each Special Waste Hauling Permit Application. In addition, beginning January 1, 2013, the Agency shall collect a fee of $60 for each waste hauling vehicle identified in the permit application and for each vehicle that is added to the permit during the 3-year period. The Agency shall deposit 85% of such fees collected under this subsection in the State Treasury to the credit of the Hazardous Waste Research Fund; and shall deposit the remaining 15% of such fees collected in the State Treasury to the credit of the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund. The majority of such receipts which are deposited in the Hazardous Waste Research Fund pursuant to this subsection shall be used by the University of Illinois for activities which relate to the protection of underground waters.

(l-5) (Blank).

(m) (Blank).

(n) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 97-220, eff. 7-28-11; 97-1081, eff. 8-24-12.)

(415 ILCS 5/44) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1044)

Sec. 44. Criminal acts; penalties.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, it shall be a Class A misdemeanor to violate this Act or regulations thereunder, or any permit or term or condition thereof, or knowingly to submit any false information under this Act or regulations adopted thereunder, or under any permit or term or condition thereof. A court may, in addition to any other penalty herein imposed, order a person convicted of any violation of this Act to perform community service for not less than 100 hours and not more than 300 hours if community service is available in the jurisdiction. It shall be the duty of all State and local law-enforcement officers to enforce such Act and regulations, and all such officers shall have authority to issue citations for such violations.

(b) Calculated Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Calculated Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste when, without lawful justification, he knowingly disposes of hazardous waste while knowing that he thereby places another person in danger of great bodily harm or creates an immediate or long-term danger to the public health or the environment.

(2) Calculated Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is a Class 2 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Calculated Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $500,000 for each day of such offense.

(c) Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste when, without lawful justification, he knowingly disposes of hazardous waste.

(2) Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is a Class 3 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each day of such offense.

(d) Unauthorized Use of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Unauthorized Use of Hazardous Waste when he, being required to have a permit, registration, or license under this Act or any other law regulating the treatment, transportation, or storage of hazardous waste, knowingly:

(A) treats, transports, or stores any hazardous waste without such permit, registration, or license;

(B) treats, transports, or stores any hazardous waste in violation of the terms and conditions of such permit or license;

(C) transports any hazardous waste to a facility which does not have a permit or license required under this Act; or

(D) transports by vehicle any hazardous waste without having in each vehicle credentials issued to the transporter by the transporter's base state pursuant to procedures established under the Uniform Program.

(2) A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of violating subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is subject to a fine not to exceed $100,000 for each day of such violation, and a person who is convicted of violating subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is subject to a fine not to exceed $1,000.

(e) Unlawful Delivery of Hazardous Waste.

(1) Except as authorized by this Act or the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, and the regulations promulgated thereunder, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly deliver hazardous waste.

(2) Unlawful Delivery of Hazardous Waste is a Class 3 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Unlawful Delivery of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each such violation.

(3) For purposes of this Section, "deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of possession of hazardous waste, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(f) Reckless Disposal of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits Reckless Disposal of Hazardous Waste if he disposes of hazardous waste, and his acts which cause the hazardous waste to be disposed of, whether or not those acts are undertaken pursuant to or under color of any permit or license, are performed with a conscious disregard of a substantial and unjustifiable risk that such disposing of hazardous waste is a gross deviation from the standard of care which a reasonable person would exercise in the situation.

(2) Reckless Disposal of Hazardous Waste is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Reckless Disposal of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of such offense.

(g) Concealment of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Concealment of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste when he conceals, without lawful justification, the disposal of hazardous waste with the knowledge that such hazardous waste has been disposed of in violation of this Act.

(2) Concealment of Criminal Disposal of a Hazardous Waste is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Concealment of Criminal Disposal of Hazardous Waste is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of such offense.

(h) Violations; False Statements.

(1) Any person who knowingly makes a false material statement in an application for a permit or license required by this Act to treat, transport, store, or dispose of hazardous waste commits the offense of perjury and shall be subject to the penalties set forth in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(2) Any person who knowingly makes a false material statement or representation in any label, manifest, record, report, permit or license, or other document filed, maintained, or used for the purpose of compliance with this Act in connection with the generation, disposal, treatment, storage, or transportation of hazardous waste commits a Class 4 felony. A second or any subsequent offense after conviction hereunder is a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person who knowingly destroys, alters, or conceals any record required to be made by this Act in connection with the disposal, treatment, storage, or transportation of hazardous waste commits a Class 4 felony. A second or any subsequent offense after a conviction hereunder is a Class 3 felony.

(4) Any person who knowingly makes a false material statement or representation in any application, bill, invoice, or other document filed, maintained, or used for the purpose of receiving money from the Underground Storage Tank Fund commits a Class 4 felony. A second or any subsequent offense after conviction hereunder is a Class 3 felony.

(5) Any person who knowingly destroys, alters, or conceals any record required to be made or maintained by this Act or required to be made or maintained by Board or Agency rules for the purpose of receiving money from the Underground Storage Tank Fund commits a Class 4 felony. A second or any subsequent offense after a conviction hereunder is a Class 3 felony.

(6) A person who knowingly and falsely certifies under Section 22.48 that an industrial process waste or pollution control waste is not special waste commits a Class 4 felony for a first offense and commits a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(7) In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of violating this subsection (h) is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of such violation.

(8) Any person who knowingly makes a false, fictitious, or fraudulent material statement, orally or in writing, to the Agency, or to a unit of local government to which the Agency has delegated authority under subsection (r) of Section 4 of this Act, related to or required by this Act, a regulation adopted under this Act, any federal law or regulation for which the Agency has responsibility, or any permit, term, or condition thereof, commits a Class 4 felony, and each such statement or writing shall be considered a separate Class 4 felony. A person who, after being convicted under this paragraph (8), violates this paragraph (8) a second or subsequent time, commits a Class 3 felony.

(i) Verification.

(1) Each application for a permit or license to dispose of, transport, treat, store, or generate hazardous waste under this Act shall contain an affirmation that the facts are true and are made under penalty of perjury as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. It is perjury for a person to sign any such application for a permit or license which contains a false material statement, which he does not believe to be true.

(2) Each request for money from the Underground Storage Tank Fund shall contain an affirmation that the facts are true and are made under penalty of perjury as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. It is perjury for a person to sign any request that contains a false material statement that he does not believe to be true.

(j) Violations of Other Provisions.

(1) It is unlawful for a person knowingly to violate:

(A) subsection (f) of Section 12 of this Act;

(B) subsection (g) of Section 12 of this Act;

(C) any term or condition of any Underground Injection Control (UIC) permit;

(D) any filing requirement, regulation, or order relating to the State Underground Injection Control (UIC) program;

(E) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under subsection (b) of Section 13 of this Act;

(F) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under subsection (b) of Section 39 of this Act;

(G) any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit issued under this Act or any term or condition of such permit;

(H) subsection (h) of Section 12 of this Act;

(I) subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act;

(J) any provision of any regulation, standard or filing requirement under Section 39.5 of this Act;

(K) a provision of the Procedures for Asbestos Emission Control in subsection (c) of Section 61.145 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations; or

(L) the standard for waste disposal for manufacturing, fabricating, demolition, renovation, and spraying operations in Section 61.150 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(2) A person convicted of a violation of subdivision (1) of this subsection commits a Class 4 felony, and in addition to any other penalty prescribed by law is subject to a fine not to exceed $25,000 for each day of such violation.

(3) A person who negligently violates the following shall be subject to a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each day of such violation:

(A) subsection (f) of Section 12 of this Act;

(B) subsection (g) of Section 12 of this Act;

(C) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under subsection (b) of Section 13 of this Act;

(D) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under subsection (b) of Section 39 of this Act;

(E) any National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit issued under this Act;

(F) subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act; or

(G) any provision of any regulation, standard, or filing requirement under Section 39.5 of this Act.

(4) It is unlawful for a person knowingly to:

(A) make any false statement, representation, or certification in an application form, or form pertaining to, a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit;

(B) render inaccurate any monitoring device or record required by the Agency or Board in connection with any such permit or with any discharge which is subject to the provisions of subsection (f) of Section 12 of this Act;

(C) make any false statement, representation, or certification in any form, notice, or report pertaining to a CAAPP permit under Section 39.5 of this Act;

(D) render inaccurate any monitoring device or record required by the Agency or Board in connection with any CAAPP permit or with any emission which is subject to the provisions of Section 39.5 of this Act; or

(E) violate subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act or any CAAPP permit, or term or condition thereof, or any fee or filing requirement.

(5) A person convicted of a violation of paragraph (4) of this subsection commits a Class A misdemeanor, and in addition to any other penalties provided by law is subject to a fine not to exceed $10,000 for each day of violation.

(k) Criminal operation of a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator.

(1) A person commits the offense of criminal operation of a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator when, in the course of operating a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator, he knowingly and without justification operates the incinerator (i) without an Agency permit, or in knowing violation of the terms of an Agency permit, and (ii) as a result of such violation, knowingly places any person in danger of great bodily harm or knowingly creates an immediate or long term material danger to the public health or the environment.

(2) Any person who commits the offense of criminal operation of a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator for the first time commits a Class 4 felony and, in addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, shall be subject to a fine not to exceed $100,000 for each day of the offense.

Any person who commits the offense of criminal operation of a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator for a second or subsequent time commits a Class 3 felony and, in addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, shall be subject to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each day of the offense.

(3) For the purpose of this subsection (k), the term "hazardous waste or PCB incinerator" means a pollution control facility at which either hazardous waste or PCBs, or both, are incinerated. "PCBs" means any substance or mixture of substances that contains one or more polychlorinated biphenyls in detectable amounts.

(l) It shall be the duty of all State and local law enforcement officers to enforce this Act and the regulations adopted hereunder, and all such officers shall have authority to issue citations for such violations.

(m) Any action brought under this Section shall be brought by the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or by the Attorney General, and shall be conducted in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(n) For an offense described in this Section, the period for commencing prosecution prescribed by the statute of limitations shall not begin to run until the offense is discovered by or reported to a State or local agency having the authority to investigate violations of this Act.

(o) In addition to any other penalties provided under this Act, if a person is convicted of (or agrees to a settlement in an enforcement action over) illegal dumping of waste on the person's own property, the Attorney General, the Agency, or local prosecuting authority shall file notice of the conviction, finding, or agreement in the office of the Recorder in the county in which the landowner lives.

(p) Criminal Disposal of Waste.

(1) A person commits the offense of Criminal Disposal of Waste when he or she:

(A) if required to have a permit under subsection (d) of Section 21 of this Act, knowingly conducts a waste-storage, waste-treatment, or waste-disposal operation in a quantity that exceeds 250 cubic feet of waste without a permit; or

(B) knowingly conducts open dumping of waste in violation of subsection (a) of Section 21 of this Act.

(2) (A) A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, is subject to a fine not to exceed $25,000 for each day of violation. A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense and, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of violation.

(B) A person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. However, a person who is convicted of a violation of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection for the open dumping of waste in a quantity that exceeds 250 cubic feet or that exceeds 50 waste tires is guilty of a Class 4 felony and, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, is subject to a fine not to exceed $25,000 for each day of violation.

(q) Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply.

(1) A person commits the offense of Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply when, without lawful justification, he knowingly alters, damages, or otherwise tampers with the equipment or property of a public water supply, or knowingly introduces a contaminant into the distribution system of a public water supply so as to cause, threaten, or allow the distribution of water from any public water supply of such quality or quantity as to be injurious to human health or the environment.

(2) Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply is subject to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each day of such offense.

(r) Aggravated Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply.

(1) A person commits the offense of Aggravated Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply when, without lawful justification, he commits Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply while knowing that he thereby places another person in danger of serious illness or great bodily harm, or creates an immediate or long-term danger to public health or the environment.

(2) Aggravated Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply is a Class 2 felony. In addition to any other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of the offense of Aggravated Criminal Damage to a Public Water Supply is subject to a fine not to exceed $500,000 for each day of such offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-603, eff. 8-24-09; 97-220, eff. 7-28-11; 97-286, eff. 8-10-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

Section 545. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 1.1, 3.1, 3.2, and 10 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1)

Sec. 1. It is hereby declared as a matter of legislative determination that in order to promote and protect the health, safety and welfare of the public, it is necessary and in the public interest to provide a system of identifying persons who are not qualified to acquire or possess firearms, firearm ammunition, stun guns, and tasers within the State of Illinois by the establishment of a system of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, thereby establishing a practical and workable system by which law enforcement authorities will be afforded an opportunity to identify those persons who are prohibited by Section 24-3.1 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", as amended, from acquiring or possessing firearms and firearm ammunition and who are prohibited by this Act from acquiring stun guns and tasers.

(Source: P.A. 94-6, eff. 1-1-06.)

(430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Has been adjudicated as a mental defective" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that a person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) is a danger to himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility pursuant to Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.

"Gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12.)

(430 ILCS 65/3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3.1)

Sec. 3.1. Dial up system.

(a) The Department of State Police shall provide a dial up telephone system or utilize other existing technology which shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm, stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Act. The Department of State Police may utilize existing technology which allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. Fees collected by the Department of State Police shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and used to provide the service.

(b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the Department of State Police shall immediately approve, or within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and tasers notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Department of State Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its criminal history record information files and those of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a person from obtaining or require revocation of a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, federal law, or this Act the Department of State Police shall:

(1) assign a unique identification number to the transfer; and

(2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor with the number.

(d) Approvals issued by the Department of State Police for the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

(e) (1) The Department of State Police must act as the Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(2) The Department of State Police and the Department of Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal Background Check System in the State. The Department of State Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System Index, Denied Persons Files.

(f) The Department of State Police shall promulgate rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(Source: P.A. 94-6, eff. 1-1-06; 94-353, eff. 7-29-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-564, eff. 6-1-08.)

(430 ILCS 65/3.2)

Sec. 3.2. List of prohibited projectiles; notice to dealers. Prior to January 1, 2002, the Department of State Police shall list on the Department's World Wide Web site all firearm projectiles that are prohibited under Sections 24-2.1, 24-2.2, and 24-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, together with a statement setting forth the sentence that may be imposed for violating those Sections. The Department of State Police shall, prior to January 1, 2002, send a list of all firearm projectiles that are prohibited under Sections 24-2.1, 24-2.2, and 24-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 to each federally licensed firearm dealer in Illinois registered with the Department.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)

(430 ILCS 65/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-10)

Sec. 10. Appeal to director; hearing; relief from firearm prohibitions.

(a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied, whenever the Department fails to act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, or whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the Director of State Police for a hearing upon such denial, revocation or seizure, unless the denial, revocation, or seizure was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence for a hearing upon such denial, revocation, or seizure.

(b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to the petition and present evidence. At the hearing the court shall determine whether substantial justice has been done. Should the court determine that substantial justice has not been done, the court shall issue an order directing the Department of State Police to issue a Card. However, the court shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under federal law.

(c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police or petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition and the Director or court may grant such relief if it is established by the applicant to the court's or Director's satisfaction that:

(0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney has been served with a written copy of the petition at least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;

(1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;

(2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction, where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;

(3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest; and

(4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal law.

(d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court shall notify the Department of State Police.

(e) The court shall review the denial of an application or the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants relief, the court shall notify the Department of State Police that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18 U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred under the laws of this State or who was determined to be subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Department of State Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Director shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this determination, the Director shall receive evidence concerning (i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv) changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct, modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the Department of State Police makes available to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United States Attorney General that the basis for the record being made available no longer applies. The Department of State Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this subsection (f).

(Source: P.A. 96-1368, eff. 7-28-10; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 550. The Carnival and Amusement Rides Safety Act is amended by changing Section 2-20 as follows:

(430 ILCS 85/2-20)

Sec. 2-20. Employment of carnival workers.

(a) Beginning on January 1, 2008, no person, firm, corporation, or other entity that owns or operates a carnival or fair shall employ a carnival worker who (i) has been convicted of any offense set forth in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, (ii) is a registered sex offender, as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act, or (iii) has ever been convicted of any offense set forth in Article 9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) A person, firm, corporation, or other entity that owns or operates a carnival or fair must conduct a criminal history records check and perform a check of the National Sex Offender Public Registry for carnival workers at the time they are hired, and annually thereafter except if they are in the continued employ of the entity.

The criminal history records check performed under this subsection (b) shall be performed by the Illinois State Police, another State or federal law enforcement agency, or a business belonging to the National Association of Professional Background Check Screeners. Any criminal history checks performed by the Illinois State Police shall be pursuant to the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act.

Individuals who are under the age of 17 are exempt from the criminal history records check requirements set forth in this subsection (b).

(c) Any person, firm, corporation, or other entity that owns or operates a carnival or fair must have a substance abuse policy in place for its workers, which shall include random drug testing of carnival workers.

(d) Any person, firm, corporation, or other entity that owns or operates a carnival or fair that violates the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or fails to conduct a criminal history records check or a sex offender registry check for carnival workers in its employ, as required by subsection (b) of this Section, shall be assessed a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed $1,000 for a first offense, not to exceed $5,000 for a second offense, and not to exceed $15,000 for a third or subsequent offense. The collection of these penalties shall be enforced in a civil action brought by the Attorney General on behalf of the Department.

(e) A carnival or fair owner is not responsible for:

(1) any personal information submitted by a carnival worker for criminal history records check purposes; or

(2) any information provided by a third party for a criminal history records check or a sex offender registry check.

(f) Recordkeeping requirements. Any person, firm, corporation, or other entity that owns or operates a carnival or fair subject to the provisions of this Act shall make, preserve, and make available to the Department, upon its request, all records that are required by this Act, including but not limited to a written substance abuse policy, evidence of the required criminal history records check and sex offender registry check, and any other information the Director may deem necessary and appropriate for enforcement of this Act.

(g) A carnival or fair owner shall not be liable to any employee in carrying out the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-397, eff. 8-24-07; 95-687, eff. 10-23-07; 96-151, eff. 8-7-09.)

Section 555. The Animal Control Act is amended by changing Section 2.17a as follows:

(510 ILCS 5/2.17a)

Sec. 2.17a. "Peace officer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 93-548, eff. 8-19-03.)

Section 560. The Humane Care for Animals Act is amended by changing Sections 3.03-1, 3.04, 3.05, 4.01, and 4.02 as follows:

(510 ILCS 70/3.03-1)

Sec. 3.03-1. Depiction of animal cruelty.

(a) "Depiction of animal cruelty" means any visual or auditory depiction, including any photograph, motion-picture film, video recording, electronic image, or sound recording, that would constitute a violation of Section 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) No person may knowingly create, sell, market, offer to market or sell, or possess a depiction of animal cruelty. No person may place that depiction in commerce for commercial gain or entertainment. This Section does not apply when the depiction has religious, political, scientific, educational, law enforcement or humane investigator training, journalistic, artistic, or historical value; or involves rodeos, sanctioned livestock events, or normal husbandry practices.

The creation, sale, marketing, offering to sell or market, or possession of the depiction of animal cruelty is illegal regardless of whether the maiming, mutilation, torture, wounding, abuse, killing, or any other conduct took place in this State.

(c) Any person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony. In addition to any other penalty provided by law, upon conviction for violating this Section, the court may order the convicted person to undergo a psychological or psychiatric evaluation and to undergo any treatment at the convicted person's expense that the court determines to be appropriate after due consideration of the evaluation. If the convicted person is a juvenile, the court shall order the convicted person to undergo a psychological or psychiatric evaluation and to undergo treatment that the court determines to be appropriate after due consideration of the evaluation.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(510 ILCS 70/3.04)

Sec. 3.04. Arrests and seizures; penalties.

(a) Any law enforcement officer making an arrest for an offense involving one or more companion animals under Section 3.01, 3.02, or 3.03 of this Act may lawfully take possession of some or all of the companion animals in the possession of the person arrested. The officer, after taking possession of the companion animals, must file with the court before whom the complaint is made against any person so arrested an affidavit stating the name of the person charged in the complaint, a description of the condition of the companion animal or companion animals taken, and the time and place the companion animal or companion animals were taken, together with the name of the person from whom the companion animal or companion animals were taken and name of the person who claims to own the companion animal or companion animals if different from the person from whom the companion animal or companion animals were seized. He or she must at the same time deliver an inventory of the companion animal or companion animals taken to the court of competent jurisdiction. The officer must place the companion animal or companion animals in the custody of an animal control or animal shelter and the agency must retain custody of the companion animal or companion animals subject to an order of the court adjudicating the charges on the merits and before which the person complained against is required to appear for trial. The State's Attorney may, within 14 days after the seizure, file a "petition for forfeiture prior to trial" before the court having criminal jurisdiction over the alleged charges, asking for permanent forfeiture of the companion animals seized. The petition shall be filed with the court, with copies served on the impounding agency, the owner, and anyone claiming an interest in the animals. In a "petition for forfeiture prior to trial", the burden is on the prosecution to prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the person arrested violated Section 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, or 4.01 of this Act or Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) An owner whose companion animal or companion animals are removed by a law enforcement officer under this Section must be given written notice of the circumstances of the removal and of any legal remedies available to him or her. The notice must be posted at the place of seizure, or delivered to a person residing at the place of seizure or, if the address of the owner is different from the address of the person from whom the companion animal or companion animals were seized, delivered by registered mail to his or her last known address.

(c) In addition to any other penalty provided by law, upon conviction for violating Sections 3, 3.01, 3.02, or 3.03 the court may order the convicted person to forfeit to an animal control or animal shelter the animal or animals that are the basis of the conviction. Upon an order of forfeiture, the convicted person is deemed to have permanently relinquished all rights to the animal or animals that are the basis of the conviction. The forfeited animal or animals shall be adopted or humanely euthanized. In no event may the convicted person or anyone residing in his or her household be permitted to adopt the forfeited animal or animals. The court, additionally, may order that the convicted person and persons dwelling in the same household as the convicted person who conspired, aided, or abetted in the unlawful act that was the basis of the conviction, or who knew or should have known of the unlawful act, may not own, harbor, or have custody or control of any other animals for a period of time that the court deems reasonable.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(510 ILCS 70/3.05)

Sec. 3.05. Security for companion animals and animals used for fighting purposes.

(a) In the case of companion animals as defined in Section 2.01a or animals used for fighting purposes in violation of Section 4.01 of this Act or Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the animal control or animal shelter having custody of the animal or animals may file a petition with the court requesting that the person from whom the animal or animals are seized, or the owner of the animal or animals, be ordered to post security. The security must be in an amount sufficient to secure payment of all reasonable expenses expected to be incurred by the animal control or animal shelter in caring for and providing for the animal or animals pending the disposition of the charges. Reasonable expenses include, but are not limited to, estimated medical care and boarding of the animal or animals for 30 days. The amount of the security shall be determined by the court after taking into consideration all of the facts and circumstances of the case, including, but not limited to, the recommendation of the impounding organization having custody and care of the seized animal or animals and the cost of caring for the animal or animals. If security has been posted in accordance with this Section, the animal control or animal shelter may draw from the security the actual costs incurred by the agency in caring for the seized animal or animals.

(b) Upon receipt of a petition, the court must set a hearing on the petition, to be conducted within 5 business days after the petition is filed. The petitioner must serve a true copy of the petition upon the defendant and the State's Attorney for the county in which the animal or animals were seized. The petitioner must also serve a true copy of the petition on any interested person. For the purposes of this subsection, "interested person" means an individual, partnership, firm, joint stock company, corporation, association, trust, estate, or other legal entity that the court determines may have a pecuniary interest in the animal or animals that are the subject of the petition. The court must set a hearing date to determine any interested parties. The court may waive for good cause shown the posting of security.

(c) If the court orders the posting of security, the security must be posted with the clerk of the court within 5 business days after the hearing. If the person ordered to post security does not do so, the animal or animals are forfeited by operation of law and the animal control or animal shelter having control of the animal or animals must dispose of the animal or animals through adoption or must humanely euthanize the animal. In no event may the defendant or any person residing in the defendant's household adopt the animal or animals.

(d) The impounding organization may file a petition with the court upon the expiration of the 30-day period requesting the posting of additional security. The court may order the person from whom the animal or animals were seized, or the owner of the animal or animals, to post additional security with the clerk of the court to secure payment of reasonable expenses for an additional period of time pending a determination by the court of the charges against the person from whom the animal or animals were seized.

(e) In no event may the security prevent the impounding organization having custody and care of the animal or animals from disposing of the animal or animals before the expiration of the 30-day period covered by the security if the court makes a final determination of the charges against the person from whom the animal or animals were seized. Upon the adjudication of the charges, the person who posted the security is entitled to a refund of the security, in whole or in part, for any expenses not incurred by the impounding organization.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, the court may order a person charged with any violation of this Act to provide necessary food, water, shelter, and care for any animal or animals that are the basis of the charge without the removal of the animal or animals from their existing location and until the charges against the person are adjudicated. Until a final determination of the charges is made, any law enforcement officer, animal control officer, Department investigator, or an approved humane investigator may be authorized by an order of the court to make regular visits to the place where the animal or animals are being kept to ascertain if the animal or animals are receiving necessary food, water, shelter, and care. Nothing in this Section prevents any law enforcement officer, Department investigator, or approved humane investigator from applying for a warrant under this Section to seize any animal or animals being held by the person charged pending the adjudication of the charges if it is determined that the animal or animals are not receiving the necessary food, water, shelter, or care.

(g) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prevent the voluntary, permanent relinquishment of any animal by its owner to an animal control or animal shelter in lieu of posting security or proceeding to a forfeiture hearing. Voluntary relinquishment shall have no effect on the criminal charges that may be pursued by the appropriate authorities.

(h) If an owner of a companion animal is acquitted by the court of charges made pursuant to this Act, the court shall further order that any security that has been posted for the animal shall be returned to the owner by the impounding organization.

(i) The provisions of this Section only pertain to companion animals and animals used for fighting purposes.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(510 ILCS 70/4.01) (from Ch. 8, par. 704.01)

Sec. 4.01. Animals in entertainment. This Section does not apply when the only animals involved are dogs. (Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, rather than this Section, applies when the only animals involved are dogs.)

(a) No person may own, capture, breed, train, or lease any animal which he or she knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between such animal and any other animal or human, or the intentional killing of any animal for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(b) No person shall promote, conduct, carry on, advertise, collect money for or in any other manner assist or aid in the presentation for purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment, any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more animals or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal.

(c) No person shall sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move, or deliver or receive any animal which he or she knows or should know has been captured, bred, or trained, or will be used, to fight another animal or human or be intentionally killed, for the purpose of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(d) No person shall manufacture for sale, shipment, transportation or delivery any device or equipment which that person knows or should know is intended for use in any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any human and animal, or the intentional killing of any animal for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(e) No person shall own, possess, sell or offer for sale, ship, transport, or otherwise move any equipment or device which such person knows or should know is intended for use in connection with any show, exhibition, program, or activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal for purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(f) No person shall make available any site, structure, or facility, whether enclosed or not, which he or she knows or should know is intended to be used for the purpose of conducting any show, exhibition, program, or other activity involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal.

(g) No person shall knowingly attend or otherwise patronize any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving a fight between 2 or more animals, or any animal and human, or the intentional killing of any animal for the purposes of sport, wagering or entertainment.

(h) (Blank).

(i) Any animals or equipment involved in a violation of this Section shall be immediately seized and impounded under Section 12 by the Department when located at any show, exhibition, program, or other activity featuring or otherwise involving an animal fight for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment.

(j) Any vehicle or conveyance other than a common carrier that is used in violation of this Section shall be seized, held, and offered for sale at public auction by the sheriff's department of the proper jurisdiction, and the proceeds from the sale shall be remitted to the general fund of the county where the violation took place.

(k) Any veterinarian in this State who is presented with an animal for treatment of injuries or wounds resulting from fighting where there is a reasonable possibility that the animal was engaged in or utilized for a fighting event for the purposes of sport, wagering, or entertainment shall file a report with the Department and cooperate by furnishing the owners' names, dates, and descriptions of the animal or animals involved. Any veterinarian who in good faith complies with the requirements of this subsection has immunity from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, that may result from his or her actions. For the purposes of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of the veterinarian shall be rebuttably presumed.

(l) No person shall solicit a minor to violate this Section.

(m) The penalties for violations of this Section shall be as follows:

(1) A person convicted of violating subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense. A second or subsequent offense involving the violation of subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person convicted of violating subsection (d), (e), or (f) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A person convicted of violating subsection (g) of this Section or any rule, regulation, or order of the Department pursuant thereto is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony.

(4) A person convicted of violating subsection (l) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony for the first offense. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 3 felony.

(n) A person who commits a felony violation of this Section is subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 96-226, eff. 8-11-09; 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(510 ILCS 70/4.02) (from Ch. 8, par. 704.02)

Sec. 4.02. Arrests; reports.

(a) Any law enforcement officer making an arrest for an offense involving one or more animals under Section 4.01 of this Act or Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall lawfully take possession of all animals and all paraphernalia, implements, or other property or things used or employed, or about to be employed, in the violation of any of the provisions of Section 4.01 of this Act or Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. When a law enforcement officer has taken possession of such animals, paraphernalia, implements or other property or things, he or she shall file with the court before whom the complaint is made against any person so arrested an affidavit stating therein the name of the person charged in the complaint, a description of the property so taken and the time and place of the taking thereof together with the name of the person from whom the same was taken and name of the person who claims to own such property, if different from the person from whom the animals were seized and if known, and that the affiant has reason to believe and does believe, stating the ground of the belief, that the animals and property so taken were used or employed, or were about to be used or employed, in a violation of Section 4.01 of this Act or Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. He or she shall thereupon deliver an inventory of the property so taken to the court of competent jurisdiction. A law enforcement officer may humanely euthanize animals that are severely injured.

An owner whose animals are removed for a violation of Section 4.01 of this Act or Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 must be given written notice of the circumstances of the removal and of any legal remedies available to him or her. The notice must be posted at the place of seizure or delivered to a person residing at the place of seizure or, if the address of the owner is different from the address of the person from whom the animals were seized, delivered by registered mail to his or her last known address.

The animal control or animal shelter having custody of the animals may file a petition with the court requesting that the person from whom the animals were seized or the owner of the animals be ordered to post security pursuant to Section 3.05 of this Act.

Upon the conviction of the person so charged, all animals shall be adopted or humanely euthanized and property so seized shall be adjudged by the court to be forfeited. Any outstanding costs incurred by the impounding facility in boarding and treating the animals pending the disposition of the case and disposing of the animals upon a conviction must be borne by the person convicted. In no event may the animals be adopted by the defendant or anyone residing in his or her household. If the court finds that the State either failed to prove the criminal allegations or failed to prove that the animals were used in fighting, the court must direct the delivery of the animals and the other property not previously forfeited to the owner of the animals and property.

Any person authorized by this Section to care for an animal, to treat an animal, or to attempt to restore an animal to good health and who is acting in good faith is immune from any civil or criminal liability that may result from his or her actions.

An animal control warden, animal control administrator, animal shelter employee, or approved humane investigator may humanely euthanize severely injured, diseased, or suffering animal in exigent circumstances.

(b) Any veterinarian in this State who is presented with an animal for treatment of injuries or wounds resulting from fighting where there is a reasonable possibility that the animal was engaged in or utilized for a fighting event shall file a report with the Department and cooperate by furnishing the owners' names, date of receipt of the animal or animals and treatment administered, and descriptions of the animal or animals involved. Any veterinarian who in good faith makes a report, as required by this subsection (b), is immune from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, resulting from his or her actions. For the purposes of any proceedings, civil or criminal, the good faith of any such veterinarian shall be presumed.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 565. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Section 1.2b-1 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/1.2b-1) (from Ch. 61, par. 1.2b-1)

Sec. 1.2b-1. Case. "Case" means any case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or container acceptable under Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 97-1027, eff. 8-17-12.)

Section 570. The Roadside Memorial Act is amended by changing Section 23 as follows:

(605 ILCS 125/23)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2012)

Sec. 23. Fatal accident memorial marker program.

(a) The fatal accident memorial marker program is intended to raise public awareness of reckless driving by emphasizing the dangers while affording families an opportunity to remember the victims of crashes involving reckless drivers.

(b) As used in this Section, "fatal accident memorial marker" means a marker on a highway in this State commemorating one or more persons who died as a proximate result of a crash caused by a driver who committed an act of reckless homicide in violation of Section 9-3 or 9-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or who otherwise caused the death of one or more persons through the operation of a motor vehicle.

(c) For purposes of the fatal accident memorial marker program in this Section, the provisions of Section 15 of this Act applicable to DUI memorial markers shall apply the same to fatal accident memorial markers.

(d) A fatal accident memorial marker shall consist of a white on blue panel bearing the message "Reckless Driving Costs Lives". At the request of the qualified relative, a separate panel bearing the words "In Memory of (victim's name)", followed by the date of the crash that was the proximate cause of the loss of the victim's life, shall be mounted below the primary panel.

(e) A fatal accident memorial marker may memorialize more than one victim who died as a result of the same crash. If one or more additional deaths subsequently occur in close proximity to an existing fatal accident memorial marker, the supporting jurisdiction may use the same marker to memorialize the subsequent death or deaths, by adding the names of the additional persons.

(f) A fatal accident memorial marker shall be maintained for at least 2 years from the date the last person was memorialized on the marker.

(g) The supporting jurisdiction has the right to install a marker at a location other than the location of the crash or to relocate a marker due to restricted room, property owner complaints, interference with essential traffic control devices, safety concerns, or other restrictions. In such cases, the sponsoring jurisdiction may select an alternate location.

(h) The Department shall secure the consent of any municipality before placing a fatal accident memorial marker within the corporate limits of the municipality.

(i) A fee in an amount to be determined by the supporting jurisdiction shall be charged to the qualified relative. The fee shall not exceed the costs associated with the fabrication, installation, and maintenance of the fatal accident memorial marker.

(j) The Department shall report to the General Assembly no later than October 1, 2011 on the evaluation of the program and the number of fatal accident memorial marker requests.

(k) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-1371, eff. 1-1-11; 97-304, eff. 8-11-11.)

Section 575. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 1-101.2, 3-704, 3-806.6, 3-821, 4-103.3, 4-105.5, 4-107, 5-101, 5-102, 5-301, 5-501, 6-101, 6-103, 6-106.1, 6-106.2, 6-106.3, 6-106.4, 6-108.1, 6-118, 6-204, 6-205, 6-205.2, 6-206, 6-206.1, 6-208, 6-303, 6-508, 6-514, 6-708, 11-204.1, 11-208.7, 11-501, 11-501.1, 11-501.4, 11-501.4-1, 12-612, and 16-108 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/1-101.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-101.2)

Sec. 1-101.2. Affirmation. A signed statement to the effect that the information provided by the signer is true and correct. The affirmation shall subject any person who shall knowingly affirm falsely, in matter material to any issue or point in question, to the penalties inflicted by law on persons convicted of perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 83-1473.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-704) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-704)

Sec. 3-704. Authority of Secretary of State to suspend or revoke a registration or certificate of title; authority to suspend or revoke the registration of a vehicle.

(a) The Secretary of State may suspend or revoke the registration of a vehicle or a certificate of title, registration card, registration sticker, registration plate, disability parking decal or device, or any nonresident or other permit in any of the following events:

1. When the Secretary of State is satisfied that such registration or that such certificate, card, plate, registration sticker or permit was fraudulently or erroneously issued;

2. When a registered vehicle has been dismantled or wrecked or is not properly equipped;

3. When the Secretary of State determines that any required fees have not been paid to the Secretary of State, to the Illinois Commerce Commission, or to the Illinois Department of Revenue under the Motor Fuel Tax Law, and the same are not paid upon reasonable notice and demand;

4. When a registration card, registration plate, registration sticker or permit is knowingly displayed upon a vehicle other than the one for which issued;

5. When the Secretary of State determines that the owner has committed any offense under this Chapter involving the registration or the certificate, card, plate, registration sticker or permit to be suspended or revoked;

6. When the Secretary of State determines that a vehicle registered not-for-hire is used or operated for-hire unlawfully, or used or operated for purposes other than those authorized;

7. When the Secretary of State determines that an owner of a for-hire motor vehicle has failed to give proof of financial responsibility as required by this Act;

8. When the Secretary determines that the vehicle is not subject to or eligible for a registration;

9. When the Secretary determines that the owner of a vehicle registered under the mileage weight tax option fails to maintain the records specified by law, or fails to file the reports required by law, or that such vehicle is not equipped with an operable and operating speedometer or odometer;

10. When the Secretary of State is so authorized under any other provision of law;

11. When the Secretary of State determines that the holder of a disability parking decal or device has committed any offense under Chapter 11 of this Code involving the use of a disability parking decal or device.

(a-5) The Secretary of State may revoke a certificate of title and registration card and issue a corrected certificate of title and registration card, at no fee to the vehicle owner or lienholder, if there is proof that the vehicle identification number is erroneously shown on the original certificate of title.

(b) The Secretary of State may suspend or revoke the registration of a vehicle as follows:

1. When the Secretary of State determines that the owner of a vehicle has not paid a civil penalty or a settlement agreement arising from the violation of rules adopted under the Illinois Motor Carrier Safety Law or the Illinois Hazardous Materials Transportation Act or that a vehicle, regardless of ownership, was the subject of violations of these rules that resulted in a civil penalty or settlement agreement which remains unpaid.

2. When the Secretary of State determines that a vehicle registered for a gross weight of more than 16,000 pounds within an affected area is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 13-109.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

3. When the Secretary of State is notified by the United States Department of Transportation that a vehicle is in violation of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations, as they are now or hereafter amended, and is prohibited from operating.

(c) The Secretary of State may suspend the registration of a vehicle when a court finds that the vehicle was used in a violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to gunrunning. A suspension of registration under this subsection (c) may be for a period of up to 90 days.

(Source: P.A. 97-540, eff. 1-1-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-806.6)

Sec. 3-806.6. Victims of domestic violence.

(a) The Secretary shall issue new and different license plates immediately upon request to the registered owner of a vehicle who appears in person and submits a completed application, if all of the following are provided:

(1) proof of ownership of the vehicle that is acceptable to the Secretary;

(2) a driver's license or identification card containing a picture of the licensee or cardholder issued to the registered owner by the Secretary under Section 6-110 or 6-107 of this Code or Section 4 of the Illinois Identification Card Act. The Office of the Secretary shall conduct a search of its records to verify the authenticity of any document submitted under this paragraph (2);

(3) the previously issued license plates from the vehicle;

(4) payment of the required fee for the issuance of duplicate license plates under Section 3-417; and

(5) one of the following:

(A) a copy of a police report, court documentation, or other law enforcement documentation identifying the registered owner of the vehicle as the victim of an incident of abuse, as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, or the subject of stalking, as defined in Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(B) a written acknowledgment, dated within 30 days of submission, on the letterhead of a domestic violence agency, that the registered owner is actively seeking assistance or has sought assistance from that agency within the past year; or

(C) an order of protection issued under Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 that names the registered owner as a protected party.

(b) This Section does not apply to license plates issued under Section 3-664 or to special license plates issued under Article VI of this Chapter.

(Source: P.A. 94-503, eff. 1-1-06; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-821) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-821)

Sec. 3-821. Miscellaneous Registration and Title Fees.

(a) The fee to be paid to the Secretary of State for the following certificates, registrations or evidences of proper registration, or for corrected or duplicate documents shall be in accordance with the following schedule:

A special corrected certificate of title shall be issued (i) to remove a co-owner's name due to the death of the co-owner or due to a divorce or (ii) to change a co-owner's name due to a marriage.

There shall be no fee paid for a Junking Certificate.

There shall be no fee paid for a certificate of title issued to a county when the vehicle is forfeited to the county under Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(a-5) The Secretary of State may revoke a certificate of title and registration card and issue a corrected certificate of title and registration card, at no fee to the vehicle owner or lienholder, if there is proof that the vehicle identification number is erroneously shown on the original certificate of title.

(a-10) The Secretary of State may issue, in connection with the sale of a motor vehicle, a corrected title to a motor vehicle dealer upon application and submittal of a lien release letter from the lienholder listed in the files of the Secretary. In the case of a title issued by another state, the dealer must submit proof from the state that issued the last title. The corrected title, which shall be known as a dealer lien release certificate of title, shall be issued in the name of the vehicle owner without the named lienholder. If the motor vehicle is currently titled in a state other than Illinois, the applicant must submit either (i) a letter from the current lienholder releasing the lien and stating that the lienholder has possession of the title; or (ii) a letter from the current lienholder releasing the lien and a copy of the records of the department of motor vehicles for the state in which the vehicle is titled, showing that the vehicle is titled in the name of the applicant and that no liens are recorded other than the lien for which a release has been submitted. The fee for the dealer lien release certificate of title is $20.

(b) The Secretary may prescribe the maximum service charge to be imposed upon an applicant for renewal of a registration by any person authorized by law to receive and remit or transmit to the Secretary such renewal application and fees therewith.

(c) If payment is delivered to the Office of the Secretary of State as payment of any fee or tax under this Code, and such payment is not honored for any reason, the registrant or other person tendering the payment remains liable for the payment of such fee or tax. The Secretary of State may assess a service charge of $25 in addition to the fee or tax due and owing for all dishonored payments.

If the total amount then due and owing exceeds the sum of $100 and has not been paid in full within 60 days from the date such fee or tax became due to the Secretary of State, the Secretary of State shall assess a penalty of 25% of such amount remaining unpaid.

All amounts payable under this Section shall be computed to the nearest dollar. Out of each fee collected for dishonored payments, $5 shall be deposited in the Secretary of State Special Services Fund.

(d) The minimum fee and tax to be paid by any applicant for apportionment of a fleet of vehicles under this Code shall be $15 if the application was filed on or before the date specified by the Secretary together with fees and taxes due. If an application and the fees or taxes due are filed after the date specified by the Secretary, the Secretary may prescribe the payment of interest at the rate of 1/2 of 1% per month or fraction thereof after such due date and a minimum of $8.

(e) Trucks, truck tractors, truck tractors with loads, and motor buses, any one of which having a combined total weight in excess of 12,000 lbs. shall file an application for a Fleet Reciprocity Permit issued by the Secretary of State. This permit shall be in the possession of any driver operating a vehicle on Illinois highways. Any foreign licensed vehicle of the second division operating at any time in Illinois without a Fleet Reciprocity Permit or other proper Illinois registration, shall subject the operator to the penalties provided in Section 3-834 of this Code. For the purposes of this Code, "Fleet Reciprocity Permit" means any second division motor vehicle with a foreign license and used only in interstate transportation of goods. The fee for such permit shall be $15 per fleet which shall include all vehicles of the fleet being registered.

(f) For purposes of this Section, "all-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle used for production agriculture" means any all-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle used in the raising of or the propagation of livestock, crops for sale for human consumption, crops for livestock consumption, and production seed stock grown for the propagation of feed grains and the husbandry of animals or for the purpose of providing a food product, including the husbandry of blood stock as a main source of providing a food product. "All-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle used in production agriculture" also means any all-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle used in animal husbandry, floriculture, aquaculture, horticulture, and viticulture.

(g) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by Public Act 96-34 shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-554, eff. 1-1-10; 96-653, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1274, eff. 7-26-10; 97-835, eff. 1-1-13; 97-838, eff. 7-20-12; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/4-103.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 4-103.3)

Sec. 4-103.3. Organizer of an aggravated vehicle theft conspiracy.

(a) A person commits the offense of organizer of a vehicle theft conspiracy if:

(1) the person intentionally violates Section 4-103.2 of this Code with the agreement of 3 or more persons; and

(2) the person is known by other co-conspirators as the organizer, supervisor, financier or otherwise leader of the conspiracy.

(b) No person may be convicted of organizer of a vehicle theft conspiracy unless an overt act in furtherance of the agreement is alleged and proved to have been committed by him or by a co-conspirator, and the accused is part of a common plan or scheme to engage in the unlawful activity.

(c) It shall not be a defense to organizer of a vehicle theft conspiracy that the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have conspired:

(1) has not been prosecuted or convicted;

(2) has been convicted of a different offense;

(3) is not amenable to justice;

(4) has been acquitted; or

(5) lacked the capacity to commit an offense.

(d) Notwithstanding Section 8-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, a person may be convicted and sentenced for both the offense of organizer of a vehicle theft conspiracy and any other offense in this Chapter which is the object of the conspiracy.

(e) Organizer of a vehicle theft conspiracy is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 86-1209.)

(625 ILCS 5/4-105.5) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 4-105.5)

Sec. 4-105.5. Attempt. As defined in Section 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 81-932.)

(625 ILCS 5/4-107) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 4-107)

Sec. 4-107. Stolen, converted, recovered and unclaimed vehicles.

(a) Every Sheriff, Superintendent of police, Chief of police or other police officer in command of any Police department in any City, Village or Town of the State, shall, by the fastest means of communications available to his law enforcement agency, immediately report to the State Police, in Springfield, Illinois, the theft or recovery of any stolen or converted vehicle within his district or jurisdiction. The report shall give the date of theft, description of the vehicle including color, year of manufacture, manufacturer's trade name, manufacturer's series name, body style, vehicle identification number and license registration number, including the state in which the license was issued and the year of issuance, together with the name, residence address, business address, and telephone number of the owner. The report shall be routed by the originating law enforcement agency through the State Police District in which such agency is located.

(b) A registered owner or a lienholder may report the theft by conversion of a vehicle, to the State Police, or any other police department or Sheriff's office. Such report will be accepted as a report of theft and processed only if a formal complaint is on file and a warrant issued.

(c) An operator of a place of business for garaging, repairing, parking or storing vehicles for the public, in which a vehicle remains unclaimed, after being left for the purpose of garaging, repairing, parking or storage, for a period of 15 days, shall, within 5 days after the expiration of that period, report the vehicle as unclaimed to the municipal police when the vehicle is within the corporate limits of any City, Village or incorporated Town, or the County Sheriff, or State Police when the vehicle is outside the corporate limits of a City, Village or incorporated Town. This Section does not apply to any vehicle:

(1) removed to a place of storage by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, in accordance with Sections 4-201 and 4-203 of this Act; or

(2) left under a garaging, repairing, parking, or storage order signed by the owner, lessor, or other legally entitled person.

Failure to comply with this Section will result in the forfeiture of storage fees for that vehicle involved.

(d) The State Police shall keep a complete record of all reports filed under this Section of the Act. Upon receipt of such report, a careful search shall be made of the records of the office of the State Police, and where it is found that a vehicle reported recovered was stolen in a County, City, Village or Town other than the County, City, Village or Town in which it is recovered, the State Police shall immediately notify the Sheriff, Superintendent of police, Chief of police, or other police officer in command of the Sheriff's office or Police department of the County, City, Village or Town in which the vehicle was originally reported stolen, giving complete data as to the time and place of recovery.

(e) Notification of the theft or conversion of a vehicle will be furnished to the Secretary of State by the State Police. The Secretary of State shall place the proper information in the license registration and title registration files to indicate the theft or conversion of a motor vehicle or other vehicle. Notification of the recovery of a vehicle previously reported as a theft or a conversion will be furnished to the Secretary of State by the State Police. The Secretary of State shall remove the proper information from the license registration and title registration files that has previously indicated the theft or conversion of a vehicle. The Secretary of State shall suspend the registration of a vehicle upon receipt of a report from the State Police that such vehicle was stolen or converted.

(f) When the Secretary of State receives an application for a certificate of title or an application for registration of a vehicle and it is determined from the records of the office of the Secretary of State that such vehicle has been reported stolen or converted, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the State Police and shall give the State Police the name and address of the person or firm titling or registering the vehicle, together with all other information contained in the application submitted by such person or firm.

(g) During the usual course of business the manufacturer of any vehicle shall place an original manufacturer's vehicle identification number on all such vehicles manufactured and on any part of such vehicles requiring an identification number.

(h) Except provided in subsection (h-1), if a manufacturer's vehicle identification number is missing or has been removed, changed or mutilated on any vehicle, or any part of such vehicle requiring an identification number, the State Police shall restore, restamp or reaffix the vehicle identification number plate, or affix a new plate bearing the original manufacturer's vehicle identification number on each such vehicle and on all necessary parts of the vehicles. A vehicle identification number so affixed, restored, restamped, reaffixed or replaced is not falsified, altered or forged within the meaning of this Act.

(h-1) A person engaged in the repair or servicing of vehicles may reaffix a manufacturer's identification number plate on the same damaged vehicle from which it was originally removed, if the person reaffixes the original manufacturer's identification number plate in place of the identification number plate affixed on a new dashboard that has been installed in the vehicle. The person must notify the Secretary of State each time the original manufacturer's identification number plate is reaffixed on a vehicle. The person must keep a record indicating that the identification number plate affixed on the new dashboard has been removed and has been replaced by the manufacturer's identification number plate originally affixed on the vehicle. The person also must keep a record regarding the status and location of the identification number plate removed from the replacement dashboard. The Secretary shall adopt rules for implementing this subsection (h-1).

(h-2) The owner of a vehicle repaired under subsection (h-1) must, within 90 days of the date of the repairs, contact an officer of the Illinois State Police Vehicle Inspection Bureau and arrange for an inspection of the vehicle, by the officer or the officer's designee, at a mutually agreed upon date and location.

(i) If a vehicle or part of any vehicle is found to have the manufacturer's identification number removed, altered, defaced or destroyed, the vehicle or part shall be seized by any law enforcement agency having jurisdiction and held for the purpose of identification. In the event that the manufacturer's identification number of a vehicle or part cannot be identified, the vehicle or part shall be considered contraband, and no right of property shall exist in any person owning, leasing or possessing such property, unless the person owning, leasing or possessing the vehicle or part acquired such without knowledge that the manufacturer's vehicle identification number has been removed, altered, defaced, falsified or destroyed.

Either the seizing law enforcement agency or the State's Attorney of the county where the seizure occurred may make an application for an order of forfeiture to the circuit court in the county of seizure. The application for forfeiture shall be independent from any prosecution arising out of the seizure and is not subject to any final determination of such prosecution. The circuit court shall issue an order forfeiting the property to the seizing law enforcement agency if the court finds that the property did not at the time of seizure possess a valid manufacturer's identification number and that the original manufacturer's identification number cannot be ascertained. The seizing law enforcement agency may:

(1) retain the forfeited property for official use; or

(2) sell the forfeited property and distribute the proceeds in accordance with Section 4-211 of this Code, or dispose of the forfeited property in such manner as the law enforcement agency deems appropriate.

(i-1) If a motorcycle is seized under subsection (i), the motorcycle must be returned within 45 days of the date of seizure to the person from whom it was seized, unless (i) criminal charges are pending against that person or (ii) an application for an order of forfeiture has been submitted to the circuit in the county of seizure or (iii) the circuit court in the county of seizure has received from the seizing law enforcement agency and has granted a petition to extend, for a single 30 day period, the 45 days allowed for return of the motorcycle. Except as provided in subsection (i-2), a motorcycle returned to the person from whom it was seized must be returned in essentially the same condition it was in at the time of seizure.

(i-2) If any part or parts of a motorcycle seized under subsection (i) are found to be stolen and are removed, the seizing law enforcement agency is not required to replace the part or parts before returning the motorcycle to the person from whom it was seized.

(j) The State Police shall notify the Secretary of State each time a manufacturer's vehicle identification number is affixed, reaffixed, restored or restamped on any vehicle. The Secretary of State shall make the necessary changes or corrections in his records, after the proper applications and fees have been submitted, if applicable.

(k) Any vessel, vehicle or aircraft used with knowledge and consent of the owner in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit as defined in Section 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, an offense prohibited by Section 4-103 of this Chapter, including transporting of a stolen vehicle or stolen vehicle parts, shall be seized by any law enforcement agency. The seizing law enforcement agency may:

(1) return the vehicle to its owner if such vehicle is stolen; or

(2) confiscate the vehicle and retain it for any purpose which the law enforcement agency deems appropriate; or

(3) sell the vehicle at a public sale or dispose of the vehicle in such other manner as the law enforcement agency deems appropriate.

If the vehicle is sold at public sale, the proceeds of the sale shall be paid to the law enforcement agency.

The law enforcement agency shall not retain, sell or dispose of a vehicle under paragraphs (2) or (3) of this subsection (k) except upon an order of forfeiture issued by the circuit court. The circuit court may issue such order of forfeiture upon application of the law enforcement agency or State's Attorney of the county where the law enforcement agency has jurisdiction, or in the case of the Department of State Police or the Secretary of State, upon application of the Attorney General.

The court shall issue the order if the owner of the vehicle has been convicted of transporting stolen vehicles or stolen vehicle parts and the evidence establishes that the owner's vehicle has been used in the commission of such offense.

The provisions of subsection (k) of this Section shall not apply to any vessel, vehicle or aircraft, which has been leased, rented or loaned by its owner, if the owner did not have knowledge of and consent to the use of the vessel, vehicle or aircraft in the commission of, or in an attempt to commit, an offense prohibited by Section 4-103 of this Chapter.

(Source: P.A. 92-443, eff. 1-1-02; 93-456, eff. 8-8-03.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-101) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-101)

Sec. 5-101. New vehicle dealers must be licensed.

(a) No person shall engage in this State in the business of selling or dealing in, on consignment or otherwise, new vehicles of any make, or act as an intermediary or agent or broker for any licensed dealer or vehicle purchaser other than as a salesperson, or represent or advertise that he is so engaged or intends to so engage in such business unless licensed to do so in writing by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this Section.

(b) An application for a new vehicle dealer's license shall be filed with the Secretary of State, duly verified by oath, on such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe and shall contain:

1. The name and type of business organization of the applicant and his established and additional places of business, if any, in this State.

2. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association, a trust, or any similar form of business organization, the name and residence address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee, or manager.

3. The make or makes of new vehicles which the applicant will offer for sale at retail in this State.

4. The name of each manufacturer or franchised distributor, if any, of new vehicles with whom the applicant has contracted for the sale of such new vehicles. As evidence of this fact, the application shall be accompanied by a signed statement from each such manufacturer or franchised distributor. If the applicant is in the business of offering for sale new conversion vehicles, trucks or vans, except for trucks modified to serve a special purpose which includes but is not limited to the following vehicles: street sweepers, fertilizer spreaders, emergency vehicles, implements of husbandry or maintenance type vehicles, he must furnish evidence of a sales and service agreement from both the chassis manufacturer and second stage manufacturer.

5. A statement that the applicant has been approved for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act by the Department of Revenue: Provided that this requirement does not apply to a dealer who is already licensed hereunder with the Secretary of State, and who is merely applying for a renewal of his license. As evidence of this fact, the application shall be accompanied by a certification from the Department of Revenue showing that that Department has approved the applicant for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

6. A statement that the applicant has complied with the appropriate liability insurance requirement. A Certificate of Insurance in a solvent company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois shall be included with each application covering each location at which he proposes to act as a new vehicle dealer. The policy must provide liability coverage in the minimum amounts of $100,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, two or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property. Such policy shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The expiration of the insurance policy shall not terminate the liability under the policy arising during the period for which the policy was filed. Trailer and mobile home dealers are exempt from this requirement.

If the permitted user has a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, then the permitted user's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the dealer's insurer shall be the secondary insurer. If the permitted user does not have a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, or does not have any insurance at all, then the dealer's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the permitted user's insurer shall be the secondary insurer.

When a permitted user is "test driving" a new vehicle dealer's automobile, the new vehicle dealer's insurance shall be primary and the permitted user's insurance shall be secondary.

As used in this paragraph 6, a "permitted user" is a person who, with the permission of the new vehicle dealer or an employee of the new vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by the new vehicle dealer which the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle. The term "permitted user" also includes a person who, with the permission of the new vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the new vehicle dealer for loaner purposes while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

As used in this paragraph 6, "test driving" occurs when a permitted user who, with the permission of the new vehicle dealer or an employee of the new vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by a new vehicle dealer that the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle.

As used in this paragraph 6, "loaner purposes" means when a person who, with the permission of the new vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the new vehicle dealer while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

7. (A) An application for a new motor vehicle dealer's license shall be accompanied by the following license fees:

(i) $1,000 for applicant's established place of business, and $100 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's established place of business plus $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. All moneys received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (i) prior to applications for the 2004 licensing year shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund and shall be used to administer the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the Motor Vehicle Franchise Act. Of the money received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (i) for the 2004 licensing year and thereafter, 10% shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund and shall be used to administer the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the Motor Vehicle Franchise Act and 90% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(ii) Except as provided in subsection (h) of Section 5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for the applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (ii) shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.

(B) An application for a new vehicle dealer's license, other than for a new motor vehicle dealer's license, shall be accompanied by the following license fees:

(i) $1,000 for applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Of the money received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (i) for the 2004 licensing year and thereafter, 95% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(ii) Except as provided in subsection (h) of Section 5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for the applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (ii) shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.

8. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, a partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in the past 3 years any one violation as determined in any civil, criminal or administrative proceedings of any one of the following Acts:

(A) The Anti Theft Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(B) The Certificate of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(C) The Offenses against Registration and Certificates of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(D) The Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and Rebuilders Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(E) Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to Vehicles; or

(F) The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

9. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more violations, as determined in any civil, criminal or administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the following Acts:

(A) The Consumer Finance Act;

(B) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;

(C) The Retail Installment Sales Act;

(D) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act;

(E) The Interest Act;

(F) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;

(G) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(H) The Consumer Fraud Act.

10. A bond or certificate of deposit in the amount of $20,000 for each location at which the applicant intends to act as a new vehicle dealer. The bond shall be for the term of the license, or its renewal, for which application is made, and shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The bond shall run to the People of the State of Illinois, with surety by a bonding or insurance company authorized to do business in this State. It shall be conditioned upon the proper transmittal of all title and registration fees and taxes (excluding taxes under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act) accepted by the applicant as a new vehicle dealer.

11. Such other information concerning the business of the applicant as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe.

12. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter One through Chapter Five of this Code.

(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any information contained in any application for a new vehicle dealer's license shall be amended within 30 days after the occurrence of such change on such form as the Secretary of State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an amendatory fee of $2.

(d) Anything in this Chapter 5 to the contrary notwithstanding no person shall be licensed as a new vehicle dealer unless:

1. He is authorized by contract in writing between himself and the manufacturer or franchised distributor of such make of vehicle to so sell the same in this State, and

2. Such person shall maintain an established place of business as defined in this Act.

(e) The Secretary of State shall, within a reasonable time after receipt, examine an application submitted to him under this Section and unless he makes a determination that the application submitted to him does not conform with the requirements of this Section or that grounds exist for a denial of the application, under Section 5-501 of this Chapter, grant the applicant an original new vehicle dealer's license in writing for his established place of business and a supplemental license in writing for each additional place of business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation which shall include the following:

1. The name of the person licensed;

2. If a corporation, the name and address of its officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association or any similar form of business organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager;

3. In the case of an original license, the established place of business of the licensee;

4. In the case of a supplemental license, the established place of business of the licensee and the additional place of business to which such supplemental license pertains;

5. The make or makes of new vehicles which the licensee is licensed to sell.

(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State, shall be kept posted conspicuously in the established place of business of the licensee and in each additional place of business, if any, maintained by such licensee.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) hereof, all new vehicle dealer's licenses granted under this Section shall expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled under the provisions of Section 5-501 of this Chapter.

(h) A new vehicle dealer's license may be renewed upon application and payment of the fee required herein, and submission of proof of coverage under an approved bond under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" or proof that applicant is not subject to such bonding requirements, as in the case of an original license, but in case an application for the renewal of an effective license is made during the month of December, the effective license shall remain in force until the application is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.

(i) All persons licensed as a new vehicle dealer are required to furnish each purchaser of a motor vehicle:

1. In the case of a new vehicle a manufacturer's statement of origin and in the case of a used motor vehicle a certificate of title, in either case properly assigned to the purchaser;

2. A statement verified under oath that all identifying numbers on the vehicle agree with those on the certificate of title or manufacturer's statement of origin;

3. A bill of sale properly executed on behalf of such person;

4. A copy of the Uniform Invoice-transaction reporting return referred to in Section 5-402 hereof;

5. In the case of a rebuilt vehicle, a copy of the Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status; and

6. In the case of a vehicle for which the warranty has been reinstated, a copy of the warranty.

(j) Except at the time of sale or repossession of the vehicle, no person licensed as a new vehicle dealer may issue any other person a newly created key to a vehicle unless the new vehicle dealer makes a copy of the driver's license or State identification card of the person requesting or obtaining the newly created key. The new vehicle dealer must retain the copy for 30 days.

A new vehicle dealer who violates this subsection (j) is guilty of a petty offense. Violation of this subsection (j) is not cause to suspend, revoke, cancel, or deny renewal of the new vehicle dealer's license.

This amendatory Act of 1983 shall be applicable to the 1984 registration year and thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 97-480, eff. 10-1-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-102) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-102)

Sec. 5-102. Used vehicle dealers must be licensed.

(a) No person, other than a licensed new vehicle dealer, shall engage in the business of selling or dealing in, on consignment or otherwise, 5 or more used vehicles of any make during the year (except house trailers as authorized by paragraph (j) of this Section and rebuilt salvage vehicles sold by their rebuilders to persons licensed under this Chapter), or act as an intermediary, agent or broker for any licensed dealer or vehicle purchaser (other than as a salesperson) or represent or advertise that he is so engaged or intends to so engage in such business unless licensed to do so by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this Section.

(b) An application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be filed with the Secretary of State, duly verified by oath, in such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe and shall contain:

1. The name and type of business organization established and additional places of business, if any, in this State.

2. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association, a trust, or any similar form of business organization, the names and residence address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager.

3. A statement that the applicant has been approved for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act by the Department of Revenue. However, this requirement does not apply to a dealer who is already licensed hereunder with the Secretary of State, and who is merely applying for a renewal of his license. As evidence of this fact, the application shall be accompanied by a certification from the Department of Revenue showing that the Department has approved the applicant for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

4. A statement that the applicant has complied with the appropriate liability insurance requirement. A Certificate of Insurance in a solvent company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois shall be included with each application covering each location at which he proposes to act as a used vehicle dealer. The policy must provide liability coverage in the minimum amounts of $100,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, two or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property. Such policy shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The expiration of the insurance policy shall not terminate the liability under the policy arising during the period for which the policy was filed. Trailer and mobile home dealers are exempt from this requirement.

If the permitted user has a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, then the permitted user's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the dealer's insurer shall be the secondary insurer. If the permitted user does not have a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, or does not have any insurance at all, then the dealer's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the permitted user's insurer shall be the secondary insurer.

When a permitted user is "test driving" a used vehicle dealer's automobile, the used vehicle dealer's insurance shall be primary and the permitted user's insurance shall be secondary.

As used in this paragraph 4, a "permitted user" is a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer or an employee of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer which the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle. The term "permitted user" also includes a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer for loaner purposes while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

As used in this paragraph 4, "test driving" occurs when a permitted user who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer or an employee of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by a used vehicle dealer that the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle.

As used in this paragraph 4, "loaner purposes" means when a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

5. An application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be accompanied by the following license fees:

(A) $1,000 for applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; however, if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Of the money received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (A) for the 2004 licensing year and thereafter, 95% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(B) Except as provided in subsection (h) of Section 5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for the applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.

6. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in the past 3 years any one violation as determined in any civil, criminal or administrative proceedings of any one of the following Acts:

(A) The Anti Theft Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(B) The Certificate of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(C) The Offenses against Registration and Certificates of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(D) The Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and Rebuilders Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(E) Section 21-2 of the Illinois Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to Vehicles; or

(F) The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

7. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more violations, as determined in any civil or criminal or administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the following Acts:

(A) The Consumer Finance Act;

(B) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;

(C) The Retail Installment Sales Act;

(D) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act;

(E) The Interest Act;

(F) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;

(G) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(H) The Consumer Fraud Act.

8. A bond or Certificate of Deposit in the amount of $20,000 for each location at which the applicant intends to act as a used vehicle dealer. The bond shall be for the term of the license, or its renewal, for which application is made, and shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The bond shall run to the People of the State of Illinois, with surety by a bonding or insurance company authorized to do business in this State. It shall be conditioned upon the proper transmittal of all title and registration fees and taxes (excluding taxes under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act) accepted by the applicant as a used vehicle dealer.

9. Such other information concerning the business of the applicant as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe.

10. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter 1 through Chapter 5 of this Code.

11. A copy of the certification from the prelicensing education program.

(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any information contained in any application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be amended within 30 days after the occurrence of each change on such form as the Secretary of State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an amendatory fee of $2.

(d) Anything in this Chapter to the contrary notwithstanding, no person shall be licensed as a used vehicle dealer unless such person maintains an established place of business as defined in this Chapter.

(e) The Secretary of State shall, within a reasonable time after receipt, examine an application submitted to him under this Section. Unless the Secretary makes a determination that the application submitted to him does not conform to this Section or that grounds exist for a denial of the application under Section 5-501 of this Chapter, he must grant the applicant an original used vehicle dealer's license in writing for his established place of business and a supplemental license in writing for each additional place of business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation which shall include the following:

1. The name of the person licensed;

2. If a corporation, the name and address of its officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association or any similar form of business organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager;

3. In case of an original license, the established place of business of the licensee;

4. In the case of a supplemental license, the established place of business of the licensee and the additional place of business to which such supplemental license pertains.

(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State shall be kept posted, conspicuously, in the established place of business of the licensee and in each additional place of business, if any, maintained by such licensee.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) of this Section, all used vehicle dealer's licenses granted under this Section expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled under Section 5-501 of this Chapter.

(h) A used vehicle dealer's license may be renewed upon application and payment of the fee required herein, and submission of proof of coverage by an approved bond under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" or proof that applicant is not subject to such bonding requirements, as in the case of an original license, but in case an application for the renewal of an effective license is made during the month of December, the effective license shall remain in force until the application for renewal is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.

(i) All persons licensed as a used vehicle dealer are required to furnish each purchaser of a motor vehicle:

1. A certificate of title properly assigned to the purchaser;

2. A statement verified under oath that all identifying numbers on the vehicle agree with those on the certificate of title;

3. A bill of sale properly executed on behalf of such person;

4. A copy of the Uniform Invoice-transaction reporting return referred to in Section 5-402 of this Chapter;

5. In the case of a rebuilt vehicle, a copy of the Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status; and

6. In the case of a vehicle for which the warranty has been reinstated, a copy of the warranty.

(j) A real estate broker holding a valid certificate of registration issued pursuant to "The Real Estate Brokers and Salesmen License Act" may engage in the business of selling or dealing in house trailers not his own without being licensed as a used vehicle dealer under this Section; however such broker shall maintain a record of the transaction including the following:

(1) the name and address of the buyer and seller,

(2) the date of sale,

(3) a description of the mobile home, including the vehicle identification number, make, model, and year, and

(4) the Illinois certificate of title number.

The foregoing records shall be available for inspection by any officer of the Secretary of State's Office at any reasonable hour.

(k) Except at the time of sale or repossession of the vehicle, no person licensed as a used vehicle dealer may issue any other person a newly created key to a vehicle unless the used vehicle dealer makes a copy of the driver's license or State identification card of the person requesting or obtaining the newly created key. The used vehicle dealer must retain the copy for 30 days.

A used vehicle dealer who violates this subsection (k) is guilty of a petty offense. Violation of this subsection (k) is not cause to suspend, revoke, cancel, or deny renewal of the used vehicle dealer's license.

(l) Used vehicle dealers licensed under this Section shall provide the Secretary of State a register for the sale at auction of each salvage or junk certificate vehicle. Each register shall include the following information:

1. The year, make, model, style and color of the vehicle;

2. The vehicle's manufacturer's identification number or, if applicable, the Secretary of State or Illinois Department of State Police identification number;

3. The date of acquisition of the vehicle;

4. The name and address of the person from whom the vehicle was acquired;

5. The name and address of the person to whom any vehicle was disposed, the person's Illinois license number or if the person is an out-of-state salvage vehicle buyer, the license number from the state or jurisdiction where the buyer is licensed; and

6. The purchase price of the vehicle.

The register shall be submitted to the Secretary of State via written or electronic means within 10 calendar days from the date of the auction.

(Source: P.A. 96-678, eff. 8-25-09; 97-480, eff. 10-1-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-301) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-301)

Sec. 5-301. Automotive parts recyclers, scrap processors, repairers and rebuilders must be licensed.

(a) No person in this State shall, except as an incident to the servicing of vehicles, carry on or conduct the business of a automotive parts recyclers, a scrap processor, a repairer, or a rebuilder, unless licensed to do so in writing by the Secretary of State under this Section. No person shall rebuild a salvage vehicle unless such person is licensed as a rebuilder by the Secretary of State under this Section. No person shall engage in the business of acquiring 5 or more previously owned vehicles in one calendar year for the primary purpose of disposing of those vehicles in the manner described in the definition of a "scrap processor" in this Code unless the person is licensed as an automotive parts recycler by the Secretary of State under this Section. Each license shall be applied for and issued separately, except that a license issued to a new vehicle dealer under Section 5-101 of this Code shall also be deemed to be a repairer license.

(b) Any application filed with the Secretary of State, shall be duly verified by oath, in such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe and shall contain:

1. The name and type of business organization of the applicant and his principal or additional places of business, if any, in this State.

2. The kind or kinds of business enumerated in subsection (a) of this Section to be conducted at each location.

3. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association, a trust, or any similar form of business organization, the names and residence address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager.

4. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager, or other principals in the business have not committed in the past three years any one violation as determined in any civil or criminal or administrative proceedings of any one of the following Acts:

(a) The Anti Theft Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(b) The "Certificate of Title Laws" of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(c) The "Offenses against Registration and Certificates of Title Laws" of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(d) The "Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and Rebuilders Laws" of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(e) Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to Vehicles; or

(f) The Retailers Occupation Tax Act.

5. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in the business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more violations, as determined in any civil or criminal or administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the following Acts:

(a) The Consumer Finance Act;

(b) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;

(c) The Retail Installment Sales Act;

(d) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act;

(e) The Interest Act;

(f) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;

(g) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(h) The Consumer Fraud Act.

6. An application for a license shall be accompanied by the following fees: $50 for applicant's established place of business; $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; provided, however, that if such an application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $25 for applicant's established place of business plus $12.50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that such application shall be denied by the Secretary of State.

7. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter 1 through Chapter 5 of this Code.

8. A statement that the applicant shall comply with subsection (e) of this Section.

(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any information contained in any application for a license filed with the Secretary of State shall be amended within 30 days after the occurrence of such change on such form as the Secretary of State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an amendatory fee of $2.

(d) Anything in this chapter to the contrary, notwithstanding, no person shall be licensed under this Section unless such person shall maintain an established place of business as defined in this Chapter.

(e) The Secretary of State shall within a reasonable time after receipt thereof, examine an application submitted to him under this Section and unless he makes a determination that the application submitted to him does not conform with the requirements of this Section or that grounds exist for a denial of the application, as prescribed in Section 5-501 of this Chapter, grant the applicant an original license as applied for in writing for his established place of business and a supplemental license in writing for each additional place of business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation which shall include the following:

1. The name of the person licensed;

2. If a corporation, the name and address of its officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association or any similar form of business organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or manager;

3. A designation of the kind or kinds of business enumerated in subsection (a) of this Section to be conducted at each location;

4. In the case of an original license, the established place of business of the licensee;

5. In the case of a supplemental license, the established place of business of the licensee and the additional place of business to which such supplemental license pertains.

(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State shall be kept, posted, conspicuously in the established place of business of the licensee and in each additional place of business, if any, maintained by such licensee. The licensee also shall post conspicuously in the established place of business and in each additional place of business a notice which states that such business is required to be licensed by the Secretary of State under Section 5-301, and which provides the license number of the business and the license expiration date. This notice also shall advise the consumer that any complaints as to the quality of service may be brought to the attention of the Attorney General. The information required on this notice also shall be printed conspicuously on all estimates and receipts for work by the licensee subject to this Section. The Secretary of State shall prescribe the specific format of this notice.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) hereof, licenses granted under this Section shall expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled under the provisions of Section 5-501 of this Chapter.

(h) Any license granted under this Section may be renewed upon application and payment of the fee required herein as in the case of an original license, provided, however, that in case an application for the renewal of an effective license is made during the month of December, such effective license shall remain in force until such application is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.

(i) All automotive repairers and rebuilders shall, in addition to the requirements of subsections (a) through (h) of this Section, meet the following licensing requirements:

1. Provide proof that the property on which first time applicants plan to do business is in compliance with local zoning laws and regulations, and a listing of zoning classification;

2. Provide proof that the applicant for a repairer's license complies with the proper workers' compensation rate code or classification, and listing the code of classification for that industry;

3. Provide proof that the applicant for a rebuilder's license complies with the proper workers' compensation rate code or classification for the repair industry or the auto parts recycling industry and listing the code of classification;

4. Provide proof that the applicant has obtained or applied for a hazardous waste generator number, and listing the actual number if available or certificate of exemption;

5. Provide proof that applicant has proper liability insurance, and listing the name of the insurer and the policy number; and

6. Provide proof that the applicant has obtained or applied for the proper State sales tax classification and federal identification tax number, and listing the actual numbers if available.

(i-1) All automotive repairers shall provide proof that they comply with all requirements of the Automotive Collision Repair Act.

(j) All automotive parts recyclers shall, in addition to the requirements of subsections (a) through (h) of this Section, meet the following licensing requirements:

1. A statement that the applicant purchases 5 vehicles per year or has 5 hulks or chassis in stock;

2. Provide proof that the property on which all first time applicants will do business does comply to the proper local zoning laws in existence, and a listing of zoning classifications;

3. Provide proof that applicant complies with the proper workers' compensation rate code or classification, and listing the code of classification; and

4. Provide proof that applicant has obtained or applied for the proper State sales tax classification and federal identification tax number, and listing the actual numbers if available.

(Source: P.A. 97-832, eff. 7-20-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-501) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-501)

Sec. 5-501. Denial, suspension or revocation or cancellation of a license.

(a) The license of a person issued under this Chapter may be denied, revoked or suspended if the Secretary of State finds that the applicant, or the officer, director, shareholder having a ten percent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, owner, partner, trustee, manager, employee or the licensee has:

1. Violated this Act;

2. Made any material misrepresentation to the Secretary of State in connection with an application for a license, junking certificate, salvage certificate, title or registration;

3. Committed a fraudulent act in connection with selling, bartering, exchanging, offering for sale or otherwise dealing in vehicles, chassis, essential parts, or vehicle shells;

4. As a new vehicle dealer has no contract with a manufacturer or enfranchised distributor to sell that new vehicle in this State;

5. Not maintained an established place of business as defined in this Code;

6. Failed to file or produce for the Secretary of State any application, report, document or other pertinent books, records, documents, letters, contracts, required to be filed or produced under this Code or any rule or regulation made by the Secretary of State pursuant to this Code;

7. Previously had, within 3 years, such a license denied, suspended, revoked, or cancelled under the provisions of subsection (c)(2) of this Section;

8. Has committed in any calendar year 3 or more violations, as determined in any civil or criminal proceeding, of any one or more of the following Acts:

a. the "Consumer Finance Act";

b. the "Consumer Installment Loan Act";

c. the "Retail Installment Sales Act";

d. the "Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act";

e. "An Act in relation to the rate of interest and other charges in connection with sales on credit and the lending of money", approved May 24, 1879, as amended;

f. "An Act to promote the welfare of wage-earners by regulating the assignment of wages, and prescribing a penalty for the violation thereof", approved July 1, 1935, as amended;

g. Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

h. the "Consumer Fraud Act";

9. Failed to pay any fees or taxes due under this Act, or has failed to transmit any fees or taxes received by him for transmittal by him to the Secretary of State or the State of Illinois;

10. Converted an abandoned vehicle;

11. Used a vehicle identification plate or number assigned to a vehicle other than the one to which originally assigned;

12. Violated the provisions of Chapter 5 of this Act, as amended;

13. Violated the provisions of Chapter 4 of this Act, as amended;

14. Violated the provisions of Chapter 3 of this Act, as amended;

15. Violated Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to Vehicles;

16. Made or concealed a material fact in connection with his application for a license;

17. Acted in the capacity of a person licensed or acted as a licensee under this Chapter without having a license therefor;

18. Failed to pay, within 90 days after a final judgment, any fines assessed against the licensee pursuant to an action brought under Section 5-404;

19. Failed to pay the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund fee under Section 5-102.7 of this Code;

20. Failed to pay, within 90 days after notice has been given, any fine or fee owed as a result of an administrative citation issued by the Secretary under this Code.

(b) In addition to other grounds specified in this Chapter, the Secretary of State, on complaint of the Department of Revenue, shall refuse the issuance or renewal of a license, or suspend or revoke such license, for any of the following violations of the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act":

1. Failure to make a tax return;

2. The filing of a fraudulent return;

3. Failure to pay all or part of any tax or penalty finally determined to be due;

4. Failure to comply with the bonding requirements of the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act".

(b-1) In addition to other grounds specified in this Chapter, the Secretary of State, on complaint of the Motor Vehicle Review Board, shall refuse the issuance or renewal of a license, or suspend or revoke that license, if costs or fees assessed under Section 29 or Section 30 of the Motor Vehicle Franchise Act have remained unpaid for a period in excess of 90 days after the licensee received from the Motor Vehicle Board a second notice and demand for the costs or fees. The Motor Vehicle Review Board must send the licensee written notice and demand for payment of the fees or costs at least 2 times, and the second notice and demand must be sent by certified mail.

(c) Cancellation of a license.

1. The license of a person issued under this Chapter may be cancelled by the Secretary of State prior to its expiration in any of the following situations:

A. When a license is voluntarily surrendered, by the licensed person; or

B. If the business enterprise is a sole proprietorship, which is not a franchised dealership, when the sole proprietor dies or is imprisoned for any period of time exceeding 30 days; or

C. If the license was issued to the wrong person or corporation, or contains an error on its face. If any person above whose license has been cancelled wishes to apply for another license, whether during the same license year or any other year, that person shall be treated as any other new applicant and the cancellation of the person's prior license shall not, in and of itself, be a bar to the issuance of a new license.

2. The license of a person issued under this Chapter may be cancelled without a hearing when the Secretary of State is notified that the applicant, or any officer, director, shareholder having a 10 per cent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, owner, partner, trustee, manager, employee or member of the applicant or the licensee has been convicted of any felony involving the selling, bartering, exchanging, offering for sale, or otherwise dealing in vehicles, chassis, essential parts, vehicle shells, or ownership documents relating to any of the above items.

(Source: P.A. 97-480, eff. 10-1-11; 97-838, eff. 7-20-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-101) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-101)

Sec. 6-101. Drivers must have licenses or permits.

(a) No person, except those expressly exempted by Section 6-102, shall drive any motor vehicle upon a highway in this State unless such person has a valid license or permit, or a restricted driving permit, issued under the provisions of this Act.

(b) No person shall drive a motor vehicle unless he holds a valid license or permit, or a restricted driving permit issued under the provisions of Section 6-205, 6-206, or 6-113 of this Act. Any person to whom a license is issued under the provisions of this Act must surrender to the Secretary of State all valid licenses or permits. No drivers license or instruction permit shall be issued to any person who holds a valid Foreign State license, identification card, or permit unless such person first surrenders to the Secretary of State any such valid Foreign State license, identification card, or permit.

(b-5) Any person who commits a violation of subsection (a) or (b) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, if at the time of the violation the person's driver's license or permit was cancelled under clause (a)9 of Section 6-201 of this Code.

(c) Any person licensed as a driver hereunder shall not be required by any city, village, incorporated town or other municipal corporation to obtain any other license to exercise the privilege thereby granted.

(d) In addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, any person in violation of this Section who is also in violation of Section 7-601 of this Code relating to mandatory insurance requirements shall have his or her motor vehicle immediately impounded by the arresting law enforcement officer. The motor vehicle may be released to any licensed driver upon a showing of proof of insurance for the motor vehicle that was impounded and the notarized written consent for the release by the vehicle owner.

(e) In addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, the vehicle of any person in violation of this Section who is also in violation of Section 7-601 of this Code relating to mandatory insurance requirements and who, in violating this Section, has caused death or personal injury to another person is subject to forfeiture under Sections 36-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. For the purposes of this Section, a personal injury shall include any type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or a medical facility. A type A injury shall include severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(Source: P.A. 97-229, eff. 7-28-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)

Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue any permit under this Code:

1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except that an instruction permit may be issued under Section 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if the child is enrolled in an approved driver education course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and requires an instruction permit to participate therein, except that an instruction permit may be issued under the provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an approved driver education course and except that an instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act, and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his or her discretion may prescribe;

2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle unless the person has, in addition to meeting the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully completed a motorcycle training course approved by the Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle driver's examination;

3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to any person whose driver's license or permit has been revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and 6-208;

4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol or any other drug to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;

5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental or physical disability or disease and who has not at the time of application been restored to competency by the methods provided by law;

6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the person has successfully passed the examination and submitted any required evaluation;

7. To any person who is required under the provisions of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of financial responsibility and who has not deposited the security or proof;

8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or mental disability would not be able to safely operate a motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a competent medical specialist, a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical examinations, to the effect that the operation of a motor vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public safety;

9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age or older, unless the person has successfully complied with the provisions of Section 6-109;

10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section 6-205;

11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of Section 6-104;

12. To any person who has been either convicted of or adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year;

13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;

14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in court ordered child support payments or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days' obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of court for failure to pay the support, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an order of support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code regarding those certifications;

15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide or for violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term of imprisonment;

16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or tendering such property or personal advantage shall be disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing this period of disqualification and the procedures by which persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review of the decision to disqualify;

17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State cannot verify the accuracy of any information or documentation submitted in application for a driver's license; or

18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is determined by the court to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied a license or permit for the period determined by the court.

The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction information, if the information is required to be held confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-740, eff. 1-1-10; 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-185, eff. 7-22-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.1)

Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of the application and screening process under this Section to insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary of State from their prospective or current employer and submit the completed application to the prospective or current employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as required by the Department of State Police to conduct fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or submitting proof of successful completion of the annual refresher course. Individuals who on the effective date of this Act possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been previously issued by the appropriate Regional School Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all related application and fingerprinting fees as established by rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing services under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the Secretary of State in administering this Section. All applicants must:

1. be 21 years of age or older;

2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately prior to the date of application, or have not had his or her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

4. successfully pass a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in the operation of school buses in accordance with rules promulgated by the Secretary of State;

6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a licensed physician, an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical examinations, or a physician assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or her supervising physician within 90 days of the date of application according to standards promulgated by the Secretary of State;

7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact in any application for permit;

8. have completed an initial classroom course, including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual refresher course; such courses and the agency or organization conducting such courses shall be approved by the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the permit until such course is completed;

9. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of application that may endanger the life or safety of any of the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit period;

10. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the date of application;

11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act;

12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any person;

14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease; and

15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the applicant to the Secretary of State.

(b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a suitable photograph of the holder.

(d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State Police that are required for the criminal background investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed including the successful completion of an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through the Department of State Police and the submission of necessary fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for criminal history information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the certification to the Secretary of State at the time of submitting the school bus driver permit application.

(e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving certification from the employer that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed, and upon successful completion of all training and examination requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation based upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation.

(f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or subsequent violation.

(g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.

(1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit when he or she receives notice that the permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of this Section.

(3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or otherwise invalidated.

(4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder failed to perform the inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-816 of this Code.

(7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has submitted to a test required by that Section which disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set forth in 49 CFR 40.87.

The Secretary of State shall notify the State Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing school board that fails to remove the offending school bus driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who violates a provision of this Section is subject to the penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.

All valid school bus driver permits issued under this Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.

(h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State shall not characterize the permit as invalid.

(i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this Section:

"Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard.

(Source: P.A. 96-89, eff. 7-27-09; 96-818, eff. 11-17-09; 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1182, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 950, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-224, eff. 7-28-11; 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-466, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106.2)

Sec. 6-106.2. Religious organization bus driver. A religious organization bus driver shall meet the following requirements:

1. is 21 years of age or older;

2. has a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

3. has held a valid driver's license, not necessarily of the same classification, for 3 years prior to the date of application;

4. has demonstrated an ability to exercise reasonable care in the safe operation of religious organization buses in accordance with such standards as the Secretary of State prescribes including a driving test in a religious organization bus; and

5. has not been convicted of any of the following offenses within 3 years of the date of application: Sections 11-401 (leaving the scene of a traffic accident involving death or personal injury), 11-501 (driving under the influence), 11-503 (reckless driving), 11-504 (drag racing), and 11-506 (street racing) of this Code, or Sections 9-3 (manslaughter or reckless homicide) and 12-5 (reckless conduct arising from the use of a motor vehicle) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 95-310, eff. 1-1-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.3) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106.3)

Sec. 6-106.3. Senior citizen transportation - driver. A driver of a vehicle operated solely for the purpose of providing transportation for the elderly in connection with the activities of any public or private organization shall meet the following requirements:

(1) is 21 years of age or older;

(2) has a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

(3) has had a valid driver's license, not necessarily of the same classification, for 3 years prior to the date of application;

(4) has demonstrated his ability to exercise reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle which will be utilized to transport persons in accordance with such standards as the Secretary of State prescribes including a driving test in such motor vehicle; and

(5) has not been convicted of any of the following offenses within 3 years of the date of application: Sections 11-401 (leaving the scene of a traffic accident involving death or personal injury), 11-501 (driving under the influence), 11-503 (reckless driving), 11-504 (drag racing), and 11-506 (street racing) of this Code, or Sections 9-3 (manslaughter or reckless homicide) and 12-5 (reckless conduct arising from the use of a motor vehicle) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 95-310, eff. 1-1-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.4) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106.4)

Sec. 6-106.4. For-profit ridesharing arrangement - driver. No person may drive a commuter van while it is being used for a for-profit ridesharing arrangement unless such person:

(1) is 21 years of age or older;

(2) has a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

(3) has held a valid driver's license, not necessarily of the same classification, for 3 years prior to the date of application;

(4) has demonstrated his ability to exercise reasonable care in the safe operation of commuter vans used in for-profit ridesharing arrangements in accordance with such standards as the Secretary of State may prescribe, which standards may require a driving test in a commuter van; and

(5) has not been convicted of any of the following offenses within 3 years of the date of application: Sections 11-401 (leaving the scene of a traffic accident involving death or personal injury), 11-501 (driving under the influence), 11-503 (reckless driving), 11-504 (drag racing), and 11-506 (street racing) of this Code, or Sections 9-3 (manslaughter or reckless homicide) and 12-5 (reckless conduct arising from the use of a motor vehicle) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 95-310, eff. 1-1-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-108.1)

Sec. 6-108.1. Notice to Secretary; denial of license; persons under 18.

(a) The State's Attorney must notify the Secretary of the charges pending against any person younger than 18 years of age who has been charged with a violation of this Code , the Criminal Code of 2012, or the Criminal Code of 1961 arising out of an accident in which the person was involved as a driver and that caused the death of or a type A injury to another person. A "type A injury" includes severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene. The State's Attorney must notify the Secretary on a form prescribed by the Secretary.

(b) The Secretary, upon receiving notification from the State's Attorney, may deny any driver's license to any person younger than 18 years of age against whom the charges are pending.

(c) The State's Attorney must notify the Secretary of the final disposition of the case of any person who has been denied a driver's license under subsection (b).

(d) The Secretary must adopt rules for implementing this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-137, eff. 7-24-01.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-118)

Sec. 6-118. Fees.

(a) The fee for licenses and permits under this Article is as follows:

Original driver's license.............................$30

Original or renewal driver's license

issued to 18, 19 and 20 year olds.................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 69 through age 80.............................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 81 through age 86.............................. 2

All driver's licenses for persons

age 87 or older.....................................0

Renewal driver's license (except for

applicants ages 18, 19 and 20 or

age 69 and older)..................................30

Original instruction permit issued to

persons (except those age 69 and older)

who do not hold or have not previously

held an Illinois instruction permit or

driver's license.................................. 20

Instruction permit issued to any person

holding an Illinois driver's license

who wishes a change in classifications,

other than at the time of renewal.................. 5

Any instruction permit issued to a person

age 69 and older................................... 5

Instruction permit issued to any person,

under age 69, not currently holding a

valid Illinois driver's license or

instruction permit but who has

previously been issued either document

in Illinois....................................... 10

Restricted driving permit.............................. 8

Monitoring device driving permit...................... 8

Duplicate or corrected driver's license

or permit.......................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected restricted

driving permit..................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected monitoring

device driving permit.................................. 5

Duplicate driver's license or permit issued to

an active-duty member of the

United States Armed Forces,

the member's spouse, or

the dependent children living

with the member................................... 0

Original or renewal M or L endorsement................. 5 SPECIAL FEES FOR COMMERCIAL DRIVER'S LICENSE

The fees for commercial driver licenses and permits under Article V shall be as follows:

Commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet Trust Fund

(Commercial Driver's License Information

System/American Association of Motor Vehicle

Administrators network Trust Fund);

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license;

and $24 for the CDL:............................. $60

Renewal commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license; and

$24 for the CDL:................................. $60

Commercial driver instruction permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois driver's license for the

purpose of changing to a

CDL classification: $6 for the

CDLIS/AAMVAnet Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier

Safety Inspection Fund; and

$24 for the CDL classification................... $50

Commercial driver instruction permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois CDL for the purpose of

making a change in a classification,

endorsement or restriction........................ $5

CDL duplicate or corrected license.................... $5

In order to ensure the proper implementation of the Uniform Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, the Secretary of State is empowered to pro-rate the $24 fee for the commercial driver's license proportionate to the expiration date of the applicant's Illinois driver's license.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's office with a police report showing that his license or permit was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose driver's license or permit has been lost or stolen.

No additional fee shall be charged for a driver's license, or for a commercial driver's license, when issued to the holder of an instruction permit for the same classification or type of license who becomes eligible for such license.

(b) Any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked under Section 3-707, any provision of Chapter 6, Chapter 11, or Section 7-205, 7-303, or 7-702 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law of this Code, shall in addition to any other fees required by this Code, pay a reinstatement fee as follows:

Suspension under Section 3-707..................... $100

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1...........$250

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Other suspension......................................$70

Revocation...........................................$500

However, any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and each suspension or revocation was for a violation of Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall pay, in addition to any other fees required by this Code, a reinstatement fee as follows:

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1............$500

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Revocation...........................................$500

(c) All fees collected under the provisions of this Chapter 6 shall be paid into the Road Fund in the State Treasury except as follows:

1. The following amounts shall be paid into the Driver Education Fund:

(A) $16 of the $20 fee for an original driver's instruction permit;

(B) $5 of the $30 fee for an original driver's license;

(C) $5 of the $30 fee for a 4 year renewal driver's license;

(D) $4 of the $8 fee for a restricted driving permit; and

(E) $4 of the $8 fee for a monitoring device driving permit.

2. $30 of the $250 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. However, for a person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1, and $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a revoked license shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund.

3. $6 of such original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license and $6 of the commercial driver instruction permit fee when such permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet Trust Fund.

4. $30 of the $70 fee for reinstatement of a license suspended under the Family Financial Responsibility Law shall be paid into the Family Responsibility Fund.

5. The $5 fee for each original or renewal M or L endorsement shall be deposited into the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

6. $20 of any original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license or commercial driver instruction permit shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund.

7. The following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund:

(A) $190 of the $250 reinstatement fee for a summary suspension under Section 11-501.1;

(B) $40 of the $70 reinstatement fee for any other suspension provided in subsection (b) of this Section; and

(C) $440 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a first offense revocation and $310 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a second or subsequent revocation.

(d) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(e) The additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall become effective 90 days after becoming law.

(f) As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38, eff. 7-13-09; 96-1231, eff. 7-23-10; 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-204) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-204)

Sec. 6-204. When Court to forward License and Reports.

(a) For the purpose of providing to the Secretary of State the records essential to the performance of the Secretary's duties under this Code to cancel, revoke or suspend the driver's license and privilege to drive motor vehicles of certain minors adjudicated truant minors in need of supervision, addicted, or delinquent and of persons found guilty of the criminal offenses or traffic violations which this Code recognizes as evidence relating to unfitness to safely operate motor vehicles, the following duties are imposed upon public officials:

(1) Whenever any person is convicted of any offense for which this Code makes mandatory the cancellation or revocation of the driver's license or permit of such person by the Secretary of State, the judge of the court in which such conviction is had shall require the surrender to the clerk of the court of all driver's licenses or permits then held by the person so convicted, and the clerk of the court shall, within 5 days thereafter, forward the same, together with a report of such conviction, to the Secretary.

(2) Whenever any person is convicted of any offense under this Code or similar offenses under a municipal ordinance, other than regulations governing standing, parking or weights of vehicles, and excepting the following enumerated Sections of this Code: Sections 11-1406 (obstruction to driver's view or control), 11-1407 (improper opening of door into traffic), 11-1410 (coasting on downgrade), 11-1411 (following fire apparatus), 11-1419.01 (Motor Fuel Tax I.D. Card), 12-101 (driving vehicle which is in unsafe condition or improperly equipped), 12-201(a) (daytime lights on motorcycles), 12-202 (clearance, identification and side marker lamps), 12-204 (lamp or flag on projecting load), 12-205 (failure to display the safety lights required), 12-401 (restrictions as to tire equipment), 12-502 (mirrors), 12-503 (windshields must be unobstructed and equipped with wipers), 12-601 (horns and warning devices), 12-602 (mufflers, prevention of noise or smoke), 12-603 (seat safety belts), 12-702 (certain vehicles to carry flares or other warning devices), 12-703 (vehicles for oiling roads operated on highways), 12-710 (splash guards and replacements), 13-101 (safety tests), 15-101 (size, weight and load), 15-102 (width), 15-103 (height), 15-104 (name and address on second division vehicles), 15-107 (length of vehicle), 15-109.1 (cover or tarpaulin), 15-111 (weights), 15-112 (weights), 15-301 (weights), 15-316 (weights), 15-318 (weights), and also excepting the following enumerated Sections of the Chicago Municipal Code: Sections 27-245 (following fire apparatus), 27-254 (obstruction of traffic), 27-258 (driving vehicle which is in unsafe condition), 27-259 (coasting on downgrade), 27-264 (use of horns and signal devices), 27-265 (obstruction to driver's view or driver mechanism), 27-267 (dimming of headlights), 27-268 (unattended motor vehicle), 27-272 (illegal funeral procession), 27-273 (funeral procession on boulevard), 27-275 (driving freight hauling vehicles on boulevard), 27-276 (stopping and standing of buses or taxicabs), 27-277 (cruising of public passenger vehicles), 27-305 (parallel parking), 27-306 (diagonal parking), 27-307 (parking not to obstruct traffic), 27-308 (stopping, standing or parking regulated), 27-311 (parking regulations), 27-312 (parking regulations), 27-313 (parking regulations), 27-314 (parking regulations), 27-315 (parking regulations), 27-316 (parking regulations), 27-317 (parking regulations), 27-318 (parking regulations), 27-319 (parking regulations), 27-320 (parking regulations), 27-321 (parking regulations), 27-322 (parking regulations), 27-324 (loading and unloading at an angle), 27-333 (wheel and axle loads), 27-334 (load restrictions in the downtown district), 27-335 (load restrictions in residential areas), 27-338 (width of vehicles), 27-339 (height of vehicles), 27-340 (length of vehicles), 27-352 (reflectors on trailers), 27-353 (mufflers), 27-354 (display of plates), 27-355 (display of city vehicle tax sticker), 27-357 (identification of vehicles), 27-358 (projecting of loads), and also excepting the following enumerated paragraphs of Section 2-201 of the Rules and Regulations of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority: (l) (driving unsafe vehicle on tollway), (m) (vehicles transporting dangerous cargo not properly indicated), it shall be the duty of the clerk of the court in which such conviction is had within 5 days thereafter to forward to the Secretary of State a report of the conviction and the court may recommend the suspension of the driver's license or permit of the person so convicted.

The reporting requirements of this subsection shall apply to all violations stated in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection when the individual has been adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Such reporting requirements shall also apply to individuals adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 who have committed a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, or similar provision of a local ordinance, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, as amended, relating to the offense of reckless homicide. These reporting requirements also apply to individuals adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based on any offense determined to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The reporting requirements of this subsection shall also apply to a truant minor in need of supervision, an addicted minor, or a delinquent minor and whose driver's license and privilege to drive a motor vehicle has been ordered suspended for such times as determined by the Court, but only until he or she attains 18 years of age. It shall be the duty of the clerk of the court in which adjudication is had within 5 days thereafter to forward to the Secretary of State a report of the adjudication and the court order requiring the Secretary of State to suspend the minor's driver's license and driving privilege for such time as determined by the Court, but only until he or she attains the age of 18 years. All juvenile court dispositions reported to the Secretary of State under this provision shall be processed by the Secretary of State as if the cases had been adjudicated in traffic or criminal court. However, information reported relative to the offense of reckless homicide, or Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers.

The reporting requirements of this subsection (a) apply to all violations listed in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (a), excluding parking violations, when the driver holds a CDL, regardless of the type of vehicle in which the violation occurred, or when any driver committed the violation in a commercial motor vehicle as defined in Section 6-500 of this Code.

(3) Whenever an order is entered vacating the forfeiture of any bail, security or bond given to secure appearance for any offense under this Code or similar offenses under municipal ordinance, it shall be the duty of the clerk of the court in which such vacation was had or the judge of such court if such court has no clerk, within 5 days thereafter to forward to the Secretary of State a report of the vacation.

(4) A report of any disposition of court supervision for a violation of Sections 6-303, 11-401, 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, 11-503, 11-504, and 11-506 shall be forwarded to the Secretary of State. A report of any disposition of court supervision for a violation of an offense defined as a serious traffic violation in this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance committed by a person under the age of 21 years shall be forwarded to the Secretary of State.

(5) Reports of conviction under this Code and sentencing hearings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in an electronic format or a computer processible medium shall be forwarded to the Secretary of State via the Supreme Court in the form and format required by the Illinois Supreme Court and established by a written agreement between the Supreme Court and the Secretary of State. In counties with a population over 300,000, instead of forwarding reports to the Supreme Court, reports of conviction under this Code and sentencing hearings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in an electronic format or a computer processible medium may be forwarded to the Secretary of State by the Circuit Court Clerk in a form and format required by the Secretary of State and established by written agreement between the Circuit Court Clerk and the Secretary of State. Failure to forward the reports of conviction or sentencing hearing under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 as required by this Section shall be deemed an omission of duty and it shall be the duty of the several State's Attorneys to enforce the requirements of this Section.

(b) Whenever a restricted driving permit is forwarded to a court, as a result of confiscation by a police officer pursuant to the authority in Section 6-113(f), it shall be the duty of the clerk, or judge, if the court has no clerk, to forward such restricted driving permit and a facsimile of the officer's citation to the Secretary of State as expeditiously as practicable.

(c) For the purposes of this Code, a forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure a defendant's appearance in court when forfeiture has not been vacated, or the failure of a defendant to appear for trial after depositing his driver's license in lieu of other bail, shall be equivalent to a conviction.

(d) For the purpose of providing the Secretary of State with records necessary to properly monitor and assess driver performance and assist the courts in the proper disposition of repeat traffic law offenders, the clerk of the court shall forward to the Secretary of State, on a form prescribed by the Secretary, records of a driver's participation in a driver remedial or rehabilitative program which was required, through a court order or court supervision, in relation to the driver's arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The clerk of the court shall also forward to the Secretary, either on paper or in an electronic format or a computer processible medium as required under paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of this Section, any disposition of court supervision for any traffic violation, excluding those offenses listed in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section. These reports shall be sent within 5 days after disposition, or, if the driver is referred to a driver remedial or rehabilitative program, within 5 days of the driver's referral to that program. These reports received by the Secretary of State, including those required to be forwarded under paragraph (a)(4), shall be privileged information, available only (i) to the affected driver, (ii) to the parent or guardian of a person under the age of 18 years holding an instruction permit or a graduated driver's license, and (iii) for use by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the Secretary of State, and the driver licensing administrator of any other state. In accordance with 49 C.F.R. Part 384, all reports of court supervision, except violations related to parking, shall be forwarded to the Secretary of State for all holders of a CDL or any driver who commits an offense while driving a commercial motor vehicle. These reports shall be recorded to the driver's record as a conviction for use in the disqualification of the driver's commercial motor vehicle privileges and shall not be privileged information.

(Source: P.A. 94-307, eff. 9-30-05; 94-930, eff. 6-26-06; 95-201, eff. 1-1-08; 95-310, eff. 1-1-08; 95-337, eff. 6-1-08; 95-382, eff. 8-23-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-205)

Sec. 6-205. Mandatory revocation of license or permit; Hardship cases.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately revoke the license, permit, or driving privileges of any driver upon receiving a report of the driver's conviction of any of the following offenses:

1. Reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle;

2. Violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof;

3. Any felony under the laws of any State or the federal government in the commission of which a motor vehicle was used;

4. Violation of Section 11-401 of this Code relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a traffic accident involving death or personal injury;

5. Perjury or the making of a false affidavit or statement under oath to the Secretary of State under this Code or under any other law relating to the ownership or operation of motor vehicles;

6. Conviction upon 3 charges of violation of Section 11-503 of this Code relating to the offense of reckless driving committed within a period of 12 months;

7. Conviction of any offense defined in Section 4-102 of this Code;

8. Violation of Section 11-504 of this Code relating to the offense of drag racing;

9. Violation of Chapters 8 and 9 of this Code;

10. Violation of Section 12-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 arising from the use of a motor vehicle;

11. Violation of Section 11-204.1 of this Code relating to aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer;

12. Violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 6-507, or a similar law of any other state, relating to the unlawful operation of a commercial motor vehicle;

13. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the driver has been previously convicted of a violation of that Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the driver was less than 21 years of age at the time of the offense;

14. Violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-506 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of street racing;

15. A second or subsequent conviction of driving while the person's driver's license, permit or privileges was revoked for reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense;

16. Any offense against any provision in this Code, or any local ordinance, regulating the movement of traffic when that offense was the proximate cause of the death of any person. Any person whose driving privileges have been revoked pursuant to this paragraph may seek to have the revocation terminated or to have the length of revocation reduced by requesting an administrative hearing with the Secretary of State prior to the projected driver's license application eligibility date;

17. Violation of subsection (a-2) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; .

18 17. A second or subsequent conviction of illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. A defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State.

(b) The Secretary of State shall also immediately revoke the license or permit of any driver in the following situations:

1. Of any minor upon receiving the notice provided for in Section 5-901 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 that the minor has been adjudicated under that Act as having committed an offense relating to motor vehicles prescribed in Section 4-103 of this Code;

2. Of any person when any other law of this State requires either the revocation or suspension of a license or permit;

3. Of any person adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based on an offense determined to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The revocation shall remain in effect for the period determined by the court. Upon the direction of the court, the Secretary shall issue the person a judicial driving permit, also known as a JDP. The JDP shall be subject to the same terms as a JDP issued under Section 6-206.1, except that the court may direct that a JDP issued under this subdivision (b)(3) be effective immediately.

(c)(1) Whenever a person is convicted of any of the offenses enumerated in this Section, the court may recommend and the Secretary of State in his discretion, without regard to whether the recommendation is made by the court may, upon application, issue to the person a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility for the receipt of necessary medical care or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or disabled persons who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare; if the petitioner is able to demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare; provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship, as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would result from a failure to issue the restricted driving permit. Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If:

(A) a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; or

(B) a person has been convicted of one violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide where the use of alcohol or other drugs was recited as an element of the offense, or a similar provision of a law of another state;

that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned on the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(6) In each case the Secretary of State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period he deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. The Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving permit to any person whose current revocation is the result of a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or any combination of these offenses, until the expiration of at least one year from the date of the revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the petitioner to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program. However, if an individual's driving privileges have been revoked in accordance with paragraph 13 of subsection (a) of this Section, no restricted driving permit shall be issued until the individual has served 6 months of the revocation period.

(c-5) (Blank).

(c-6) If a person is convicted of a second violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person's driving privileges shall be revoked pursuant to subdivision (a)(15) of this Section. The person may not make application for a license or permit until the expiration of five years from the effective date of the revocation or the expiration of five years from the date of release from a term of imprisonment, whichever is later.

(c-7) If a person is convicted of a third or subsequent violation of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked, where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the person may never apply for a license or permit.

(d)(1) Whenever a person under the age of 21 is convicted under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of that person. One year after the date of revocation, and upon application, the Secretary of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the public safety or welfare, issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle only between the hours of 5 a.m. and 9 p.m. or as otherwise provided by this Section for a period of one year. After this one year period, and upon reapplication for a license as provided in Section 6-106, upon payment of the appropriate reinstatement fee provided under paragraph (b) of Section 6-118, the Secretary of State, in his discretion, may reinstate the petitioner's driver's license and driving privileges, or extend the restricted driving permit as many times as the Secretary of State deems appropriate, by additional periods of not more than 12 months each.

(2) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(3) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(A) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(B) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(C) a suspension pursuant to Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(4) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(5) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against driving a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(6) A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit.

(d-5) The revocation of the license, permit, or driving privileges of a person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, is permanent. The Secretary may not, at any time, issue a license or permit to that person.

(e) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Driver License Compact.

(f) Any revocation imposed upon any person under subsections 2 and 3 of paragraph (b) that is in effect on December 31, 1988 shall be converted to a suspension for a like period of time.

(g) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(h) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(i) (Blank).

(j) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked, suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1180, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1305, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-838, eff. 1-1-13; 97-844, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-3-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-205.2)

Sec. 6-205.2. Suspension of driver's license of person convicted of theft of motor fuel. The driver's license of a person convicted of theft of motor fuel under Section 16-25 or 16K-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be suspended by the Secretary for a period not to exceed 6 months for a first offense. Upon a second or subsequent conviction for theft of motor fuel, the suspension shall be for a period not to exceed one year. Upon conviction of a person for theft of motor fuel, the court shall order the person to surrender his or her driver's license to the clerk of the court who shall forward the suspended license to the Secretary.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206)

Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke license or permit; Right to a hearing.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other sufficient evidence that the person:

1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon conviction;

2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 12 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle caused or contributed to an accident resulting in injury requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this subsection shall start no later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which violation is related to the accident, or shall start not more than one year after the date of the accident, whichever date occurs later;

5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a driver's license, identification card, or permit;

6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or offenses in another state, including the authorization contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;

7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the examination;

8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under the provisions of Section 6-103;

9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact or has used false information or identification in any application for a license, identification card, or permit;

10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to fraudulently use any license, identification card, or permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or suspended unless the operation was authorized by a monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued under this Code;

12. Has submitted to any portion of the application process for another person or has obtained the services of another person to submit to any portion of the application process for the purpose of obtaining a license, identification card, or permit for some other person;

13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driver's license or permit was invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;

14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301, 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Act, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B of the Illinois Identification Card Act;

15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to criminal trespass to vehicles in which case, the suspension shall be for one year;

16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;

17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section 11-501.1;

18. Has, since issuance of a driver's license or permit, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease;

19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's license;

20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104 relating to classification of driver's license;

21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code for a second or subsequent time within one year of a similar violation;

24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the United States at a military installation in Illinois of or for a traffic related offense that is the same as or similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or 6-206 of this Code;

25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used by another in the application process in order to obtain or attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or permit;

26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has possessed an altered license, identification card, or permit;

27. Has violated Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934;

28. Has been convicted for a first time of the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year. Any defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that were committed while the person was operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the manufacture, sale or delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;

30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of this subsection, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;

31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by Section 11-501.6 or has submitted to a test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;

32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3 years;

33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 24 month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-908 of this Code;

41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;

42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, in which case the suspension shall be for a period of 3 months;

44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles after having previously had his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this Section;

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code: (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for another person; or

46. Has committed a violation of subsection (j) of Section 3-413 of this Code.

For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26, and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license, any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license, a probationary driver's license or a temporary driver's license.

(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6 month limitation prescribed shall not apply.

(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the last known address of the person.

2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a permit issued prior to the effective date of the suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit shall also state the number of offenses committed while operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section. If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the remainder of the suspension period.

The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle.

Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving privileges revoked without further rights.

3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor, rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself, or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or disabled persons who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare. Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.

(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes.

(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a restricted driving permit for a period deemed appropriate, except that all permits shall expire within one year from the date of issuance. The Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving permit to any person whose current revocation is the result of a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or any combination of those offenses, until the expiration of at least one year from the date of the revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program.

(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made available to the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon request.

(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of the notice.

(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the provisions of this Section, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial education course and be retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.

(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Drivers License Compact.

(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(f) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1180, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1305, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; 97-838, eff. 1-1-13; 97-844, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-206.1)

Sec. 6-206.1. Monitoring Device Driving Permit. Declaration of Policy. It is hereby declared a policy of the State of Illinois that the driver who is impaired by alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds is a threat to the public safety and welfare. Therefore, to provide a deterrent to such practice, a statutory summary driver's license suspension is appropriate. It is also recognized that driving is a privilege and therefore, that the granting of driving privileges, in a manner consistent with public safety, is warranted during the period of suspension in the form of a monitoring device driving permit. A person who drives and fails to comply with the requirements of the monitoring device driving permit commits a violation of Section 6-303 of this Code.

The following procedures shall apply whenever a first offender, as defined in Section 11-500 of this Code, is arrested for any offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and is subject to the provisions of Section 11-501.1:

(a) Upon mailing of the notice of suspension of driving privileges as provided in subsection (h) of Section 11-501.1 of this Code, the Secretary shall also send written notice informing the person that he or she will be issued a monitoring device driving permit (MDDP). The notice shall include, at minimum, information summarizing the procedure to be followed for issuance of the MDDP, installation of the breath alcohol ignition installation device (BAIID), as provided in this Section, exemption from BAIID installation requirements, and procedures to be followed by those seeking indigent status, as provided in this Section. The notice shall also include information summarizing the procedure to be followed if the person wishes to decline issuance of the MDDP. A copy of the notice shall also be sent to the court of venue together with the notice of suspension of driving privileges, as provided in subsection (h) of Section 11-501. However, a MDDP shall not be issued if the Secretary finds that:

(1) The offender's driver's license is otherwise invalid;

(2) Death or great bodily harm resulted from the arrest for Section 11-501;

(3) The offender has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or aggravated driving under the influence involving death; or

(4) The offender is less than 18 years of age.

Any offender participating in the MDDP program must pay the Secretary a MDDP Administration Fee in an amount not to exceed $30 per month, to be deposited into the Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. The offender must have an ignition interlock device installed within 14 days of the date the Secretary issues the MDDP. The ignition interlock device provider must notify the Secretary, in a manner and form prescribed by the Secretary, of the installation. If the Secretary does not receive notice of installation, the Secretary shall cancel the MDDP.

A MDDP shall not become effective prior to the 31st day of the original statutory summary suspension.

Upon receipt of the notice, as provided in paragraph (a) of this Section, the person may file a petition to decline issuance of the MDDP with the court of venue. The court shall admonish the offender of all consequences of declining issuance of the MDDP including, but not limited to, the enhanced penalties for driving while suspended. After being so admonished, the offender shall be permitted, in writing, to execute a notice declining issuance of the MDDP. This notice shall be filed with the court and forwarded by the clerk of the court to the Secretary. The offender may, at any time thereafter, apply to the Secretary for issuance of a MDDP.

(a-1) A person issued a MDDP may drive for any purpose and at any time, subject to the rules adopted by the Secretary under subsection (g). The person must, at his or her own expense, drive only vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1, but in no event shall such person drive a commercial motor vehicle.

(a-2) Persons who are issued a MDDP and must drive employer-owned vehicles in the course of their employment duties may seek permission to drive an employer-owned vehicle that does not have an ignition interlock device. The employer shall provide to the Secretary a form, as prescribed by the Secretary, completed by the employer verifying that the employee must drive an employer-owned vehicle in the course of employment. If approved by the Secretary, the form must be in the driver's possession while operating an employer-owner vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device. No person may use this exemption to drive a school bus, school vehicle, or a vehicle designed to transport more than 15 passengers. No person may use this exemption to drive an employer-owned motor vehicle that is owned by an entity that is wholly or partially owned by the person holding the MDDP, or by a family member of the person holding the MDDP. No person may use this exemption to drive an employer-owned vehicle that is made available to the employee for personal use. No person may drive the exempted vehicle more than 12 hours per day, 6 days per week.

(a-3) Persons who are issued a MDDP and who must drive a farm tractor to and from a farm, within 50 air miles from the originating farm are exempt from installation of a BAIID on the farm tractor, so long as the farm tractor is being used for the exclusive purpose of conducting farm operations.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(c-1) If the holder of the MDDP is convicted of or receives court supervision for a violation of Section 6-206.2, 6-303, 11-204, 11-204.1, 11-401, 11-501, 11-503, 11-506 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or is convicted of or receives court supervision for any offense for which alcohol or drugs is an element of the offense and in which a motor vehicle was involved (for an arrest other than the one for which the MDDP is issued), or de-installs the BAIID without prior authorization from the Secretary, the MDDP shall be cancelled.

(c-5) If the Secretary determines that the person seeking the MDDP is indigent, the Secretary shall provide the person with a written document as evidence of that determination, and the person shall provide that written document to an ignition interlock device provider. The provider shall install an ignition interlock device on that person's vehicle without charge to the person, and seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund. If the Secretary has deemed an offender indigent, the BAIID provider shall also provide the normal monthly monitoring services and the de-installation without charge to the offender and seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund. Any other monetary charges, such as a lockout fee or reset fee, shall be the responsibility of the MDDP holder. A BAIID provider may not seek a security deposit from the Indigent BAIID Fund.

(d) MDDP information shall be available only to the courts, police officers, and the Secretary, except during the actual period the MDDP is valid, during which time it shall be a public record.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Secretary shall adopt rules for implementing this Section. The rules adopted shall address issues including, but not limited to: compliance with the requirements of the MDDP; methods for determining compliance with those requirements; the consequences of noncompliance with those requirements; what constitutes a violation of the MDDP; methods for determining indigency; and the duties of a person or entity that supplies the ignition interlock device.

(h) The rules adopted under subsection (g) shall provide, at a minimum, that the person is not in compliance with the requirements of the MDDP if he or she:

(1) tampers or attempts to tamper with or circumvent the proper operation of the ignition interlock device;

(2) provides valid breath samples that register blood alcohol levels in excess of the number of times allowed under the rules;

(3) fails to provide evidence sufficient to satisfy the Secretary that the ignition interlock device has been installed in the designated vehicle or vehicles; or

(4) fails to follow any other applicable rules adopted by the Secretary.

(i) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device as provided under this Section shall, in addition to supplying only those devices which fully comply with all the rules adopted under subsection (g), provide the Secretary, within 7 days of inspection, all monitoring reports of each person who has had an ignition interlock device installed. These reports shall be furnished in a manner or form as prescribed by the Secretary.

(j) Upon making a determination that a violation of the requirements of the MDDP has occurred, the Secretary shall extend the summary suspension period for an additional 3 months beyond the originally imposed summary suspension period, during which time the person shall only be allowed to drive vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device; provided further there are no limitations on the total number of times the summary suspension may be extended. The Secretary may, however, limit the number of extensions imposed for violations occurring during any one monitoring period, as set forth by rule. Any person whose summary suspension is extended pursuant to this Section shall have the right to contest the extension through a hearing with the Secretary, pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. If the summary suspension has already terminated prior to the Secretary receiving the monitoring report that shows a violation, the Secretary shall be authorized to suspend the person's driving privileges for 3 months, provided that the Secretary may, by rule, limit the number of suspensions to be entered pursuant to this paragraph for violations occurring during any one monitoring period. Any person whose license is suspended pursuant to this paragraph, after the summary suspension had already terminated, shall have the right to contest the suspension through a hearing with the Secretary, pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The only permit the person shall be eligible for during this new suspension period is a MDDP.

(k) A person who has had his or her summary suspension extended for the third time, or has any combination of 3 extensions and new suspensions, entered as a result of a violation that occurred while holding the MDDP, so long as the extensions and new suspensions relate to the same summary suspension, shall have his or her vehicle impounded for a period of 30 days, at the person's own expense. A person who has his or her summary suspension extended for the fourth time, or has any combination of 4 extensions and new suspensions, entered as a result of a violation that occurred while holding the MDDP, so long as the extensions and new suspensions relate to the same summary suspension, shall have his or her vehicle subject to seizure and forfeiture. The Secretary shall notify the prosecuting authority of any third or fourth extensions or new suspension entered as a result of a violation that occurred while the person held a MDDP. Upon receipt of the notification, the prosecuting authority shall impound or forfeit the vehicle. The impoundment or forfeiture of a vehicle shall be conducted pursuant to the procedure specified in Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(l) A person whose driving privileges have been suspended under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and who had a MDDP that was cancelled, or would have been cancelled had notification of a violation been received prior to expiration of the MDDP, pursuant to subsection (c-1) of this Section, shall not be eligible for reinstatement when the summary suspension is scheduled to terminate. Instead, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a period of not less than twice the original summary suspension period, or for the length of any extensions entered under subsection (j), whichever is longer. During the period of suspension, the person shall be eligible only to apply for a restricted driving permit. If a restricted driving permit is granted, the offender may only operate vehicles equipped with a BAIID in accordance with this Section.

(m) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device under this Section shall, for each ignition interlock device installed, pay 5% of the total gross revenue received for the device, including monthly monitoring fees, into the Indigent BAIID Fund. This 5% shall be clearly indicated as a separate surcharge on each invoice that is issued. The Secretary shall conduct an annual review of the fund to determine whether the surcharge is sufficient to provide for indigent users. The Secretary may increase or decrease this surcharge requirement as needed.

(n) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition interlock device under this Section that is requested to provide an ignition interlock device to a person who presents written documentation of indigency from the Secretary, as provided in subsection (c-5) of this Section, shall install the device on the person's vehicle without charge to the person and shall seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund.

(o) The Indigent BAIID Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Secretary shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, use all money in the Indigent BAIID Fund to reimburse ignition interlock device providers who have installed devices in vehicles of indigent persons. The Secretary shall make payments to such providers every 3 months. If the amount of money in the fund at the time payments are made is not sufficient to pay all requests for reimbursement submitted during that 3 month period, the Secretary shall make payments on a pro-rata basis, and those payments shall be considered payment in full for the requests submitted.

(p) The Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The Secretary shall, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, use the money paid into this fund to offset its administrative costs for administering MDDPs.

(q) The Secretary is authorized to prescribe such forms as it deems necessary to carry out the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-184, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1526, eff. 2-14-11; 97-229; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-208) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-208)

Sec. 6-208. Period of Suspension - Application After Revocation.

(a) Except as otherwise provided by this Code or any other law of this State, the Secretary of State shall not suspend a driver's license, permit, or privilege to drive a motor vehicle on the highways for a period of more than one year.

(b) Any person whose license, permit, or privilege to drive a motor vehicle on the highways has been revoked shall not be entitled to have such license, permit, or privilege renewed or restored. However, such person may, except as provided under subsections (d) and (d-5) of Section 6-205, make application for a license pursuant to Section 6-106 (i) if the revocation was for a cause that has been removed or (ii) as provided in the following subparagraphs:

1. Except as provided in subparagraphs 1.5, 2, 3, 4, and 5, the person may make application for a license (A) after the expiration of one year from the effective date of the revocation, (B) in the case of a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, after the expiration of 3 years from the effective date of the revocation, or (C) in the case of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph 1 of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, after the expiration of 2 years from the effective date of the revocation or after the expiration of 24 months from the date of release from a period of imprisonment as provided in Section 6-103 of this Code, whichever is later.

1.5. If the person is convicted of a violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, the person may not make application for a license or permit until the expiration of 3 years from the date of the conviction.

2. If such person is convicted of committing a second violation within a 20-year period of:

(A) Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(B) Paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(C) Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide; or

(D) any combination of the above offenses committed at different instances;

then such person may not make application for a license until after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation. The 20-year period shall be computed by using the dates the offenses were committed and shall also include similar out-of-state offenses and similar offenses committed on a military installation.

2.5. If a person is convicted of a second violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while the person's driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state, the person may not make application for a license or permit until the expiration of 5 years from the date of release from a term of imprisonment.

3. However, except as provided in subparagraph 4, if such person is convicted of committing a third or subsequent violation or any combination of the above offenses, including similar out-of-state offenses and similar offenses committed on a military installation, contained in subparagraph 2, then such person may not make application for a license until after the expiration of 10 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation.

4. The person may not make application for a license if the person is convicted of committing a fourth or subsequent violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, Section 11-401 of this Code, Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a combination of these offenses, similar provisions of local ordinances, similar out-of-state offenses, or similar offenses committed on a military installation.

5. The person may not make application for a license or permit if the person is convicted of a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of this Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, all persons referred to in this paragraph (b) may not have their privileges restored until the Secretary receives payment of the required reinstatement fee pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 6-118.

In no event shall the Secretary issue such license unless and until such person has had a hearing pursuant to this Code and the appropriate administrative rules and the Secretary is satisfied, after a review or investigation of such person, that to grant the privilege of driving a motor vehicle on the highways will not endanger the public safety or welfare.

(c) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-355, eff. 1-1-08; 95-377, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-607, eff. 8-24-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-303) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-303)

Sec. 6-303. Driving while driver's license, permit or privilege to operate a motor vehicle is suspended or revoked.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (a-5), any person who drives or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle on any highway of this State at a time when such person's driver's license, permit or privilege to do so or the privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit is revoked or suspended as provided by this Code or the law of another state, except as may be specifically allowed by a judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, monitoring device driving permit, family financial responsibility driving permit, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued pursuant to this Code or under the law of another state, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(a-5) Any person who violates this Section as provided in subsection (a) while his or her driver's license, permit or privilege is revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law of another state, is guilty of a Class 4 felony. The person shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation, as provided in Section 11-501 of this Code, to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound problem exists and the extent of the problem, and to undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate.

(b) (Blank).

(b-1) Upon receiving a report of the conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle during the time when the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was suspended by the Secretary of State or the driver's licensing administrator of another state, except as specifically allowed by a probationary license, judicial driving permit, restricted driving permit or monitoring device driving permit the Secretary shall extend the suspension for the same period of time as the originally imposed suspension unless the suspension has already expired, in which case the Secretary shall be authorized to suspend the person's driving privileges for the same period of time as the originally imposed suspension.

(b-2) Except as provided in subsection (b-6), upon receiving a report of the conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle when the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked by the Secretary of State or the driver's license administrator of any other state, except as specifically allowed by a restricted driving permit issued pursuant to this Code or the law of another state, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license for an additional period of one year from the date of such conviction indicating such person was operating a vehicle during such period of revocation.

(b-3) (Blank).

(b-4) When the Secretary of State receives a report of a conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle that was not equipped with an ignition interlock device during a time when the person was prohibited from operating a motor vehicle not equipped with such a device, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license to that person for an additional period of one year from the date of the conviction.

(b-5) Any person convicted of violating this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 consecutive days or 300 hours of community service when the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(b-6) Upon receiving a report of a first conviction of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license for an additional period of three years from the date of such conviction.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (c-3) and (c-4), any person convicted of violating this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service when the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of:

(1) a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other drug or any combination thereof; or

(2) a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a motor vehicle accident involving personal injury or death; or

(3) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

Such sentence of imprisonment or community service shall not be subject to suspension in order to reduce such sentence.

(c-1) Except as provided in subsections (c-5) and (d), any person convicted of a second violation of this Section shall be ordered by the court to serve a minimum of 100 hours of community service.

(c-2) In addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, the court may impose on any person convicted a fourth time of violating this Section any of the following:

(1) Seizure of the license plates of the person's vehicle.

(2) Immobilization of the person's vehicle for a period of time to be determined by the court.

(c-3) Any person convicted of a violation of this Section during a period of summary suspension imposed pursuant to Section 11-501.1 when the person was eligible for a MDDP shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days.

(c-4) Any person who has been issued a MDDP and who is convicted of a violation of this Section as a result of operating or being in actual physical control of a motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device at the time of the offense shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days.

(c-5) Any person convicted of a second violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and shall serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d) Any person convicted of a second violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, if the original revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-1) Except as provided in subsections (d-2), (d-2.5), and (d-3), any person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court.

(d-2) Any person convicted of a third violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-2.5) Any person convicted of a third violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and must serve a mandatory term of imprisonment if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of the person's life.

(d-3) Any person convicted of a fourth, fifth, sixth, seventh, eighth, or ninth violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-3.5) Any person convicted of a fourth or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and must serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, and is eligible for an extended term, if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d-4) Any person convicted of a tenth, eleventh, twelfth, thirteenth, or fourteenth violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony, and is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-5) Any person convicted of a fifteenth or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, and is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, if the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(e) Any person in violation of this Section who is also in violation of Section 7-601 of this Code relating to mandatory insurance requirements, in addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, shall have his or her motor vehicle immediately impounded by the arresting law enforcement officer. The motor vehicle may be released to any licensed driver upon a showing of proof of insurance for the vehicle that was impounded and the notarized written consent for the release by the vehicle owner.

(f) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted as proof of any prior conviction.

(g) The motor vehicle used in a violation of this Section is subject to seizure and forfeiture as provided in Sections 36-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 if the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of:

(1) a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar provision of a law of another state;

(2) a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar provision of a law of another state;

(3) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a law of another state; or

(4) a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(Source: P.A. 96-502, eff. 1-1-10; 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11; 97-984, eff. 1-1-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-508) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-508)

Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - qualification standards.

(a) Testing.

(1) General. No person shall be issued an original or renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State. The Secretary shall cause to be administered such tests as the Secretary deems necessary to meet the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383, subparts F, G, H, and J.

(2) Third party testing. The Secretary of state may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 383.75, to administer the skills test or tests specified by Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration pursuant to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 and any appropriate federal rule.

(b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive the skills test specified in this Section for a driver applicant for a commercial driver license who meets the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383.77 and Part 383.123.

(b-1) No person shall be issued a commercial driver instruction permit or CDL unless the person certifies to the Secretary one of the following types of driving operations in which he or she will be engaged:

(1) non-excepted interstate;

(2) non-excepted intrastate;

(3) excepted interstate; or

(4) excepted intrastate.

(b-2) Persons who hold a commercial driver instruction permit or CDL on January 30, 2012 must certify to the Secretary no later than January 30, 2014 one of the following applicable self-certifications:

(1) non-excepted interstate;

(2) non-excepted intrastate;

(3) excepted interstate; or

(4) excepted intrastate.

(c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL, or a commercial driver instruction permit, shall not be issued to a person while the person is subject to a disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or unless otherwise permitted by this Code, while the person's driver's license is suspended, revoked or cancelled in any state, or any territory or province of Canada; nor may a CDL be issued to a person who has a CDL issued by any other state, or foreign jurisdiction, unless the person first surrenders all such licenses. No CDL shall be issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet the requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be met with the aid of a hearing aid.

(c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code. The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only to a person meeting the following requirements:

(1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases;

(2) the person has passed a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation, charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a review of the driver applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

(3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use; and

(4) the person has not been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and may not exceed the actual cost of the records check.

(c-2) The Secretary shall issue a CDL with a school bus endorsement to allow a person to drive a school bus as defined in this Section. The CDL shall be issued according to the requirements outlined in 49 C.F.R. 383. A person may not operate a school bus as defined in this Section without a school bus endorsement. The Secretary of State may adopt rules consistent with Federal guidelines to implement this subsection (c-2).

(d) Commercial driver instruction permit. A commercial driver instruction permit may be issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license if such person successfully passes such tests as the Secretary determines to be necessary. A commercial driver instruction permit shall not be issued to a person who does not meet the requirements of 49 CFR 391.41 (b)(11), except for the renewal of a commercial driver instruction permit for a person who possesses a commercial instruction permit prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1999.

(Source: P.A. 96-1182, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 95, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-514) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-514)

Sec. 6-514. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) - Disqualifications.

(a) A person shall be disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 12 months for the first violation of:

(1) Refusing to submit to or failure to complete a test or tests to determine the driver's blood concentration of alcohol, other drug, or both, while driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV; or

(2) Operating a commercial motor vehicle while the alcohol concentration of the person's blood, breath or urine is at least 0.04, or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as indicated by a police officer's sworn report or other verified evidence; or operating a non-commercial motor vehicle while the alcohol concentration of the person's blood, breath, or urine was above the legal limit defined in Section 11-501.1 or 11-501.8 or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as indicated by a police officer's sworn report or other verified evidence while holding a commercial driver's license; or

(3) Conviction for a first violation of:

(i) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while under the influence of alcohol, or any other drug, or combination of drugs to a degree which renders such person incapable of safely driving; or

(ii) Knowingly leaving the scene of an accident while operating a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV; or

(iii) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while committing any felony; or

(iv) Driving a commercial motor vehicle while the person's driving privileges or driver's license or permit is revoked, suspended, or cancelled or the driver is disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle; or

(v) Causing a fatality through the negligent operation of a commercial motor vehicle, including but not limited to the crimes of motor vehicle manslaughter, homicide by a motor vehicle, and negligent homicide.

As used in this subdivision (a)(3)(v), "motor vehicle manslaughter" means the offense of involuntary manslaughter if committed by means of a vehicle; "homicide by a motor vehicle" means the offense of first degree murder or second degree murder, if either offense is committed by means of a vehicle; and "negligent homicide" means reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof under subdivision (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501 of this Code.

If any of the above violations or refusals occurred while transporting hazardous material(s) required to be placarded, the person shall be disqualified for a period of not less than 3 years.

(b) A person is disqualified for life for a second conviction of any of the offenses specified in paragraph (a), or any combination of those offenses, arising from 2 or more separate incidents.

(c) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for life if the person either (i) uses a commercial motor vehicle in the commission of any felony involving the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a controlled substance, or possession with intent to manufacture, distribute or dispense a controlled substance or (ii) if the person is a CDL holder, uses a non-CMV in the commission of a felony involving any of those activities.

(d) The Secretary of State may, when the United States Secretary of Transportation so authorizes, issue regulations in which a disqualification for life under paragraph (b) may be reduced to a period of not less than 10 years. If a reinstated driver is subsequently convicted of another disqualifying offense, as specified in subsection (a) of this Section, he or she shall be permanently disqualified for life and shall be ineligible to again apply for a reduction of the lifetime disqualification.

(e) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 2 months if convicted of 2 serious traffic violations, committed in a commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CDL, or any combination thereof, arising from separate incidents, occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension or revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. However, a person will be disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 4 months if convicted of 3 serious traffic violations, committed in a commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CDL, or any combination thereof, arising from separate incidents, occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension or revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. If all the convictions occurred in a non-CMV, the disqualification shall be entered only if the convictions would result in the suspension or revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges.

(e-1) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, any driver disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle, pursuant to this UCDLA, shall not be eligible for restoration of commercial driving privileges during any such period of disqualification.

(g) After suspending, revoking, or cancelling a commercial driver's license, the Secretary of State must update the driver's records to reflect such action within 10 days. After suspending or revoking the driving privilege of any person who has been issued a CDL or commercial driver instruction permit from another jurisdiction, the Secretary shall originate notification to such issuing jurisdiction within 10 days.

(h) The "disqualifications" referred to in this Section shall not be imposed upon any commercial motor vehicle driver, by the Secretary of State, unless the prohibited action(s) occurred after March 31, 1992.

(i) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle in accordance with the following:

(1) For 6 months upon a first conviction of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) of Section 6-507 of this Code.

(2) For 2 years upon a second conviction of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3).

(3) For 3 years upon a third or subsequent conviction of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent conviction is a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3).

(4) For one year upon a first conviction of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code.

(5) For 3 years upon a second conviction of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or (b-5).

(6) For 5 years upon a third or subsequent conviction of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent conviction is a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or (b-5).

(j) Disqualification for railroad-highway grade crossing violation.

(1) General rule. A driver who is convicted of a violation of a federal, State, or local law or regulation pertaining to one of the following 6 offenses at a railroad-highway grade crossing must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for the period of time specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (j) if the offense was committed while operating a commercial motor vehicle:

(i) For drivers who are not required to always stop, failing to slow down and check that the tracks are clear of an approaching train or railroad track equipment, as described in subsection (a-5) of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

(ii) For drivers who are not required to always stop, failing to stop before reaching the crossing, if the tracks are not clear, as described in subsection (a) of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

(iii) For drivers who are always required to stop, failing to stop before driving onto the crossing, as described in Section 11-1202 of this Code;

(iv) For all drivers, failing to have sufficient space to drive completely through the crossing without stopping, as described in subsection (b) of Section 11-1425 of this Code;

(v) For all drivers, failing to obey a traffic control device or the directions of an enforcement official at the crossing, as described in subdivision (a)2 of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

(vi) For all drivers, failing to negotiate a crossing because of insufficient undercarriage clearance, as described in subsection (d-1) of Section 11-1201 of this Code.

(2) Duration of disqualification for railroad-highway grade crossing violation.

(i) First violation. A driver must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less than 60 days if the driver is convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the driver had no convictions for a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j).

(ii) Second violation. A driver must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less than 120 days if the driver is convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the driver had one other conviction for a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) that was committed in a separate incident.

(iii) Third or subsequent violation. A driver must be disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less than one year if the driver is convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the driver had 2 or more other convictions for violations described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) that were committed in separate incidents.

(k) Upon notification of a disqualification of a driver's commercial motor vehicle privileges imposed by the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, in accordance with 49 C.F.R. 383.52, the Secretary of State shall immediately record to the driving record the notice of disqualification and confirm to the driver the action that has been taken.

(Source: P.A. 96-544, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1080, eff. 7-16-10; 96-1244, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-708) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-708)

Sec. 6-708. Construction and Severability. (a) This compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof. The provisions of this compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any party state or of the United States or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held invalid, the validity of the remainder of this compact and the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this compact shall be held contrary to the constitution of any state party thereto, the compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining states and in full force and effect as to the state affected as to all severable matters.

(b) As used in the compact, the term "licensing authority" with reference to this state, means the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall furnish to the appropriate authorities of any other party state any information or documents reasonably necessary to facilitate the administration of Sections 6-702, 6-703 and 6-704 of the compact.

(c) The compact administrator provided for in Section 6-706 of the compact shall not be entitled to any additional compensation on account of his service as such administrator, but shall be entitled to expenses incurred in connection with his duties and responsibilities as such administrator, in the same manner as for expenses incurred in connection with any other duties or responsibilities of his office or employment.

(d) As used in the compact, with reference to this state, the term "executive head" shall mean the Governor.

(e) The phrase "manslaughter or negligent homicide," as used in subparagraph (1) of paragraph (a) of Section 6-703 of the compact includes the offense of reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of the "Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012," as heretofore or hereafter amended, or in any predecessor statute, as well as the offenses of second degree murder and involuntary manslaughter.

The offense described in subparagraph (2) of paragraph (a) of Section 6-703 of the compact includes any violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or any similar provision of a local ordinance.

The offense described in subparagraph (4) of paragraph (a) of Section 6-703 of the compact includes any violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-401 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 85-951.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-204.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-204.1)

Sec. 11-204.1. Aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer.

(a) The offense of aggravated fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer is committed by any driver or operator of a motor vehicle who flees or attempts to elude a peace officer, after being given a visual or audible signal by a peace officer in the manner prescribed in subsection (a) of Section 11-204 of this Code, and such flight or attempt to elude:

(1) is at a rate of speed at least 21 miles per hour over the legal speed limit;

(2) causes bodily injury to any individual;

(3) causes damage in excess of $300 to property;

(4) involves disobedience of 2 or more official traffic control devices; or

(5) involves the concealing or altering of the vehicle's registration plate.

(b) Any person convicted of a first violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony. Upon notice of such a conviction the Secretary of State shall forthwith revoke the driver's license of the person so convicted, as provided in Section 6-205 of this Code. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony, and upon notice of such a conviction the Secretary of State shall forthwith revoke the driver's license of the person convicted, as provided in Section 6-205 of the Code.

(c) The motor vehicle used in a violation of this Section is subject to seizure and forfeiture as provided in Sections 36-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 97-743, eff. 1-1-13.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208.7)

Sec. 11-208.7. Administrative fees and procedures for impounding vehicles for specified violations.

(a) Any municipality may, consistent with this Section, provide by ordinance procedures for the release of properly impounded vehicles and for the imposition of a reasonable administrative fee related to its administrative and processing costs associated with the investigation, arrest, and detention of an offender, or the removal, impoundment, storage, and release of the vehicle. The administrative fee imposed by the municipality may be in addition to any fees charged for the towing and storage of an impounded vehicle. The administrative fee shall be waived by the municipality upon verifiable proof that the vehicle was stolen at the time the vehicle was impounded.

(b) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the release of properly impounded vehicles under this Section may impose fees for the following violations:

(1) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense for which a motor vehicle may be seized and forfeited pursuant to Section 36-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; or

(2) driving under the influence of alcohol, another drug or drugs, an intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, in violation of Section 11-501 of this Code; or

(3) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, a felony or in violation of the Cannabis Control Act; or

(4) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; or

(5) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.5, or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(6) driving while a driver's license, permit, or privilege to operate a motor vehicle is suspended or revoked pursuant to Section 6-303 of this Code; except that vehicles shall not be subjected to seizure or impoundment if the suspension is for an unpaid citation (parking or moving) or due to failure to comply with emission testing; or

(7) operation or use of a motor vehicle while soliciting, possessing, or attempting to solicit or possess cannabis or a controlled substance, as defined by the Cannabis Control Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; or

(8) operation or use of a motor vehicle with an expired driver's license, in violation of Section 6-101 of this Code, if the period of expiration is greater than one year; or

(9) operation or use of a motor vehicle without ever having been issued a driver's license or permit, in violation of Section 6-101 of this Code, or operating a motor vehicle without ever having been issued a driver's license or permit due to a person's age; or

(10) operation or use of a motor vehicle by a person against whom a warrant has been issued by a circuit clerk in Illinois for failing to answer charges that the driver violated Section 6-101, 6-303, or 11-501 of this Code; or

(11) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in violation of Article 16 or 16A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(12) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit, any other misdemeanor or felony offense in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when so provided by local ordinance.

(c) The following shall apply to any fees imposed for administrative and processing costs pursuant to subsection (b):

(1) All administrative fees and towing and storage charges shall be imposed on the registered owner of the motor vehicle or the agents of that owner.

(2) The fees shall be in addition to (i) any other penalties that may be assessed by a court of law for the underlying violations; and (ii) any towing or storage fees, or both, charged by the towing company.

(3) The fees shall be uniform for all similarly situated vehicles.

(4) The fees shall be collected by and paid to the municipality imposing the fees.

(5) The towing or storage fees, or both, shall be collected by and paid to the person, firm, or entity that tows and stores the impounded vehicle.

(d) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the release of properly impounded vehicles under this Section shall provide for an opportunity for a hearing, as provided in subdivision (b)(4) of Section 11-208.3 of this Code, and for the release of the vehicle to the owner of record, lessee, or a lienholder of record upon payment of all administrative fees and towing and storage fees.

(e) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall include the following provisions concerning notice of impoundment:

(1) Whenever a police officer has cause to believe that a motor vehicle is subject to impoundment, the officer shall provide for the towing of the vehicle to a facility authorized by the municipality.

(2) At the time the vehicle is towed, the municipality shall notify or make a reasonable attempt to notify the owner, lessee, or person identifying himself or herself as the owner or lessee of the vehicle, or any person who is found to be in control of the vehicle at the time of the alleged offense, of the fact of the seizure, and of the vehicle owner's or lessee's right to an administrative hearing.

(3) The municipality shall also provide notice that the motor vehicle will remain impounded pending the completion of an administrative hearing, unless the owner or lessee of the vehicle or a lienholder posts with the municipality a bond equal to the administrative fee as provided by ordinance and pays for all towing and storage charges.

(f) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall include a provision providing that the registered owner or lessee of the vehicle and any lienholder of record shall be provided with a notice of hearing. The notice shall:

(1) be served upon the owner, lessee, and any lienholder of record either by personal service or by first class mail to the interested party's address as registered with the Secretary of State;

(2) be served upon interested parties within 10 days after a vehicle is impounded by the municipality; and

(3) contain the date, time, and location of the administrative hearing. An initial hearing shall be scheduled and convened no later than 45 days after the date of the mailing of the notice of hearing.

(g) In addition to the requirements contained in subdivision (b)(4) of Section 11-208.3 of this Code relating to administrative hearings, any ordinance providing for the impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall include the following requirements concerning administrative hearings:

(1) administrative hearings shall be conducted by a hearing officer who is an attorney licensed to practice law in this State for a minimum of 3 years;

(2) at the conclusion of the administrative hearing, the hearing officer shall issue a written decision either sustaining or overruling the vehicle impoundment;

(3) if the basis for the vehicle impoundment is sustained by the administrative hearing officer, any administrative fee posted to secure the release of the vehicle shall be forfeited to the municipality;

(4) all final decisions of the administrative hearing officer shall be subject to review under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law; and

(5) unless the administrative hearing officer overturns the basis for the vehicle impoundment, no vehicle shall be released to the owner, lessee, or lienholder of record until all administrative fees and towing and storage charges are paid.

(h) Vehicles not retrieved from the towing facility or storage facility within 35 days after the administrative hearing officer issues a written decision shall be deemed abandoned and disposed of in accordance with the provisions of Article II of Chapter 4 of this Code.

(i) Unless stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction, any fine, penalty, or administrative fee imposed under this Section which remains unpaid in whole or in part after the expiration of the deadline for seeking judicial review under the Administrative Review Law may be enforced in the same manner as a judgment entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 97-109, eff. 1-1-12.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501)

Sec. 11-501. Driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof.

(a) A person shall not drive or be in actual physical control of any vehicle within this State while:

(1) the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath is 0.08 or more based on the definition of blood and breath units in Section 11-501.2;

(2) under the influence of alcohol;

(3) under the influence of any intoxicating compound or combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of driving safely;

(4) under the influence of any other drug or combination of drugs to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving;

(5) under the combined influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving; or

(6) there is any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's breath, blood, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b) The fact that any person charged with violating this Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, shall not constitute a defense against any charge of violating this Section.

(c) Penalties.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any person convicted of violating subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A person who violates subsection (a) or a similar provision a second time shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of either 5 days of imprisonment or 240 hours of community service in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(3) A person who violates subsection (a) is subject to 6 months of imprisonment, an additional mandatory minimum fine of $1,000, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children if the person was transporting a person under the age of 16 at the time of the violation.

(4) A person who violates subsection (a) a first time, if the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be subject, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed, to a mandatory minimum of 100 hours of community service and a mandatory minimum fine of $500.

(5) A person who violates subsection (a) a second time, if at the time of the second violation the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be subject, in addition to any other penalty that may be imposed, to a mandatory minimum of 2 days of imprisonment and a mandatory minimum fine of $1,250.

(d) Aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof.

(1) Every person convicted of committing a violation of this Section shall be guilty of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof if:

(A) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time;

(B) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) while driving a school bus with persons 18 years of age or younger on board;

(C) the person in committing a violation of subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the injuries;

(D) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) and has been previously convicted of violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted under subparagraph (C) or subparagraph (F) of this paragraph (1);

(E) the person, in committing a violation of subsection (a) while driving at any speed in a school speed zone at a time when a speed limit of 20 miles per hour was in effect under subsection (a) of Section 11-605 of this Code, was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in bodily harm, other than great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, to another person, when the violation of subsection (a) was a proximate cause of the bodily harm;

(F) the person, in committing a violation of subsection (a), was involved in a motor vehicle, snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft accident that resulted in the death of another person, when the violation of subsection (a) was a proximate cause of the death;

(G) the person committed a violation of subsection (a) during a period in which the defendant's driving privileges are revoked or suspended, where the revocation or suspension was for a violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision, Section 11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or for reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(H) the person committed the violation while he or she did not possess a driver's license or permit or a restricted driving permit or a judicial driving permit or a monitoring device driving permit;

(I) the person committed the violation while he or she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or she was driving was not covered by a liability insurance policy;

(J) the person in committing a violation of subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in bodily harm, but not great bodily harm, to the child under the age of 16 being transported by the person, if the violation was the proximate cause of the injury; or

(K) the person in committing a second violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision was transporting a person under the age of 16.

(2)(A) Except as provided otherwise, a person convicted of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(B) A third violation of this Section or a similar provision is a Class 2 felony. If at the time of the third violation the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum of 90 days of imprisonment and a mandatory minimum fine of $2,500 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the third violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(C) A fourth violation of this Section or a similar provision is a Class 2 felony, for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the fourth violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16 a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(D) A fifth violation of this Section or a similar provision is a Class 1 felony, for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the fifth violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(E) A sixth or subsequent violation of this Section or similar provision is a Class X felony. If at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If at the time of the violation, the defendant was transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(F) For a violation of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), the defendant, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than one year nor more than 12 years.

(G) A violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) is a Class 2 felony, for which the defendant, unless the court determines that extraordinary circumstances exist and require probation, shall be sentenced to: (i) a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years if the violation resulted in the death of one person; or (ii) a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years if the violation resulted in the deaths of 2 or more persons.

(H) For a violation of subparagraph (J) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), a mandatory fine of $2,500, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(I) A violation of subparagraph (K) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d), is a Class 2 felony and a mandatory fine of $2,500, and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction. If the child being transported suffered bodily harm, but not great bodily harm, in a motor vehicle accident, and the violation was the proximate cause of that injury, a mandatory fine of $5,000 and 25 days of community service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(J) A violation of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony, for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed.

(3) Any person sentenced under this subsection (d) who receives a term of probation or conditional discharge must serve a minimum term of either 480 hours of community service or 10 days of imprisonment as a condition of the probation or conditional discharge in addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.

(e) Any reference to a prior violation of subsection (a) or a similar provision includes any violation of a provision of a local ordinance or a provision of a law of another state or an offense committed on a military installation that is similar to a violation of subsection (a) of this Section.

(f) The imposition of a mandatory term of imprisonment or assignment of community service for a violation of this Section shall not be suspended or reduced by the court.

(g) Any penalty imposed for driving with a license that has been revoked for a previous violation of subsection (a) of this Section shall be in addition to the penalty imposed for any subsequent violation of subsection (a).

(h) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted as proof of any prior conviction.

(Source: P.A. 95-149, eff. 8-14-07; 95-355, eff. 1-1-08; 95-400, eff. 1-1-09; 95-578, eff. 6-1-08; 95-778, eff. 8-4-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-289, eff. 8-11-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.1)

Sec. 11-501.1. Suspension of drivers license; statutory summary alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds related suspension or revocation; implied consent.

(a) Any person who drives or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle upon the public highways of this State shall be deemed to have given consent, subject to the provisions of Section 11-501.2, to a chemical test or tests of blood, breath, or urine for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof in the person's blood if arrested, as evidenced by the issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket, for any offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or if arrested for violating Section 11-401. If a law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe the person was under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, the law enforcement officer shall request a chemical test or tests which shall be administered at the direction of the arresting officer. The law enforcement agency employing the officer shall designate which of the aforesaid tests shall be administered. A urine test may be administered even after a blood or breath test or both has been administered. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois law enforcement officer of this State who is investigating the person for any offense defined in Section 11-501 may travel into an adjoining state, where the person has been transported for medical care, to complete an investigation and to request that the person submit to the test or tests set forth in this Section. The requirements of this Section that the person be arrested are inapplicable, but the officer shall issue the person a Uniform Traffic Ticket for an offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance prior to requesting that the person submit to the test or tests. The issuance of the Uniform Traffic Ticket shall not constitute an arrest, but shall be for the purpose of notifying the person that he or she is subject to the provisions of this Section and of the officer's belief of the existence of probable cause to arrest. Upon returning to this State, the officer shall file the Uniform Traffic Ticket with the Circuit Clerk of the county where the offense was committed, and shall seek the issuance of an arrest warrant or a summons for the person.

(b) Any person who is dead, unconscious, or who is otherwise in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall be deemed not to have withdrawn the consent provided by paragraph (a) of this Section and the test or tests may be administered, subject to the provisions of Section 11-501.2.

(c) A person requested to submit to a test as provided above shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the test that a refusal to submit to the test will result in the statutory summary suspension of the person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-208.1 of this Code, and will also result in the disqualification of the person's privilege to operate a commercial motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of this Code, if the person is a CDL holder. The person shall also be warned that a refusal to submit to the test, when the person was involved in a motor vehicle accident that caused personal injury or death to another, will result in the statutory summary revocation of the person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-208.1, and will also result in the disqualification of the person's privilege to operate a commercial motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of this Code, if the person is a CDL holder. The person shall also be warned by the law enforcement officer that if the person submits to the test or tests provided in paragraph (a) of this Section and the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath is 0.08 or greater, or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as covered by the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is detected in the person's blood or urine, a statutory summary suspension of the person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle, as provided in Sections 6-208.1 and 11-501.1 of this Code, and a disqualification of the person's privilege to operate a commercial motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of this Code, if the person is a CDL holder, will be imposed.

A person who is under the age of 21 at the time the person is requested to submit to a test as provided above shall, in addition to the warnings provided for in this Section, be further warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the test that if the person submits to the test or tests provided in paragraph (a) of this Section and the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath is greater than 0.00 and less than 0.08, a suspension of the person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle, as provided under Sections 6-208.2 and 11-501.8 of this Code, will be imposed. The results of this test shall be admissible in a civil or criminal action or proceeding arising from an arrest for an offense as defined in Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or pursuant to Section 11-501.4 in prosecutions for reckless homicide brought under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. These test results, however, shall be admissible only in actions or proceedings directly related to the incident upon which the test request was made.

(d) If the person refuses testing or submits to a test that discloses an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in the person's breath, blood, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the law enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to the circuit court of venue and the Secretary of State, certifying that the test or tests was or were requested under paragraph (a) and the person refused to submit to a test, or tests, or submitted to testing that disclosed an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more.

(e) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer submitted under paragraph (d), the Secretary of State shall enter the statutory summary suspension or revocation and disqualification for the periods specified in Sections 6-208.1 and 6-514, respectively, and effective as provided in paragraph (g).

If the person is a first offender as defined in Section 11-500 of this Code, and is not convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, then reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the Statutory Summary Suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities or the Secretary of State, unless the person is a CDL holder, is operating a commercial motor vehicle or vehicle required to be placarded for hazardous materials, in which case the suspension shall not be privileged. Reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall also be made available to the parent or guardian of a person under the age of 18 years that holds an instruction permit or a graduated driver's license, regardless of whether the statutory summary suspension is in effect. A statutory summary revocation shall not be privileged information.

(f) The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report under paragraph (d) shall serve immediate notice of the statutory summary suspension or revocation on the person and the suspension or revocation and disqualification shall be effective as provided in paragraph (g). In cases where the blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or greater or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as covered by the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is established by a subsequent analysis of blood or urine collected at the time of arrest, the arresting officer or arresting agency shall give notice as provided in this Section or by deposit in the United States mail of the notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and addressed to the person at his address as shown on the Uniform Traffic Ticket and the statutory summary suspension and disqualification shall begin as provided in paragraph (g). The officer shall confiscate any Illinois driver's license or permit on the person at the time of arrest. If the person has a valid driver's license or permit, the officer shall issue the person a receipt, in a form prescribed by the Secretary of State, that will allow that person to drive during the periods provided for in paragraph (g). The officer shall immediately forward the driver's license or permit to the circuit court of venue along with the sworn report provided for in paragraph (d).

(g) The statutory summary suspension or revocation and disqualification referred to in this Section shall take effect on the 46th day following the date the notice of the statutory summary suspension or revocation was given to the person.

(h) The following procedure shall apply whenever a person is arrested for any offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance:

Upon receipt of the sworn report from the law enforcement officer, the Secretary of State shall confirm the statutory summary suspension or revocation by mailing a notice of the effective date of the suspension or revocation to the person and the court of venue. The Secretary of State shall also mail notice of the effective date of the disqualification to the person. However, should the sworn report be defective by not containing sufficient information or be completed in error, the confirmation of the statutory summary suspension or revocation shall not be mailed to the person or entered to the record; instead, the sworn report shall be forwarded to the court of venue with a copy returned to the issuing agency identifying any defect.

(i) As used in this Section, "personal injury" includes any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or a medical facility. A Type A injury includes severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(Source: P.A. 96-1080, eff. 7-16-10; 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-471, eff. 8-22-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.4) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.4)

Sec. 11-501.4. Admissibility of chemical tests of blood or urine conducted in the regular course of providing emergency medical treatment.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the results of blood or urine tests performed for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, of an individual's blood or urine conducted upon persons receiving medical treatment in a hospital emergency room are admissible in evidence as a business record exception to the hearsay rule only in prosecutions for any violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or in prosecutions for reckless homicide brought under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when each of the following criteria are met:

(1) the chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine were ordered in the regular course of providing emergency medical treatment and not at the request of law enforcement authorities;

(2) the chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine were performed by the laboratory routinely used by the hospital; and

(3) results of chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine are admissible into evidence regardless of the time that the records were prepared.

(b) The confidentiality provisions of law pertaining to medical records and medical treatment shall not be applicable with regard to chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine under the provisions of this Section in prosecutions as specified in subsection (a) of this Section. No person shall be liable for civil damages as a result of the evidentiary use of chemical testing of an individual's blood or urine test results under this Section, or as a result of that person's testimony made available under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-289, eff. 8-11-09.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.4-1)

Sec. 11-501.4-1. Reporting of test results of blood or urine conducted in the regular course of providing emergency medical treatment.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the results of blood or urine tests performed for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, in an individual's blood or urine conducted upon persons receiving medical treatment in a hospital emergency room for injuries resulting from a motor vehicle accident shall be disclosed to the Department of State Police or local law enforcement agencies of jurisdiction, upon request. Such blood or urine tests are admissible in evidence as a business record exception to the hearsay rule only in prosecutions for any violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or in prosecutions for reckless homicide brought under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) The confidentiality provisions of law pertaining to medical records and medical treatment shall not be applicable with regard to tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine under the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section. No person shall be liable for civil damages or professional discipline as a result of the disclosure or reporting of the tests or the evidentiary use of an individual's blood or urine test results under this Section or Section 11-501.4 or as a result of that person's testimony made available under this Section or Section 11-501.4, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 90-779, eff. 1-1-99; 91-125, eff. 1-1-00.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-612)

Sec. 12-612. False or secret compartment in a vehicle.

(a) Offenses. It is unlawful for any person:

(1) to own or operate with criminal intent any vehicle he or she knows to contain a false or secret compartment that is used or has been used to conceal a firearm as prohibited by paragraph (a)(4) of Section 24-1 or paragraph (a)(1) of Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, or controlled substance as prohibited by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(2) to install, create, build, or fabricate in any vehicle a false or secret compartment knowing that another person intends to use the compartment to conceal a firearm as prohibited by paragraph (a)(4) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, or controlled substance as prohibited by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

(1) "False or secret compartment" means an enclosure integrated into a vehicle that is a modification of the vehicle as built by the original manufacturer.

(2) "Vehicle" means any of the following vehicles without regard to whether the vehicles are private or commercial, including, but not limited to, cars, trucks, buses, aircraft, and watercraft.

(c) Forfeiture. Any vehicle containing a false or secret compartment used in violation of this Section, as well as any items within that compartment, shall be subject to seizure by the Department of State Police or by any municipal or other local law enforcement agency within whose jurisdiction that property is found as provided in Sections 36-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 (720 ILCS 5/36-1 and 5/36-2). The removal of the false or secret compartment from the vehicle, or the promise to do so, shall not be the basis for a defense to forfeiture of the motor vehicle under Section 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 and shall not be the basis for the court to release the vehicle to the owner.

(d) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony. The sentence imposed for violation of this Section shall be served consecutively to any other sentence imposed in connection with the firearm, controlled substance, or other contraband concealed in the false or secret compartment.

(e) For purposes of this Section, a new owner is not responsible for any conduct that occurred or knowledge of conduct that occurred prior to transfer of title.

(Source: P.A. 96-202, eff. 1-1-10.)

(625 ILCS 5/16-108)

Sec. 16-108. Claims of diplomatic immunity.

(a) This Section applies only to an individual that displays to a police officer a driver's license issued by the U.S. Department of State or that otherwise claims immunities or privileges under Title 22, Chapter 6 of the United States Code with respect to the individual's violation of Section 9-3 or Section 9-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or his or her violation of a traffic regulation governing the movement of vehicles under this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(b) If a driver subject to this Section is stopped by a police officer that has probable cause to believe that the driver has committed a violation described in subsection (a) of this Section, the police officer shall:

(1) as soon as practicable contact the U.S. Department of State office in order to verify the driver's status and immunity, if any;

(2) record all relevant information from any driver's license or identification card, including a driver's license or identification card issued by the U.S. Department of State; and

(3) within 5 workdays after the date of the stop, forward the following to the Secretary of State of Illinois:

(A) a vehicle accident report, if the driver was involved in a vehicle accident;

(B) if a citation or charge was issued to the driver, a copy of the citation or charge; and

(C) if a citation or charge was not issued to the driver, a written report of the incident.

(c) Upon receiving material submitted under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section, the Secretary of State shall:

(1) file each vehicle accident report, citation or charge, and incident report received;

(2) keep convenient records or make suitable notations showing each:

(A) conviction;

(B) disposition of court supervision for any violation of Section 11-501 of this Code; and

(C) vehicle accident; and

(3) send a copy of each document and record described in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) to the Bureau of Diplomatic Security, Office of Foreign Missions, of the U.S. Department of State.

(d) This Section does not prohibit or limit the application of any law to a criminal or motor vehicle violation by an individual who has or claims immunities or privileges under Title 22, Chapter 6 of the United States Code.

(Source: P.A. 92-160, eff. 7-25-01.)

Section 580. The Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Sections 5-7.4 and 5-7.6 as follows:

(625 ILCS 40/5-7.4)

Sec. 5-7.4. Admissibility of chemical tests of blood or urine conducted in the regular course of providing emergency medical treatment.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the results of blood or urine tests performed for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination of them in an individual's blood or urine conducted upon persons receiving medical treatment in a hospital emergency room, are admissible in evidence as a business record exception to the hearsay rule only in prosecutions for a violation of Section 5-7 of this Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance or in prosecutions for reckless homicide brought under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The results of the tests are admissible only when each of the following criteria are met:

1. The chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine were ordered in the regular course of providing emergency treatment and not at the request of law enforcement authorities; and

2. The chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine were performed by the laboratory routinely used by the hospital.

3. (Blank).

Results of chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine are admissible into evidence regardless of the time that the records were prepared.

(b) The confidentiality provisions of law pertaining to medical records and medical treatment are not applicable with regard to chemical tests performed upon a person's blood or urine under the provisions of this Section in prosecutions as specified in subsection (a) of this Section. No person shall be liable for civil damages as a result of the evidentiary use of the results of chemical testing of the individual's blood or urine under this Section or as a result of that person's testimony made available under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-289, eff. 8-11-09.)

(625 ILCS 40/5-7.6)

Sec. 5-7.6. Reporting of test results of blood or urine conducted in the regular course of providing emergency medical treatment.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the results of blood or urine tests performed for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination of them in an individual's blood or urine, conducted upon persons receiving medical treatment in a hospital emergency room for injuries resulting from a snowmobile accident, shall be disclosed to the Department of Natural Resources, or local law enforcement agencies of jurisdiction, upon request. The blood or urine tests are admissible in evidence as a business record exception to the hearsay rule only in prosecutions for violations of Section 5-7 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or in prosecutions for reckless homicide brought under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) The confidentiality provisions of the law pertaining to medical records and medical treatment shall not be applicable with regard to tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine under the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section. No person shall be liable for civil damages or professional discipline as a result of disclosure or reporting of the tests or the evidentiary use of an individual's blood or urine test results under this Section or Section 5-7.4 or as a result of that person's testimony made available under this Section or Section 5-7.4, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 93-156, eff. 1-1-04.)

Section 585. The Boat Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Sections 5-16a and 5-16a.1 as follows:

(625 ILCS 45/5-16a) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 315-11a)

Sec. 5-16a. Admissibility of chemical tests of blood or urine conducted in the regular course of providing emergency medical treatment.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the written results of blood or urine alcohol tests conducted upon persons receiving medical treatment in a hospital emergency room are admissible in evidence as a business record exception to the hearsay rule only in prosecutions for any violation of Section 5-16 of this Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance or in prosecutions for reckless homicide brought under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when:

(1) the chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine were ordered in the regular course of providing emergency treatment and not at the request of law enforcement authorities; and

(2) the chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine were performed by the laboratory routinely used by the hospital.

Results of chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine are admissible into evidence regardless of the time that the records were prepared.

(b) The confidentiality provisions of law pertaining to medical records and medical treatment shall not be applicable with regard to chemical tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine under the provisions of this Section in prosecutions as specified in subsection (a) of this Section. No person shall be liable for civil damages as a result of the evidentiary use of the results of chemical testing of an individual's blood or urine under this Section or as a result of that person's testimony made available under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-289, eff. 8-11-09.)

(625 ILCS 45/5-16a.1)

Sec. 5-16a.1. Reporting of test results of blood or urine conducted in the regular course of providing emergency medical treatment.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the results of blood or urine tests performed for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination of them in an individual's blood or urine, conducted upon persons receiving medical treatment in a hospital emergency room for injuries resulting from a boating accident, shall be disclosed to the Department of Natural Resources or local law enforcement agencies of jurisdiction, upon request. The blood or urine tests are admissible in evidence as a business record exception to the hearsay rule only in prosecutions for violations of Section 5-16 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or in prosecutions for reckless homicide brought under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) The confidentiality provisions of the law pertaining to medical records and medical treatment shall not be applicable with regard to tests performed upon an individual's blood or urine under the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section. No person is liable for civil damages or professional discipline as a result of disclosure or reporting of the tests or the evidentiary use of an individual's blood or urine test results under this Section or Section 5-16a, or as a result of that person's testimony made available under this Section or Section 5-16a, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 93-156, eff. 1-1-04.)

Section 590. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Sections 27.3a, 27.5, and 27.6 as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.3a)

Sec. 27.3a. Fees for automated record keeping, probation and court services operations, and State and Conservation Police operations.

1. The expense of establishing and maintaining automated record keeping systems in the offices of the clerks of the circuit court shall be borne by the county. To defray such expense in any county having established such an automated system or which elects to establish such a system, the county board may require the clerk of the circuit court in their county to charge and collect a court automation fee of not less than $1 nor more than $15 to be charged and collected by the clerk of the court. Such fee shall be paid at the time of filing the first pleading, paper or other appearance filed by each party in all civil cases or by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, municipal ordinance, or conservation case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision, provided that the record keeping system which processes the case category for which the fee is charged is automated or has been approved for automation by the county board, and provided further that no additional fee shall be required if more than one party is presented in a single pleading, paper or other appearance. Such fee shall be collected in the manner in which all other fees or costs are collected.

1.1. Starting on July 6, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-761) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly and pursuant to an administrative order from the chief judge of the circuit or the presiding judge of the county authorizing such collection, a clerk of the circuit court in any county that imposes a fee pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section shall also charge and collect an additional $10 operations fee for probation and court services department operations.

This additional fee shall be paid by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, local ordinance, or conservation case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision, except such $10 operations fee shall not be charged and collected in cases governed by Supreme Court Rule 529 in which the bail amount is $120 or less.

1.2. With respect to the fee imposed and collected under subsection 1.1 of this Section, each clerk shall transfer all fees monthly to the county treasurer for deposit into the probation and court services fund created under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act, and such monies shall be disbursed from the fund only at the direction of the chief judge of the circuit or another judge designated by the Chief Circuit Judge in accordance with the policies and guidelines approved by the Supreme Court.

1.5. Starting on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, a clerk of the circuit court in any county that imposes a fee pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section, shall charge and collect an additional fee in an amount equal to the amount of the fee imposed pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section. This additional fee shall be paid by the defendant in any felony, traffic, misdemeanor, or local ordinance case upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision. This fee shall not be paid by the defendant for any conservation violation listed in subsection 1.6 of this Section.

1.6. Starting on July 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-46), a clerk of the circuit court in any county that imposes a fee pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section shall charge and collect an additional fee in an amount equal to the amount of the fee imposed pursuant to subsection 1 of this Section. This additional fee shall be paid by the defendant upon a judgment of guilty or grant of supervision for a conservation violation under the State Parks Act, the Recreational Trails of Illinois Act, the Illinois Explosives Act, the Timber Buyers Licensing Act, the Forest Products Transportation Act, the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Environmental Protection Act, the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the Wildlife Code, the Cave Protection Act, the Illinois Exotic Weed Act, the Illinois Forestry Development Act, the Ginseng Harvesting Act, the Illinois Lake Management Program Act, the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act, the Illinois Open Land Trust Act, the Open Space Lands Acquisition and Development Act, the Illinois Prescribed Burning Act, the State Forest Act, the Water Use Act of 1983, the Illinois Veteran, Youth, and Young Adult Conservation Jobs Act, the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, the Boat Registration and Safety Act, the Illinois Dangerous Animals Act, the Hunter and Fishermen Interference Prohibition Act, the Wrongful Tree Cutting Act, or Section 11-1426.1, 11-1426.2, 11-1427, 11-1427.1, 11-1427.2, 11-1427.3, 11-1427.4, or 11-1427.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or Section 48-3 or 48-10 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

2. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, each clerk shall commence such charges and collections upon receipt of written notice from the chairman of the county board together with a certified copy of the board's resolution, which the clerk shall file of record in his office.

3. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, such fees shall be in addition to all other fees and charges of such clerks, and assessable as costs, and may be waived only if the judge specifically provides for the waiver of the court automation fee. The fees shall be remitted monthly by such clerk to the county treasurer, to be retained by him in a special fund designated as the court automation fund. The fund shall be audited by the county auditor, and the board shall make expenditure from the fund in payment of any cost related to the automation of court records, including hardware, software, research and development costs and personnel related thereto, provided that the expenditure is approved by the clerk of the court and by the chief judge of the circuit court or his designate.

4. With respect to the fee imposed under subsection 1 of this Section, such fees shall not be charged in any matter coming to any such clerk on change of venue, nor in any proceeding to review the decision of any administrative officer, agency or body.

5. With respect to the additional fee imposed under subsection 1.5 of this Section, the fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk to the State Treasurer within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

6. With respect to the additional fees imposed under subsection 1.5 of this Section, the Director of State Police may direct the use of these fees for homeland security purposes by transferring these fees on a quarterly basis from the State Police Operations Assistance Fund into the Illinois Law Enforcement Alarm Systems (ILEAS) Fund for homeland security initiatives programs. The transferred fees shall be allocated, subject to the approval of the ILEAS Executive Board, as follows: (i) 66.6% shall be used for homeland security initiatives and (ii) 33.3% shall be used for airborne operations. The ILEAS Executive Board shall annually supply the Director of State Police with a report of the use of these fees.

7. With respect to the additional fee imposed under subsection 1.6 of this Section, the fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk to the State Treasurer within one month after receipt for deposit into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-1029, eff. 7-13-10; 97-46, eff. 7-1-12; 97-453, eff. 8-19-11; 97-738, eff. 7-5-12; 97-761, eff. 7-6-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(705 ILCS 105/27.5) (from Ch. 25, par. 27.5)

Sec. 27.5. (a) All fees, fines, costs, additional penalties, bail balances assessed or forfeited, and any other amount paid by a person to the circuit clerk that equals an amount less than $55, except restitution under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, reimbursement for the costs of an emergency response as provided under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, any fees collected for attending a traffic safety program under paragraph (c) of Supreme Court Rule 529, any fee collected on behalf of a State's Attorney under Section 4-2002 of the Counties Code or a sheriff under Section 4-5001 of the Counties Code, or any cost imposed under Section 124A-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, for convictions, orders of supervision, or any other disposition for a violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 11, and 12 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and except as otherwise provided in this Section, shall be disbursed within 60 days after receipt by the circuit clerk as follows: 47% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case; 12% shall be disbursed to the State Treasurer; and 41% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund. Of the 12% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 1/6 shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, 1/2 shall be deposited into the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, and 1/3 shall be deposited into the Drivers Education Fund. For fiscal years 1992 and 1993, amounts deposited into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, or the Drivers Education Fund shall not exceed 110% of the amounts deposited into those funds in fiscal year 1991. Any amount that exceeds the 110% limit shall be distributed as follows: 50% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund and 50% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case. Not later than March 1 of each year the circuit clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this Section during the preceding year based upon independent verification of fines and fees. All counties shall be subject to this Section, except that counties with a population under 2,000,000 may, by ordinance, elect not to be subject to this Section. For offenses subject to this Section, judges shall impose one total sum of money payable for violations. The circuit clerk may add on no additional amounts except for amounts that are required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act, Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and subsection (a) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, unless those amounts are specifically waived by the judge. With respect to money collected by the circuit clerk as a result of forfeiture of bail, ex parte judgment or guilty plea pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 529, the circuit clerk shall first deduct and pay amounts required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act. Unless a court ordered payment schedule is implemented or fee requirements are waived pursuant to a court order, the circuit clerk may add to any unpaid fees and costs a delinquency amount equal to 5% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 30 days, 10% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 60 days, and 15% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 90 days. Notice to those parties may be made by signage posting or publication. The additional delinquency amounts collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the circuit clerk in performing the duties required to collect and disburse funds. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) The following amounts must be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Illinois Animal Abuse Fund:

(1) 50% of the amounts collected for felony offenses under Sections 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) 20% of the amounts collected for Class A and Class B misdemeanors under Sections 3, 3.01, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.1, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and

(3) 50% of the amounts collected for Class C misdemeanors under Sections 4.01 and 7.1 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(c) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $29, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. In addition to the fee of $29, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, if not waived by the court. If this $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(d) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection (d) becomes inoperative 7 years after the effective date of Public Act 95-154.

(e) In all counties having a population of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants:

(1) A person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, including any person placed on court supervision for violating subsection (a), shall be fined $750 as provided for by subsection (f) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money pursuant to subsection (f) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(2) When a crime laboratory DUI analysis fee of $150, provided for by Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections is assessed, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided by subsection (f) of Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(3) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided for by subsection (f) of Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a school district or districts for school safety purposes as provided by subsection (f) of Section 11-605.

(4) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided for by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a school district or districts for school safety purposes as provided by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(5) When a mandatory drug court fee of up to $5 is assessed as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(6) When a mandatory teen court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program fee is assessed as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(7) When a Children's Advocacy Center fee is assessed pursuant to subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(8) When a victim impact panel fee is assessed pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to the victim impact panel to be attended by the defendant.

(9) When a new fee collected in traffic cases is enacted after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-735), it shall be excluded from the percentage disbursement provisions of this Section unless otherwise indicated by law.

(f) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $50, which shall be collected by the circuit clerk and then remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund, a special fund in the State treasury. However, the court may waive the fee if full restitution is complied with. Subject to appropriation, all moneys in the Roadside Memorial Fund shall be used by the Department of Transportation to pay fees imposed under subsection (f) of Section 20 of the Roadside Memorial Act. The fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk within one month after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund.

(g) For any conviction or disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the circuit clerk shall distribute the fines paid by the person as specified by subsection (h) of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-286, eff. 8-11-09; 96-576, eff. 8-18-09; 96-625, eff. 1-1-10; 96-667, eff. 8-25-09; 96-735, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1175, eff. 9-20-10; 96-1342, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(705 ILCS 105/27.6)

(Section as amended by P.A. 96-286, 96-576, 96-578, 96-625, 96-667, 96-1175, 96-1342, 97-434, 97-1051, and 97-1108)

Sec. 27.6. (a) All fees, fines, costs, additional penalties, bail balances assessed or forfeited, and any other amount paid by a person to the circuit clerk equalling an amount of $55 or more, except the fine imposed by Section 5-9-1.15 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the additional fee required by subsections (b) and (c), restitution under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, contributions to a local anti-crime program ordered pursuant to Section 5-6-3(b)(13) or Section 5-6-3.1(c)(13) of the Unified Code of Corrections, reimbursement for the costs of an emergency response as provided under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, any fees collected for attending a traffic safety program under paragraph (c) of Supreme Court Rule 529, any fee collected on behalf of a State's Attorney under Section 4-2002 of the Counties Code or a sheriff under Section 4-5001 of the Counties Code, or any cost imposed under Section 124A-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, for convictions, orders of supervision, or any other disposition for a violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 11, and 12 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and except as otherwise provided in this Section shall be disbursed within 60 days after receipt by the circuit clerk as follows: 44.5% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case; 16.825% shall be disbursed to the State Treasurer; and 38.675% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund. Of the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 2/17 shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, 5.052/17 shall be deposited into the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, 3/17 shall be deposited into the Drivers Education Fund, and 6.948/17 shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Of the 6.948/17 deposited into the Trauma Center Fund from the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Public Health and 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. For fiscal year 1993, amounts deposited into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, or the Drivers Education Fund shall not exceed 110% of the amounts deposited into those funds in fiscal year 1991. Any amount that exceeds the 110% limit shall be distributed as follows: 50% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund and 50% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case. Not later than March 1 of each year the circuit clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this Section during the preceding year based upon independent verification of fines and fees. All counties shall be subject to this Section, except that counties with a population under 2,000,000 may, by ordinance, elect not to be subject to this Section. For offenses subject to this Section, judges shall impose one total sum of money payable for violations. The circuit clerk may add on no additional amounts except for amounts that are required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act, unless those amounts are specifically waived by the judge. With respect to money collected by the circuit clerk as a result of forfeiture of bail, ex parte judgment or guilty plea pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 529, the circuit clerk shall first deduct and pay amounts required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(b-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(c) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted for a violation of Sections 24-1.1, 24-1.2, or 24-1.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a person sentenced for a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(c-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person sentenced for a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(d) The following amounts must be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Illinois Animal Abuse Fund:

(1) 50% of the amounts collected for felony offenses under Sections 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) 20% of the amounts collected for Class A and Class B misdemeanors under Sections 3, 3.01, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.1, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and

(3) 50% of the amounts collected for Class C misdemeanors under Sections 4.01 and 7.1 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(e) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $29, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. In addition to the fee of $29, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, if not waived by the court. If this $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(f) This Section does not apply to the additional child pornography fines assessed and collected under Section 5-9-1.14 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (b) of Section 3-712 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, 99% shall be deposited into the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund and 1% shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law.

(j) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection (j) becomes inoperative 7 years after the effective date of Public Act 95-154.

(k) For any conviction or disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the circuit clerk shall distribute the fines paid by the person as specified by subsection (h) of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $50, which shall be collected by the circuit clerk and then remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund, a special fund in the State treasury. However, the court may waive the fee if full restitution is complied with. Subject to appropriation, all moneys in the Roadside Memorial Fund shall be used by the Department of Transportation to pay fees imposed under subsection (f) of Section 20 of the Roadside Memorial Act. The fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk within one month after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund.

(m) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (c) of Section 411.4 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or subsection (c) of Section 90 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, 99% shall be deposited to the law enforcement agency or fund specified and 1% shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law.

(n) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall pay an additional fee of $15 to the clerk of the circuit court. This additional fee of $15 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. This amount, less 2.5% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the State Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the State Police Merit Board Public Safety Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-191, eff. 1-1-08; 95-291, eff. 1-1-08; 95-428, eff. 8-24-07; 95-600, eff. 6-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-286, eff. 8-11-09; 96-576, eff. 8-18-09; 96-578, eff. 8-18-09; 96-625, eff. 1-1-10; 96-667, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1175, eff. 9-20-10; 96-1342, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1051, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(Section as amended by P.A. 96-576, 96-578, 96-625, 96-667, 96-735, 96-1175, 96-1342, 97-434, 97-1051, and 97-1108)

Sec. 27.6. (a) All fees, fines, costs, additional penalties, bail balances assessed or forfeited, and any other amount paid by a person to the circuit clerk equalling an amount of $55 or more, except the fine imposed by Section 5-9-1.15 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the additional fee required by subsections (b) and (c), restitution under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, contributions to a local anti-crime program ordered pursuant to Section 5-6-3(b)(13) or Section 5-6-3.1(c)(13) of the Unified Code of Corrections, reimbursement for the costs of an emergency response as provided under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, any fees collected for attending a traffic safety program under paragraph (c) of Supreme Court Rule 529, any fee collected on behalf of a State's Attorney under Section 4-2002 of the Counties Code or a sheriff under Section 4-5001 of the Counties Code, or any cost imposed under Section 124A-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, for convictions, orders of supervision, or any other disposition for a violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 11, and 12 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and except as otherwise provided in this Section shall be disbursed within 60 days after receipt by the circuit clerk as follows: 44.5% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case; 16.825% shall be disbursed to the State Treasurer; and 38.675% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund. Of the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 2/17 shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, 5.052/17 shall be deposited into the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, 3/17 shall be deposited into the Drivers Education Fund, and 6.948/17 shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Of the 6.948/17 deposited into the Trauma Center Fund from the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Public Health and 50% shall be disbursed to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. For fiscal year 1993, amounts deposited into the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund, the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, or the Drivers Education Fund shall not exceed 110% of the amounts deposited into those funds in fiscal year 1991. Any amount that exceeds the 110% limit shall be distributed as follows: 50% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate fund and 50% shall be disbursed to the entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case. Not later than March 1 of each year the circuit clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this Section during the preceding year based upon independent verification of fines and fees. All counties shall be subject to this Section, except that counties with a population under 2,000,000 may, by ordinance, elect not to be subject to this Section. For offenses subject to this Section, judges shall impose one total sum of money payable for violations. The circuit clerk may add on no additional amounts except for amounts that are required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act, Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and subsection (a) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, unless those amounts are specifically waived by the judge. With respect to money collected by the circuit clerk as a result of forfeiture of bail, ex parte judgment or guilty plea pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 529, the circuit clerk shall first deduct and pay amounts required by Sections 27.3a and 27.3c of this Act. Unless a court ordered payment schedule is implemented or fee requirements are waived pursuant to court order, the clerk of the court may add to any unpaid fees and costs a delinquency amount equal to 5% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 30 days, 10% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 60 days, and 15% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 90 days. Notice to those parties may be made by signage posting or publication. The additional delinquency amounts collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the circuit clerk in performing the duties required to collect and disburse funds. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(b-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(c) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person convicted for a violation of Sections 24-1.1, 24-1.2, or 24-1.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a person sentenced for a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(c-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person sentenced for a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.

(d) The following amounts must be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Illinois Animal Abuse Fund:

(1) 50% of the amounts collected for felony offenses under Sections 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) 20% of the amounts collected for Class A and Class B misdemeanors under Sections 3, 3.01, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.1, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and

(3) 50% of the amounts collected for Class C misdemeanors under Sections 4.01 and 7.1 of the Humane Care for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(e) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $29, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. In addition to the fee of $29, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, if not waived by the court. If this $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(f) This Section does not apply to the additional child pornography fines assessed and collected under Section 5-9-1.14 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g) Any person convicted of or pleading guilty to a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, shall pay an additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code. This subsection (g) becomes inoperative 7 years after the effective date of Public Act 95-154.

(h) In all counties having a population of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants,

(1) A person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, including any person placed on court supervision for violating subsection (a), shall be fined $750 as provided for by subsection (f) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money pursuant to subsection (f) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(2) When a crime laboratory DUI analysis fee of $150, provided for by Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections is assessed, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided by subsection (f) of Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(3) When a fine for a violation of Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $250 or greater, the person who violated that Section shall be charged an additional $125 as provided for by subsection (e) of Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, which shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a State or county Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund as provided by subsection (e) of Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided for by subsection (f) of Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a school district or districts for school safety purposes as provided by subsection (f) of Section 11-605.

(5) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided for by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a school district or districts for school safety purposes as provided by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(6) When a mandatory drug court fee of up to $5 is assessed as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(7) When a mandatory teen court, peer jury, youth court, or other youth diversion program fee is assessed as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(8) When a Children's Advocacy Center fee is assessed pursuant to subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided in subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties Code.

(9) When a victim impact panel fee is assessed pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 11-501.01 of the Vehicle Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to the victim impact panel to be attended by the defendant.

(10) When a new fee collected in traffic cases is enacted after the effective date of this subsection (h), it shall be excluded from the percentage disbursement provisions of this Section unless otherwise indicated by law.

(i) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (b) of Section 3-712 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, 99% shall be deposited into the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund and 1% shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law.

(j) (Blank).

(k) For any conviction or disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the circuit clerk shall distribute the fines paid by the person as specified by subsection (h) of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Any person who receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee of $50, which shall be collected by the circuit clerk and then remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund, a special fund in the State treasury. However, the court may waive the fee if full restitution is complied with. Subject to appropriation, all moneys in the Roadside Memorial Fund shall be used by the Department of Transportation to pay fees imposed under subsection (f) of Section 20 of the Roadside Memorial Act. The fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk within one month after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Roadside Memorial Fund.

(m) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (c) of Section 411.4 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or subsection (c) of Section 90 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, 99% shall be deposited to the law enforcement agency or fund specified and 1% shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law.

(n) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed by the courts, any person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or receives a disposition of court supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall pay an additional fee of $15 to the clerk of the circuit court. This additional fee of $15 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. This amount, less 2.5% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the State Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the State Police Merit Board Public Safety Fund.

(Source: P.A. 96-576, eff. 8-18-09; 96-578, eff. 8-18-09; 96-625, eff. 1-1-10; 96-667, eff. 8-25-09; 96-735, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1175, eff. 9-20-10; 96-1342, eff. 1-1-11; 97-434, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1051, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 595. The Juror Protection Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(705 ILCS 320/15)

Sec. 15. Violation. Any attempt to contact a member of the jury panel following that member's refusal to speak as outlined in subsection (e) of Section 10 shall be deemed a violation of Section 32-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 94-186, eff. 1-1-06.)

Section 600. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-2, 1-3, 1-7, 1-8, 2-3, 2-10, 2-13, 2-17, 2-18, 2-25, 2-27, 3-19, 3-26, 3-40, 4-16, 4-23, 5-125, 5-130, 5-155, 5-170, 5-401.5, 5-407, 5-415, 5-605, 5-615, 5-710, 5-715, 5-730, 5-805, 5-901, and 5-905 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-2) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-2)

Sec. 1-2. Purpose and policy.

(1) The purpose of this Act is to secure for each minor subject hereto such care and guidance, preferably in his or her own home, as will serve the safety and moral, emotional, mental, and physical welfare of the minor and the best interests of the community; to preserve and strengthen the minor's family ties whenever possible, removing him or her from the custody of his or her parents only when his or her safety or welfare or the protection of the public cannot be adequately safeguarded without removal; if the child is removed from the custody of his or her parent, the Department of Children and Family Services immediately shall consider concurrent planning, as described in Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity; consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child; and, when the minor is removed from his or her own family, to secure for him or her custody, care and discipline as nearly as possible equivalent to that which should be given by his or her parents, and in cases where it should and can properly be done to place the minor in a family home so that he or she may become a member of the family by legal adoption or otherwise. Provided that a ground for unfitness under the Adoption Act can be met, it may be appropriate to expedite termination of parental rights:

(a) when reasonable efforts are inappropriate, or have been provided and were unsuccessful, and there are aggravating circumstances including, but not limited to, those cases in which (i) the child or another child of that child's parent was (A) abandoned, (B) tortured, or (C) chronically abused or (ii) the parent is criminally convicted of (A) first degree murder or second degree murder of any child, (B) attempt or conspiracy to commit first degree murder or second degree murder of any child, (C) solicitation to commit murder, solicitation to commit murder for hire, solicitation to commit second degree murder of any child, or aggravated assault in violation of subdivision (a)(13) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or (D) aggravated criminal sexual assault in violation of Section 11-1.40 (a)(1) or 12-14.1 (a)(1) 12-14(b)(1) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(b) when the parental rights of a parent with respect to another child of the parent have been involuntarily terminated; or

(c) in those extreme cases in which the parent's incapacity to care for the child, combined with an extremely poor prognosis for treatment or rehabilitation, justifies expedited termination of parental rights.

(2) In all proceedings under this Act the court may direct the course thereof so as promptly to ascertain the jurisdictional facts and fully to gather information bearing upon the current condition and future welfare of persons subject to this Act. This Act shall be administered in a spirit of humane concern, not only for the rights of the parties, but also for the fears and the limits of understanding of all who appear before the court.

(3) In all procedures under this Act, the following shall apply:

(a) The procedural rights assured to the minor shall be the rights of adults unless specifically precluded by laws which enhance the protection of such minors.

(b) Every child has a right to services necessary to his or her safety and proper development, including health, education and social services.

(c) The parents' right to the custody of their child shall not prevail when the court determines that it is contrary to the health, safety, and best interests of the child.

(4) This Act shall be liberally construed to carry out the foregoing purpose and policy.

(Source: P.A. 89-704, eff. 8-16-97 (changed from 1-1-98 by P.A. 90-443); 90-27, eff. 1-1-98; 90-28, eff. 1-1-98; 90-443, eff. 8-16-97; 90-608, eff. 6-30-98.)

(705 ILCS 405/1-3) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-3)

Sec. 1-3. Definitions. Terms used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, have the following meanings ascribed to them:

(1) "Adjudicatory hearing" means a hearing to determine whether the allegations of a petition under Section 2-13, 3-15 or 4-12 that a minor under 18 years of age is abused, neglected or dependent, or requires authoritative intervention, or addicted, respectively, are supported by a preponderance of the evidence or whether the allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt.

(2) "Adult" means a person 21 years of age or older.

(3) "Agency" means a public or private child care facility legally authorized or licensed by this State for placement or institutional care or for both placement and institutional care.

(4) "Association" means any organization, public or private, engaged in welfare functions which include services to or on behalf of children but does not include "agency" as herein defined.

(4.05) Whenever a "best interest" determination is required, the following factors shall be considered in the context of the child's age and developmental needs:

(a) the physical safety and welfare of the child, including food, shelter, health, and clothing;

(b) the development of the child's identity;

(c) the child's background and ties, including familial, cultural, and religious;

(d) the child's sense of attachments, including:

(i) where the child actually feels love, attachment, and a sense of being valued (as opposed to where adults believe the child should feel such love, attachment, and a sense of being valued);

(ii) the child's sense of security;

(iii) the child's sense of familiarity;

(iv) continuity of affection for the child;

(v) the least disruptive placement alternative for the child;

(e) the child's wishes and long-term goals;

(f) the child's community ties, including church, school, and friends;

(g) the child's need for permanence which includes the child's need for stability and continuity of relationships with parent figures and with siblings and other relatives;

(h) the uniqueness of every family and child;

(i) the risks attendant to entering and being in substitute care; and

(j) the preferences of the persons available to care for the child.

(4.1) "Chronic truant" shall have the definition ascribed to it in Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(5) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act.

(6) "Dispositional hearing" means a hearing to determine whether a minor should be adjudged to be a ward of the court, and to determine what order of disposition should be made in respect to a minor adjudged to be a ward of the court.

(7) "Emancipated minor" means any minor 16 years of age or over who has been completely or partially emancipated under the Emancipation of Minors Act or under this Act.

(8) "Guardianship of the person" of a minor means the duty and authority to act in the best interests of the minor, subject to residual parental rights and responsibilities, to make important decisions in matters having a permanent effect on the life and development of the minor and to be concerned with his or her general welfare. It includes but is not necessarily limited to:

(a) the authority to consent to marriage, to enlistment in the armed forces of the United States, or to a major medical, psychiatric, and surgical treatment; to represent the minor in legal actions; and to make other decisions of substantial legal significance concerning the minor;

(b) the authority and duty of reasonable visitation, except to the extent that these have been limited in the best interests of the minor by court order;

(c) the rights and responsibilities of legal custody except where legal custody has been vested in another person or agency; and

(d) the power to consent to the adoption of the minor, but only if expressly conferred on the guardian in accordance with Section 2-29, 3-30, or 4-27.

(9) "Legal custody" means the relationship created by an order of court in the best interests of the minor which imposes on the custodian the responsibility of physical possession of a minor and the duty to protect, train and discipline him and to provide him with food, shelter, education and ordinary medical care, except as these are limited by residual parental rights and responsibilities and the rights and responsibilities of the guardian of the person, if any.

(9.1) "Mentally capable adult relative" means a person 21 years of age or older who is not suffering from a mental illness that prevents him or her from providing the care necessary to safeguard the physical safety and welfare of a minor who is left in that person's care by the parent or parents or other person responsible for the minor's welfare.

(10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years subject to this Act.

(11) "Parent" means the father or mother of a child and includes any adoptive parent. It also includes a man (i) whose paternity is presumed or has been established under the law of this or another jurisdiction or (ii) who has registered with the Putative Father Registry in accordance with Section 12.1 of the Adoption Act and whose paternity has not been ruled out under the law of this or another jurisdiction. It does not include a parent whose rights in respect to the minor have been terminated in any manner provided by law. It does not include a person who has been or could be determined to be a parent under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or similar parentage law in any other state, if that person has been convicted of or pled nolo contendere to a crime that resulted in the conception of the child under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, subsection (a) or (b) (but not subsection (c)) of Section 11-1.50 or 12-15, or subsection (a), (b), (c), (e), or (f) (but not subsection (d)) of Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or similar statute in another jurisdiction unless upon motion of any party, other than the offender, to the juvenile court proceedings the court finds it is in the child's best interest to deem the offender a parent for purposes of the juvenile court proceedings.

(11.1) "Permanency goal" means a goal set by the court as defined in subdivision (2) of Section 2-28.

(11.2) "Permanency hearing" means a hearing to set the permanency goal and to review and determine (i) the appropriateness of the services contained in the plan and whether those services have been provided, (ii) whether reasonable efforts have been made by all the parties to the service plan to achieve the goal, and (iii) whether the plan and goal have been achieved.

(12) "Petition" means the petition provided for in Section 2-13, 3-15, 4-12 or 5-520, including any supplemental petitions thereunder in Section 3-15, 4-12 or 5-520.

(12.1) "Physically capable adult relative" means a person 21 years of age or older who does not have a severe physical disability or medical condition, or is not suffering from alcoholism or drug addiction, that prevents him or her from providing the care necessary to safeguard the physical safety and welfare of a minor who is left in that person's care by the parent or parents or other person responsible for the minor's welfare.

(12.2) "Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(13) "Residual parental rights and responsibilities" means those rights and responsibilities remaining with the parent after the transfer of legal custody or guardianship of the person, including, but not necessarily limited to, the right to reasonable visitation (which may be limited by the court in the best interests of the minor as provided in subsection (8)(b) of this Section), the right to consent to adoption, the right to determine the minor's religious affiliation, and the responsibility for his support.

(14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in physically unrestricting facilities pending court disposition or execution of court order for placement.

(14.1) "Sibling Contact Support Plan" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(15) "Station adjustment" means the informal handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police officer.

(16) "Ward of the court" means a minor who is so adjudged under Section 2-22, 3-23, 4-20 or 5-705, after a finding of the requisite jurisdictional facts, and thus is subject to the dispositional powers of the court under this Act.

(17) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course, has been assigned to the position of juvenile police officer by his or her chief law enforcement officer and has completed the necessary juvenile officers training as prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer, juvenile officer training approved by the Director of the Department of State Police.

(18) "Secure child care facility" means any child care facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services to provide secure living arrangements for children under 18 years of age who are subject to placement in facilities under the Children and Family Services Act and who are not subject to placement in facilities for whom standards are established by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections. "Secure child care facility" also means a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building, or a distinct part of the building are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building.

(Source: P.A. 96-168, eff. 8-10-09; 97-568, eff. 8-25-11; 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12.)

(705 ILCS 405/1-7) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-7)

Sec. 1-7. Confidentiality of law enforcement records.

(A) Inspection and copying of law enforcement records maintained by law enforcement agencies that relate to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 17th birthday shall be restricted to the following:

(1) Any local, State or federal law enforcement officers of any jurisdiction or agency when necessary for the discharge of their official duties during the investigation or prosecution of a crime or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang, or, when necessary for the discharge of its official duties in connection with a particular investigation of the conduct of a law enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers. For purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(2) Prosecutors, probation officers, social workers, or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors pursuant to the order of the juvenile court, when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(3) Prosecutors and probation officers:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805; or

(b) when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and such minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of bail; or

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and such minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation, fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(4) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Board.

(5) Authorized military personnel.

(6) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court and the chief executive of the respective law enforcement agency; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the minor's record.

(7) Department of Children and Family Services child protection investigators acting in their official capacity.

(8) The appropriate school official only if the agency or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of physical harm to students, school personnel, or others who are present in the school or on school grounds.

(A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by a local law enforcement agency under a reciprocal reporting system established and maintained between the school district and the local law enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school within the school district who has been arrested or taken into custody for any of the following offenses:

(i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;

(vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or

(viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The information derived from the law enforcement records shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of that child and shall not be a public record. The information shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the safety of students and employees in the school. If the designated law enforcement and school officials deem it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student may be referred to in-school or community based social services if those services are available. "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility for special education, referrals to community-based agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed appropriate for the student.

(B) Any information provided to appropriate school officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by local law enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation that is directly related to school safety shall consist of oral information only, and not written law enforcement records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials to protect the safety of students and employees in the school and aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child. The information derived orally from the local law enforcement officials shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of the child and shall not be a public record. This limitation on the use of information about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation shall in no way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in pursuing criminal charges arising out of the information disclosed during a police investigation of the minor. For purposes of this paragraph, "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected criminal activity.

(9) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile law enforcement records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act who is the subject of the juvenile law enforcement records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (9) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(10) The president of a park district. Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the president of the park district by the Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c) of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c) of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.

(B) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), no law enforcement officer or other person or agency may knowingly transmit to the Department of Corrections or the Department of State Police or to the Federal Bureau of Investigation any fingerprint or photograph relating to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 17th birthday, unless the court in proceedings under this Act authorizes the transmission or enters an order under Section 5-805 permitting or requiring the institution of criminal proceedings.

(2) Law enforcement officers or other persons or agencies shall transmit to the Department of State Police copies of fingerprints and descriptions of all minors who have been arrested or taken into custody before their 17th birthday for the offense of unlawful use of weapons under Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a Class X or Class 1 felony, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Chapter 4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department pursuant to this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files pursuant to Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act. Nothing in this Act prohibits a law enforcement agency from fingerprinting a minor taken into custody or arrested before his or her 17th birthday for an offense other than those listed in this paragraph (2).

(C) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 17 years of age must be maintained separate from the records of arrests and may not be open to public inspection or their contents disclosed to the public except by order of the court presiding over matters pursuant to this Act or when the institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805 or such a person has been convicted of a crime and is the subject of pre-sentence investigation or proceedings on an application for probation or when provided by law. For purposes of obtaining documents pursuant to this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(1) In cases where the law enforcement, or independent agency, records concern a pending juvenile court case, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(3) In determining whether the records should be available for inspection, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the moving party's interest in obtaining the information. Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office or securing employment, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(D) Nothing contained in subsection (C) of this Section shall prohibit the inspection or disclosure to victims and witnesses of photographs contained in the records of law enforcement agencies when the inspection and disclosure is conducted in the presence of a law enforcement officer for the purpose of the identification or apprehension of any person subject to the provisions of this Act or for the investigation or prosecution of any crime.

(E) Law enforcement officers, and personnel of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of any minor in releasing information to the general public as to the arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving a minor.

(F) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law enforcement agencies from communicating with each other by letter, memorandum, teletype or intelligence alert bulletin or other means the identity or other relevant information pertaining to a person under 17 years of age if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the person poses a real and present danger to the safety of the public or law enforcement officers. The information provided under this subsection (F) shall remain confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed, except as otherwise allowed by law.

(G) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department from obtaining and examining the records of any law enforcement agency relating to any record of the applicant having been arrested or taken into custody before the applicant's 17th birthday.

(Source: P.A. 96-419, eff. 8-13-09; 97-700, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1104, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(705 ILCS 405/1-8) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-8)

Sec. 1-8. Confidentiality and accessibility of juvenile court records.

(A) Inspection and copying of juvenile court records relating to a minor who is the subject of a proceeding under this Act shall be restricted to the following:

(1) The minor who is the subject of record, his parents, guardian and counsel.

(2) Law enforcement officers and law enforcement agencies when such information is essential to executing an arrest or search warrant or other compulsory process, or to conducting an ongoing investigation or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of 3 or more persons, whether formal or informal, having as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more criminal acts and that has a common name or common identifying sign, symbol or specific color apparel displayed, and whose members individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(3) Judges, hearing officers, prosecutors, probation officers, social workers or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or predisposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors pursuant to the order of the juvenile court when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(4) Judges, prosecutors and probation officers:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805; or

(b) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of bail; or

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation or fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) when a minor becomes 17 years of age or older, and is the subject of criminal proceedings, including a hearing to determine the amount of bail, a pre-trial investigation, a pre-sentence investigation, a fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(5) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(6) Authorized military personnel.

(7) Victims, their subrogees and legal representatives; however, such persons shall have access only to the name and address of the minor and information pertaining to the disposition or alternative adjustment plan of the juvenile court.

(8) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular records; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record.

(9) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers.

(10) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court.

(11) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile court records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, who is the subject of juvenile court records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (11) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(A-1) Findings and exclusions of paternity entered in proceedings occurring under Article II of this Act shall be disclosed, in a manner and form approved by the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court, to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services when necessary to discharge the duties of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(B) A minor who is the victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record.

(C) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (C), juvenile court records shall not be made available to the general public but may be inspected by representatives of agencies, associations and news media or other properly interested persons by general or special order of the court presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.1) In cases where the records concern a pending juvenile court case, the party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(0.2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.3) In determining whether the records should be available for inspection, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the moving party's interest in obtaining the information. The State's Attorney, the minor, and the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records. For purposes of obtaining documents pursuant to this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(0.4) Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(1) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either of the following circumstances:

(A) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or

(B) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the act was committed and the adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of: (i) an act in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (ii) an act involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (iii) an act that would be a Class X felony offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act if committed by an adult, (iv) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (v) an act that would be an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (vi) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(2) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings permitted or required under Section 5-4, under either of the following circumstances:

(A) The minor has been convicted of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault,

(B) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the offense was committed and the conviction was based upon the minor's commission of: (i) an offense in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (ii) an offense involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (iii) a Class X felony offense under or a second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act, (iv) a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (v) an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (vi) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(D) Pending or following any adjudication of delinquency for any offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the victim of any such offense shall receive the rights set out in Sections 4 and 6 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act; and the juvenile who is the subject of the adjudication, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, shall be treated as an adult for the purpose of affording such rights to the victim.

(E) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records of disposition or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(F) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the dispositional order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to such juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any guidance counselor designated by him.

(G) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(H) When a Court hearing a proceeding under Article II of this Act becomes aware that an earlier proceeding under Article II had been heard in a different county, that Court shall request, and the Court in which the earlier proceedings were initiated shall transmit, an authenticated copy of the Court record, including all documents, petitions, and orders filed therein and the minute orders, transcript of proceedings, and docket entries of the Court.

(I) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 17th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-212, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-3) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-3)

Sec. 2-3. Neglected or abused minor.

(1) Those who are neglected include:

(a) any minor under 18 years of age who is not receiving the proper or necessary support, education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a minor's well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being, including adequate food, clothing and shelter, or who is abandoned by his or her parent or parents or other person or persons responsible for the minor's welfare, except that a minor shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the minor's parent or parents or other person or persons responsible for the minor's welfare have left the minor in the care of an adult relative for any period of time, who the parent or parents or other person responsible for the minor's welfare know is both a mentally capable adult relative and physically capable adult relative, as defined by this Act; or

(b) any minor under 18 years of age whose environment is injurious to his or her welfare; or

(c) any newborn infant whose blood, urine, or meconium contains any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, as now or hereafter amended, or a metabolite of a controlled substance, with the exception of controlled substances or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant is the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant; or

(d) any minor under the age of 14 years whose parent or other person responsible for the minor's welfare leaves the minor without supervision for an unreasonable period of time without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that minor; or

(e) any minor who has been provided with interim crisis intervention services under Section 3-5 of this Act and whose parent, guardian, or custodian refuses to permit the minor to return home unless the minor is an immediate physical danger to himself, herself, or others living in the home.

Whether the minor was left without regard for the mental or physical health, safety, or welfare of that minor or the period of time was unreasonable shall be determined by considering the following factors, including but not limited to:

(1) the age of the minor;

(2) the number of minors left at the location;

(3) special needs of the minor, including whether the minor is physically or mentally handicapped, or otherwise in need of ongoing prescribed medical treatment such as periodic doses of insulin or other medications;

(4) the duration of time in which the minor was left without supervision;

(5) the condition and location of the place where the minor was left without supervision;

(6) the time of day or night when the minor was left without supervision;

(7) the weather conditions, including whether the minor was left in a location with adequate protection from the natural elements such as adequate heat or light;

(8) the location of the parent or guardian at the time the minor was left without supervision, the physical distance the minor was from the parent or guardian at the time the minor was without supervision;

(9) whether the minor's movement was restricted, or the minor was otherwise locked within a room or other structure;

(10) whether the minor was given a phone number of a person or location to call in the event of an emergency and whether the minor was capable of making an emergency call;

(11) whether there was food and other provision left for the minor;

(12) whether any of the conduct is attributable to economic hardship or illness and the parent, guardian or other person having physical custody or control of the child made a good faith effort to provide for the health and safety of the minor;

(13) the age and physical and mental capabilities of the person or persons who provided supervision for the minor;

(14) whether the minor was left under the supervision of another person;

(15) any other factor that would endanger the health and safety of that particular minor.

A minor shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the minor has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(2) Those who are abused include any minor under 18 years of age whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the minor's welfare, or any person who is in the same family or household as the minor, or any individual residing in the same home as the minor, or a paramour of the minor's parent:

(i) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon such minor physical injury, by other than accidental means, which causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(ii) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to such minor by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(iii) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against such minor, as such sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, as amended, or in the Wrongs to Children Act, and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include minors under 18 years of age;

(iv) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon such minor;

(v) inflicts excessive corporal punishment;

(vi) commits or allows to be committed the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons as defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, upon such minor; or

(vii) allows, encourages or requires a minor to commit any act of prostitution, as defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and extending those definitions to include minors under 18 years of age.

A minor shall not be considered abused for the sole reason that the minor has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

(3) This Section does not apply to a minor who would be included herein solely for the purpose of qualifying for financial assistance for himself, his parents, guardian or custodian.

(Source: P.A. 96-168, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-10) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-10)

Sec. 2-10. Temporary custody hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the temporary custody hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent, the court shall state in writing the factual basis supporting its finding and the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. The Department of Children and Family Services shall give testimony concerning indicated reports of abuse and neglect, of which they are aware of through the central registry, involving the minor's parent, guardian or custodian. After such testimony, the court may, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of parent, guardian or custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody. If it is determined that a parent's, guardian's, or custodian's compliance with critical services mitigates the necessity for removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may enter an Order of Protection setting forth reasonable conditions of behavior that a parent, guardian, or custodian must observe for a specified period of time, not to exceed 12 months, without a violation; provided, however, that the 12-month period shall begin anew after any violation. Custodian shall include any agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child. If it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, the court may also prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; however, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 15 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

In placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. In determining the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court must find that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the safety and protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and must further find that reasonable efforts have been made or that, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, no efforts reasonably can be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home. The court shall require documentation from the Department of Children and Family Services as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home or the reasons why no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal. When a minor is placed in the home of a relative, the Department of Children and Family Services shall complete a preliminary background review of the members of the minor's custodian's household in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Child Care Act of 1969 within 90 days of that placement. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a parent-child visiting plan, within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The parent-child visiting plan shall set out the time and place of visits, the frequency of visits, the length of visits, who shall be present at the visits, and where appropriate, the minor's opportunities to have telephone and mail communication with the parents.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, and when the child has siblings in care, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a sibling placement and contact plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The sibling placement and contact plan shall set forth whether the siblings are placed together, and if they are not placed together, what, if any, efforts are being made to place them together. If the Department has determined that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. For siblings placed separately, the sibling placement and contact plan shall set the time and place for visits, the frequency of the visits, the length of visits, who shall be present for the visits, and where appropriate, the child's opportunities to have contact with their siblings in addition to in person contact. If the Department determines it is not in the best interest of a sibling to have contact with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. The sibling placement and contact plan shall specify a date for development of the Sibling Contact Support Plan, under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, and shall remain in effect until the Sibling Contact Support Plan is developed.

For good cause, the court may waive the requirement to file the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan, or extend the time for filing either plan. Any party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan to determine whether it is reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal. A party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan to determine whether it is consistent with the minor's best interest. The court may refer the parties to mediation where available. The frequency, duration, and locations of visitation shall be measured by the needs of the child and family, and not by the convenience of Department personnel. Child development principles shall be considered by the court in its analysis of how frequent visitation should be, how long it should last, where it should take place, and who should be present. If upon motion of the party to review either plan and after receiving evidence, the court determines that the parent-child visiting plan is not reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or that the restrictions placed on parent-child contact or sibling placement or contact are contrary to the child's best interests, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court shall enter an order for the Department to implement changes to the parent-child visiting plan or sibling placement or contact plan, consistent with the court's findings. At any stage of proceeding, any party may by motion request the court to enter any orders necessary to implement the parent-child visiting plan, sibling placement or contact plan or subsequently developed Sibling Contact Support Plan. Nothing under this subsection (2) shall restrict the court from granting discretionary authority to the Department to increase opportunities for additional parent-child contacts or sibling contacts, without further court orders. Nothing in this subsection (2) shall restrict the Department from immediately restricting or terminating parent-child contact or sibling contacts, without either amending the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling contact plan or obtaining a court order, where the Department or its assigns reasonably believe that continuation of the contact, as set out in the plan, would be contrary to the child's health, safety, and welfare. The Department shall file with the court and serve on the parties any amendments to the plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, of the change of the visitation.

Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court shall state in writing (i) the factual basis supporting its findings concerning the immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another and (ii) the factual basis supporting its findings that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home or that no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child. The order together with the court's findings of fact in support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

If the child is placed in the temporary custody of the Department of Children and Family Services for his or her protection, the court shall admonish the parents, guardian, custodian or responsible relative that the parents must cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services, comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the conditions which require the child to be in care, or risk termination of their parental rights.

(3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3 and 4-3 the moving party is unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter care hearing may proceed ex-parte. A shelter care order from an ex-parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last known address of the other person or persons entitled to notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State, including whether temporary custody is sought, and the consequences of failure to appear and shall contain a notice that the parties will not be entitled to further written notices or publication notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights, except as required by Supreme Court Rule 11; and shall explain the right of the parties and the procedures to vacate or modify a shelter care order as provided in this Section. The notice for a shelter care hearing shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN

OF SHELTER CARE HEARING

On ................ at ........., before the Honorable ................, (address:) ................., the State of Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child or children) ....................... are abused, neglected or dependent for the following reasons:

.............................................. and (2) whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child or children from the responsible relative.

YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a trial can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90 days. You will not be entitled to further notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights.

At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following rights:

1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they cannot afford one.

2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to allow them time to prepare.

3. To present evidence concerning:

a. Whether or not the child or children were abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether or not there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child from home (including: their ability to care for the child, conditions in the home, alternative means of protecting the child other than removal).

c. The best interests of the child.

4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.

The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS

TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY

If you were not present at and did not have adequate notice of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary custody of ............... was awarded to ................, you have the right to request a full rehearing on whether the State should have temporary custody of ................. To request this rehearing, you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court (address): ........................, in person or by mailing a statement (affidavit) setting forth the following:

1. That you were not present at the shelter care hearing.

2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining how the notice was inadequate).

3. Your signature.

4. Signature must be notarized.

The rehearing should be scheduled within 48 hours of your filing this affidavit.

At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains those rights.

At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the following rights:

1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.

2. To be declared competent as a witness and to present testimony concerning:

a. Whether they are abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to be removed from home.

c. Their best interests.

3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.

4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and orders of the court.

(4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, minor age 8 or over, or counsel of the minor did not have actual notice of or was not present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 48 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 17 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 2-9, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(8) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice, may file a motion that it is in the best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; or

(c) A person not a party to the alleged abuse, neglect or dependency, including a parent, relative or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety.

In ruling on the motion, the court shall determine whether it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(10) When the court finds or has found that there is probable cause to believe a minor is an abused minor as described in subsection (2) of Section 2-3 and that there is an immediate and urgent necessity for the abused minor to be placed in shelter care, immediate and urgent necessity shall be presumed for any other minor residing in the same household as the abused minor provided:

(a) Such other minor is the subject of an abuse or neglect petition pending before the court; and

(b) A party to the petition is seeking shelter care for such other minor.

Once the presumption of immediate and urgent necessity has been raised, the burden of demonstrating the lack of immediate and urgent necessity shall be on any party that is opposing shelter care for the other minor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-13) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-13)

Sec. 2-13. Petition.

(1) Any adult person, any agency or association by its representative may file, or the court on its own motion, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor may direct the filing through the State's Attorney of a petition in respect of a minor under this Act. The petition and all subsequent court documents shall be entitled "In the interest of ...., a minor".

(2) The petition shall be verified but the statements may be made upon information and belief. It shall allege that the minor is abused, neglected, or dependent, with citations to the appropriate provisions of this Act, and set forth (a) facts sufficient to bring the minor under Section 2-3 or 2-4 and to inform respondents of the cause of action, including, but not limited to, a plain and concise statement of the factual allegations that form the basis for the filing of the petition; (b) the name, age and residence of the minor; (c) the names and residences of his parents; (d) the name and residence of his legal guardian or the person or persons having custody or control of the minor, or of the nearest known relative if no parent or guardian can be found; and (e) if the minor upon whose behalf the petition is brought is sheltered in custody, the date on which such temporary custody was ordered by the court or the date set for a temporary custody hearing. If any of the facts herein required are not known by the petitioner, the petition shall so state.

(3) The petition must allege that it is in the best interests of the minor and of the public that he be adjudged a ward of the court and may pray generally for relief available under this Act. The petition need not specify any proposed disposition following adjudication of wardship. The petition may request that the minor remain in the custody of the parent, guardian, or custodian under an Order of Protection.

(4) If termination of parental rights and appointment of a guardian of the person with power to consent to adoption of the minor under Section 2-29 is sought, the petition shall so state. If the petition includes this request, the prayer for relief shall clearly and obviously state that the parents could permanently lose their rights as a parent at this hearing.

In addition to the foregoing, the petitioner, by motion, may request the termination of parental rights and appointment of a guardian of the person with power to consent to adoption of the minor under Section 2-29 at any time after the entry of a dispositional order under Section 2-22.

(4.5) (a) With respect to any minors committed to its care pursuant to this Act, the Department of Children and Family Services shall request the State's Attorney to file a petition or motion for termination of parental rights and appointment of guardian of the person with power to consent to adoption of the minor under Section 2-29 if:

(i) a minor has been in foster care, as described in subsection (b), for 15 months of the most recent 22 months; or

(ii) a minor under the age of 2 years has been previously determined to be abandoned at an adjudicatory hearing; or

(iii) the parent is criminally convicted of (A) first degree murder or second degree murder of any child, (B) attempt or conspiracy to commit first degree murder or second degree murder of any child, (C) solicitation to commit murder of any child, solicitation to commit murder for hire of any child, or solicitation to commit second degree murder of any child, (D) aggravated battery, aggravated battery of a child, or felony domestic battery, any of which has resulted in serious injury to the minor or a sibling of the minor, (E) aggravated criminal sexual assault in violation of subdivision (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subdivision (a)(1) (b)(1) of Section 12-14.1 12-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or (F) an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar and bear a substantial relationship to any of the foregoing offenses

unless:

(i) the child is being cared for by a relative,

(ii) the Department has documented in the case plan a compelling reason for determining that filing such petition would not be in the best interests of the child,

(iii) the court has found within the preceding 12 months that the Department has failed to make reasonable efforts to reunify the child and family, or

(iv) paragraph (c) of this subsection (4.5) provides otherwise.

(b) For purposes of this subsection, the date of entering foster care is defined as the earlier of:

(1) The date of a judicial finding at an adjudicatory hearing that the child is an abused, neglected, or dependent minor; or

(2) 60 days after the date on which the child is removed from his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(c) With respect to paragraph (a)(i), the following transition rules shall apply:

(1) If the child entered foster care after November 19, 1997 and this amendatory Act of 1998 takes effect before the child has been in foster care for 15 months of the preceding 22 months, then the Department shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this subsection (4.5) for that child as soon as the child has been in foster care for 15 of the preceding 22 months.

(2) If the child entered foster care after November 19, 1997 and this amendatory Act of 1998 takes effect after the child has been in foster care for 15 of the preceding 22 months, then the Department shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this subsection (4.5) for that child within 3 months after the end of the next regular session of the General Assembly.

(3) If the child entered foster care prior to November 19, 1997, then the Department shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this subsection (4.5) for that child in accordance with Department policy or rule.

(d) If the State's Attorney determines that the Department's request for filing of a petition or motion conforms to the requirements set forth in subdivisions (a), (b), and (c) of this subsection (4.5), then the State's Attorney shall file the petition or motion as requested.

(5) The court shall liberally allow the petitioner to amend the petition to set forth a cause of action or to add, amend, or supplement factual allegations that form the basis for a cause of action up until 14 days before the adjudicatory hearing. The petitioner may amend the petition after that date and prior to the adjudicatory hearing if the court grants leave to amend upon a showing of good cause. The court may allow amendment of the petition to conform with the evidence at any time prior to ruling. In all cases in which the court has granted leave to amend based on new evidence or new allegations, the court shall permit the respondent an adequate opportunity to prepare a defense to the amended petition.

(6) At any time before dismissal of the petition or before final closing and discharge under Section 2-31, one or more motions in the best interests of the minor may be filed. The motion shall specify sufficient facts in support of the relief requested.

(Source: P.A. 95-405, eff. 6-1-08.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-17) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-17)

Sec. 2-17. Guardian ad litem.

(1) Immediately upon the filing of a petition alleging that the minor is a person described in Sections 2-3 or 2-4 of this Article, the court shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if:

(a) such petition alleges that the minor is an abused or neglected child; or

(b) such petition alleges that charges alleging the commission of any of the sex offenses defined in Article 11 or in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, have been filed against a defendant in any court and that such minor is the alleged victim of the acts of defendant in the commission of such offense.

Unless the guardian ad litem appointed pursuant to this paragraph (1) is an attorney at law he shall be represented in the performance of his duties by counsel. The guardian ad litem shall represent the best interests of the minor and shall present recommendations to the court consistent with that duty.

(2) Before proceeding with the hearing, the court shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if

(a) no parent, guardian, custodian or relative of the minor appears at the first or any subsequent hearing of the case;

(b) the petition prays for the appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption; or

(c) the petition for which the minor is before the court resulted from a report made pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(3) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor whenever it finds that there may be a conflict of interest between the minor and his parents or other custodian or that it is otherwise in the minor's best interest to do so.

(4) Unless the guardian ad litem is an attorney, he shall be represented by counsel.

(5) The reasonable fees of a guardian ad litem appointed under this Section shall be fixed by the court and charged to the parents of the minor, to the extent they are able to pay. If the parents are unable to pay those fees, they shall be paid from the general fund of the county.

(6) A guardian ad litem appointed under this Section, shall receive copies of any and all classified reports of child abuse and neglect made under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act in which the minor who is the subject of a report under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, is also the minor for whom the guardian ad litem is appointed under this Section.

(7) The appointed guardian ad litem shall remain the child's guardian ad litem throughout the entire juvenile trial court proceedings, including permanency hearings and termination of parental rights proceedings, unless there is a substitution entered by order of the court.

(8) The guardian ad litem or an agent of the guardian ad litem shall have a minimum of one in-person contact with the minor and one contact with one of the current foster parents or caregivers prior to the adjudicatory hearing, and at least one additional in-person contact with the child and one contact with one of the current foster parents or caregivers after the adjudicatory hearing but prior to the first permanency hearing and one additional in-person contact with the child and one contact with one of the current foster parents or caregivers each subsequent year. For good cause shown, the judge may excuse face-to-face interviews required in this subsection.

(9) In counties with a population of 100,000 or more but less than 3,000,000, each guardian ad litem must successfully complete a training program approved by the Department of Children and Family Services. The Department of Children and Family Services shall provide training materials and documents to guardians ad litem who are not mandated to attend the training program. The Department of Children and Family Services shall develop and distribute to all guardians ad litem a bibliography containing information including but not limited to the juvenile court process, termination of parental rights, child development, medical aspects of child abuse, and the child's need for safety and permanence.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-18) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-18)

Sec. 2-18. Evidence.

(1) At the adjudicatory hearing, the court shall first consider only the question whether the minor is abused, neglected or dependent. The standard of proof and the rules of evidence in the nature of civil proceedings in this State are applicable to proceedings under this Article. If the petition also seeks the appointment of a guardian of the person with power to consent to adoption of the minor under Section 2-29, the court may also consider legally admissible evidence at the adjudicatory hearing that one or more grounds of unfitness exists under subdivision D of Section 1 of the Adoption Act.

(2) In any hearing under this Act, the following shall constitute prima facie evidence of abuse or neglect, as the case may be:

(a) proof that a minor has a medical diagnosis of battered child syndrome is prima facie evidence of abuse;

(b) proof that a minor has a medical diagnosis of failure to thrive syndrome is prima facie evidence of neglect;

(c) proof that a minor has a medical diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome is prima facie evidence of neglect;

(d) proof that a minor has a medical diagnosis at birth of withdrawal symptoms from narcotics or barbiturates is prima facie evidence of neglect;

(e) proof of injuries sustained by a minor or of the condition of a minor of such a nature as would ordinarily not be sustained or exist except by reason of the acts or omissions of the parent, custodian or guardian of such minor shall be prima facie evidence of abuse or neglect, as the case may be;

(f) proof that a parent, custodian or guardian of a minor repeatedly used a drug, to the extent that it has or would ordinarily have the effect of producing in the user a substantial state of stupor, unconsciousness, intoxication, hallucination, disorientation or incompetence, or a substantial impairment of judgment, or a substantial manifestation of irrationality, shall be prima facie evidence of neglect;

(g) proof that a parent, custodian, or guardian of a minor repeatedly used a controlled substance, as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, in the presence of the minor or a sibling of the minor is prima facie evidence of neglect. "Repeated use", for the purpose of this subsection, means more than one use of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(h) proof that a newborn infant's blood, urine, or meconium contains any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a metabolite of a controlled substance, with the exception of controlled substances or metabolites of those substances, the presence of which is the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn, is prime facie evidence of neglect;

(i) proof that a minor was present in a structure or vehicle in which the minor's parent, custodian, or guardian was involved in the manufacture of methamphetamine constitutes prima facie evidence of abuse and neglect;

(j) proof that a parent, custodian, or guardian of a minor allows, encourages, or requires a minor to perform, offer, or agree to perform any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 12-12 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 for any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value, or any touching or fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person, for any money, property, token, object, or article or anything of value, for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification, constitutes prima facie evidence of abuse and neglect;

(k) proof that a parent, custodian, or guardian of a minor commits or allows to be committed the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons as defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, upon such minor, constitutes prima facie evidence of abuse and neglect.

(3) In any hearing under this Act, proof of the abuse, neglect or dependency of one minor shall be admissible evidence on the issue of the abuse, neglect or dependency of any other minor for whom the respondent is responsible.

(4) (a) Any writing, record, photograph or x-ray of any hospital or public or private agency, whether in the form of an entry in a book or otherwise, made as a memorandum or record of any condition, act, transaction, occurrence or event relating to a minor in an abuse, neglect or dependency proceeding, shall be admissible in evidence as proof of that condition, act, transaction, occurrence or event, if the court finds that the document was made in the regular course of the business of the hospital or agency and that it was in the regular course of such business to make it, at the time of the act, transaction, occurrence or event, or within a reasonable time thereafter. A certification by the head or responsible employee of the hospital or agency that the writing, record, photograph or x-ray is the full and complete record of the condition, act, transaction, occurrence or event and that it satisfies the conditions of this paragraph shall be prima facie evidence of the facts contained in such certification. A certification by someone other than the head of the hospital or agency shall be accompanied by a photocopy of a delegation of authority signed by both the head of the hospital or agency and by such other employee. All other circumstances of the making of the memorandum, record, photograph or x-ray, including lack of personal knowledge of the maker, may be proved to affect the weight to be accorded such evidence, but shall not affect its admissibility.

(b) Any indicated report filed pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act shall be admissible in evidence.

(c) Previous statements made by the minor relating to any allegations of abuse or neglect shall be admissible in evidence. However, no such statement, if uncorroborated and not subject to cross-examination, shall be sufficient in itself to support a finding of abuse or neglect.

(d) There shall be a rebuttable presumption that a minor is competent to testify in abuse or neglect proceedings. The court shall determine how much weight to give to the minor's testimony, and may allow the minor to testify in chambers with only the court, the court reporter and attorneys for the parties present.

(e) The privileged character of communication between any professional person and patient or client, except privilege between attorney and client, shall not apply to proceedings subject to this Article.

(f) Proof of the impairment of emotional health or impairment of mental or emotional condition as a result of the failure of the respondent to exercise a minimum degree of care toward a minor may include competent opinion or expert testimony, and may include proof that such impairment lessened during a period when the minor was in the care, custody or supervision of a person or agency other than the respondent.

(5) In any hearing under this Act alleging neglect for failure to provide education as required by law under subsection (1) of Section 2-3, proof that a minor under 13 years of age who is subject to compulsory school attendance under the School Code is a chronic truant as defined under the School Code shall be prima facie evidence of neglect by the parent or guardian in any hearing under this Act and proof that a minor who is 13 years of age or older who is subject to compulsory school attendance under the School Code is a chronic truant shall raise a rebuttable presumption of neglect by the parent or guardian. This subsection (5) shall not apply in counties with 2,000,000 or more inhabitants.

(6) In any hearing under this Act, the court may take judicial notice of prior sworn testimony or evidence admitted in prior proceedings involving the same minor if (a) the parties were either represented by counsel at such prior proceedings or the right to counsel was knowingly waived and (b) the taking of judicial notice would not result in admitting hearsay evidence at a hearing where it would otherwise be prohibited.

(Source: P.A. 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-25) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-25)

Sec. 2-25. Order of protection.

(1) The court may make an order of protection in assistance of or as a condition of any other order authorized by this Act. The order of protection shall be based on the health, safety and best interests of the minor and may set forth reasonable conditions of behavior to be observed for a specified period. Such an order may require a person:

(a) to stay away from the home or the minor;

(b) to permit a parent to visit the minor at stated periods;

(c) to abstain from offensive conduct against the minor, his parent or any person to whom custody of the minor is awarded;

(d) to give proper attention to the care of the home;

(e) to cooperate in good faith with an agency to which custody of a minor is entrusted by the court or with an agency or association to which the minor is referred by the court;

(f) to prohibit and prevent any contact whatsoever with the respondent minor by a specified individual or individuals who are alleged in either a criminal or juvenile proceeding to have caused injury to a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor;

(g) to refrain from acts of commission or omission that tend to make the home not a proper place for the minor;

(h) to refrain from contacting the minor and the foster parents in any manner that is not specified in writing in the case plan.

(2) The court shall enter an order of protection to prohibit and prevent any contact between a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor and any person named in a petition seeking an order of protection who has been convicted of heinous battery or aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a child or aggravated battery under subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse as described in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or has been convicted of an offense that resulted in the death of a child, or has violated a previous order of protection under this Section.

(3) When the court issues an order of protection against any person as provided by this Section, the court shall direct a copy of such order to the Sheriff of that county. The Sheriff shall furnish a copy of the order of protection to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of receipt, in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete record and index of such orders of protection and make this data available to all local law enforcement agencies.

(4) After notice and opportunity for hearing afforded to a person subject to an order of protection, the order may be modified or extended for a further specified period or both or may be terminated if the court finds that the health, safety, and best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby.

(5) An order of protection may be sought at any time during the course of any proceeding conducted pursuant to this Act if such an order is consistent with the health, safety, and best interests of the minor. Any person against whom an order of protection is sought may retain counsel to represent him at a hearing, and has rights to be present at the hearing, to be informed prior to the hearing in writing of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time of such hearing, and to cross examine witnesses called by the petitioner and to present witnesses and argument in opposition to the relief sought in the petition.

(6) Diligent efforts shall be made by the petitioner to serve any person or persons against whom any order of protection is sought with written notice of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time at which the hearing on the petition is to be held. When a protective order is being sought in conjunction with a temporary custody hearing, if the court finds that the person against whom the protective order is being sought has been notified of the hearing or that diligent efforts have been made to notify such person, the court may conduct a hearing. If a protective order is sought at any time other than in conjunction with a temporary custody hearing, the court may not conduct a hearing on the petition in the absence of the person against whom the order is sought unless the petitioner has notified such person by personal service at least 3 days before the hearing or has sent written notice by first class mail to such person's last known address at least 5 days before the hearing.

(7) A person against whom an order of protection is being sought who is neither a parent, guardian, legal custodian or responsible relative as described in Section 1-5 is not a party or respondent as defined in that Section and shall not be entitled to the rights provided therein. Such person does not have a right to appointed counsel or to be present at any hearing other than the hearing in which the order of protection is being sought or a hearing directly pertaining to that order. Unless the court orders otherwise, such person does not have a right to inspect the court file.

(8) All protective orders entered under this Section shall be in writing. Unless the person against whom the order was obtained was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon that person and file proof of such service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. The person against whom the protective order was obtained may seek a modification of the order by filing a written motion to modify the order within 7 days after actual receipt by the person of a copy of the order. Any modification of the order granted by the court must be determined to be consistent with the best interests of the minor.

(9) If a petition is filed charging a violation of a condition contained in the protective order and if the court determines that this violation is of a critical service necessary to the safety and welfare of the minor, the court may proceed to findings and an order for temporary custody.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 955, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1030, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-27) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-27)

Sec. 2-27. Placement; legal custody or guardianship.

(1) If the court determines and puts in writing the factual basis supporting the determination of whether the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor adjudged a ward of the court are unfit or are unable, for some reason other than financial circumstances alone, to care for, protect, train or discipline the minor or are unwilling to do so, and that the health, safety, and best interest of the minor will be jeopardized if the minor remains in the custody of his or her parents, guardian or custodian, the court may at this hearing and at any later point:

(a) place the minor in the custody of a suitable relative or other person as legal custodian or guardian;

(a-5) with the approval of the Department of Children and Family Services, place the minor in the subsidized guardianship of a suitable relative or other person as legal guardian; "subsidized guardianship" means a private guardianship arrangement for children for whom the permanency goals of return home and adoption have been ruled out and who meet the qualifications for subsidized guardianship as defined by the Department of Children and Family Services in administrative rules;

(b) place the minor under the guardianship of a probation officer;

(c) commit the minor to an agency for care or placement, except an institution under the authority of the Department of Corrections or of the Department of Children and Family Services;

(d) commit the minor to the Department of Children and Family Services for care and service; however, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of this Act. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency. The Department shall be given due notice of the pendency of the action and the Guardianship Administrator of the Department of Children and Family Services shall be appointed guardian of the person of the minor. Whenever the Department seeks to discharge a minor from its care and service, the Guardianship Administrator shall petition the court for an order terminating guardianship. The Guardianship Administrator may designate one or more other officers of the Department, appointed as Department officers by administrative order of the Department Director, authorized to affix the signature of the Guardianship Administrator to documents affecting the guardian-ward relationship of children for whom he or she has been appointed guardian at such times as he or she is unable to perform the duties of his or her office. The signature authorization shall include but not be limited to matters of consent of marriage, enlistment in the armed forces, legal proceedings, adoption, major medical and surgical treatment and application for driver's license. Signature authorizations made pursuant to the provisions of this paragraph shall be filed with the Secretary of State and the Secretary of State shall provide upon payment of the customary fee, certified copies of the authorization to any court or individual who requests a copy.

(1.5) In making a determination under this Section, the court shall also consider whether, based on health, safety, and the best interests of the minor,

(a) appropriate services aimed at family preservation and family reunification have been unsuccessful in rectifying the conditions that have led to a finding of unfitness or inability to care for, protect, train, or discipline the minor, or

(b) no family preservation or family reunification services would be appropriate,

and if the petition or amended petition contained an allegation that the parent is an unfit person as defined in subdivision (D) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act, and the order of adjudication recites that parental unfitness was established by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall, when appropriate and in the best interest of the minor, enter an order terminating parental rights and appointing a guardian with power to consent to adoption in accordance with Section 2-29.

When making a placement, the court, wherever possible, shall require the Department of Children and Family Services to select a person holding the same religious belief as that of the minor or a private agency controlled by persons of like religious faith of the minor and shall require the Department to otherwise comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act in placing the child. In addition, whenever alternative plans for placement are available, the court shall ascertain and consider, to the extent appropriate in the particular case, the views and preferences of the minor.

(2) When a minor is placed with a suitable relative or other person pursuant to item (a) of subsection (1), the court shall appoint him or her the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor. When a minor is committed to any agency, the court shall appoint the proper officer or representative thereof as legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor. Legal custodians and guardians of the person of the minor have the respective rights and duties set forth in subsection (9) of Section 1-3 except as otherwise provided by order of court; but no guardian of the person may consent to adoption of the minor unless that authority is conferred upon him or her in accordance with Section 2-29. An agency whose representative is appointed guardian of the person or legal custodian of the minor may place the minor in any child care facility, but the facility must be licensed under the Child Care Act of 1969 or have been approved by the Department of Children and Family Services as meeting the standards established for such licensing. No agency may place a minor adjudicated under Sections 2-3 or 2-4 in a child care facility unless the placement is in compliance with the rules and regulations for placement under this Section promulgated by the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act. Like authority and restrictions shall be conferred by the court upon any probation officer who has been appointed guardian of the person of a minor.

(3) No placement by any probation officer or agency whose representative is appointed guardian of the person or legal custodian of a minor may be made in any out of State child care facility unless it complies with the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children. Placement with a parent, however, is not subject to that Interstate Compact.

(4) The clerk of the court shall issue to the legal custodian or guardian of the person a certified copy of the order of court, as proof of his authority. No other process is necessary as authority for the keeping of the minor.

(5) Custody or guardianship granted under this Section continues until the court otherwise directs, but not after the minor reaches the age of 19 years except as set forth in Section 2-31, or if the minor was previously committed to the Department of Children and Family Services for care and service and the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33.

(6) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 95-642, eff. 6-1-08; 96-581, eff. 1-1-10.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-19) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-19)

Sec. 3-19. Guardian ad litem.

(1) Immediately upon the filing of a petition alleging that the minor requires authoritative intervention, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if

(a) such petition alleges that the minor is the victim of sexual abuse or misconduct; or

(b) such petition alleges that charges alleging the commission of any of the sex offenses defined in Article 11 or in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, have been filed against a defendant in any court and that such minor is the alleged victim of the acts of the defendant in the commission of such offense.

(2) Unless the guardian ad litem appointed pursuant to paragraph (1) is an attorney at law he shall be represented in the performance of his duties by counsel.

(3) Before proceeding with the hearing, the court shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if

(a) no parent, guardian, custodian or relative of the minor appears at the first or any subsequent hearing of the case;

(b) the petition prays for the appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption; or

(c) the petition for which the minor is before the court resulted from a report made pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(4) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor whenever it finds that there may be a conflict of interest between the minor and his parents or other custodian or that it is otherwise in the minor's interest to do so.

(5) The reasonable fees of a guardian ad litem appointed under this Section shall be fixed by the court and charged to the parents of the minor, to the extent they are able to pay. If the parents are unable to pay those fees, they shall be paid from the general fund of the county.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-26) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-26)

Sec. 3-26. Order of protection.

(1) The court may make an order of protection in assistance of or as a condition of any other order authorized by this Act. The order of protection may set forth reasonable conditions of behavior to be observed for a specified period. Such an order may require a person:

(a) To stay away from the home or the minor;

(b) To permit a parent to visit the minor at stated periods;

(c) To abstain from offensive conduct against the minor, his parent or any person to whom custody of the minor is awarded;

(d) To give proper attention to the care of the home;

(e) To cooperate in good faith with an agency to which custody of a minor is entrusted by the court or with an agency or association to which the minor is referred by the court;

(f) To prohibit and prevent any contact whatsoever with the respondent minor by a specified individual or individuals who are alleged in either a criminal or juvenile proceeding to have caused injury to a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor;

(g) To refrain from acts of commission or omission that tend to make the home not a proper place for the minor.

(2) The court shall enter an order of protection to prohibit and prevent any contact between a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor and any person named in a petition seeking an order of protection who has been convicted of heinous battery or aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a child or aggravated battery under subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse as described in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or has been convicted of an offense that resulted in the death of a child, or has violated a previous order of protection under this Section.

(3) When the court issues an order of protection against any person as provided by this Section, the court shall direct a copy of such order to the Sheriff of that county. The Sheriff shall furnish a copy of the order of protection to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of receipt, in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete record and index of such orders of protection and make this data available to all local law enforcement agencies.

(4) After notice and opportunity for hearing afforded to a person subject to an order of protection, the order may be modified or extended for a further specified period or both or may be terminated if the court finds that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby.

(5) An order of protection may be sought at any time during the course of any proceeding conducted pursuant to this Act. Any person against whom an order of protection is sought may retain counsel to represent him at a hearing, and has rights to be present at the hearing, to be informed prior to the hearing in writing of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time of such hearing, and to cross examine witnesses called by the petitioner and to present witnesses and argument in opposition to the relief sought in the petition.

(6) Diligent efforts shall be made by the petitioner to serve any person or persons against whom any order of protection is sought with written notice of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time at which the hearing on the petition is to be held. When a protective order is being sought in conjunction with a shelter care hearing, if the court finds that the person against whom the protective order is being sought has been notified of the hearing or that diligent efforts have been made to notify such person, the court may conduct a hearing. If a protective order is sought at any time other than in conjunction with a shelter care hearing, the court may not conduct a hearing on the petition in the absence of the person against whom the order is sought unless the petitioner has notified such person by personal service at least 3 days before the hearing or has sent written notice by first class mail to such person's last known address at least 5 days before the hearing.

(7) A person against whom an order of protection is being sought who is neither a parent, guardian, legal custodian or responsible relative as described in Section 1-5 is not a party or respondent as defined in that Section and shall not be entitled to the rights provided therein. Such person does not have a right to appointed counsel or to be present at any hearing other than the hearing in which the order of protection is being sought or a hearing directly pertaining to that order. Unless the court orders otherwise, such person does not have a right to inspect the court file.

(8) All protective orders entered under this Section shall be in writing. Unless the person against whom the order was obtained was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon that person and file proof of such service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. The person against whom the protective order was obtained may seek a modification of the order by filing a written motion to modify the order within 7 days after actual receipt by the person of a copy of the order.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 995, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1030, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/3-40)

Sec. 3-40. Minors involved in electronic dissemination of indecent visual depictions in need of supervision.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Computer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

"Electronic communication device" means an electronic device, including but not limited to a wireless telephone, personal digital assistant, or a portable or mobile computer, that is capable of transmitting images or pictures.

"Indecent visual depiction" means a depiction or portrayal in any pose, posture, or setting involving a lewd exhibition of the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially developed breast of the person.

"Minor" means a person under 18 years of age.

(b) A minor shall not distribute or disseminate an indecent visual depiction of another minor through the use of a computer or electronic communication device.

(c) Adjudication. A minor who violates subsection (b) of this Section may be subject to a petition for adjudication and adjudged a minor in need of supervision.

(d) Kinds of dispositional orders. A minor found to be in need of supervision under this Section may be:

(1) ordered to obtain counseling or other supportive services to address the acts that led to the need for supervision; or

(2) ordered to perform community service.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit a prosecution for disorderly conduct, public indecency, child pornography, a violation of Article 26.5 Harassing and Obscene Communications of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, or any other applicable provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 96-1087, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-16) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-16)

Sec. 4-16. Guardian ad litem.

(1) Immediately upon the filing of a petition alleging that the minor is a person described in Section 4-3 of this Act, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if:

(a) such petition alleges that the minor is the victim of sexual abuse or misconduct; or

(b) such petition alleges that charges alleging the commission of any of the sex offenses defined in Article 11 or in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, have been filed against a defendant in any court and that such minor is the alleged victim of the acts of the defendant in the commission of such offense.

Unless the guardian ad litem appointed pursuant to this paragraph (1) is an attorney at law he shall be represented in the performance of his duties by counsel.

(2) Before proceeding with the hearing, the court shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if

(a) no parent, guardian, custodian or relative of the minor appears at the first or any subsequent hearing of the case;

(b) the petition prays for the appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption; or

(c) the petition for which the minor is before the court resulted from a report made pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(3) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor whenever it finds that there may be a conflict of interest between the minor and his parents or other custodian or that it is otherwise in the minor's interest to do so.

(4) Unless the guardian ad litem is an attorney, he shall be represented by counsel.

(5) The reasonable fees of a guardian ad litem appointed under this Section shall be fixed by the court and charged to the parents of the minor, to the extent they are able to pay. If the parents are unable to pay those fees, they shall be paid from the general fund of the county.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/4-23) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-23)

Sec. 4-23. Order of protection.

(1) The court may make an order of protection in assistance of or as a condition of any other order authorized by this Act. The order of protection may set forth reasonable conditions of behavior to be observed for a specified period. Such an order may require a person:

(a) To stay away from the home or the minor;

(b) To permit a parent to visit the minor at stated periods;

(c) To abstain from offensive conduct against the minor, his parent or any person to whom custody of the minor is awarded;

(d) To give proper attention to the care of the home;

(e) To cooperate in good faith with an agency to which custody of a minor is entrusted by the court or with an agency or association to which the minor is referred by the court;

(f) To prohibit and prevent any contact whatsoever with the respondent minor by a specified individual or individuals who are alleged in either a criminal or juvenile proceeding to have caused injury to a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor;

(g) To refrain from acts of commission or omission that tend to make the home not a proper place for the minor.

(2) The court shall enter an order of protection to prohibit and prevent any contact between a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor and any person named in a petition seeking an order of protection who has been convicted of heinous battery or aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a child or aggravated battery under subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse as described in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or has been convicted of an offense that resulted in the death of a child, or has violated a previous order of protection under this Section.

(3) When the court issues an order of protection against any person as provided by this Section, the court shall direct a copy of such order to the Sheriff of that county. The Sheriff shall furnish a copy of the order of protection to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of receipt, in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete record and index of such orders of protection and make this data available to all local law enforcement agencies.

(4) After notice and opportunity for hearing afforded to a person subject to an order of protection, the order may be modified or extended for a further specified period or both or may be terminated if the court finds that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served thereby.

(5) An order of protection may be sought at any time during the course of any proceeding conducted pursuant to this Act. Any person against whom an order of protection is sought may retain counsel to represent him at a hearing, and has rights to be present at the hearing, to be informed prior to the hearing in writing of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time of such hearing, and to cross examine witnesses called by the petitioner and to present witnesses and argument in opposition to the relief sought in the petition.

(6) Diligent efforts shall be made by the petitioner to serve any person or persons against whom any order of protection is sought with written notice of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time at which the hearing on the petition is to be held. When a protective order is being sought in conjunction with a shelter care hearing, if the court finds that the person against whom the protective order is being sought has been notified of the hearing or that diligent efforts have been made to notify such person, the court may conduct a hearing. If a protective order is sought at any time other than in conjunction with a shelter care hearing, the court may not conduct a hearing on the petition in the absence of the person against whom the order is sought unless the petitioner has notified such person by personal service at least 3 days before the hearing or has sent written notice by first class mail to such person's last known address at least 5 days before the hearing.

(7) A person against whom an order of protection is being sought who is neither a parent, guardian, legal custodian or responsible relative as described in Section 1-5 is not a party or respondent as defined in that Section and shall not be entitled to the rights provided therein. Such person does not have a right to appointed counsel or to be present at any hearing other than the hearing in which the order of protection is being sought or a hearing directly pertaining to that order. Unless the court orders otherwise, such person does not have a right to inspect the court file.

(8) All protective orders entered under this Section shall be in writing. Unless the person against whom the order was obtained was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon that person and file proof of such service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. The person against whom the protective order was obtained may seek a modification of the order by filing a written motion to modify the order within 7 days after actual receipt by the person of a copy of the order.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 955, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1030, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-125)

Sec. 5-125. Concurrent jurisdiction. Any minor alleged to have violated a traffic, boating, or fish and game law, or a municipal or county ordinance, may be prosecuted for the violation and if found guilty punished under any statute or ordinance relating to the violation, without reference to the procedures set out in this Article, except that any detention, must be in compliance with this Article.

For the purpose of this Section, "traffic violation" shall include a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide, Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or any similar county or municipal ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-130)

Sec. 5-130. Excluded jurisdiction.

(1) (a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the time of an offense was at least 15 years of age and who is charged with: (i) first degree murder, (ii) aggravated criminal sexual assault, (iii) aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05 where the minor personally discharged a firearm as defined in Section 2-15.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, (iv) armed robbery when the armed robbery was committed with a firearm, or (v) aggravated vehicular hijacking when the hijacking was committed with a firearm.

These charges and all other charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(b) (i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the Criminal Code of 1961 on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes one or more charges specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) and additional charges that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(c) (i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), then, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), that finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine if the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(2) (Blank).

(3) (a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the time of the offense was at least 15 years of age and who is charged with a violation of the provisions of paragraph (1), (3), (4), or (10) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 while in school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, or on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year. School is defined, for purposes of this Section as any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university. These charges and all other charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(b) (i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes one or more charges specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) and additional charges that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(c) (i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (3), then, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (3), that finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine if the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(4) (a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the time of an offense was at least 13 years of age and who is charged with first degree murder committed during the course of either aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping. However, this subsection (4) does not include a minor charged with first degree murder based exclusively upon the accountability provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) (i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, and additional charges that are not specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(c) (i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If the minor was not yet 15 years of age at the time of the offense, and if after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense other than first degree murder committed during the course of either aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnapping, the finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous delinquent history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the best interest of the minor and the security of the public require sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(5) (a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who is charged with a violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-6 or Section 32-10 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the minor is subject to prosecution under the criminal laws of this State as a result of the application of the provisions of Section 5-125, or subsection (1) or (2) of this Section. These charges and all other charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(b) (i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), the State's Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

(ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment is filed that includes one or more charges specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (5) and additional charges that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.

(c) (i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), then, in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), the conviction shall not invalidate the verdict or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of this State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine if whether the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age of the minor; (c) the previous delinquent history of the minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so prescribed.

(6) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who, pursuant to subsection (1) or (3) or Section 5-805 or 5-810, has previously been placed under the jurisdiction of the criminal court and has been convicted of a crime under an adult criminal or penal statute. Such a minor shall be subject to prosecution under the criminal laws of this State.

(7) The procedures set out in this Article for the investigation, arrest and prosecution of juvenile offenders shall not apply to minors who are excluded from jurisdiction of the Juvenile Court, except that minors under 17 years of age shall be kept separate from confined adults.

(8) Nothing in this Act prohibits or limits the prosecution of any minor for an offense committed on or after his or her 17th birthday even though he or she is at the time of the offense a ward of the court.

(9) If an original petition for adjudication of wardship alleges the commission by a minor 13 years of age or over of an act that constitutes a crime under the laws of this State, the minor, with the consent of his or her counsel, may, at any time before commencement of the adjudicatory hearing, file with the court a motion that criminal prosecution be ordered and that the petition be dismissed insofar as the act or acts involved in the criminal proceedings are concerned. If such a motion is filed as herein provided, the court shall enter its order accordingly.

(10) If, prior to August 12, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-574), a minor is charged with a violation of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act under the criminal laws of this State, other than a minor charged with a Class X felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, any party including the minor or the court sua sponte may, before trial, move for a hearing for the purpose of trying and sentencing the minor as a delinquent minor. To request a hearing, the party must file a motion prior to trial. Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to all parties. On its own motion or upon the filing of a motion by one of the parties including the minor, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the minor should be tried and sentenced as a delinquent minor under this Article. In making its determination, the court shall consider among other matters:

(a) The age of the minor;

(b) Any previous delinquent or criminal history of the minor;

(c) Any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor;

(d) Any mental health or educational history of the minor, or both; and

(e) Whether there is probable cause to support the charge, whether the minor is charged through accountability, and whether there is evidence the minor possessed a deadly weapon or caused serious bodily harm during the offense.

Any material that is relevant and reliable shall be admissible at the hearing. In all cases, the judge shall enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois unless the judge makes a finding based on a preponderance of the evidence that the minor would be amenable to the care, treatment, and training programs available through the facilities of the juvenile court based on an evaluation of the factors listed in this subsection (10).

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-155)

Sec. 5-155. Any weapon in possession of a minor found to be a delinquent under Section 5-105 for an offense involving the use of a weapon or for being in possession of a weapon during the commission of an offense shall be confiscated and disposed of by the juvenile court whether the weapon is the property of the minor or his or her parent or guardian. Disposition of the weapon by the court shall be in accordance with Section 24-6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-170)

Sec. 5-170. Representation by counsel.

(a) In a proceeding under this Article, a minor who was under 13 years of age at the time of the commission of an act that if committed by an adult would be a violation of Section 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 must be represented by counsel during the entire custodial interrogation of the minor.

(b) In a judicial proceeding under this Article, a minor may not waive the right to the assistance of counsel in his or her defense.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-401.5)

Sec. 5-401.5. When statements by minor may be used.

(a) In this Section, "custodial interrogation" means any interrogation (i) during which a reasonable person in the subject's position would consider himself or herself to be in custody and (ii) during which a question is asked that is reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response.

In this Section, "electronic recording" includes motion picture, audiotape, videotape, or digital recording.

In this Section, "place of detention" means a building or a police station that is a place of operation for a municipal police department or county sheriff department or other law enforcement agency at which persons are or may be held in detention in connection with criminal charges against those persons or allegations that those persons are delinquent minors.

(b) An oral, written, or sign language statement of a minor who, at the time of the commission of the offense was under the age of 17 years, made as a result of a custodial interrogation conducted at a police station or other place of detention on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly shall be presumed to be inadmissible as evidence against the minor in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, for an act that if committed by an adult would be brought under Section 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, or 9-3.3, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or under clause (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code unless:

(1) an electronic recording is made of the custodial interrogation; and

(2) the recording is substantially accurate and not intentionally altered.

(c) Every electronic recording required under this Section must be preserved until such time as the minor's adjudication for any offense relating to the statement is final and all direct and habeas corpus appeals are exhausted, or the prosecution of such offenses is barred by law.

(d) If the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the minor was subjected to a custodial interrogation in violation of this Section, then any statements made by the minor during or following that non-recorded custodial interrogation, even if otherwise in compliance with this Section, are presumed to be inadmissible in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding against the minor except for the purposes of impeachment.

(e) Nothing in this Section precludes the admission (i) of a statement made by the minor in open court in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, before a grand jury, or at a preliminary hearing, (ii) of a statement made during a custodial interrogation that was not recorded as required by this Section because electronic recording was not feasible, (iii) of a voluntary statement, whether or not the result of a custodial interrogation, that has a bearing on the credibility of the accused as a witness, (iv) of a spontaneous statement that is not made in response to a question, (v) of a statement made after questioning that is routinely asked during the processing of the arrest of the suspect, (vi) of a statement made during a custodial interrogation by a suspect who requests, prior to making the statement, to respond to the interrogator's questions only if an electronic recording is not made of the statement, provided that an electronic recording is made of the statement of agreeing to respond to the interrogator's question, only if a recording is not made of the statement, (vii) of a statement made during a custodial interrogation that is conducted out-of-state, (viii) of a statement given at a time when the interrogators are unaware that a death has in fact occurred, or (ix) of any other statement that may be admissible under law. The State shall bear the burden of proving, by a preponderance of the evidence, that one of the exceptions described in this subsection (e) is applicable. Nothing in this Section precludes the admission of a statement, otherwise inadmissible under this Section, that is used only for impeachment and not as substantive evidence.

(f) The presumption of inadmissibility of a statement made by a suspect at a custodial interrogation at a police station or other place of detention may be overcome by a preponderance of the evidence that the statement was voluntarily given and is reliable, based on the totality of the circumstances.

(g) Any electronic recording of any statement made by a minor during a custodial interrogation that is compiled by any law enforcement agency as required by this Section for the purposes of fulfilling the requirements of this Section shall be confidential and exempt from public inspection and copying, as provided under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act, and the information shall not be transmitted to anyone except as needed to comply with this Section.

(h) A statement, admission, confession, or incriminating information made by or obtained from a minor related to the instant offense, as part of any behavioral health screening, assessment, evaluation, or treatment, whether or not court-ordered, shall not be admissible as evidence against the minor on the issue of guilt only in the instant juvenile court proceeding. The provisions of this subsection (h) are in addition to and do not override any existing statutory and constitutional prohibition on the admission into evidence in delinquency proceedings of information obtained during screening, assessment, or treatment.

(Source: P.A. 96-1251, eff. 1-1-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-407)

Sec. 5-407. Processing of juvenile in possession of a firearm.

(a) If a law enforcement officer detains a minor pursuant to Section 10-27.1A of the School Code, the officer shall deliver the minor to the nearest juvenile officer, in the manner prescribed by subsection (2) of Section 5-405 of this Act. The juvenile officer shall deliver the minor without unnecessary delay to the court or to the place designated by rule or order of court for the reception of minors. In no event shall the minor be eligible for any other disposition by the juvenile police officer, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (3) of Section 5-405 of this Act.

(b) Minors not excluded from this Act's jurisdiction under subsection (3)(a) of Section 5-130 of this Act shall be brought before a judicial officer within 40 hours, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and court-designated holidays, for a detention hearing to determine whether he or she shall be further held in custody. If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is a delinquent minor by virtue of his or her violation of item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 while on school grounds, that finding shall create a presumption that immediate and urgent necessity exists under subdivision (2) of Section 5-501 of this Act. Once the presumption of immediate and urgent necessity has been raised, the burden of demonstrating the lack of immediate and urgent necessity shall be on any party that is opposing detention for the minor. Should the court order detention pursuant to this Section, the minor shall be detained, pending the results of a court-ordered psychological evaluation to determine if the minor is a risk to himself, herself, or others. Upon receipt of the psychological evaluation, the court shall review the determination regarding the existence of urgent and immediate necessity. The court shall consider the psychological evaluation in conjunction with the other factors identified in subdivision (2) of Section 5-501 of this Act in order to make a de novo determination regarding whether it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be detained or placed in a shelter care facility. In addition to the pre-trial conditions found in Section 5-505 of this Act, the court may order the minor to receive counseling and any other services recommended by the psychological evaluation as a condition for release of the minor.

(c) Upon making a determination that the student presents a risk to himself, herself, or others, the court shall issue an order restraining the student from entering the property of the school if he or she has been suspended or expelled from the school as a result of possessing a firearm. The order shall restrain the student from entering the school and school owned or leased property, including any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by the school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity. The order shall remain in effect until such time as the court determines that the student no longer presents a risk to himself, herself, or others.

(d) Psychological evaluations ordered pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section and statements made by the minor during the course of these evaluations, shall not be admissible on the issue of delinquency during the course of any adjudicatory hearing held under this Act.

(e) In this Section:

"School" means any public or private elementary or secondary school.

"School grounds" includes the real property comprising any school, any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school.

(Source: P.A. 91-11, eff. 6-4-99.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-415)

Sec. 5-415. Setting of detention or shelter care hearing; release.

(1) Unless sooner released, a minor alleged to be a delinquent minor taken into temporary custody must be brought before a judicial officer within 40 hours for a detention or shelter care hearing to determine whether he or she shall be further held in custody. If a minor alleged to be a delinquent minor taken into custody is hospitalized or is receiving treatment for a physical or mental condition, and is unable to be brought before a judicial officer for a detention or shelter care hearing, the 40 hour period will not commence until the minor is released from the hospital or place of treatment. If the minor gives false information to law enforcement officials regarding the minor's identity or age, the 40 hour period will not commence until the court rules that the minor is subject to this Act and not subject to prosecution under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. Any other delay attributable to a minor alleged to be a delinquent minor who is taken into temporary custody shall act to toll the 40 hour time period. The 40 hour time period shall be tolled to allow counsel for the minor to prepare for the detention or shelter care hearing, upon a motion filed by such counsel and granted by the court. In all cases, the 40 hour time period is exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays and court-designated holidays.

(2) If the State's Attorney or probation officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having more than 3,000,000 inhabitants) determines that the minor should be retained in custody, he or she shall cause a petition to be filed as provided in Section 5-520 of this Article, and the clerk of the court shall set the matter for hearing on the detention or shelter care hearing calendar. Immediately upon the filing of a petition in the case of a minor retained in custody, the court shall cause counsel to be appointed to represent the minor. When a parent, legal guardian, custodian, or responsible relative is present and so requests, the detention or shelter care hearing shall be held immediately if the court is in session and the State is ready to proceed, otherwise at the earliest feasible time. In no event shall a detention or shelter care hearing be held until the minor has had adequate opportunity to consult with counsel. The probation officer or such other public officer designated by the court in a county having more than 3,000,000 inhabitants shall notify the minor's parent, legal guardian, custodian, or responsible relative of the time and place of the hearing. The notice may be given orally.

(3) The minor must be released from custody at the expiration of the 40 hour period specified by this Section if not brought before a judicial officer within that period.

(4) After the initial 40 hour period has lapsed, the court may review the minor's custodial status at any time prior to the trial or sentencing hearing. If during this time period new or additional information becomes available concerning the minor's conduct, the court may conduct a hearing to determine whether the minor should be placed in a detention or shelter care facility. If the court finds that there is probable cause that the minor is a delinquent minor and that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another, or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, the court may order that the minor be placed in detention or shelter care.

(Source: P.A. 95-846, eff. 1-1-09.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-605)

Sec. 5-605. Trials, pleas, guilty but mentally ill and not guilty by reason of insanity.

(1) Method of trial. All delinquency proceedings shall be heard by the court except those proceedings under this Act where the right to trial by jury is specifically set forth. At any time a minor may waive his or her right to trial by jury.

(2) Pleas of guilty and guilty but mentally ill.

(a) Before or during trial, a plea of guilty may be accepted when the court has informed the minor of the consequences of his or her plea and of the maximum penalty provided by law which may be imposed upon acceptance of the plea. Upon acceptance of a plea of guilty, the court shall determine the factual basis of a plea.

(b) Before or during trial, a plea of guilty but mentally ill may be accepted by the court when:

(i) the minor has undergone an examination by a clinical psychologist or psychiatrist and has waived his or her right to trial; and

(ii) the judge has examined the psychiatric or psychological report or reports; and

(iii) the judge has held a hearing, at which either party may present evidence, on the issue of the minor's mental health and, at the conclusion of the hearing, is satisfied that there is a factual basis that the minor was mentally ill at the time of the offense to which the plea is entered.

(3) Trial by the court.

(a) A trial shall be conducted in the presence of the minor unless he or she waives the right to be present. At the trial, the court shall consider the question whether the minor is delinquent. The standard of proof and the rules of evidence in the nature of criminal proceedings in this State are applicable to that consideration.

(b) Upon conclusion of the trial the court shall enter a general finding, except that, when the affirmative defense of insanity has been presented during the trial and acquittal is based solely upon the defense of insanity, the court shall enter a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. In the event of a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity, a hearing shall be held pursuant to the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code to determine whether the minor is subject to involuntary admission.

(c) When the minor has asserted a defense of insanity, the court may find the minor guilty but mentally ill if, after hearing all of the evidence, the court finds that:

(i) the State has proven beyond a reasonable doubt that the minor is guilty of the offense charged; and

(ii) the minor has failed to prove his or her insanity as required in subsection (b) of Section 3-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, and subsections (a), (b) and (e) of Section 6-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and

(iii) the minor has proven by a preponderance of the evidence that he was mentally ill, as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 6-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 at the time of the offense.

(4) Trial by court and jury.

(a) Questions of law shall be decided by the court and questions of fact by the jury.

(b) The jury shall consist of 12 members.

(c) Upon request the parties shall be furnished with a list of prospective jurors with their addresses if known.

(d) Each party may challenge jurors for cause. If a prospective juror has a physical impairment, the court shall consider the prospective juror's ability to perceive and appreciate the evidence when considering a challenge for cause.

(e) A minor tried alone shall be allowed 7 peremptory challenges; except that, in a single trial of more than one minor, each minor shall be allowed 5 peremptory challenges. If several charges against a minor or minors are consolidated for trial, each minor shall be allowed peremptory challenges upon one charge only, which single charge shall be the charge against that minor authorizing the greatest maximum penalty. The State shall be allowed the same number of peremptory challenges as all of the minors.

(f) After examination by the court, the jurors may be examined, passed upon, accepted and tendered by opposing counsel as provided by Supreme Court Rules.

(g) After the jury is impaneled and sworn, the court may direct the selection of 2 alternate jurors who shall take the same oath as the regular jurors. Each party shall have one additional peremptory challenge for each alternate juror. If before the final submission of a cause a member of the jury dies or is discharged, he or she shall be replaced by an alternate juror in the order of selection.

(h) A trial by the court and jury shall be conducted in the presence of the minor unless he or she waives the right to be present.

(i) After arguments of counsel the court shall instruct the jury as to the law.

(j) Unless the affirmative defense of insanity has been presented during the trial, the jury shall return a general verdict as to each offense charged. When the affirmative defense of insanity has been presented during the trial, the court shall provide the jury not only with general verdict forms but also with a special verdict form of not guilty by reason of insanity, as to each offense charged, and in the event the court shall separately instruct the jury that a special verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity may be returned instead of a general verdict but the special verdict requires a unanimous finding by the jury that the minor committed the acts charged but at the time of the commission of those acts the minor was insane. In the event of a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, a hearing shall be held pursuant to the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code to determine whether the minor is subject to involuntary admission. When the affirmative defense of insanity has been presented during the trial, the court, where warranted by the evidence, shall also provide the jury with a special verdict form of guilty but mentally ill, as to each offense charged and shall separately instruct the jury that a special verdict of guilty but mentally ill may be returned instead of a general verdict, but that the special verdict requires a unanimous finding by the jury that: (i) the State has proven beyond a reasonable doubt that the minor is guilty of the offense charged; and (ii) the minor has failed to prove his or her insanity as required in subsection (b) of Section 3-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 and subsections (a), (b) and (e) of Section 6-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and (iii) the minor has proven by a preponderance of the evidence that he or she was mentally ill, as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 6-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 at the time of the offense.

(k) When, at the close of the State's evidence or at the close of all of the evidence, the evidence is insufficient to support a finding or verdict of guilty the court may and on motion of the minor shall make a finding or direct the jury to return a verdict of not guilty, enter a judgment of acquittal and discharge the minor.

(l) When the jury retires to consider its verdict, an officer of the court shall be appointed to keep them together and to prevent conversation between the jurors and others; however, if any juror is deaf, the jury may be accompanied by and may communicate with a court-appointed interpreter during its deliberations. Upon agreement between the State and minor or his or her counsel, and the parties waive polling of the jury, the jury may seal and deliver its verdict to the clerk of the court, separate, and then return the verdict in open court at its next session.

(m) In a trial, any juror who is a member of a panel or jury which has been impaneled and sworn as a panel or as a jury shall be permitted to separate from other jurors during every period of adjournment to a later day, until final submission of the cause to the jury for determination, except that no such separation shall be permitted in any trial after the court, upon motion by the minor or the State or upon its own motion, finds a probability that prejudice to the minor or to the State will result from the separation.

(n) The members of the jury shall be entitled to take notes during the trial, and the sheriff of the county in which the jury is sitting shall provide them with writing materials for this purpose. The notes shall remain confidential, and shall be destroyed by the sheriff after the verdict has been returned or a mistrial declared.

(o) A minor tried by the court and jury shall only be found guilty, guilty but mentally ill, not guilty or not guilty by reason of insanity, upon the unanimous verdict of the jury.

(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-615)

Sec. 5-615. Continuance under supervision.

(1) The court may enter an order of continuance under supervision for an offense other than first degree murder, a Class X felony or a forcible felony (a) upon an admission or stipulation by the appropriate respondent or minor respondent of the facts supporting the petition and before proceeding to adjudication, or after hearing the evidence at the trial, and (b) in the absence of objection made in open court by the minor, his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian, the minor's attorney or the State's Attorney.

(2) If the minor, his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian, the minor's attorney or State's Attorney objects in open court to any continuance and insists upon proceeding to findings and adjudication, the court shall so proceed.

(3) Nothing in this Section limits the power of the court to order a continuance of the hearing for the production of additional evidence or for any other proper reason.

(4) When a hearing where a minor is alleged to be a delinquent is continued pursuant to this Section, the period of continuance under supervision may not exceed 24 months. The court may terminate a continuance under supervision at any time if warranted by the conduct of the minor and the ends of justice.

(5) When a hearing where a minor is alleged to be delinquent is continued pursuant to this Section, the court may, as conditions of the continuance under supervision, require the minor to do any of the following:

(a) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(b) make a report to and appear in person before any person or agency as directed by the court;

(c) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(d) undergo medical or psychotherapeutic treatment rendered by a therapist licensed under the provisions of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, or the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, or an entity licensed by the Department of Human Services as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the provision of drug addiction and alcoholism treatment;

(e) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation;

(f) support his or her dependents, if any;

(g) pay costs;

(h) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon, or an automobile;

(i) permit the probation officer to visit him or her at his or her home or elsewhere;

(j) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(k) attend school;

(k-5) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she committed a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(l) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(m) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home;

(n) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(o) make restitution to the victim, in the same manner and under the same conditions as provided in subsection (4) of Section 5-710, except that the "sentencing hearing" referred to in that Section shall be the adjudicatory hearing for purposes of this Section;

(p) comply with curfew requirements as designated by the court;

(q) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms as the court finds appropriate. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the minor, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(r) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(r-5) undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from his or her body;

(s) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug; or

(t) comply with any other conditions as may be ordered by the court.

(6) A minor whose case is continued under supervision under subsection (5) shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions imposed by the court. Those conditions may be reduced, enlarged, or modified by the court on motion of the probation officer or on its own motion, or that of the State's Attorney, or, at the request of the minor after notice and hearing.

(7) If a petition is filed charging a violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision, the court shall conduct a hearing. If the court finds that a condition of supervision has not been fulfilled, the court may proceed to findings and adjudication and disposition. The filing of a petition for violation of a condition of the continuance under supervision shall toll the period of continuance under supervision until the final determination of the charge, and the term of the continuance under supervision shall not run until the hearing and disposition of the petition for violation; provided where the petition alleges conduct that does not constitute a criminal offense, the hearing must be held within 30 days of the filing of the petition unless a delay shall continue the tolling of the period of continuance under supervision for the period of the delay.

(8) When a hearing in which a minor is alleged to be a delinquent for reasons that include a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 is continued under this Section, the court shall, as a condition of the continuance under supervision, require the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage that was caused by the alleged violation or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the alleged violation occurred. The condition may be in addition to any other condition.

(8.5) When a hearing in which a minor is alleged to be a delinquent for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1 or the Criminal Code of 2012 is continued under this Section, the court shall, as a condition of the continuance under supervision, require the minor to undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The condition may be in addition to any other condition.

(9) When a hearing in which a minor is alleged to be a delinquent is continued under this Section, the court, before continuing the case, shall make a finding whether the offense alleged to have been committed either: (i) was related to or in furtherance of the activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the minor's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, or (ii) is a violation of paragraph (13) of subsection (a) of Section 12-2 or paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a violation of any statute that involved the unlawful use of a firearm. If the court determines the question in the affirmative the court shall, as a condition of the continuance under supervision and as part of or in addition to any other condition of the supervision, require the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 hours, provided that community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by an alleged violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the alleged violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service shall be performed in the minor's neighborhood. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(10) The court shall impose upon a minor placed on supervision, as a condition of the supervision, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the minor placed on supervision to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser amount. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under this Act while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a minor who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. A court may order the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor to pay some or all of the fee on the minor's behalf.

(11) If a minor is placed on supervision for a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may, in its discretion, and upon recommendation by the State's Attorney, order that minor and his or her parents or legal guardian to attend a smoker's education or youth diversion program as defined in that Act if that program is available in the jurisdiction where the offender resides. Attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program shall be time-credited against any community service time imposed for any first violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act. In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose for a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act, the court, upon request by the State's Attorney, may in its discretion require the offender to remit a fee for his or her attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program.

For purposes of this Section, "smoker's education program" or "youth diversion program" includes, but is not limited to, a seminar designed to educate a person on the physical and psychological effects of smoking tobacco products and the health consequences of smoking tobacco products that can be conducted with a locality's youth diversion program.

In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose under this subsection (11):

(a) If a minor violates subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may impose a sentence of 15 hours of community service or a fine of $25 for a first violation.

(b) A second violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a fine of $50 and 25 hours of community service.

(c) A third or subsequent violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a $100 fine and 30 hours of community service.

(d) Any second or subsequent violation not within the 12-month time period after the first violation is punishable as provided for a first violation.

(Source: P.A. 96-179, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-710)

Sec. 5-710. Kinds of sentencing orders.

(1) The following kinds of sentencing orders may be made in respect of wards of the court:

(a) Except as provided in Sections 5-805, 5-810, 5-815, a minor who is found guilty under Section 5-620 may be:

(i) put on probation or conditional discharge and released to his or her parents, guardian or legal custodian, provided, however, that any such minor who is not committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under this subsection and who is found to be a delinquent for an offense which is first degree murder, a Class X felony, or a forcible felony shall be placed on probation;

(ii) placed in accordance with Section 5-740, with or without also being put on probation or conditional discharge;

(iii) required to undergo a substance abuse assessment conducted by a licensed provider and participate in the indicated clinical level of care;

(iv) placed in the guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, but only if the delinquent minor is under 15 years of age or, pursuant to Article II of this Act, a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency;

(v) placed in detention for a period not to exceed 30 days, either as the exclusive order of disposition or, where appropriate, in conjunction with any other order of disposition issued under this paragraph, provided that any such detention shall be in a juvenile detention home and the minor so detained shall be 10 years of age or older. However, the 30-day limitation may be extended by further order of the court for a minor under age 15 committed to the Department of Children and Family Services if the court finds that the minor is a danger to himself or others. The minor shall be given credit on the sentencing order of detention for time spent in detention under Sections 5-501, 5-601, 5-710, or 5-720 of this Article as a result of the offense for which the sentencing order was imposed. The court may grant credit on a sentencing order of detention entered under a violation of probation or violation of conditional discharge under Section 5-720 of this Article for time spent in detention before the filing of the petition alleging the violation. A minor shall not be deprived of credit for time spent in detention before the filing of a violation of probation or conditional discharge alleging the same or related act or acts;

(vi) ordered partially or completely emancipated in accordance with the provisions of the Emancipation of Minors Act;

(vii) subject to having his or her driver's license or driving privileges suspended for such time as determined by the court but only until he or she attains 18 years of age;

(viii) put on probation or conditional discharge and placed in detention under Section 3-6039 of the Counties Code for a period not to exceed the period of incarceration permitted by law for adults found guilty of the same offense or offenses for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent, and in any event no longer than upon attainment of age 21; this subdivision (viii) notwithstanding any contrary provision of the law;

(ix) ordered to undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from his or her body; or

(x) placed in electronic home detention under Part 7A of this Article.

(b) A minor found to be guilty may be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-750 if the minor is 13 years of age or older, provided that the commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be made only if a term of incarceration is permitted by law for adults found guilty of the offense for which the minor was adjudicated delinquent. The time during which a minor is in custody before being released upon the request of a parent, guardian or legal custodian shall be considered as time spent in detention.

(c) When a minor is found to be guilty for an offense which is a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and made a ward of the court, the court may enter a disposition order requiring the minor to undergo assessment, counseling or treatment in a substance abuse program approved by the Department of Human Services.

(2) Any sentencing order other than commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice may provide for protective supervision under Section 5-725 and may include an order of protection under Section 5-730.

(3) Unless the sentencing order expressly so provides, it does not operate to close proceedings on the pending petition, but is subject to modification until final closing and discharge of the proceedings under Section 5-750.

(4) In addition to any other sentence, the court may order any minor found to be delinquent to make restitution, in monetary or non-monetary form, under the terms and conditions of Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, except that the "presentencing hearing" referred to in that Section shall be the sentencing hearing for purposes of this Section. The parent, guardian or legal custodian of the minor may be ordered by the court to pay some or all of the restitution on the minor's behalf, pursuant to the Parental Responsibility Law. The State's Attorney is authorized to act on behalf of any victim in seeking restitution in proceedings under this Section, up to the maximum amount allowed in Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(5) Any sentencing order where the minor is committed or placed in accordance with Section 5-740 shall provide for the parents or guardian of the estate of the minor to pay to the legal custodian or guardian of the person of the minor such sums as are determined by the custodian or guardian of the person of the minor as necessary for the minor's needs. The payments may not exceed the maximum amounts provided for by Section 9.1 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(6) Whenever the sentencing order requires the minor to attend school or participate in a program of training, the truant officer or designated school official shall regularly report to the court if the minor is a chronic or habitual truant under Section 26-2a of the School Code. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, in instances in which educational services are to be provided to a minor in a residential facility where the minor has been placed by the court, costs incurred in the provision of those educational services must be allocated based on the requirements of the School Code.

(7) In no event shall a guilty minor be committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for a period of time in excess of that period for which an adult could be committed for the same act.

(8) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be ordered to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage that was caused by the violation or similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(8.5) A minor found to be guilty for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (d) of subsection (1) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be ordered to undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The order may be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section.

(9) In addition to any other sentencing order, the court shall order any minor found to be guilty for an act which would constitute, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or criminal sexual abuse if committed by an adult to undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agency of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the minor's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of the test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the sentencing order was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the minor of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or the legal guardian, of the results of the test for infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at the Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed. The court shall order that the cost of any test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the minor.

(10) When a court finds a minor to be guilty the court shall, before entering a sentencing order under this Section, make a finding whether the offense committed either: (a) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the minor's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, or (b) involved a violation of subsection (a) of Section 12-7.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a violation of any statute that involved the wrongful use of a firearm. If the court determines the question in the affirmative, and the court does not commit the minor to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the court shall order the minor to perform community service for not less than 30 hours nor more than 120 hours, provided that community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. The community service shall include, but need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located in the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service shall be performed in the minor's neighborhood. This order shall be in addition to any other order authorized by this Section except for an order to place the minor in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(11) If the court determines that the offense was committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in subsection (10), and that the offense involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit, the court shall notify the Secretary of State of that determination and of the period for which the minor shall be denied driving privileges. If, at the time of the determination, the minor does not hold a driver's license or permit, the court shall provide that the minor shall not be issued a driver's license or permit until his or her 18th birthday. If the minor holds a driver's license or permit at the time of the determination, the court shall provide that the minor's driver's license or permit shall be revoked until his or her 21st birthday, or until a later date or occurrence determined by the court. If the minor holds a driver's license at the time of the determination, the court may direct the Secretary of State to issue the minor a judicial driving permit, also known as a JDP. The JDP shall be subject to the same terms as a JDP issued under Section 6-206.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except that the court may direct that the JDP be effective immediately.

(12) If a minor is found to be guilty of a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may, in its discretion, and upon recommendation by the State's Attorney, order that minor and his or her parents or legal guardian to attend a smoker's education or youth diversion program as defined in that Act if that program is available in the jurisdiction where the offender resides. Attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program shall be time-credited against any community service time imposed for any first violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act. In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose for a violation of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act, the court, upon request by the State's Attorney, may in its discretion require the offender to remit a fee for his or her attendance at a smoker's education or youth diversion program.

For purposes of this Section, "smoker's education program" or "youth diversion program" includes, but is not limited to, a seminar designed to educate a person on the physical and psychological effects of smoking tobacco products and the health consequences of smoking tobacco products that can be conducted with a locality's youth diversion program.

In addition to any other penalty that the court may impose under this subsection (12):

(a) If a minor violates subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of the Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors Act, the court may impose a sentence of 15 hours of community service or a fine of $25 for a first violation.

(b) A second violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a fine of $50 and 25 hours of community service.

(c) A third or subsequent violation by a minor of subsection (a-7) of Section 1 of that Act that occurs within 12 months after the first violation is punishable by a $100 fine and 30 hours of community service.

(d) Any second or subsequent violation not within the 12-month time period after the first violation is punishable as provided for a first violation.

(Source: P.A. 95-337, eff. 6-1-08; 95-642, eff. 6-1-08; 95-844, eff. 8-15-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-179, eff. 8-10-09; 96-293, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-715)

Sec. 5-715. Probation.

(1) The period of probation or conditional discharge shall not exceed 5 years or until the minor has attained the age of 21 years, whichever is less, except as provided in this Section for a minor who is found to be guilty for an offense which is first degree murder, a Class X felony or a forcible felony. The juvenile court may terminate probation or conditional discharge and discharge the minor at any time if warranted by the conduct of the minor and the ends of justice; provided, however, that the period of probation for a minor who is found to be guilty for an offense which is first degree murder, a Class X felony, or a forcible felony shall be at least 5 years.

(2) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that the minor:

(a) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(b) make a report to and appear in person before any person or agency as directed by the court;

(c) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(d) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist or social work services rendered by a clinical social worker, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(e) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation;

(f) support his or her dependents, if any;

(g) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon, or an automobile;

(h) permit the probation officer to visit him or her at his or her home or elsewhere;

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(j) attend school;

(j-5) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she committed a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(k) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(l) make restitution under the terms of subsection (4) of Section 5-710;

(m) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home;

(n) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(o) participate with community corrections programs including unified delinquency intervention services administered by the Department of Human Services subject to Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act;

(p) pay costs;

(q) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the minor:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his or her confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the minor's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the minor's compliance with the conditions of his or her confinement; and

(iii) use an approved electronic monitoring device if ordered by the court subject to Article 8A of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(r) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms as the court finds appropriate. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the minor, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the minor has been placed on probation, or advance approval by the court, if the minor has been placed on conditional discharge;

(s) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(s-5) undergo a medical or other procedure to have a tattoo symbolizing allegiance to a street gang removed from his or her body;

(t) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and shall submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug; or

(u) comply with other conditions as may be ordered by the court.

(3) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a minor found guilty on any alcohol, cannabis, methamphetamine, or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If the minor is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(3.5) The court shall, as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge, require that a minor found to be guilty and placed on probation for reasons that include a violation of Section 3.02 or Section 3.03 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 undergo medical or psychiatric treatment rendered by a psychiatrist or psychological treatment rendered by a clinical psychologist. The condition may be in addition to any other condition.

(3.10) The court shall order that a minor placed on probation or conditional discharge for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment. The treatment shall be in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and conducted by a treatment provider approved by the Board. The treatment shall be at the expense of the person evaluated based upon that person's ability to pay for the treatment.

(4) A minor on probation or conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions upon which he or she is being released.

(5) The court shall impose upon a minor placed on probation or conditional discharge, as a condition of the probation or conditional discharge, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the minor placed on probation or conditional discharge to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser amount. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under this Act while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a minor who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The court may order the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor to pay some or all of the fee on the minor's behalf.

(6) The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the juvenile justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain, and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of supervision, probation or conditional discharge, under this Act.

The court shall provide as a condition of a disposition of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-720 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-730)

Sec. 5-730. Order of protection.

(1) The court may make an order of protection in assistance of or as a condition of any other order authorized by this Act. The order of protection may set forth reasonable conditions of behavior to be observed for a specified period. The order may require a person:

(a) to stay away from the home or the minor;

(b) to permit a parent to visit the minor at stated periods;

(c) to abstain from offensive conduct against the minor, his or her parent or any person to whom custody of the minor is awarded;

(d) to give proper attention to the care of the home;

(e) to cooperate in good faith with an agency to which custody of a minor is entrusted by the court or with an agency or association to which the minor is referred by the court;

(f) to prohibit and prevent any contact whatsoever with the respondent minor by a specified individual or individuals who are alleged in either a criminal or juvenile proceeding to have caused injury to a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor;

(g) to refrain from acts of commission or omission that tend to make the home not a proper place for the minor.

(2) The court shall enter an order of protection to prohibit and prevent any contact between a respondent minor or a sibling of a respondent minor and any person named in a petition seeking an order of protection who has been convicted of heinous battery or aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a child or aggravated battery under subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse as described in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or has been convicted of an offense that resulted in the death of a child, or has violated a previous order of protection under this Section.

(3) When the court issues an order of protection against any person as provided by this Section, the court shall direct a copy of such order to the sheriff of that county. The sheriff shall furnish a copy of the order of protection to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of receipt, in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete record and index of the orders of protection and make this data available to all local law enforcement agencies.

(4) After notice and opportunity for hearing afforded to a person subject to an order of protection, the order may be modified or extended for a further specified period or both or may be terminated if the court finds that the best interests of the minor and the public will be served by the modification, extension, or termination.

(5) An order of protection may be sought at any time during the course of any proceeding conducted under this Act. Any person against whom an order of protection is sought may retain counsel to represent him or her at a hearing, and has rights to be present at the hearing, to be informed prior to the hearing in writing of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place, and time of the hearing, and to cross-examine witnesses called by the petitioner and to present witnesses and argument in opposition to the relief sought in the petition.

(6) Diligent efforts shall be made by the petitioner to serve any person or persons against whom any order of protection is sought with written notice of the contents of the petition seeking a protective order and of the date, place and time at which the hearing on the petition is to be held. When a protective order is being sought in conjunction with a shelter care or detention hearing, if the court finds that the person against whom the protective order is being sought has been notified of the hearing or that diligent efforts have been made to notify the person, the court may conduct a hearing. If a protective order is sought at any time other than in conjunction with a shelter care or detention hearing, the court may not conduct a hearing on the petition in the absence of the person against whom the order is sought unless the petitioner has notified the person by personal service at least 3 days before the hearing or has sent written notice by first class mail to the person's last known address at least 5 days before the hearing.

(7) A person against whom an order of protection is being sought who is neither a parent, guardian, or legal custodian or responsible relative as described in Section 1-5 of this Act or is not a party or respondent as defined in that Section shall not be entitled to the rights provided in that Section. The person does not have a right to appointed counsel or to be present at any hearing other than the hearing in which the order of protection is being sought or a hearing directly pertaining to that order. Unless the court orders otherwise, the person does not have a right to inspect the court file.

(8) All protective orders entered under this Section shall be in writing. Unless the person against whom the order was obtained was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or special process server shall promptly serve that order upon that person and file proof of that service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. The person against whom the protective order was obtained may seek a modification of the order by filing a written motion to modify the order within 7 days after actual receipt by the person of a copy of the order.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 955, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1030, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-805)

Sec. 5-805. Transfer of jurisdiction.

(1) Mandatory transfers.

(a) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of an act that constitutes a forcible felony under the laws of this State, and if a motion by the State's Attorney to prosecute the minor under the criminal laws of Illinois for the alleged forcible felony alleges that (i) the minor has previously been adjudicated delinquent or found guilty for commission of an act that constitutes a felony under the laws of this State or any other state and (ii) the act that constitutes the offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activity by an organized gang, the Juvenile Judge assigned to hear and determine those motions shall, upon determining that there is probable cause that both allegations are true, enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois.

(b) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of an act that constitutes a felony under the laws of this State, and if a motion by a State's Attorney to prosecute the minor under the criminal laws of Illinois for the alleged felony alleges that (i) the minor has previously been adjudicated delinquent or found guilty for commission of an act that constitutes a forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other state and (ii) the act that constitutes the offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by an organized gang, the Juvenile Judge assigned to hear and determine those motions shall, upon determining that there is probable cause that both allegations are true, enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois.

(c) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of: (i) an act that constitutes an offense enumerated in the presumptive transfer provisions of subsection (2); and (ii) the minor has previously been adjudicated delinquent or found guilty of a forcible felony, the Juvenile Judge designated to hear and determine those motions shall, upon determining that there is probable cause that both allegations are true, enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois.

(d) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of an act that constitutes the offense of aggravated discharge of a firearm committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on, boarding, or departing from any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, the juvenile judge designated to hear and determine those motions shall, upon determining that there is probable cause that the allegations are true, enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois.

For purposes of this paragraph (d) of subsection (1):

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(2) Presumptive transfer.

(a) If the State's Attorney files a petition, at any time prior to commencement of the minor's trial, to permit prosecution under the criminal laws and the petition alleges the commission by a minor 15 years of age or older of: (i) a Class X felony other than armed violence; (ii) aggravated discharge of a firearm; (iii) armed violence with a firearm when the predicate offense is a Class 1 or Class 2 felony and the State's Attorney's motion to transfer the case alleges that the offense committed is in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang; (iv) armed violence with a firearm when the predicate offense is a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) armed violence when the weapon involved was a machine gun or other weapon described in subsection (a)(7) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vi) an act in violation of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which is a Class X felony, while in a school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, or on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development; or (vii) an act in violation of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and the offense is alleged to have occurred while in a school or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year when the delivery or intended delivery of any amount of the controlled substance is to a person under 17 years of age, (to qualify for a presumptive transfer under paragraph (vi) or (vii) of this clause (2)(a), the violation cannot be based upon subsection (b) of Section 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act) and, if the juvenile judge assigned to hear and determine motions to transfer a case for prosecution in the criminal court determines that there is probable cause to believe that the allegations in the petition and motion are true, there is a rebuttable presumption that the minor is not a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the Juvenile Justice Reform Provisions of 1998 (Public Act 90-590), and that, except as provided in paragraph (b), the case should be transferred to the criminal court.

(b) The judge shall enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of Illinois unless the judge makes a finding based on clear and convincing evidence that the minor would be amenable to the care, treatment, and training programs available through the facilities of the juvenile court based on an evaluation of the following:

(i) the age of the minor;

(ii) the history of the minor, including:

(A) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the minor,

(B) any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor, and

(C) any mental health, physical or educational history of the minor or combination of these factors;

(iii) the circumstances of the offense, including:

(A) the seriousness of the offense,

(B) whether the minor is charged through accountability,

(C) whether there is evidence the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner,

(D) whether there is evidence the offense caused serious bodily harm,

(E) whether there is evidence the minor possessed a deadly weapon;

(iv) the advantages of treatment within the juvenile justice system including whether there are facilities or programs, or both, particularly available in the juvenile system;

(v) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections:

(A) the minor's history of services, including the minor's willingness to participate meaningfully in available services;

(B) whether there is a reasonable likelihood that the minor can be rehabilitated before the expiration of the juvenile court's jurisdiction;

(C) the adequacy of the punishment or services.

In considering these factors, the court shall give greater weight to the seriousness of the alleged offense and the minor's prior record of delinquency than to the other factors listed in this subsection.

For purposes of clauses (2)(a)(vi) and (vii):

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(3) Discretionary transfer.

(a) If a petition alleges commission by a minor 13 years of age or over of an act that constitutes a crime under the laws of this State and, on motion of the State's Attorney to permit prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws, a Juvenile Judge assigned by the Chief Judge of the Circuit to hear and determine those motions, after hearing but before commencement of the trial, finds that there is probable cause to believe that the allegations in the motion are true and that it is not in the best interests of the public to proceed under this Act, the court may enter an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws.

(b) In making its determination on the motion to permit prosecution under the criminal laws, the court shall consider among other matters:

(i) the age of the minor;

(ii) the history of the minor, including:

(A) any previous delinquent or criminal history of the minor,

(B) any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor, and

(C) any mental health, physical, or educational history of the minor or combination of these factors;

(iii) the circumstances of the offense, including:

(A) the seriousness of the offense,

(B) whether the minor is charged through accountability,

(C) whether there is evidence the offense was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner,

(D) whether there is evidence the offense caused serious bodily harm,

(E) whether there is evidence the minor possessed a deadly weapon;

(iv) the advantages of treatment within the juvenile justice system including whether there are facilities or programs, or both, particularly available in the juvenile system;

(v) whether the security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections:

(A) the minor's history of services, including the minor's willingness to participate meaningfully in available services;

(B) whether there is a reasonable likelihood that the minor can be rehabilitated before the expiration of the juvenile court's jurisdiction;

(C) the adequacy of the punishment or services.

In considering these factors, the court shall give greater weight to the seriousness of the alleged offense and the minor's prior record of delinquency than to the other factors listed in this subsection.

(4) The rules of evidence for this hearing shall be the same as under Section 5-705 of this Act. A minor must be represented in court by counsel before the hearing may be commenced.

(5) If criminal proceedings are instituted, the petition for adjudication of wardship shall be dismissed insofar as the act or acts involved in the criminal proceedings. Taking of evidence in a trial on petition for adjudication of wardship is a bar to criminal proceedings based upon the conduct alleged in the petition.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-574, eff. 8-12-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-901)

Sec. 5-901. Court file.

(1) The Court file with respect to proceedings under this Article shall consist of the petitions, pleadings, victim impact statements, process, service of process, orders, writs and docket entries reflecting hearings held and judgments and decrees entered by the court. The court file shall be kept separate from other records of the court.

(a) The file, including information identifying the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense, shall be disclosed only to the following parties when necessary for discharge of their official duties:

(i) A judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge;

(ii) Parties to the proceedings and their attorneys;

(iii) Victims and their attorneys, except in cases of multiple victims of sex offenses in which case the information identifying the nonrequesting victims shall be redacted;

(iv) Probation officers, law enforcement officers or prosecutors or their staff;

(v) Adult and juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(b) The Court file redacted to remove any information identifying the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense shall be disclosed only to the following parties when necessary for discharge of their official duties:

(i) Authorized military personnel;

(ii) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular recording: provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record;

(iii) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 or Section 6-205.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers;

(iv) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court;

(v) Any individual, or any public or private agency or institution, having custody of the juvenile under court order or providing educational, medical or mental health services to the juvenile or a court-approved advocate for the juvenile or any placement provider or potential placement provider as determined by the court.

(3) A minor who is the victim or alleged victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record. Information identifying victims and alleged victims of sex offenses, shall not be disclosed or open to public inspection under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense from voluntarily disclosing his or her identity.

(4) Relevant information, reports and records shall be made available to the Department of Juvenile Justice when a juvenile offender has been placed in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(5) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (5), juvenile court records shall not be made available to the general public but may be inspected by representatives of agencies, associations and news media or other properly interested persons by general or special order of the court. The State's Attorney, the minor, his or her parents, guardian and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records.

(a) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either of the following circumstances:

(i) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or

(ii) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the act was committed and the adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of: (A) an act in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (B) an act involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (C) an act that would be a Class X felony offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act if committed by an adult, (D) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (E) an act that would be an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, or (F) an act that would be an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act if committed by an adult.

(b) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings permitted or required under Section 5-805, under either of the following circumstances:

(i) The minor has been convicted of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault,

(ii) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the offense was committed and the conviction was based upon the minor's commission of: (A) an offense in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (B) an offense involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (C) a Class X felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act or a second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act, (D) a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (E) an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or (F) an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(6) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the use of a adjudication of delinquency as evidence in any juvenile or criminal proceeding, where it would otherwise be admissible under the rules of evidence, including but not limited to, use as impeachment evidence against any witness, including the minor if he or she testifies.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority examining the character and fitness of an applicant for a position as a law enforcement officer to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(8) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the sentencing order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to such juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any guidance counselor designated by him or her.

(9) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(11) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 17th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(12) Information or records may be disclosed to the general public when the court is conducting hearings under Section 5-805 or 5-810.

(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 94-696, eff. 6-1-06.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-905)

Sec. 5-905. Law enforcement records.

(1) Law Enforcement Records. Inspection and copying of law enforcement records maintained by law enforcement agencies that relate to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 17th birthday shall be restricted to the following and when necessary for the discharge of their official duties:

(a) A judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge;

(b) Law enforcement officers, probation officers or prosecutors or their staff, or, when necessary for the discharge of its official duties in connection with a particular investigation of the conduct of a law enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers;

(c) The minor, the minor's parents or legal guardian and their attorneys, but only when the juvenile has been charged with an offense;

(d) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards;

(e) Authorized military personnel;

(f) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the judge of juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular recording: provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record;

(g) Individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody of minors pursuant to orders of the juvenile court or directives from officials of the Department of Children and Family Services or the Department of Human Services who certify in writing that the information will not be disclosed to any other party except as provided under law or order of court;

(h) The appropriate school official only if the agency or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of physical harm to students, school personnel, or others who are present in the school or on school grounds.

(A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by a local law enforcement agency under a reciprocal reporting system established and maintained between the school district and the local law enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school within the school district who has been arrested or taken into custody for any of the following offenses:

(i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;

(vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or

(viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The information derived from the law enforcement records shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of that child and shall not be a public record. The information shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the safety of students and employees in the school. If the designated law enforcement and school officials deem it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student may be referred to in-school or community based social services if those services are available. "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility for special education, referrals to community-based agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed appropriate for the student.

(B) Any information provided to appropriate school officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by local law enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation that is directly related to school safety shall consist of oral information only, and not written law enforcement records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials to protect the safety of students and employees in the school and aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child. The information derived orally from the local law enforcement officials shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of the child and shall not be a public record. This limitation on the use of information about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation shall in no way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in pursuing criminal charges arising out of the information disclosed during a police investigation of the minor. For purposes of this paragraph, "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected criminal activity; .

(i) The president of a park district. Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the president of the park district by the Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c) of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c) of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.

(2) Information identifying victims and alleged victims of sex offenses, shall not be disclosed or open to public inspection under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense from voluntarily disclosing his or her identity.

(2.5) If the minor is a victim of aggravated battery, battery, attempted first degree murder, or other non-sexual violent offense, the identity of the victim may be disclosed to appropriate school officials, for the purpose of preventing foreseeable future violence involving minors, by a local law enforcement agency pursuant to an agreement established between the school district and a local law enforcement agency subject to the approval by the presiding judge of the juvenile court.

(3) Relevant information, reports and records shall be made available to the Department of Juvenile Justice when a juvenile offender has been placed in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(4) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the inspection or disclosure to victims and witnesses of photographs contained in the records of law enforcement agencies when the inspection or disclosure is conducted in the presence of a law enforcement officer for purposes of identification or apprehension of any person in the course of any criminal investigation or prosecution.

(5) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 17 years of age must be maintained separate from the records of adults and may not be open to public inspection or their contents disclosed to the public except by order of the court or when the institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted under Section 5-130 or 5-805 or required under Section 5-130 or 5-805 or such a person has been convicted of a crime and is the subject of pre-sentence investigation or when provided by law.

(6) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (6), law enforcement officers, and personnel of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of any minor in releasing information to the general public as to the arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving a minor. Any victim or parent or legal guardian of a victim may petition the court to disclose the name and address of the minor and the minor's parents or legal guardian, or both. Upon a finding by clear and convincing evidence that the disclosure is either necessary for the victim to pursue a civil remedy against the minor or the minor's parents or legal guardian, or both, or to protect the victim's person or property from the minor, then the court may order the disclosure of the information to the victim or to the parent or legal guardian of the victim only for the purpose of the victim pursuing a civil remedy against the minor or the minor's parents or legal guardian, or both, or to protect the victim's person or property from the minor.

(7) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law enforcement agencies when acting in their official capacity from communicating with each other by letter, memorandum, teletype or intelligence alert bulletin or other means the identity or other relevant information pertaining to a person under 17 years of age. The information provided under this subsection (7) shall remain confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed, except as otherwise allowed by law.

(8) No person shall disclose information under this Section except when acting in his or her official capacity and as provided by law or order of court.

(Source: P.A. 96-419, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11; 97-700, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1104, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 605. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 1-6, 2-13, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-9.1, 11-9.1A, 11-9.3, 11-23, 16-1, 17-10.5, 19-6, 26.5-5, 33G-3, 36-1, 37-1, and 48-8 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/1-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1-6)

Sec. 1-6. Place of trial.

(a) Generally.

Criminal actions shall be tried in the county where the offense was committed, except as otherwise provided by law. The State is not required to prove during trial that the alleged offense occurred in any particular county in this State. When a defendant contests the place of trial under this Section, all proceedings regarding this issue shall be conducted under Section 114-1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. All objections of improper place of trial are waived by a defendant unless made before trial.

(b) Assailant and Victim in Different Counties.

If a person committing an offense upon the person of another is located in one county and his victim is located in another county at the time of the commission of the offense, trial may be had in either of said counties.

(c) Death and Cause of Death in Different Places or Undetermined.

If cause of death is inflicted in one county and death ensues in another county, the offender may be tried in either county. If neither the county in which the cause of death was inflicted nor the county in which death ensued are known before trial, the offender may be tried in the county where the body was found.

(d) Offense Commenced Outside the State.

If the commission of an offense commenced outside the State is consummated within this State, the offender shall be tried in the county where the offense is consummated.

(e) Offenses Committed in Bordering Navigable Waters.

If an offense is committed on any of the navigable waters bordering on this State, the offender may be tried in any county adjacent to such navigable water.

(f) Offenses Committed while in Transit.

If an offense is committed upon any railroad car, vehicle, watercraft or aircraft passing within this State, and it cannot readily be determined in which county the offense was committed, the offender may be tried in any county through which such railroad car, vehicle, watercraft or aircraft has passed.

(g) Theft.

A person who commits theft of property may be tried in any county in which he exerted control over such property.

(h) Bigamy.

A person who commits the offense of bigamy may be tried in any county where the bigamous marriage or bigamous cohabitation has occurred.

(i) Kidnaping.

A person who commits the offense of kidnaping may be tried in any county in which his victim has traveled or has been confined during the course of the offense.

(j) Pandering.

A person who commits the offense of pandering as set forth in subdivision (a)(2)(A) or (a)(2)(B) of Section 11-14.3 may be tried in any county in which the prostitution was practiced or in any county in which any act in furtherance of the offense shall have been committed.

(k) Treason.

A person who commits the offense of treason may be tried in any county.

(l) Criminal Defamation.

If criminal defamation is spoken, printed or written in one county and is received or circulated in another or other counties, the offender shall be tried in the county where the defamation is spoken, printed or written. If the defamation is spoken, printed or written outside this state, or the offender resides outside this state, the offender may be tried in any county in this state in which the defamation was circulated or received.

(m) Inchoate Offenses.

A person who commits an inchoate offense may be tried in any county in which any act which is an element of the offense, including the agreement in conspiracy, is committed.

(n) Accountability for Conduct of Another.

Where a person in one county solicits, aids, abets, agrees, or attempts to aid another in the planning or commission of an offense in another county, he may be tried for the offense in either county.

(o) Child Abduction.

A person who commits the offense of child abduction may be tried in any county in which his victim has traveled, been detained, concealed or removed to during the course of the offense. Notwithstanding the foregoing, unless for good cause shown, the preferred place of trial shall be the county of the residence of the lawful custodian.

(p) A person who commits the offense of narcotics racketeering may be tried in any county where cannabis or a controlled substance which is the basis for the charge of narcotics racketeering was used; acquired; transferred or distributed to, from or through; or any county where any act was performed to further the use; acquisition, transfer or distribution of said cannabis or controlled substance; any money, property, property interest, or any other asset generated by narcotics activities was acquired, used, sold, transferred or distributed to, from or through; or, any enterprise interest obtained as a result of narcotics racketeering was acquired, used, transferred or distributed to, from or through, or where any activity was conducted by the enterprise or any conduct to further the interests of such an enterprise.

(q) A person who commits the offense of money laundering may be tried in any county where any part of a financial transaction in criminally derived property took place or in any county where any money or monetary instrument which is the basis for the offense was acquired, used, sold, transferred or distributed to, from or through.

(r) A person who commits the offense of cannabis trafficking or controlled substance trafficking may be tried in any county.

(s) A person who commits the offense of online sale of stolen property, online theft by deception, or electronic fencing may be tried in any county where any one or more elements of the offense took place, regardless of whether the element of the offense was the result of acts by the accused, the victim or by another person, and regardless of whether the defendant was ever physically present within the boundaries of the county.

(t) A person who commits the offense of identity theft or aggravated identity theft may be tried in any one of the following counties in which: (1) the offense occurred; (2) the information used to commit the offense was illegally used; or (3) the victim resides.

If a person is charged with more than one violation of identity theft or aggravated identity theft and those violations may be tried in more than one county, any of those counties is a proper venue for all of the violations.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/2-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 2-13)

Sec. 2-13. "Peace officer". "Peace officer" means (i) any person who by virtue of his office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for offenses, whether that duty extends to all offenses or is limited to specific offenses, or (ii) any person who, by statute, is granted and authorized to exercise powers similar to those conferred upon any peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State.

For purposes of Sections concerning unlawful use of weapons, for the purposes of assisting an Illinois peace officer in an arrest, or when the commission of any offense under Illinois law is directly observed by the person, and statutes involving the false personation of a peace officer, false personation of a peace officer while carrying a deadly weapon, false personation of a peace officer in attempting or committing a felony, and false personation of a peace officer in attempting or committing a forcible felony aggravated false personation of a peace officer, then officers, agents, or employees of the federal government commissioned by federal statute to make arrests for violations of federal criminal laws shall be considered "peace officers" under this Code, including, but not limited to all criminal investigators of:

(1) the United States Department of Justice, the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the Drug Enforcement Agency and the Department of Immigration and Naturalization;

(2) the United States Department of the Treasury, the Secret Service, the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms and the Customs Service;

(3) the United States Internal Revenue Service;

(4) the United States General Services Administration;

(5) the United States Postal Service;

(6) all United States Marshals or Deputy United States Marshals whose duties involve the enforcement of federal criminal laws; and

(7) the United States Department of Defense.

(Source: P.A. 94-730, eff. 4-17-06; 94-846, eff. 1-1-07; 95-24, eff. 1-1-08; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-750, eff. 7-23-08; 95-1007, eff. 12-15-08.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-6)

Sec. 11-6. Indecent solicitation of a child.

(a) A person of the age of 17 years and upwards commits indecent solicitation of a child if the person, with the intent that the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse be committed, knowingly solicits a child or one whom he or she believes to be a child to perform an act of sexual penetration or sexual conduct as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(a-5) A person of the age of 17 years and upwards commits indecent solicitation of a child if the person knowingly discusses an act of sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a child or with one whom he or she believes to be a child by means of the Internet with the intent that the offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse be committed.

(a-6) It is not a defense to subsection (a-5) that the person did not solicit the child to perform sexual conduct or sexual penetration with the person.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Solicit" means to command, authorize, urge, incite, request, or advise another to perform an act by any means including, but not limited to, in person, over the phone, in writing, by computer, or by advertisement of any kind.

"Child" means a person under 17 years of age.

"Internet" has the meaning set forth in Section 16-0.1 16J-5 of this Code.

"Sexual penetration" or "sexual conduct" are defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(c) Sentence. Indecent solicitation of a child under subsection (a) is:

(1) a Class 1 felony when the act, if done, would be predatory criminal sexual assault of a child or aggravated criminal sexual assault;

(2) a Class 2 felony when the act, if done, would be criminal sexual assault;

(3) a Class 3 felony when the act, if done, would be aggravated criminal sexual abuse.

Indecent solicitation of a child under subsection (a-5) is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 95-143, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-6.5)

Sec. 11-6.5. Indecent solicitation of an adult.

(a) A person commits indecent solicitation of an adult if the person knowingly:

(1) Arranges for a person 17 years of age or over to commit an act of sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 with a person:

(i) Under the age of 13 years; or

(ii) Thirteen years of age or over but under the age of 17 years; or

(2) Arranges for a person 17 years of age or over to commit an act of sexual conduct as defined in Section 11-0.1 with a person:

(i) Under the age of 13 years; or

(ii) Thirteen years of age or older but under the age of 17 years.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Violation of paragraph (a)(1)(i) is a Class X felony.

(2) Violation of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) is a Class 1 felony.

(3) Violation of paragraph (a)(2)(i) is a Class 2 felony.

(4) Violation of paragraph (a)(2)(ii) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(c) For the purposes of this Section, "arranges" includes but is not limited to oral or written communication and communication by telephone, computer, or other electronic means. "Computer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 16D-2 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-9.1)

Sec. 11-9.1. Sexual exploitation of a child.

(a) A person commits sexual exploitation of a child if in the presence or virtual presence, or both, of a child and with knowledge that a child or one whom he or she believes to be a child would view his or her acts, that person:

(1) engages in a sexual act; or

(2) exposes his or her sex organs, anus or breast for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification of such person or the child or one whom he or she believes to be a child.

(a-5) A person commits sexual exploitation of a child who knowingly entices, coerces, or persuades a child to remove the child's clothing for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification of the person or the child, or both.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Sexual act" means masturbation, sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

"Sex offense" means any violation of Article 11 of this Code or Section 12-5.01 12-16.2 of this Code.

"Child" means a person under 17 years of age.

"Virtual presence" means an environment that is created with software and presented to the user and or receiver via the Internet, in such a way that the user appears in front of the receiver on the computer monitor or screen or hand held portable electronic device, usually through a web camming program. "Virtual presence" includes primarily experiencing through sight or sound, or both, a video image that can be explored interactively at a personal computer or hand held communication device, or both.

"Webcam" means a video capturing device connected to a computer or computer network that is designed to take digital photographs or live or recorded video which allows for the live transmission to an end user over the Internet.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this Section or a substantially similar law of another state is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class 4 felony if the person has been previously convicted of a sex offense.

(3) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class 4 felony if the victim was under 13 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense.

(4) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class 4 felony if committed by a person 18 years of age or older who is on or within 500 feet of elementary or secondary school grounds when children are present on the grounds.

(Source: P.A. 96-1090, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1098, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.1A)

Sec. 11-9.1A. Permitting sexual abuse of a child.

(a) A person responsible for a child's welfare commits permitting sexual abuse of a child if the person has actual knowledge of and permits an act of sexual abuse upon the child, or permits the child to engage in prostitution as defined in Section 11-14 of this the Criminal Code of 1961.

(b) In this Section:

"Actual knowledge" includes credible allegations made by the child.

"Child" means a minor under the age of 17 years.

"Person responsible for the child's welfare" means the child's parent, step-parent, legal guardian, or other person having custody of a child, who is responsible for the child's care at the time of the alleged sexual abuse.

"Prostitution" means prostitution as defined in Section 11-14 of this the Criminal Code of 1961.

"Sexual abuse" includes criminal sexual abuse or criminal sexual assault as defined in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60 of this the Criminal Code of 1961.

(c) This Section does not apply to a person responsible for the child's welfare who, having reason to believe that sexual abuse has occurred, makes timely and reasonable efforts to stop the sexual abuse by reporting the sexual abuse in conformance with the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by reporting the sexual abuse, or causing a report to be made, to medical or law enforcement authorities or anyone who is a mandated reporter under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(d) Whenever a law enforcement officer has reason to believe that the child or the person responsible for the child's welfare has been abused by a family or household member as defined by the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, the officer shall immediately use all reasonable means to prevent further abuse under Section 112A-30 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(e) An order of protection under Section 111-8 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 shall be sought in all cases where there is reason to believe that a child has been sexually abused by a family or household member. In considering appropriate available remedies, it shall be presumed that awarding physical care or custody to the abuser is not in the child's best interest.

(f) A person may not be charged with the offense of permitting sexual abuse of a child under this Section until the person who committed the offense is charged with criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or prostitution.

(g) A person convicted of permitting the sexual abuse of a child is guilty of a Class 1 felony. As a condition of any sentence of supervision, probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release, any person convicted under this Section shall be ordered to undergo child sexual abuse, domestic violence, or other appropriate counseling for a specified duration with a qualified social or mental health worker.

(h) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of permitting sexual abuse of a child under this Section that the person responsible for the child's welfare had a reasonable apprehension that timely action to stop the abuse or prostitution would result in the imminent infliction of death, great bodily harm, permanent disfigurement, or permanent disability to that person or another in retaliation for reporting.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.3)

Sec. 11-9.3. Presence within school zone by child sex offenders prohibited; approaching, contacting, residing with, or communicating with a child within certain places by child sex offenders prohibited.

(a) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any school building, on real property comprising any school, or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building, on the grounds or in the conveyance, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or unless the offender has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official.

(a-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present within 100 feet of a site posted as a pick-up or discharge stop for a conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity when one or more persons under the age of 18 are present at the site.

(a-10) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly be present in any public park building or on real property comprising any public park when persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter within 500 feet of a school building or real property comprising any school while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a student attending the school and the parent or guardian is: (i) attending a conference at the school with school personnel to discuss the progress of his or her child academically or socially, (ii) participating in child review conferences in which evaluation and placement decisions may be made with respect to his or her child regarding special education services, or (iii) attending conferences to discuss other student issues concerning his or her child such as retention and promotion and notifies the principal of the school of his or her presence at the school or has permission to be present from the superintendent or the school board or in the case of a private school from the principal. In the case of a public school, if permission is granted, the superintendent or school board president must inform the principal of the school where the sex offender will be present. Notification includes the nature of the sex offender's visit and the hours in which the sex offender will be present in the school. The sex offender is responsible for notifying the principal's office when he or she arrives on school property and when he or she departs from school property. If the sex offender is to be present in the vicinity of children, the sex offender has the duty to remain under the direct supervision of a school official.

(b-2) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly loiter on a public way within 500 feet of a public park building or real property comprising any public park while persons under the age of 18 are present in the building or on the grounds and to approach, contact, or communicate with a child under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of a person under 18 years of age present in the building or on the grounds.

(b-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under the age of 18 attend. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a school building or the real property comprising any school that persons under 18 attend if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before July 7, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-911).

(b-10) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of a playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, day care home, group day care home, or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a playground or a facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before July 7, 2000. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a child care institution, day care center, or part day child care facility if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before June 26, 2006. Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of a day care home or group day care home if the property is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before August 14, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-821).

(b-15) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly reside within 500 feet of the victim of the sex offense. Nothing in this subsection (b-15) prohibits a child sex offender from residing within 500 feet of the victim if the property in which the child sex offender resides is owned by the child sex offender and was purchased before August 22, 2002.

This subsection (b-15) does not apply if the victim of the sex offense is 21 years of age or older.

(b-20) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly communicate, other than for a lawful purpose under Illinois law, using the Internet or any other digital media, with a person under 18 years of age or with a person whom he or she believes to be a person under 18 years of age, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age.

(c) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, volunteer at, be associated with, or knowingly be present at any: (i) facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under the age of 18; (ii) day care center; (iii) part day child care facility; (iv) child care institution; (v) school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age; (vi) day care home; or (vii) group day care home. This does not prohibit a child sex offender from owning the real property upon which the programs or services are offered or upon which the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, or school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age is located, provided the child sex offender refrains from being present on the premises for the hours during which: (1) the programs or services are being offered or (2) the day care center, part day child care facility, child care institution, or school providing before and after school programs for children under 18 years of age, day care home, or group day care home is operated.

(c-2) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, including but not limited to distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter. For the purposes of this subsection, child sex offender has the meaning as defined in this Section, but does not include as a sex offense under paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section, the offense under subsection (c) of Section 11-1.50 of this Code. This subsection does not apply to a child sex offender who is a parent or guardian of children under 18 years of age that are present in the home and other non-familial minors are not present.

(c-5) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, manage, be employed by, or be associated with any county fair when persons under the age of 18 are present.

(c-6) It is unlawful for a child sex offender who owns and resides at residential real estate to knowingly rent any residential unit within the same building in which he or she resides to a person who is the parent or guardian of a child or children under 18 years of age. This subsection shall apply only to leases or other rental arrangements entered into after January 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-820).

(c-7) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly offer or provide any programs or services to persons under 18 years of age in his or her residence or the residence of another or in any facility for the purpose of offering or providing such programs or services, whether such programs or services are offered or provided by contract, agreement, arrangement, or on a volunteer basis.

(c-8) It is unlawful for a child sex offender to knowingly operate, whether authorized to do so or not, any of the following vehicles: (1) a vehicle which is specifically designed, constructed or modified and equipped to be used for the retail sale of food or beverages, including but not limited to an ice cream truck; (2) an authorized emergency vehicle; or (3) a rescue vehicle.

(d) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Child sex offender" means any person who:

(i) has been charged under Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal law or law of another state, with a sex offense set forth in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and the victim is a person under 18 years of age at the time of the offense; and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal law or the law of another state substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(ii) is certified as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal law or the law of another state, when any conduct giving rise to such certification is committed or attempted against a person less than 18 years of age; or

(iii) is subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Section as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2.5), "sex offense" means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 10-4 (forcible detention), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child), 11-9.2 (custodial sexual misconduct), 11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-14.3(a)(1) (promoting prostitution by advancing prostitution), 11-14.3(a)(2)(A) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by compelling a person to be a prostitute), 11-14.3(a)(2)(C) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by means other than as described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.3), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B (aggravated child pornography), 11-21 (harmful material), 11-25 (grooming), 11-26 (traveling to meet a minor), 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child), 11-20 (obscenity) (when that offense was committed in any school, on real property comprising any school, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park), 11-30 (public indecency) (when committed in a school, on real property comprising a school, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or in a public park). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse), 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint),

11-9.1(A) (permitting sexual abuse of a child).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in clause (2)(i) or (2)(ii) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(2.5) For the purposes of subsections (b-5) and (b-10) only, a sex offense means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-9.2 (custodial sexual misconduct), 11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-14.3(a)(1) (promoting prostitution by advancing prostitution), 11-14.3(a)(2)(A) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by compelling a person to be a prostitute), 11-14.3(a)(2)(C) (promoting prostitution by profiting from prostitution by means other than as described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.3), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B (aggravated child pornography), 11-25 (grooming), 11-26 (traveling to meet a minor), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age: 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint),

11-9.1(A) (permitting sexual abuse of a child).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this paragraph (2.5) of this subsection.

(3) A conviction for an offense of federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Section. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Section.

(4) "Authorized emergency vehicle", "rescue vehicle", and "vehicle" have the meanings ascribed to them in Sections 1-105, 1-171.8 and 1-217, respectively, of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(5) "Child care institution" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.06 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(6) "Day care center" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(7) "Day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.18 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(8) "Facility providing programs or services directed towards persons under the age of 18" means any facility providing programs or services exclusively directed towards persons under the age of 18.

(9) "Group day care home" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.20 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(10) "Internet" has the meaning set forth in Section 16-0.1 16J-5 of this Code.

(11) "Loiter" means:

(i) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle, or remaining in or around school or public park property.

(ii) Standing, sitting idly, whether or not the person is in a vehicle, or remaining in or around school or public park property, for the purpose of committing or attempting to commit a sex offense.

(iii) Entering or remaining in a building in or around school property, other than the offender's residence.

(12) "Part day child care facility" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.10 of the Child Care Act of 1969.

(13) "Playground" means a piece of land owned or controlled by a unit of local government that is designated by the unit of local government for use solely or primarily for children's recreation.

(14) "Public park" includes a park, forest preserve, bikeway, trail, or conservation area under the jurisdiction of the State or a unit of local government.

(15) "School" means a public or private preschool or elementary or secondary school.

(16) "School official" means the principal, a teacher, or any other certified employee of the school, the superintendent of schools or a member of the school board.

(e) For the purposes of this Section, the 500 feet distance shall be measured from: (1) the edge of the property of the school building or the real property comprising the school that is closest to the edge of the property of the child sex offender's residence or where he or she is loitering, and (2) the edge of the property comprising the public park building or the real property comprising the public park, playground, child care institution, day care center, part day child care facility, or facility providing programs or services exclusively directed toward persons under 18 years of age, or a victim of the sex offense who is under 21 years of age, to the edge of the child sex offender's place of residence or place where he or she is loitering.

(f) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-698, eff. 1-1-13; 97-699, eff. 1-1-13; revised 7-10-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-23)

Sec. 11-23. Posting of identifying or graphic information on a pornographic Internet site or possessing graphic information with pornographic material.

(a) A person at least 17 years of age who knowingly discloses on an adult obscenity or child pornography Internet site the name, address, telephone number, or e-mail address of a person under 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense or of a person at least 17 years of age without the consent of the person at least 17 years of age is guilty of posting of identifying information on a pornographic Internet site.

(a-5) Any person who knowingly places, posts, reproduces, or maintains on an adult obscenity or child pornography Internet site a photograph, video, or digital image of a person under 18 years of age that is not child pornography under Section 11-20.1, without the knowledge and consent of the person under 18 years of age, is guilty of posting of graphic information on a pornographic Internet site. This provision applies even if the person under 18 years of age is fully or properly clothed in the photograph, video, or digital image.

(a-10) Any person who knowingly places, posts, reproduces, or maintains on an adult obscenity or child pornography Internet site, or possesses with obscene or child pornographic material a photograph, video, or digital image of a person under 18 years of age in which the child is posed in a suggestive manner with the focus or concentration of the image on the child's clothed genitals, clothed pubic area, clothed buttocks area, or if the child is female, the breast exposed through transparent clothing, and the photograph, video, or digital image is not child pornography under Section 11-20.1, is guilty of posting of graphic information on a pornographic Internet site or possessing graphic information with pornographic material.

(b) Sentence. A person who violates subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony if the victim is at least 17 years of age at the time of the offense and a Class 3 felony if the victim is under 17 years of age at the time of the offense. A person who violates subsection (a-5) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A person who violates subsection (a-10) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Adult obscenity or child pornography Internet site" means a site on the Internet that contains material that is obscene as defined in Section 11-20 of this Code or that is child pornography as defined in Section 11-20.1 of this Code.

(2) "Internet" has the meaning set forth in Section 16-0.1 16J-5 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 95-983, eff. 6-1-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/16-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 16-1)

Sec. 16-1. Theft.

(a) A person commits theft when he or she knowingly:

(1) Obtains or exerts unauthorized control over property of the owner; or

(2) Obtains by deception control over property of the owner; or

(3) Obtains by threat control over property of the owner; or

(4) Obtains control over stolen property knowing the property to have been stolen or under such circumstances as would reasonably induce him or her to believe that the property was stolen; or

(5) Obtains or exerts control over property in the custody of any law enforcement agency which any law enforcement officer or any individual acting in behalf of a law enforcement agency explicitly represents to the person as being stolen or represents to the person such circumstances as would reasonably induce the person to believe that the property was stolen, and

(A) Intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property; or

(B) Knowingly uses, conceals or abandons the property in such manner as to deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit; or

(C) Uses, conceals, or abandons the property knowing such use, concealment or abandonment probably will deprive the owner permanently of such use or benefit.

(b) Sentence.

(1) Theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value is a Class A misdemeanor.

(1.1) Theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value is a Class 4 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(2) A person who has been convicted of theft of property not from the person and not exceeding $500 in value who has been previously convicted of any type of theft, robbery, armed robbery, burglary, residential burglary, possession of burglary tools, home invasion, forgery, a violation of Section 4-103, 4-103.1, 4-103.2, or 4-103.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code relating to the possession of a stolen or converted motor vehicle, or a violation of Section 17-36 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 8 of the Illinois Credit Card and Debit Card Act is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(3) (Blank).

(4) Theft of property from the person not exceeding $500 in value, or theft of property exceeding $500 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 3 felony.

(4.1) Theft of property from the person not exceeding $500 in value, or theft of property exceeding $500 and not exceeding $10,000 in value, is a Class 2 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(5) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 2 felony.

(5.1) Theft of property exceeding $10,000 and not exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class 1 felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 and not exceeding $500,000 in value is a Class 1 felony.

(6.1) Theft of property exceeding $100,000 in value is a Class X felony if the theft was committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was of governmental property.

(6.2) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.

(6.3) Theft of property exceeding $1,000,000 in value is a Class X felony.

(7) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender obtained money or property valued at $5,000 or more from a victim 60 years of age or older is a Class 2 felony.

(8) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 3 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained does not exceed $500.

(9) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 2 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $500 and does not exceed $10,000.

(10) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class 1 felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $10,000 and does not exceed $100,000.

(11) Theft by deception, as described by paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, in which the offender falsely poses as a landlord or agent or employee of the landlord and obtains a rent payment or a security deposit from a tenant is a Class X felony if the rent payment or security deposit obtained exceeds $100,000.

(c) When a charge of theft of property exceeding a specified value is brought, the value of the property involved is an element of the offense to be resolved by the trier of fact as either exceeding or not exceeding the specified value.

(d) Theft by lessee; permissive inference. The trier of fact may infer evidence that a person intends to deprive the owner permanently of the use or benefit of the property (1) if a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner within 10 days after written demand from the owner for its return or (2) if a lessee of the personal property of another fails to return it to the owner within 24 hours after written demand from the owner for its return and the lessee had presented identification to the owner that contained a materially fictitious name, address, or telephone number. A notice in writing, given after the expiration of the leasing agreement, addressed and mailed, by registered mail, to the lessee at the address given by him and shown on the leasing agreement shall constitute proper demand.

(e) Permissive inference; evidence of intent that a person obtains by deception control over property. The trier of fact may infer that a person "knowingly obtains by deception control over property of the owner" when he or she fails to return, within 45 days after written demand from the owner, the downpayment and any additional payments accepted under a promise, oral or in writing, to perform services for the owner for consideration of $3,000 or more, and the promisor knowingly without good cause failed to substantially perform pursuant to the agreement after taking a down payment of 10% or more of the agreed upon consideration. This provision shall not apply where the owner initiated the suspension of performance under the agreement, or where the promisor responds to the notice within the 45-day notice period. A notice in writing, addressed and mailed, by registered mail, to the promisor at the last known address of the promisor, shall constitute proper demand.

(f) Offender's interest in the property.

(1) It is no defense to a charge of theft of property that the offender has an interest therein, when the owner also has an interest to which the offender is not entitled.

(2) Where the property involved is that of the offender's spouse, no prosecution for theft may be maintained unless the parties were not living together as man and wife and were living in separate abodes at the time of the alleged theft.

(Source: P.A. 96-496, eff. 1-1-10; 96-534, eff. 8-14-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1301, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1532, eff. 1-1-12; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/17-10.5)

Sec. 17-10.5. Insurance fraud.

(a) Insurance fraud.

(1) A person commits insurance fraud when he or she knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of an insurance company or self-insured entity by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made on any policy of insurance issued by an insurance company or by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made to a self-insured entity, intending to deprive an insurance company or self-insured entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property.

(2) A person commits health care benefits fraud against a provider, other than a governmental unit or agency, when he or she knowingly obtains or attempts to obtain, by deception, health care benefits and that obtaining or attempt to obtain health care benefits does not involve control over property of the provider.

(b) Aggravated insurance fraud.

(1) A person commits aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity when he or she commits insurance fraud 3 or more times within an 18-month period arising out of separate incidents or transactions.

(2) A person commits being an organizer of an aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity conspiracy if aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code and the person occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management within the conspiracy.

(c) Conspiracy to commit insurance fraud. If aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity forms the basis for charges of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of this Section need not be the same person or persons for each violation, as long as the accused was a part of the common scheme or plan to engage in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.

If aggravated insurance fraud on a private entity forms the basis for a charge of conspiracy under Section 8-2 of this Code, and the accused occupies a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management within the conspiracy, the person or persons with whom the accused is alleged to have agreed to commit the 3 or more violations of this Section need not be the same person or persons for each violation as long as the accused occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financer, or other position of management in each of the 3 or more alleged violations.

(d) Sentence.

(1) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is $300 or less is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is more than $300 but not more than $10,000 is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is more than $10,000 but not more than $100,000 is a Class 2 felony.

(4) A violation of paragraph (a)(1) in which the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained is more than $100,000 is a Class 1 felony.

(5) A violation of paragraph (a)(2) is a Class A misdemeanor.

(6) A violation of paragraph (b)(1) is a Class 1 felony, regardless of the value of the property obtained, attempted to be obtained, or caused to be obtained.

(7) A violation of paragraph (b)(2) is a Class X felony.

(8) A person convicted of insurance fraud, vendor fraud, or a federal criminal violation associated with defrauding the Medicaid program shall be ordered to pay monetary restitution to the insurance company or self-insured entity or any other person for any financial loss sustained as a result of a violation of this Section, including any court costs and attorney's fees. An order of restitution shall include expenses incurred and paid by the State of Illinois or an insurance company or self-insured entity in connection with any medical evaluation or treatment services.

(9) Notwithstanding Section 8-5 of this Code, a person may be convicted and sentenced both for the offense of conspiracy to commit insurance fraud or the offense of being an organizer of an aggravated insurance fraud conspiracy and for any other offense that is the object of the conspiracy.

(e) Civil damages for insurance fraud.

(1) A person who knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained, by deception, control over the property of any insurance company by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made on a policy of insurance issued by an insurance company, or by the making of a false claim or by causing a false claim to be made to a self-insured entity, intending to deprive an insurance company or self-insured entity permanently of the use and benefit of that property, shall be civilly liable to the insurance company or self-insured entity that paid the claim or against whom the claim was made or to the subrogee of that insurance company or self-insured entity in an amount equal to either 3 times the value of the property wrongfully obtained or, if no property was wrongfully obtained, twice the value of the property attempted to be obtained, whichever amount is greater, plus reasonable attorney's fees.

(2) An insurance company or self-insured entity that brings an action against a person under paragraph (1) of this subsection in bad faith shall be liable to that person for twice the value of the property claimed, plus reasonable attorney's fees. In determining whether an insurance company or self-insured entity acted in bad faith, the court shall relax the rules of evidence to allow for the introduction of any facts or other information on which the insurance company or self-insured entity may have relied in bringing an action under paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(f) Determination of property value. For the purposes of this Section, if the exact value of the property attempted to be obtained is either not alleged by the claimant or not specifically set by the terms of a policy of insurance, the value of the property shall be the fair market replacement value of the property claimed to be lost, the reasonable costs of reimbursing a vendor or other claimant for services to be rendered, or both.

(g) Actions by State licensing agencies.

(1) All State licensing agencies, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall coordinate enforcement efforts relating to acts of insurance fraud.

(2) If a person who is licensed or registered under the laws of the State of Illinois to engage in a business or profession is convicted of or pleads guilty to engaging in an act of insurance fraud, the Illinois State Police must forward to each State agency by which the person is licensed or registered a copy of the conviction or plea and all supporting evidence.

(3) Any agency that receives information under this Section shall, not later than 6 months after the date on which it receives the information, publicly report the final action taken against the convicted person, including but not limited to the revocation or suspension of the license or any other disciplinary action taken.

(h) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section, "obtain", "obtains control", "deception", "property", and "permanent deprivation" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Article 15 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/19-6) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-11)

Sec. 19-6. Home Invasion.

(a) A person who is not a peace officer acting in the line of duty commits home invasion when without authority he or she knowingly enters the dwelling place of another when he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or he or she knowingly enters the dwelling place of another and remains in the dwelling place until he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present or who falsely represents himself or herself, including but not limited to, falsely representing himself or herself to be a representative of any unit of government or a construction, telecommunications, or utility company, for the purpose of gaining entry to the dwelling place of another when he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons are present and

(1) While armed with a dangerous weapon, other than a firearm, uses force or threatens the imminent use of force upon any person or persons within the dwelling place whether or not injury occurs, or

(2) Intentionally causes any injury, except as provided in subsection (a)(5), to any person or persons within the dwelling place, or

(3) While armed with a firearm uses force or threatens the imminent use of force upon any person or persons within the dwelling place whether or not injury occurs, or

(4) Uses force or threatens the imminent use of force upon any person or persons within the dwelling place whether or not injury occurs and during the commission of the offense personally discharges a firearm, or

(5) Personally discharges a firearm that proximately causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person within the dwelling place, or

(6) Commits, against any person or persons within that dwelling place, a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, or 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of this the Criminal Code of 1961.

(b) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of home invasion that the accused who knowingly enters the dwelling place of another and remains in the dwelling place until he or she knows or has reason to know that one or more persons is present either immediately leaves the premises or surrenders to the person or persons lawfully present therein without either attempting to cause or causing serious bodily injury to any person present therein.

(c) Sentence. Home invasion in violation of subsection (a)(1), (a)(2) or (a)(6) is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3) is a Class X felony for which 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(4) is a Class X felony for which 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. A violation of subsection (a)(5) is a Class X felony for which 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(d) For purposes of this Section, "dwelling place of another" includes a dwelling place where the defendant maintains a tenancy interest but from which the defendant has been barred by a divorce decree, judgment of dissolution of marriage, order of protection, or other court order.

(Source: P.A. 96-1113, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/26.5-5)

Sec. 26.5-5. Sentence.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), a person who violates any of the provisions of Section 26.5-1, 26.5-2, or 26.5-3 of this Article is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Except as provided in subsection (b), a second or subsequent violation of Section 26.5-1, 26.5-2, or 26.5-3 of this Article is a Class A misdemeanor, for which the court shall impose a minimum of 14 days in jail or, if public or community service is established in the county in which the offender was convicted, 240 hours of public or community service.

(b) In any of the following circumstances, a person who violates Section 26.5-1, 26.5-2, or 26.5-3 of this Article shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony:

(1) The person has 3 or more prior violations in the last 10 years of harassment by telephone, harassment through electronic communications, or any similar offense of any other state;

(2) The person has previously violated the harassment by telephone provisions, or the harassment through electronic communications provisions, or committed any similar offense in any other state with the same victim or a member of the victim's family or household;

(3) At the time of the offense, the offender was under conditions of bail, probation, conditional discharge, mandatory supervised release or was the subject of an order of protection, in this or any other state, prohibiting contact with the victim or any member of the victim's family or household;

(4) In the course of the offense, the offender threatened to kill the victim or any member of the victim's family or household;

(5) The person has been convicted in the last 10 years of a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(6) The person violates paragraph (5) of Section 26.5-2 or paragraph (4) of Section 26.5-3; or

(7) The person was at least 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense.

(c) The court may order any person convicted under this Article to submit to a psychiatric examination.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 11, 2017)

Sec. 33G-3. Definitions. As used in this Article:

(a) "Another state" means any State of the United States (other than the State of Illinois), or the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States, or any political subdivision, or any department, agency, or instrumentality thereof.

(b) "Enterprise" includes:

(1) any partnership, corporation, association, business or charitable trust, or other legal entity; and

(2) any group of individuals or other legal entities, or any combination thereof, associated in fact although not itself a legal entity. An association in fact must be held together by a common purpose of engaging in a course of conduct, and it may be associated together for purposes that are both legal and illegal. An association in fact must:

(A) have an ongoing organization or structure, either formal or informal;

(B) the various members of the group must function as a continuing unit, even if the group changes membership by gaining or losing members over time; and

(C) have an ascertainable structure distinct from that inherent in the conduct of a pattern of predicate activity.

As used in this Article, "enterprise" includes licit and illicit enterprises.

(c) "Labor organization" includes any organization, labor union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated association designed to further the cause of the rights of union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.

(d) "Operation or management" means directing or carrying out the enterprise's affairs and is limited to any person who knowingly serves as a leader, organizer, operator, manager, director, supervisor, financier, advisor, recruiter, supplier, or enforcer of an enterprise in violation of this Article.

(e) "Predicate activity" means any act that is a Class 2 felony or higher and constitutes a violation or violations of any of the following provisions of the laws of the State of Illinois (as amended or revised as of the date the activity occurred or, in the instance of a continuing offense, the date that charges under this Article are filed in a particular matter in the State of Illinois) or any act under the law of another jurisdiction for an offense that could be charged as a Class 2 felony or higher in this State:

(1) under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 8-1.2 (solicitation of murder for hire), 9-1 (first degree murder), 9-3.3 (drug-induced homicide), 10-1 (kidnapping), 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint), 10-4 (forcible detention), 10-5(b)(10) (child abduction), 10-9 (trafficking in persons, involuntary servitude, and related offenses), 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-14.3(a)(2)(A) and (a)(2)(B) (promoting prostitution), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution; patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 12-3.05 (aggravated battery), 12-6.4 (criminal street gang recruitment), 12-6.5 (compelling organization membership of persons), 12-7.3 (stalking), 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), 12-7.5 (cyberstalking), 12-11 or 19-6 (home invasion), 12-11.1 or 18-6 (vehicular invasion), 18-1 (robbery; aggravated robbery), 18-2 (armed robbery), 18-3 (vehicular hijacking), 18-4 (aggravated vehicular hijacking), 18-5 (aggravated robbery), 19-1 (burglary), 19-3 (residential burglary), 20-1 (arson; residential arson; place of worship arson), 20-1.1 (aggravated arson), 20-1.2 (residential arson), 20-1.3 (place of worship arson), 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a firearm), 24-1.2-5 (aggravated discharge of a machine gun or silencer equipped firearm), 24-1.8 (unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member), 24-3.2 (unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles), 24-3.9 (aggravated possession of a stolen firearm), 24-3A (gunrunning), 26-5 or 48-1 (dog-fighting), 29D-14.9 (terrorism), 29D-15 (soliciting support for terrorism), 29D-15.1 (causing a catastrophe), 29D-15.2 (possession of a deadly substance), 29D-20 (making a terrorist threat), 29D-25 (falsely making a terrorist threat), 29D-29.9 (material support for terrorism), 29D-35 (hindering prosecution of terrorism), 31A-1.2 (unauthorized contraband in a penal institution), or 33A-3 (armed violence);

(2) under the Cannabis Control Act: Sections 5 (manufacture or delivery of cannabis), 5.1 (cannabis trafficking), or 8 (production or possession of cannabis plants), provided the offense either involves more than 500 grams of any substance containing cannabis or involves more than 50 cannabis sativa plants;

(3) under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act: Sections 401 (manufacture or delivery of a controlled substance), 401.1 (controlled substance trafficking), 405 (calculated criminal drug conspiracy), or 405.2 (street gang criminal drug conspiracy); or

(4) under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act: Sections 15 (methamphetamine manufacturing), or 55 (methamphetamine delivery).

(f) "Pattern of predicate activity" means:

(1) at least 3 occurrences of predicate activity that are in some way related to each other and that have continuity between them, and that are separate acts. Acts are related to each other if they are not isolated events, including if they have similar purposes, or results, or participants, or victims, or are committed a similar way, or have other similar distinguishing characteristics, or are part of the affairs of the same enterprise. There is continuity between acts if they are ongoing over a substantial period, or if they are part of the regular way some entity does business or conducts its affairs; and

(2) which occurs after the effective date of this Article, and the last of which falls within 3 years (excluding any period of imprisonment) after the first occurrence of predicate activity.

(g) "Unlawful death" includes the following offenses: under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: Sections 9-1 (first degree murder) or 9-2 (second degree murder).

(Source: P.A. 97-686, eff. 6-11-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/36-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-1)

Sec. 36-1. Seizure. Any vessel, vehicle or aircraft used with the knowledge and consent of the owner in the commission of, or in the attempt to commit as defined in Section 8-4 of this Code, an offense prohibited by (a) Section 9-1, 9-3, 10-2, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-6, 11-14.4 except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.6, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 16-1 if the theft is of precious metal or of scrap metal, 18-2, 19-1, 19-2, 19-3, 20-1, 20-2, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.5, 28-1, or 29D-15.2 of this Code, subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(4), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (e)(7) of Section 12-3.05, paragraph (a) of Section 12-4 of this Code, paragraph (a) of Section 11-1.50, paragraph (a) of Section 12-15, paragraph (a), (c), or (d) of Section 11-1.60, or paragraphs (a), (c) or (d) of Section 12-16 of this Code, or paragraph (a)(6) or (a)(7) of Section 24-1 of this Code; (b) Section 21, 22, 23, 24 or 26 of the Cigarette Tax Act if the vessel, vehicle or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes; (c) Section 28, 29 or 30 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act if the vessel, vehicle or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such cigarettes; (d) Section 44 of the Environmental Protection Act; (e) 11-204.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; (f) (1) driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driving privileges are revoked or suspended where the revocation or suspension was for driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, Section 11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or for reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (2) driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof and has been previously convicted of reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide in which the person was determined to have been under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the offense or the person has previously been convicted of committing a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof and was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in death, great bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement to another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the death or injuries; (3) the person committed a violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision for the third or subsequent time; (4) the person committed the violation while he or she did not possess a driver's license or permit or a restricted driving permit or a judicial driving permit or a monitoring device driving permit; or (5) the person committed the violation while he or she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or she was driving was not covered by a liability insurance policy; (g) an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or (h) an offense described in subsection (e) of Section 6-101 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; may be seized and delivered forthwith to the sheriff of the county of seizure.

Within 15 days after such delivery the sheriff shall give notice of seizure to each person according to the following method: Upon each such person whose right, title or interest is of record in the office of the Secretary of State, the Secretary of Transportation, the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Agency, or any other Department of this State, or any other state of the United States if such vessel, vehicle or aircraft is required to be so registered, as the case may be, by mailing a copy of the notice by certified mail to the address as given upon the records of the Secretary of State, the Department of Aeronautics, Department of Public Works and Buildings or any other Department of this State or the United States if such vessel, vehicle or aircraft is required to be so registered. Within that 15 day period the sheriff shall also notify the State's Attorney of the county of seizure about the seizure.

In addition, any mobile or portable equipment used in the commission of an act which is in violation of Section 7g of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles and aircraft, and any such equipment shall be deemed a vessel, vehicle or aircraft for purposes of this Article.

When a person discharges a firearm at another individual from a vehicle with the knowledge and consent of the owner of the vehicle and with the intent to cause death or great bodily harm to that individual and as a result causes death or great bodily harm to that individual, the vehicle shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of vehicles used in violations of clauses (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this Section.

If the spouse of the owner of a vehicle seized for an offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of subdivision (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(D), (d)(1)(G), (d)(1)(H), or (d)(1)(I) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or Section 9-3 of this Code makes a showing that the seized vehicle is the only source of transportation and it is determined that the financial hardship to the family as a result of the seizure outweighs the benefit to the State from the seizure, the vehicle may be forfeited to the spouse or family member and the title to the vehicle shall be transferred to the spouse or family member who is properly licensed and who requires the use of the vehicle for employment or family transportation purposes. A written declaration of forfeiture of a vehicle under this Section shall be sufficient cause for the title to be transferred to the spouse or family member. The provisions of this paragraph shall apply only to one forfeiture per vehicle. If the vehicle is the subject of a subsequent forfeiture proceeding by virtue of a subsequent conviction of either spouse or the family member, the spouse or family member to whom the vehicle was forfeited under the first forfeiture proceeding may not utilize the provisions of this paragraph in another forfeiture proceeding. If the owner of the vehicle seized owns more than one vehicle, the procedure set out in this paragraph may be used for only one vehicle.

Property declared contraband under Section 40 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act may be seized and forfeited under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 96-313, eff. 1-1-10; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1267, eff. 7-26-10; 96-1289, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 960, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(720 ILCS 5/37-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 37-1)

Sec. 37-1. Maintaining Public Nuisance. Any building used in the commission of offenses prohibited by Sections 9-1, 10-1, 10-2, 11-14, 11-15, 11-16, 11-17, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 12-5.1, 16-1, 20-2, 23-1, 23-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(7), 24-3, 28-1, 28-3, 31-5 or 39A-1, or subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2)(A), or (a)(2)(B) of Section 11-14.3, of this the Criminal Code of 1961, or prohibited by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act, or used in the commission of an inchoate offense relative to any of the aforesaid principal offenses, or any real property erected, established, maintained, owned, leased, or used by a streetgang for the purpose of conducting streetgang related activity as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act is a public nuisance.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of knowingly maintaining such a public nuisance commits a Class A misdemeanor. Each subsequent offense under this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/48-8)

Sec. 48-8. Service animal Guide dog access.

(a) When a blind, hearing impaired or physically handicapped person with a physical, mental, or intellectual disability requiring the use of a service animal or a person who is subject to epilepsy or other seizure disorders is accompanied by a service animal a dog which serves as a guide, leader, seizure-alert, or seizure-response dog for the person or when a trainer of a service animal guide, leader, seizure-alert, or seizure-response dog is accompanied by a service animal guide, leader, seizure-alert, or seizure-response dog or a dog that is being trained to be a guide, leader, seizure-alert, or seizure-response dog, neither the person nor the service animal dog shall be denied the right of entry and use of facilities of any public place of accommodation as defined in Section 5-101 of the Illinois Human Rights Act, if the dog is wearing a harness and the person presents credentials for inspection issued by a school for training guide, leader, seizure-alert, or seizure-response dogs.

For the purposes of this Section, "service animal" means a dog or miniature horse trained or being trained as a hearing animal, a guide animal, an assistance animal, a seizure alert animal, a mobility animal, a psychiatric service animal, an autism service animal, or an animal trained for any other physical, mental, or intellectual disability. "Service animal" includes a miniature horse that a public place of accommodation shall make reasonable accommodation so long as the public place of accommodation takes into consideration: (1) the type, size, and weight of the miniature horse and whether the facility can accommodate its features; (2) whether the handler has sufficient control of the miniature horse; (3) whether the miniature horse is housebroken; and (4) whether the miniature horse's presence in the facility compromises legitimate safety requirements necessary for operation.

(b) A person who knowingly violates this Section commits a Class C misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; incorporates 97-956, eff. 8-14-12; revised 10-3-12.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16C rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 16D rep.)

(720 ILCS 5/Art. 17B rep.)

Section 610. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by repealing Articles 16C, 16D, and 17B.

Section 620. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(720 ILCS 550/10) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 710)

Sec. 10. (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for, any offense under this Act or any law of the United States or of any State relating to cannabis, or controlled substances as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of violating Sections 4(a), 4(b), 4(c), 5(a), 5(b), 5(c) or 8 of this Act, the court may, without entering a judgment and with the consent of such person, sentence him to probation.

(b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person: (1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2) refrain from possession of a firearm or other dangerous weapon; (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be paid by the probationer; and (4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service, provided community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(7-5) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home.

(e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge such person and dismiss the proceedings against him.

(g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime (including the additional penalty imposed for subsequent offenses under Section 4(c), 4(d), 5(c) or 5(d) of this Act).

(h) Discharge and dismissal under this Section, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 may occur only once with respect to any person.

(i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as a factor in aggravation.

(Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 625. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Section 410 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/410) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1410)

Sec. 410. (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for any offense under this Act or any law of the United States or of any State relating to cannabis or controlled substances, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession of a controlled or counterfeit substance under subsection (c) of Section 402 or of unauthorized possession of prescription form under Section 406.2, the court, without entering a judgment and with the consent of such person, may sentence him or her to probation.

(b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person: (1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon; (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be paid by the probationer; and (4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service, provided community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his or her dependents;

(6-5) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against him or her.

(g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime.

(h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under this Section, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 with respect to any person.

(i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as evidence in aggravation.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 630. The Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is amended by changing Section 70 as follows:

(720 ILCS 646/70)

Sec. 70. Probation.

(a) Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for any offense under this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or any law of the United States or of any state relating to cannabis or controlled substances, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession of less than 15 grams of methamphetamine under paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (b) of Section 60 of this Act, the court, without entering a judgment and with the consent of the person, may sentence him or her to probation.

(b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.

(c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be paid by the probationer; and

(4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board.

(d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require that the person take one or more of the following actions:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of probation;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois Department of Human Services;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his or her dependents;

(7) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by this Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug; or

(8) if a minor:

(i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home.

(e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided.

(f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against the person.

(g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime.

(h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under this Section, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 with respect to any person.

(i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section are admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that conviction as evidence in aggravation.

(Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 635. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 102-2, 103-2.1, 103-8, 108-4, 108-12, 108B-3, 108B-7.5, 108B-8, 109-3, 110-2, 110-4, 110-5, 110-5.1, 110-6, 110-6.3, 110-7, 110-10, 110-12, 111-1, 111-2, 111-3, 111-4, 111-8, 112A-3, 112A-11.1, 112A-11.2, 112A-14, 112A-16, 112A-23, 112A-26, 112A-30, 114-1, 114-4, 114-11, 114-12, 115-3, 115-4, 115-6, 115-7, 115-7.2, 115-7.3, 115-10, 115-10.2a, 115-10.3, 115-10.6, 115-11, 115-11.1, 115-13, 115-15, 115-16, 115-17b, 116-2.1, 116-4, 124B-10, 124B-100, 124B-300, 124B-405, 124B-415, 124B-420, 124B-500, 124B-600, 124B-610, 124B-700, 124B-710, 124B-800, 124B-905, and 124B-1000 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/102-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 102-2)

Sec. 102-2. Reference to criminal code for words and phrases not described.

A word or phrase not described in this Code but which is described in Article 2 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as heretofore and hereafter amended, shall have the meaning therein described, except when a particular context in this Code clearly requires a different meaning.

(Source: Laws 1963, p. 2836.)

(725 ILCS 5/103-2.1)

Sec. 103-2.1. When statements by accused may be used.

(a) In this Section, "custodial interrogation" means any interrogation during which (i) a reasonable person in the subject's position would consider himself or herself to be in custody and (ii) during which a question is asked that is reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response.

In this Section, "place of detention" means a building or a police station that is a place of operation for a municipal police department or county sheriff department or other law enforcement agency, not a courthouse, that is owned or operated by a law enforcement agency at which persons are or may be held in detention in connection with criminal charges against those persons.

In this Section, "electronic recording" includes motion picture, audiotape, or videotape, or digital recording.

(b) An oral, written, or sign language statement of an accused made as a result of a custodial interrogation at a police station or other place of detention shall be presumed to be inadmissible as evidence against the accused in any criminal proceeding brought under Section 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, or 9-3.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or under clause (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code unless:

(1) an electronic recording is made of the custodial interrogation; and

(2) the recording is substantially accurate and not intentionally altered.

(c) Every electronic recording required under this Section must be preserved until such time as the defendant's conviction for any offense relating to the statement is final and all direct and habeas corpus appeals are exhausted, or the prosecution of such offenses is barred by law.

(d) If the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the defendant was subjected to a custodial interrogation in violation of this Section, then any statements made by the defendant during or following that non-recorded custodial interrogation, even if otherwise in compliance with this Section, are presumed to be inadmissible in any criminal proceeding against the defendant except for the purposes of impeachment.

(e) Nothing in this Section precludes the admission (i) of a statement made by the accused in open court at his or her trial, before a grand jury, or at a preliminary hearing, (ii) of a statement made during a custodial interrogation that was not recorded as required by this Section, because electronic recording was not feasible, (iii) of a voluntary statement, whether or not the result of a custodial interrogation, that has a bearing on the credibility of the accused as a witness, (iv) of a spontaneous statement that is not made in response to a question, (v) of a statement made after questioning that is routinely asked during the processing of the arrest of the suspect, (vi) of a statement made during a custodial interrogation by a suspect who requests, prior to making the statement, to respond to the interrogator's questions only if an electronic recording is not made of the statement, provided that an electronic recording is made of the statement of agreeing to respond to the interrogator's question, only if a recording is not made of the statement, (vii) of a statement made during a custodial interrogation that is conducted out-of-state, (viii) of a statement given at a time when the interrogators are unaware that a death has in fact occurred, or (ix) of any other statement that may be admissible under law. The State shall bear the burden of proving, by a preponderance of the evidence, that one of the exceptions described in this subsection (e) is applicable. Nothing in this Section precludes the admission of a statement, otherwise inadmissible under this Section, that is used only for impeachment and not as substantive evidence.

(f) The presumption of inadmissibility of a statement made by a suspect at a custodial interrogation at a police station or other place of detention may be overcome by a preponderance of the evidence that the statement was voluntarily given and is reliable, based on the totality of the circumstances.

(g) Any electronic recording of any statement made by an accused during a custodial interrogation that is compiled by any law enforcement agency as required by this Section for the purposes of fulfilling the requirements of this Section shall be confidential and exempt from public inspection and copying, as provided under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act, and the information shall not be transmitted to anyone except as needed to comply with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-206, eff. 7-18-05; 93-517, eff. 8-6-05; 94-117, eff. 7-5-05.)

(725 ILCS 5/103-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 103-8)

Sec. 103-8. Mandatory duty of officers.

Any peace officer who intentionally prevents the exercise by an accused of any right conferred by this Article or who intentionally fails to perform any act required of him by this Article shall be guilty of official misconduct and may be punished in accordance with Section 33-3 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961" approved July 28, 1961, as heretofore and hereafter amended.

(Source: Laws 1963, p. 2836.)

(725 ILCS 5/108-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 108-4)

Sec. 108-4. Issuance of search warrant.

(a) All warrants upon written complaint shall state the time and date of issuance and be the warrants of the judge issuing the same and not the warrants of the court in which he is then sitting and such warrants need not bear the seal of the court or clerk thereof. The complaint on which the warrant is issued need not be filed with the clerk of the court nor with the court if there is no clerk until the warrant has been executed or has been returned "not executed".

The search warrant upon written complaint may be issued electronically or electromagnetically by use of a facsimile transmission machine and any such warrant shall have the same validity as a written search warrant.

(b) Warrant upon oral testimony.

(1) General rule. When the offense in connection with which a search warrant is sought constitutes terrorism or any related offense as defined in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, and if the circumstances make it reasonable to dispense, in whole or in part, with a written affidavit, a judge may issue a warrant based upon sworn testimony communicated by telephone or other appropriate means, including facsimile transmission.

(2) Application. The person who is requesting the warrant shall prepare a document to be known as a duplicate original warrant and shall read such duplicate original warrant, verbatim, to the judge. The judge shall enter, verbatim, what is so read to the judge on a document to be known as the original warrant. The judge may direct that the warrant be modified.

(3) Issuance. If the judge is satisfied that the offense in connection with which the search warrant is sought constitutes terrorism or any related offense as defined in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, that the circumstances are such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit, and that grounds for the application exist or that there is probable cause to believe that they exist, the judge shall order the issuance of a warrant by directing the person requesting the warrant to sign the judge's name on the duplicate original warrant. The judge shall immediately sign the original warrant and enter on the face of the original warrant the exact time when the warrant was ordered to be issued. The finding of probable cause for a warrant upon oral testimony may be based on the same kind of evidence as is sufficient for a warrant upon affidavit.

(4) Recording and certification of testimony. When a caller informs the judge that the purpose of the call is to request a warrant, the judge shall immediately place under oath each person whose testimony forms a basis of the application and each person applying for that warrant. If a voice recording device is available, the judge shall record by means of the device all of the call after the caller informs the judge that the purpose of the call is to request a warrant, otherwise a stenographic or longhand verbatim record shall be made. If a voice recording device is used or a stenographic record made, the judge shall have the record transcribed, shall certify the accuracy of the transcription, and shall file a copy of the original record and the transcription with the court. If a longhand verbatim record is made, the judge shall file a signed copy with the court.

(5) Contents. The contents of a warrant upon oral testimony shall be the same as the contents of a warrant upon affidavit.

(6) Additional rule for execution. The person who executes the warrant shall enter the exact time of execution on the face of the duplicate original warrant.

(7) Motion to suppress based on failure to obtain a written affidavit. Evidence obtained pursuant to a warrant issued under this subsection (b) is not subject to a motion to suppress on the ground that the circumstances were not such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit, absent a finding of bad faith. All other grounds to move to suppress are preserved.

(8) This subsection (b) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2005.

(9) No evidence obtained pursuant to this subsection (b) shall be inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of subdivision (8).

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)

(725 ILCS 5/108-12) (from Ch. 38, par. 108-12)

Sec. 108-12. Disposition of obscene material. In the case of any material seized which is alleged to have been possessed or used or intended to be used contrary to, or is evidence of a violation of, Section 11-20 of the "Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 ", approved July 28, 1961, as heretofore and hereafter amended, the court before which the material is returned shall, upon written request of any person from whom the material was seized or any person claiming ownership or other right to possession of such material, enter an order providing for a hearing to determine the obscene nature thereof not more than 10 days after such return. If the material is determined to be obscene it shall be held pending further proceedings as provided by Section 108-11 of this Code. If the material is determined not to be obscene it shall be returned to the person from whom or place from which it was seized, or to the person claiming ownership or other right to possession of such material; provided that enough of the record material may be retained by the State for purposes of appellate proceedings. The decision of the court upon this hearing shall not be admissible as evidence in any other proceeding nor shall it be res judicata of any question in any other proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 83-334.)

(725 ILCS 5/108B-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 108B-3)

Sec. 108B-3. Authorization for the interception of private communication.

(a) The State's Attorney, or a person designated in writing or by law to act for him and to perform his duties during his absence or disability, may authorize, in writing, an ex parte application to the chief judge of a court of competent jurisdiction for an order authorizing the interception of a private communication when no party has consented to the interception and (i) the interception may provide evidence of, or may assist in the apprehension of a person who has committed, is committing or is about to commit, a violation of Section 8-1(b) (solicitation of murder), 8-1.2 (solicitation of murder for hire), 9-1 (first degree murder), 10-9 (involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons), paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), subdivision (a)(2)(A) or (a)(2)(B) of Section 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a minor engaged in prostitution), 11-16 (pandering), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a minor engaged in prostitution), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping and aggravated juvenile pimping), or 29B-1 (money laundering) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 401, 401.1 (controlled substance trafficking), 405, 405.1 (criminal drug conspiracy) or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or any Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, a violation of Section 24-2.1, 24-2.2, 24-3, 24-3.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.4, 24-4, or 24-5 or subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7), 24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(c) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or conspiracy to commit money laundering or conspiracy to commit first degree murder; (ii) in response to a clear and present danger of imminent death or great bodily harm to persons resulting from: (1) a kidnapping or the holding of a hostage by force or the threat of the imminent use of force; or (2) the occupation by force or the threat of the imminent use of force of any premises, place, vehicle, vessel or aircraft; (iii) to aid an investigation or prosecution of a civil action brought under the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act when there is probable cause to believe the interception of the private communication will provide evidence that a streetgang is committing, has committed, or will commit a second or subsequent gang-related offense or that the interception of the private communication will aid in the collection of a judgment entered under that Act; or (iv) upon information and belief that a streetgang has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a felony.

(b) The State's Attorney or a person designated in writing or by law to act for the State's Attorney and to perform his or her duties during his or her absence or disability, may authorize, in writing, an ex parte application to the chief judge of a circuit court for an order authorizing the interception of a private communication when no party has consented to the interception and the interception may provide evidence of, or may assist in the apprehension of a person who has committed, is committing or is about to commit, a violation of an offense under Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b-1) Subsection (b) is inoperative on and after January 1, 2005.

(b-2) No conversations recorded or monitored pursuant to subsection (b) shall be made inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of subsection (b-1).

(c) As used in this Section, "streetgang" and "gang-related" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1464, eff. 8-20-10; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/108B-7.5)

Sec. 108B-7.5. Applicability.

(a) The requirements of subdivisions (a)(3)(iv) and (a)(3)(v) of Section 108B-4, subdivision (1)(b) of Section 108B-5, and subdivision (a)(3) of Section 108B-7 of this Article relating to the specification of the facilities from which, or the place where, the communication is to be intercepted do not apply if:

(1) in the case of an application with respect to the interception of an oral communication:

(A) the application is by the State's Attorney, or a person designated in writing or by law to act for the State's Attorney and to perform his or her duties during his or her absence or disability;

(B) the application contains a full and complete statement as to why such specification is not practical and identifies the person committing the offense and whose communications are to be intercepted;

(C) the judge finds that such specification is not practical; and

(D) the order sought is in connection with an investigation of a violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(2) in the case of an application with respect to a wire or electronic communication:

(A) the application is by the State's Attorney, or a person designated in writing or by law to act for the State's Attorney and to perform his or her duties during his or her absence or disability;

(B) the application identifies the person believed to be committing the offense and whose communications are to be intercepted and the applicant makes a showing that there is probable cause to believe that the person's actions could have the effect of thwarting interception from a specified facility;

(C) the judge finds that such showing has been adequately made;

(D) the order authorizing or approving the interception is limited to interception only for such time as it is reasonable to presume that the person identified in the application is or was reasonably proximate to the instrument through which such communication will be or was transmitted; and

(E) the order sought is in connection with an investigation of a violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) An interception of a communication under an order with respect to which the requirements of subdivisions (a)(3)(iv) and (a)(3)(v) of Section 108B-4, subdivision (1)(b) of Section 108B-5, and subdivision (a)(3) of Section 108B-7 of this Article do not apply by reason of this Section shall not begin until the place where the communication is to be intercepted is ascertained by the person implementing the interception order. A provider of wire or electronic communications service that has received an order as provided for in subdivision (a)(2) may upon notice to the People move the court to modify or quash the order on the ground that its assistance with respect to the interception cannot be performed in a timely or reasonable fashion. The court shall decide such a motion expeditiously.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(725 ILCS 5/108B-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 108B-8)

Sec. 108B-8. Emergency use of eavesdropping device.

(a) Whenever, upon informal application by the State's Attorney, a chief judge of competent jurisdiction determines that:

(1) there may be grounds upon which an order could be issued under this Article;

(2) there is probable cause to believe that an emergency situation exists with respect to the investigation of an offense enumerated in Section 108B-3; and

(3) there is probable cause to believe that a substantial danger to life or limb exists justifying the authorization for immediate interception of a private communication before formal application for an order could with due diligence be submitted to him and acted upon; the chief judge may grant oral approval for an interception, without an order, conditioned upon the filing with him, within 48 hours, of an application for an order under Section 108B-4 which shall also recite the oral approval under this Section and be retroactive to the time of the oral approval.

(b) Interception under oral approval under this Section shall immediately terminate when the communication sought is obtained or when the application for an order is denied, whichever is earlier.

(c) In the event no formal application for an order is subsequently made under this Section, the content of any private communication intercepted under oral approval under this Section shall be treated as having been obtained in violation of this Article.

(d) In the event no application for an order is made under this Section or an application made under this Section is subsequently denied, the judge shall cause an inventory to be served under Section 108B-11 of this Article and shall require the tape or other recording of the intercepted communication to be delivered to, and sealed by, the judge. The evidence shall be retained by the court, and it shall not be used or disclosed in any legal proceeding, except a civil action brought by an aggrieved person under Section 14-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or as otherwise authorized by the order of a court of competent jurisdiction. In addition to other remedies or penalties provided by law, failure to deliver any tape or other recording to the chief judge shall be punishable as contempt by the judge directing the delivery.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

(725 ILCS 5/109-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 109-3)

Sec. 109-3. Preliminary examination.) (a) The judge shall hold the defendant to answer to the court having jurisdiction of the offense if from the evidence it appears there is probable cause to believe an offense has been committed by the defendant, as provided in Section 109-3.1 of this Code, if the offense is a felony.

(b) If the defendant waives preliminary examination the judge shall hold him to answer and may, or on the demand of the prosecuting attorney shall, cause the witnesses for the State to be examined. After hearing the testimony if it appears that there is not probable cause to believe the defendant guilty of any offense the judge shall discharge him.

(c) During the examination of any witness or when the defendant is making a statement or testifying the judge may and on the request of the defendant or State shall exclude all other witnesses. He may also cause the witnesses to be kept separate and to be prevented from communicating with each other until all are examined.

(d) If the defendant is held to answer the judge may require any material witness for the State or defendant to enter into a written undertaking to appear at the trial, and may provide for the forfeiture of a sum certain in the event the witness does not appear at the trial. Any witness who refuses to execute a recognizance may be committed by the judge to the custody of the sheriff until trial or further order of the court having jurisdiction of the cause. Any witness who executes a recognizance and fails to comply with its terms shall, in addition to any forfeiture provided in the recognizance, be subject to the penalty provided in Section 32-10 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as heretofore and hereafter amended, for violation of bail bond.

(e) During preliminary hearing or examination the defendant may move for an order of suppression of evidence pursuant to Section 114-11 or 114-12 of this Act or for other reasons, and may move for dismissal of the charge pursuant to Section 114-1 of this Act or for other reasons.

(Source: P.A. 83-644.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-2)

Sec. 110-2. Release on own recognizance. When from all the circumstances the court is of the opinion that the defendant will appear as required either before or after conviction and the defendant will not pose a danger to any person or the community and that the defendant will comply with all conditions of bond, which shall include the defendant's current address with a written admonishment to the defendant that he or she must comply with the provisions of Section 110-12 of this Code regarding any change in his or her address, the defendant may be released on his or her own recognizance. The defendant's address shall at all times remain a matter of public record with the clerk of the court. A failure to appear as required by such recognizance shall constitute an offense subject to the penalty provided in Section 32-10 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as heretofore and hereafter amended, for violation of the bail bond, and any obligated sum fixed in the recognizance shall be forfeited and collected in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 110-7 of this Code.

This Section shall be liberally construed to effectuate the purpose of relying upon contempt of court proceedings or criminal sanctions instead of financial loss to assure the appearance of the defendant, and that the defendant will not pose a danger to any person or the community and that the defendant will comply with all conditions of bond. Monetary bail should be set only when it is determined that no other conditions of release will reasonably assure the defendant's appearance in court, that the defendant does not present a danger to any person or the community and that the defendant will comply with all conditions of bond.

The State may appeal any order permitting release by personal recognizance.

(Source: P.A. 89-377, eff. 8-18-95.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-4)

Sec. 110-4. Bailable Offenses.

(a) All persons shall be bailable before conviction, except the following offenses where the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant is guilty of the offense: capital offenses; offenses for which a sentence of life imprisonment may be imposed as a consequence of conviction; felony offenses for which a sentence of imprisonment, without conditional and revocable release, shall be imposed by law as a consequence of conviction, where the court after a hearing, determines that the release of the defendant would pose a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons; stalking or aggravated stalking, where the court, after a hearing, determines that the release of the defendant would pose a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense and denial of bail is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based; or unlawful use of weapons in violation of item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when that offense occurred in a school or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school, where the court, after a hearing, determines that the release of the defendant would pose a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person and denial of bail is necessary to prevent fulfillment of that threat; or making a terrorist threat in violation of Section 29D-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or an attempt to commit the offense of making a terrorist threat, where the court, after a hearing, determines that the release of the defendant would pose a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person and denial of bail is necessary to prevent fulfillment of that threat.

(b) A person seeking release on bail who is charged with a capital offense or an offense for which a sentence of life imprisonment may be imposed shall not be bailable until a hearing is held wherein such person has the burden of demonstrating that the proof of his guilt is not evident and the presumption is not great.

(c) Where it is alleged that bail should be denied to a person upon the grounds that the person presents a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons, the burden of proof of such allegations shall be upon the State.

(d) When it is alleged that bail should be denied to a person charged with stalking or aggravated stalking upon the grounds set forth in Section 110-6.3 of this Code, the burden of proof of those allegations shall be upon the State.

(Source: P.A. 95-952, eff. 8-29-08.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-5)

Sec. 110-5. Determining the amount of bail and conditions of release.

(a) In determining the amount of monetary bail or conditions of release, if any, which will reasonably assure the appearance of a defendant as required or the safety of any other person or the community and the likelihood of compliance by the defendant with all the conditions of bail, the court shall, on the basis of available information, take into account such matters as the nature and circumstances of the offense charged, whether the evidence shows that as part of the offense there was a use of violence or threatened use of violence, whether the offense involved corruption of public officials or employees, whether there was physical harm or threats of physical harm to any public official, public employee, judge, prosecutor, juror or witness, senior citizen, child or handicapped person, whether evidence shows that during the offense or during the arrest the defendant possessed or used a firearm, machine gun, explosive or metal piercing ammunition or explosive bomb device or any military or paramilitary armament, whether the evidence shows that the offense committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, the condition of the victim, any written statement submitted by the victim or proffer or representation by the State regarding the impact which the alleged criminal conduct has had on the victim and the victim's concern, if any, with further contact with the defendant if released on bail, whether the offense was based on racial, religious, sexual orientation or ethnic hatred, the likelihood of the filing of a greater charge, the likelihood of conviction, the sentence applicable upon conviction, the weight of the evidence against such defendant, whether there exists motivation or ability to flee, whether there is any verification as to prior residence, education, or family ties in the local jurisdiction, in another county, state or foreign country, the defendant's employment, financial resources, character and mental condition, past conduct, prior use of alias names or dates of birth, and length of residence in the community, the consent of the defendant to periodic drug testing in accordance with Section 110-6.5, whether a foreign national defendant is lawfully admitted in the United States of America, whether the government of the foreign national maintains an extradition treaty with the United States by which the foreign government will extradite to the United States its national for a trial for a crime allegedly committed in the United States, whether the defendant is currently subject to deportation or exclusion under the immigration laws of the United States, whether the defendant, although a United States citizen, is considered under the law of any foreign state a national of that state for the purposes of extradition or non-extradition to the United States, the amount of unrecovered proceeds lost as a result of the alleged offense, the source of bail funds tendered or sought to be tendered for bail, whether from the totality of the court's consideration, the loss of funds posted or sought to be posted for bail will not deter the defendant from flight, whether the evidence shows that the defendant is engaged in significant possession, manufacture, or delivery of a controlled substance or cannabis, either individually or in consort with others, whether at the time of the offense charged he was on bond or pre-trial release pending trial, probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge pursuant to this Code or the comparable Code of any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is on bond or pre-trial release pending the imposition or execution of sentence or appeal of sentence for any offense under the laws of Illinois or any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is under parole or mandatory supervised release or work release from the Illinois Department of Corrections or any penal institution or corrections department of any state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's record of convictions, whether the defendant has been convicted of a misdemeanor or ordinance offense in Illinois or similar offense in other state or federal jurisdiction within the 10 years preceding the current charge or convicted of a felony in Illinois, whether the defendant was convicted of an offense in another state or federal jurisdiction that would be a felony if committed in Illinois within the 20 years preceding the current charge or has been convicted of such felony and released from the penitentiary within 20 years preceding the current charge if a penitentiary sentence was imposed in Illinois or other state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's records of juvenile adjudication of delinquency in any jurisdiction, any record of appearance or failure to appear by the defendant at court proceedings, whether there was flight to avoid arrest or prosecution, whether the defendant escaped or attempted to escape to avoid arrest, whether the defendant refused to identify himself, or whether there was a refusal by the defendant to be fingerprinted as required by law. Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with this Section may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or defendant. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at criminal trials. If the State presents evidence that the offense committed by the defendant was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, and if the court determines that the evidence may be substantiated, the court shall prohibit the defendant from associating with other members of the organized gang as a condition of bail or release. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(b) The amount of bail shall be:

(1) Sufficient to assure compliance with the conditions set forth in the bail bond, which shall include the defendant's current address with a written admonishment to the defendant that he or she must comply with the provisions of Section 110-12 regarding any change in his or her address. The defendant's address shall at all times remain a matter of public record with the clerk of the court.

(2) Not oppressive.

(3) Considerate of the financial ability of the accused.

(4) When a person is charged with a drug related offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or possession or delivery of a controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the full street value of the drugs seized shall be considered. "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the basis of a proffer by the State based upon reliable information of a law enforcement official contained in a written report as to the amount seized and such proffer may be used by the court as to the current street value of the smallest unit of the drug seized.

(b-5) Upon the filing of a written request demonstrating reasonable cause, the State's Attorney may request a source of bail hearing either before or after the posting of any funds. If the hearing is granted, before the posting of any bail, the accused must file a written notice requesting that the court conduct a source of bail hearing. The notice must be accompanied by justifying affidavits stating the legitimate and lawful source of funds for bail. At the hearing, the court shall inquire into any matters stated in any justifying affidavits, and may also inquire into matters appropriate to the determination which shall include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of any surety; and

(2) the source of any money or property deposited by any surety, and whether any such money or property constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(3) the source of any money posted as cash bail, and whether any such money constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(4) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of the person posting cash bail.

Upon setting the hearing, the court shall examine, under oath, any persons who may possess material information.

The State's Attorney has a right to attend the hearing, to call witnesses and to examine any witness in the proceeding. The court shall, upon request of the State's Attorney, continue the proceedings for a reasonable period to allow the State's Attorney to investigate the matter raised in any testimony or affidavit. If the hearing is granted after the accused has posted bail, the court shall conduct a hearing consistent with this subsection (b-5). At the conclusion of the hearing, the court must issue an order either approving of disapproving the bail.

(c) When a person is charged with an offense punishable by fine only the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the maximum penalty.

(d) When a person has been convicted of an offense and only a fine has been imposed the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the fine.

(e) The State may appeal any order granting bail or setting a given amount for bail.

(f) When a person is charged with a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(1) whether the alleged incident involved harassment or abuse, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(2) whether the person has a history of domestic violence, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, or a history of other criminal acts;

(3) based on the mental health of the person;

(4) whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(5) whether the person has been, or is, potentially a threat to any other person;

(6) whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(7) whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(8) based on the severity of the alleged incident that is the basis of the alleged offense, including, but not limited to, the duration of the current incident, and whether the alleged incident involved physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim's pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(9) whether a separation of the person from the alleged victim or a termination of the relationship between the person and the alleged victim has recently occurred or is pending;

(10) whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the alleged victim, including, but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the alleged victim or victim's family member or members;

(11) whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(12) based on any information contained in the complaint and any police reports, affidavits, or other documents accompanying the complaint,

the court may, in its discretion, order the respondent to undergo a risk assessment evaluation conducted by an Illinois Department of Human Services approved partner abuse intervention program provider, pretrial service, probation, or parole agency. These agencies shall have access to summaries of the defendant's criminal history, which shall not include victim interviews or information, for the risk evaluation. Based on the information collected from the 12 points to be considered at a bail hearing for a violation of an order of protection, the results of any risk evaluation conducted and the other circumstances of the violation, the court may order that the person, as a condition of bail, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 96-688, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-5.1)

Sec. 110-5.1. Bail; certain persons charged with violent crimes against family or household members.

(a) Subject to subsection (c), a person who is charged with a violent crime shall appear before the court for the setting of bail if the alleged victim was a family or household member at the time of the alleged offense, and if any of the following applies:

(1) the person charged, at the time of the alleged offense, was subject to the terms of an order of protection issued under Section 112A-14 of this Code or Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or previously was convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a violent crime if the victim was a family or household member at the time of the offense or a violation of a substantially similar municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States if the victim was a family or household member at the time of the offense;

(2) the arresting officer indicates in a police report or other document accompanying the complaint any of the following:

(A) that the arresting officer observed on the alleged victim objective manifestations of physical harm that the arresting officer reasonably believes are a result of the alleged offense;

(B) that the arresting officer reasonably believes that the person had on the person's person at the time of the alleged offense a deadly weapon;

(C) that the arresting officer reasonably believes that the person presents a credible threat of serious physical harm to the alleged victim or to any other person if released on bail before trial.

(b) To the extent that information about any of the following is available to the court, the court shall consider all of the following, in addition to any other circumstances considered by the court, before setting bail for a person who appears before the court pursuant to subsection (a):

(1) whether the person has a history of domestic violence or a history of other violent acts;

(2) the mental health of the person;

(3) whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(4) whether the person is potentially a threat to any other person;

(5) whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(6) whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(7) the severity of the alleged violence that is the basis of the alleged offense, including, but not limited to, the duration of the alleged violent incident, and whether the alleged violent incident involved serious physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim's pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(8) whether a separation of the person from the alleged victim or a termination of the relationship between the person and the alleged victim has recently occurred or is pending;

(9) whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the alleged victim, including, but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the alleged victim;

(10) whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(11) any information contained in the complaint and any police reports, affidavits, or other documents accompanying the complaint.

(c) Upon the court's own motion or the motion of a party and upon any terms that the court may direct, a court may permit a person who is required to appear before it by subsection (a) to appear by video conferencing equipment. If, in the opinion of the court, the appearance in person or by video conferencing equipment of a person who is charged with a misdemeanor and who is required to appear before the court by subsection (a) is not practicable, the court may waive the appearance and release the person on bail on one or both of the following types of bail in an amount set by the court:

(1) a bail bond secured by a deposit of 10% of the amount of the bond in cash;

(2) a surety bond, a bond secured by real estate or securities as allowed by law, or the deposit of cash, at the option of the person.

Subsection (a) does not create a right in a person to appear before the court for the setting of bail or prohibit a court from requiring any person charged with a violent crime who is not described in subsection (a) from appearing before the court for the setting of bail.

(d) As used in this Section:

(1) "Violent crime" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(2) "Family or household member" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 112A-3 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-6)

Sec. 110-6. (a) Upon verified application by the State or the defendant or on its own motion the court before which the proceeding is pending may increase or reduce the amount of bail or may alter the conditions of the bail bond or grant bail where it has been previously revoked or denied. If bail has been previously revoked pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section or if bail has been denied to the defendant pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 110-6.1 or subsection (e) of Section 110-6.3, the defendant shall be required to present a verified application setting forth in detail any new facts not known or obtainable at the time of the previous revocation or denial of bail proceedings. If the court grants bail where it has been previously revoked or denied, the court shall state on the record of the proceedings the findings of facts and conclusion of law upon which such order is based.

(b) Violation of the conditions of Section 110-10 of this Code or any special conditions of bail as ordered by the court shall constitute grounds for the court to increase the amount of bail, or otherwise alter the conditions of bail, or, where the alleged offense committed on bail is a forcible felony in Illinois or a Class 2 or greater offense under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, revoke bail pursuant to the appropriate provisions of subsection (e) of this Section.

(c) Reasonable notice of such application by the defendant shall be given to the State.

(d) Reasonable notice of such application by the State shall be given to the defendant, except as provided in subsection (e).

(e) Upon verified application by the State stating facts or circumstances constituting a violation or a threatened violation of any of the conditions of the bail bond the court may issue a warrant commanding any peace officer to bring the defendant without unnecessary delay before the court for a hearing on the matters set forth in the application. If the actual court before which the proceeding is pending is absent or otherwise unavailable another court may issue a warrant pursuant to this Section. When the defendant is charged with a felony offense and while free on bail is charged with a subsequent felony offense and is the subject of a proceeding set forth in Section 109-1 or 109-3 of this Code, upon the filing of a verified petition by the State alleging a violation of Section 110-10 (a) (4) of this Code, the court shall without prior notice to the defendant, grant leave to file such application and shall order the transfer of the defendant and the application without unnecessary delay to the court before which the previous felony matter is pending for a hearing as provided in subsection (b) or this subsection of this Section. The defendant shall be held without bond pending transfer to and a hearing before such court. At the conclusion of the hearing based on a violation of the conditions of Section 110-10 of this Code or any special conditions of bail as ordered by the court the court may enter an order increasing the amount of bail or alter the conditions of bail as deemed appropriate.

(f) Where the alleged violation consists of the violation of one or more felony statutes of any jurisdiction which would be a forcible felony in Illinois or a Class 2 or greater offense under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and the defendant is on bail for the alleged commission of a felony, or where the defendant is on bail for a felony domestic battery (enhanced pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012), aggravated domestic battery, aggravated battery, unlawful restraint, aggravated unlawful restraint or domestic battery in violation of item (1) of subsection (a) of Section 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against a family or household member as defined in Section 112A-3 of this Code and the violation is an offense of domestic battery against the same victim the court shall, on the motion of the State or its own motion, revoke bail in accordance with the following provisions:

(1) The court shall hold the defendant without bail pending the hearing on the alleged breach; however, if the defendant is not admitted to bail the hearing shall be commenced within 10 days from the date the defendant is taken into custody or the defendant may not be held any longer without bail, unless delay is occasioned by the defendant. Where defendant occasions the delay, the running of the 10 day period is temporarily suspended and resumes at the termination of the period of delay. Where defendant occasions the delay with 5 or fewer days remaining in the 10 day period, the court may grant a period of up to 5 additional days to the State for good cause shown. The State, however, shall retain the right to proceed to hearing on the alleged violation at any time, upon reasonable notice to the defendant and the court.

(2) At a hearing on the alleged violation the State has the burden of going forward and proving the violation by clear and convincing evidence. The evidence shall be presented in open court with the opportunity to testify, to present witnesses in his behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses if any are called by the State, and representation by counsel and if the defendant is indigent to have counsel appointed for him. The rules of evidence applicable in criminal trials in this State shall not govern the admissibility of evidence at such hearing. Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with hearings for increase or revocation of bail may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or defendant. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at criminal trials. A motion by the defendant to suppress evidence or to suppress a confession shall not be entertained at such a hearing. Evidence that proof may have been obtained as a result of an unlawful search and seizure or through improper interrogation is not relevant to this hearing.

(3) Upon a finding by the court that the State has established by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant has committed a forcible felony or a Class 2 or greater offense under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while admitted to bail, or where the defendant is on bail for a felony domestic battery (enhanced pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012), aggravated domestic battery, aggravated battery, unlawful restraint, aggravated unlawful restraint or domestic battery in violation of item (1) of subsection (a) of Section 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against a family or household member as defined in Section 112A-3 of this Code and the violation is an offense of domestic battery, against the same victim, the court shall revoke the bail of the defendant and hold the defendant for trial without bail. Neither the finding of the court nor any transcript or other record of the hearing shall be admissible in the State's case in chief, but shall be admissible for impeachment, or as provided in Section 115-10.1 of this Code or in a perjury proceeding.

(4) If the bail of any defendant is revoked pursuant to paragraph (f) (3) of this Section, the defendant may demand and shall be entitled to be brought to trial on the offense with respect to which he was formerly released on bail within 90 days after the date on which his bail was revoked. If the defendant is not brought to trial within the 90 day period required by the preceding sentence, he shall not be held longer without bail. In computing the 90 day period, the court shall omit any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the defendant.

(5) If the defendant either is arrested on a warrant issued pursuant to this Code or is arrested for an unrelated offense and it is subsequently discovered that the defendant is a subject of another warrant or warrants issued pursuant to this Code, the defendant shall be transferred promptly to the court which issued such warrant. If, however, the defendant appears initially before a court other than the court which issued such warrant, the non-issuing court shall not alter the amount of bail heretofore set on such warrant unless the court sets forth on the record of proceedings the conclusions of law and facts which are the basis for such altering of another court's bond. The non-issuing court shall not alter another courts bail set on a warrant unless the interests of justice and public safety are served by such action.

(g) The State may appeal any order where the court has increased or reduced the amount of bail or altered the conditions of the bail bond or granted bail where it has previously been revoked.

(Source: P.A. 93-417, eff. 8-5-03; 94-556, eff. 9-11-05.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-6.3)

Sec. 110-6.3. Denial of bail in stalking and aggravated stalking offenses.

(a) Upon verified petition by the State, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether bail should be denied to a defendant who is charged with stalking or aggravated stalking, when it is alleged that the defendant's admission to bail poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense, and denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based.

(1) A petition may be filed without prior notice to the defendant at the first appearance before a judge, or within 21 calendar days, except as provided in Section 110-6, after arrest and release of the defendant upon reasonable notice to defendant; provided that while the petition is pending before the court, the defendant if previously released shall not be detained.

(2) The hearing shall be held immediately upon the defendant's appearance before the court, unless for good cause shown the defendant or the State seeks a continuance. A continuance on motion of the defendant may not exceed 5 calendar days, and the defendant may be held in custody during the continuance. A continuance on the motion of the State may not exceed 3 calendar days; however, the defendant may be held in custody during the continuance under this provision if the defendant has been previously found to have violated an order of protection or has been previously convicted of, or granted court supervision for, any of the offenses set forth in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, against the same person as the alleged victim of the stalking or aggravated stalking offense.

(b) The court may deny bail to the defendant when, after the hearing, it is determined that:

(1) the proof is evident or the presumption great that the defendant has committed the offense of stalking or aggravated stalking; and

(2) the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense; and

(3) the denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based; and

(4) the court finds that no condition or combination of conditions set forth in subsection (b) of Section 110-10 of this Code, including mental health treatment at a community mental health center, hospital, or facility of the Department of Human Services, can reasonably assure the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense.

(c) Conduct of the hearings.

(1) The hearing on the defendant's culpability and threat to the alleged victim of the offense shall be conducted in accordance with the following provisions:

(A) Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered at the hearing may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or by defendant. Defendant has the right to be represented by counsel, and if he is indigent, to have counsel appointed for him. Defendant shall have the opportunity to testify, to present witnesses in his own behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses if any are called by the State. The defendant has the right to present witnesses in his favor. When the ends of justice so require, the court may exercise its discretion and compel the appearance of a complaining witness. The court shall state on the record reasons for granting a defense request to compel the presence of a complaining witness. Cross-examination of a complaining witness at the pretrial detention hearing for the purpose of impeaching the witness' credibility is insufficient reason to compel the presence of the witness. In deciding whether to compel the appearance of a complaining witness, the court shall be considerate of the emotional and physical well-being of the witness. The pretrial detention hearing is not to be used for the purposes of discovery, and the post arraignment rules of discovery do not apply. The State shall tender to the defendant, prior to the hearing, copies of defendant's criminal history, if any, if available, and any written or recorded statements and the substance of any oral statements made by any person, if relied upon by the State. The rules concerning the admissibility of evidence in criminal trials do not apply to the presentation and consideration of information at the hearing. At the trial concerning the offense for which the hearing was conducted neither the finding of the court nor any transcript or other record of the hearing shall be admissible in the State's case in chief, but shall be admissible for impeachment, or as provided in Section 115-10.1 of this Code, or in a perjury proceeding.

(B) A motion by the defendant to suppress evidence or to suppress a confession shall not be entertained. Evidence that proof may have been obtained as the result of an unlawful search and seizure or through improper interrogation is not relevant to this state of the prosecution.

(2) The facts relied upon by the court to support a finding that:

(A) the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense; and

(B) the denial of release on bail or personal recognizance is necessary to prevent fulfillment of the threat upon which the charge is based;

shall be supported by clear and convincing evidence presented by the State.

(d) Factors to be considered in making a determination of the threat to the alleged victim of the offense. The court may, in determining whether the defendant poses, at the time of the hearing, a real and present threat to the physical safety of the alleged victim of the offense, consider but shall not be limited to evidence or testimony concerning:

(1) The nature and circumstances of the offense charged;

(2) The history and characteristics of the defendant including:

(A) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior. The evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations or other proceedings;

(B) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history that tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history.

(3) The nature of the threat which is the basis of the charge against the defendant;

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them;

(5) The age and physical condition of any person assaulted by the defendant;

(6) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons;

(7) Whether, at the time of the current offense or any other offense or arrest, the defendant was on probation, parole, mandatory supervised release or other release from custody pending trial, sentencing, appeal or completion of sentence for an offense under federal or state law;

(8) Any other factors, including those listed in Section 110-5 of this Code, deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior.

(e) The court shall, in any order denying bail to a person charged with stalking or aggravated stalking:

(1) briefly summarize the evidence of the defendant's culpability and its reasons for concluding that the defendant should be held without bail;

(2) direct that the defendant be committed to the custody of the sheriff for confinement in the county jail pending trial;

(3) direct that the defendant be given a reasonable opportunity for private consultation with counsel, and for communication with others of his choice by visitation, mail and telephone; and

(4) direct that the sheriff deliver the defendant as required for appearances in connection with court proceedings.

(f) If the court enters an order for the detention of the defendant under subsection (e) of this Section, the defendant shall be brought to trial on the offense for which he is detained within 90 days after the date on which the order for detention was entered. If the defendant is not brought to trial within the 90 day period required by this subsection (f), he shall not be held longer without bail. In computing the 90 day period, the court shall omit any period of delay resulting from a continuance granted at the request of the defendant. The court shall immediately notify the alleged victim of the offense that the defendant has been admitted to bail under this subsection.

(g) Any person shall be entitled to appeal any order entered under this Section denying bail to the defendant.

(h) The State may appeal any order entered under this Section denying any motion for denial of bail.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall be construed as modifying or limiting in any way the defendant's presumption of innocence in further criminal proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-7)

Sec. 110-7. Deposit of Bail Security.

(a) The person for whom bail has been set shall execute the bail bond and deposit with the clerk of the court before which the proceeding is pending a sum of money equal to 10% of the bail, but in no event shall such deposit be less than $25. The clerk of the court shall provide a space on each form for a person other than the accused who has provided the money for the posting of bail to so indicate and a space signed by an accused who has executed the bail bond indicating whether a person other than the accused has provided the money for the posting of bail. The form shall also include a written notice to such person who has provided the defendant with the money for the posting of bail indicating that the bail may be used to pay costs, attorney's fees, fines, or other purposes authorized by the court and if the defendant fails to comply with the conditions of the bail bond, the court shall enter an order declaring the bail to be forfeited. The written notice must be: (1) distinguishable from the surrounding text; (2) in bold type or underscored; and (3) in a type size at least 2 points larger than the surrounding type. When a person for whom bail has been set is charged with an offense under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act which is a Class X felony, or making a terrorist threat in violation of Section 29D-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or an attempt to commit the offense of making a terrorist threat, the court may require the defendant to deposit a sum equal to 100% of the bail. Where any person is charged with a forcible felony while free on bail and is the subject of proceedings under Section 109-3 of this Code the judge conducting the preliminary examination may also conduct a hearing upon the application of the State pursuant to the provisions of Section 110-6 of this Code to increase or revoke the bail for that person's prior alleged offense.

(b) Upon depositing this sum and any bond fee authorized by law, the person shall be released from custody subject to the conditions of the bail bond.

(c) Once bail has been given and a charge is pending or is thereafter filed in or transferred to a court of competent jurisdiction the latter court shall continue the original bail in that court subject to the provisions of Section 110-6 of this Code.

(d) After conviction the court may order that the original bail stand as bail pending appeal or deny, increase or reduce bail subject to the provisions of Section 110-6.2.

(e) After the entry of an order by the trial court allowing or denying bail pending appeal either party may apply to the reviewing court having jurisdiction or to a justice thereof sitting in vacation for an order increasing or decreasing the amount of bail or allowing or denying bail pending appeal subject to the provisions of Section 110-6.2.

(f) When the conditions of the bail bond have been performed and the accused has been discharged from all obligations in the cause the clerk of the court shall return to the accused or to the defendant's designee by an assignment executed at the time the bail amount is deposited, unless the court orders otherwise, 90% of the sum which had been deposited and shall retain as bail bond costs 10% of the amount deposited. However, in no event shall the amount retained by the clerk as bail bond costs be less than $5. Bail bond deposited by or on behalf of a defendant in one case may be used, in the court's discretion, to satisfy financial obligations of that same defendant incurred in a different case due to a fine, court costs, restitution or fees of the defendant's attorney of record. In counties with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the court shall not order bail bond deposited by or on behalf of a defendant in one case to be used to satisfy financial obligations of that same defendant in a different case until the bail bond is first used to satisfy court costs and attorney's fees in the case in which the bail bond has been deposited and any other unpaid child support obligations are satisfied. In counties with a population of less than 3,000,000, the court shall not order bail bond deposited by or on behalf of a defendant in one case to be used to satisfy financial obligations of that same defendant in a different case until the bail bond is first used to satisfy court costs in the case in which the bail bond has been deposited.

At the request of the defendant the court may order such 90% of defendant's bail deposit, or whatever amount is repayable to defendant from such deposit, to be paid to defendant's attorney of record.

(g) If the accused does not comply with the conditions of the bail bond the court having jurisdiction shall enter an order declaring the bail to be forfeited. Notice of such order of forfeiture shall be mailed forthwith to the accused at his last known address. If the accused does not appear and surrender to the court having jurisdiction within 30 days from the date of the forfeiture or within such period satisfy the court that appearance and surrender by the accused is impossible and without his fault the court shall enter judgment for the State if the charge for which the bond was given was a felony or misdemeanor, or if the charge was quasi-criminal or traffic, judgment for the political subdivision of the State which prosecuted the case, against the accused for the amount of the bail and costs of the court proceedings; however, in counties with a population of less than 3,000,000, instead of the court entering a judgment for the full amount of the bond the court may, in its discretion, enter judgment for the cash deposit on the bond, less costs, retain the deposit for further disposition or, if a cash bond was posted for failure to appear in a matter involving enforcement of child support or maintenance, the amount of the cash deposit on the bond, less outstanding costs, may be awarded to the person or entity to whom the child support or maintenance is due. The deposit made in accordance with paragraph (a) shall be applied to the payment of costs. If judgment is entered and any amount of such deposit remains after the payment of costs it shall be applied to payment of the judgment and transferred to the treasury of the municipal corporation wherein the bond was taken if the offense was a violation of any penal ordinance of a political subdivision of this State, or to the treasury of the county wherein the bond was taken if the offense was a violation of any penal statute of this State. The balance of the judgment may be enforced and collected in the same manner as a judgment entered in a civil action.

(h) After a judgment for a fine and court costs or either is entered in the prosecution of a cause in which a deposit had been made in accordance with paragraph (a) the balance of such deposit, after deduction of bail bond costs, shall be applied to the payment of the judgment.

(i) When a court appearance is required for an alleged violation of the Criminal Code of 1961, the Criminal Code of 2012, the Illinois Vehicle Code, the Wildlife Code, the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a comparable offense of a unit of local government as specified in Supreme Court Rule 551, and if the accused does not appear in court on the date set for appearance or any date to which the case may be continued and the court issues an arrest warrant for the accused, based upon his or her failure to appear when having so previously been ordered to appear by the court, the accused upon his or her admission to bail shall be assessed by the court a fee of $75. Payment of the fee shall be a condition of release unless otherwise ordered by the court. The fee shall be in addition to any bail that the accused is required to deposit for the offense for which the accused has been charged and may not be used for the payment of court costs or fines assessed for the offense. The clerk of the court shall remit $70 of the fee assessed to the arresting agency who brings the offender in on the arrest warrant. If the Department of State Police is the arresting agency, $70 of the fee assessed shall be remitted by the clerk of the court to the State Treasurer within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. The clerk of the court shall remit $5 of the fee assessed to the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund as provided in Section 27.3d of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1431, eff. 1-1-11; 97-175, eff. 1-1-12.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-10)

Sec. 110-10. Conditions of bail bond.

(a) If a person is released prior to conviction, either upon payment of bail security or on his or her own recognizance, the conditions of the bail bond shall be that he or she will:

(1) Appear to answer the charge in the court having jurisdiction on a day certain and thereafter as ordered by the court until discharged or final order of the court;

(2) Submit himself or herself to the orders and process of the court;

(3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;

(4) Not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(5) At a time and place designated by the court, surrender all firearms in his or her possession to a law enforcement officer designated by the court to take custody of and impound the firearms and physically surrender his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the clerk of the circuit court when the offense the person has been charged with is a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, or any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; the court may, however, forgo the imposition of this condition when the circumstances of the case clearly do not warrant it or when its imposition would be impractical; if the Firearm Owner's Identification Card is confiscated, the clerk of the circuit court shall mail the confiscated card to the Illinois State Police; all legally possessed firearms shall be returned to the person upon the charges being dismissed, or if the person is found not guilty, unless the finding of not guilty is by reason of insanity; and

(6) At a time and place designated by the court, submit to a psychological evaluation when the person has been charged with a violation of item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and that violation occurred in a school or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school.

Psychological evaluations ordered pursuant to this Section shall be completed promptly and made available to the State, the defendant, and the court. As a further condition of bail under these circumstances, the court shall order the defendant to refrain from entering upon the property of the school, including any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of real property comprising any school. Upon receipt of the psychological evaluation, either the State or the defendant may request a change in the conditions of bail, pursuant to Section 110-6 of this Code. The court may change the conditions of bail to include a requirement that the defendant follow the recommendations of the psychological evaluation, including undergoing psychiatric treatment. The conclusions of the psychological evaluation and any statements elicited from the defendant during its administration are not admissible as evidence of guilt during the course of any trial on the charged offense, unless the defendant places his or her mental competency in issue.

(b) The court may impose other conditions, such as the following, if the court finds that such conditions are reasonably necessary to assure the defendant's appearance in court, protect the public from the defendant, or prevent the defendant's unlawful interference with the orderly administration of justice:

(1) Report to or appear in person before such person or agency as the court may direct;

(2) Refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) Refrain from approaching or communicating with particular persons or classes of persons;

(4) Refrain from going to certain described geographical areas or premises;

(5) Refrain from engaging in certain activities or indulging in intoxicating liquors or in certain drugs;

(6) Undergo treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(7) Undergo medical or psychiatric treatment;

(8) Work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(9) Attend or reside in a facility designated by the court;

(10) Support his or her dependents;

(11) If a minor resides with his or her parents or in a foster home, attend school, attend a non-residential program for youths, and contribute to his or her own support at home or in a foster home;

(12) Observe any curfew ordered by the court;

(13) Remain in the custody of such designated person or organization agreeing to supervise his release. Such third party custodian shall be responsible for notifying the court if the defendant fails to observe the conditions of release which the custodian has agreed to monitor, and shall be subject to contempt of court for failure so to notify the court;

(14) Be placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with or without the use of an approved electronic monitoring device subject to Article 8A of Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(14.1) The court shall impose upon a defendant who is charged with any alcohol, cannabis, methamphetamine, or controlled substance violation and is placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with the use of an approved monitoring device, as a condition of such bail bond, a fee that represents costs incidental to the electronic monitoring for each day of such bail supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code;

(14.2) The court shall impose upon all defendants, including those defendants subject to paragraph (14.1) above, placed under direct supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity with the use of an approved monitoring device, as a condition of such bail bond, a fee which shall represent costs incidental to such electronic monitoring for each day of such bail supervision ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be;

(14.3) The Chief Judge of the Judicial Circuit may establish reasonable fees to be paid by a person receiving pretrial services while under supervision of a pretrial services agency, probation department, or court services department. Reasonable fees may be charged for pretrial services including, but not limited to, pretrial supervision, diversion programs, electronic monitoring, victim impact services, drug and alcohol testing, DNA testing, GPS electronic monitoring, assessments and evaluations related to domestic violence and other victims, and victim mediation services. The person receiving pretrial services may be ordered to pay all costs incidental to pretrial services in accordance with his or her ability to pay those costs;

(14.4) For persons charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, refrain from operating a motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device, as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to the rules promulgated by the Secretary of State for the installation of ignition interlock devices. Under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment;

(15) Comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory;

(16) Under Section 110-6.5 comply with the conditions of the drug testing program; and

(17) Such other reasonable conditions as the court may impose.

(c) When a person is charged with an offense under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the "Criminal Code of 1961" or the Criminal Code of 2012, involving a victim who is a minor under 18 years of age living in the same household with the defendant at the time of the offense, in granting bail or releasing the defendant on his own recognizance, the judge shall impose conditions to restrict the defendant's access to the victim which may include, but are not limited to conditions that he will:

1. Vacate the Household.

2. Make payment of temporary support to his dependents.

3. Refrain from contact or communication with the child victim, except as ordered by the court.

(d) When a person is charged with a criminal offense and the victim is a family or household member as defined in Article 112A, conditions shall be imposed at the time of the defendant's release on bond that restrict the defendant's access to the victim. Unless provided otherwise by the court, the restrictions shall include requirements that the defendant do the following:

(1) refrain from contact or communication with the victim for a minimum period of 72 hours following the defendant's release; and

(2) refrain from entering or remaining at the victim's residence for a minimum period of 72 hours following the defendant's release.

(e) Local law enforcement agencies shall develop standardized bond forms for use in cases involving family or household members as defined in Article 112A, including specific conditions of bond as provided in subsection (d). Failure of any law enforcement department to develop or use those forms shall in no way limit the applicability and enforcement of subsections (d) and (f).

(f) If the defendant is admitted to bail after conviction the conditions of the bail bond shall be that he will, in addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b) hereof:

(1) Duly prosecute his appeal;

(2) Appear at such time and place as the court may direct;

(3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;

(4) Comply with such other reasonable conditions as the court may impose; and

(5) If the judgment is affirmed or the cause reversed and remanded for a new trial, forthwith surrender to the officer from whose custody he was bailed.

(g) Upon a finding of guilty for any felony offense, the defendant shall physically surrender, at a time and place designated by the court, any and all firearms in his or her possession and his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card as a condition of remaining on bond pending sentencing.

(Source: P.A. 96-340, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-401, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-12) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-12)

Sec. 110-12. Notice of change of address.

A defendant who has been admitted to bail shall file a written notice with the clerk of the court before which the proceeding is pending of any change in his or her address within 24 hours after such change, except that a defendant who has been admitted to bail for a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall file a written notice with the clerk of the court before which the proceeding is pending and the clerk shall immediately deliver a time stamped copy of the written notice to the State's Attorney charged with the prosecution within 24 hours prior to such change. The address of a defendant who has been admitted to bail shall at all times remain a matter of public record with the clerk of the court.

(Source: P.A. 89-377, eff. 8-18-95.)

(725 ILCS 5/111-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 111-1)

Sec. 111-1. Methods of prosecution.

When authorized by law a prosecution may be commenced by:

(a) A complaint;

(b) An information;

(c) An indictment.

Upon commencement of a prosecution for a violation of Section 11-501 of the The Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, the victims of these offenses shall have all the rights under this Section as they do in Section 4 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act.

For the purposes of this Section "victim" shall mean an individual who has suffered personal injury as a result of the commission of a violation of Section 11-501 of the The Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, relating to the offense of reckless homicide. In regard to a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, "victim" shall also include, but not be limited to, spouse, guardian, parent, or other family member.

(Source: P.A. 84-272.)

(725 ILCS 5/111-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 111-2)

Sec. 111-2. Commencement of prosecutions.

(a) All prosecutions of felonies shall be by information or by indictment. No prosecution may be pursued by information unless a preliminary hearing has been held or waived in accordance with Section 109-3 and at that hearing probable cause to believe the defendant committed an offense was found, and the provisions of Section 109-3.1 of this Code have been complied with.

(b) All other prosecutions may be by indictment, information or complaint.

(c) Upon the filing of an information or indictment in open court charging the defendant with the commission of a sex offense defined in any Section of Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, as amended, and a minor as defined in Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as amended, is alleged to be the victim of the commission of the acts of the defendant in the commission of such offense, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor as provided in Section 2-17, 3-19, 4-16 or 5-610 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(d) Upon the filing of an information or indictment in open court, the court shall immediately issue a warrant for the arrest of each person charged with an offense directed to a peace officer or some other person specifically named commanding him to arrest such person.

(e) When the offense is bailable, the judge shall endorse on the warrant the amount of bail required by the order of the court, and if the court orders the process returnable forthwith, the warrant shall require that the accused be arrested and brought immediately into court.

(f) Where the prosecution of a felony is by information or complaint after preliminary hearing, or after a waiver of preliminary hearing in accordance with paragraph (a) of this Section, such prosecution may be for all offenses, arising from the same transaction or conduct of a defendant even though the complaint or complaints filed at the preliminary hearing charged only one or some of the offenses arising from that transaction or conduct.

(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99.)

(725 ILCS 5/111-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 111-3)

Sec. 111-3. Form of charge.

(a) A charge shall be in writing and allege the commission of an offense by:

(1) Stating the name of the offense;

(2) Citing the statutory provision alleged to have been violated;

(3) Setting forth the nature and elements of the offense charged;

(4) Stating the date and county of the offense as definitely as can be done; and

(5) Stating the name of the accused, if known, and if not known, designate the accused by any name or description by which he can be identified with reasonable certainty.

(b) An indictment shall be signed by the foreman of the Grand Jury and an information shall be signed by the State's Attorney and sworn to by him or another. A complaint shall be sworn to and signed by the complainant; provided, that when a peace officer observes the commission of a misdemeanor and is the complaining witness, the signing of the complaint by the peace officer is sufficient to charge the defendant with the commission of the offense, and the complaint need not be sworn to if the officer signing the complaint certifies that the statements set forth in the complaint are true and correct and are subject to the penalties provided by law for false certification under Section 1-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure and perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and further provided , however, that when a citation is issued on a Uniform Traffic Ticket or Uniform Conservation Ticket (in a form prescribed by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges and filed with the Supreme Court), the copy of such Uniform Ticket which is filed with the circuit court constitutes a complaint to which the defendant may plead, unless he specifically requests that a verified complaint be filed.

(c) When the State seeks an enhanced sentence because of a prior conviction, the charge shall also state the intention to seek an enhanced sentence and shall state such prior conviction so as to give notice to the defendant. However, the fact of such prior conviction and the State's intention to seek an enhanced sentence are not elements of the offense and may not be disclosed to the jury during trial unless otherwise permitted by issues properly raised during such trial. For the purposes of this Section, "enhanced sentence" means a sentence which is increased by a prior conviction from one classification of offense to another higher level classification of offense set forth in Section 5-4.5-10 of the Unified Code of Corrections (730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-10); it does not include an increase in the sentence applied within the same level of classification of offense.

(c-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in all cases in which the imposition of the death penalty is not a possibility, if an alleged fact (other than the fact of a prior conviction) is not an element of an offense but is sought to be used to increase the range of penalties for the offense beyond the statutory maximum that could otherwise be imposed for the offense, the alleged fact must be included in the charging instrument or otherwise provided to the defendant through a written notification before trial, submitted to a trier of fact as an aggravating factor, and proved beyond a reasonable doubt. Failure to prove the fact beyond a reasonable doubt is not a bar to a conviction for commission of the offense, but is a bar to increasing, based on that fact, the range of penalties for the offense beyond the statutory maximum that could otherwise be imposed for that offense. Nothing in this subsection (c-5) requires the imposition of a sentence that increases the range of penalties for the offense beyond the statutory maximum that could otherwise be imposed for the offense if the imposition of that sentence is not required by law.

(d) At any time prior to trial, the State on motion shall be permitted to amend the charge, whether brought by indictment, information or complaint, to make the charge comply with subsection (c) or (c-5) of this Section. Nothing in Section 103-5 of this Code precludes such an amendment or a written notification made in accordance with subsection (c-5) of this Section.

(e) The provisions of subsection (a) of Section 5-4.5-95 of the Unified Code of Corrections (730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-95) shall not be affected by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-1052, eff. 7-1-09; 96-1206, eff. 1-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/111-4)

Sec. 111-4. Joinder of offenses and defendants.

(a) Two or more offenses may be charged in the same indictment, information or complaint in a separate count for each offense if the offenses charged, whether felonies or misdemeanors or both, are based on the same act or on 2 or more acts which are part of the same comprehensive transaction.

(b) Two or more defendants may be charged in the same indictment, information or complaint if they are alleged to have participated in the same act or in the same comprehensive transaction out of which the offense or offenses arose. Such defendants may be charged in one or more counts together or separately and all of the defendants need not be charged in each count.

(c) Two or more acts or transactions in violation of any provision or provisions of Sections 8A-2, 8A-3, 8A-4, 8A-4A and 8A-5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 14 of the Illinois Wage Payment and Collection Act, Sections 16-1, 16-1.3, 16-2, 16-3, 16-5, 16-7, 16-8, 16-10, 16-25, 16-30, 16A-3, 16B-2, 16G-15, 16G-20, 16H-15, 16H-20, 16H-25, 16H-30, 16H-45, 16H-50, 16H-55, 17-1, 17-3, 17-6, 17-30, 17-56, or 17-60, or item (ii) of subsection (a) or (b) of Section 17-9, or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 17-10.5, or subsection (a), (b), (c), (d), (g), (h), or (i) of Section 17-10.6, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and Section 118 of Division I of the Criminal Jurisprudence Act, may be charged as a single offense in a single count of the same indictment, information or complaint, if such acts or transactions by one or more defendants are in furtherance of a single intention and design or if the property, labor or services obtained are of the same person or are of several persons having a common interest in such property, labor or services. In such a charge, the period between the dates of the first and the final such acts or transactions may be alleged as the date of the offense and, if any such act or transaction by any defendant was committed in the county where the prosecution was commenced, such county may be alleged as the county of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-354, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1207, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1407, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(725 ILCS 5/111-8) (from Ch. 38, par. 111-8)

Sec. 111-8. Orders of protection to prohibit domestic violence.

(a) Whenever a violation of Section 9-1, 9-2, 9-3, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.3 that involves soliciting for a prostitute, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-20a, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-3.5, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.3, 12-4.6, 12-5, 12-6, 12-6.3, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 19-4, 19-6, 21-1, 21-2, 21-3, or 26.5-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or Section 1-1 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act is alleged in an information, complaint or indictment on file, and the alleged offender and victim are family or household members, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, as now or hereafter amended, the People through the respective State's Attorneys may by separate petition and upon notice to the defendant, except as provided in subsection (c) herein, request the court to issue an order of protection.

(b) In addition to any other remedies specified in Section 208 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, as now or hereafter amended, the order may direct the defendant to initiate no contact with the alleged victim or victims who are family or household members and to refrain from entering the residence, school or place of business of the alleged victim or victims.

(c) The court may grant emergency relief without notice upon a showing of immediate and present danger of abuse to the victim or minor children of the victim and may enter a temporary order pending notice and full hearing on the matter.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; P.A. 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-3)

Sec. 112A-3. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

(1) "Abuse" means physical abuse, harassment, intimidation of a dependent, interference with personal liberty or willful deprivation but does not include reasonable direction of a minor child by a parent or person in loco parentis.

(2) "Domestic violence" means abuse as described in paragraph (1).

(3) "Family or household members" include spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly have a child in common, persons who share or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, persons with disabilities and their personal assistants, and caregivers as defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-21 or in subsection (e) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. For purposes of this paragraph, neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship.

(4) "Harassment" means knowing conduct which is not necessary to accomplish a purpose which is reasonable under the circumstances; would cause a reasonable person emotional distress; and does cause emotional distress to the petitioner. Unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, the following types of conduct shall be presumed to cause emotional distress:

(i) creating a disturbance at petitioner's place of employment or school;

(ii) repeatedly telephoning petitioner's place of employment, home or residence;

(iii) repeatedly following petitioner about in a public place or places;

(iv) repeatedly keeping petitioner under surveillance by remaining present outside his or her home, school, place of employment, vehicle or other place occupied by petitioner or by peering in petitioner's windows;

(v) improperly concealing a minor child from petitioner, repeatedly threatening to improperly remove a minor child of petitioner's from the jurisdiction or from the physical care of petitioner, repeatedly threatening to conceal a minor child from petitioner, or making a single such threat following an actual or attempted improper removal or concealment, unless respondent was fleeing from an incident or pattern of domestic violence; or

(vi) threatening physical force, confinement or restraint on one or more occasions.

(5) "Interference with personal liberty" means committing or threatening physical abuse, harassment, intimidation or willful deprivation so as to compel another to engage in conduct from which she or he has a right to abstain or to refrain from conduct in which she or he has a right to engage.

(6) "Intimidation of a dependent" means subjecting a person who is dependent because of age, health or disability to participation in or the witnessing of: physical force against another or physical confinement or restraint of another which constitutes physical abuse as defined in this Article, regardless of whether the abused person is a family or household member.

(7) "Order of protection" means an emergency order, interim order or plenary order, granted pursuant to this Article, which includes any or all of the remedies authorized by Section 112A-14 of this Code.

(8) "Petitioner" may mean not only any named petitioner for the order of protection and any named victim of abuse on whose behalf the petition is brought, but also any other person protected by this Article.

(9) "Physical abuse" includes sexual abuse and means any of the following:

(i) knowing or reckless use of physical force, confinement or restraint;

(ii) knowing, repeated and unnecessary sleep deprivation; or

(iii) knowing or reckless conduct which creates an immediate risk of physical harm.

(9.5) "Stay away" means for the respondent to refrain from both physical presence and nonphysical contact with the petitioner whether direct, indirect (including, but not limited to, telephone calls, mail, email, faxes, and written notes), or through third parties who may or may not know about the order of protection.

(10) "Willful deprivation" means wilfully denying a person who because of age, health or disability requires medication, medical care, shelter, accessible shelter or services, food, therapeutic device, or other physical assistance, and thereby exposing that person to the risk of physical, mental or emotional harm, except with regard to medical care and treatment when such dependent person has expressed the intent to forgo such medical care or treatment. This paragraph does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to dependent persons.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-11.1)

Sec. 112A-11.1. Procedure for determining whether certain misdemeanor crimes are crimes of domestic violence for purposes of federal law.

(a) When a defendant has been charged with a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State may, at arraignment or no later than 45 days after arraignment, for the purpose of notification to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office, serve on the defendant and file with the court a notice alleging that conviction of the offense would subject the defendant to the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) because of the relationship between the defendant and the alleged victim and the nature of the alleged offense.

(b) The notice shall include the name of the person alleged to be the victim of the crime and shall specify the nature of the alleged relationship as set forth in 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(33)(A)(ii). It shall also specify the element of the charged offense which requires the use or attempted use of physical force, or the threatened use of a deadly weapon, as set forth 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(33)(A)(ii). It shall also include notice that the defendant is entitled to a hearing on the allegation contained in the notice and that if the allegation is sustained, that determination and conviction shall be reported to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(c) After having been notified as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, the defendant may stipulate or admit, orally on the record or in writing, that conviction of the offense would subject the defendant to the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9). In that case, the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) shall be deemed established for purposes of Section 112A-11.2. If the defendant denies the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) as alleged in the notice served by the State, or stands mute with respect to that allegation, then the State shall bear the burden to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the offense is one to which the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) apply. The court may consider reliable hearsay evidence submitted by either party provided that it is relevant to the determination of the allegation. Facts previously proven at trial or elicited at the time of entry of a plea of guilty shall be deemed established beyond a reasonable doubt and shall not be relitigated. At the conclusion of the hearing, or upon a stipulation or admission, as applicable, the court shall make a specific written determination with respect to the allegation.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-11.2)

Sec. 112A-11.2. Notification to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office of determinations in certain misdemeanor cases. Upon judgment of conviction of a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the defendant has been determined, under Section 112A-11.1, to be subject to the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9), the circuit court clerk shall include notification and a copy of the written determination in a report of the conviction to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office to enable the office to report that determination to the Federal Bureau of Investigation and assist the Bureau in identifying persons prohibited from purchasing and possessing a firearm pursuant to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 922.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14)

Sec. 112A-14. Order of protection; remedies.

(a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner has been abused by a family or household member, as defined in this Article, an order of protection prohibiting such abuse shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim orders, or Section 112A-19 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall not be denied an order of protection because petitioner or respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue an order of protection, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim. Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall be in accordance with this Article.

(b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with this Section and one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim orders, and Section 112A-19 on plenary orders. The remedies listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse or willful deprivation, as defined in this Article, if such abuse has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary legal custody. Award temporary legal custody to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary legal custody to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Visitation. Determine the visitation rights, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or temporary legal custody of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's visitation with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during visitation; (ii) use the visitation as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 607.1 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants visitation, the order shall specify dates and times for the visitation to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for visitation shall refer merely to the term "reasonable visitation".

Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for visitation, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner.

If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for visitation, and the parties shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for visitation. A person may be approved to supervise visitation only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or custody, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care or custody of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care or custody, prior to entry of an order for legal custody. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order granting legal custody to another, unless otherwise provided in the custody order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including but not limited to legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(a) Prohibit a respondent against whom an order of protection was issued from possessing any firearms during the duration of the order if the order:

(1) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

(2) restrains such person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; and

(3)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or (ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.

Any firearms in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subsection (b), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to the local law enforcement agency for safekeeping. The court shall issue an order that the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card be turned over to the local law enforcement agency, which in turn shall immediately mail the card to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping. The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if unexpired, shall at the respondent's request be returned to the respondent at expiration of the order of protection.

(b) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the order of protection.

(c) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 112A-5, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary to establish that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and consequences of the respondent's past abuse of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly removed from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection.

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency order of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as a supplement to making the findings described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this subsection, may use the following procedure:

When a verified petition for an emergency order of protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections 112A-5 and 112A-17 is presented to the court, the court shall examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An emergency order of protection shall be issued by the court if it appears from the contents of the petition and the examination of petitioner that the averments are sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency order of protection.

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984. Absent such an adjudication, no putative father shall be granted temporary custody of the minor child, visitation with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 VII of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 VII of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent;

(6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent;

(7) Conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1239, eff. 1-1-11; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-16) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-16)

Sec. 112A-16. Accountability for Actions of Others. For the purposes of issuing an order of protection, deciding what remedies should be included and enforcing the order, Article 5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall govern whether respondent is legally accountable for the conduct of another person.

(Source: P.A. 84-1305.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-23) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-23)

Sec. 112A-23. Enforcement of orders of protection.

(a) When violation is crime. A violation of any order of protection, whether issued in a civil, quasi-criminal proceeding, shall be enforced by a criminal court when:

(1) The respondent commits the crime of violation of an order of protection pursuant to Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14,

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14) or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe or United States territory,

(iii) or any other remedy when the act constitutes a crime against the protected parties as defined by the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Prosecution for a violation of an order of protection shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the order of protection; or

(2) The respondent commits the crime of child abduction pursuant to Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraphs (5), (6) or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14, or

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (1), (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe or United States territory.

(b) When violation is contempt of court. A violation of any valid order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding, may be enforced through civil or criminal contempt procedures, as appropriate, by any court with jurisdiction, regardless where the act or acts which violated the order of protection were committed, to the extent consistent with the venue provisions of this Article. Nothing in this Article shall preclude any Illinois court from enforcing any valid order of protection issued in another state. Illinois courts may enforce orders of protection through both criminal prosecution and contempt proceedings, unless the action which is second in time is barred by collateral estoppel or the constitutional prohibition against double jeopardy.

(1) In a contempt proceeding where the petition for a rule to show cause sets forth facts evidencing an immediate danger that the respondent will flee the jurisdiction, conceal a child, or inflict physical abuse on the petitioner or minor children or on dependent adults in petitioner's care, the court may order the attachment of the respondent without prior service of the rule to show cause or the petition for a rule to show cause. Bond shall be set unless specifically denied in writing.

(2) A petition for a rule to show cause for violation of an order of protection shall be treated as an expedited proceeding.

(c) Violation of custody or support orders. A violation of remedies described in paragraphs (5), (6), (8), or (9) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 may be enforced by any remedy provided by Section 611 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. The court may enforce any order for support issued under paragraph (12) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 in the manner provided for under Parts V and VII of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(d) Actual knowledge. An order of protection may be enforced pursuant to this Section if the respondent violates the order after respondent has actual knowledge of its contents as shown through one of the following means:

(1) By service, delivery, or notice under Section 112A-10.

(2) By notice under Section 112A-11.

(3) By service of an order of protection under Section 112A-22.

(4) By other means demonstrating actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

(e) The enforcement of an order of protection in civil or criminal court shall not be affected by either of the following:

(1) The existence of a separate, correlative order entered under Section 112A-15.

(2) Any finding or order entered in a conjoined criminal proceeding.

(f) Circumstances. The court, when determining whether or not a violation of an order of protection has occurred, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection, where the court finds the commission of a crime or contempt of court under subsections (a) or (b) of this Section, the penalty shall be the penalty that generally applies in such criminal or contempt proceedings, and may include one or more of the following: incarceration, payment of restitution, a fine, payment of attorneys' fees and costs, or community service.

(2) The court shall hear and take into account evidence of any factors in aggravation or mitigation before deciding an appropriate penalty under paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(3) To the extent permitted by law, the court is encouraged to:

(i) increase the penalty for the knowing violation of any order of protection over any penalty previously imposed by any court for respondent's violation of any order of protection or penal statute involving petitioner as victim and respondent as defendant;

(ii) impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for respondent's first violation of any order of protection; and

(iii) impose a minimum penalty of 48 hours imprisonment for respondent's second or subsequent violation of an order of protection

unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or that period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust.

(4) In addition to any other penalties imposed for a violation of an order of protection, a criminal court may consider evidence of any violations of an order of protection:

(i) to increase, revoke or modify the bail bond on an underlying criminal charge pursuant to Section 110-6;

(ii) to revoke or modify an order of probation, conditional discharge or supervision, pursuant to Section 5-6-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(iii) to revoke or modify a sentence of periodic imprisonment, pursuant to Section 5-7-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-26) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-26)

Sec. 112A-26. Arrest without warrant.

(a) Any law enforcement officer may make an arrest without warrant if the officer has probable cause to believe that the person has committed or is committing any crime, including but not limited to violation of an order of protection, under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, even if the crime was not committed in the presence of the officer.

(b) The law enforcement officer may verify the existence of an order of protection by telephone or radio communication with his or her law enforcement agency or by referring to the copy of the order provided by petitioner or respondent.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-30) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-30)

Sec. 112A-30. Assistance by law enforcement officers.

(a) Whenever a law enforcement officer has reason to believe that a person has been abused by a family or household member, the officer shall immediately use all reasonable means to prevent further abuse, including:

(1) Arresting the abusing party, where appropriate;

(2) If there is probable cause to believe that particular weapons were used to commit the incident of abuse, subject to constitutional limitations, seizing and taking inventory of the weapons;

(3) Accompanying the victim of abuse to his or her place of residence for a reasonable period of time to remove necessary personal belongings and possessions;

(4) Offering the victim of abuse immediate and adequate information (written in a language appropriate for the victim or in Braille or communicated in appropriate sign language), which shall include a summary of the procedures and relief available to victims of abuse under subsection (c) of Section 112A-17 and the officer's name and badge number;

(5) Providing the victim with one referral to an accessible service agency;

(6) Advising the victim of abuse about seeking medical attention and preserving evidence (specifically including photographs of injury or damage and damaged clothing or other property); and

(7) Providing or arranging accessible transportation for the victim of abuse (and, at the victim's request, any minors or dependents in the victim's care) to a medical facility for treatment of injuries or to a nearby place of shelter or safety; or, after the close of court business hours, providing or arranging for transportation for the victim (and, at the victim's request, any minors or dependents in the victim's care) to the nearest available circuit judge or associate judge so the victim may file a petition for an emergency order of protection under subsection (c) of Section 112A-17. When a victim of abuse chooses to leave the scene of the offense, it shall be presumed that it is in the best interests of any minors or dependents in the victim's care to remain with the victim or a person designated by the victim, rather than to remain with the abusing party.

(b) Whenever a law enforcement officer does not exercise arrest powers or otherwise initiate criminal proceedings, the officer shall:

(1) Make a police report of the investigation of any bona fide allegation of an incident of abuse and the disposition of the investigation, in accordance with subsection (a) of Section 112A-29;

(2) Inform the victim of abuse of the victim's right to request that a criminal proceeding be initiated where appropriate, including specific times and places for meeting with the State's Attorney's office, a warrant officer, or other official in accordance with local procedure; and

(3) Advise the victim of the importance of seeking medical attention and preserving evidence (specifically including photographs of injury or damage and damaged clothing or other property).

(c) Except as provided by Section 24-6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or under a court order, any weapon seized under subsection (a)(2) shall be returned forthwith to the person from whom it was seized when it is no longer needed for evidentiary purposes.

(Source: P.A. 87-1186; 88-498.)

(725 ILCS 5/114-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 114-1)

Sec. 114-1. Motion to dismiss charge.

(a) Upon the written motion of the defendant made prior to trial before or after a plea has been entered the court may dismiss the indictment, information or complaint upon any of the following grounds:

(1) The defendant has not been placed on trial in compliance with Section 103-5 of this Code.

(2) The prosecution of the offense is barred by Sections 3-3 through 3-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as heretofore and hereafter amended.

(3) The defendant has received immunity from prosecution for the offense charged.

(4) The indictment was returned by a Grand Jury which was improperly selected and which results in substantial injustice to the defendant.

(5) The indictment was returned by a Grand Jury which acted contrary to Article 112 of this Code and which results in substantial injustice to the defendant.

(6) The court in which the charge has been filed does not have jurisdiction.

(7) The county is an improper place of trial.

(8) The charge does not state an offense.

(9) The indictment is based solely upon the testimony of an incompetent witness.

(10) The defendant is misnamed in the charge and the misnomer results in substantial injustice to the defendant.

(11) The requirements of Section 109-3.1 have not been complied with.

(b) The court shall require any motion to dismiss to be filed within a reasonable time after the defendant has been arraigned. Any motion not filed within such time or an extension thereof shall not be considered by the court and the grounds therefor, except as to subsections (a)(6) and (a)(8) of this Section, are waived.

(c) If the motion presents only an issue of law the court shall determine it without the necessity of further pleadings. If the motion alleges facts not of record in the case the State shall file an answer admitting or denying each of the factual allegations of the motion.

(d) When an issue of fact is presented by a motion to dismiss and the answer of the State the court shall conduct a hearing and determine the issues.

(d-5) When a defendant seeks dismissal of the charge upon the ground set forth in subsection (a)(7) of this Section, the defendant shall make a prima facie showing that the county is an improper place of trial. Upon such showing, the State shall have the burden of proving, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the county is the proper place of trial.

(e) Dismissal of the charge upon the grounds set forth in subsections (a)(4) through (a)(11) of this Section shall not prevent the return of a new indictment or the filing of a new charge, and upon such dismissal the court may order that the defendant be held in custody or, if the defendant had been previously released on bail, that the bail be continued for a specified time pending the return of a new indictment or the filing of a new charge.

(f) If the court determines that the motion to dismiss based upon the grounds set forth in subsections (a)(6) and (a)(7) is well founded it may, instead of dismissal, order the cause transferred to a court of competent jurisdiction or to a proper place of trial.

(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01.)

(725 ILCS 5/114-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 114-4)

Sec. 114-4. Motion for continuance.

(a) The defendant or the State may move for a continuance. If the motion is made more than 30 days after arraignment the court shall require that it be in writing and supported by affidavit.

(b) A written motion for continuance made by defendant more than 30 days after arraignment may be granted when:

(1) Counsel for the defendant is ill, has died, or is held to trial in another cause; or

(2) Counsel for the defendant has been unable to prepare for trial because of illness or because he has been held to trial in another cause; or

(3) A material witness is unavailable and the defense will be prejudiced by the absence of his testimony; however, this shall not be a ground for continuance if the State will stipulate that the testimony of the witness would be as alleged; or

(4) The defendant cannot stand trial because of physical or mental incompetency; or

(5) Pre-trial publicity concerning the case has caused a prejudice against defendant on the part of the community; or

(6) The amendment of a charge or a bill of particulars has taken the defendant by surprise and he cannot fairly defend against such an amendment without a continuance.

(c) A written motion for continuance made by the State more than 30 days after arraignment may be granted when:

(1) The prosecutor assigned to the case is ill, has died, or is held to trial in another cause; or

(2) A material witness is unavailable and the prosecution will be prejudiced by the absence of his testimony; however this shall not be a ground for continuance if the defendant will stipulate that the testimony of the witness would be as alleged; or

(3) Pre-trial publicity concerning the case has caused a prejudice against the prosecution on the part of the community.

(d) The court may upon the written motion of either party or upon the court's own motion order a continuance for grounds not stated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section if he finds that the interests of justice so require.

(e) All motions for continuance are addressed to the discretion of the trial court and shall be considered in the light of the diligence shown on the part of the movant. Where 1 year has expired since the filing of an information or indictments, filed after January 1, 1980, if the court finds that the State has failed to use due diligence in bringing the case to trial, the court may, after a hearing had on the cause, on its own motion, dismiss the information or indictment. Any demand that the defendant had made for a speedy trial under Section 103-5 of this code shall not abate if the State files a new information or the grand jury reindicts in the cause.

After a hearing has been held upon the issue of the State's diligence and the court has found that the State has failed to use due diligence in pursuing the prosecution, the court may not dismiss the indictment or information without granting the State one more court date upon which to proceed. Such date shall be not less than 14 nor more than 30 days from the date of the court's finding. If the State is not prepared to proceed upon that date, the court shall dismiss the indictment or information, as provided in this Section.

(f) After trial has begun a reasonably brief continuance may be granted to either side in the interests of justice.

(g) During the time the General Assembly is in session, the court shall, on motion of either party or on its own motion, grant a continuance where the party or his attorney is a member of either house of the General Assembly whose presence is necessary for the full, fair trial of the cause and, in the case of an attorney, where the attorney was retained by the party before the cause was set for trial.

(h) This Section shall be construed to the end that criminal cases are tried with due diligence consonant with the rights of the defendant and the State to a speedy, fair and impartial trial.

(i) Physical incapacity of a defendant may be grounds for a continuance at any time. If, upon written motion of the defendant or the State or upon the court's own motion, and after presentation of affidavits or evidence, the court determines that the defendant is physically unable to appear in court or to assist in his defense, or that such appearance would endanger his health or result in substantial prejudice, a continuance shall be granted. If such continuance precedes the appearance of counsel for such defendant the court shall simultaneously appoint counsel in the manner prescribed by Section 113-3 of this Act. Such continuance shall suspend the provisions of Section 103-5 of this Act, which periods of time limitation shall commence anew when the court, after presentation of additional affidavits or evidence, has determined that such physical incapacity has been substantially removed.

(j) In actions arising out of building code violations or violations of municipal ordinances caused by the failure of a building or structure to conform to the minimum standards of health and safety, the court shall grant a continuance only upon a written motion by the party seeking the continuance specifying the reason why such continuance should be granted.

(k) In prosecutions for violations of Section 10-1, 10-2, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the "Criminal Code of 1961" or the Criminal Code of 2012 involving a victim or witness who is a minor under 18 years of age, the court shall, in ruling on any motion or other request for a delay or continuance of proceedings, consider and give weight to the adverse impact the delay or continuance may have on the well-being of a child or witness.

(l) The court shall consider the age of the victim and the condition of the victim's health when ruling on a motion for a continuance.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/114-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 114-11)

Sec. 114-11. Motion to Suppress Confession.

(a) Prior to the trial of any criminal case a defendant may move to suppress as evidence any confession given by him on the ground that it was not voluntary.

(b) The motion shall be in writing and state facts showing wherein the confession is involuntary.

(c) If the allegations of the motion state facts which, if true, show that the confession was not voluntarily made the court shall conduct a hearing into the merits of the motion.

(d) The burden of going forward with the evidence and the burden of proving that a confession was voluntary shall be on the State. Objection to the failure of the State to call all material witnesses on the issue of whether the confession was voluntary must be made in the trial court.

(e) The motion shall be made only before a court with jurisdiction to try the offense.

(f) The issue of the admissibility of the confession shall not be submitted to the jury. The circumstances surrounding the making of the confession may be submitted to the jury as bearing upon the credibility or the weight to be given to the confession.

(g) The motion shall be made before trial unless opportunity therefor did not exist or the defendant was not aware of the grounds for the motion. If the motion is made during trial, and the court determines that the motion is not untimely, and the court conducts a hearing on the merits and enters an order suppressing the confession, the court shall terminate the trial with respect to every defendant who was a party to the hearing and who was within the scope of the order of suppression, without further proceedings, unless the State files a written notice that there will be no interlocutory appeal from such order of suppression. In the event of such termination, the court shall proceed with the trial of other defendants not thus affected. Such termination of trial shall be proper and shall not bar subsequent prosecution of the identical charges and defendants; however, if after such termination the State fails to prosecute the interlocutory appeal until a determination of the merits of the appeal by the reviewing court, the termination shall be improper within the meaning of subparagraph (a) (3) of Section 3-4 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as amended, and subsequent prosecution of such defendants upon such charges shall be barred.

(Source: P.A. 76-1096.)

(725 ILCS 5/114-12) (from Ch. 38, par. 114-12)

Sec. 114-12. Motion to Suppress Evidence Illegally Seized.

(a) A defendant aggrieved by an unlawful search and seizure may move the court for the return of property and to suppress as evidence anything so obtained on the ground that:

(1) The search and seizure without a warrant was illegal; or

(2) The search and seizure with a warrant was illegal because the warrant is insufficient on its face; the evidence seized is not that described in the warrant; there was not probable cause for the issuance of the warrant; or, the warrant was illegally executed.

(b) The motion shall be in writing and state facts showing wherein the search and seizure were unlawful. The judge shall receive evidence on any issue of fact necessary to determine the motion and the burden of proving that the search and seizure were unlawful shall be on the defendant. If the motion is granted the property shall be restored, unless otherwise subject to lawful detention, and it shall not be admissible in evidence against the movant at any trial.

(1) If a defendant seeks to suppress evidence because of the conduct of a peace officer in obtaining the evidence, the State may urge that the peace officer's conduct was taken in a reasonable and objective good faith belief that the conduct was proper and that the evidence discovered should not be suppressed if otherwise admissible. The court shall not suppress evidence which is otherwise admissible in a criminal proceeding if the court determines that the evidence was seized by a peace officer who acted in good faith.

(2) "Good faith" means whenever a peace officer obtains evidence:

(i) pursuant to a search or an arrest warrant obtained from a neutral and detached judge, which warrant is free from obvious defects other than non-deliberate errors in preparation and contains no material misrepresentation by any agent of the State, and the officer reasonably believed the warrant to be valid; or

(ii) pursuant to a warrantless search incident to an arrest for violation of a statute or local ordinance which is later declared unconstitutional or otherwise invalidated.

(3) This amendatory Act of 1987 shall not be construed to limit the enforcement of any appropriate civil remedy or criminal sanction in actions pursuant to other provisions of law against any individual or government entity found to have conducted an unreasonable search or seizure.

(4) This amendatory Act of 1987 does not apply to unlawful electronic eavesdropping or wiretapping.

(c) The motion shall be made before trial unless opportunity therefor did not exist or the defendant was not aware of the grounds for the motion. If the motion is made during trial, and the court determines that the motion is not untimely, and the court conducts a hearing on the merits and enters an order suppressing the evidence, the court shall terminate the trial with respect to every defendant who was a party to the hearing and who was within the scope of the order of suppression, without further proceedings, unless the State files a written notice that there will be no interlocutory appeal from such order of suppression. In the event of such termination, the court shall proceed with the trial of other defendants not thus affected. Such termination of trial shall be proper and shall not bar subsequent prosecution of the identical charges and defendants; however, if after such termination the State fails to prosecute the interlocutory appeal until a determination of the merits of the appeal by the reviewing court, the termination shall be improper within the meaning of subparagraph (a) (3) of Section 3-4 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", approved July 28, 1961, as amended, and subsequent prosecution of such defendants upon such charges shall be barred.

(d) The motion shall be made only before a court with jurisdiction to try the offense.

(e) The order or judgment granting or denying the motion shall state the findings of facts and conclusions of law upon which the order or judgment is based.

(Source: P.A. 85-388.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-3)

Sec. 115-3. Trial by the Court. (a) A trial shall be conducted in the presence of the defendant unless he waives the right to be present.

(b) Upon conclusion of the trial the court shall enter a general finding, except that, when the affirmative defense of insanity has been presented during the trial and acquittal is based solely upon the defense of insanity, the court shall enter a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. In the event of a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity, a hearing shall be held pursuant to the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code to determine whether the defendant is subject to involuntary admission.

(c) When the defendant has asserted a defense of insanity, the court may find the defendant guilty but mentally ill if, after hearing all of the evidence, the court finds that:

(1) the State has proven beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant is guilty of the offense charged; and

(2) the defendant has failed to prove his insanity as required in subsection (b) of Section 3-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended, and subsections (a), (b) and (e) of Section 6-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended; and

(3) the defendant has proven by a preponderance of the evidence that he was mentally ill, as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 6-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended, at the time of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 86-392.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-4)

Sec. 115-4. Trial by Court and Jury.) (a) Questions of law shall be decided by the court and questions of fact by the jury.

(b) The jury shall consist of 12 members.

(c) Upon request the parties shall be furnished with a list of prospective jurors with their addresses if known.

(d) Each party may challenge jurors for cause. If a prospective juror has a physical impairment, the court shall consider such prospective juror's ability to perceive and appreciate the evidence when considering a challenge for cause.

(e) A defendant tried alone shall be allowed 20 peremptory challenges in a capital case, 10 in a case in which the punishment may be imprisonment in the penitentiary, and 5 in all other cases; except that, in a single trial of more than one defendant, each defendant shall be allowed 12 peremptory challenges in a capital case, 6 in a case in which the punishment may be imprisonment in the penitentiary, and 3 in all other cases. If several charges against a defendant or defendants are consolidated for trial, each defendant shall be allowed peremptory challenges upon one charge only, which single charge shall be the charge against that defendant authorizing the greatest maximum penalty. The State shall be allowed the same number of peremptory challenges as all of the defendants.

(f) After examination by the court the jurors may be examined, passed upon, accepted and tendered by opposing counsel as provided by Supreme Court rules.

(g) After the jury is impaneled and sworn the court may direct the selection of 2 alternate jurors who shall take the same oath as the regular jurors. Each party shall have one additional peremptory challenge for each alternate juror. If before the final submission of a cause a member of the jury dies or is discharged he shall be replaced by an alternate juror in the order of selection.

(h) A trial by the court and jury shall be conducted in the presence of the defendant unless he waives the right to be present.

(i) After arguments of counsel the court shall instruct the jury as to the law.

(j) Unless the affirmative defense of insanity has been presented during the trial, the jury shall return a general verdict as to each offense charged. When the affirmative defense of insanity has been presented during the trial, the court shall provide the jury not only with general verdict forms but also with a special verdict form of not guilty by reason of insanity, as to each offense charged, and in such event the court shall separately instruct the jury that a special verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity may be returned instead of a general verdict but such special verdict requires a unanimous finding by the jury that the defendant committed the acts charged but at the time of the commission of those acts the defendant was insane. In the event of a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, a hearing shall be held pursuant to the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code to determine whether the defendant is subject to involuntary admission. When the affirmative defense of insanity has been presented during the trial, the court, where warranted by the evidence, shall also provide the jury with a special verdict form of guilty but mentally ill, as to each offense charged and shall separately instruct the jury that a special verdict of guilty but mentally ill may be returned instead of a general verdict, but that such special verdict requires a unanimous finding by the jury that: (1) the State has proven beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant is guilty of the offense charged; and (2) the defendant has failed to prove his insanity as required in subsection (b) of Section 3-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended, and subsections (a), (b) and (e) of Section 6-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended; and (3) the defendant has proven by a preponderance of the evidence that he was mentally ill, as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 6-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended, at the time of the offense.

(k) When, at the close of the State's evidence or at the close of all of the evidence, the evidence is insufficient to support a finding or verdict of guilty the court may and on motion of the defendant shall make a finding or direct the jury to return a verdict of not guilty, enter a judgment of acquittal and discharge the defendant.

(l) When the jury retires to consider its verdict an officer of the court shall be appointed to keep them together and to prevent conversation between the jurors and others; however, if any juror is deaf, the jury may be accompanied by and may communicate with a court-appointed interpreter during its deliberations. Upon agreement between the State and defendant or his counsel the jury may seal and deliver its verdict to the clerk of the court, separate, and then return such verdict in open court at its next session.

(m) In the trial of a capital or other offense, any juror who is a member of a panel or jury which has been impaneled and sworn as a panel or as a jury shall be permitted to separate from other such jurors during every period of adjournment to a later day, until final submission of the cause to the jury for determination, except that no such separation shall be permitted in any trial after the court, upon motion by the defendant or the State or upon its own motion, finds a probability that prejudice to the defendant or to the State will result from such separation.

(n) The members of the jury shall be entitled to take notes during the trial, and the sheriff of the county in which the jury is sitting shall provide them with writing materials for this purpose. Such notes shall remain confidential, and shall be destroyed by the sheriff after the verdict has been returned or a mistrial declared.

(o) A defendant tried by the court and jury shall only be found guilty, guilty but mentally ill, not guilty or not guilty by reason of insanity, upon the unanimous verdict of the jury.

(Source: P.A. 86-392.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-6)

Sec. 115-6. Appointment of Psychiatrist or Clinical Psychologist. If the defendant has given notice that he may rely upon the defense of insanity as defined in Section 6-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or the defendant indicates that he intends to plead guilty but mentally ill or the defense of intoxicated or drugged condition as defined in Section 6-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or if the facts and circumstances of the case justify a reasonable belief that the aforesaid defenses may be raised, the Court shall, on motion of the State, order the defendant to submit to examination by at least one clinical psychologist or psychiatrist, to be named by the prosecuting attorney. The Court shall also order the defendant to submit to an examination by one neurologist, one clinical psychologist and one electroencephalographer to be named by the prosecuting attorney if the State asks for one or more of such additional examinations. The Court may order additional examinations if the Court finds that additional examinations by additional experts will be of substantial value in the determination of issues of insanity or drugged conditions. The reports of such experts shall be made available to the defense. Any statements made by defendant to such experts shall not be admissible against the defendant unless he raises the defense of insanity or the defense of drugged condition, in which case they shall be admissible only on the issue of whether he was insane or drugged. The refusal of the defendant to cooperate in such examinations shall not automatically preclude the raising of the aforesaid defenses but shall preclude the defendant from offering expert evidence or testimony tending to support such defenses if the expert evidence or testimony is based upon the expert's examination of the defendant. If the Court, after a hearing, determines to its satisfaction that the defendant's refusal to cooperate was unreasonable it may, in its sound discretion, bar any or all evidence upon the defense asserted.

(Source: P.A. 82-553.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-7)

Sec. 115-7. a. In prosecutions for predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, criminal sexual abuse, or criminal transmission of HIV; and in prosecutions for battery and aggravated battery, when the commission of the offense involves sexual penetration or sexual conduct as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and with the trial or retrial of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, and aggravated indecent liberties with a child, the prior sexual activity or the reputation of the alleged victim or corroborating witness under Section 115-7.3 of this Code is inadmissible except (1) as evidence concerning the past sexual conduct of the alleged victim or corroborating witness under Section 115-7.3 of this Code with the accused when this evidence is offered by the accused upon the issue of whether the alleged victim or corroborating witness under Section 115-7.3 of this Code consented to the sexual conduct with respect to which the offense is alleged; or (2) when constitutionally required to be admitted.

b. No evidence admissible under this Section shall be introduced unless ruled admissible by the trial judge after an offer of proof has been made at a hearing to be held in camera in order to determine whether the defense has evidence to impeach the witness in the event that prior sexual activity with the defendant is denied. Such offer of proof shall include reasonably specific information as to the date, time and place of the past sexual conduct between the alleged victim or corroborating witness under Section 115-7.3 of this Code and the defendant. Unless the court finds that reasonably specific information as to date, time or place, or some combination thereof, has been offered as to prior sexual activity with the defendant, counsel for the defendant shall be ordered to refrain from inquiring into prior sexual activity between the alleged victim or corroborating witness under Section 115-7.3 of this Code and the defendant. The court shall not admit evidence under this Section unless it determines at the hearing that the evidence is relevant and the probative value of the evidence outweighs the danger of unfair prejudice. The evidence shall be admissible at trial to the extent an order made by the court specifies the evidence that may be admitted and areas with respect to which the alleged victim or corroborating witness under Section 115-7.3 of this Code may be examined or cross examined.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-7.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-7.2)

Sec. 115-7.2. In a prosecution for an illegal sexual act perpetrated upon a victim, including but not limited to prosecutions for violations of Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or ritualized abuse of a child under Section 12-33 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, testimony by an expert, qualified by the court relating to any recognized and accepted form of post-traumatic stress syndrome shall be admissible as evidence.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-7.3)

Sec. 115-7.3. Evidence in certain cases.

(a) This Section applies to criminal cases in which:

(1) the defendant is accused of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, criminal sexual abuse, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, or criminal transmission of HIV;

(2) the defendant is accused of battery, aggravated battery, first degree murder, or second degree murder when the commission of the offense involves sexual penetration or sexual conduct as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; or

(3) the defendant is tried or retried for any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child.

(b) If the defendant is accused of an offense set forth in paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) or the defendant is tried or retried for any of the offenses set forth in paragraph (3) of subsection (a), evidence of the defendant's commission of another offense or offenses set forth in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a), or evidence to rebut that proof or an inference from that proof, may be admissible (if that evidence is otherwise admissible under the rules of evidence) and may be considered for its bearing on any matter to which it is relevant.

(c) In weighing the probative value of the evidence against undue prejudice to the defendant, the court may consider:

(1) the proximity in time to the charged or predicate offense;

(2) the degree of factual similarity to the charged or predicate offense; or

(3) other relevant facts and circumstances.

(d) In a criminal case in which the prosecution intends to offer evidence under this Section, it must disclose the evidence, including statements of witnesses or a summary of the substance of any testimony, at a reasonable time in advance of trial, or during trial if the court excuses pretrial notice on good cause shown.

(e) In a criminal case in which evidence is offered under this Section, proof may be made by specific instances of conduct, testimony as to reputation, or testimony in the form of an expert opinion, except that the prosecution may offer reputation testimony only after the opposing party has offered that testimony.

(f) In prosecutions for a violation of Section 10-2, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-3.05, 12-4, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, or 18-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, involving the involuntary delivery of a controlled substance to a victim, no inference may be made about the fact that a victim did not consent to a test for the presence of controlled substances.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-10)

Sec. 115-10. Certain hearsay exceptions.

(a) In a prosecution for a physical or sexual act perpetrated upon or against a child under the age of 13, or a person who was a moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person as defined in this Code and in Section 2-10.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 at the time the act was committed, including but not limited to prosecutions for violations of Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and prosecutions for violations of Sections 10-1 (kidnapping), 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), 10-3 (unlawful restraint), 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint), 10-4 (forcible detention), 10-5 (child abduction), 10-6 (harboring a runaway), 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction), 11-9 (public indecency), 11-11 (sexual relations within families), 11-21 (harmful material), 12-1 (assault), 12-2 (aggravated assault), 12-3 (battery), 12-3.2 (domestic battery), 12-3.3 (aggravated domestic battery), 12-3.05 or 12-4 (aggravated battery), 12-4.1 (heinous battery), 12-4.2 (aggravated battery with a firearm), 12-4.3 (aggravated battery of a child), 12-4.7 (drug induced infliction of great bodily harm), 12-5 (reckless conduct), 12-6 (intimidation), 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 (compelling organization membership of persons), 12-7.1 (hate crime), 12-7.3 (stalking), 12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), 12-10 or 12C-35 (tattooing the body of a minor), 12-11 or 19-6 (home invasion), 12-21.5 or 12C-10 (child abandonment), 12-21.6 or 12C-5 (endangering the life or health of a child) or 12-32 (ritual mutilation) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or any sex offense as defined in subsection (B) of Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the following evidence shall be admitted as an exception to the hearsay rule:

(1) testimony by the victim of an out of court statement made by the victim that he or she complained of such act to another; and

(2) testimony of an out of court statement made by the victim describing any complaint of such act or matter or detail pertaining to any act which is an element of an offense which is the subject of a prosecution for a sexual or physical act against that victim.

(b) Such testimony shall only be admitted if:

(1) The court finds in a hearing conducted outside the presence of the jury that the time, content, and circumstances of the statement provide sufficient safeguards of reliability; and

(2) The child or moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person either:

(A) testifies at the proceeding; or

(B) is unavailable as a witness and there is corroborative evidence of the act which is the subject of the statement; and

(3) In a case involving an offense perpetrated against a child under the age of 13, the out of court statement was made before the victim attained 13 years of age or within 3 months after the commission of the offense, whichever occurs later, but the statement may be admitted regardless of the age of the victim at the time of the proceeding.

(c) If a statement is admitted pursuant to this Section, the court shall instruct the jury that it is for the jury to determine the weight and credibility to be given the statement and that, in making the determination, it shall consider the age and maturity of the child, or the intellectual capabilities of the moderately, severely, or profoundly intellectually disabled person, the nature of the statement, the circumstances under which the statement was made, and any other relevant factor.

(d) The proponent of the statement shall give the adverse party reasonable notice of his intention to offer the statement and the particulars of the statement.

(e) Statements described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) shall not be excluded on the basis that they were obtained as a result of interviews conducted pursuant to a protocol adopted by a Child Advocacy Advisory Board as set forth in subsections (c), (d), and (e) of Section 3 of the Children's Advocacy Center Act or that an interviewer or witness to the interview was or is an employee, agent, or investigator of a State's Attorney's office.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-10.2a)

Sec. 115-10.2a. Admissibility of prior statements in domestic violence prosecutions when the witness is unavailable to testify.

(a) In a domestic violence prosecution, a statement, made by an individual identified in Section 201 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 as a person protected by that Act, that is not specifically covered by any other hearsay exception but having equivalent circumstantial guarantees of trustworthiness, is not excluded by the hearsay rule if the declarant is identified as unavailable as defined in subsection (c) and if the court determines that:

(1) the statement is offered as evidence of a material fact; and

(2) the statement is more probative on the point for which it is offered than any other evidence which the proponent can procure through reasonable efforts; and

(3) the general purposes of this Section and the interests of justice will best be served by admission of the statement into evidence.

(b) A statement may not be admitted under this exception unless the proponent of it makes known to the adverse party sufficiently in advance of the trial or hearing to provide the adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to meet it, the proponent's intention to offer the statement, and the particulars of the statement, including the name and address of the declarant.

(c) Unavailability as a witness includes circumstances in which the declarant:

(1) is exempted by ruling of the court on the ground of privilege from testifying concerning the subject matter of the declarant's statement; or

(2) persists in refusing to testify concerning the subject matter of the declarant's statement despite an order of the court to do so; or

(3) testifies to a lack of memory of the subject matter of the declarant's statement; or

(4) is unable to be present or to testify at the hearing because of health or then existing physical or mental illness or infirmity; or

(5) is absent from the hearing and the proponent of the statement has been unable to procure the declarant's attendance by process or other reasonable means; or

(6) is a crime victim as defined in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the failure of the declarant to testify is caused by the defendant's intimidation of the declarant as defined in Section 12-6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(d) A declarant is not unavailable as a witness if exemption, refusal, claim of lack of memory, inability, or absence is due to the procurement or wrongdoing of the proponent of a statement for purpose of preventing the witness from attending or testifying.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall render a prior statement inadmissible for purposes of impeachment because the statement was not recorded or otherwise fails to meet the criteria set forth in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-443, eff. 8-5-03.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-10.3)

Sec. 115-10.3. Hearsay exception regarding elder adults.

(a) In a prosecution for a physical act, abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation perpetrated upon or against an eligible adult, as defined in the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, who has been diagnosed by a physician to suffer from (i) any form of dementia, developmental disability, or other form of mental incapacity or (ii) any physical infirmity, including but not limited to prosecutions for violations of Sections 10-1, 10-2, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-11, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-5, 12-6, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-11, 12-11.1, 12-13, 12-14, 12-15, 12-16, 12-21, 16-1, 16-1.3, 17-1, 17-3, 17-56, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 18-6, 19-6, 20-1.1, 24-1.2, and 33A-2, or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the following evidence shall be admitted as an exception to the hearsay rule:

(1) testimony by an eligible adult, of an out of court statement made by the eligible adult, that he or she complained of such act to another; and

(2) testimony of an out of court statement made by the eligible adult, describing any complaint of such act or matter or detail pertaining to any act which is an element of an offense which is the subject of a prosecution for a physical act, abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation perpetrated upon or against the eligible adult.

(b) Such testimony shall only be admitted if:

(1) The court finds in a hearing conducted outside the presence of the jury that the time, content, and circumstances of the statement provide sufficient safeguards of reliability; and

(2) The eligible adult either:

(A) testifies at the proceeding; or

(B) is unavailable as a witness and there is corroborative evidence of the act which is the subject of the statement.

(c) If a statement is admitted pursuant to this Section, the court shall instruct the jury that it is for the jury to determine the weight and credibility to be given the statement and that, in making the determination, it shall consider the condition of the eligible adult, the nature of the statement, the circumstances under which the statement was made, and any other relevant factor.

(d) The proponent of the statement shall give the adverse party reasonable notice of his or her intention to offer the statement and the particulars of the statement.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 965, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1040, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-145, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-10.6)

Sec. 115-10.6. Hearsay exception for intentional murder of a witness.

(a) A statement is not rendered inadmissible by the hearsay rule if it is offered against a party that has killed the declarant in violation of clauses (a)(1) and (a)(2) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 intending to procure the unavailability of the declarant as a witness in a criminal or civil proceeding.

(b) While intent to procure the unavailability of the witness is a necessary element for the introduction of the statements, it need not be the sole motivation behind the murder which procured the unavailability of the declarant as a witness.

(c) The murder of the declarant may, but need not, be the subject of the trial at which the statement is being offered. If the murder of the declarant is not the subject of the trial at which the statement is being offered, the murder need not have ever been prosecuted.

(d) The proponent of the statements shall give the adverse party reasonable written notice of its intention to offer the statements and the substance of the particulars of each statement of the declarant. For purposes of this Section, identifying the location of the statements in tendered discovery shall be sufficient to satisfy the substance of the particulars of the statement.

(e) The admissibility of the statements shall be determined by the court at a pretrial hearing. At the hearing, the proponent of the statement bears the burden of establishing 3 criteria by a preponderance of the evidence:

(1) first, that the adverse party murdered the declarant and that the murder was intended to cause the unavailability of the declarant as a witness;

(2) second, that the time, content, and circumstances of the statements provide sufficient safeguards of reliability;

(3) third, the interests of justice will best be served by admission of the statement into evidence.

(f) The court shall make specific findings as to each of these criteria on the record before ruling on the admissibility of said statements.

(g) This Section in no way precludes or changes the application of the existing common law doctrine of forfeiture by wrongdoing.

(Source: P.A. 95-1004, eff. 12-8-08.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-11) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-11)

Sec. 115-11. In a prosecution for a criminal offense defined in Article 11 or in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the "Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 ", where the alleged victim of the offense is a minor under 18 years of age, the court may exclude from the proceedings while the victim is testifying, all persons, who, in the opinion of the court, do not have a direct interest in the case, except the media.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-11.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-11.1)

Sec. 115-11.1. Use of "Rape". The use of the word "rape", "rapist", or any derivative of "rape" by any victim, witness, State's Attorney, defense attorney, judge or other court personnel in any prosecutions of offenses in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, is not inadmissible.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-13) (from Ch. 38, par. 115-13)

Sec. 115-13. In a prosecution for violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the "Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 ", statements made by the victim to medical personnel for purposes of medical diagnosis or treatment including descriptions of the cause of symptom, pain or sensations, or the inception or general character of the cause or external source thereof insofar as reasonably pertinent to diagnosis or treatment shall be admitted as an exception to the hearsay rule.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-15)

Sec. 115-15. Laboratory reports.

(a) In any criminal prosecution for a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, a laboratory report from the Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, that is signed and sworn to by the person performing an analysis and that states (1) that the substance that is the basis of the alleged violation has been weighed and analyzed, and (2) the person's findings as to the contents, weight and identity of the substance, and (3) that it contains any amount of a controlled substance or cannabis is prima facie evidence of the contents, identity and weight of the substance. Attached to the report shall be a copy of a notarized statement by the signer of the report giving the name of the signer and stating (i) that he or she is an employee of the Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, (ii) the name and location of the laboratory where the analysis was performed, (iii) that performing the analysis is a part of his or her regular duties, and (iv) that the signer is qualified by education, training and experience to perform the analysis. The signer shall also allege that scientifically accepted tests were performed with due caution and that the evidence was handled in accordance with established and accepted procedures while in the custody of the laboratory.

(a-5) In any criminal prosecution for reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug, or combination of both, in violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or in any civil action held under a statutory summary suspension or revocation hearing under Section 2-118.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a laboratory report from the Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, that is signed and sworn to by the person performing an analysis, and that states that the sample of blood or urine was tested for alcohol or drugs, and contains the person's findings as to the presence and amount of alcohol or drugs and type of drug is prima facie evidence of the presence, content, and amount of the alcohol or drugs analyzed in the blood or urine. Attached to the report must be a copy of a notarized statement by the signer of the report giving the name of the signer and stating (1) that he or she is an employee of the Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, (2) the name and location of the laboratory where the analysis was performed, (3) that performing the analysis is a part of his or her regular duties, (4) that the signer is qualified by education, training, and experience to perform the analysis, and (5) that scientifically accepted tests were performed with due caution and that the evidence was handled in accordance with established and accepted procedures while in the custody of the laboratory.

(b) The State's Attorney shall serve a copy of the report on the attorney of record for the accused, or on the accused if he or she has no attorney, before any proceeding in which the report is to be used against the accused other than at a preliminary hearing or grand jury hearing when the report may be used without having been previously served upon the accused.

(c) The report shall not be prima facie evidence if the accused or his or her attorney demands the testimony of the person signing the report by serving the demand upon the State's Attorney within 7 days from the accused or his or her attorney's receipt of the report.

(Source: P.A. 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-16)

Sec. 115-16. Witness disqualification. No person shall be disqualified as a witness in a criminal case or proceeding by reason of his or her interest in the event of the case or proceeding, as a party or otherwise, or by reason of his or her having been convicted of a crime; but the interest or conviction may be shown for the purpose of affecting the credibility of the witness. A defendant in a criminal case or proceeding shall only at his or her own request be deemed a competent witness, and the person's neglect to testify shall not create a presumption against the person, nor shall the court permit a reference or comment to be made to or upon that neglect.

In criminal cases, husband and wife may testify for or against each other. Neither, however, may testify as to any communication or admission made by either of them to the other or as to any conversation between them during marriage, except in cases in which either is charged with an offense against the person or property of the other, in case of spouse abandonment, when the interests of their child or children or of any child or children in either spouse's care, custody, or control are directly involved, when either is charged with or under investigation for an offense under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and the victim is a minor under 18 years of age in either spouse's care, custody, or control at the time of the offense, or as to matters in which either has acted as agent of the other.

(Source: P.A. 96-1242, eff. 7-23-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/115-17b)

Sec. 115-17b. Administrative subpoenas.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Electronic communication services" and "remote computing services" have the same meaning as provided in the Electronic Communications Privacy Act in Chapter 121 (commencing with Section 2701) of Part I of Title 18 of the United States Code Annotated.

"Offense involving the sexual exploitation of children" means an offense under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-23, 11-25, 11-26, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or any attempt to commit any of these offenses when the victim is under 18 years of age.

(b) Subpoenas duces tecum. In any criminal investigation of an offense involving the sexual exploitation of children, the Attorney General, or his or her designee, or a State's Attorney, or his or her designee, may issue in writing and cause to be served subpoenas duces tecum to providers of electronic communication services or remote computing services requiring the production of records relevant to the investigation. Any such request for records shall not extend beyond requiring the provider to disclose the information specified in 18 U.S.C. 2703(c)(2). Any subpoena duces tecum issued under this Section shall be made returnable to the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court for the Circuit in which the State's Attorney resides, or his or her designee, or for subpoenas issued by the Attorney General, the subpoena shall be made returnable to the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court for the Circuit to which the investigation pertains, or his or her designee, to determine whether the documents are privileged and whether the subpoena is unreasonable or oppressive.

(c) Contents of subpoena. A subpoena under this Section shall describe the records or other things required to be produced and prescribe a return date within a reasonable period of time within which the objects or records can be assembled and made available.

(c-5) Contemporaneous notice to Chief Judge. Whenever a subpoena is issued under this Section, the Attorney General or his or her designee or the State's Attorney or his of her designee shall be required to provide a copy of the subpoena to the Chief Judge of the county in which the subpoena is returnable.

(d) Modifying or quashing subpoena. At any time before the return date specified in the subpoena, the person or entity to whom the subpoena is directed may petition for an order modifying or quashing the subpoena on the grounds that the subpoena is oppressive or unreasonable or that the subpoena seeks privileged documents or records.

(e) Ex parte order. An Illinois circuit court for the circuit in which the subpoena is or will be issued, upon application of the Attorney General, or his or her designee, or State's Attorney, or his or her designee, may issue an ex parte order that no person or entity disclose to any other person or entity (other than persons necessary to comply with the subpoena) the existence of such subpoena for a period of up to 90 days.

(1) Such order may be issued upon a showing that the things being sought may be relevant to the investigation and there is reason to believe that such disclosure may result in:

(A) endangerment to the life or physical safety of any person;

(B) flight to avoid prosecution;

(C) destruction of or tampering with evidence;

(D) intimidation of potential witnesses; or

(E) otherwise seriously jeopardizing an investigation or unduly delaying a trial.

(2) An order under this Section may be renewed for additional periods of up to 90 days upon a showing that the circumstances described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (e) continue to exist.

(f) Enforcement. A witness who is duly subpoenaed who neglects or refuses to comply with the subpoena shall be proceeded against and punished for contempt of the court. A subpoena duces tecum issued under this Section may be enforced pursuant to the Uniform Act to Secure the Attendance of Witnesses from Within or Without a State in Criminal Proceedings.

(g) Immunity from civil liability. Notwithstanding any federal, State, or local law, any person, including officers, agents, and employees, receiving a subpoena under this Section, who complies in good faith with the subpoena and thus produces the materials sought, shall not be liable in any court of Illinois to any customer or other person for such production or for nondisclosure of that production to the customer.

(Source: P.A. 97-475, eff. 8-22-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/116-2.1)

Sec. 116-2.1. Motion to vacate prostitution convictions for sex trafficking victims.

(a) A motion under this Section may be filed at any time following the entry of a verdict or finding of guilty where the conviction was under Section 11-14 (prostitution) or Section 11-14.2 (first offender; felony prostitution) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar local ordinance and the defendant's participation in the offense was a result of having been a trafficking victim under Section 10-9 (involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or a victim of a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act (22 U.S.C. Section 7102(13)); provided that:

(1) a motion under this Section shall state why the facts giving rise to this motion were not presented to the trial court, and shall be made with due diligence, after the defendant has ceased to be a victim of such trafficking or has sought services for victims of such trafficking, subject to reasonable concerns for the safety of the defendant, family members of the defendant, or other victims of such trafficking that may be jeopardized by the bringing of such motion, or for other reasons consistent with the purpose of this Section; and

(2) reasonable notice of the motion shall be served upon the State.

(b) The court may grant the motion if, in the discretion of the court, the violation was a result of the defendant having been a victim of human trafficking. Evidence of such may include, but is not limited to:

(1) certified records of federal or State court proceedings which demonstrate that the defendant was a victim of a trafficker charged with a trafficking offense under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or under 22 U.S.C. Chapter 78;

(2) certified records of "approval notices" or "law enforcement certifications" generated from federal immigration proceedings available to such victims; or

(3) a sworn statement from a trained professional staff of a victim services organization, an attorney, a member of the clergy, or a medical or other professional from whom the defendant has sought assistance in addressing the trauma associated with being trafficked.

Alternatively, the court may consider such other evidence as it deems of sufficient credibility and probative value in determining whether the defendant is a trafficking victim or victim of a severe form of trafficking.

(c) If the court grants a motion under this Section, it must vacate the conviction and may take such additional action as is appropriate in the circumstances.

(Source: P.A. 97-267, eff. 1-1-12; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/116-4)

Sec. 116-4. Preservation of evidence for forensic testing.

(a) Before or after the trial in a prosecution for a violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or in a prosecution for an offense defined in Article 9 of that Code, or in a prosecution for an attempt in violation of Section 8-4 of that Code of any of the above-enumerated offenses, unless otherwise provided herein under subsection (b) or (c), a law enforcement agency or an agent acting on behalf of the law enforcement agency shall preserve, subject to a continuous chain of custody, any physical evidence in their possession or control that is reasonably likely to contain forensic evidence, including, but not limited to, fingerprints or biological material secured in relation to a trial and with sufficient documentation to locate that evidence.

(b) After a judgment of conviction is entered, the evidence shall either be impounded with the Clerk of the Circuit Court or shall be securely retained by a law enforcement agency. Retention shall be permanent in cases where a sentence of death is imposed. Retention shall be until the completion of the sentence, including the period of mandatory supervised release for the offense, or January 1, 2006, whichever is later, for any conviction for an offense or an attempt of an offense defined in Article 9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or for 7 years following any conviction for any other felony for which the defendant's genetic profile may be taken by a law enforcement agency and submitted for comparison in a forensic DNA database for unsolved offenses.

(c) After a judgment of conviction is entered, the law enforcement agency required to retain evidence described in subsection (a) may petition the court with notice to the defendant or, in cases where the defendant has died, his estate, his attorney of record, or an attorney appointed for that purpose by the court for entry of an order allowing it to dispose of evidence if, after a hearing, the court determines by a preponderance of the evidence that:

(1) it has no significant value for forensic science analysis and should be returned to its rightful owner, destroyed, used for training purposes, or as otherwise provided by law; or

(2) it has no significant value for forensic science analysis and is of a size, bulk, or physical character not usually retained by the law enforcement agency and cannot practicably be retained by the law enforcement agency; or

(3) there no longer exists a reasonable basis to require the preservation of the evidence because of the death of the defendant; however, this paragraph (3) does not apply if a sentence of death was imposed.

(d) The court may order the disposition of the evidence if the defendant is allowed the opportunity to take reasonable measures to remove or preserve portions of the evidence in question for future testing.

(d-5) Any order allowing the disposition of evidence pursuant to subsection (c) or (d) shall be a final and appealable order. No evidence shall be disposed of until 30 days after the order is entered, and if a notice of appeal is filed, no evidence shall be disposed of until the mandate has been received by the circuit court from the appellate court.

(d-10) All records documenting the possession, control, storage, and destruction of evidence and all police reports, evidence control or inventory records, and other reports cited in this Section, including computer records, must be retained for as long as the evidence exists and may not be disposed of without the approval of the Local Records Commission.

(e) In this Section, "law enforcement agency" includes any of the following or an agent acting on behalf of any of the following: a municipal police department, county sheriff's office, any prosecuting authority, the Department of State Police, or any other State, university, county, federal, or municipal police unit or police force.

"Biological material" includes, but is not limited to, any blood, hair, saliva, or semen from which genetic marker groupings may be obtained.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-10)

Sec. 124B-10. Applicability; offenses. This Article applies to forfeiture of property in connection with the following:

(1) A violation of Section 10-9 or 10A-10 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (involuntary servitude; involuntary servitude of a minor; or trafficking in persons).

(2) A violation of subdivision (a)(1) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (promoting juvenile prostitution) or a violation of Section 11-17.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution).

(3) A violation of subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (promoting juvenile prostitution) or a violation of Section 11-19.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (exploitation of a child).

(4) A second or subsequent violation of Section 11-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (obscenity).

(5) A second or subsequent violation of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (child pornography).

(6) A violation of Section 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (aggravated child pornography).

(7) A violation of Section 12C-65 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or Article 44 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor).

(8) A violation of Section 17-50 or Section 16D-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or the Criminal Code of 1961 (computer fraud).

(9) A felony violation of Section 17-6.3 or Article 17B of the Criminal Code of 2012 or the Criminal Code of 1961 (WIC fraud).

(10) A felony violation of Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (dog fighting).

(11) A violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (terrorism).

(12) A felony violation of Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act (animals in entertainment).

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-100)

Sec. 124B-100. Definition; "offense". For purposes of this Article, "offense" is defined as follows:

(1) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 10A-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, "offense" means the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons in violation of Section 10-9 or 10A-10 of those Codes that Code.

(2) In the case of forfeiture authorized under subdivision (a)(1) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-17.1, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, "offense" means the offense of promoting juvenile prostitution or keeping a place of juvenile prostitution in violation of subdivision (a)(1) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-17.1, of those Codes that Code.

(3) In the case of forfeiture authorized under subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-19.2, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, "offense" means the offense of promoting juvenile prostitution or exploitation of a child in violation of subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-19.2, of those Codes that Code.

(4) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 11-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, "offense" means the offense of obscenity in violation of that Section.

(5) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, "offense" means the offense of child pornography in violation of Section 11-20.1 of that Code.

(6) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of aggravated child pornography in violation of Section 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 of that Code.

(7) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 12C-65 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or Article 44 of the Criminal Code of 1961, "offense" means the offense of unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor in violation of Section 12C-65 or Article 44 of those Codes that Code.

(8) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 17-50 or 16D-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, "offense" means the offense of computer fraud in violation of Section 17-50 or 16D-5 of those Codes that Code.

(9) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 17-6.3 or Article 17B of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, "offense" means any felony violation of Section 17-6.3 or Article 17B of those Codes that Code.

(10) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 29D-65 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, "offense" means any offense under Article 29D of that Code.

(11) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act, Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, "offense" means any felony offense under either of those Sections.

(12) In the case of forfeiture authorized under Section 124B-1000(b) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, "offense" means an offense in violation of prohibited by the Criminal Code of 1961, the Criminal Code of 2012, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or an offense involving a telecommunications device possessed by a person on the real property of any elementary or secondary school without authority of the school principal.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-300)

Sec. 124B-300. Persons and property subject to forfeiture. A person who commits the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary servitude of a minor, or trafficking of persons for forced labor or services under Section 10A-10 or Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall forfeit to the State of Illinois any profits or proceeds and any property he or she has acquired or maintained in violation of Section 10A-10 or Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 that the sentencing court determines, after a forfeiture hearing under this Article, to have been acquired or maintained as a result of maintaining a person in involuntary servitude or participating in trafficking of persons for forced labor or services.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-405)

Sec. 124B-405. Persons and property subject to forfeiture.

A person who has been convicted previously of the offense of obscenity under Section 11-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and who is convicted of a second or subsequent offense of obscenity under that Section shall forfeit the following to the State of Illinois:

(1) Any property constituting or derived from any proceeds that the person obtained, directly or indirectly, as a result of the offense.

(2) Any of the person's property used in any manner, wholly or in part, to commit the offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-415)

Sec. 124B-415. Order to destroy property. If the Attorney General or State's Attorney believes any property forfeited and seized under this Part 400 describes, depicts, or portrays any of the acts or activities described in subsection (b) of Section 11-20 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the Attorney General or State's Attorney shall apply to the court for an order to destroy that property. If the court determines that the property describes, depicts, or portrays such acts or activities it shall order the Attorney General or State's Attorney to destroy the property.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-420)

Sec. 124B-420. Distribution of property and sale proceeds.

(a) All moneys and the sale proceeds of all other property forfeited and seized under this Part 400 shall be distributed as follows:

(1) 50% shall be distributed to the unit of local government whose officers or employees conducted the investigation into the offense and caused the arrest or arrests and prosecution leading to the forfeiture, except that if the investigation, arrest or arrests, and prosecution leading to the forfeiture were undertaken by the sheriff, this portion shall be distributed to the county for deposit into a special fund in the county treasury appropriated to the sheriff. Amounts distributed to the county for the sheriff or to units of local government under this paragraph shall be used for enforcement of laws or ordinances governing obscenity and child pornography. If the investigation, arrest or arrests, and prosecution leading to the forfeiture were undertaken solely by a State agency, however, the portion designated in this paragraph shall be paid into the State treasury to be used for enforcement of laws governing obscenity and child pornography.

(2) 25% shall be distributed to the county in which the prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was instituted, deposited into a special fund in the county treasury, and appropriated to the State's Attorney for use in the enforcement of laws governing obscenity and child pornography.

(3) 25% shall be distributed to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and deposited into the Obscenity Profits Forfeiture Fund, which is hereby created in the State treasury, to be used by the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor for additional expenses incurred in prosecuting appeals arising under Sections 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, and 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. Any amounts remaining in the Fund after all additional expenses have been paid shall be used by the Office to reduce the participating county contributions to the Office on a pro-rated basis as determined by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor based on the populations of the participating counties.

(b) Before any distribution under subsection (a), the Attorney General or State's Attorney shall retain from the forfeited moneys or sale proceeds, or both, sufficient moneys to cover expenses related to the administration and sale of the forfeited property.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-500)

Sec. 124B-500. Persons and property subject to forfeiture. A person who commits the offense of promoting juvenile prostitution, keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, exploitation of a child, child pornography, or aggravated child pornography under subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 or under Section 11-17.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall forfeit the following property to the State of Illinois:

(1) Any profits or proceeds and any property the person has acquired or maintained in violation of subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 or in violation of Section 11-17.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 that the sentencing court determines, after a forfeiture hearing under this Article, to have been acquired or maintained as a result of keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, exploitation of a child, child pornography, or aggravated child pornography.

(2) Any interest in, securities of, claim against, or property or contractual right of any kind affording a source of influence over any enterprise that the person has established, operated, controlled, or conducted in violation of subdivision (a)(1) or (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 or in violation of Section 11-17.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 that the sentencing court determines, after a forfeiture hearing under this Article, to have been acquired or maintained as a result of keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, exploitation of a child, child pornography, or aggravated child pornography.

(3) Any computer that contains a depiction of child pornography in any encoded or decoded format in violation of Section 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. For purposes of this paragraph (3), "computer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 16D-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-600)

Sec. 124B-600. Persons and property subject to forfeiture. A person who commits the offense of computer fraud as set forth in Section 16D-5 or Section 17-50 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall forfeit any property that the sentencing court determines, after a forfeiture hearing under this Article, the person has acquired or maintained, directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, as a result of that offense. The person shall also forfeit any interest in, securities of, claim against, or contractual right of any kind that affords the person a source of influence over any enterprise that the person has established, operated, controlled, conducted, or participated in conducting, if the person's relationship to or connection with any such thing or activity directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, is traceable to any item or benefit that the person has obtained or acquired through computer fraud.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-610)

Sec. 124B-610. Computer used in commission of felony; forfeiture. If a person commits a felony under any provision of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or another statute and the instrumentality used in the commission of the offense, or in connection with or in furtherance of a scheme or design to commit the offense, is a computer owned by the defendant (or, if the defendant is a minor, owned by the minor's parent or legal guardian), the computer is subject to forfeiture under this Article. A computer, or any part of a computer, is not subject to forfeiture under this Article, however, under either of the following circumstances:

(1) The computer accessed in the commission of the offense was owned or leased by the victim or an innocent third party at the time the offense was committed.

(2) The rights of a creditor, lienholder, or person having a security interest in the computer at the time the offense was committed will be adversely affected.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-700)

Sec. 124B-700. Persons and property subject to forfeiture. A person who commits a felony violation of Article 17B or Section 17-6.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall forfeit any property that the sentencing court determines, after a forfeiture hearing under this Article, (i) the person has acquired, in whole or in part, as a result of committing the violation or (ii) the person has maintained or used, in whole or in part, to facilitate, directly or indirectly, the commission of the violation. The person shall also forfeit any interest in, securities of, claim against, or contractual right of any kind that affords the person a source of influence over any enterprise that the person has established, operated, controlled, conducted, or participated in conducting, if the person's relationship to or connection with any such thing or activity directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, is traceable to any item or benefit that the person has obtained or acquired as a result of a felony violation of Article 17B or Section 17-6.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. Property subject to forfeiture under this Part 700 includes the following:

(1) All moneys, things of value, books, records, and research products and materials that are used or intended to be used in committing a felony violation of Article 17B or Section 17-6.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(2) Everything of value furnished, or intended to be furnished, in exchange for a substance in violation of Article 17B or Section 17-6.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; all proceeds traceable to that exchange; and all moneys, negotiable instruments, and securities used or intended to be used to commit or in any manner to facilitate the commission of a felony violation of Article 17B or Section 17-6.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(3) All real property, including any right, title, and interest (including, but not limited to, any leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land trust) in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any appurtenances or improvements, that is used or intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit or in any manner to facilitate the commission of a felony violation of Article 17B or Section 17-6.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or that is the proceeds of any act that constitutes a felony violation of Article 17B or Section 17-6.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-710)

Sec. 124B-710. Sale of forfeited property by Director of State Police; return to seizing agency or prosecutor.

(a) The court shall authorize the Director of State Police to seize any property declared forfeited under this Article on terms and conditions the court deems proper.

(b) When property is forfeited under this Part 700, the Director of State Police shall sell the property unless the property is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the public. The Director shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance with Section 124B-715.

(c) On the application of the seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the investigation, arrest, and prosecution that lead to the forfeiture, however, the Director may return any item of forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for official use in the enforcement of laws relating to Article 17B or Section 17-6.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the agency or prosecutor can demonstrate that the item requested would be useful to the agency or prosecutor in their enforcement efforts. When any real property returned to the seizing agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and distributed in accordance with Section 124B-715.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-800)

Sec. 124B-800. Persons and property subject to forfeiture.

(a) A person who commits an offense under Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall forfeit any property that the sentencing court determines, after a forfeiture hearing under this Article, (i) the person has acquired or maintained, directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, as a result of the offense or (ii) the person used, was about to use, or intended to use in connection with the offense. The person shall also forfeit any interest in, securities of, claim against, or contractual right of any kind that affords the person a source of influence over any enterprise that the person has established, operated, controlled, conducted, or participated in conducting, if the person's relationship to or connection with any such thing or activity directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, is traceable to any item or benefit that the person has obtained or acquired as a result of a violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or that the person used, was about to use, or intended to use in connection with a violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) For purposes of this Part 800, "person" has the meaning given in Section 124B-115 of this Code and, in addition to that meaning, includes, without limitation, any charitable organization, whether incorporated or unincorporated, any professional fund raiser, professional solicitor, limited liability company, association, joint stock company, association, trust, trustee, or any group of people formally or informally affiliated or associated for a common purpose, and any officer, director, partner, member, or agent of any person.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-905)

Sec. 124B-905. Persons and property subject to forfeiture. A person who commits a felony violation of Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or a felony violation of Section 48-1 or Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall forfeit the following:

(1) Any moneys, profits, or proceeds the person acquired, in whole or in part, as a result of committing the violation.

(2) Any real property or interest in real property that the sentencing court determines, after a forfeiture hearing under this Article, (i) the person has acquired, in whole or in part, as a result of committing the violation or (ii) the person has maintained or used, in whole or in part, to facilitate, directly or indirectly, the commission of the violation. Real property subject to forfeiture under this Part 900 includes property that belongs to any of the following:

(A) The person organizing the show, exhibition, program, or other activity described in subsections (a) through (g) of Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act, or Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(B) Any other person participating in the activity described in subsections (a) through (g) of Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act, or Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 who is related to the organization and operation of the activity.

(C) Any person who knowingly allowed the activities to occur on his or her premises.

The person shall also forfeit any interest in, securities of, claim against, or contractual right of any kind that affords the person a source of influence over any enterprise that the person has established, operated, controlled, conducted, or participated in conducting, if the person's relationship to or connection with any such thing or activity directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, is traceable to any item or benefit that the person has obtained or acquired as a result of a felony violation of Section 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act, or a felony violation of Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or Section 26-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-712, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(725 ILCS 5/124B-1000)

Sec. 124B-1000. Persons and property subject to forfeiture.

(a) A person who commits the offense of unlawful transfer of a telecommunications device to a minor in violation of Section 12C-65 or Article 44 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall forfeit any telecommunications device used in the commission of the offense or which constitutes evidence of the commission of such offense.

(b) A person who commits an offense prohibited by the Criminal Code of 1961, the Criminal Code of 2012, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or an offense involving a telecommunications device possessed by a person on the real property of any elementary or secondary school without authority of the school principal shall forfeit any telecommunications device used in the commission of the offense or which constitutes evidence of the commission of such offense. A person who is not a student of the particular elementary or secondary school, who is on school property as an invitee of the school, and who has possession of a telecommunications device for lawful and legitimate purposes, shall not need to obtain authority from the school principal to possess the telecommunications device on school property.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 640. The Bill of Rights for Children is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 115/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1353)

Sec. 3. Rights to present child impact statement.

(a) In any case where a defendant has been convicted of a violent crime involving a child or a juvenile has been adjudicated a delinquent for any offense defined in Sections 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, and 11-20.3 and in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, except those in which both parties have agreed to the imposition of a specific sentence, and a parent or legal guardian of the child involved is present in the courtroom at the time of the sentencing or the disposition hearing, the parent or legal guardian upon his or her request shall have the right to address the court regarding the impact which the defendant's criminal conduct or the juvenile's delinquent conduct has had upon the child. If the parent or legal guardian chooses to exercise this right, the impact statement must have been prepared in writing in conjunction with the Office of the State's Attorney prior to the initial hearing or sentencing, before it can be presented orally at the sentencing hearing. The court shall consider any statements made by the parent or legal guardian, along with all other appropriate factors in determining the sentence of the defendant or disposition of such juvenile.

(b) The crime victim has the right to prepare a victim impact statement and present it to the office of the State's Attorney at any time during the proceedings.

(c) This Section shall apply to any child victims of any offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 during any dispositional hearing under Section 5-705 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 which takes place pursuant to an adjudication of delinquency for any such offense.

(Source: P.A. 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 645. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1403)

Sec. 3. The terms used in this Act, unless the context clearly requires otherwise, shall have the following meanings:

(a) "Crime victim" and "victim" mean (1) a person physically injured in this State as a result of a violent crime perpetrated or attempted against that person or (2) a person who suffers injury to or loss of property as a result of a violent crime perpetrated or attempted against that person or (3) a single representative who may be the spouse, parent, child or sibling of a person killed as a result of a violent crime perpetrated against the person killed or the spouse, parent, child or sibling of any person granted rights under this Act who is physically or mentally incapable of exercising such rights, except where the spouse, parent, child or sibling is also the defendant or prisoner or (4) any person against whom a violent crime has been committed or (5) any person who has suffered personal injury as a result of a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or of a similar provision of a local ordinance, or of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended or (6) in proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, both parents, legal guardians, foster parents, or a single adult representative of a minor or disabled person who is a crime victim.

(b) "Witness" means any person who personally observed the commission of a violent crime and who will testify on behalf of the State of Illinois in the criminal prosecution of the violent crime.

(c) "Violent Crime" means any felony in which force or threat of force was used against the victim, or any offense involving sexual exploitation, sexual conduct or sexual penetration, or a violation of Section 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, or 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, domestic battery, violation of an order of protection, stalking, or any misdemeanor which results in death or great bodily harm to the victim or any violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, if the violation resulted in personal injury or death, and includes any action committed by a juvenile that would be a violent crime if committed by an adult. For the purposes of this paragraph, "personal injury" shall include any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or medical facility. A type A injury shall include severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(d) "Sentencing Hearing" means any hearing where a sentence is imposed by the court on a convicted defendant and includes hearings conducted pursuant to Sections 5-6-4, 5-6-4.1, 5-7-2 and 5-7-7 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(e) "Court proceedings" includes the preliminary hearing, any hearing the effect of which may be the release of the defendant from custody or to alter the conditions of bond, the trial, sentencing hearing, notice of appeal, any modification of sentence, probation revocation hearings or parole hearings.

(f) "Concerned citizen" includes relatives of the victim, friends of the victim, witnesses to the crime, or any other person associated with the victim or prisoner.

(Source: P.A. 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-875, eff. 1-22-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-572, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 650. The Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(725 ILCS 175/4) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1654)

Sec. 4. A person commits narcotics racketeering when he:

(a) Receives income knowing such income to be derived, directly or indirectly, from a pattern of narcotics activity in which he participated, or for which he is accountable under Section 5-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; or

(b) Receives income, knowing such income to be derived, directly or indirectly, from a pattern of narcotics activity in which he participated, or for which he is accountable under Section 5-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, and he uses or invests, directly or indirectly, any part of such income, or the proceeds of such income, in acquisition of any interest in, or the establishment or operation of, any enterprise doing business in the State of Illinois; or

(c) Knowingly, through a pattern of narcotics activity in which he participated, or for which he is accountable under Section 5-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, acquires or maintains, directly or indirectly, any interest in or contract of any enterprise which is engaged in, or the activities of which affect, business in the State of Illinois; or

(d) Being a person employed by or associated with any enterprise doing business in the State of Illinois, he knowingly conducts or participates, directly or indirectly, in the conduct of such enterprise's affairs through a pattern of narcotics activity in which he participated, or for which he is accountable under Section 5-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 82-940.)

Section 655. The Sex Offense Victim Polygraph Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(725 ILCS 200/1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1551)

Sec. 1. Lie Detector Tests.

(a) No law enforcement officer, State's Attorney or other official shall ask or require an alleged victim of an offense described in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, to submit to a polygraph examination or any form of a mechanical or electrical lie detector test.

(b) A victim's refusal to submit to a polygraph or any form of a mechanical or electrical lie detector test shall not mitigate against the investigation, charging or prosecution of the pending case as originally charged.

(Source: P.A. 96-1273, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 660. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 207/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act, the term:

(a) "Department" means the Department of Human Services.

(b) "Mental disorder" means a congenital or acquired condition affecting the emotional or volitional capacity that predisposes a person to engage in acts of sexual violence.

(c) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Human Services.

(d) "Sexually motivated" means that one of the purposes for an act is for the actor's sexual arousal or gratification.

(e) "Sexually violent offense" means any of the following:

(1) Any crime specified in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(1.5) Any former law of this State specified in Section 11-1 (rape), 11-3 (deviate sexual assault), 11-4 (indecent liberties with a child) or 11-4.1 (aggravated indecent liberties with a child) of the Criminal Code of 1961; or

(2) First degree murder, if it is determined by the agency with jurisdiction to have been sexually motivated; or

(3) Any solicitation, conspiracy or attempt to commit a crime under paragraph (e)(1) or (e)(2) of this Section.

(f) "Sexually violent person" means a person who has been convicted of a sexually violent offense, has been adjudicated delinquent for a sexually violent offense, or has been found not guilty of a sexually violent offense by reason of insanity and who is dangerous because he or she suffers from a mental disorder that makes it substantially probable that the person will engage in acts of sexual violence.

(Source: P.A. 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 665. The Statewide Grand Jury Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, and 4 as follows:

(725 ILCS 215/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1702)

Sec. 2. (a) County grand juries and State's Attorneys have always had and shall continue to have primary responsibility for investigating, indicting, and prosecuting persons who violate the criminal laws of the State of Illinois. However, in recent years organized terrorist activity directed against innocent civilians and certain criminal enterprises have developed that require investigation, indictment, and prosecution on a statewide or multicounty level. The criminal enterprises exist as a result of the allure of profitability present in narcotic activity, the unlawful sale and transfer of firearms, and streetgang related felonies and organized terrorist activity is supported by the contribution of money and expert assistance from geographically diverse sources. In order to shut off the life blood of terrorism and weaken or eliminate the criminal enterprises, assets, and property used to further these offenses must be frozen, and any profit must be removed. State statutes exist that can accomplish that goal. Among them are the offense of money laundering, the Cannabis and Controlled Substances Tax Act, violations of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act, and gunrunning. Local prosecutors need investigative personnel and specialized training to attack and eliminate these profits. In light of the transitory and complex nature of conduct that constitutes these criminal activities, the many diverse property interests that may be used, acquired directly or indirectly as a result of these criminal activities, and the many places that illegally obtained property may be located, it is the purpose of this Act to create a limited, multicounty Statewide Grand Jury with authority to investigate, indict, and prosecute: narcotic activity, including cannabis and controlled substance trafficking, narcotics racketeering, money laundering, violations of the Cannabis and Controlled Substances Tax Act, and violations of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; the unlawful sale and transfer of firearms; gunrunning; and streetgang related felonies.

(b) A Statewide Grand Jury may also investigate, indict, and prosecute violations facilitated by the use of a computer of any of the following offenses: indecent solicitation of a child, sexual exploitation of a child, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, juvenile pimping, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, or promoting juvenile prostitution except as described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 215/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1703)

Sec. 3. Written application for the appointment of a Circuit Judge to convene and preside over a Statewide Grand Jury, with jurisdiction extending throughout the State, shall be made to the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. Upon such written application, the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court shall appoint a Circuit Judge from the circuit where the Statewide Grand Jury is being sought to be convened, who shall make a determination that the convening of a Statewide Grand Jury is necessary.

In such application the Attorney General shall state that the convening of a Statewide Grand Jury is necessary because of an alleged offense or offenses set forth in this Section involving more than one county of the State and identifying any such offense alleged; and

(a) that he or she believes that the grand jury function for the investigation and indictment of the offense or offenses cannot effectively be performed by a county grand jury together with the reasons for such belief, and

(b)(1) that each State's Attorney with jurisdiction over an offense or offenses to be investigated has consented to the impaneling of the Statewide Grand Jury, or

(2) if one or more of the State's Attorneys having jurisdiction over an offense or offenses to be investigated fails to consent to the impaneling of the Statewide Grand Jury, the Attorney General shall set forth good cause for impaneling the Statewide Grand Jury.

If the Circuit Judge determines that the convening of a Statewide Grand Jury is necessary, he or she shall convene and impanel the Statewide Grand Jury with jurisdiction extending throughout the State to investigate and return indictments:

(a) For violations of any of the following or for any other criminal offense committed in the course of violating any of the following: Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Act, or the Cannabis and Controlled Substances Tax Act; a streetgang related felony offense; Section 24-2.1, 24-2.2, 24-3, 24-3A, 24-3.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.4, 24-4, or 24-5 or subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7), 24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(c) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or a money laundering offense; provided that the violation or offense involves acts occurring in more than one county of this State; and

(a-5) For violations facilitated by the use of a computer, including the use of the Internet, the World Wide Web, electronic mail, message board, newsgroup, or any other commercial or noncommercial on-line service, of any of the following offenses: indecent solicitation of a child, sexual exploitation of a child, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, juvenile pimping, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, or promoting juvenile prostitution except as described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and

(b) For the offenses of perjury, subornation of perjury, communicating with jurors and witnesses, and harassment of jurors and witnesses, as they relate to matters before the Statewide Grand Jury.

"Streetgang related" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

Upon written application by the Attorney General for the convening of an additional Statewide Grand Jury, the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court shall appoint a Circuit Judge from the circuit for which the additional Statewide Grand Jury is sought. The Circuit Judge shall determine the necessity for an additional Statewide Grand Jury in accordance with the provisions of this Section. No more than 2 Statewide Grand Juries may be empaneled at any time.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(725 ILCS 215/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1704)

Sec. 4. (a) The presiding judge of the Statewide Grand Jury will receive recommendations from the Attorney General as to the county in which the Grand Jury will sit. Prior to making the recommendations, the Attorney General shall obtain the permission of the local State's Attorney to use his or her county for the site of the Statewide Grand Jury. Upon receiving the Attorney General's recommendations, the presiding judge will choose one of those recommended locations as the site where the Grand Jury shall sit.

Any indictment by a Statewide Grand Jury shall be returned to the Circuit Judge presiding over the Statewide Grand Jury and shall include a finding as to the county or counties in which the alleged offense was committed. Thereupon, the judge shall, by order, designate the county of venue for the purpose of trial. The judge may also, by order, direct the consolidation of an indictment returned by a county grand jury with an indictment returned by the Statewide Grand Jury and set venue for trial.

(b) Venue for purposes of trial for the offense of narcotics racketeering shall be proper in any county where:

(1) Cannabis or a controlled substance which is the basis for the charge of narcotics racketeering was used; acquired; transferred or distributed to, from or through; or any county where any act was performed to further the use; acquisition, transfer or distribution of said cannabis or controlled substance; or

(2) Any money, property, property interest, or any other asset generated by narcotics activities was acquired, used, sold, transferred or distributed to, from or through; or,

(3) Any enterprise interest obtained as a result of narcotics racketeering was acquired, used, transferred or distributed to, from or through, or where any activity was conducted by the enterprise or any conduct to further the interests of such an enterprise.

(c) Venue for purposes of trial for the offense of money laundering shall be proper in any county where any part of a financial transaction in criminally derived property took place, or in any county where any money or monetary interest which is the basis for the offense, was acquired, used, sold, transferred or distributed to, from, or through.

(d) A person who commits the offense of cannabis trafficking or controlled substance trafficking may be tried in any county.

(e) Venue for purposes of trial for any violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 may be in the county in which an act of terrorism occurs, the county in which material support or resources are provided or solicited, the county in which criminal assistance is rendered, or any county in which any act in furtherance of any violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 occurs.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

Section 670. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-1-2, 3-3-2, 3-3-7, 3-6-3, 3-6-4, 3-10-7, 3-14-1.5, 3-14-2, 5-3-2, 5-3-4, 5-4-1, 5-4-3, 5-4-3.1, 5-4-3.2, 5-4.5-20, 5-5-3, 5-5-3.2, 5-5-5, 5-5-6, 5-6-1, 5-6-3, 5-6-3.1, 5-8-1, 5-8-1.2, 5-8-4, 5-8A-6, 5-9-1.3, 5-9-1.7, 5-9-1.8, 5-9-1.10, 5-9-1.14, 5-9-1.16, 5-9-1.19, and 5-9-1.20 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-1-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-1-2)

Sec. 3-1-2. Definitions.

(a) "Chief Administrative Officer" means the person designated by the Director to exercise the powers and duties of the Department of Corrections in regard to committed persons within a correctional institution or facility, and includes the superintendent of any juvenile institution or facility.

(a-5) "Sex offense" for the purposes of paragraph (16) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7, paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 5-6-3, and paragraph (18) of subsection (c) of Section 5-6-3.1 only means:

(i) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 10-7 (aiding or abetting child abduction under Section 10-5(b)(10)), 10-5(b)(10) (child luring), 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child), 11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult), 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution), 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute), 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution), 11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute), 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping), 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child), 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), or 12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(ii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 11-1.20 or 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 or 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), 11-1.60 or 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), and subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 or subsection (a) of Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse). An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iii) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the defendant is not a parent of the victim:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(iv) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (a-5).

An offense violating federal law or the law of another state that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (a-5) shall constitute a sex offense for the purpose of this subsection (a-5). A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person under any federal law or law of another state that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall constitute an adjudication for a sex offense for the purposes of this subsection (a-5).

(b) "Commitment" means a judicially determined placement in the custody of the Department of Corrections on the basis of delinquency or conviction.

(c) "Committed Person" is a person committed to the Department, however a committed person shall not be considered to be an employee of the Department of Corrections for any purpose, including eligibility for a pension, benefits, or any other compensation or rights or privileges which may be provided to employees of the Department.

(c-5) "Computer scrub software" means any third-party added software, designed to delete information from the computer unit, the hard drive, or other software, which would eliminate and prevent discovery of browser activity, including but not limited to Internet history, address bar or bars, cache or caches, and/or cookies, and which would over-write files in a way so as to make previous computer activity, including but not limited to website access, more difficult to discover.

(d) "Correctional Institution or Facility" means any building or part of a building where committed persons are kept in a secured manner.

(e) In the case of functions performed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Department" means the Department of Corrections of this State. In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Department" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (f-5).

(f) In the case of functions performed before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Director" means the Director of the Department of Corrections. In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, "Director" has the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (f-5).

(f-5) In the case of functions performed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, references to "Department" or "Director" refer to either the Department of Corrections or the Director of Corrections or to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the Director of Juvenile Justice unless the context is specific to the Department of Juvenile Justice or the Director of Juvenile Justice.

(g) "Discharge" means the final termination of a commitment to the Department of Corrections.

(h) "Discipline" means the rules and regulations for the maintenance of order and the protection of persons and property within the institutions and facilities of the Department and their enforcement.

(i) "Escape" means the intentional and unauthorized absence of a committed person from the custody of the Department.

(j) "Furlough" means an authorized leave of absence from the Department of Corrections for a designated purpose and period of time.

(k) "Parole" means the conditional and revocable release of a committed person under the supervision of a parole officer.

(l) "Prisoner Review Board" means the Board established in Section 3-3-1(a), independent of the Department, to review rules and regulations with respect to good time credits, to hear charges brought by the Department against certain prisoners alleged to have violated Department rules with respect to good time credits, to set release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this Amendatory Act of 1977, to hear requests and make recommendations to the Governor with respect to pardon, reprieve or commutation, to set conditions for parole and mandatory supervised release and determine whether violations of those conditions justify revocation of parole or release, and to assume all other functions previously exercised by the Illinois Parole and Pardon Board.

(m) Whenever medical treatment, service, counseling, or care is referred to in this Unified Code of Corrections, such term may be construed by the Department or Court, within its discretion, to include treatment, service or counseling by a Christian Science practitioner or nursing care appropriate therewith whenever request therefor is made by a person subject to the provisions of this Act.

(n) "Victim" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act.

(o) "Wrongfully imprisoned person" means a person who has been discharged from a prison of this State and has received:

(1) a pardon from the Governor stating that such pardon is issued on the ground of innocence of the crime for which he or she was imprisoned; or

(2) a certificate of innocence from the Circuit Court as provided in Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1550, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-2)

Sec. 3-3-2. Powers and Duties.

(a) The Parole and Pardon Board is abolished and the term "Parole and Pardon Board" as used in any law of Illinois, shall read "Prisoner Review Board." After the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, the Prisoner Review Board shall provide by rule for the orderly transition of all files, records, and documents of the Parole and Pardon Board and for such other steps as may be necessary to effect an orderly transition and shall:

(1) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, cases of prisoners who were sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, and who are eligible for parole;

(2) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of parole and the time of discharge from parole, impose sanctions for violations of parole, and revoke parole for those sentenced under the law in effect prior to this amendatory Act of 1977; provided that the decision to parole and the conditions of parole for all prisoners who were sentenced for first degree murder or who received a minimum sentence of 20 years or more under the law in effect prior to February 1, 1978 shall be determined by a majority vote of the Prisoner Review Board. One representative supporting parole and one representative opposing parole will be allowed to speak. Their comments shall be limited to making corrections and filling in omissions to the Board's presentation and discussion;

(3) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory supervised release, impose sanctions for violations of mandatory supervised release, and revoke mandatory supervised release for those sentenced under the law in effect after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977;

(3.5) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory supervised release, to impose sanctions for violations of mandatory supervised release and revoke mandatory supervised release for those serving extended supervised release terms pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1;

(4) hear by at least one 1 member and through a panel of at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the Department for alleged violation of Department rules with respect to sentence credits under Section 3-6-3 of this Code in which the Department seeks to revoke sentence credits, if the amount of time at issue exceeds 30 days or when, during any 12 month period, the cumulative amount of credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled release. In such cases, the Department of Corrections may revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit in excess of thirty days. However, the Board shall not be empowered to review the Department's decision with respect to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit for any prisoner or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by the Department;

(5) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, the release dates for certain prisoners sentenced under the law in existence prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, in accordance with Section 3-3-2.1 of this Code;

(6) hear by at least one member and through a panel of at least 3 members decide, all requests for pardon, reprieve or commutation, and make confidential recommendations to the Governor;

(7) comply with the requirements of the Open Parole Hearings Act;

(8) hear by at least one member and, through a panel of at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the Department for court dismissal of a frivolous lawsuit pursuant to Section 3-6-3(d) of this Code in which the Department seeks to revoke up to 180 days of sentence credit, and if the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of sentence credit at the time of the dismissal, then all sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner shall be revoked;

(9) hear by at least 3 members, and, through a panel of at least 3 members, decide whether to grant certificates of relief from disabilities or certificates of good conduct as provided in Article 5.5 of Chapter V; and

(10) upon a petition by a person who has been convicted of a Class 3 or Class 4 felony and who meets the requirements of this paragraph, hear by at least 3 members and, with the unanimous vote of a panel of 3 members, issue a certificate of eligibility for sealing recommending that the court order the sealing of all official records of the arresting authority, the circuit court clerk, and the Department of State Police concerning the arrest and conviction for the Class 3 or 4 felony. A person may not apply to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for sealing:

(A) until 5 years have elapsed since the expiration of his or her sentence;

(B) until 5 years have elapsed since any arrests or detentions by a law enforcement officer for an alleged violation of law, other than a petty offense, traffic offense, conservation offense, or local ordinance offense;

(C) if convicted of a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Precursor Tracking Act unless the petitioner has completed a drug abuse program for the offense on which sealing is sought and provides proof that he or she has completed the program successfully;

(D) if convicted of:

(i) a sex offense described in Article 11 or Sections 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) aggravated assault;

(iii) aggravated battery;

(iv) domestic battery;

(v) aggravated domestic battery;

(vi) violation of an order of protection;

(vii) an offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 involving a firearm;

(viii) driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof;

(ix) aggravated driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof; or

(x) any crime defined as a crime of violence under Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

If a person has applied to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for sealing and the Board denies the certificate, the person must wait at least 4 years before filing again or filing for pardon from the Governor unless the Chairman of the Prisoner Review Board grants a waiver.

The decision to issue or refrain from issuing a certificate of eligibility for sealing shall be at the Board's sole discretion, and shall not give rise to any cause of action against either the Board or its members.

The Board may only authorize the sealing of Class 3 and 4 felony convictions of the petitioner from one information or indictment under this paragraph (10). A petitioner may only receive one certificate of eligibility for sealing under this provision for life.

(a-5) The Prisoner Review Board, with the cooperation of and in coordination with the Department of Corrections and the Department of Central Management Services, shall implement a pilot project in 3 correctional institutions providing for the conduct of hearings under paragraphs (1) and (4) of subsection (a) of this Section through interactive video conferences. The project shall be implemented within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996. Within 6 months after the implementation of the pilot project, the Prisoner Review Board, with the cooperation of and in coordination with the Department of Corrections and the Department of Central Management Services, shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the use, costs, effectiveness, and future viability of interactive video conferences for Prisoner Review Board hearings.

(b) Upon recommendation of the Department the Board may restore sentence credit previously revoked.

(c) The Board shall cooperate with the Department in promoting an effective system of parole and mandatory supervised release.

(d) The Board shall promulgate rules for the conduct of its work, and the Chairman shall file a copy of such rules and any amendments thereto with the Director and with the Secretary of State.

(e) The Board shall keep records of all of its official actions and shall make them accessible in accordance with law and the rules of the Board.

(f) The Board or one who has allegedly violated the conditions of his parole or mandatory supervised release may require by subpoena the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of documentary evidence relating to any matter under investigation or hearing. The Chairman of the Board may sign subpoenas which shall be served by any agent or public official authorized by the Chairman of the Board, or by any person lawfully authorized to serve a subpoena under the laws of the State of Illinois. The attendance of witnesses, and the production of documentary evidence, may be required from any place in the State to a hearing location in the State before the Chairman of the Board or his designated agent or agents or any duly constituted Committee or Subcommittee of the Board. Witnesses so summoned shall be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the circuit courts of the State, and witnesses whose depositions are taken and the persons taking those depositions are each entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in actions in the circuit courts of the State. Fees and mileage shall be vouchered for payment when the witness is discharged from further attendance.

In case of disobedience to a subpoena, the Board may petition any circuit court of the State for an order requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of documentary evidence or both. A copy of such petition shall be served by personal service or by registered or certified mail upon the person who has failed to obey the subpoena, and such person shall be advised in writing that a hearing upon the petition will be requested in a court room to be designated in such notice before the judge hearing motions or extraordinary remedies at a specified time, on a specified date, not less than 10 nor more than 15 days after the deposit of the copy of the written notice and petition in the U.S. mails addressed to the person at his last known address or after the personal service of the copy of the notice and petition upon such person. The court upon the filing of such a petition, may order the person refusing to obey the subpoena to appear at an investigation or hearing, or to there produce documentary evidence, if so ordered, or to give evidence relative to the subject matter of that investigation or hearing. Any failure to obey such order of the circuit court may be punished by that court as a contempt of court.

Each member of the Board and any hearing officer designated by the Board shall have the power to administer oaths and to take the testimony of persons under oath.

(g) Except under subsection (a) of this Section, a majority of the members then appointed to the Prisoner Review Board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of all business of the Board.

(h) The Prisoner Review Board shall annually transmit to the Director a detailed report of its work for the preceding calendar year. The annual report shall also be transmitted to the Governor for submission to the Legislature.

(Source: P.A. 96-875, eff. 1-22-10; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-7)

Sec. 3-3-7. Conditions of Parole or Mandatory Supervised Release.

(a) The conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release shall be such as the Prisoner Review Board deems necessary to assist the subject in leading a law-abiding life. The conditions of every parole and mandatory supervised release are that the subject:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction during the parole or release term;

(2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(3) report to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(4) permit the agent to visit him or her at his or her home, employment, or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the agent to discharge his or her duties;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on parole or mandatory supervised release;

(6) secure permission before visiting or writing a committed person in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility;

(7) report all arrests to an agent of the Department of Corrections as soon as permitted by the arresting authority but in no event later than 24 hours after release from custody and immediately report service or notification of an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order to an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(7.5) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the individual shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment conducted in conformance with the standards developed by the Sex Offender Management Board Act by a treatment provider approved by the Board;

(7.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders, or is in any facility operated or licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services or by the Department of Human Services, or is in any licensed medical facility;

(7.7) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-988), wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term and if convicted for an offense of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or ritualized abuse of a child committed on or after August 11, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-236) when the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and the defendant used force or the threat of force in the commission of the offense wear an approved electronic monitoring device as defined in Section 5-8A-2 that has Global Positioning System (GPS) capability for the duration of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release term, or extended mandatory supervised release term;

(7.8) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.8), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.9) if convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, consent to search of computers, PDAs, cellular phones, and other devices under his or her control that are capable of accessing the Internet or storing electronic files, in order to confirm Internet protocol addresses reported in accordance with the Sex Offender Registration Act and compliance with conditions in this Act;

(7.10) if convicted for an offense that would qualify the accused as a sex offender or sexual predator under the Sex Offender Registration Act on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-640), not possess prescription drugs for erectile dysfunction;

(7.11) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent;

(7.12) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(7.13) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses;

(8) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before leaving the State of Illinois;

(9) obtain permission of an agent of the Department of Corrections before changing his or her residence or employment;

(10) consent to a search of his or her person, property, or residence under his or her control;

(11) refrain from the use or possession of narcotics or other controlled substances in any form, or both, or any paraphernalia related to those substances and submit to a urinalysis test as instructed by a parole agent of the Department of Corrections;

(12) not frequent places where controlled substances are illegally sold, used, distributed, or administered;

(13) not knowingly associate with other persons on parole or mandatory supervised release without prior written permission of his or her parole agent and not associate with persons who are members of an organized gang as that term is defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(14) provide true and accurate information, as it relates to his or her adjustment in the community while on parole or mandatory supervised release or to his or her conduct while incarcerated, in response to inquiries by his or her parole agent or of the Department of Corrections;

(15) follow any specific instructions provided by the parole agent that are consistent with furthering conditions set and approved by the Prisoner Review Board or by law, exclusive of placement on electronic detention, to achieve the goals and objectives of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release or to protect the public. These instructions by the parole agent may be modified at any time, as the agent deems appropriate;

(16) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(17) if convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or Section 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code;

(18) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory; a no contact order issued pursuant to the Civil No Contact Order Act; or a no contact order issued pursuant to the Stalking No Contact Order Act; and

(19) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense, be:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Board may in addition to other conditions require that the subject:

(1) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(3) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of persons on probation or parole;

(4) support his dependents;

(5) (blank);

(6) (blank);

(7) (blank);

(7.5) if convicted for an offense committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (7.5), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(7.6) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the Department;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's supervising agent, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the Board, the Department or the offender's supervising agent; and

(8) in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; or

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home.

(b-1) In addition to the conditions set forth in subsections (a) and (b), persons required to register as sex offenders pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act, upon release from the custody of the Illinois Department of Corrections, may be required by the Board to comply with the following specific conditions of release:

(1) reside only at a Department approved location;

(2) comply with all requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act;

(3) notify third parties of the risks that may be occasioned by his or her criminal record;

(4) obtain the approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections prior to accepting employment or pursuing a course of study or vocational training and notify the Department prior to any change in employment, study, or training;

(5) not be employed or participate in any volunteer activity that involves contact with children, except under circumstances approved in advance and in writing by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(6) be electronically monitored for a minimum of 12 months from the date of release as determined by the Board;

(7) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon terms approved in advance by an agent of the Department of Corrections. The terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, and others accompanying the person;

(8) refrain from having any contact, including written or oral communications, directly or indirectly, personally or by telephone, letter, or through a third party with certain specified persons including, but not limited to, the victim or the victim's family without the prior written approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(9) refrain from all contact, directly or indirectly, personally, by telephone, letter, or through a third party, with minor children without prior identification and approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(10) neither possess or have under his or her control any material that is sexually oriented, sexually stimulating, or that shows male or female sex organs or any pictures depicting children under 18 years of age nude or any written or audio material describing sexual intercourse or that depicts or alludes to sexual activity, including but not limited to visual, auditory, telephonic, or electronic media, or any matter obtained through access to any computer or material linked to computer access use;

(11) not patronize any business providing sexually stimulating or sexually oriented entertainment nor utilize "900" or adult telephone numbers;

(12) not reside near, visit, or be in or about parks, schools, day care centers, swimming pools, beaches, theaters, or any other places where minor children congregate without advance approval of an agent of the Department of Corrections and immediately report any incidental contact with minor children to the Department;

(13) not possess or have under his or her control certain specified items of contraband related to the incidence of sexually offending as determined by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(14) may be required to provide a written daily log of activities if directed by an agent of the Department of Corrections;

(15) comply with all other special conditions that the Department may impose that restrict the person from high-risk situations and limit access to potential victims;

(16) take an annual polygraph exam;

(17) maintain a log of his or her travel; or

(18) obtain prior approval of his or her parole officer before driving alone in a motor vehicle.

(c) The conditions under which the parole or mandatory supervised release is to be served shall be communicated to the person in writing prior to his release, and he shall sign the same before release. A signed copy of these conditions, including a copy of an order of protection where one had been issued by the criminal court, shall be retained by the person and another copy forwarded to the officer in charge of his supervision.

(d) After a hearing under Section 3-3-9, the Prisoner Review Board may modify or enlarge the conditions of parole or mandatory supervised release.

(e) The Department shall inform all offenders committed to the Department of the optional services available to them upon release and shall assist inmates in availing themselves of such optional services upon their release on a voluntary basis.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-236, eff. 8-11-09; 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1539, eff. 3-4-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-50, eff. 6-28-11; 97-531, eff. 1-1-12; 97-560, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-6-3)

Sec. 3-6-3. Rules and Regulations for Sentence Credit.

(a) (1) The Department of Corrections shall prescribe rules and regulations for awarding and revoking sentence credit for persons committed to the Department which shall be subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(1.5) As otherwise provided by law, sentence credit may be awarded for the following:

(A) successful completion of programming while in custody of the Department or while in custody prior to sentencing;

(B) compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department; or

(C) service to the institution, service to a community, or service to the State.

(2) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide, with respect to offenses listed in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or with respect to the offense listed in clause (iv) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or with respect to offense listed in clause (vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or with respect to the offense of being an armed habitual criminal committed on or after August 2, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-398) or with respect to the offenses listed in clause (v) of this paragraph (2) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or with respect to the offense of aggravated domestic battery committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224) or with respect to the offense of attempt to commit terrorism committed on or after January 1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-990) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, the following:

(i) that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment for first degree murder or for the offense of terrorism shall receive no sentence credit and shall serve the entire sentence imposed by the court;

(ii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for attempt to commit terrorism, attempt to commit first degree murder, solicitation of murder, solicitation of murder for hire, intentional homicide of an unborn child, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, being an armed habitual criminal, aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05, or aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, when the court has made and entered a finding, pursuant to subsection (c-1) of Section 5-4-1 of this Code, that the conduct leading to conviction for the enumerated offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(iv) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated discharge of a firearm, whether or not the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to the victim, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(v) that a person serving a sentence for gunrunning, narcotics racketeering, controlled substance trafficking, methamphetamine trafficking, drug-induced homicide, aggravated methamphetamine-related child endangerment, money laundering pursuant to clause (c) (4) or (5) of Section 29B-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class X felony conviction for delivery of a controlled substance, possession of a controlled substance with intent to manufacture or deliver, calculated criminal drug conspiracy, criminal drug conspiracy, street gang criminal drug conspiracy, participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, aggravated participation in methamphetamine manufacturing, delivery of methamphetamine, possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, aggravated delivery of methamphetamine, aggravated possession with intent to deliver methamphetamine, methamphetamine conspiracy when the substance containing the controlled substance or methamphetamine is 100 grams or more shall receive no more than 7.5 days sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment;

(vi) that a prisoner serving a sentence for a second or subsequent offense of luring a minor shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment; and

(vii) that a prisoner serving a sentence for aggravated domestic battery shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.1) For all offenses, other than those enumerated in subdivision (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) committed on or after June 19, 1998 or subdivision (a)(2)(iv) committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or subdivision (a)(2)(v) committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or subdivision (a)(2)(vi) committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or subdivision (a)(2)(vii) committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224), and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and other than the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the rules and regulations shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a term of imprisonment shall receive one day of sentence credit for each day of his or her sentence of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9. Each day of sentence credit shall reduce by one day the prisoner's period of imprisonment or recommitment under Section 3-3-9.

(2.2) A prisoner serving a term of natural life imprisonment or a prisoner who has been sentenced to death shall receive no sentence credit.

(2.3) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.4) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide with respect to the offenses of aggravated battery with a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm or aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with any device or attachment designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm, committed on or after July 15, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-121), that a prisoner serving a sentence for any of these offenses shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.5) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated arson committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(2.6) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall provide that a prisoner who is serving a sentence for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230) shall receive no more than 4.5 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment.

(3) The rules and regulations shall also provide that the Director may award up to 180 days additional sentence credit for good conduct in specific instances as the Director deems proper. The good conduct may include, but is not limited to, compliance with the rules and regulations of the Department, service to the Department, service to a community, or service to the State. However, the Director shall not award more than 90 days of sentence credit for good conduct to any prisoner who is serving a sentence for conviction of first degree murder, reckless homicide while under the influence of alcohol or any other drug, or aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, aggravated kidnapping, kidnapping, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, deviate sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated indecent liberties with a child, indecent liberties with a child, child pornography, heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a spouse, aggravated battery of a spouse with a firearm, stalking, aggravated stalking, aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, endangering the life or health of a child, or cruelty to a child. Notwithstanding the foregoing, sentence credit for good conduct shall not be awarded on a sentence of imprisonment imposed for conviction of: (i) one of the offenses enumerated in subdivision (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) when the offense is committed on or after June 19, 1998 or subdivision (a)(2)(iv) when the offense is committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or subdivision (a)(2)(v) when the offense is committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or subdivision (a)(2)(vi) when the offense is committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or subdivision (a)(2)(vii) when the offense is committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224), (ii) aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, (iii) one of the offenses enumerated in subdivision (a)(2.4) when the offense is committed on or after July 15, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-121), (iv) aggravated arson when the offense is committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176), (v) offenses that may subject the offender to commitment under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, or (vi) aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230).

Eligible inmates for an award of sentence credit under this paragraph (3) may be selected to receive the credit at the Director's or his or her designee's sole discretion. Consideration may be based on, but not limited to, any available risk assessment analysis on the inmate, any history of conviction for violent crimes as defined by the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, facts and circumstances of the inmate's holding offense or offenses, and the potential for rehabilitation.

The Director shall not award sentence credit under this paragraph (3) to an inmate unless the inmate has served a minimum of 60 days of the sentence; except nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to permit the Director to extend an inmate's sentence beyond that which was imposed by the court. Prior to awarding credit under this paragraph (3), the Director shall make a written determination that the inmate:

(A) is eligible for the sentence credit;

(B) has served a minimum of 60 days, or as close to 60 days as the sentence will allow; and

(C) has met the eligibility criteria established by rule.

The Director shall determine the form and content of the written determination required in this subsection.

(3.5) The Department shall provide annual written reports to the Governor and the General Assembly on the award of sentence credit for good conduct, with the first report due January 1, 2014. The Department must publish both reports on its website within 48 hours of transmitting the reports to the Governor and the General Assembly. The reports must include:

(A) the number of inmates awarded sentence credit for good conduct;

(B) the average amount of sentence credit for good conduct awarded;

(C) the holding offenses of inmates awarded sentence credit for good conduct; and

(D) the number of sentence credit for good conduct revocations.

(4) The rules and regulations shall also provide that the sentence credit accumulated and retained under paragraph (2.1) of subsection (a) of this Section by any inmate during specific periods of time in which such inmate is engaged full-time in substance abuse programs, correctional industry assignments, educational programs, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, or re-entry planning provided by the Department under this paragraph (4) and satisfactorily completes the assigned program as determined by the standards of the Department, shall be multiplied by a factor of 1.25 for program participation before August 11, 1993 and 1.50 for program participation on or after that date. The rules and regulations shall also provide that sentence credit, subject to the same offense limits and multiplier provided in this paragraph, may be provided to an inmate who was held in pre-trial detention prior to his or her current commitment to the Department of Corrections and successfully completed a full-time, 60-day or longer substance abuse program, educational program, behavior modification program, life skills course, or re-entry planning provided by the county department of corrections or county jail. Calculation of this county program credit shall be done at sentencing as provided in Section 5-4.5-100 of this Code and shall be included in the sentencing order. However, no inmate shall be eligible for the additional sentence credit under this paragraph (4) or (4.1) of this subsection (a) while assigned to a boot camp or electronic detention, or if convicted of an offense enumerated in subdivision (a)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this Section that is committed on or after June 19, 1998 or subdivision (a)(2)(iv) of this Section that is committed on or after June 23, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-71) or subdivision (a)(2)(v) of this Section that is committed on or after August 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-134) or subdivision (a)(2)(vi) when the offense is committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-625) or subdivision (a)(2)(vii) when the offense is committed on or after July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1224), or if convicted of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or if convicted of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), or if convicted of an offense enumerated in paragraph (a)(2.4) of this Section that is committed on or after July 15, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-121), or first degree murder, a Class X felony, criminal sexual assault, felony criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, or any predecessor or successor offenses with the same or substantially the same elements, or any inchoate offenses relating to the foregoing offenses. No inmate shall be eligible for the additional good conduct credit under this paragraph (4) who (i) has previously received increased good conduct credit under this paragraph (4) and has subsequently been convicted of a felony, or (ii) has previously served more than one prior sentence of imprisonment for a felony in an adult correctional facility.

Educational, vocational, substance abuse, behavior modification programs, life skills courses, re-entry planning, and correctional industry programs under which sentence credit may be increased under this paragraph (4) and paragraph (4.1) of this subsection (a) shall be evaluated by the Department on the basis of documented standards. The Department shall report the results of these evaluations to the Governor and the General Assembly by September 30th of each year. The reports shall include data relating to the recidivism rate among program participants.

Availability of these programs shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. Eligible inmates who are denied immediate admission shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The inability of any inmate to become engaged in any such programs by reason of insufficient program resources or for any other reason established under the rules and regulations of the Department shall not be deemed a cause of action under which the Department or any employee or agent of the Department shall be liable for damages to the inmate.

(4.1) The rules and regulations shall also provide that an additional 60 days of sentence credit shall be awarded to any prisoner who passes the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) while the prisoner is committed to the Department of Corrections. The sentence credit awarded under this paragraph (4.1) shall be in addition to, and shall not affect, the award of sentence credit under any other paragraph of this Section, but shall also be pursuant to the guidelines and restrictions set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section. The sentence credit provided for in this paragraph shall be available only to those prisoners who have not previously earned a high school diploma or a GED. If, after an award of the GED sentence credit has been made and the Department determines that the prisoner was not eligible, then the award shall be revoked. The Department may also award 60 days of sentence credit to any committed person who passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) while he or she was held in pre-trial detention prior to the current commitment to the Department of Corrections.

(4.5) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that when the court's sentencing order recommends a prisoner for substance abuse treatment and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the prisoner shall receive no sentence credit awarded under clause (3) of this subsection (a) unless he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program. The Director may waive the requirement to participate in or complete a substance abuse treatment program and award the sentence credit in specific instances if the prisoner is not a good candidate for a substance abuse treatment program for medical, programming, or operational reasons. Availability of substance abuse treatment shall be subject to the limits of fiscal resources appropriated by the General Assembly for these purposes. If treatment is not available and the requirement to participate and complete the treatment has not been waived by the Director, the prisoner shall be placed on a waiting list under criteria established by the Department. The Director may allow a prisoner placed on a waiting list to participate in and complete a substance abuse education class or attend substance abuse self-help meetings in lieu of a substance abuse treatment program. A prisoner on a waiting list who is not placed in a substance abuse program prior to release may be eligible for a waiver and receive sentence credit under clause (3) of this subsection (a) at the discretion of the Director.

(4.6) The rules and regulations on sentence credit shall also provide that a prisoner who has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act shall receive no sentence credit unless he or she either has successfully completed or is participating in sex offender treatment as defined by the Sex Offender Management Board. However, prisoners who are waiting to receive treatment, but who are unable to do so due solely to the lack of resources on the part of the Department, may, at the Director's sole discretion, be awarded sentence credit at a rate as the Director shall determine.

(5) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of sentence credit for good conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section given at any time during the term, the Department shall give reasonable notice of the impending release not less than 14 days prior to the date of the release to the State's Attorney of the county where the prosecution of the inmate took place, and if applicable, the State's Attorney of the county into which the inmate will be released. The Department must also make identification information and a recent photo of the inmate being released accessible on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Community Notification of Inmate Early Release" on the Department's World Wide Web homepage. The identification information shall include the inmate's: name, any known alias, date of birth, physical characteristics, residence address, commitment offense and county where conviction was imposed. The identification information shall be placed on the website within 3 days of the inmate's release and the information may not be removed until either: completion of the first year of mandatory supervised release or return of the inmate to custody of the Department.

(b) Whenever a person is or has been committed under several convictions, with separate sentences, the sentences shall be construed under Section 5-8-4 in granting and forfeiting of sentence credit.

(c) The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for revoking sentence credit, including revoking sentence credit awarded for good conduct under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section. The Department shall prescribe rules and regulations for suspending or reducing the rate of accumulation of sentence credit for specific rule violations, during imprisonment. These rules and regulations shall provide that no inmate may be penalized more than one year of sentence credit for any one infraction.

When the Department seeks to revoke, suspend or reduce the rate of accumulation of any sentence credits for an alleged infraction of its rules, it shall bring charges therefor against the prisoner sought to be so deprived of sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(4) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code, if the amount of credit at issue exceeds 30 days or when during any 12 month period, the cumulative amount of credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled release. In those cases, the Department of Corrections may revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit in excess of 30 days. However, the Board shall not be empowered to review the Department's decision with respect to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit within any calendar year for any prisoner or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by the Department.

The Director of the Department of Corrections, in appropriate cases, may restore up to 30 days of sentence credits which have been revoked, suspended or reduced. Any restoration of sentence credits in excess of 30 days shall be subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board. However, the Board may not restore sentence credit in excess of the amount requested by the Director.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Prisoner Review Board from ordering, pursuant to Section 3-3-9(a)(3)(i)(B), that a prisoner serve up to one year of the sentence imposed by the court that was not served due to the accumulation of sentence credit.

(d) If a lawsuit is filed by a prisoner in an Illinois or federal court against the State, the Department of Corrections, or the Prisoner Review Board, or against any of their officers or employees, and the court makes a specific finding that a pleading, motion, or other paper filed by the prisoner is frivolous, the Department of Corrections shall conduct a hearing to revoke up to 180 days of sentence credit by bringing charges against the prisoner sought to be deprived of the sentence credits before the Prisoner Review Board as provided in subparagraph (a)(8) of Section 3-3-2 of this Code. If the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of sentence credit at the time of the finding, then the Prisoner Review Board may revoke all sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner.

For purposes of this subsection (d):

(1) "Frivolous" means that a pleading, motion, or other filing which purports to be a legal document filed by a prisoner in his or her lawsuit meets any or all of the following criteria:

(A) it lacks an arguable basis either in law or in fact;

(B) it is being presented for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation;

(C) the claims, defenses, and other legal contentions therein are not warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law or the establishment of new law;

(D) the allegations and other factual contentions do not have evidentiary support or, if specifically so identified, are not likely to have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further investigation or discovery; or

(E) the denials of factual contentions are not warranted on the evidence, or if specifically so identified, are not reasonably based on a lack of information or belief.

(2) "Lawsuit" means a motion pursuant to Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a habeas corpus action under Article X of the Code of Civil Procedure or under federal law (28 U.S.C. 2254), a petition for claim under the Court of Claims Act, an action under the federal Civil Rights Act (42 U.S.C. 1983), or a second or subsequent petition for post-conviction relief under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 whether filed with or without leave of court or a second or subsequent petition for relief from judgment under Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) Nothing in Public Act 90-592 or 90-593 affects the validity of Public Act 89-404.

(f) Whenever the Department is to release any inmate who has been convicted of a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, earlier than it otherwise would because of a grant of sentence credit, the Department, as a condition of release, shall require that the person, upon release, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-860, eff. 1-15-10; 96-1110, eff. 7-19-10; 96-1128, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1224, eff. 7-23-10; 96-1230, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-990, eff. 1-1-13; revised 8-23-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-6-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-6-4)

Sec. 3-6-4. Enforcement of Discipline - Escape.

(a) A committed person who escapes or attempts to escape from an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or escapes or attempts to escape while in the custody of an employee of the Department of Corrections, or holds or participates in the holding of any person as a hostage by force, threat or violence, or while participating in any disturbance, demonstration or riot, causes, directs or participates in the destruction of any property is guilty of a Class 2 felony. A committed person who fails to return from furlough or from work and day release is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(b) If one or more committed persons injures or attempts to injure in a violent manner any employee, officer, guard, other peace officer or any other committed person or damages or attempts to damage any building or workshop, or any appurtenances thereof, or attempts to escape, or disobeys or resists any lawful command, the employees, officers, guards and other peace officers shall use all suitable means to defend themselves, to enforce the observance of discipline, to secure the persons of the offenders, and prevent such attempted violence or escape; and said employees, officers, guards, or other peace officers, or any of them, shall, in the attempt to prevent the escape of any such person, or in attempting to retake any such person who has escaped, or in attempting to prevent or suppress violence by a committed person against another person, a riot, revolt, mutiny or insurrection, be justified in the use of force, including force likely to cause death or great bodily harm under Section 7-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 which he reasonably believed necessary.

As used in this Section, "committed person" includes a person held in detention in a secure facility or committed as a sexually violent person and held in a secure facility under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act; and "peace officer" means any officer or member of any duly organized State, county or municipal police unit or police force.

(c) The Department shall establish procedures to provide immediate notification of the escape of any person, as defined in subsection (a) of this Section, to the persons specified in subsection (c) of Section 3-14-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-10-7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-10-7)

Sec. 3-10-7. Interdivisional Transfers.

(a) In any case where a minor was originally prosecuted under the provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, and sentenced under the provisions of this Act pursuant to Section 2-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-8-6, the Department of Juvenile Justice shall, within 30 days of the date that the minor reaches the age of 17, send formal notification to the sentencing court and the State's Attorney of the county from which the minor was sentenced indicating the day upon which the minor offender will achieve the age of 17. Within 90 days of receipt of that notice, the sentencing court shall conduct a hearing, pursuant to the provisions of subsection (c) of this Section to determine whether or not the minor shall continue to remain under the auspices of the Department of Juvenile Justice or be transferred to the Department of Corrections.

The minor shall be served with notice of the date of the hearing, shall be present at the hearing, and has the right to counsel at the hearing. The minor, with the consent of his or her counsel or guardian may waive his presence at hearing.

(b) Unless sooner paroled under Section 3-3-3, the confinement of a minor person committed for an indeterminate sentence in a criminal proceeding shall terminate at the expiration of the maximum term of imprisonment, and he shall thereupon be released to serve a period of parole under Section 5-8-1, but if the maximum term of imprisonment does not expire until after his 21st birthday, he shall continue to be subject to the control and custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice, and on his 21st birthday, he shall be transferred to the Department of Corrections. If such person is on parole on his 21st birthday, his parole supervision may be transferred to the Department of Corrections.

(c) Any interdivisional transfer hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section shall consider all available information which may bear upon the issue of transfer. All evidence helpful to the court in determining the question of transfer, including oral and written reports containing hearsay, may be relied upon to the extent of its probative value, even though not competent for the purposes of an adjudicatory hearing. The court shall consider, along with any other relevant matter, the following:

1. The nature of the offense for which the minor was found guilty and the length of the sentence the minor has to serve and the record and previous history of the minor.

2. The record of the minor's adjustment within the Department of Juvenile Justice, including, but not limited to, reports from the minor's counselor, any escapes, attempted escapes or violent or disruptive conduct on the part of the minor, any tickets received by the minor, summaries of classes attended by the minor, and any record of work performed by the minor while in the institution.

3. The relative maturity of the minor based upon the physical, psychological and emotional development of the minor.

4. The record of the rehabilitative progress of the minor and an assessment of the vocational potential of the minor.

5. An assessment of the necessity for transfer of the minor, including, but not limited to, the availability of space within the Department of Corrections, the disciplinary and security problem which the minor has presented to the Department of Juvenile Justice and the practicability of maintaining the minor in a juvenile facility, whether resources have been exhausted within the Department of Juvenile Justice, the availability of rehabilitative and vocational programs within the Department of Corrections, and the anticipated ability of the minor to adjust to confinement within an adult institution based upon the minor's physical size and maturity.

All relevant factors considered under this subsection need not be resolved against the juvenile in order to justify such transfer. Access to social records, probation reports or any other reports which are considered by the court for the purpose of transfer shall be made available to counsel for the juvenile at least 30 days prior to the date of the transfer hearing. The Sentencing Court, upon granting a transfer order, shall accompany such order with a statement of reasons.

(d) Whenever the Director of Juvenile Justice or his designee determines that the interests of safety, security and discipline require the transfer to the Department of Corrections of a person 17 years or older who was prosecuted under the provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, and sentenced under the provisions of this Act pursuant to Section 2-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-8-6, the Director or his designee may authorize the emergency transfer of such person, unless the transfer of the person is governed by subsection (e) of this Section. The sentencing court shall be provided notice of any emergency transfer no later than 3 days after the emergency transfer. Upon motion brought within 60 days of the emergency transfer by the sentencing court or any party, the sentencing court may conduct a hearing pursuant to the provisions of subsection (c) of this Section in order to determine whether the person shall remain confined in the Department of Corrections.

(e) The Director of Juvenile Justice or his designee may authorize the permanent transfer to the Department of Corrections of any person 18 years or older who was prosecuted under the provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended, and sentenced under the provisions of this Act pursuant to Section 2-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 5-8-6 of this Act. The Director of Juvenile Justice or his designee shall be governed by the following factors in determining whether to authorize the permanent transfer of the person to the Department of Corrections:

1. The nature of the offense for which the person was found guilty and the length of the sentence the person has to serve and the record and previous history of the person.

2. The record of the person's adjustment within the Department of Juvenile Justice, including, but not limited to, reports from the person's counselor, any escapes, attempted escapes or violent or disruptive conduct on the part of the person, any tickets received by the person, summaries of classes attended by the person, and any record of work performed by the person while in the institution.

3. The relative maturity of the person based upon the physical, psychological and emotional development of the person.

4. The record of the rehabilitative progress of the person and an assessment of the vocational potential of the person.

5. An assessment of the necessity for transfer of the person, including, but not limited to, the availability of space within the Department of Corrections, the disciplinary and security problem which the person has presented to the Department of Juvenile Justice and the practicability of maintaining the person in a juvenile facility, whether resources have been exhausted within the Department of Juvenile Justice, the availability of rehabilitative and vocational programs within the Department of Corrections, and the anticipated ability of the person to adjust to confinement within an adult institution based upon the person's physical size and maturity.

(Source: P.A. 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-14-1.5)

Sec. 3-14-1.5. Parole agents and parole supervisors; off-duty firearms. Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 do not apply to parole agents and parole supervisors who meet the following conditions:

(1) The parole agent or parole supervisor must receive training in the use of firearms while off-duty conducted by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board and be certified as having successfully completing such training by the Board. The Board shall determine the amount of such training and the course content for such training. The parole agent or parole supervisor shall requalify for the firearms training annually at a State range certified by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board. The expenses of such retraining shall be paid by the parole agent or parole supervisor and moneys for such requalification shall be expended at the request of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(2) The parole agent or parole supervisor shall purchase such firearm at his or her own expense and shall register the firearm with the Illinois Department of State Police and with any other local law enforcement agencies that require such registration.

(3) The parole agent or parole supervisor may not carry any Illinois Department of Corrections State issued firearm while off-duty. A person who violates this paragraph (3) is subject to disciplinary action by the Illinois Department of Corrections.

(4) Parole agents and supervisors who are discharged from employment of the Illinois Department of Corrections shall no longer be considered law enforcement officials and all their rights as law enforcement officials shall be revoked permanently.

(Source: P.A. 96-230, eff. 1-1-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-14-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-14-2)

Sec. 3-14-2. Supervision on Parole, Mandatory Supervised Release and Release by Statute.

(a) The Department shall retain custody of all persons placed on parole or mandatory supervised release or released pursuant to Section 3-3-10 of this Code and shall supervise such persons during their parole or release period in accord with the conditions set by the Prisoner Review Board. Such conditions shall include referral to an alcohol or drug abuse treatment program, as appropriate, if such person has previously been identified as having an alcohol or drug abuse problem. Such conditions may include that the person use an approved electronic monitoring device subject to Article 8A of Chapter V.

(b) The Department shall assign personnel to assist persons eligible for parole in preparing a parole plan. Such Department personnel shall make a report of their efforts and findings to the Prisoner Review Board prior to its consideration of the case of such eligible person.

(c) A copy of the conditions of his parole or release shall be signed by the parolee or releasee and given to him and to his supervising officer who shall report on his progress under the rules and regulations of the Prisoner Review Board. The supervising officer shall report violations to the Prisoner Review Board and shall have the full power of peace officers in the arrest and retaking of any parolees or releasees or the officer may request the Department to issue a warrant for the arrest of any parolee or releasee who has allegedly violated his parole or release conditions.

(c-1) The supervising officer shall request the Department to issue a parole violation warrant, and the Department shall issue a parole violation warrant, under the following circumstances:

(1) if the parolee or releasee commits an act that constitutes a felony using a firearm or knife,

(2) if applicable, fails to comply with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act,

(3) if the parolee or releasee is charged with:

(A) a felony offense of domestic battery under Section 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(B) aggravated domestic battery under Section 12-3.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(C) stalking under Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(D) aggravated stalking under Section 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,

(E) violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or

(F) any offense that would require registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or

(4) if the parolee or releasee is on parole or mandatory supervised release for a murder, a Class X felony or a Class 1 felony violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any felony that requires registration as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act and commits an act that constitutes first degree murder, a Class X felony, a Class 1 felony, a Class 2 felony, or a Class 3 felony.

A sheriff or other peace officer may detain an alleged parole or release violator until a warrant for his return to the Department can be issued. The parolee or releasee may be delivered to any secure place until he can be transported to the Department. The officer or the Department shall file a violation report with notice of charges with the Prisoner Review Board.

(d) The supervising officer shall regularly advise and consult with the parolee or releasee, assist him in adjusting to community life, inform him of the restoration of his rights on successful completion of sentence under Section 5-5-5. If the parolee or releasee has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the supervising officer shall periodically, but not less than once a month, verify that the parolee or releasee is in compliance with paragraph (7.6) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7.

(e) Supervising officers shall receive specialized training in the special needs of female releasees or parolees including the family reunification process.

(f) The supervising officer shall keep such records as the Prisoner Review Board or Department may require. All records shall be entered in the master file of the individual.

(Source: P.A. 96-282, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1447, eff. 8-20-10; 97-389, eff. 8-15-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-3-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-3-2)

Sec. 5-3-2. Presentence Report.

(a) In felony cases, the presentence report shall set forth:

(1) the defendant's history of delinquency or criminality, physical and mental history and condition, family situation and background, economic status, education, occupation and personal habits;

(2) information about special resources within the community which might be available to assist the defendant's rehabilitation, including treatment centers, residential facilities, vocational training services, correctional manpower programs, employment opportunities, special educational programs, alcohol and drug abuse programming, psychiatric and marriage counseling, and other programs and facilities which could aid the defendant's successful reintegration into society;

(3) the effect the offense committed has had upon the victim or victims thereof, and any compensatory benefit that various sentencing alternatives would confer on such victim or victims;

(4) information concerning the defendant's status since arrest, including his record if released on his own recognizance, or the defendant's achievement record if released on a conditional pre-trial supervision program;

(5) when appropriate, a plan, based upon the personal, economic and social adjustment needs of the defendant, utilizing public and private community resources as an alternative to institutional sentencing;

(6) any other matters that the investigatory officer deems relevant or the court directs to be included; and

(7) information concerning defendant's eligibility for a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Section 5-8-1.2 of this Code.

(b) The investigation shall include a physical and mental examination of the defendant when so ordered by the court. If the court determines that such an examination should be made, it shall issue an order that the defendant submit to examination at such time and place as designated by the court and that such examination be conducted by a physician, psychologist or psychiatrist designated by the court. Such an examination may be conducted in a court clinic if so ordered by the court. The cost of such examination shall be paid by the county in which the trial is held.

(b-5) In cases involving felony sex offenses in which the offender is being considered for probation only or any felony offense that is sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act in which the offender is being considered for probation only, the investigation shall include a sex offender evaluation by an evaluator approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act. In cases in which the offender is being considered for any mandatory prison sentence, the investigation shall not include a sex offender evaluation.

(c) In misdemeanor, business offense or petty offense cases, except as specified in subsection (d) of this Section, when a presentence report has been ordered by the court, such presentence report shall contain information on the defendant's history of delinquency or criminality and shall further contain only those matters listed in any of paragraphs (1) through (6) of subsection (a) or in subsection (b) of this Section as are specified by the court in its order for the report.

(d) In cases under Sections 11-1.50, 12-15, and 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, as amended, the presentence report shall set forth information about alcohol, drug abuse, psychiatric, and marriage counseling or other treatment programs and facilities, information on the defendant's history of delinquency or criminality, and shall contain those additional matters listed in any of paragraphs (1) through (6) of subsection (a) or in subsection (b) of this Section as are specified by the court.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall cause the defendant to be held without bail or to have his bail revoked for the purpose of preparing the presentence report or making an examination.

(Source: P.A. 96-322, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-3-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-3-4)

Sec. 5-3-4. Disclosure of Reports.

(a) Any report made pursuant to this Article or Section 5-705 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be filed of record with the court in a sealed envelope.

(b) Presentence reports shall be open for inspection only as follows:

(1) to the sentencing court;

(2) to the state's attorney and the defendant's attorney at least 3 days prior to the imposition of sentence, unless such 3 day requirement is waived;

(3) to an appellate court in which the conviction or sentence is subject to review;

(4) to any department, agency or institution to which the defendant is committed;

(5) to any probation department of whom courtesy probation is requested;

(6) to any probation department assigned by a court of lawful jurisdiction to conduct a presentence report;

(7) to any other person only as ordered by the court; and

(8) to any mental health professional on behalf of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or to a prosecutor who is evaluating or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of a presentence report or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act who is the subject of the presentence report sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (8) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(c) Presentence reports shall be filed of record with the court within 60 days of a verdict or finding of guilty for any offense involving an illegal sexual act perpetrated upon a victim, including but not limited to offenses for violations of Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any offense determined by the court or the probation department to be sexually motivated, as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(d) A complaint, information or indictment shall not be quashed or dismissed nor shall any person in custody for an offense be discharged from custody because of noncompliance with subsection (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-415, eff. 8-17-01; 93-970, eff. 8-20-04.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-1)

Sec. 5-4-1. Sentencing Hearing.

(a) Except when the death penalty is sought under hearing procedures otherwise specified, after a determination of guilt, a hearing shall be held to impose the sentence. However, prior to the imposition of sentence on an individual being sentenced for an offense based upon a charge for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the individual must undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol or other drug abuse problem exists and the extent of such a problem. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. However, if the individual is not a resident of Illinois, the court may, in its discretion, accept an evaluation from a program in the state of such individual's residence. The court may in its sentencing order approve an eligible defendant for placement in a Department of Corrections impact incarceration program as provided in Section 5-8-1.1 or 5-8-1.3. The court may in its sentencing order recommend a defendant for placement in a Department of Corrections substance abuse treatment program as provided in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of Section 3-2-2 conditioned upon the defendant being accepted in a program by the Department of Corrections. At the hearing the court shall:

(1) consider the evidence, if any, received upon the trial;

(2) consider any presentence reports;

(3) consider the financial impact of incarceration based on the financial impact statement filed with the clerk of the court by the Department of Corrections;

(4) consider evidence and information offered by the parties in aggravation and mitigation;

(4.5) consider substance abuse treatment, eligibility screening, and an assessment, if any, of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(5) hear arguments as to sentencing alternatives;

(6) afford the defendant the opportunity to make a statement in his own behalf;

(7) afford the victim of a violent crime or a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a qualified individual affected by: (i) a violation of Section 405, 405.1, 405.2, or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a violation of Section 55 or Section 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or (ii) a Class 4 felony violation of Section 11-14, 11-14.3 except as described in subdivisions (a)(2)(A) and (a)(2)(B), 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, or 11-19 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, committed by the defendant the opportunity to make a statement concerning the impact on the victim and to offer evidence in aggravation or mitigation; provided that the statement and evidence offered in aggravation or mitigation must first be prepared in writing in conjunction with the State's Attorney before it may be presented orally at the hearing. Any sworn testimony offered by the victim is subject to the defendant's right to cross-examine. All statements and evidence offered under this paragraph (7) shall become part of the record of the court. For the purpose of this paragraph (7), "qualified individual" means any person who (i) lived or worked within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place; and (ii) is familiar with various public places within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place. For the purposes of this paragraph (7), "qualified individual" includes any peace officer, or any member of any duly organized State, county, or municipal peace unit assigned to the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place;

(8) in cases of reckless homicide afford the victim's spouse, guardians, parents or other immediate family members an opportunity to make oral statements;

(9) in cases involving a felony sex offense as defined under the Sex Offender Management Board Act, consider the results of the sex offender evaluation conducted pursuant to Section 5-3-2 of this Act; and

(10) make a finding of whether a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense for which the defendant is being sentenced.

(b) All sentences shall be imposed by the judge based upon his independent assessment of the elements specified above and any agreement as to sentence reached by the parties. The judge who presided at the trial or the judge who accepted the plea of guilty shall impose the sentence unless he is no longer sitting as a judge in that court. Where the judge does not impose sentence at the same time on all defendants who are convicted as a result of being involved in the same offense, the defendant or the State's Attorney may advise the sentencing court of the disposition of any other defendants who have been sentenced.

(c) In imposing a sentence for a violent crime or for an offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other drug or any combination thereof, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, when such offense resulted in the personal injury to someone other than the defendant, the trial judge shall specify on the record the particular evidence, information, factors in mitigation and aggravation or other reasons that led to his sentencing determination. The full verbatim record of the sentencing hearing shall be filed with the clerk of the court and shall be a public record.

(c-1) In imposing a sentence for the offense of aggravated kidnapping for ransom, home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, the trial judge shall make a finding as to whether the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, and shall enter that finding and the basis for that finding in the record.

(c-2) If the defendant is sentenced to prison, other than when a sentence of natural life imprisonment or a sentence of death is imposed, at the time the sentence is imposed the judge shall state on the record in open court the approximate period of time the defendant will serve in custody according to the then current statutory rules and regulations for sentence credit found in Section 3-6-3 and other related provisions of this Code. This statement is intended solely to inform the public, has no legal effect on the defendant's actual release, and may not be relied on by the defendant on appeal.

The judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, other than when the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(3) of Section 3-6-3, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, assuming the defendant receives all of his or her sentence credit, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months, less up to 180 days additional sentence credit for good conduct. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations, does not receive those credits, the actual time served in prison will be longer. The defendant may also receive an additional one-half day sentence credit for each day of participation in vocational, industry, substance abuse, and educational programs as provided for by Illinois statute."

When the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(3) of Section 3-6-3, other than when the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of Section 3-6-3 committed on or after June 19, 1998, and other than when the sentence is imposed for reckless homicide as defined in subsection (e) of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1999, and other than when the sentence is imposed for aggravated arson if the offense was committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176), and other than when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, assuming the defendant receives all of his or her sentence credit, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months, less up to 90 days additional sentence credit for good conduct. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations, does not receive those credits, the actual time served in prison will be longer. The defendant may also receive an additional one-half day sentence credit for each day of participation in vocational, industry, substance abuse, and educational programs as provided for by Illinois statute."

When the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of Section 3-6-3, other than first degree murder, and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, and when the sentence is imposed for reckless homicide as defined in subsection (e) of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1999, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated arson if the offense was committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176), and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is entitled to no more than 4 1/2 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment. Therefore, this defendant will serve at least 85% of his or her sentence. Assuming the defendant receives 4 1/2 days credit for each month of his or her sentence, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations receives lesser credit, the actual time served in prison will be longer."

When a sentence of imprisonment is imposed for first degree murder and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is not entitled to sentence credit. Therefore, this defendant will serve 100% of his or her sentence."

When the sentencing order recommends placement in a substance abuse program for any offense that results in incarceration in a Department of Corrections facility and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the judge's statement, in addition to any other judge's statement required under this Section, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant shall receive no sentence credit for good conduct under clause (3) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3 until he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program or receives a waiver from the Director of Corrections pursuant to clause (4.5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3."

(c-4) Before the sentencing hearing and as part of the presentence investigation under Section 5-3-1, the court shall inquire of the defendant whether the defendant is currently serving in or is a veteran of the Armed Forces of the United States. If the defendant is currently serving in the Armed Forces of the United States or is a veteran of the Armed Forces of the United States and has been diagnosed as having a mental illness by a qualified psychiatrist or clinical psychologist or physician, the court may:

(1) order that the officer preparing the presentence report consult with the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs, or another agency or person with suitable knowledge or experience for the purpose of providing the court with information regarding treatment options available to the defendant, including federal, State, and local programming; and

(2) consider the treatment recommendations of any diagnosing or treating mental health professionals together with the treatment options available to the defendant in imposing sentence.

For the purposes of this subsection (c-4), "qualified psychiatrist" means a reputable physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all its branches, who has specialized in the diagnosis and treatment of mental and nervous disorders for a period of not less than 5 years.

(c-6) In imposing a sentence, the trial judge shall specify, on the record, the particular evidence and other reasons which led to his or her determination that a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense.

(d) When the defendant is committed to the Department of Corrections, the State's Attorney shall and counsel for the defendant may file a statement with the clerk of the court to be transmitted to the department, agency or institution to which the defendant is committed to furnish such department, agency or institution with the facts and circumstances of the offense for which the person was committed together with all other factual information accessible to them in regard to the person prior to his commitment relative to his habits, associates, disposition and reputation and any other facts and circumstances which may aid such department, agency or institution during its custody of such person. The clerk shall within 10 days after receiving any such statements transmit a copy to such department, agency or institution and a copy to the other party, provided, however, that this shall not be cause for delay in conveying the person to the department, agency or institution to which he has been committed.

(e) The clerk of the court shall transmit to the department, agency or institution, if any, to which the defendant is committed, the following:

(1) the sentence imposed;

(2) any statement by the court of the basis for imposing the sentence;

(3) any presentence reports;

(3.5) any sex offender evaluations;

(3.6) any substance abuse treatment eligibility screening and assessment of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(4) the number of days, if any, which the defendant has been in custody and for which he is entitled to credit against the sentence, which information shall be provided to the clerk by the sheriff;

(4.1) any finding of great bodily harm made by the court with respect to an offense enumerated in subsection (c-1);

(5) all statements filed under subsection (d) of this Section;

(6) any medical or mental health records or summaries of the defendant;

(7) the municipality where the arrest of the offender or the commission of the offense has occurred, where such municipality has a population of more than 25,000 persons;

(8) all statements made and evidence offered under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of this Section; and

(9) all additional matters which the court directs the clerk to transmit.

(f) In cases in which the court finds that a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense for which the defendant is being sentenced, the clerk of the court shall, within 5 days thereafter, forward a report of such conviction to the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 96-86, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1180, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1230, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-3)

Sec. 5-4-3. Specimens; genetic marker groups.

(a) Any person convicted of, found guilty under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for, or who received a disposition of court supervision for, a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense, convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law, convicted or found guilty of any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, found guilty or given supervision for any offense classified as a felony under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, convicted or found guilty of, under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, any offense requiring registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act, or institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or committed as a sexually violent person under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall, regardless of the sentence or disposition imposed, be required to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section, provided such person is:

(1) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after July 1, 1990 and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, periodic imprisonment, fine, probation, conditional discharge or any other form of sentence, or given a disposition of court supervision for the offense;

(1.5) found guilty or given supervision under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense on or after January 1, 1997;

(2) ordered institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person on or after July 1, 1990;

(3) convicted of a qualifying offense or attempt of a qualifying offense before July 1, 1990 and is presently confined as a result of such conviction in any State correctional facility or county jail or is presently serving a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or periodic imprisonment as a result of such conviction;

(3.5) convicted or found guilty of any offense classified as a felony under Illinois law or found guilty or given supervision for such an offense under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on or after August 22, 2002;

(4) presently institutionalized as a sexually dangerous person or presently institutionalized as a person found guilty but mentally ill of a sexual offense or attempt to commit a sexual offense; or

(4.5) ordered committed as a sexually violent person on or after the effective date of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(a-1) Any person incarcerated in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice on or after August 22, 2002, whether for a term of years, natural life, or a sentence of death, who has not yet submitted a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to submit a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426), whichever is sooner. A person incarcerated on or after August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426) shall be required to submit a specimen within 45 days of incarceration, or prior to his or her final discharge, or release on parole or mandatory supervised release, as a condition of his or her parole or mandatory supervised release, whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Section, by the Illinois State Police.

(a-2) Any person sentenced to life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or sentenced to death after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police. Any person serving a sentence of life imprisonment in a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or any person who is under a sentence of death on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue upon request at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-3) Any person seeking transfer to or residency in Illinois under Sections 3-3-11.05 through 3-3-11.5 of this Code, the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision, or the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after transfer to or residency in Illinois at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-3.1) Any person required by an order of the court to submit a DNA specimen shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after the court order at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-3.2) On or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383), any person arrested for any of the following offenses, after an indictment has been returned by a grand jury, or following a hearing pursuant to Section 109-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 and a judge finds there is probable cause to believe the arrestee has committed one of the designated offenses, or an arrestee has waived a preliminary hearing shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within 14 days after such indictment or hearing at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police:

(A) first degree murder;

(B) home invasion;

(C) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child;

(D) aggravated criminal sexual assault; or

(E) criminal sexual assault.

(a-3.3) Any person required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act, regardless of the date of conviction as set forth in subsection (c-5.2) shall be required to provide a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue within the time period prescribed in subsection (c-5.2) at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(a-5) Any person who was otherwise convicted of or received a disposition of court supervision for any other offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or who was found guilty or given supervision for such a violation under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, may, regardless of the sentence imposed, be required by an order of the court to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(b) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(1.5), (a)(2), (a)(3.5), and (a-5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue within 45 days after sentencing or disposition at a collection site designated by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(c) Any person required by paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(4.5) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall be required to provide such specimens prior to final discharge or within 6 months from August 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-426), whichever is sooner. These specimens shall be placed into the State or national DNA database, to be used in accordance with other provisions of this Act, by the Illinois State Police.

(c-5) Any person required by paragraph (a-3) to provide specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue shall, where feasible, be required to provide the specimens before being accepted for conditioned residency in Illinois under the interstate compact or agreement, but no later than 45 days after arrival in this State.

(c-5.2) Unless it is determined that a registered sex offender has previously submitted a specimen of blood, saliva, or tissue that has been placed into the State DNA database, a person registering as a sex offender shall be required to submit a specimen at the time of his or her initial registration pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act or, for a person registered as a sex offender on or prior to January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383), within one year of January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-383) or at the time of his or her next required registration.

(c-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may determine which type of specimen or specimens, blood, saliva, or tissue, is acceptable for submission to the Division of Forensic Services for analysis. The Illinois Department of State Police may require the submission of fingerprints from anyone required to give a specimen under this Act.

(d) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of blood specimens. The collection of specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a registered nurse or other qualified person trained in venipuncture may withdraw blood for the purposes of this Act. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-1) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of saliva specimens. The collection of saliva specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting saliva may collect saliva for the purposes of this Section. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-2) The Illinois Department of State Police shall provide all equipment and instructions necessary for the collection of tissue specimens. The collection of tissue specimens shall be performed in a medically approved manner. Only a person trained in the instructions promulgated by the Illinois State Police on collecting tissue may collect tissue for the purposes of this Section. The specimens shall thereafter be forwarded to the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings.

(d-5) To the extent that funds are available, the Illinois Department of State Police shall contract with qualified personnel and certified laboratories for the collection, analysis, and categorization of known specimens, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(d-6) Agencies designated by the Illinois Department of State Police and the Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties to provide for the collection or analysis of DNA, or both, of an offender's blood, saliva, and tissue specimens, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section.

(e) The genetic marker groupings shall be maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services.

(f) The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be confidential and shall be released only to peace officers of the United States, of other states or territories, of the insular possessions of the United States, of foreign countries duly authorized to receive the same, to all peace officers of the State of Illinois and to all prosecutorial agencies, and to defense counsel as provided by Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. The genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act shall be used only for (i) valid law enforcement identification purposes and as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation for participation in the National DNA database, (ii) technology validation purposes, (iii) a population statistics database, (iv) quality assurance purposes if personally identifying information is removed, (v) assisting in the defense of the criminally accused pursuant to Section 116-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or (vi) identifying and assisting in the prosecution of a person who is suspected of committing a sexual assault as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act. Notwithstanding any other statutory provision to the contrary, all information obtained under this Section shall be maintained in a single State data base, which may be uploaded into a national database, and which information may be subject to expungement only as set forth in subsection (f-1).

(f-1) Upon receipt of notification of a reversal of a conviction based on actual innocence, or of the granting of a pardon pursuant to Section 12 of Article V of the Illinois Constitution, if that pardon document specifically states that the reason for the pardon is the actual innocence of an individual whose DNA record has been stored in the State or national DNA identification index in accordance with this Section by the Illinois Department of State Police, the DNA record shall be expunged from the DNA identification index, and the Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any specimens, analyses, or other documents relating to such record, whether in the possession of the Department or any law enforcement or police agency, or any forensic DNA laboratory, including any duplicates or copies thereof, are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed. For specimens required to be collected prior to conviction, unless the individual has other charges or convictions that require submission of a specimen, the DNA record for an individual shall be expunged from the DNA identification databases and the specimen destroyed upon receipt of a certified copy of a final court order for each charge against an individual in which the charge has been dismissed, resulted in acquittal, or that the charge was not filed within the applicable time period. The Department shall by rule prescribe procedures to ensure that the record and any specimens in the possession or control of the Department are destroyed and a letter is sent to the court verifying the expungement is completed.

(f-5) Any person who intentionally uses genetic marker grouping analysis information, or any other information derived from a DNA specimen, beyond the authorized uses as provided under this Section, or any other Illinois law, is guilty of a Class 4 felony, and shall be subject to a fine of not less than $5,000.

(f-6) The Illinois Department of State Police may contract with third parties for the purposes of implementing this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, except as provided in subsection (n) of this Section. Any other party contracting to carry out the functions of this Section shall be subject to the same restrictions and requirements of this Section insofar as applicable, as the Illinois Department of State Police, and to any additional restrictions imposed by the Illinois Department of State Police.

(g) For the purposes of this Section, "qualifying offense" means any of the following:

(1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-11, 11-18.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(1.1) any violation or inchoate violation of Section 9-1, 9-2, 10-1, 10-2, 12-11, 12-11.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-6, 19-1, or 19-2, or 19-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which persons are convicted on or after July 1, 2001;

(2) any former statute of this State which defined a felony sexual offense;

(3) (blank);

(4) any inchoate violation of Section 9-3.1, 9-3.4, 11-9.3, 12-7.3, or 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(5) any violation or inchoate violation of Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(g-5) (Blank).

(h) The Illinois Department of State Police shall be the State central repository for all genetic marker grouping analysis information obtained pursuant to this Act. The Illinois Department of State Police may promulgate rules for the form and manner of the collection of blood, saliva, or tissue specimens and other procedures for the operation of this Act. The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall apply to all actions taken under the rules so promulgated.

(i) (1) A person required to provide a blood, saliva, or tissue specimen shall cooperate with the collection of the specimen and any deliberate act by that person intended to impede, delay or stop the collection of the blood, saliva, or tissue specimen is a Class 4 felony.

(2) In the event that a person's DNA specimen is not adequate for any reason, the person shall provide another DNA specimen for analysis. Duly authorized law enforcement and corrections personnel may employ reasonable force in cases in which an individual refuses to provide a DNA specimen required under this Act.

(j) Any person required by subsection (a), or any person who was previously required by subsection (a-3.2), to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue to the Illinois Department of State Police for analysis and categorization into genetic marker grouping, in addition to any other disposition, penalty, or fine imposed, shall pay an analysis fee of $250. If the analysis fee is not paid at the time of sentencing, the court shall establish a fee schedule by which the entire amount of the analysis fee shall be paid in full, such schedule not to exceed 24 months from the time of conviction. The inability to pay this analysis fee shall not be the sole ground to incarcerate the person.

(k) All analysis and categorization fees provided for by subsection (j) shall be regulated as follows:

(1) The State Offender DNA Identification System Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury.

(2) All fees shall be collected by the clerk of the court and forwarded to the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund for deposit. The clerk of the circuit court may retain the amount of $10 from each collected analysis fee to offset administrative costs incurred in carrying out the clerk's responsibilities under this Section.

(3) Fees deposited into the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund shall be used by Illinois State Police crime laboratories as designated by the Director of State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing laws and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(A) Costs incurred in providing analysis and genetic marker categorization as required by subsection (d).

(B) Costs incurred in maintaining genetic marker groupings as required by subsection (e).

(C) Costs incurred in the purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses.

(D) Costs incurred in continuing research and development of new techniques for analysis and genetic marker categorization.

(E) Costs incurred in continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(l) The failure of a person to provide a specimen, or of any person or agency to collect a specimen, shall in no way alter the obligation of the person to submit such specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police or persons designated by the Department to collect the specimen, or the authority of the Illinois Department of State Police to accept, analyze and maintain the specimen or to maintain or upload results of genetic marker grouping analysis information into a State or national database.

(m) If any provision of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is held unconstitutional or otherwise invalid, the remainder of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly is not affected.

(n) Neither the Department of State Police, the Division of Forensic Services, nor any laboratory of the Division of Forensic Services may contract out forensic testing for the purpose of an active investigation or a matter pending before a court of competent jurisdiction without the written consent of the prosecuting agency. For the purposes of this subsection (n), "forensic testing" includes the analysis of physical evidence in an investigation or other proceeding for the prosecution of a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or for matters adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and includes the use of forensic databases and databanks, including DNA, firearm, and fingerprint databases, and expert testimony.

(o) Mistake does not invalidate a database match. The detention, arrest, or conviction of a person based upon a database match or database information is not invalidated if it is determined that the specimen was obtained or placed in the database by mistake.

(p) This Section may be referred to as the Illinois DNA Database Law of 2011.

(Source: P.A. 96-426, eff. 8-13-09; 96-642, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-383, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-3.1)

Sec. 5-4-3.1. Sentencing Hearing for Sex Offenses.

(a) Except for good cause shown by written motion, any person adjudged guilty of any offense involving an illegal sexual act perpetrated upon a victim, including but not limited to offenses for violations of Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any offense determined by the court or the probation department to be sexually motivated, as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, shall be sentenced within 65 days of a verdict or finding of guilt for the offense.

(b) The court shall set the sentencing date at the time the verdict or finding of guilt is entered by the court.

(c) Any motion for continuance shall be in writing and supported by affidavit and in compliance with Section 114-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and the victim shall be notified of the date and time of hearing and shall be provided an opportunity to address the court on the impact the continuance may have on the victim's well-being.

(d) A complaint, information or indictment shall not be quashed or dismissed, nor shall any person in custody for an offense be discharged from custody because of non-compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 93-970, eff. 8-20-04.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3.2)

Sec. 5-4-3.2. Collection and storage of Internet protocol addresses.

(a) Cyber-crimes Location Database. The Attorney General is hereby authorized to establish and maintain the "Illinois Cyber-crimes Location Database" (ICLD) to collect, store, and use Internet protocol (IP) addresses for purposes of investigating and prosecuting child exploitation crimes on the Internet.

(b) "Internet protocol address" means the string of numbers by which a location on the Internet is identified by routers or other computers connected to the Internet.

(c) Collection of Internet Protocol addresses.

(1) Collection upon commitment under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act. Upon motion for a defendant's confinement under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act for criminal charges under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney or Attorney General shall record all Internet protocol (IP) addresses which the defendant may access from his or her residence or place of employment, registered in his or her name, or otherwise has under his or her control or custody.

(2) Collection upon conviction. Upon conviction for crimes under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a State's Attorney shall record from defendants all Internet protocol (IP) addresses which the defendant may access from his or her residence or place of employment, registered in his or her name, or otherwise has under his or her control or custody, regardless of the sentence or disposition imposed.

(d) Storage and use of the Database. Internet protocol (IP) addresses recorded pursuant to this Section shall be submitted to the Attorney General for storage and use in the Illinois Cyber-crimes Location Database. The Attorney General and its designated agents may access the database for the purpose of investigation and prosecution of crimes listed in this Section. In addition, the Attorney General is authorized to share information stored in the database with the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children (NCMEC) and any federal, state, or local law enforcement agencies for the investigation or prosecution of child exploitation crimes.

(Source: P.A. 95-579, eff. 8-31-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-20)

Sec. 5-4.5-20. FIRST DEGREE MURDER; SENTENCE. For first degree murder:

(a) TERM. The defendant shall be sentenced to imprisonment or, if appropriate, death under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/9-1). Imprisonment shall be for a determinate term of (1) not less than 20 years and not more than 60 years; (2) not less than 60 years and not more than 100 years when an extended term is imposed under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2); or (3) natural life as provided in Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1).

(b) PERIODIC IMPRISONMENT. A term of periodic imprisonment shall not be imposed.

(c) IMPACT INCARCERATION. The impact incarceration program or the county impact incarceration program is not an authorized disposition.

(d) PROBATION; CONDITIONAL DISCHARGE. A period of probation or conditional discharge shall not be imposed.

(e) FINE. Fines may be imposed as provided in Section 5-4.5-50(b) (730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-50(b)).

(f) RESTITUTION. See Section 5-5-6 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-6) concerning restitution.

(g) CONCURRENT OR CONSECUTIVE SENTENCE. The sentence shall be concurrent or consecutive as provided in Section 5-8-4 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-4) and Section 5-4.5-50 (730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-50).

(h) DRUG COURT. Drug court is not an authorized disposition.

(i) CREDIT FOR HOME DETENTION. See Section 5-4.5-100 (730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-100) concerning no credit for time spent in home detention prior to judgment.

(j) SENTENCE CREDIT. See Section 3-6-3 (730 ILCS 5/3-6-3) for rules and regulations for sentence credit.

(k) ELECTRONIC HOME DETENTION. Electronic home detention is not an authorized disposition, except in limited circumstances as provided in Section 5-8A-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-8A-3).

(l) PAROLE; MANDATORY SUPERVISED RELEASE. Except as provided in Section 3-3-8 (730 ILCS 5/3-3-8), the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be 3 years upon release from imprisonment.

(Source: P.A. 97-697, eff. 6-22-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) (Blank).

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1.5) or (c)(2) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing cocaine, fentanyl, or an analog thereof.

(D-5) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which relates to 3 or more grams of a substance containing heroin or an analog thereof.

(E) A violation of Section 5.1 or 9 of the Cannabis Control Act.

(F) A Class 2 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 2 or greater felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Q) A violation of subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 20-1, Section 20-1.2, or Section 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(S) (Blank).

(T) A second or subsequent violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(U) A second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim is under 13 years of age and the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition.

(Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value.

(BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000.

(CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding for sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or counterfeit items having a retail value in the aggregate of $500,000 or more.

(DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the firearm is being used.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6), and (4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 30 consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service, shall be imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (b-5) of that Section.

(4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for a period of not less than 5 years from the date of his or her release from prison.

(4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4 and not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(5) The court may sentence a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation of that Section shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(6) (Blank).

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(13) A person convicted of or placed on court supervision for an assault or aggravated assault when the victim and the offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or convicted of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery may be required to attend a Partner Abuse Intervention Program under protocols set forth by the Illinois Department of Human Services under such terms and conditions imposed by the court. The costs of such classes shall be paid by the offender.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substance Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of the GED test. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional sentence credit for good conduct as provided under Section 3-6-3.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person is an addict or alcoholic, as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, to a substance or alcohol abuse program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 96-348, eff. 8-12-09; 96-400, eff. 8-13-09; 96-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-159, eff. 7-21-11; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-917, eff. 8-9-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)

Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation and Extended-Term Sentencing.

(a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section 5-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:

(1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened serious harm;

(2) the defendant received compensation for committing the offense;

(3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or criminal activity;

(4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense committed or to bring the offenders committing it to justice;

(5) the defendant held public office at the time of the offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that office;

(6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation or position in the community to commit the offense, or to afford him an easier means of committing it;

(7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from committing the same crime;

(8) the defendant committed the offense against a person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;

(9) the defendant committed the offense against a person who is physically handicapped or such person's property;

(10) by reason of another individual's actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin, the defendant committed the offense against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii) the person or property of a person who has an association with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i) or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality;

(11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to, during or immediately following worship services. For purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or place used primarily for religious worship;

(12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was released on bail or his own recognizance pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony committed while he was serving a period of probation, conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;

(13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

(14) the defendant held a position of trust or supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the defendant committed an offense in violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against that victim;

(15) the defendant committed an offense related to the activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity; on the real property of a school; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation of one of the following Sections while in a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on the real property of a day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; or on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care center, regardless of the time of day or time of year: Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the ID/DD Community Care Act;

(19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and has now committed either a felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;

(20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(22) the defendant committed the offense against a person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United States, including a member of any reserve component thereof or National Guard unit called to active duty;

(23) the defendant committed the offense against a person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm by taking advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the elderly, disabled, or infirm person;

(24) the defendant committed any offense under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;

(25) the defendant committed the offense while the defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other vehicle used for public transportation;

(26) the defendant committed the offense of child pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B or Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context;

(27) the defendant committed the offense of first degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person who was a veteran and the defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the person was a veteran performing duties as a representative of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization" means an organization comprised of members of which substantially all are individuals who are veterans or spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members and to provide assistance to the general public in such a way as to confer a public benefit; or

(28) the defendant committed the offense of assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a letter carrier or postal worker while that person was performing his or her duties delivering mail for the United States Postal Service.

For the purposes of this Section:

"School" is defined as a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"Day care center" means a public or private State certified and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view stating that the property is a day care center.

"Public transportation" means the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, and includes paratransit services.

(b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and such charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts; or

(2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the court finds that the offense was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony committed against:

(i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of the offense or such person's property;

(ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(iii) a person physically handicapped at the time of the offense or such person's property; or

(4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the offense involved any of the following types of specific misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite, initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social group:

(i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or animals;

(ii) the theft of human corpses;

(iii) the kidnapping of humans;

(iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious, fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or other building or property; or

(v) ritualized abuse of a child; or

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer, supervisor, financier, or any other position of management or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or

(6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; or

(7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time spent in custody; or

(8) When a defendant commits any felony and the defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement officer engaged in the execution of his or her official duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang in which the defendant is engaged.

(c) The following factors may be considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:

(1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent in custody, and the charges are separately brought and tried and arise out of different series of acts.

(1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after having been previously convicted of violation of an order of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim was the protected person.

(2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant has been convicted of causing the death of more than one individual.

(3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of the participation of the others in the crime, and the commission of the crime was part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective.

(4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).

(5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a finding that the defendant is a member of an organized gang.

(6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).

(7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency response officer in the performance of his or her duties is killed or injured at the scene of the offense while responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy; and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical technician-ambulance, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency room personnel.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense and, during the commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the victim had consumed alcohol.

(Source: P.A. 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-292, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1228, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1390, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11, 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-693, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-5)

Sec. 5-5-5. Loss and Restoration of Rights.

(a) Conviction and disposition shall not entail the loss by the defendant of any civil rights, except under this Section and Sections 29-6 and 29-10 of The Election Code, as now or hereafter amended.

(b) A person convicted of a felony shall be ineligible to hold an office created by the Constitution of this State until the completion of his sentence.

(c) A person sentenced to imprisonment shall lose his right to vote until released from imprisonment.

(d) On completion of sentence of imprisonment or upon discharge from probation, conditional discharge or periodic imprisonment, or at any time thereafter, all license rights and privileges granted under the authority of this State which have been revoked or suspended because of conviction of an offense shall be restored unless the authority having jurisdiction of such license rights finds after investigation and hearing that restoration is not in the public interest. This paragraph (d) shall not apply to the suspension or revocation of a license to operate a motor vehicle under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(e) Upon a person's discharge from incarceration or parole, or upon a person's discharge from probation or at any time thereafter, the committing court may enter an order certifying that the sentence has been satisfactorily completed when the court believes it would assist in the rehabilitation of the person and be consistent with the public welfare. Such order may be entered upon the motion of the defendant or the State or upon the court's own motion.

(f) Upon entry of the order, the court shall issue to the person in whose favor the order has been entered a certificate stating that his behavior after conviction has warranted the issuance of the order.

(g) This Section shall not affect the right of a defendant to collaterally attack his conviction or to rely on it in bar of subsequent proceedings for the same offense.

(h) No application for any license specified in subsection (i) of this Section granted under the authority of this State shall be denied by reason of an eligible offender who has obtained a certificate of relief from disabilities, as defined in Article 5.5 of this Chapter, having been previously convicted of one or more criminal offenses, or by reason of a finding of lack of "good moral character" when the finding is based upon the fact that the applicant has previously been convicted of one or more criminal offenses, unless:

(1) there is a direct relationship between one or more of the previous criminal offenses and the specific license sought; or

(2) the issuance of the license would involve an unreasonable risk to property or to the safety or welfare of specific individuals or the general public.

In making such a determination, the licensing agency shall consider the following factors:

(1) the public policy of this State, as expressed in Article 5.5 of this Chapter, to encourage the licensure and employment of persons previously convicted of one or more criminal offenses;

(2) the specific duties and responsibilities necessarily related to the license being sought;

(3) the bearing, if any, the criminal offenses or offenses for which the person was previously convicted will have on his or her fitness or ability to perform one or more such duties and responsibilities;

(4) the time which has elapsed since the occurrence of the criminal offense or offenses;

(5) the age of the person at the time of occurrence of the criminal offense or offenses;

(6) the seriousness of the offense or offenses;

(7) any information produced by the person or produced on his or her behalf in regard to his or her rehabilitation and good conduct, including a certificate of relief from disabilities issued to the applicant, which certificate shall create a presumption of rehabilitation in regard to the offense or offenses specified in the certificate; and

(8) the legitimate interest of the licensing agency in protecting property, and the safety and welfare of specific individuals or the general public.

(i) A certificate of relief from disabilities shall be issued only for a license or certification issued under the following Acts:

(1) the Animal Welfare Act; except that a certificate of relief from disabilities may not be granted to provide for the issuance or restoration of a license under the Animal Welfare Act for any person convicted of violating Section 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) the Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act;

(3) the Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair Braiding, and Nail Technology Act of 1985;

(4) the Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act;

(5) the Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act;

(6) the Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of 1984;

(7) the Illinois Farm Labor Contractor Certification Act;

(8) the Interior Design Title Act;

(9) the Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989;

(10) the Illinois Landscape Architecture Act of 1989;

(11) the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act;

(12) the Private Employment Agency Act;

(13) the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act;

(14) the Real Estate License Act of 2000;

(15) the Illinois Roofing Industry Licensing Act;

(16) the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989;

(17) the Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's License Act;

(18) the Electrologist Licensing Act;

(19) the Auction License Act;

(20) the Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989;

(21) the Dietetic and Nutrition Services Practice Act;

(22) the Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act;

(23) the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code;

(24) the Land Sales Registration Act of 1999;

(25) the Professional Geologist Licensing Act;

(26) the Illinois Public Accounting Act; and

(27) the Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 96-1246, eff. 1-1-11; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; 97-706, eff. 6-25-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-6)

Sec. 5-5-6. In all convictions for offenses in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code in which the person received any injury to his or her person or damage to his or her real or personal property as a result of the criminal act of the defendant, the court shall order restitution as provided in this Section. In all other cases, except cases in which restitution is required under this Section, the court must at the sentence hearing determine whether restitution is an appropriate sentence to be imposed on each defendant convicted of an offense. If the court determines that an order directing the offender to make restitution is appropriate, the offender may be sentenced to make restitution. The court may consider restitution an appropriate sentence to be imposed on each defendant convicted of an offense in addition to a sentence of imprisonment. The sentence of the defendant to a term of imprisonment is not a mitigating factor that prevents the court from ordering the defendant to pay restitution. If the offender is sentenced to make restitution the Court shall determine the restitution as hereinafter set forth:

(a) At the sentence hearing, the court shall determine whether the property may be restored in kind to the possession of the owner or the person entitled to possession thereof; or whether the defendant is possessed of sufficient skill to repair and restore property damaged; or whether the defendant should be required to make restitution in cash, for out-of-pocket expenses, damages, losses, or injuries found to have been proximately caused by the conduct of the defendant or another for whom the defendant is legally accountable under the provisions of Article 5 V of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) In fixing the amount of restitution to be paid in cash, the court shall allow credit for property returned in kind, for property damages ordered to be repaired by the defendant, and for property ordered to be restored by the defendant; and after granting the credit, the court shall assess the actual out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, and injuries suffered by the victim named in the charge and any other victims who may also have suffered out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, and injuries proximately caused by the same criminal conduct of the defendant, and insurance carriers who have indemnified the named victim or other victims for the out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries, provided that in no event shall restitution be ordered to be paid on account of pain and suffering. When a victim's out-of-pocket expenses have been paid pursuant to the Crime Victims Compensation Act, the court shall order restitution be paid to the compensation program. If a defendant is placed on supervision for, or convicted of, domestic battery, the defendant shall be required to pay restitution to any domestic violence shelter in which the victim and any other family or household members lived because of the domestic battery. The amount of the restitution shall equal the actual expenses of the domestic violence shelter in providing housing and any other services for the victim and any other family or household members living at the shelter. If a defendant fails to pay restitution in the manner or within the time period specified by the court, the court may enter an order directing the sheriff to seize any real or personal property of a defendant to the extent necessary to satisfy the order of restitution and dispose of the property by public sale. All proceeds from such sale in excess of the amount of restitution plus court costs and the costs of the sheriff in conducting the sale shall be paid to the defendant. The defendant convicted of domestic battery, if a person under 18 years of age was present and witnessed the domestic battery of the victim, is liable to pay restitution for the cost of any counseling required for the child at the discretion of the court.

(c) In cases where more than one defendant is accountable for the same criminal conduct that results in out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries, each defendant shall be ordered to pay restitution in the amount of the total actual out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries to the victim proximately caused by the conduct of all of the defendants who are legally accountable for the offense.

(1) In no event shall the victim be entitled to recover restitution in excess of the actual out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries, proximately caused by the conduct of all of the defendants.

(2) As between the defendants, the court may apportion the restitution that is payable in proportion to each co-defendant's culpability in the commission of the offense.

(3) In the absence of a specific order apportioning the restitution, each defendant shall bear his pro rata share of the restitution.

(4) As between the defendants, each defendant shall be entitled to a pro rata reduction in the total restitution required to be paid to the victim for amounts of restitution actually paid by co-defendants, and defendants who shall have paid more than their pro rata share shall be entitled to refunds to be computed by the court as additional amounts are paid by co-defendants.

(d) In instances where a defendant has more than one criminal charge pending against him in a single case, or more than one case, and the defendant stands convicted of one or more charges, a plea agreement negotiated by the State's Attorney and the defendants may require the defendant to make restitution to victims of charges that have been dismissed or which it is contemplated will be dismissed under the terms of the plea agreement, and under the agreement, the court may impose a sentence of restitution on the charge or charges of which the defendant has been convicted that would require the defendant to make restitution to victims of other offenses as provided in the plea agreement.

(e) The court may require the defendant to apply the balance of the cash bond, after payment of court costs, and any fine that may be imposed to the payment of restitution.

(f) Taking into consideration the ability of the defendant to pay, including any real or personal property or any other assets of the defendant, the court shall determine whether restitution shall be paid in a single payment or in installments, and shall fix a period of time not in excess of 5 years, except for violations of Sections 16-1.3 and 17-56 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or the period of time specified in subsection (f-1), not including periods of incarceration, within which payment of restitution is to be paid in full. Complete restitution shall be paid in as short a time period as possible. However, if the court deems it necessary and in the best interest of the victim, the court may extend beyond 5 years the period of time within which the payment of restitution is to be paid. If the defendant is ordered to pay restitution and the court orders that restitution is to be paid over a period greater than 6 months, the court shall order that the defendant make monthly payments; the court may waive this requirement of monthly payments only if there is a specific finding of good cause for waiver.

(f-1)(1) In addition to any other penalty prescribed by law and any restitution ordered under this Section that did not include long-term physical health care costs, the court may, upon conviction of any misdemeanor or felony, order a defendant to pay restitution to a victim in accordance with the provisions of this subsection (f-1) if the victim has suffered physical injury as a result of the offense that is reasonably probable to require or has required long-term physical health care for more than 3 months. As used in this subsection (f-1) "long-term physical health care" includes mental health care.

(2) The victim's estimate of long-term physical health care costs may be made as part of a victim impact statement under Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act or made separately. The court shall enter the long-term physical health care restitution order at the time of sentencing. An order of restitution made under this subsection (f-1) shall fix a monthly amount to be paid by the defendant for as long as long-term physical health care of the victim is required as a result of the offense. The order may exceed the length of any sentence imposed upon the defendant for the criminal activity. The court shall include as a special finding in the judgment of conviction its determination of the monthly cost of long-term physical health care.

(3) After a sentencing order has been entered, the court may from time to time, on the petition of either the defendant or the victim, or upon its own motion, enter an order for restitution for long-term physical care or modify the existing order for restitution for long-term physical care as to the amount of monthly payments. Any modification of the order shall be based only upon a substantial change of circumstances relating to the cost of long-term physical health care or the financial condition of either the defendant or the victim. The petition shall be filed as part of the original criminal docket.

(g) In addition to the sentences provided for in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16, and subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the court may order any person who is convicted of violating any of those Sections or who was charged with any of those offenses and which charge was reduced to another charge as a result of a plea agreement under subsection (d) of this Section to meet all or any portion of the financial obligations of treatment, including but not limited to medical, psychiatric, or rehabilitative treatment or psychological counseling, prescribed for the victim or victims of the offense.

The payments shall be made by the defendant to the clerk of the circuit court and transmitted by the clerk to the appropriate person or agency as directed by the court. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (f-1), the order may require such payments to be made for a period not to exceed 5 years after sentencing, not including periods of incarceration.

(h) The judge may enter an order of withholding to collect the amount of restitution owed in accordance with Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(i) A sentence of restitution may be modified or revoked by the court if the offender commits another offense, or the offender fails to make restitution as ordered by the court, but no sentence to make restitution shall be revoked unless the court shall find that the offender has had the financial ability to make restitution, and he has wilfully refused to do so. When the offender's ability to pay restitution was established at the time an order of restitution was entered or modified, or when the offender's ability to pay was based on the offender's willingness to make restitution as part of a plea agreement made at the time the order of restitution was entered or modified, there is a rebuttable presumption that the facts and circumstances considered by the court at the hearing at which the order of restitution was entered or modified regarding the offender's ability or willingness to pay restitution have not materially changed. If the court shall find that the defendant has failed to make restitution and that the failure is not wilful, the court may impose an additional period of time within which to make restitution. The length of the additional period shall not be more than 2 years. The court shall retain all of the incidents of the original sentence, including the authority to modify or enlarge the conditions, and to revoke or further modify the sentence if the conditions of payment are violated during the additional period.

(j) The procedure upon the filing of a Petition to Revoke a sentence to make restitution shall be the same as the procedures set forth in Section 5-6-4 of this Code governing violation, modification, or revocation of Probation, of Conditional Discharge, or of Supervision.

(k) Nothing contained in this Section shall preclude the right of any party to proceed in a civil action to recover for any damages incurred due to the criminal misconduct of the defendant.

(l) Restitution ordered under this Section shall not be subject to disbursement by the circuit clerk under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(m) A restitution order under this Section is a judgment lien in favor of the victim that:

(1) Attaches to the property of the person subject to the order;

(2) May be perfected in the same manner as provided in Part 3 of Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code;

(3) May be enforced to satisfy any payment that is delinquent under the restitution order by the person in whose favor the order is issued or the person's assignee; and

(4) Expires in the same manner as a judgment lien created in a civil proceeding.

When a restitution order is issued under this Section, the issuing court shall send a certified copy of the order to the clerk of the circuit court in the county where the charge was filed. Upon receiving the order, the clerk shall enter and index the order in the circuit court judgment docket.

(n) An order of restitution under this Section does not bar a civil action for:

(1) Damages that the court did not require the person to pay to the victim under the restitution order but arise from an injury or property damages that is the basis of restitution ordered by the court; and

(2) Other damages suffered by the victim.

The restitution order is not discharged by the completion of the sentence imposed for the offense.

A restitution order under this Section is not discharged by the liquidation of a person's estate by a receiver. A restitution order under this Section may be enforced in the same manner as judgment liens are enforced under Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

The provisions of Section 2-1303 of the Code of Civil Procedure, providing for interest on judgments, apply to judgments for restitution entered under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-290, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-482, eff. 1-1-12; 97-817, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-831)

Sec. 5-6-1. Sentences of Probation and of Conditional Discharge and Disposition of Supervision. The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the criminal justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or disposition of supervision.

(a) Except where specifically prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court shall impose a sentence of probation or conditional discharge upon an offender unless, having regard to the nature and circumstance of the offense, and to the history, character and condition of the offender, the court is of the opinion that:

(1) his imprisonment or periodic imprisonment is necessary for the protection of the public; or

(2) probation or conditional discharge would deprecate the seriousness of the offender's conduct and would be inconsistent with the ends of justice; or

(3) a combination of imprisonment with concurrent or consecutive probation when an offender has been admitted into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act is necessary for the protection of the public and for the rehabilitation of the offender.

The court shall impose as a condition of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-6-4 of this Act.

(b) The court may impose a sentence of conditional discharge for an offense if the court is of the opinion that neither a sentence of imprisonment nor of periodic imprisonment nor of probation supervision is appropriate.

(b-1) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the defendant within the past 12 months has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(c) The court may, upon a plea of guilty or a stipulation by the defendant of the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt, defer further proceedings and the imposition of a sentence, and enter an order for supervision of the defendant, if the defendant is not charged with: (i) a Class A misdemeanor, as defined by the following provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: Sections 11-9.1; 12-3.2; 11-1.50 or 12-15; 26-5 or 48-1; 31-1; 31-6; 31-7; paragraphs (2) and (3) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1; paragraph (1) through (5), (8), (10), and (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1; (ii) a Class A misdemeanor violation of Section 3.01, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (iii) a felony. If the defendant is not barred from receiving an order for supervision as provided in this subsection, the court may enter an order for supervision after considering the circumstances of the offense, and the history, character and condition of the offender, if the court is of the opinion that:

(1) the offender is not likely to commit further crimes;

(2) the defendant and the public would be best served if the defendant were not to receive a criminal record; and

(3) in the best interests of justice an order of supervision is more appropriate than a sentence otherwise permitted under this Code.

(c-5) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit or privileges were revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the defendant has previously been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(3) pleaded guilty to or stipulated to the facts supporting a charge or a finding of guilty to a violation of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state, and the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(e) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if said defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(f) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Sections 15-111, 15-112, 15-301, paragraph (b) of Section 6-104, Section 11-605, Section 11-1002.5, or Section 11-1414 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (i) of this Section, the provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(h) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with violating a serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code:

(1) unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision; or

(2) if the defendant has previously been sentenced under the provisions of paragraph (c) on or after January 1, 1998 for any serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(h-1) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision.

(i) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has been assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(j) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a violation of Section 11-501.1 or paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if the defendant has within the last 10 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(k) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance that governs the movement of vehicles if, within the 12 months preceding the date of the defendant's arrest, the defendant has been assigned court supervision on 2 occasions for a violation that governs the movement of vehicles under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The provisions of this paragraph (k) do not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(l) A defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance who receives a disposition of supervision under subsection (c) shall pay an additional fee of $29, to be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. In addition to the $29 fee, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, which, if not waived by the court, shall be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. The $29 fee shall be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. If the $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(m) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection (m) becomes inoperative 7 years after October 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-154).

(n) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to any person under the age of 18 who commits an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except upon personal appearance of the defendant in court and upon the written consent of the defendant's parent or legal guardian, executed before the presiding judge. The presiding judge shall have the authority to waive this requirement upon the showing of good cause by the defendant.

(o) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and when:

(1) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the defendant failed to obtain a monitoring device driving permit; or

(2) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, had subsequently obtained a monitoring device driving permit, but was driving a vehicle not equipped with a breath alcohol ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(p) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating subsection (b) of Section 11-601.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 96-253, eff. 8-11-09; 96-286, eff. 8-11-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-625, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1002, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1175, eff. 9-20-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-831)

Sec. 5-6-1. Sentences of Probation and of Conditional Discharge and Disposition of Supervision. The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the criminal justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or disposition of supervision.

(a) Except where specifically prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court shall impose a sentence of probation or conditional discharge upon an offender unless, having regard to the nature and circumstance of the offense, and to the history, character and condition of the offender, the court is of the opinion that:

(1) his imprisonment or periodic imprisonment is necessary for the protection of the public; or

(2) probation or conditional discharge would deprecate the seriousness of the offender's conduct and would be inconsistent with the ends of justice; or

(3) a combination of imprisonment with concurrent or consecutive probation when an offender has been admitted into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act is necessary for the protection of the public and for the rehabilitation of the offender.

The court shall impose as a condition of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-6-4 of this Act.

(b) The court may impose a sentence of conditional discharge for an offense if the court is of the opinion that neither a sentence of imprisonment nor of periodic imprisonment nor of probation supervision is appropriate.

(b-1) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the defendant within the past 12 months has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(c) The court may, upon a plea of guilty or a stipulation by the defendant of the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt, defer further proceedings and the imposition of a sentence, and enter an order for supervision of the defendant, if the defendant is not charged with: (i) a Class A misdemeanor, as defined by the following provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: Sections 11-9.1; 12-3.2; 11-1.50 or 12-15; 26-5 or 48-1; 31-1; 31-6; 31-7; paragraphs (2) and (3) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1; paragraph (1) through (5), (8), (10), and (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1; (ii) a Class A misdemeanor violation of Section 3.01, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (iii) a felony. If the defendant is not barred from receiving an order for supervision as provided in this subsection, the court may enter an order for supervision after considering the circumstances of the offense, and the history, character and condition of the offender, if the court is of the opinion that:

(1) the offender is not likely to commit further crimes;

(2) the defendant and the public would be best served if the defendant were not to receive a criminal record; and

(3) in the best interests of justice an order of supervision is more appropriate than a sentence otherwise permitted under this Code.

(c-5) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit or privileges were revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the defendant has previously been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(3) pleaded guilty to or stipulated to the facts supporting a charge or a finding of guilty to a violation of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state, and the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(e) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if said defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(f) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Sections 15-111, 15-112, 15-301, paragraph (b) of Section 6-104, Section 11-605, Section 11-1002.5, or Section 11-1414 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (i) of this Section, the provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(h) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with violating a serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code:

(1) unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision; or

(2) if the defendant has previously been sentenced under the provisions of paragraph (c) on or after January 1, 1998 for any serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(h-1) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision.

(i) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has been assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(j) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a violation of Section 11-501.1 or paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if the defendant has within the last 10 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(k) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance that governs the movement of vehicles if, within the 12 months preceding the date of the defendant's arrest, the defendant has been assigned court supervision on 2 occasions for a violation that governs the movement of vehicles under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The provisions of this paragraph (k) do not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(l) A defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance who receives a disposition of supervision under subsection (c) shall pay an additional fee of $29, to be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. In addition to the $29 fee, the person shall also pay a fee of $6, which, if not waived by the court, shall be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act. The $29 fee shall be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. If the $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.

(m) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code.

This subsection (m) becomes inoperative 7 years after October 13, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-154).

(n) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to any person under the age of 18 who commits an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except upon personal appearance of the defendant in court and upon the written consent of the defendant's parent or legal guardian, executed before the presiding judge. The presiding judge shall have the authority to waive this requirement upon the showing of good cause by the defendant.

(o) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and when:

(1) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the defendant failed to obtain a monitoring device driving permit; or

(2) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, had subsequently obtained a monitoring device driving permit, but was driving a vehicle not equipped with a breath alcohol ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(p) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-601.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(q) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating subsection (b) of Section 11-601 of the Illinois Vehicle Code when the defendant was operating a vehicle, in an urban district, at a speed in excess of 25 miles per hour over the posted speed limit.

(Source: P.A. 96-253, eff. 8-11-09; 96-286, eff. 8-11-09; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-625, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1002, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1175, eff. 9-20-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-831, eff. 7-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3)

Sec. 5-6-3. Conditions of Probation and of Conditional Discharge.

(a) The conditions of probation and of conditional discharge shall be that the person:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report to or appear in person before such person or agency as directed by the court;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a felony or, if a misdemeanor, the offense involved the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the person's probation officer. Transfer of a person's probation or conditional discharge supervision to another state is subject to acceptance by the other state pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision;

(5) permit the probation officer to visit him at his home or elsewhere to the extent necessary to discharge his duties;

(6) perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, where the offense was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang and was motivated by the offender's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by a violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damage to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. When possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood. For purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act;

(7) if he or she is at least 17 years of age and has been sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony, may be required by the sentencing court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The person on probation or conditional discharge must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this clause (7). The court shall revoke the probation or conditional discharge of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this clause (7). The person on probation or conditional discharge shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall resentence the offender whose probation or conditional discharge has been revoked as provided in Section 5-6-4. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This clause (7) does not apply to a person who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program;

(8) if convicted of possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act or Illinois Controlled Substances Act or after a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act and upon a finding by the court that the person is addicted, undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court;

(8.5) if convicted of a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the person shall undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act;

(8.6) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act, refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense; the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders;

(8.7) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (8.7), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(8.8) if convicted for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983):

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer;

(8.9) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262), refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(9) if convicted of a felony or of any misdemeanor violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 that was determined, pursuant to Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, to trigger the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9), physically surrender at a time and place designated by the court, his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card and any and all firearms in his or her possession. The Court shall return to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(10) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter;

(11) if convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses; and

(12) if convicted of a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or a methamphetamine related offense:

(A) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing pseudoephedrine unless prescribed by a physician; and

(B) prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or having under his or her control any product containing ammonium nitrate.

(b) The Court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the Court require that the person:

(1) serve a term of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 for a period not to exceed that specified in paragraph (d) of Section 5-7-1;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home;

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is convicted of a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(8) make restitution as provided in Section 5-5-6 of this Code;

(9) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(10) serve a term of home confinement. In addition to any other applicable condition of probation or conditional discharge, the conditions of home confinement shall be that the offender:

(i) remain within the interior premises of the place designated for his confinement during the hours designated by the court;

(ii) admit any person or agent designated by the court into the offender's place of confinement at any time for purposes of verifying the offender's compliance with the conditions of his confinement; and

(iii) if further deemed necessary by the court or the Probation or Court Services Department, be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V;

(iv) for persons convicted of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the offender to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund under Section 5-1086.1 of the Counties Code; and

(v) for persons convicted of offenses other than those referenced in clause (iv) above and who are placed on an approved monitoring device as a condition of probation or conditional discharge, the court shall impose a reasonable fee for each day of the use of the device, as established by the county board in subsection (g) of this Section, unless after determining the inability of the defendant to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the case may be. This fee shall be imposed in addition to the fees imposed under subsections (g) and (i) of this Section. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer who shall use the monies collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the probation and court services fund.

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended, or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the probation officer or agency having responsibility for the case;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer, if the defendant has been placed on probation or advance approval by the court, if the defendant was placed on conditional discharge;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of persons, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age; for purposes of this paragraph (17), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused;

(18) if convicted for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-983) that would qualify as a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the offender's probation officer, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the offender's probation officer;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the subject's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the offender's probation officer; and

(19) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon where the offense is a misdemeanor that did not involve the intentional or knowing infliction of bodily harm or threat of bodily harm.

(c) The court may as a condition of probation or of conditional discharge require that a person under 18 years of age found guilty of any alcohol, cannabis or controlled substance violation, refrain from acquiring a driver's license during the period of probation or conditional discharge. If such person is in possession of a permit or license, the court may require that the minor refrain from driving or operating any motor vehicle during the period of probation or conditional discharge, except as may be necessary in the course of the minor's lawful employment.

(d) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge shall be given a certificate setting forth the conditions thereof.

(e) Except where the offender has committed a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the court shall not require as a condition of the sentence of probation or conditional discharge that the offender be committed to a period of imprisonment in excess of 6 months. This 6 month limit shall not include periods of confinement given pursuant to a sentence of county impact incarceration under Section 5-8-1.2.

Persons committed to imprisonment as a condition of probation or conditional discharge shall not be committed to the Department of Corrections.

(f) The court may combine a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Article 7 or a sentence to a county impact incarceration program under Article 8 with a sentence of probation or conditional discharge.

(g) An offender sentenced to probation or to conditional discharge and who during the term of either undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay all costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, involved in a successful probation program for the county. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer.

(i) The court shall impose upon an offender sentenced to probation after January 1, 1989 or to conditional discharge after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of such probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of probation or conditional discharge supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person sentenced to probation or conditional discharge or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon an offender who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee under this subsection (i) in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay Of the amount collected as a probation fee, up to $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

This amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly deletes the $10 increase in the fee under this subsection that was imposed by Public Act 93-616. This deletion is intended to control over any other Act of the 93rd General Assembly that retains or incorporates that fee increase.

(i-5) In addition to the fees imposed under subsection (i) of this Section, in the case of an offender convicted of a felony sex offense (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act) or an offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated (as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act), the court or the probation department shall assess additional fees to pay for all costs of treatment, assessment, evaluation for risk and treatment, and monitoring the offender, based on that offender's ability to pay those costs either as they occur or under a payment plan.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) Any offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act or any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(l) The court may order an offender who is sentenced to probation or conditional discharge for a violation of an order of protection be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-695, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-560, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)

Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and Conditions of Supervision.

(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the conclusion of the period.

(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2 years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years. Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120 hours of community service, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a disposition of supervision is not prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar damages to property located within the municipality or county in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable, the community service should be performed in the offender's neighborhood.

For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that the person:

(1) make a report to and appear in person before or participate with the court or such courts, person, or social service agency as directed by the court in the order of supervision;

(2) pay a fine and costs;

(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational training;

(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;

(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the instruction or residence of defendants on probation;

(6) support his dependents;

(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(8) and in addition, if a minor:

(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;

(ii) attend school;

(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;

(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a foster home; or

(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the facility, attend an educational program at a facility other than the school in which the offense was committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school;

(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and conditions of payment;

(10) perform some reasonable public or community service;

(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the court;

(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced;

(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a "local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;

(14) refrain from entering into a designated geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a probation officer;

(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular types of person, including but not limited to members of street gangs and drug users or dealers;

(16) refrain from having in his or her body the presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence of any illicit drug;

(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; under this condition the court may allow a defendant who is not self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course and scope of the defendant's employment; and

(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code, unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person under 18 years of age present in the home and no non-familial minors are present, not participate in a holiday event involving children under 18 years of age, such as distributing candy or other items to children on Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding Easter.

(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the charges until the conclusion of the supervision.

(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the court determines that the defendant has successfully complied with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the charges.

(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of Sections 12-3.2, 16-25, or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which case it shall be 5 years after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However, any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual offense committed against a minor as defined in clause (a)(1)(L) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act or for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.

(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the purposes of appeal.

(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under the supervision of a probation or court services department after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of supervision or supervised community service ordered by the court, unless after determining the inability of the person placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement. The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively supervised by the probation and court services department. The fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of $25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay. Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to crime victims and their families.

The Court may only waive probation fees based on an offender's ability to pay. The probation department may re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and, with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a probation department, or has been transferred either under subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact, shall be required to pay probation fees to the department supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to pay.

(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her supervision be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (k). The defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or GED test, if a fee is charged for those courses or test. The court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted, to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by the court.

(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of 3 years after the date the proof is first filed. The proof shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of any person determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this subsection.

(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that the court or probation department has determined to be sexually motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall be available for all evaluations and treatment programs required by the court or the probation department.

(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain from residing at the same address or in the same condominium unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or apartment complex with another person he or she knows or reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed transitional housing facility for sex offenders.

(p) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (p), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and a person is not related to the accused if the person is not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(q) An offender placed on supervision for an offense committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall, if so ordered by the court, refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (q), "Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; and a person is related to the accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the accused.

(r) An offender placed on supervision for an offense under Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall:

(i) not access or use a computer or any other device with Internet capability without the prior written approval of the court, except in connection with the offender's employment or search for employment with the prior approval of the court;

(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of the offender's computer or any other device with Internet capability by the offender's probation officer, a law enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying of all data from the computer or device and any internal or external peripherals and removal of such information, equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;

(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's computer or device with Internet capability, at the offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software systems to monitor the Internet use; and

(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or any other device with Internet capability imposed by the court.

(s) An offender placed on supervision for an offense that is a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act that is committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that the sex offender uses.

(t) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262) shall refrain from accessing or using a social networking website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(u) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender, as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees collected prior to the transfer.

(Source: P.A. 96-262, eff. 1-1-10; 96-362, eff. 1-1-10; 96-409, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1414, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-1)

Sec. 5-8-1. Natural life imprisonment; enhancements for use of a firearm; mandatory supervised release terms.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in the statute defining the offense or in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, a sentence of imprisonment for a felony shall be a determinate sentence set by the court under this Section, according to the following limitations:

(1) for first degree murder,

(a) (blank),

(b) if a trier of fact finds beyond a reasonable doubt that the murder was accompanied by exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty or, except as set forth in subsection (a)(1)(c) of this Section, that any of the aggravating factors listed in subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 are present, the court may sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment, or

(c) the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of natural life imprisonment when the death penalty is not imposed if the defendant,

(i) has previously been convicted of first degree murder under any state or federal law, or

(ii) is a person who, at the time of the commission of the murder, had attained the age of 17 or more and is found guilty of murdering an individual under 12 years of age; or, irrespective of the defendant's age at the time of the commission of the offense, is found guilty of murdering more than one victim, or

(iii) is found guilty of murdering a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker when the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the peace officer or fireman from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker from performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer, fireman, or emergency management worker, or

(iv) is found guilty of murdering an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, when the employee was killed in the course of performing his official duties, or to prevent the employee from performing his official duties, or in retaliation for the employee performing his official duties, or

(v) is found guilty of murdering an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver or other medical assistance or first aid person while employed by a municipality or other governmental unit when the person was killed in the course of performing official duties or to prevent the person from performing official duties or in retaliation for performing official duties and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistant or first aid personnel, or

(vi) is a person who, at the time of the commission of the murder, had not attained the age of 17, and is found guilty of murdering a person under 12 years of age and the murder is committed during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, or

(vii) is found guilty of first degree murder and the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

For purposes of clause (v), "emergency medical technician - ambulance", "emergency medical technician - intermediate", "emergency medical technician - paramedic", have the meanings ascribed to them in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(d) (i) if the person committed the offense while armed with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(ii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;

(iii) if, during the commission of the offense, the person personally discharged a firearm that proximately caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court.

(2) (blank);

(2.5) for a person convicted under the circumstances described in subdivision (b)(1)(B) of Section 11-1.20 or paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-13, subdivision (d)(2) of Section 11-1.30 or paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 12-14, subdivision (b)(1.2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (1.2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1, subdivision (b)(2) of Section 11-1.40 or paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sentence shall be a term of natural life imprisonment.

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) Subject to earlier termination under Section 3-3-8, the parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be written as part of the sentencing order and shall be as follows:

(1) for first degree murder or a Class X felony except for the offenses of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, and criminal sexual assault if committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and except for the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, or 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 3 years;

(2) for a Class 1 felony or a Class 2 felony except for the offense of criminal sexual assault if committed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and except for the offenses of manufacture and dissemination of child pornography under clauses (a)(1) and (a)(2) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if committed on or after January 1, 2009, 2 years;

(3) for a Class 3 felony or a Class 4 felony, 1 year;

(4) for defendants who commit the offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault, on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, or who commit the offense of aggravated child pornography under Section 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-20.1 with sentencing under subsection (c-5) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, manufacture of child pornography, or dissemination of child pornography after January 1, 2009, the term of mandatory supervised release shall range from a minimum of 3 years to a maximum of the natural life of the defendant;

(5) if the victim is under 18 years of age, for a second or subsequent offense of aggravated criminal sexual abuse or felony criminal sexual abuse, 4 years, at least the first 2 years of which the defendant shall serve in an electronic home detention program under Article 8A of Chapter V of this Code;

(6) for a felony domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, and a felony violation of an order of protection, 4 years.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-282, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1475, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-531, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-1.2)

Sec. 5-8-1.2. County impact incarceration.

(a) Legislative intent. It is the finding of the General Assembly that certain non-violent offenders eligible for sentences of incarceration may benefit from the rehabilitative aspects of a county impact incarceration program. It is the intent of the General Assembly that such programs be implemented as provided by this Section. This Section shall not be construed to allow violent offenders to participate in a county impact incarceration program.

(b) Under the direction of the Sheriff and with the approval of the County Board of Commissioners, the Sheriff, in any county with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants, may establish and operate a county impact incarceration program for eligible offenders. If the court finds under Section 5-4-1 that an offender convicted of a felony meets the eligibility requirements of the Sheriff's county impact incarceration program, the court may sentence the offender to the county impact incarceration program. The Sheriff shall be responsible for monitoring all offenders who are sentenced to the county impact incarceration program, including the mandatory period of monitored release following the 120 to 180 days of impact incarceration. Offenders assigned to the county impact incarceration program under an intergovernmental agreement between the county and the Illinois Department of Corrections are exempt from the provisions of this mandatory period of monitored release. In the event the offender is not accepted for placement in the county impact incarceration program, the court shall proceed to sentence the offender to any other disposition authorized by this Code. If the offender does not successfully complete the program, the offender's failure to do so shall constitute a violation of the sentence to the county impact incarceration program.

(c) In order to be eligible to be sentenced to a county impact incarceration program by the court, the person shall meet all of the following requirements:

(1) the person must be not less than 17 years of age nor more than 35 years of age;

(2) The person has not previously participated in the impact incarceration program and has not previously served more than one prior sentence of imprisonment for a felony in an adult correctional facility;

(3) The person has not been convicted of a Class X felony, first or second degree murder, armed violence, aggravated kidnapping, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, forcible detention, or arson and has not been convicted previously of any of those offenses.

(4) The person has been found in violation of probation for an offense that is a Class 2, 3, or 4 felony that is not a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act who otherwise could be sentenced to a term of incarceration; or the person is convicted of an offense that is a Class 2, 3, or 4 felony that is not a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act who has previously served a sentence of probation for any felony offense and who otherwise could be sentenced to a term of incarceration.

(5) The person must be physically able to participate in strenuous physical activities or labor.

(6) The person must not have any mental disorder or disability that would prevent participation in a county impact incarceration program.

(7) The person was recommended and approved for placement in the county impact incarceration program by the Sheriff and consented in writing to participation in the county impact incarceration program and to the terms and conditions of the program. The Sheriff may consider, among other matters, whether the person has any outstanding detainers or warrants, whether the person has a history of escaping or absconding, whether participation in the county impact incarceration program may pose a risk to the safety or security of any person and whether space is available.

(c) The county impact incarceration program shall include, among other matters, mandatory physical training and labor, military formation and drills, regimented activities, uniformity of dress and appearance, education and counseling, including drug counseling where appropriate.

(d) Privileges including visitation, commissary, receipt and retention of property and publications and access to television, radio, and a library may be suspended or restricted, notwithstanding provisions to the contrary in this Code.

(e) The Sheriff shall issue written rules and requirements for the program. Persons shall be informed of rules of behavior and conduct. Persons participating in the county impact incarceration program shall adhere to all rules and all requirements of the program.

(f) Participation in the county impact incarceration program shall be for a period of 120 to 180 days followed by a mandatory term of monitored release for at least 8 months and no more than 12 months supervised by the Sheriff. The period of time a person shall serve in the impact incarceration program shall not be reduced by the accumulation of good time. The court may also sentence the person to a period of probation to commence at the successful completion of the county impact incarceration program.

(g) If the person successfully completes the county impact incarceration program, the Sheriff shall certify the person's successful completion of the program to the court and to the county's State's Attorney. Upon successful completion of the county impact incarceration program and mandatory term of monitored release and if there is an additional period of probation given, the person shall at that time begin his or her probationary sentence under the supervision of the Adult Probation Department.

(h) A person may be removed from the county impact incarceration program for a violation of the terms or conditions of the program or in the event he or she is for any reason unable to participate. The failure to complete the program for any reason, including the 8 to 12 month monitored release period, shall be deemed a violation of the county impact incarceration sentence. The Sheriff shall give notice to the State's Attorney of the person's failure to complete the program. The Sheriff shall file a petition for violation of the county impact incarceration sentence with the court and the State's Attorney may proceed on the petition under Section 5-6-4 of this Code. The Sheriff shall promulgate rules and regulations governing conduct which could result in removal from the program or in a determination that the person has not successfully completed the program.

The mandatory conditions of every county impact incarceration sentence shall include that the person either while in the program or during the period of monitored release:

(1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction;

(2) report or appear in person before any such person or agency as directed by the court or the Sheriff;

(3) refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;

(4) not leave the State without the consent of the court or, in circumstances in which the reason for the absence is of such an emergency nature that prior consent by the court is not possible, without the prior notification and approval of the Sheriff; and

(5) permit representatives of the Sheriff to visit at the person's home or elsewhere to the extent necessary for the Sheriff to monitor compliance with the program. Persons shall have access to such rules, which shall provide that a person shall receive notice of any such violation.

(i) The Sheriff may terminate the county impact incarceration program at any time.

(j) The Sheriff shall report to the county board on or before September 30th of each year on the county impact incarceration program, including the composition of the program by the offenders, by county of commitment, sentence, age, offense, and race.

(Source: P.A. 89-587, eff. 7-31-96.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8-4)

Sec. 5-8-4. Concurrent and consecutive terms of imprisonment.

(a) Concurrent terms; multiple or additional sentences. When an Illinois court (i) imposes multiple sentences of imprisonment on a defendant at the same time or (ii) imposes a sentence of imprisonment on a defendant who is already subject to a sentence of imprisonment imposed by an Illinois court, a court of another state, or a federal court, then the sentences shall run concurrently unless otherwise determined by the Illinois court under this Section.

(b) Concurrent terms; misdemeanor and felony. A defendant serving a sentence for a misdemeanor who is convicted of a felony and sentenced to imprisonment shall be transferred to the Department of Corrections, and the misdemeanor sentence shall be merged in and run concurrently with the felony sentence.

(c) Consecutive terms; permissive. The court may impose consecutive sentences in any of the following circumstances:

(1) If, having regard to the nature and circumstances of the offense and the history and character of the defendant, it is the opinion of the court that consecutive sentences are required to protect the public from further criminal conduct by the defendant, the basis for which the court shall set forth in the record.

(2) If one of the offenses for which a defendant was convicted was a violation of Section 32-5.2 (aggravated false personation of a peace officer) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (720 ILCS 5/32-5.2) or a violation of subdivision (b)(5) or (b)(6) of Section 17-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 that Code (720 ILCS 5/17-2) and the offense was committed in attempting or committing a forcible felony.

(d) Consecutive terms; mandatory. The court shall impose consecutive sentences in each of the following circumstances:

(1) One of the offenses for which the defendant was convicted was first degree murder or a Class X or Class 1 felony and the defendant inflicted severe bodily injury.

(2) The defendant was convicted of a violation of Section 11-20.1 (child pornography), 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography), 11-1.20 or 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), 11-1.30 or 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), or 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-20.1, 5/11-20.1B, 5/11-20.3, 5/11-1.20, 5/12-13, 5/11-1.30, 5/12-14, 5/11-1.40, or 5/12-14.1).

(3) The defendant was convicted of armed violence based upon the predicate offense of any of the following: solicitation of murder, solicitation of murder for hire, heinous battery as described in Section 12-4.1 or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05, criminal sexual assault, a violation of subsection (g) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act (720 ILCS 550/5), cannabis trafficking, a violation of subsection (a) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), controlled substance trafficking involving a Class X felony amount of controlled substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/), calculated criminal drug conspiracy, or streetgang criminal drug conspiracy.

(4) The defendant was convicted of the offense of leaving the scene of a motor vehicle accident involving death or personal injuries under Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (625 ILCS 5/11-401) and either: (A) aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code (625 ILCS 5/11-501), (B) reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/9-3), or (C) both an offense described in item (A) and an offense described in item (B).

(5) The defendant was convicted of a violation of Section 9-3.1 or Section 9-3.4 (concealment of homicidal death) or Section 12-20.5 (dismembering a human body) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/9-3.1 or 5/12-20.5).

(5.5) The defendant was convicted of a violation of Section 24-3.7 (use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(6) If the defendant was in the custody of the Department of Corrections at the time of the commission of the offense, the sentence shall be served consecutive to the sentence under which the defendant is held by the Department of Corrections. If, however, the defendant is sentenced to punishment by death, the sentence shall be executed at such time as the court may fix without regard to the sentence under which the defendant may be held by the Department.

(7) A sentence under Section 3-6-4 (730 ILCS 5/3-6-4) for escape or attempted escape shall be served consecutive to the terms under which the offender is held by the Department of Corrections.

(8) If a person charged with a felony commits a separate felony while on pretrial release or in pretrial detention in a county jail facility or county detention facility, then the sentences imposed upon conviction of these felonies shall be served consecutively regardless of the order in which the judgments of conviction are entered.

(8.5) If a person commits a battery against a county correctional officer or sheriff's employee while serving a sentence or in pretrial detention in a county jail facility, then the sentence imposed upon conviction of the battery shall be served consecutively with the sentence imposed upon conviction of the earlier misdemeanor or felony, regardless of the order in which the judgments of conviction are entered.

(9) If a person admitted to bail following conviction of a felony commits a separate felony while free on bond or if a person detained in a county jail facility or county detention facility following conviction of a felony commits a separate felony while in detention, then any sentence following conviction of the separate felony shall be consecutive to that of the original sentence for which the defendant was on bond or detained.

(10) If a person is found to be in possession of an item of contraband, as defined in Section 31A-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, while serving a sentence in a county jail or while in pre-trial detention in a county jail, the sentence imposed upon conviction for the offense of possessing contraband in a penal institution shall be served consecutively to the sentence imposed for the offense in which the person is serving sentence in the county jail or serving pretrial detention, regardless of the order in which the judgments of conviction are entered.

(11) If a person is sentenced for a violation of bail bond under Section 32-10 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, any sentence imposed for that violation shall be served consecutive to the sentence imposed for the charge for which bail had been granted and with respect to which the defendant has been convicted.

(e) Consecutive terms; subsequent non-Illinois term. If an Illinois court has imposed a sentence of imprisonment on a defendant and the defendant is subsequently sentenced to a term of imprisonment by a court of another state or a federal court, then the Illinois sentence shall run consecutively to the sentence imposed by the court of the other state or the federal court. That same Illinois court, however, may order that the Illinois sentence run concurrently with the sentence imposed by the court of the other state or the federal court, but only if the defendant applies to that same Illinois court within 30 days after the sentence imposed by the court of the other state or the federal court is finalized.

(f) Consecutive terms; aggregate maximums and minimums. The aggregate maximum and aggregate minimum of consecutive sentences shall be determined as follows:

(1) For sentences imposed under law in effect prior to February 1, 1978, the aggregate maximum of consecutive sentences shall not exceed the maximum term authorized under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V for the 2 most serious felonies involved. The aggregate minimum period of consecutive sentences shall not exceed the highest minimum term authorized under Section 5-8-1 (730 ILCS 5/5-8-1) or Article 4.5 of Chapter V for the 2 most serious felonies involved. When sentenced only for misdemeanors, a defendant shall not be consecutively sentenced to more than the maximum for one Class A misdemeanor.

(2) For sentences imposed under the law in effect on or after February 1, 1978, the aggregate of consecutive sentences for offenses that were committed as part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective shall not exceed the sum of the maximum terms authorized under Article 4.5 of Chapter V for the 2 most serious felonies involved, but no such limitation shall apply for offenses that were not committed as part of a single course of conduct during which there was no substantial change in the nature of the criminal objective. When sentenced only for misdemeanors, a defendant shall not be consecutively sentenced to more than the maximum for one Class A misdemeanor.

(g) Consecutive terms; manner served. In determining the manner in which consecutive sentences of imprisonment, one or more of which is for a felony, will be served, the Department of Corrections shall treat the defendant as though he or she had been committed for a single term subject to each of the following:

(1) The maximum period of a term of imprisonment shall consist of the aggregate of the maximums of the imposed indeterminate terms, if any, plus the aggregate of the imposed determinate sentences for felonies, plus the aggregate of the imposed determinate sentences for misdemeanors, subject to subsection (f) of this Section.

(2) The parole or mandatory supervised release term shall be as provided in paragraph (e) of Section 5-4.5-50 (730 ILCS 5/5-4.5-50) for the most serious of the offenses involved.

(3) The minimum period of imprisonment shall be the aggregate of the minimum and determinate periods of imprisonment imposed by the court, subject to subsection (f) of this Section.

(4) The defendant shall be awarded credit against the aggregate maximum term and the aggregate minimum term of imprisonment for all time served in an institution since the commission of the offense or offenses and as a consequence thereof at the rate specified in Section 3-6-3 (730 ILCS 5/3-6-3).

(Source: P.A. 96-190, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11; 97-475, eff. 8-22-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-8A-6)

Sec. 5-8A-6. Electronic monitoring of certain sex offenders. For a sexual predator subject to electronic home monitoring under paragraph (7.7) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-7, the Department of Corrections must use a system that actively monitors and identifies the offender's current location and timely reports or records the offender's presence and that alerts the Department of the offender's presence within a prohibited area described in Section Sections 11-9.3 and 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, in a court order, or as a condition of the offender's parole, mandatory supervised release, or extended mandatory supervised release and the offender's departure from specified geographic limitations. To the extent that he or she is able to do so, which the Department of Corrections by rule shall determine, the offender must pay for the cost of the electronic home monitoring.

(Source: P.A. 94-988, eff. 1-1-07; 95-640, eff. 6-1-08.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-9-1.3)

Sec. 5-9-1.3. Fines for offenses involving theft, deceptive practices, and offenses against units of local government or school districts.

(a) When a person has been adjudged guilty of a felony under Section 16-1, 16D-3, 16D-4, 16D-5, 16D-5.5, or 17-1, 17-50, 17-51, 17-52, 17-52.5, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a fine may be levied by the court in an amount which is the greater of $25,000 or twice the value of the property which is the subject of the offense.

(b) When a person has been convicted of a felony under Section 16-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and the theft was committed upon any unit of local government or school district, or the person has been convicted of any violation of Sections 33C-1 through 33C-4 or Sections 33E-3 through 33E-18, or subsection (a), (b), (c), or (d) of Section 17-10.3, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a fine may be levied by the court in an amount that is the greater of $25,000 or treble the value of the property which is the subject of the offense or loss to the unit of local government or school district.

(c) All fines imposed under subsection (b) of this Section shall be distributed as follows:

(1) An amount equal to 30% shall be distributed to the unit of local government or school district that was the victim of the offense;

(2) An amount equal to 30% shall be distributed to the unit of local government whose officers or employees conducted the investigation into the crimes against the unit of local government or school district. Amounts distributed to units of local government shall be used solely for the enforcement of criminal laws protecting units of local government or school districts;

(3) An amount equal to 30% shall be distributed to the State's Attorney of the county in which the prosecution resulting in the conviction was instituted. The funds shall be used solely for the enforcement of criminal laws protecting units of local government or school districts; and

(4) An amount equal to 10% shall be distributed to the circuit court clerk of the county where the prosecution resulting in the conviction was instituted.

(d) A fine order under subsection (b) of this Section is a judgment lien in favor of the victim unit of local government or school district, the State's Attorney of the county where the violation occurred, the law enforcement agency that investigated the violation, and the circuit court clerk.

(Source: P.A. 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.7) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-9-1.7)

Sec. 5-9-1.7. Sexual assault fines.

(a) Definitions. The terms used in this Section shall have the following meanings ascribed to them:

(1) "Sexual assault" means the commission or attempted commission of the following: sexual exploitation of a child, criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, indecent solicitation of a child, public indecency, sexual relations within families, promoting juvenile prostitution, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, patronizing a juvenile prostitute, juvenile pimping, exploitation of a child, obscenity, child pornography, aggravated child pornography, harmful material, or ritualized abuse of a child, as those offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(2) "Family member" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(3) "Sexual assault organization" means any not-for-profit organization providing comprehensive, community-based services to victims of sexual assault. "Community-based services" include, but are not limited to, direct crisis intervention through a 24-hour response, medical and legal advocacy, counseling, information and referral services, training, and community education.

(b) Sexual assault fine; collection by clerk.

(1) In addition to any other penalty imposed, a fine of $200 shall be imposed upon any person who pleads guilty or who is convicted of, or who receives a disposition of court supervision for, a sexual assault or attempt of a sexual assault. Upon request of the victim or the victim's representative, the court shall determine whether the fine will impose an undue burden on the victim of the offense. For purposes of this paragraph, the defendant may not be considered the victim's representative. If the court finds that the fine would impose an undue burden on the victim, the court may reduce or waive the fine. The court shall order that the defendant may not use funds belonging solely to the victim of the offense for payment of the fine.

(2) Sexual assault fines shall be assessed by the court imposing the sentence and shall be collected by the circuit clerk. The circuit clerk shall retain 10% of the penalty to cover the costs involved in administering and enforcing this Section. The circuit clerk shall remit the remainder of each fine within one month of its receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit as follows:

(i) for family member offenders, one-half to the Sexual Assault Services Fund, and one-half to the Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Fund; and

(ii) for other than family member offenders, the full amount to the Sexual Assault Services Fund.

(c) Sexual Assault Services Fund; administration. There is created a Sexual Assault Services Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund under this Section shall be appropriated to the Department of Public Health. Upon appropriation of moneys from the Sexual Assault Services Fund, the Department of Public Health shall make grants of these moneys from the Fund to sexual assault organizations with whom the Department has contracts for the purpose of providing community-based services to victims of sexual assault. Grants made under this Section are in addition to, and are not substitutes for, other grants authorized and made by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.8)

Sec. 5-9-1.8. Child pornography fines. Beginning July 1, 2006, 100% of the fines in excess of $10,000 collected for violations of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be deposited into the Child Abuse Prevention Fund that is created in the State Treasury. Moneys in the Fund resulting from the fines shall be for the use of the Department of Children and Family Services for grants to private entities giving treatment and counseling to victims of child sexual abuse.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the Child Sexual Abuse Fund into the Child Abuse Prevention Fund. Upon completion of the transfer, the Child Sexual Abuse Fund is dissolved, and any future deposits due to that Fund and any outstanding obligations or liabilities of the Fund pass to the Child Abuse Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 94-839, eff. 6-6-06.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.10)

Sec. 5-9-1.10. Additional fines. There shall be added to every penalty imposed in sentencing for a violation of Sections 24-1.1, 24-1.2, or 24-1.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 an additional fine of $100 payable to the clerk, which shall be imposed upon the entry of a judgment of conviction. This additional fee, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the circuit clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this Section during the preceding calendar year. All moneys collected by the circuit clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer under Section 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund for distribution as provided under Section 3.225 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(Source: P.A. 89-516, eff. 7-18-96; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.14)

Sec. 5-9-1.14. Additional child pornography fines. In addition to any other penalty imposed, a fine of $500 shall be imposed upon a person convicted of child pornography under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. Such additional fine shall be assessed by the court imposing sentence and shall be collected by the circuit clerk. Of this fee, $5 shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as provided by law. Each such additional fine shall be remitted by the Circuit Court Clerk within one month after receipt to the unit of local government whose law enforcement officers investigated the case that gave rise to the conviction of the defendant for child pornography.

(Source: P.A. 95-191, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.16)

Sec. 5-9-1.16. Protective order violation fees.

(a) There shall be added to every penalty imposed in sentencing for a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 an additional fee to be set in an amount not less than $200 to be imposed upon a plea of guilty or finding of guilty resulting in a judgment of conviction.

(b) Such additional amount shall be assessed by the court imposing sentence and shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk in addition to the fine, if any, and costs in the case to be used by the supervising authority in implementing the domestic violence surveillance program. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probations Officers Act.

(c) The supervising authority of a domestic violence surveillance program under Section 5-8A-7 of this Act shall assess a person either convicted of, or charged with, the violation of an order of protection an additional fee to cover the costs of providing the equipment used and the additional supervision needed for such domestic violence surveillance program. If the court finds that the fee would impose an undue burden on the victim, the court may reduce or waive the fee. The court shall order that the defendant may not use funds belonging solely to the victim of the offense for payment of the fee.

When the supervising authority is the court or the probation and court services department, the fee shall be collected by the circuit court clerk. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from this fee and all other required probation fees that are assessed to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probations Officers Act. In counties with a population of 2 million or more, when the supervising authority is the court or the probation and court services department, the fee shall be collected by the supervising authority. In these counties, the supervising authority shall pay all monies collected from this fee and all other required probation fees that are assessed, to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation and court services fund under Section 15.1 of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

When the supervising authority is the Department of Corrections, the Department shall collect the fee for deposit into the Illinois Department of Corrections "fund". The Circuit Clerk shall retain 10% of such penalty and deposit that percentage into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to cover the costs incurred in administering and enforcing this Section.

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 95-773, eff. 1-1-09; 96-688, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.19)

Sec. 5-9-1.19. Additional streetgang fine. In addition to any other penalty imposed, a fine of $100 shall be imposed upon a person convicted of any violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 who was, at the time of the commission of the violation a streetgang member, as defined in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act. Such additional fine shall be assessed by the court imposing sentence and shall be collected by the circuit clerk. Of this fee, $5 shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds as provided by law. Each such additional fine shall be remitted by the Circuit Court Clerk within one month after receipt to the State Police Streetgang-Related Crime Fund in the State treasury.

(Source: P.A. 96-1029, eff. 7-13-10.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.20)

Sec. 5-9-1.20. Additional violation of parole fines. In addition to any other penalty imposed, a fine of $25 shall be imposed upon a person convicted of any violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 who was, at the time of the commission of the offense on parole or mandatory supervised release. Such additional fine shall be assessed by the court imposing sentence and shall be collected by the circuit clerk. Of this fine, $5 shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect and disburse funds as provided by law. The remainder of each such additional fine shall be remitted by the Circuit Court Clerk within one month after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Illinois Department of Corrections Parole Division Offender Supervision Fund in the State treasury.

(Source: P.A. 97-262, eff. 8-5-11.)

Section 675. The Probation and Probation Officers Act is amended by changing Section 16.1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 110/16.1)

Sec. 16.1. Redeploy Illinois Program.

(a) The purpose of this Section is to encourage the deinstitutionalization of juvenile offenders by establishing projects in counties or groups of counties that reallocate State funds from juvenile correctional confinement to local jurisdictions, which will establish a continuum of local, community-based sanctions and treatment alternatives for juvenile offenders who would be incarcerated if those local services and sanctions did not exist. It is also intended to offer alternatives, when appropriate, to avoid commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice, to direct child welfare services for minors charged with a criminal offense or adjudicated delinquent under Section 5 of the Children and Family Services Act. The allotment of funds will be based on a formula that rewards local jurisdictions for the establishment or expansion of local alternatives to incarceration, and requires them to pay for utilization of incarceration as a sanction. In addition, there shall be an allocation of resources (amount to be determined annually by the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board) set aside at the beginning of each fiscal year to be made available for any county or groups of counties which need resources only occasionally for services to avoid commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice for a limited number of youth. This redeployment of funds shall be made in a manner consistent with the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the following purposes and policies:

(1) The juvenile justice system should protect the community, impose accountability to victims and communities for violations of law, and equip juvenile offenders with competencies to live responsibly and productively.

(2) Juveniles should be treated in the least restrictive manner possible while maintaining the safety of the community.

(3) A continuum of services and sanctions from least restrictive to most restrictive should be available in every community.

(4) There should be local responsibility and authority for planning, organizing, and coordinating service resources in the community. People in the community can best choose a range of services which reflect community values and meet the needs of their own youth.

(5) Juveniles who pose a threat to the community or themselves need special care, including secure settings. Such services as detention, long-term incarceration, or residential treatment are too costly to provide in each community and should be coordinated and provided on a regional or Statewide basis.

(6) The roles of State and local government in creating and maintaining services to youth in the juvenile justice system should be clearly defined. The role of the State is to fund services, set standards of care, train service providers, and monitor the integration and coordination of services. The role of local government should be to oversee the provision of services.

(b) Each county or circuit participating in the Redeploy Illinois program must create a local plan demonstrating how it will reduce the county or circuit's utilization of secure confinement of juvenile offenders in the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or county detention centers by the creation or expansion of individualized services or programs that may include but are not limited to the following:

(1) Assessment and evaluation services to provide the juvenile justice system with accurate individualized case information on each juvenile offender including mental health, substance abuse, educational, and family information;

(2) Direct services to individual juvenile offenders including educational, vocational, mental health, substance abuse, supervision, and service coordination; and

(3) Programs that seek to restore the offender to the community, such as victim offender panels, teen courts, competency building, enhanced accountability measures, restitution, and community service. The local plan must be directed in such a manner as to emphasize an individualized approach to providing services to juvenile offenders in an integrated community based system including probation as the broker of services. The plan must also detail the reduction in utilization of secure confinement. The local plan shall be limited to services and shall not include costs for:

(i) capital expenditures;

(ii) renovations or remodeling;

(iii) personnel costs for probation.

The local plan shall be submitted to the Department of Human Services.

(c) A county or group of counties may develop an agreement with the Department of Human Services to reduce their number of commitments of juvenile offenders, excluding minors sentenced based upon a finding of guilt of first degree murder or an offense which is a Class X forcible felony as defined in the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, to the Department of Juvenile Justice, and then use the savings to develop local programming for youth who would otherwise have been committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice. A county or group of counties shall agree to limit their commitments to 75% of the level of commitments from the average number of juvenile commitments for the past 3 years, and will receive the savings to redeploy for local programming for juveniles who would otherwise be held in confinement. For any county or group of counties with a decrease of juvenile commitments of at least 25%, based on the average reductions of the prior 3 years, which are chosen to participate or continue as sites, the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board has the authority to reduce the required percentage of future commitments to achieve the purpose of this Section. The agreement shall set forth the following:

(1) a Statement of the number and type of juvenile offenders from the county who were held in secure confinement by the Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or in county detention the previous year, and an explanation of which, and how many, of these offenders might be served through the proposed Redeploy Illinois Program for which the funds shall be used;

(2) a Statement of the service needs of currently confined juveniles;

(3) a Statement of the type of services and programs to provide for the individual needs of the juvenile offenders, and the research or evidence base that qualifies those services and programs as proven or promising practices;

(4) a budget indicating the costs of each service or program to be funded under the plan;

(5) a summary of contracts and service agreements indicating the treatment goals and number of juvenile offenders to be served by each service provider; and

(6) a Statement indicating that the Redeploy Illinois Program will not duplicate existing services and programs. Funds for this plan shall not supplant existing county funded programs.

(d) (Blank).

(d-5) A county or group of counties that does not have an approved Redeploy Illinois program, as described in subsection (b), and that has committed fewer than 10 Redeploy eligible youth to the Department of Juvenile Justice on average over the previous 3 years, may develop an individualized agreement with the Department of Human Services through the Redeploy Illinois program to provide services to youth to avoid commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice. The agreement shall set forth the following:

(1) a statement of the number and type of juvenile offenders from the county who were at risk under any of the categories listed above during the 3 previous years, and an explanation of which of these offenders would be served through the proposed Redeploy Illinois program for which the funds shall be used, or through individualized contracts with existing Redeploy programs in neighboring counties;

(2) a statement of the service needs;

(3) a statement of the type of services and programs to provide for the individual needs of the juvenile offenders, and the research or evidence that qualifies those services and programs as proven or promising practices;

(4) a budget indicating the costs of each service or program to be funded under the plan;

(5) a summary of contracts and service agreements indicating the treatment goals and number of juvenile offenders to be served by each service provider; and

(6) a statement indicating that the Redeploy Illinois program will not duplicate existing services and programs. Funds for this plan shall not supplant existing county funded programs.

(e) The Department of Human Services shall be responsible for the following:

(1) Reviewing each Redeploy Illinois Program plan for compliance with standards established for such plans. A plan may be approved as submitted, approved with modifications, or rejected. No plan shall be considered for approval if the circuit or county is not in full compliance with all regulations, standards and guidelines pertaining to the delivery of basic probation services as established by the Supreme Court.

(2) Monitoring on a continual basis and evaluating annually both the program and its fiscal activities in all counties receiving an allocation under the Redeploy Illinois Program. Any program or service that has not met the goals and objectives of its contract or service agreement shall be subject to denial for funding in subsequent years. The Department of Human Services shall evaluate the effectiveness of the Redeploy Illinois Program in each circuit or county. In determining the future funding for the Redeploy Illinois Program under this Act, the evaluation shall include, as a primary indicator of success, a decreased number of confinement days for the county's juvenile offenders.

(f) Any Redeploy Illinois Program allocations not applied for and approved by the Department of Human Services shall be available for redistribution to approved plans for the remainder of that fiscal year. Any county that invests local moneys in the Redeploy Illinois Program shall be given first consideration for any redistribution of allocations. Jurisdictions participating in Redeploy Illinois that exceed their agreed upon level of commitments to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall reimburse the Department of Corrections for each commitment above the agreed upon level.

(g) Implementation of Redeploy Illinois.

(1) Oversight of Redeploy Illinois.

(i) Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board. The Department of Human Services shall convene an oversight board to oversee the Redeploy Illinois Program. The Board shall include, but not be limited to, designees from the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Administrative Office of Illinois Courts, the Illinois Juvenile Justice Commission, the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, the Department of Children and Family Services, the State Board of Education, the Cook County State's Attorney, and a State's Attorney selected by the President of the Illinois State's Attorney's Association, the Cook County Public Defender, a representative of the defense bar appointed by the Chief Justice of the Illinois Supreme Court, a representative of probation appointed by the Chief Justice of the Illinois Supreme Court, and judicial representation appointed by the Chief Justice of the Illinois Supreme Court. Up to an additional 9 members may be appointed by the Secretary of Human Services from recommendations by the Oversight Board; these appointees shall possess a knowledge of juvenile justice issues and reflect the collaborative public/private relationship of Redeploy programs.

(ii) Responsibilities of the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board. The Oversight Board shall:

(A) Identify jurisdictions to be included in the program of Redeploy Illinois.

(B) Develop a formula for reimbursement of local jurisdictions for local and community-based services utilized in lieu of commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice, as well as for any charges for local jurisdictions for commitments above the agreed upon limit in the approved plan.

(C) Identify resources sufficient to support the administration and evaluation of Redeploy Illinois.

(D) Develop a process and identify resources to support on-going monitoring and evaluation of Redeploy Illinois.

(E) Develop a process and identify resources to support training on Redeploy Illinois.

(E-5) Review proposed individualized agreements and approve where appropriate the distribution of resources.

(F) Report to the Governor and the General Assembly on an annual basis on the progress of Redeploy Illinois.

(iii) Length of Planning Phase. The planning phase may last up to, but may in no event last longer than, July 1, 2004.

(2) (Blank).

(3) There shall be created the Redeploy County Review Committee composed of the designees of the Secretary of Human Services and the Directors of Juvenile Justice, of Children and Family Services, and of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget who shall constitute a subcommittee of the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board.

(h) Responsibilities of the County Review Committee. The County Review Committee shall:

(1) Review individualized agreements from counties requesting resources on an occasional basis for services for youth described in subsection (d-5).

(2) Report its decisions to the Redeploy Illinois Oversight Board at regularly scheduled meetings.

(3) Monitor the effectiveness of the resources in meeting the mandates of the Redeploy Illinois program set forth in this Section so these results might be included in the Report described in clause (g)(1)(ii)(F).

(4) During the third quarter, assess the amount of remaining funds available and necessary to complete the fiscal year so that any unused funds may be distributed as defined in subsection (f).

(5) Ensure that the number of youth from any applicant county receiving individualized resources will not exceed the previous three-year average of Redeploy eligible recipients and that counties are in conformity with all other elements of this law.

(i) Implementation of this Section is subject to appropriation.

(j) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of and procedures and rules implementing the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 94-696, eff. 6-1-06; 94-1032, eff. 1-1-07; 95-1050, eff. 1-1-10.)

Section 680. The County Jail Good Behavior Allowance Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 3.1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 130/3) (from Ch. 75, par. 32)

Sec. 3. The good behavior of any person who commences a sentence of confinement in a county jail for a fixed term of imprisonment after January 1, 1987 shall entitle such person to a good behavior allowance, except that: (1) a person who inflicted physical harm upon another person in committing the offense for which he is confined shall receive no good behavior allowance; and (2) a person sentenced for an offense for which the law provides a mandatory minimum sentence shall not receive any portion of a good behavior allowance that would reduce the sentence below the mandatory minimum; and (3) a person sentenced to a county impact incarceration program; and (4) a person who is convicted of criminal sexual assault under subdivision (a)(3) of Section 11-1.20 or paragraph (a)(3) of Section 12-13 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse shall receive no good behavior allowance. The good behavior allowance provided for in this Section shall not apply to individuals sentenced for a felony to probation or conditional discharge where a condition of such probation or conditional discharge is that the individual serve a sentence of periodic imprisonment or to individuals sentenced under an order of court for civil contempt.

Such good behavior allowance shall be cumulative and awarded as provided in this Section.

The good behavior allowance rate shall be cumulative and awarded on the following basis:

The prisoner shall receive one day of good behavior allowance for each day of service of sentence in the county jail, and one day of good behavior allowance for each day of incarceration in the county jail before sentencing for the offense that he or she is currently serving sentence but was unable to post bail before sentencing, except that a prisoner serving a sentence of periodic imprisonment under Section 5-7-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections shall only be eligible to receive good behavior allowance if authorized by the sentencing judge. Each day of good behavior allowance shall reduce by one day the prisoner's period of incarceration set by the court. For the purpose of calculating a prisoner's good behavior allowance, a fractional part of a day shall not be calculated as a day of service of sentence in the county jail unless the fractional part of the day is over 12 hours in which case a whole day shall be credited on the good behavior allowance.

If consecutive sentences are served and the time served amounts to a total of one year or more, the good behavior allowance shall be calculated on a continuous basis throughout the entire time served beginning on the first date of sentence or incarceration, as the case may be.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(730 ILCS 130/3.1) (from Ch. 75, par. 32.1)

Sec. 3.1. (a) Within 3 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1986, the wardens who supervise institutions under this Act shall meet and agree upon uniform rules and regulations for behavior and conduct, penalties, and the awarding, denying and revocation of good behavior allowance, in such institutions; and such rules and regulations shall be immediately promulgated and consistent with the provisions of this Act. Interim rules shall be provided by each warden consistent with the provision of this Act and shall be effective until the promulgation of uniform rules. All disciplinary action shall be consistent with the provisions of this Act. Committed persons shall be informed of rules of behavior and conduct, the penalties for violation thereof, and the disciplinary procedure by which such penalties may be imposed. Any rules, penalties and procedures shall be posted and made available to the committed persons.

(b) Whenever a person is alleged to have violated a rule of behavior, a written report of the infraction shall be filed with the warden within 72 hours of the occurrence of the infraction or the discovery of it, and such report shall be placed in the file of the institution or facility. No disciplinary proceeding shall be commenced more than 8 days after the infraction or the discovery of it, unless the committed person is unable or unavailable for any reason to participate in the disciplinary proceeding.

(c) All or any of the good behavior allowance earned may be revoked by the warden, unless he initiates the charge, and in that case by the disciplinary board, for violations of rules of behavior at any time prior to discharge from the institution, consistent with the provisions of this Act.

(d) In disciplinary cases that may involve the loss of good behavior allowance or eligibility to earn good behavior allowance, the warden shall establish disciplinary procedures consistent with the following principles:

(1) The warden may establish one or more disciplinary boards, made up of one or more persons, to hear and determine charges. Any person who initiates a disciplinary charge against a committed person shall not serve on the disciplinary board that will determine the disposition of the charge. In those cases in which the charge was initiated by the warden, he shall establish a disciplinary board which will have the authority to impose any appropriate discipline.

(2) Any committed person charged with a violation of rules of behavior shall be given notice of the charge, including a statement of the misconduct alleged and of the rules this conduct is alleged to violate, no less than 24 hours before the disciplinary hearing.

(3) Any committed person charged with a violation of rules is entitled to a hearing on that charge, at which time he shall have an opportunity to appear before and address the warden or disciplinary board deciding the charge.

(4) The person or persons determining the disposition of the charge may also summon to testify any witnesses or other persons with relevant knowledge of the incident. The person charged may be permitted to question any person so summoned.

(5) If the charge is sustained, the person charged is entitled to a written statement, within 14 days after the hearing, of the decision by the warden or the disciplinary board which determined the disposition of the charge, and the statement shall include the basis for the decision and the disciplinary action, if any, to be imposed.

(6) The warden may impose the discipline recommended by the disciplinary board, or may reduce the discipline recommended; however, no committed person may be penalized more than 30 days of good behavior allowance for any one infraction.

(7) The warden, in appropriate cases, may restore good behavior allowance that has been revoked, suspended or reduced.

(e) The warden, or his or her designee, may revoke the good behavior allowance specified in Section 3 of this Act of an inmate who is sentenced to the Illinois Department of Corrections for misconduct committed by the inmate while in custody of the warden. If an inmate while in custody of the warden is convicted of assault or battery on a peace officer, correctional employee, or another inmate, or for criminal damage to property or for bringing into or possessing contraband in the penal institution in violation of Section 31A-1.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, his or her day for day good behavior allowance shall be revoked for each day such allowance was earned while the inmate was in custody of the warden.

(Source: P.A. 96-495, eff. 1-1-10.)

Section 685. The Arsonist Registration Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(730 ILCS 148/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

(a) "Arsonist" means any person who is:

(1) charged under Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, with an arson offense, set forth in subsection (b) of this Section or the attempt to commit an included arson offense, and:

(i) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(ii) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(iii) is found not guilty by reason of insanity under subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(iv) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted under subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(v) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted under a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(vi) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted under a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense;

(2) is a minor who has been tried and convicted in an adult criminal prosecution as the result of committing or attempting to commit an offense specified in subsection (b) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law. Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Act as one conviction. Any conviction set aside under law is not a conviction for purposes of this Act.

(b) "Arson offense" means:

(1) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(i) 20-1 (arson; residential arson; place of worship arson),

(ii) 20-1.1 (aggravated arson),

(iii) 20-1(b) or 20-1.2 (residential arson),

(iv) 20-1(b-5) or 20-1.3 (place of worship arson),

(v) 20-2 (possession of explosives or explosive or incendiary devices), or

(vi) An attempt to commit any of the offenses listed in clauses (i) through (v).

(2) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (b) of this Section.

(c) A conviction for an offense of federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or a foreign country that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (b) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Act.

(d) "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the Chief of Police in each of the municipalities in which the arsonist expects to reside, work, or attend school (1) upon his or her discharge, parole or release or (2) during the service of his or her sentence of probation or conditional discharge, or the Sheriff of the county, in the event no Police Chief exists or if the offender intends to reside, work, or attend school in an unincorporated area. "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" includes the location where out-of-state students attend school and where out-of-state employees are employed or are otherwise required to register.

(e) "Out-of-state student" means any arsonist, as defined in this Section, who is enrolled in Illinois, on a full-time or part-time basis, in any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher learning.

(f) "Out-of-state employee" means any arsonist, as defined in this Section, who works in Illinois, regardless of whether the individual receives payment for services performed, for a period of time of 10 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of 30 or more days during any calendar year. Persons who operate motor vehicles in the State accrue one day of employment time for any portion of a day spent in Illinois.

(g) "I-CLEAR" means the Illinois Citizens and Law Enforcement Analysis and Reporting System.

(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 690. The Sex Offender Registration Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, 6, and 8 as follows:

(730 ILCS 150/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 222)

Sec. 2. Definitions.

(A) As used in this Article, "sex offender" means any person who is:

(1) charged pursuant to Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, with a sex offense set forth in subsection (B) of this Section or the attempt to commit an included sex offense, and:

(a) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(b) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(c) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to Section 104-25(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(d) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to Section 104-25(a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(e) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to Section 104-25(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(f) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to Section 104-25(a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(2) declared as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Illinois Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law; or

(3) subject to the provisions of Section 2 of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act; or

(4) found to be a sexually violent person pursuant to the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law; or

(5) adjudicated a juvenile delinquent as the result of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in item (B), (C), or (C-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, or found guilty under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in item (B), (C), or (C-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Article as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Article.

For purposes of this Section, "convicted" shall have the same meaning as "adjudicated".

(B) As used in this Article, "sex offense" means:

(1) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

11-20.1 (child pornography),

11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography),

11-6 (indecent solicitation of a child),

11-9.1 (sexual exploitation of a child),

11-9.2 (custodial sexual misconduct),

11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability),

11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution),

11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute),

11-18.1 (patronizing a juvenile prostitute),

11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution),

11-19.1 (juvenile pimping),

11-19.2 (exploitation of a child),

11-25 (grooming),

11-26 (traveling to meet a minor),

11-1.20 or 12-13 (criminal sexual assault),

11-1.30 or 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault),

11-1.40 or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child),

11-1.50 or 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse),

11-1.60 or 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse),

12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(1.5) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age, the defendant is not a parent of the victim, the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Act, and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1996:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

If the offense was committed before January 1, 1996, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.6) First degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(1.7) (Blank).

(1.8) A violation or attempted violation of Section 11-11 (sexual relations within families) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the offense was committed on or after June 1, 1997. If the offense was committed before June 1, 1997, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.9) Child abduction under paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 committed by luring or attempting to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, house trailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the parent or lawful custodian of the child for other than a lawful purpose and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1998, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act. If the offense was committed before January 1, 1998, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.10) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the offense was committed on or after July 1, 1999:

10-4 (forcible detention, if the victim is under 18 years of age), provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act,

11-6.5 (indecent solicitation of an adult),

11-14.3 that involves soliciting for a prostitute, or 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute, if the victim is under 18 years of age),

subdivision (a)(2)(A) or (a)(2)(B) of Section 11-14.3, or Section 11-16 (pandering, if the victim is under 18 years of age),

11-18 (patronizing a prostitute, if the victim is under 18 years of age),

subdivision (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, or Section 11-19 (pimping, if the victim is under 18 years of age).

If the offense was committed before July 1, 1999, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.11) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the offense was committed on or after August 22, 2002:

11-9 or 11-30 (public indecency for a third or subsequent conviction).

If the third or subsequent conviction was imposed before August 22, 2002, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(1.12) A violation or attempted violation of Section 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (permitting sexual abuse) when the offense was committed on or after August 22, 2002. If the offense was committed before August 22, 2002, it is a sex offense requiring registration only when the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(2) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (B) of this Section.

(C) A conviction for an offense of federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or a foreign country that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsections (B), (C), (E), and (E-5) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. A finding or adjudication as a sexually dangerous person or a sexually violent person under any federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or foreign country that is substantially equivalent to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act or the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall constitute an adjudication for the purposes of this Article.

(C-5) A person at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense who is convicted of first degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, against a person under 18 years of age, shall be required to register for natural life. A conviction for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (C-5) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. This subsection (C-5) applies to a person who committed the offense before June 1, 1996 if: (i) the person is incarcerated in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility on August 20, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-977), or (ii) subparagraph (i) does not apply and the person is convicted of any felony after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(C-6) A person who is convicted or adjudicated delinquent of first degree murder as defined in Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, against a person 18 years of age or over, shall be required to register for his or her natural life. A conviction for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (C-6) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. This subsection (C-6) does not apply to those individuals released from incarceration more than 10 years prior to January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-154).

(D) As used in this Article, "law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the Chief of Police in each of the municipalities in which the sex offender expects to reside, work, or attend school (1) upon his or her discharge, parole or release or (2) during the service of his or her sentence of probation or conditional discharge, or the Sheriff of the county, in the event no Police Chief exists or if the offender intends to reside, work, or attend school in an unincorporated area. "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" includes the location where out-of-state students attend school and where out-of-state employees are employed or are otherwise required to register.

(D-1) As used in this Article, "supervising officer" means the assigned Illinois Department of Corrections parole agent or county probation officer.

(E) As used in this Article, "sexual predator" means any person who, after July 1, 1999, is:

(1) Convicted for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (E) or (E-5) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Article. Convicted of a violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

10-5.1 (luring of a minor),

11-14.4 that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, or 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution),

subdivision (a)(2) or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping),

subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or Section 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child),

11-20.1 (child pornography),

11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography),

11-1.20 or 12-13 (criminal sexual assault),

11-1.30 or 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault),

11-1.40 or 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child),

11-1.60 or 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse),

12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child);

(2) (blank);

(3) declared as a sexually dangerous person pursuant to the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law;

(4) found to be a sexually violent person pursuant to the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law;

(5) convicted of a second or subsequent offense which requires registration pursuant to this Act. For purposes of this paragraph (5), "convicted" shall include a conviction under any substantially similar Illinois, federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law;

(6) (blank); or

(7) if the person was convicted of an offense set forth in this subsection (E) on or before July 1, 1999, the person is a sexual predator for whom registration is required only when the person is convicted of a felony offense after July 1, 2011, and paragraph (2.1) of subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act applies.

(E-5) As used in this Article, "sexual predator" also means a person convicted of a violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) Section 9-1 (first degree murder, when the victim was a person under 18 years of age and the defendant was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act);

(2) Section 11-9.5 (sexual misconduct with a person with a disability);

(3) when the victim is a person under 18 years of age, the defendant is not a parent of the victim, the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act, and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1996: (A) Section 10-1 (kidnapping), (B) Section 10-2 (aggravated kidnapping), (C) Section 10-3 (unlawful restraint), and (D) Section 10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint); and

(4) Section 10-5(b)(10) (child abduction committed by luring or attempting to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, house trailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the parent or lawful custodian of the child for other than a lawful purpose and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1998, provided the offense was sexually motivated as defined in Section 10 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act).

(E-10) As used in this Article, "sexual predator" also means a person required to register in another State due to a conviction, adjudication or other action of any court triggering an obligation to register as a sex offender, sexual predator, or substantially similar status under the laws of that State.

(F) As used in this Article, "out-of-state student" means any sex offender, as defined in this Section, or sexual predator who is enrolled in Illinois, on a full-time or part-time basis, in any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher learning.

(G) As used in this Article, "out-of-state employee" means any sex offender, as defined in this Section, or sexual predator who works in Illinois, regardless of whether the individual receives payment for services performed, for a period of time of 10 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of 30 or more days during any calendar year. Persons who operate motor vehicles in the State accrue one day of employment time for any portion of a day spent in Illinois.

(H) As used in this Article, "school" means any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any elementary or secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher education.

(I) As used in this Article, "fixed residence" means any and all places that a sex offender resides for an aggregate period of time of 5 or more days in a calendar year.

(J) As used in this Article, "Internet protocol address" means the string of numbers by which a location on the Internet is identified by routers or other computers connected to the Internet.

(Source: P.A. 96-301, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1089, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; 97-578, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1073, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1098, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

(730 ILCS 150/3)

Sec. 3. Duty to register.

(a) A sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator shall, within the time period prescribed in subsections (b) and (c), register in person and provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. Such information shall include a current photograph, current address, current place of employment, the sex offender's or sexual predator's telephone number, including cellular telephone number, the employer's telephone number, school attended, all e-mail addresses, instant messaging identities, chat room identities, and other Internet communications identities that the sex offender uses or plans to use, all Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) registered or used by the sex offender, all blogs and other Internet sites maintained by the sex offender or to which the sex offender has uploaded any content or posted any messages or information, extensions of the time period for registering as provided in this Article and, if an extension was granted, the reason why the extension was granted and the date the sex offender was notified of the extension. The information shall also include a copy of the terms and conditions of parole or release signed by the sex offender and given to the sex offender by his or her supervising officer, the county of conviction, license plate numbers for every vehicle registered in the name of the sex offender, the age of the sex offender at the time of the commission of the offense, the age of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, and any distinguishing marks located on the body of the sex offender. A sex offender convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall provide all Internet protocol (IP) addresses in his or her residence, registered in his or her name, accessible at his or her place of employment, or otherwise under his or her control or custody. If the sex offender is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sex offender shall report to the registering agency whether he or she is living in a household with a child under 18 years of age who is not his or her own child, provided that his or her own child is not the victim of the sex offense. The sex offender or sexual predator shall register:

(1) with the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she resides or is temporarily domiciled for a period of time of 3 or more days, unless the municipality is the City of Chicago, in which case he or she shall register at the Chicago Police Department Headquarters; or

(2) with the sheriff in the county in which he or she resides or is temporarily domiciled for a period of time of 3 or more days in an unincorporated area or, if incorporated, no police chief exists.

If the sex offender or sexual predator is employed at or attends an institution of higher education, he or she shall also register:

(i) with:

(A) the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she is employed at or attends an institution of higher education, unless the municipality is the City of Chicago, in which case he or she shall register at the Chicago Police Department Headquarters; or

(B) the sheriff in the county in which he or she is employed or attends an institution of higher education located in an unincorporated area, or if incorporated, no police chief exists; and

(ii) with the public safety or security director of the institution of higher education which he or she is employed at or attends.

The registration fees shall only apply to the municipality or county of primary registration, and not to campus registration.

For purposes of this Article, the place of residence or temporary domicile is defined as any and all places where the sex offender resides for an aggregate period of time of 3 or more days during any calendar year. Any person required to register under this Article who lacks a fixed address or temporary domicile must notify, in person, the agency of jurisdiction of his or her last known address within 3 days after ceasing to have a fixed residence.

A sex offender or sexual predator who is temporarily absent from his or her current address of registration for 3 or more days shall notify the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of his or her current registration, including the itinerary for travel, in the manner provided in Section 6 of this Act for notification to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of change of address.

Any person who lacks a fixed residence must report weekly, in person, with the sheriff's office of the county in which he or she is located in an unincorporated area, or with the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she is located. The agency of jurisdiction will document each weekly registration to include all the locations where the person has stayed during the past 7 days.

The sex offender or sexual predator shall provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. That information shall include the sex offender's or sexual predator's current place of employment.

(a-5) An out-of-state student or out-of-state employee shall, within 3 days after beginning school or employment in this State, register in person and provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. Such information will include current place of employment, school attended, and address in state of residence. A sex offender convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall provide all Internet protocol (IP) addresses in his or her residence, registered in his or her name, accessible at his or her place of employment, or otherwise under his or her control or custody. The out-of-state student or out-of-state employee shall register:

(1) with:

(A) the chief of police in the municipality in which he or she attends school or is employed for a period of time of 5 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of more than 30 days during any calendar year, unless the municipality is the City of Chicago, in which case he or she shall register at the Chicago Police Department Headquarters; or

(B) the sheriff in the county in which he or she attends school or is employed for a period of time of 5 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of more than 30 days during any calendar year in an unincorporated area or, if incorporated, no police chief exists; and

(2) with the public safety or security director of the institution of higher education he or she is employed at or attends for a period of time of 5 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of more than 30 days during a calendar year.

The registration fees shall only apply to the municipality or county of primary registration, and not to campus registration.

The out-of-state student or out-of-state employee shall provide accurate information as required by the Department of State Police. That information shall include the out-of-state student's current place of school attendance or the out-of-state employee's current place of employment.

(a-10) Any law enforcement agency registering sex offenders or sexual predators in accordance with subsections (a) or (a-5) of this Section shall forward to the Attorney General a copy of sex offender registration forms from persons convicted under Section 11-6, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or 11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, including periodic and annual registrations under Section 6 of this Act.

(b) Any sex offender, as defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator, regardless of any initial, prior, or other registration, shall, within 3 days of beginning school, or establishing a residence, place of employment, or temporary domicile in any county, register in person as set forth in subsection (a) or (a-5).

(c) The registration for any person required to register under this Article shall be as follows:

(1) Any person registered under the Habitual Child Sex Offender Registration Act or the Child Sex Offender Registration Act prior to January 1, 1996, shall be deemed initially registered as of January 1, 1996; however, this shall not be construed to extend the duration of registration set forth in Section 7.

(2) Except as provided in subsection (c)(2.1) or (c)(4), any person convicted or adjudicated prior to January 1, 1996, whose liability for registration under Section 7 has not expired, shall register in person prior to January 31, 1996.

(2.1) A sex offender or sexual predator, who has never previously been required to register under this Act, has a duty to register if the person has been convicted of any felony offense after July 1, 2011. A person who previously was required to register under this Act for a period of 10 years and successfully completed that registration period has a duty to register if: (i) the person has been convicted of any felony offense after July 1, 2011, and (ii) the offense for which the 10 year registration was served currently requires a registration period of more than 10 years. Notification of an offender's duty to register under this subsection shall be pursuant to Section 5-7 of this Act.

(2.5) Except as provided in subsection (c)(4), any person who has not been notified of his or her responsibility to register shall be notified by a criminal justice entity of his or her responsibility to register. Upon notification the person must then register within 3 days of notification of his or her requirement to register. Except as provided in subsection (c)(2.1), if notification is not made within the offender's 10 year registration requirement, and the Department of State Police determines no evidence exists or indicates the offender attempted to avoid registration, the offender will no longer be required to register under this Act.

(3) Except as provided in subsection (c)(4), any person convicted on or after January 1, 1996, shall register in person within 3 days after the entry of the sentencing order based upon his or her conviction.

(4) Any person unable to comply with the registration requirements of this Article because he or she is confined, institutionalized, or imprisoned in Illinois on or after January 1, 1996, shall register in person within 3 days of discharge, parole or release.

(5) The person shall provide positive identification and documentation that substantiates proof of residence at the registering address.

(6) The person shall pay a $100 initial registration fee and a $100 annual renewal fee. The fees shall be used by the registering agency for official purposes. The agency shall establish procedures to document receipt and use of the funds. The law enforcement agency having jurisdiction may waive the registration fee if it determines that the person is indigent and unable to pay the registration fee. Thirty-five dollars for the initial registration fee and $35 of the annual renewal fee shall be used by the registering agency for official purposes. Five dollars of the initial registration fee and $5 of the annual fee shall be deposited into the Sex Offender Management Board Fund under Section 19 of the Sex Offender Management Board Act. Money deposited into the Sex Offender Management Board Fund shall be administered by the Sex Offender Management Board and shall be used by the Board to comply with the provisions of the Sex Offender Management Board Act. Thirty dollars of the initial registration fee and $30 of the annual renewal fee shall be deposited into the Sex Offender Registration Fund and shall be used by the Department of State Police to maintain and update the Illinois State Police Sex Offender Registry. Thirty dollars of the initial registration fee and $30 of the annual renewal fee shall be deposited into the Attorney General Sex Offender Awareness, Training, and Education Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall be used by the Attorney General to administer the I-SORT program and to alert and educate the public, victims, and witnesses of their rights under various victim notification laws and for training law enforcement agencies, State's Attorneys, and medical providers of their legal duties concerning the prosecution and investigation of sex offenses.

(d) Within 3 days after obtaining or changing employment and, if employed on January 1, 2000, within 5 days after that date, a person required to register under this Section must report, in person to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, the business name and address where he or she is employed. If the person has multiple businesses or work locations, every business and work location must be reported to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 96-1094, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1096, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1097, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1102, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1104, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-155, eff 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-578, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1098, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(730 ILCS 150/6)

Sec. 6. Duty to report; change of address, school, or employment; duty to inform. A person who has been adjudicated to be sexually dangerous or is a sexually violent person and is later released, or found to be no longer sexually dangerous or no longer a sexually violent person and discharged, or convicted of a violation of this Act after July 1, 2005, shall report in person to the law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered no later than 90 days after the date of his or her last registration and every 90 days thereafter and at such other times at the request of the law enforcement agency not to exceed 4 times a year. Such sexually dangerous or sexually violent person must report all new or changed e-mail addresses, all new or changed instant messaging identities, all new or changed chat room identities, and all other new or changed Internet communications identities that the sexually dangerous or sexually violent person uses or plans to use, all new or changed Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) registered or used by the sexually dangerous or sexually violent person, and all new or changed blogs and other Internet sites maintained by the sexually dangerous or sexually violent person or to which the sexually dangerous or sexually violent person has uploaded any content or posted any messages or information. Any person who lacks a fixed residence must report weekly, in person, to the appropriate law enforcement agency where the sex offender is located. Any other person who is required to register under this Article shall report in person to the appropriate law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered within one year from the date of last registration and every year thereafter and at such other times at the request of the law enforcement agency not to exceed 4 times a year. If any person required to register under this Article lacks a fixed residence or temporary domicile, he or she must notify, in person, the agency of jurisdiction of his or her last known address within 3 days after ceasing to have a fixed residence and if the offender leaves the last jurisdiction of residence, he or she, must within 3 days after leaving register in person with the new agency of jurisdiction. If any other person required to register under this Article changes his or her residence address, place of employment, telephone number, cellular telephone number, or school, he or she shall report in person, to the law enforcement agency with whom he or she last registered, his or her new address, change in employment, telephone number, cellular telephone number, or school, all new or changed e-mail addresses, all new or changed instant messaging identities, all new or changed chat room identities, and all other new or changed Internet communications identities that the sex offender uses or plans to use, all new or changed Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) registered or used by the sex offender, and all new or changed blogs and other Internet sites maintained by the sex offender or to which the sex offender has uploaded any content or posted any messages or information, and register, in person, with the appropriate law enforcement agency within the time period specified in Section 3. If the sex offender is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the sex offender shall within 3 days after beginning to reside in a household with a child under 18 years of age who is not his or her own child, provided that his or her own child is not the victim of the sex offense, report that information to the registering law enforcement agency. The law enforcement agency shall, within 3 days of the reporting in person by the person required to register under this Article, notify the Department of State Police of the new place of residence, change in employment, telephone number, cellular telephone number, or school.

If any person required to register under this Article intends to establish a residence or employment outside of the State of Illinois, at least 10 days before establishing that residence or employment, he or she shall report in person to the law enforcement agency with which he or she last registered of his or her out-of-state intended residence or employment. The law enforcement agency with which such person last registered shall, within 3 days after the reporting in person of the person required to register under this Article of an address or employment change, notify the Department of State Police. The Department of State Police shall forward such information to the out-of-state law enforcement agency having jurisdiction in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

(Source: P.A. 96-1094, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1104, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11.)

(730 ILCS 150/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 228)

Sec. 8. Registration and DNA submission requirements.

(a) Registration. Registration as required by this Article shall consist of a statement in writing signed by the person giving the information that is required by the Department of State Police, which may include the fingerprints and must include a current photograph of the person, to be updated annually. If the sex offender is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, he or she shall sign a statement that he or she understands that according to Illinois law as a child sex offender he or she may not reside within 500 feet of a school, park, or playground. The offender may also not reside within 500 feet of a facility providing services directed exclusively toward persons under 18 years of age unless the sex offender meets specified exemptions. The registration information must include whether the person is a sex offender as defined in the Sex Offender Community Notification Law. Within 3 days, the registering law enforcement agency shall forward any required information to the Department of State Police. The registering law enforcement agency shall enter the information into the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) as provided in Sections 6 and 7 of the Intergovernmental Missing Child Recovery Act of 1984.

(b) DNA submission. Every person registering as a sex offender _pursuant to this Act, regardless of the date of conviction or the date of initial registration who is required to submit specimens of blood, saliva, or tissue for DNA analysis as required by subsection (a) of Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections shall submit the specimens as required by that Section. Registered sex offenders who have previously submitted a DNA specimen which has been uploaded to the Illinois DNA database shall not be required to submit an additional specimen pursuant to this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-383, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 695. The Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(730 ILCS 154/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions.

(a) As used in this Act, "violent offender against youth" means any person who is:

(1) charged pursuant to Illinois law, or any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, with a violent offense against youth set forth in subsection (b) of this Section or the attempt to commit an included violent offense against youth, and:

(A) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(B) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(C) is found not guilty by reason of insanity pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or

(D) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted commission of such offense; or

(E) is found not guilty by reason of insanity following a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of such offense; or

(F) is the subject of a finding not resulting in an acquittal at a hearing conducted pursuant to a federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law substantially similar to subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or attempted commission of such offense; or

(2) adjudicated a juvenile delinquent as the result of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in subsection (b) or (c-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law, or found guilty under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of committing or attempting to commit an act which, if committed by an adult, would constitute any of the offenses specified in subsection (b) or (c-5) of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law.

Convictions that result from or are connected with the same act, or result from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted for the purpose of this Act as one conviction. Any conviction set aside pursuant to law is not a conviction for purposes of this Act.

For purposes of this Section, "convicted" shall have the same meaning as "adjudicated". For the purposes of this Act, a person who is defined as a violent offender against youth as a result of being adjudicated a juvenile delinquent under paragraph (2) of this subsection (a) upon attaining 17 years of age shall be considered as having committed the violent offense against youth on or after the 17th birthday of the violent offender against youth. Registration of juveniles upon attaining 17 years of age shall not extend the original registration of 10 years from the date of conviction.

(b) As used in this Act, "violent offense against youth" means:

(1) A violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim is a person under 18 years of age and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1996:

10-1 (kidnapping),

10-2 (aggravated kidnapping),

10-3 (unlawful restraint),

10-3.1 (aggravated unlawful restraint).

An attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(2) First degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when the victim was a person under 18 years of age and the defendant was at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense.

(3) Child abduction under paragraph (10) of subsection (b) of Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 committed by luring or attempting to lure a child under the age of 16 into a motor vehicle, building, house trailer, or dwelling place without the consent of the parent or lawful custodian of the child for other than a lawful purpose and the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1998.

(4) A violation or attempted violation of the following Section of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the offense was committed on or after July 1, 1999:

10-4 (forcible detention, if the victim is under 18 years of age).

(4.1) Involuntary manslaughter under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where baby shaking was the proximate cause of death of the victim of the offense.

(4.2) Endangering the life or health of a child under Section 12-21.6 or 12C-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 that results in the death of the child where baby shaking was the proximate cause of the death of the child.

(4.3) Domestic battery resulting in bodily harm under Section 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the defendant was 18 years or older and the victim was under 18 years of age and the offense was committed on or after July 26, 2010.

(4.4) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections or clauses of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim was under 18 years of age and the offense was committed on or after (1) July 26, 2000 if the defendant was 18 years of age or older or (2) July 26, 2010 and the defendant was under the age of 18:

12-3.3 (aggravated domestic battery),

12-3.05(a)(1), 12-3.05(d)(2), 12-3.05(f)(1), 12-4(a), 12-4(b)(1), or 12-4(b)(14) (aggravated battery),

12-3.05(a)(2) or 12-4.1 (heinous battery),

12-3.05(b) or 12-4.3 (aggravated battery of a child),

12-3.1(a-5) or 12-4.4 (aggravated battery of an unborn child),

12-33 (ritualized abuse of a child).

(4.5) A violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim was under 18 years of age and the offense was committed on or after (1) August 1, 2001 if the defendant was 18 years of age or older or (2) August 1, 2011 and the defendant was under the age of 18:

12-3.05(e)(1), (2), (3), or (4) or 12-4.2 (aggravated battery with a firearm),

12-3.05(e)(5), (6), (7), or (8) or 12-4.2-5 (aggravated battery with a machine gun),

12-11 or 19-6 (home invasion).

(5) A violation of any former law of this State substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (b).

(b-5) For the purposes of this Section, "first degree murder of an adult" means first degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim was a person 18 years of age or older at the time of the commission of the offense.

(c) A conviction for an offense of federal law, Uniform Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or a foreign country that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsections (b) and (c-5) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Act.

(c-5) A person at least 17 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense who is convicted of first degree murder under Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, against a person under 18 years of age, shall be required to register for natural life. A conviction for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in this subsection (c-5) shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Act. This subsection (c-5) applies to a person who committed the offense before June 1, 1996 only if the person is incarcerated in an Illinois Department of Corrections facility on August 20, 2004.

(c-6) A person who is convicted or adjudicated delinquent of first degree murder of an adult shall be required to register for a period of 10 years after conviction or adjudication if not confined to a penal institution, hospital, or any other institution or facility, and if confined, for a period of 10 years after parole, discharge, or release from any such facility. A conviction for an offense of federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign country law that is substantially equivalent to any offense listed in subsection (c-6) of this Section shall constitute a conviction for the purpose of this Act. This subsection (c-6) does not apply to those individuals released from incarceration more than 10 years prior to January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-154).

(d) As used in this Act, "law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the Chief of Police in each of the municipalities in which the violent offender against youth expects to reside, work, or attend school (1) upon his or her discharge, parole or release or (2) during the service of his or her sentence of probation or conditional discharge, or the Sheriff of the county, in the event no Police Chief exists or if the offender intends to reside, work, or attend school in an unincorporated area. "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" includes the location where out-of-state students attend school and where out-of-state employees are employed or are otherwise required to register.

(e) As used in this Act, "supervising officer" means the assigned Illinois Department of Corrections parole agent or county probation officer.

(f) As used in this Act, "out-of-state student" means any violent offender against youth who is enrolled in Illinois, on a full-time or part-time basis, in any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher learning.

(g) As used in this Act, "out-of-state employee" means any violent offender against youth who works in Illinois, regardless of whether the individual receives payment for services performed, for a period of time of 10 or more days or for an aggregate period of time of 30 or more days during any calendar year. Persons who operate motor vehicles in the State accrue one day of employment time for any portion of a day spent in Illinois.

(h) As used in this Act, "school" means any public or private educational institution, including, but not limited to, any elementary or secondary school, trade or professional institution, or institution of higher education.

(i) As used in this Act, "fixed residence" means any and all places that a violent offender against youth resides for an aggregate period of time of 5 or more days in a calendar year.

(j) As used in this Act, "baby shaking" means the vigorous shaking of an infant or a young child that may result in bleeding inside the head and cause one or more of the following conditions: irreversible brain damage; blindness, retinal hemorrhage, or eye damage; cerebral palsy; hearing loss; spinal cord injury, including paralysis; seizures; learning disability; central nervous system injury; closed head injury; rib fracture; subdural hematoma; or death.

(Source: P.A. 96-1115, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1294, eff. 7-26-10; 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-432, eff. 8-16-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-20-12.)

Section 700. The Secure Residential Youth Care Facility Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 45-30 as follows:

(730 ILCS 175/45-30)

Sec. 45-30. License or employment eligibility.

(a) No applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a licensed facility who refuses to authorize an investigation as required by Section 45-25.

(b) No applicant may receive a license from the Department and no person may be employed by a secure residential youth care facility licensed by the Department who has been declared a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act or convicted of committing or attempting to commit any of the following offenses under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:

(1) First degree murder.

(2) A sex offense under Article 11, except offenses described in Sections 11-7, 11-8, 11-12, 11-13, 11-18, 11-35, 11-40, and 11-45.

(3) Kidnapping.

(4) Aggravated kidnapping.

(5) Child abduction.

(6) Aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05.

(7) Criminal sexual assault.

(8) Aggravated criminal sexual assault.

(8.1) Predatory criminal sexual assault of a child.

(9) Criminal sexual abuse.

(10) Aggravated criminal sexual abuse.

(11) A federal offense or an offense in any other state the elements of which are similar to any of the foregoing offenses.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 975, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1080, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 705. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 8-802, 8-802.1, 8-2001.5, 9-106.2, 13-202.1, 13-202.2, and 13-202.3 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/8-802) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-802)

Sec. 8-802. Physician and patient. No physician or surgeon shall be permitted to disclose any information he or she may have acquired in attending any patient in a professional character, necessary to enable him or her professionally to serve the patient, except only (1) in trials for homicide when the disclosure relates directly to the fact or immediate circumstances of the homicide, (2) in actions, civil or criminal, against the physician for malpractice, (3) with the expressed consent of the patient, or in case of his or her death or disability, of his or her personal representative or other person authorized to sue for personal injury or of the beneficiary of an insurance policy on his or her life, health, or physical condition, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, (4) in all actions brought by or against the patient, his or her personal representative, a beneficiary under a policy of insurance, or the executor or administrator of his or her estate wherein the patient's physical or mental condition is an issue, (5) upon an issue as to the validity of a document as a will of the patient, (6) in any criminal action where the charge is either first degree murder by abortion, attempted abortion or abortion, (7) in actions, civil or criminal, arising from the filing of a report in compliance with the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, (8) to any department, agency, institution or facility which has custody of the patient pursuant to State statute or any court order of commitment, (9) in prosecutions where written results of blood alcohol tests are admissible pursuant to Section 11-501.4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, (10) in prosecutions where written results of blood alcohol tests are admissible under Section 5-11a of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, (11) in criminal actions arising from the filing of a report of suspected terrorist offense in compliance with Section 29D-10(p)(7) of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, or (12) upon the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 38 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 22 of the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act; or the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.5 of the Workers' Compensation Act.

In the event of a conflict between the application of this Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to a specific situation, the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act shall control.

(Source: P.A. 97-18, eff. 6-28-11; 97-623, eff. 11-23-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(735 ILCS 5/8-802.1) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-802.1)

Sec. 8-802.1. Confidentiality of Statements Made to Rape Crisis Personnel.

(a) Purpose. This Section is intended to protect victims of rape from public disclosure of statements they make in confidence to counselors of organizations established to help them. On or after July 1, 1984, "rape" means an act of forced sexual penetration or sexual conduct, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended, including acts prohibited under Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , as amended. Because of the fear and stigma that often results from those crimes, many victims hesitate to seek help even where it is available at no cost to them. As a result they not only fail to receive needed medical care and emergency counseling, but may lack the psychological support necessary to report the crime and aid police in preventing future crimes.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Act:

(1) "Rape crisis organization" means any organization or association the major purpose of which is providing information, counseling, and psychological support to victims of any or all of the crimes of aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual assault, sexual relations between siblings, criminal sexual abuse and aggravated criminal sexual abuse.

(2) "Rape crisis counselor" means a person who is a psychologist, social worker, employee, or volunteer in any organization or association defined as a rape crisis organization under this Section, who has undergone 40 hours of training and is under the control of a direct services supervisor of a rape crisis organization.

(3) "Victim" means a person who is the subject of, or who seeks information, counseling, or advocacy services as a result of an aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual assault, sexual relations within families, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, sexual exploitation of a child, indecent solicitation of a child, public indecency, exploitation of a child, promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, or an attempt to commit any of these offenses.

(4) "Confidential communication" means any communication between a victim and a rape crisis counselor in the course of providing information, counseling, and advocacy. The term includes all records kept by the counselor or by the organization in the course of providing services to an alleged victim concerning the alleged victim and the services provided.

(c) Waiver of privilege.

(1) The confidential nature of the communication is not waived by: the presence of a third person who further expresses the interests of the victim at the time of the communication; group counseling; or disclosure to a third person with the consent of the victim when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which the counselor is consulted.

(2) The confidential nature of counseling records is not waived when: the victim inspects the records; or in the case of a minor child less than 12 years of age, a parent or guardian whose interests are not adverse to the minor inspects the records; or in the case of a minor victim 12 years or older, a parent or guardian whose interests are not adverse to the minor inspects the records with the victim's consent, or in the case of an adult who has a guardian of his or her person, the guardian inspects the records with the victim's consent.

(3) When a victim is deceased, the executor or administrator of the victim's estate may waive the privilege established by this Section, unless the executor or administrator has an interest adverse to the victim.

(4) A minor victim 12 years of age or older may knowingly waive the privilege established in this Section. When a minor is, in the opinion of the Court, incapable of knowingly waiving the privilege, the parent or guardian of the minor may waive the privilege on behalf of the minor, unless the parent or guardian has been charged with a violent crime against the victim or otherwise has any interest adverse to that of the minor with respect to the waiver of the privilege.

(5) An adult victim who has a guardian of his or her person may knowingly waive the privilege established in this Section. When the victim is, in the opinion of the court, incapable of knowingly waiving the privilege, the guardian of the adult victim may waive the privilege on behalf of the victim, unless the guardian has been charged with a violent crime against the victim or otherwise has any interest adverse to the victim with respect to the privilege.

(d) Confidentiality. Except as provided in this Act, no rape crisis counselor shall disclose any confidential communication or be examined as a witness in any civil or criminal proceeding as to any confidential communication without the written consent of the victim or a representative of the victim as provided in subparagraph (c).

(e) A rape crisis counselor may disclose a confidential communication without the consent of the victim if failure to disclose is likely to result in a clear, imminent risk of serious physical injury or death of the victim or another person. Any rape crisis counselor or rape crisis organization participating in good faith in the disclosing of records and communications under this Act shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise that might result from the action. In any proceeding, civil or criminal, arising out of a disclosure under this Section, the good faith of any rape crisis counselor or rape crisis organization who disclosed the confidential communication shall be presumed.

(f) Any rape crisis counselor who knowingly discloses any confidential communication in violation of this Act commits a Class C misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 96-1010, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(735 ILCS 5/8-2001.5)

Sec. 8-2001.5. Authorization for release of a deceased patient's records.

(a) In addition to disclosure allowed under Section 8-802, a deceased person's health care records must be released upon written request of the executor or administrator of the deceased person's estate or to an agent appointed by the deceased under a power of attorney for health care. When no executor, administrator, or agent exists, and the person did not specifically object to disclosure of his or her records in writing, then a deceased person's health care records must be released upon the written request of a person, who is considered to be a personal representative of the patient for the purpose of the release of a deceased patient's health care records, in one of these categories:

(1) the deceased person's surviving spouse; or

(2) if there is no surviving spouse, any one or more of the following: (i) an adult son or daughter of the deceased, (ii) a parent of the deceased, or (iii) an adult brother or sister of the deceased.

(b) Health care facilities and practitioners are authorized to provide a copy of a deceased patient's records based upon a person's payment of the statutory fee and signed "Authorized Relative Certification", attesting to the fact that the person is authorized to receive such records under this Section.

(c) Any person who, in good faith, relies on a copy of an Authorized Relative Certification shall have the same immunities from criminal and civil liability as those who rely on a power of attorney for health care as provided by Illinois law.

(d) Upon request for records of a deceased patient, the named authorized relative shall provide the facility or practitioner with a certified copy of the death certificate and a certification in substantially the following form:

AUTHORIZED RELATIVE CERTIFICATION

I, (insert name of authorized relative), certify that I am an authorized relative of the deceased (insert name of deceased). (A certified copy of the death certificate must be attached.)

I certify that to the best of my knowledge and belief that no executor or administrator has been appointed for the deceased's estate, that no agent was authorized to act for the deceased under a power of attorney for health care, and the deceased has not specifically objected to disclosure in writing.

I certify that I am the surviving spouse of the deceased; or

I certify that there is no surviving spouse and my relationship to the deceased is (circle one):

(1) An adult son or daughter of the deceased.

(2) Either parent of the deceased.

(3) An adult brother or sister of the deceased.

I certify that I am seeking the records as a personal representative who is acting in a representative capacity and who is authorized to seek these records under Section 8-2001.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

This certification is made under penalty of perjury.*

Dated: (insert date)

................................. (Print Authorized Relative's Name) ................................. (Authorized Relative's Signature) ................................. (Authorized Relative's Address)

*(Note: Perjury is defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, and is a Class 3 felony.)

(Source: P.A. 97-623, eff. 11-23-11; 97-867, eff. 7-30-12.)

(735 ILCS 5/9-106.2)

Sec. 9-106.2. Affirmative defense for violence; barring persons from property.

(a) It shall be an affirmative defense to an action maintained under this Article IX if the court makes one of the following findings that the demand for possession is:

(1) based solely on the tenant's, lessee's, or household member's status as a victim of domestic violence or sexual violence as those terms are defined in Section 10 of the Safe Homes Act, stalking as that term is defined in the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, or dating violence;

(2) based solely upon an incident of actual or threatened domestic violence, dating violence, stalking, or sexual violence against a tenant, lessee, or household member;

(3) based solely upon criminal activity directly relating to domestic violence, dating violence, stalking, or sexual violence engaged in by a member of a tenant's or lessee's household or any guest or other person under the tenant's, lessee's, or household member's control, and against the tenant, lessee, or household member; or

(4) based upon a demand for possession pursuant to subsection (f) where the tenant, lessee, or household member who was the victim of domestic violence, sexual violence, stalking, or dating violence did not knowingly consent to the barred person entering the premises or a valid court order permitted the barred person's entry onto the premises.

(b) When asserting the affirmative defense, at least one form of the following types of evidence shall be provided to support the affirmative defense: medical, court, or police records documenting the violence or a statement from an employee of a victim service organization or from a medical professional from whom the tenant, lessee, or household member has sought services.

(c) Nothing in subsection (a) shall prevent the landlord from seeking possession solely against a tenant, household member, or lessee of the premises who perpetrated the violence referred to in subsection (a).

(d) Nothing in subsection (a) shall prevent the landlord from seeking possession against the entire household, including the tenant, lessee, or household member who is a victim of domestic violence, dating violence, stalking, or sexual violence if the tenant, lessee, or household member's continued tenancy would pose an actual and imminent threat to other tenants, lessees, household members, the landlord or their agents at the property.

(e) Nothing in subsection (a) shall prevent the landlord from seeking possession against the tenant, lessee, or household member who is a victim of domestic violence, dating violence, stalking, or sexual violence if that tenant, lessee, or household member has committed the criminal activity on which the demand for possession is based.

(f) A landlord shall have the power to bar the presence of a person from the premises owned by the landlord who is not a tenant or lessee or who is not a member of the tenant's or lessee's household. A landlord bars a person from the premises by providing written notice to the tenant or lessee that the person is no longer allowed on the premises. That notice shall state that if the tenant invites the barred person onto any portion of the premises, then the landlord may treat this as a breach of the lease, whether or not this provision is contained in the lease. Subject to paragraph (4) of subsection (a), the landlord may evict the tenant.

(g) Further, a landlord may give notice to a person that the person is barred from the premises owned by the landlord. A person has received notice from the landlord within the meaning of this subsection if he has been notified personally, either orally or in writing including a valid court order as defined by subsection (7) of Section 112A-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 granting remedy (2) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of that Code, or if a printed or written notice forbidding such entry has been conspicuously posted or exhibited at the main entrance to such land or the forbidden part thereof. Any person entering the landlord's premises after such notice has been given shall be guilty of criminal trespass to real property as set forth in Section 21-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. After notice has been given, an invitation to the person to enter the premises shall be void if made by a tenant, lessee, or member of the tenant's or lessee's household and shall not constitute a valid invitation to come upon the premises or a defense to a criminal trespass to real property.

(Source: P.A. 96-1188, eff. 7-22-10.)

(735 ILCS 5/13-202.1) (from Ch. 110, par. 13-202.1)

Sec. 13-202.1. No limitations on certain actions - Duties of Department of Corrections and State's Attorneys.

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any action for damages against a person, however the action may be designated, may be brought at any time if --

(1) the action is based upon conduct of a person which constituted the commission of first degree murder, a Class X felony, or a Class 1 felony as these terms are utilized at the time of filing of the action; and

(2) the person was convicted of the first degree murder, Class X felony, or Class 1 felony.

(b) The provisions of this Section are fully applicable to convictions based upon defendant's accountability under Section 5-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 , approved July 28, 1961, as amended.

(c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) above shall apply to any cause of action regardless of the date on which the defendant's conduct is alleged to have occurred or of the date of any conviction resulting therefrom. In addition, this Section shall be applied retroactively and shall revive causes of actions which otherwise may have been barred under limitations provisions in effect prior to the enactment and/or effect of P.A. 84-1450.

(d) Whenever there is any settlement, verdict or judgment in excess of $500 in any court against the Department of Corrections or any past or present employee or official in favor of any person for damages incurred while the person was committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department within 14 days of the settlement, verdict or judgment shall notify the State's Attorney of the county from which the person was committed to the Department. The State's Attorney shall in turn within 14 days after receipt of the notice send the same notice to the person or persons who were the victim or victims of the crime for which the offender was committed, at their last known address, along with the information that the victim or victims should contact a private attorney to advise them of their rights under the law.

(e) Whenever there is any settlement, verdict or judgment in excess of $500 in any court against any county or county sheriff or any past or present employee or official in favor of any person for damages incurred while the person was incarcerated in any county jail, the county or county sheriff, within 14 days of the settlement, verdict or judgment shall notify the State's Attorney of the county from which the person was incarcerated in the county jail. The State's Attorney shall within 14 days of receipt of the notice send the same notice to the person or persons who were the victim or victims of the crime for which the offender was committed, at their last known address, along with the information that the victim or victims should contact a private attorney to advise them of their rights under the law.

(f) No civil action may be brought by anyone against the Department of Corrections, a State's Attorney, a County, a county sheriff, or any past or present employee or agent thereof for any alleged violation by any such entity or person of the notification requirements imposed by paragraph (d) or (e).

(Source: P.A. 95-975, eff. 1-1-09.)

(735 ILCS 5/13-202.2) (from Ch. 110, par. 13-202.2)

Sec. 13-202.2. Childhood sexual abuse.

(a) In this Section:

"Childhood sexual abuse" means an act of sexual abuse that occurs when the person abused is under 18 years of age.

"Sexual abuse" includes but is not limited to sexual conduct and sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, an action for damages for personal injury based on childhood sexual abuse must be commenced within 20 years of the date the limitation period begins to run under subsection (d) or within 20 years of the date the person abused discovers or through the use of reasonable diligence should discover both (i) that the act of childhood sexual abuse occurred and (ii) that the injury was caused by the childhood sexual abuse. The fact that the person abused discovers or through the use of reasonable diligence should discover that the act of childhood sexual abuse occurred is not, by itself, sufficient to start the discovery period under this subsection (b). Knowledge of the abuse does not constitute discovery of the injury or the causal relationship between any later-discovered injury and the abuse.

(c) If the injury is caused by 2 or more acts of childhood sexual abuse that are part of a continuing series of acts of childhood sexual abuse by the same abuser, then the discovery period under subsection (b) shall be computed from the date the person abused discovers or through the use of reasonable diligence should discover both (i) that the last act of childhood sexual abuse in the continuing series occurred and (ii) that the injury was caused by any act of childhood sexual abuse in the continuing series. The fact that the person abused discovers or through the use of reasonable diligence should discover that the last act of childhood sexual abuse in the continuing series occurred is not, by itself, sufficient to start the discovery period under subsection (b). Knowledge of the abuse does not constitute discovery of the injury or the causal relationship between any later-discovered injury and the abuse.

(d) The limitation periods under subsection (b) do not begin to run before the person abused attains the age of 18 years; and, if at the time the person abused attains the age of 18 years he or she is under other legal disability, the limitation periods under subsection (b) do not begin to run until the removal of the disability.

(d-1) The limitation periods in subsection (b) do not run during a time period when the person abused is subject to threats, intimidation, manipulation, or fraud perpetrated by the abuser or by any person acting in the interest of the abuser.

(e) This Section applies to actions pending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 as well as to actions commenced on or after that date. The changes made by this amendatory Act of 1993 shall apply only to actions commenced on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993. The changes made by this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly apply to actions pending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly as well as actions commenced on or after that date. The changes made by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly apply to actions commenced on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly if the action would not have been time barred under any statute of limitations or statute of repose prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-1093, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(735 ILCS 5/13-202.3)

Sec. 13-202.3. For an action arising out of an injury caused by "sexual conduct" or "sexual penetration" as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, the limitation period in Section 13-202 does not run during a time period when the person injured is subject to threats, intimidation, manipulation, or fraud perpetrated by the perpetrator or by a person the perpetrator knew or should have known was acting in the interest of the perpetrator. This Section applies to causes of action arising on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly or to causes of action for which the limitation period has not yet expired.

(Source: P.A. 95-589, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 710. The Stalking No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Section 90 as follows:

(740 ILCS 21/90)

Sec. 90. Accountability for actions of others. For the purposes of issuing a stalking no contact order, deciding what remedies should be included and enforcing the order, Article 5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall govern whether respondent is legally accountable for the conduct of another person.

(Source: P.A. 96-246, eff. 1-1-10.)

Section 715. The Civil No Contact Order Act is amended by changing Sections 213 and 213.5 as follows:

(740 ILCS 22/213)

Sec. 213. Civil no contact order; remedies.

(a) If the court finds that the petitioner has been a victim of non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration, a civil no contact order shall issue; provided that the petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of Section 214 on emergency orders or Section 215 on plenary orders. The petitioner shall not be denied a civil no contact order because the petitioner or the respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue a civil no contact order, may not require physical injury on the person of the victim. Modification and extension of prior civil no contact orders shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) (Blank).

(b-5) The court may provide relief as follows:

(1) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance from the petitioner;

(2) restrain the respondent from having any contact, including nonphysical contact, with the petitioner directly, indirectly, or through third parties, regardless of whether those third parties know of the order;

(3) prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance from the petitioner's residence, school, day care or other specified location;

(4) order the respondent to stay away from any property or animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by the petitioner and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the property or animal; and

(5) order any other injunctive relief as necessary or appropriate for the protection of the petitioner.

(b-6) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public or private elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a civil no contact order and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent to or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(b-7) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents or legal guardians of the respondent are responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(c) Denial of a remedy may not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) the respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 VII of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(2) the respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) the petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if the petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 VII of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(4) the petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) the petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration by the respondent; or

(6) the petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration by the respondent.

(d) Monetary damages are not recoverable as a remedy.

(Source: P.A. 96-311, eff. 1-1-10; 97-294, eff. 1-1-12.)

(740 ILCS 22/213.5)

Sec. 213.5. Accountability for actions of others. For the purposes of issuing a civil no contact order, deciding what remedies should be included and enforcing the order, Article 5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall govern whether respondent is legally accountable for the conduct of another person.

(Source: P.A. 93-236, eff. 1-1-04.)

Section 720. The Crime Victims Compensation Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 6.1, and 14.1 as follows:

(740 ILCS 45/2) (from Ch. 70, par. 72)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Applicant" means any person who applies for compensation under this Act or any person the Court of Claims finds is entitled to compensation, including the guardian of a minor or of a person under legal disability. It includes any person who was a dependent of a deceased victim of a crime of violence for his or her support at the time of the death of that victim.

(b) "Court of Claims" means the Court of Claims created by the Court of Claims Act.

(c) "Crime of violence" means and includes any offense defined in Sections 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 10-1, 10-2, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-11, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-3.4, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-5, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-20.5, 12-30, 20-1 or 20-1.1, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Sections 1(a) and 1(a-5) of the Cemetery Protection Act, Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, driving under the influence as defined in Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, provided the victim was a pedestrian or was operating a vehicle moved solely by human power or a mobility device at the time of contact, and a violation of Section 11-204.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; so long as the offense did not occur during a civil riot, insurrection or rebellion. "Crime of violence" does not include any other offense or accident involving a motor vehicle except those vehicle offenses specifically provided for in this paragraph. "Crime of violence" does include all of the offenses specifically provided for in this paragraph that occur within this State but are subject to federal jurisdiction and crimes involving terrorism as defined in 18 U.S.C. 2331.

(d) "Victim" means (1) a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence perpetrated or attempted against him or her, (2) the spouse or parent of a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence perpetrated or attempted against the person, (3) a person killed or injured in this State while attempting to assist a person against whom a crime of violence is being perpetrated or attempted, if that attempt of assistance would be expected of a reasonable person under the circumstances, (4) a person killed or injured in this State while assisting a law enforcement official apprehend a person who has perpetrated a crime of violence or prevent the perpetration of any such crime if that assistance was in response to the express request of the law enforcement official, (5) a person who personally witnessed a violent crime, (5.1) solely for the purpose of compensating for pecuniary loss incurred for psychological treatment of a mental or emotional condition caused or aggravated by the crime, any other person under the age of 18 who is the brother, sister, half brother, half sister, child, or stepchild of a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence, (6) an Illinois resident who is a victim of a "crime of violence" as defined in this Act except, if the crime occurred outside this State, the resident has the same rights under this Act as if the crime had occurred in this State upon a showing that the state, territory, country, or political subdivision of a country in which the crime occurred does not have a compensation of victims of crimes law for which that Illinois resident is eligible, (7) a deceased person whose body is dismembered or whose remains are desecrated as the result of a crime of violence, or (8) solely for the purpose of compensating for pecuniary loss incurred for psychological treatment of a mental or emotional condition caused or aggravated by the crime, any parent, spouse, or child under the age of 18 of a deceased person whose body is dismembered or whose remains are desecrated as the result of a crime of violence.

(e) "Dependent" means a relative of a deceased victim who was wholly or partially dependent upon the victim's income at the time of his or her death and shall include the child of a victim born after his or her death.

(f) "Relative" means a spouse, parent, grandparent, stepfather, stepmother, child, grandchild, brother, brother-in-law, sister, sister-in-law, half brother, half sister, spouse's parent, nephew, niece, uncle or aunt.

(g) "Child" means an unmarried son or daughter who is under 18 years of age and includes a stepchild, an adopted child or a child born out of wedlock.

(h) "Pecuniary loss" means, in the case of injury, appropriate medical expenses and hospital expenses including expenses of medical examinations, rehabilitation, medically required nursing care expenses, appropriate psychiatric care or psychiatric counseling expenses, expenses for care or counseling by a licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed professional counselor, or licensed clinical professional counselor and expenses for treatment by Christian Science practitioners and nursing care appropriate thereto; transportation expenses to and from medical and counseling treatment facilities; prosthetic appliances, eyeglasses, and hearing aids necessary or damaged as a result of the crime; replacement costs for clothing and bedding used as evidence; costs associated with temporary lodging or relocation necessary as a result of the crime, including, but not limited to, the first month's rent and security deposit of the dwelling that the claimant relocated to and other reasonable relocation expenses incurred as a result of the violent crime; locks or windows necessary or damaged as a result of the crime; the purchase, lease, or rental of equipment necessary to create usability of and accessibility to the victim's real and personal property, or the real and personal property which is used by the victim, necessary as a result of the crime; the costs of appropriate crime scene clean-up; replacement services loss, to a maximum of $1,250 per month; dependents replacement services loss, to a maximum of $1,250 per month; loss of tuition paid to attend grammar school or high school when the victim had been enrolled as a student prior to the injury, or college or graduate school when the victim had been enrolled as a day or night student prior to the injury when the victim becomes unable to continue attendance at school as a result of the crime of violence perpetrated against him or her; loss of earnings, loss of future earnings because of disability resulting from the injury, and, in addition, in the case of death, expenses for funeral, burial, and travel and transport for survivors of homicide victims to secure bodies of deceased victims and to transport bodies for burial all of which may not exceed a maximum of $7,500 and loss of support of the dependents of the victim; in the case of dismemberment or desecration of a body, expenses for funeral and burial, all of which may not exceed a maximum of $7,500. Loss of future earnings shall be reduced by any income from substitute work actually performed by the victim or by income he or she would have earned in available appropriate substitute work he or she was capable of performing but unreasonably failed to undertake. Loss of earnings, loss of future earnings and loss of support shall be determined on the basis of the victim's average net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the injury or on $1,250 per month, whichever is less or, in cases where the absences commenced more than 3 years from the date of the crime, on the basis of the net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the first absence, not to exceed $1,250 per month. If a divorced or legally separated applicant is claiming loss of support for a minor child of the deceased, the amount of support for each child shall be based either on the amount of support pursuant to the judgment prior to the date of the deceased victim's injury or death, or, if the subject of pending litigation filed by or on behalf of the divorced or legally separated applicant prior to the injury or death, on the result of that litigation. Real and personal property includes, but is not limited to, vehicles, houses, apartments, town houses, or condominiums. Pecuniary loss does not include pain and suffering or property loss or damage.

(i) "Replacement services loss" means expenses reasonably incurred in obtaining ordinary and necessary services in lieu of those the injured person would have performed, not for income, but for the benefit of himself or herself or his or her family, if he or she had not been injured.

(j) "Dependents replacement services loss" means loss reasonably incurred by dependents or private legal guardians of minor dependents after a victim's death in obtaining ordinary and necessary services in lieu of those the victim would have performed, not for income, but for their benefit, if he or she had not been fatally injured.

(k) "Survivor" means immediate family including a parent, step-father, step-mother, child, brother, sister, or spouse.

(l) "Parent" means a natural parent, adopted parent, step-parent, or permanent legal guardian of another person.

(Source: P.A. 96-267, eff. 8-11-09; 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 980, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1090, eff. 7-1-11; 97-817, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(740 ILCS 45/6.1) (from Ch. 70, par. 76.1)

Sec. 6.1. Right to compensation. A person is entitled to compensation under this Act if:

(a) Within 2 years of the occurrence of the crime, or within one year after a criminal charge of a person for an offense, upon which the claim is based, he files an application, under oath, with the Court of Claims and on a form prescribed in accordance with Section 7.1 furnished by the Attorney General. If the person entitled to compensation is under 18 years of age or under other legal disability at the time of the occurrence or becomes legally disabled as a result of the occurrence, he may file the application required by this subsection within 2 years after he attains the age of 18 years or the disability is removed, as the case may be. Legal disability includes a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder.

(b) For all crimes of violence, except those listed in subsection (b-1) of this Section, the appropriate law enforcement officials were notified within 72 hours of the perpetration of the crime allegedly causing the death or injury to the victim or, in the event such notification was made more than 72 hours after the perpetration of the crime, the applicant establishes that such notice was timely under the circumstances.

(b-1) For victims of offenses defined in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the appropriate law enforcement officials were notified within 7 days of the perpetration of the crime allegedly causing death or injury to the victim or, in the event that the notification was made more than 7 days after the perpetration of the crime, the applicant establishes that the notice was timely under the circumstances. If the applicant or victim has obtained an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order, or has presented himself or herself to a hospital for sexual assault evidence collection and medical care, such action shall constitute appropriate notification under this subsection (b-1) or subsection (b) of this Section.

(c) The applicant has cooperated with law enforcement officials in the apprehension and prosecution of the assailant. If the applicant or victim has obtained an order of protection, a civil no contact order, or a stalking no contact order or has presented himself or herself to a hospital for sexual assault evidence collection and medical care, such action shall constitute cooperation under this subsection (c).

(d) The applicant is not the offender or an accomplice of the offender and the award would not unjustly benefit the offender or his accomplice.

(e) The injury to or death of the victim was not substantially attributable to his own wrongful act and was not substantially provoked by the victim.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-817, eff. 1-1-13.)

(740 ILCS 45/14.1) (from Ch. 70, par. 84.1)

Sec. 14.1. (a) Hearings shall be open to the public unless the Court of Claims determines that a closed hearing should be held because:

(1) the alleged assailant has not been brought to trial and a public hearing would adversely affect either his apprehension or his trial;

(2) the offense allegedly perpetrated against the victim is one defined in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 12-13, 12-14, or 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and the interests of the victim or of persons dependent on his support require that the public be excluded from the hearing;

(3) the victim or the alleged assailant is a minor; or

(4) the interests of justice would be frustrated, rather than furthered, if the hearing were open to the public.

(b) A transcript shall be kept of the hearings held before the Court of Claims. No part of the transcript of any hearing before the Court of Claims may be used for any purpose in a criminal proceeding except in the prosecution of a person alleged to have perjured himself in his testimony before the Court of Claims. A copy of the transcript may be furnished to the applicant upon his written request to the court reporter, accompanied by payment of a charge established by the Court of Claims in accordance with the prevailing commercial charge for a duplicate transcript. Where the interests of justice require, the Court of Claims may refuse to disclose the names of victims or other material in the transcript by which the identity of the victim could be discovered.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 725. The Insurance Claims Fraud Prevention Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 45 as follows:

(740 ILCS 92/5)

Sec. 5. Patient and client procurement.

(a) Except as otherwise permitted or authorized by law, it is unlawful to knowingly offer or pay any remuneration directly or indirectly, in cash or in kind, to induce any person to procure clients or patients to obtain services or benefits under a contract of insurance or that will be the basis for a claim against an insured person or the person's insurer. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to affect any contracts or arrangements between or among insuring entities including health maintenance organizations, health care professionals, or health care facilities which are hereby excluded.

(b) A person who violates any provision of this Act, Section 17-8.5 or Section 17-10.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Article 46 of the Criminal Code of 1961 shall be subject, in addition to any other penalties that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not less than $5,000 nor more than $10,000, plus an assessment of not more than 3 times the amount of each claim for compensation under a contract of insurance. The court shall have the power to grant other equitable relief, including temporary injunctive relief, as is necessary to prevent the transfer, concealment, or dissipation of illegal proceeds, or to protect the public. The penalty prescribed in this subsection shall be assessed for each fraudulent claim upon a person in which the defendant participated.

(c) The penalties set forth in subsection (b) are intended to be remedial rather than punitive, and shall not preclude, nor be precluded by, a criminal prosecution for the same conduct. If the court finds, after considering the goals of disgorging unlawful profit, restitution, compensating the State for the costs of investigation and prosecution, and alleviating the social costs of increased insurance rates due to fraud, that such a penalty would be punitive and would preclude, or be precluded by, a criminal prosecution, the court shall reduce that penalty appropriately.

(Source: P.A. 92-233, eff. 1-1-02.)

(740 ILCS 92/45)

Sec. 45. Time limitations.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), an action pursuant to this Act may not be filed more than 3 years after the discovery of the facts constituting the grounds for commencing the action.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a), an action may be filed pursuant to this Act within not more than 8 years after the commission of an act constituting a violation of this Act, Section 17-8.5 or Section 17-10.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a violation of Article 46 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(Source: P.A. 92-233, eff. 1-1-02.)

Section 730. The Interference With Utility Services Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(740 ILCS 95/4) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1504)

Sec. 4. The rebuttable presumption provided in subsection (c) of Section 16-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 prior to its repeal by Public Act 97-597 (effective January 1, 2012) , as now or hereafter amended, shall be fully applicable to all causes of actions brought pursuant to this Act. The presumption provided shall only shift the burden of going forward with evidence, and shall in no event shift the burden of proof to the defendant. Any evidence of a judgment entered based on a finding of guilt, plea of guilty or stipulation of guilt in a criminal cause of action brought pursuant to Section 16-14 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as now or hereafter amended, shall be admissible in any civil action brought pursuant to this Act to prove any fact essential to sustaining a judgment. The pendency of an appeal may be shown but does not affect the admissibility of evidence under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99.)

Section 735. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/12) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812)

Sec. 12. (a) If the United States Secret Service or the Department of State Police requests information from a mental health or developmental disability facility, as defined in Section 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, relating to a specific recipient and the facility director determines that disclosure of such information may be necessary to protect the life of, or to prevent the infliction of great bodily harm to, a public official, or a person under the protection of the United States Secret Service, only the following information may be disclosed: the recipient's name, address, and age and the date of any admission to or discharge from a facility; and any information which would indicate whether or not the recipient has a history of violence or presents a danger of violence to the person under protection. Any information so disclosed shall be used for investigative purposes only and shall not be publicly disseminated. Any person participating in good faith in the disclosure of such information in accordance with this provision shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, if such information is disclosed relying upon the representation of an officer of the United States Secret Service or the Department of State Police that a person is under the protection of the United States Secret Service or is a public official.

For the purpose of this subsection (a), the term "public official" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller, State Treasurer, member of the General Assembly, member of the United States Congress, Judge of the United States as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451, Justice of the United States as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451, United States Magistrate Judge as defined in 28 U.S.C. 639, Bankruptcy Judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 152, or Supreme, Appellate, Circuit, or Associate Judge of the State of Illinois. The term shall also include the spouse, child or children of a public official.

(b) The Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) and all public or private hospitals and mental health facilities are required, as hereafter described in this subsection, to furnish the Department of State Police only such information as may be required for the sole purpose of determining whether an individual who may be or may have been a patient is disqualified because of that status from receiving or retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under subsection (e) or (f) of Section 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n). All public or private hospitals and mental health facilities shall, in the form and manner required by the Department, provide such information as shall be necessary for the Department to comply with the reporting requirements to the Department of State Police. Such information shall be furnished within 7 days after admission to a public or private hospital or mental health facility or the provision of services to a patient described in clause (2) of this subsection (b). Any such information disclosed under this subsection shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required by clause (e)(2) of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor utilized for any other purpose. The method of requiring the providing of such information shall guarantee that no information is released beyond what is necessary for this purpose. In addition, the information disclosed shall be provided by the Department within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 regarding the delivery of firearms. The method used shall be sufficient to provide the necessary information within the prescribed time period, which may include periodically providing lists to the Department of Human Services or any public or private hospital or mental health facility of Firearm Owner's Identification Card applicants on which the Department or hospital shall indicate the identities of those individuals who are to its knowledge disqualified from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card for reasons described herein. The Department may provide for a centralized source of information for the State on this subject under its jurisdiction.

Any person, institution, or agency, under this Act, participating in good faith in the reporting or disclosure of records and communications otherwise in accordance with this provision or with rules, regulations or guidelines issued by the Department shall have immunity from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the action. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal, arising out of a report or disclosure in accordance with this provision, the good faith of any person, institution, or agency so reporting or disclosing shall be presumed. The full extent of the immunity provided in this subsection (b) shall apply to any person, institution or agency that fails to make a report or disclosure in the good faith belief that the report or disclosure would violate federal regulations governing the confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records implementing 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and 290ee-3.

For purposes of this subsection (b) only, the following terms shall have the meaning prescribed:

(1) "Hospital" means only that type of institution which is providing full-time residential facilities and treatment.

(2) "Patient" shall include only: (i) a person who is an in-patient or resident of any public or private hospital or mental health facility or (ii) a person who is an out-patient or provided services by a public or private hospital or mental health facility whose mental condition is of such a nature that it is manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening, or assaultive behavior or reported behavior, for which there is a reasonable belief by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner that the condition poses a clear and present or imminent danger to the patient, any other person or the community meaning the patient's condition poses a clear and present danger in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The terms physician, clinical psychologist, and qualified examiner are defined in Sections 1-120, 1-103, and 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(3) "Mental health facility" is defined by Section 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(c) Upon the request of a peace officer who takes a person into custody and transports such person to a mental health or developmental disability facility pursuant to Section 3-606 or 4-404 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or who transports a person from such facility, a facility director shall furnish said peace officer the name, address, age and name of the nearest relative of the person transported to or from the mental health or developmental disability facility. In no case shall the facility director disclose to the peace officer any information relating to the diagnosis, treatment or evaluation of the person's mental or physical health.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), the terms "mental health or developmental disability facility", "peace officer" and "facility director" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(d) Upon the request of a peace officer or prosecuting authority who is conducting a bona fide investigation of a criminal offense, or attempting to apprehend a fugitive from justice, a facility director may disclose whether a person is present at the facility. Upon request of a peace officer or prosecuting authority who has a valid forcible felony warrant issued, a facility director shall disclose: (1) whether the person who is the subject of the warrant is present at the facility and (2) the date of that person's discharge or future discharge from the facility. The requesting peace officer or prosecuting authority must furnish a case number and the purpose of the investigation or an outstanding arrest warrant at the time of the request. Any person, institution, or agency participating in good faith in disclosing such information in accordance with this subsection (d) is immune from any liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the action.

(Source: P.A. 95-564, eff. 6-1-08; 96-193, eff. 8-10-09.)

Section 740. The Parental Responsibility Law is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(740 ILCS 115/3) (from Ch. 70, par. 53)

Sec. 3. Liability. The parent or legal guardian of an unemancipated minor who resides with such parent or legal guardian is liable for actual damages for the wilful or malicious acts of such minor which cause injury to a person or property, including damages caused by a minor who has been adjudicated a delinquent for violating Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. Reasonable attorney's fees may be awarded to any plaintiff in any action under this Act. If the plaintiff is a governmental unit, reasonable attorney's fees may be awarded up to $15,000.

The changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly apply to causes of action accruing on or after its effective date.

(Source: P.A. 95-914, eff. 1-1-09.)

Section 745. The Police Search Cost Recovery Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(740 ILCS 125/1) (from Ch. 70, par. 851)

Sec. 1. (a) When any governmental unit in this State has expended resources in a search for any person over the age of 18 who has been reported as missing, a cause of action exists against the person reported missing in favor of the governmental unit or units conducting a police search to recover amounts reasonably expended by the governmental unit or units where:

(1) Such person knew or should have known that a police search for him was in progress;

(2) Such person was not prevented by any other person from informing the police agency searching for him of his whereabouts and that he was not in danger, or from informing another person who could so inform the police agency; and

(3) Such person failed, without good cause, to inform such police agency or another person who could inform such police agency that a search was not necessary.

(b) When any governmental unit in this State has expended resources in a search for a noncustodial parent who conceals, detains or removes a child under the age of 18 from jurisdiction of the court in violation of a court order or without the consent of the lawful custodian of the child and in search of that child, who has been reported as missing, a cause of action exists against the noncustodial parent in favor of the governmental unit or units conducting a police search to recover amounts reasonably expended by the governmental unit or units. For purposes of subsection (b), "detains" and "lawful custodian" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(c) The causes of action under subsections (a) and (b) shall lie for all amounts reasonably expended in the search and any amounts expended in the enforcement of the actions, including reasonable attorney's fees, litigation expenses, and court costs. Punitive damages shall not be awarded.

(Source: P.A. 86-423; 87-1027.)

Section 750. The Predator Accountability Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 15, and 30 as follows:

(740 ILCS 128/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Sex trade" means any act, which if proven beyond a reasonable doubt could support a conviction for a violation or attempted violation of any of the following Sections of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: 11-14.3 (promoting prostitution); 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution); 11-15 (soliciting for a prostitute); 11-15.1 (soliciting for a juvenile prostitute); 11-16 (pandering); 11-17 (keeping a place of prostitution); 11-17.1 (keeping a place of juvenile prostitution); 11-19 (pimping); 11-19.1 (juvenile pimping and aggravated juvenile pimping); 11-19.2 (exploitation of a child); 11-20 (obscenity); 11-20.1 (child pornography); or 11-20.1B or 11-20.3 (aggravated child pornography); or Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 (trafficking in persons and involuntary servitude).

"Sex trade" activity may involve adults and youth of all genders and sexual orientations.

"Victim of the sex trade" means, for the following sex trade acts, the person or persons indicated:

(1) soliciting for a prostitute: the prostitute who is the object of the solicitation;

(2) soliciting for a juvenile prostitute: the juvenile prostitute, or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, who is the object of the solicitation;

(3) promoting prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(2)(A) or (a)(2)(B) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or pandering: the person intended or compelled to act as a prostitute;

(4) keeping a place of prostitution: any person intended or compelled to act as a prostitute, while present at the place, during the time period in question;

(5) keeping a place of juvenile prostitution: any juvenile intended or compelled to act as a prostitute, while present at the place, during the time period in question;

(6) promoting prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or pimping: the prostitute from whom anything of value is received;

(7) promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(2) or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or juvenile pimping and aggravated juvenile pimping: the juvenile, or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, from whom anything of value is received for that person's act of prostitution;

(8) promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or exploitation of a child: the juvenile, or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, intended or compelled to act as a prostitute or from whom anything of value is received for that person's act of prostitution;

(9) obscenity: any person who appears in or is described or depicted in the offending conduct or material;

(10) child pornography or aggravated child pornography: any child, or severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, who appears in or is described or depicted in the offending conduct or material; or

(11) trafficking of persons or involuntary servitude: a "trafficking victim" as defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(740 ILCS 128/15)

Sec. 15. Cause of action.

(a) Violations of this Act are actionable in civil court.

(b) A victim of the sex trade has a cause of action against a person or entity who:

(1) recruits, profits from, or maintains the victim in any sex trade act;

(2) intentionally abuses, as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, or causes bodily harm, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, to the victim in any sex trade act; or

(3) knowingly advertises or publishes advertisements for purposes of recruitment into sex trade activity.

(c) This Section shall not be construed to create liability to any person or entity who provides goods or services to the general public, who also provides those goods or services to persons who would be liable under subsection (b) of this Section, absent a showing that the person or entity either:

(1) knowingly markets or provides its goods or services primarily to persons or entities liable under subsection (b) of this Section;

(2) knowingly receives a higher level of compensation from persons or entities liable under subsection (b) of this Section than it generally receives from customers; or

(3) supervises or exercises control over persons or entities liable under subsection (b) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(740 ILCS 128/30)

Sec. 30. Evidence. Related to a cause of action under this Act, the fact that a plaintiff or other witness has testified under oath or given evidence relating to an act that may be a violation of any provision of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall not be construed to require the State's Attorney to criminally charge any person for such violation.

(Source: P.A. 94-998, eff. 7-3-06.)

Section 755. The Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 40, and 45 as follows:

(740 ILCS 147/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions.

"Course or pattern of criminal activity" means 2 or more gang-related criminal offenses committed in whole or in part within this State when:

(1) at least one such offense was committed after the effective date of this Act;

(2) both offenses were committed within 5 years of each other; and

(3) at least one offense involved the solicitation to commit, conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or commission of any offense defined as a felony or forcible felony under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Course or pattern of criminal activity" also means one or more acts of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if the defacement includes a sign or other symbol intended to identify the streetgang.

"Designee of State's Attorney" or "designee" means any attorney for a public authority who has received written permission from the State's Attorney to file or join in a civil action authorized by this Act.

"Public authority" means any unit of local government or school district created or established under the Constitution or laws of this State.

"State's Attorney" means the State's Attorney of any county where an offense constituting a part of a course or pattern of gang-related criminal activity has occurred or has been committed.

"Streetgang" or "gang" or "organized gang" or "criminal street gang" means any combination, confederation, alliance, network, conspiracy, understanding, or other similar conjoining, in law or in fact, of 3 or more persons with an established hierarchy that, through its membership or through the agency of any member engages in a course or pattern of criminal activity.

For purposes of this Act, it shall not be necessary to show that a particular conspiracy, combination, or conjoining of persons possesses, acknowledges, or is known by any common name, insignia, flag, means of recognition, secret signal or code, creed, belief, structure, leadership or command structure, method of operation or criminal enterprise, concentration or specialty, membership, age, or other qualifications, initiation rites, geographical or territorial situs or boundary or location, or other unifying mark, manner, protocol or method of expressing or indicating membership when the conspiracy's existence, in law or in fact, can be demonstrated by a preponderance of other competent evidence. However, any evidence reasonably tending to show or demonstrate, in law or in fact, the existence of or membership in any conspiracy, confederation, or other association described herein, or probative of the existence of or membership in any such association, shall be admissible in any action or proceeding brought under this Act.

"Streetgang member" or "gang member" means any person who actually and in fact belongs to a gang, and any person who knowingly acts in the capacity of an agent for or accessory to, or is legally accountable for, or voluntarily associates himself with a course or pattern of gang-related criminal activity, whether in a preparatory, executory, or cover-up phase of any activity, or who knowingly performs, aids, or abets any such activity.

"Streetgang related" or "gang-related" means any criminal activity, enterprise, pursuit, or undertaking directed by, ordered by, authorized by, consented to, agreed to, requested by, acquiesced in, or ratified by any gang leader, officer, or governing or policy-making person or authority, or by any agent, representative, or deputy of any such officer, person, or authority:

(1) with the intent to increase the gang's size, membership, prestige, dominance, or control in any geographical area; or

(2) with the intent to provide the gang with any advantage in, or any control or dominance over any criminal market sector, including but not limited to, the manufacture, delivery, or sale of controlled substances or cannabis; arson or arson-for-hire; traffic in stolen property or stolen credit cards; traffic in prostitution, obscenity, or pornography; or that involves robbery, burglary, or theft; or

(3) with the intent to exact revenge or retribution for the gang or any member of the gang; or

(4) with the intent to obstruct justice, or intimidate or eliminate any witness against the gang or any member of the gang; or

(5) with the intent to otherwise directly or indirectly cause any benefit, aggrandizement, gain, profit or other advantage whatsoever to or for the gang, its reputation, influence, or membership.

(Source: P.A. 93-337, eff. 1-1-04.)

(740 ILCS 147/40)

Sec. 40. Contraband.

(a) The following are declared to be contraband and no person shall have a property interest in them:

(1) any property that is directly or indirectly used or intended for use in any manner to facilitate streetgang related activity; and

(2) any property constituting or derived from gross profits or other proceeds obtained from streetgang related activity.

(b) Within 60 days of the date of the seizure of contraband under this Section, the State's Attorney shall initiate forfeiture proceedings as provided in Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. An owner or person who has a lien on the property may establish as a defense to the forfeiture of property that is subject to forfeiture under this Section that the owner or lienholder had no knowledge that the property was acquired through a pattern of streetgang related activity. Property that is forfeited under this Section shall be disposed of as provided in Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 for the forfeiture of vehicles, vessels, and aircraft. The proceeds of the disposition shall be paid to the Gang Violence Victims and Witnesses Fund to be used to assist in the prosecution of gang crimes.

(Source: P.A. 91-876, eff. 1-1-01.)

(740 ILCS 147/45)

Sec. 45. Abatement as public nuisance.

(a) Any real property that is erected, established, maintained, owned, leased, or used by any streetgang for the purpose of conducting streetgang related activity constitutes a public nuisance and may be abated as provided in Article 37 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 relating to public nuisances.

(b) An action to abate a nuisance under this Section may be brought by the State's Attorney of the county where the seizure occurred.

(c) Any person who is injured by reason of streetgang related activity shall have a cause of action for 3 times the actual damages sustained and, if appropriate, punitive damages; however, no cause of action shall arise under this subsection (c) as a result of an otherwise legitimate commercial transaction between parties to a contract or agreement for the sale of lawful goods or property or the sale of securities regulated by the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 or by the federal Securities and Exchange Commission. The person shall also recover reasonable attorney's fees, costs, and expenses.

(Source: P.A. 91-876, eff. 1-1-01.)

Section 757. The Federal Law Enforcement Officer Immunity Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(745 ILCS 22/10)

Sec. 10. Immunity. A federal law enforcement officer while acting as a peace officer under Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 is not liable for his or her act or omission in the execution or enforcement of any law unless the act or omission constitutes wilful and wanton conduct.

(Source: P.A. 88-677, eff. 12-15-94.)

Section 760. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Sections 503, 601, 607, and 607.1 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/503) (from Ch. 40, par. 503)

Sec. 503. Disposition of property.

(a) For purposes of this Act, "marital property" means all property acquired by either spouse subsequent to the marriage, except the following, which is known as "non-marital property":

(1) property acquired by gift, legacy or descent;

(2) property acquired in exchange for property acquired before the marriage or in exchange for property acquired by gift, legacy or descent;

(3) property acquired by a spouse after a judgment of legal separation;

(4) property excluded by valid agreement of the parties;

(5) any judgment or property obtained by judgment awarded to a spouse from the other spouse;

(6) property acquired before the marriage;

(7) the increase in value of property acquired by a method listed in paragraphs (1) through (6) of this subsection, irrespective of whether the increase results from a contribution of marital property, non-marital property, the personal effort of a spouse, or otherwise, subject to the right of reimbursement provided in subsection (c) of this Section; and

(8) income from property acquired by a method listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of this subsection if the income is not attributable to the personal effort of a spouse.

(b)(1) For purposes of distribution of property pursuant to this Section, all property acquired by either spouse after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage, including non-marital property transferred into some form of co-ownership between the spouses, is presumed to be marital property, regardless of whether title is held individually or by the spouses in some form of co-ownership such as joint tenancy, tenancy in common, tenancy by the entirety, or community property. The presumption of marital property is overcome by a showing that the property was acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) For purposes of distribution of property pursuant to this Section, all pension benefits (including pension benefits under the Illinois Pension Code) acquired by either spouse after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of the marriage are presumed to be marital property, regardless of which spouse participates in the pension plan. The presumption that these pension benefits are marital property is overcome by a showing that the pension benefits were acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section. The right to a division of pension benefits in just proportions under this Section is enforceable under Section 1-119 of the Illinois Pension Code.

The value of pension benefits in a retirement system subject to the Illinois Pension Code shall be determined in accordance with the valuation procedures established by the retirement system.

The recognition of pension benefits as marital property and the division of those benefits pursuant to a Qualified Illinois Domestic Relations Order shall not be deemed to be a diminishment, alienation, or impairment of those benefits. The division of pension benefits is an allocation of property in which each spouse has a species of common ownership.

(3) For purposes of distribution of property under this Section, all stock options granted to either spouse after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage, whether vested or non-vested or whether their value is ascertainable, are presumed to be marital property. This presumption of marital property is overcome by a showing that the stock options were acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section. The court shall allocate stock options between the parties at the time of the judgment of dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage recognizing that the value of the stock options may not be then determinable and that the actual division of the options may not occur until a future date. In making the allocation between the parties, the court shall consider, in addition to the factors set forth in subsection (d) of this Section, the following:

(i) All circumstances underlying the grant of the stock option including but not limited to whether the grant was for past, present, or future efforts, or any combination thereof.

(ii) The length of time from the grant of the option to the time the option is exercisable.

(b-5) As to any policy of life insurance insuring the life of either spouse, or any interest in such policy, that constitutes marital property, whether whole life, term life, group term life, universal life, or other form of life insurance policy, and whether or not the value is ascertainable, the court shall allocate ownership, death benefits or the right to assign death benefits, and the obligation for premium payments, if any, equitably between the parties at the time of the judgment for dissolution or declaration of invalidity of marriage.

(c) Commingled marital and non-marital property shall be treated in the following manner, unless otherwise agreed by the spouses:

(1) When marital and non-marital property are commingled by contributing one estate of property into another resulting in a loss of identity of the contributed property, the classification of the contributed property is transmuted to the estate receiving the contribution, subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of this subsection; provided that if marital and non-marital property are commingled into newly acquired property resulting in a loss of identity of the contributing estates, the commingled property shall be deemed transmuted to marital property, subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(2) When one estate of property makes a contribution to another estate of property, or when a spouse contributes personal effort to non-marital property, the contributing estate shall be reimbursed from the estate receiving the contribution notwithstanding any transmutation; provided, that no such reimbursement shall be made with respect to a contribution which is not retraceable by clear and convincing evidence, or was a gift, or, in the case of a contribution of personal effort of a spouse to non-marital property, unless the effort is significant and results in substantial appreciation of the non-marital property. Personal effort of a spouse shall be deemed a contribution by the marital estate. The court may provide for reimbursement out of the marital property to be divided or by imposing a lien against the non-marital property which received the contribution.

(d) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage, or in a proceeding for disposition of property following dissolution of marriage by a court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse or lacked jurisdiction to dispose of the property, the court shall assign each spouse's non-marital property to that spouse. It also shall divide the marital property without regard to marital misconduct in just proportions considering all relevant factors, including:

(1) the contribution of each party to the acquisition, preservation, or increase or decrease in value of the marital or non-marital property, including (i) any such decrease attributable to a payment deemed to have been an advance from the parties' marital estate under subsection (c-1)(2) of Section 501 and (ii) the contribution of a spouse as a homemaker or to the family unit;

(2) the dissipation by each party of the marital or non-marital property, provided that a party's claim of dissipation is subject to the following conditions:

(i) a notice of intent to claim dissipation shall be given no later than 60 days before trial or 30 days after discovery closes, whichever is later;

(ii) the notice of intent to claim dissipation shall contain, at a minimum, a date or period of time during which the marriage began undergoing an irretrievable breakdown, an identification of the property dissipated, and a date or period of time during which the dissipation occurred;

(iii) the notice of intent to claim dissipation shall be filed with the clerk of the court and be served pursuant to applicable rules;

(iv) no dissipation shall be deemed to have occurred prior to 5 years before the filing of the petition for dissolution of marriage, or 3 years after the party claiming dissipation knew or should have known of the dissipation;

(3) the value of the property assigned to each spouse;

(4) the duration of the marriage;

(5) the relevant economic circumstances of each spouse when the division of property is to become effective, including the desirability of awarding the family home, or the right to live therein for reasonable periods, to the spouse having custody of the children;

(6) any obligations and rights arising from a prior marriage of either party;

(7) any antenuptial agreement of the parties;

(8) the age, health, station, occupation, amount and sources of income, vocational skills, employability, estate, liabilities, and needs of each of the parties;

(9) the custodial provisions for any children;

(10) whether the apportionment is in lieu of or in addition to maintenance;

(11) the reasonable opportunity of each spouse for future acquisition of capital assets and income; and

(12) the tax consequences of the property division upon the respective economic circumstances of the parties.

(e) Each spouse has a species of common ownership in the marital property which vests at the time dissolution proceedings are commenced and continues only during the pendency of the action. Any such interest in marital property shall not encumber that property so as to restrict its transfer, assignment or conveyance by the title holder unless such title holder is specifically enjoined from making such transfer, assignment or conveyance.

(f) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage or in a proceeding for disposition of property following dissolution of marriage by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse or lacked jurisdiction to dispose of the property, the court, in determining the value of the marital and non-marital property for purposes of dividing the property, shall value the property as of the date of trial or some other date as close to the date of trial as is practicable.

(g) The court if necessary to protect and promote the best interests of the children may set aside a portion of the jointly or separately held estates of the parties in a separate fund or trust for the support, maintenance, education, physical and mental health, and general welfare of any minor, dependent, or incompetent child of the parties. In making a determination under this subsection, the court may consider, among other things, the conviction of a party of any of the offenses set forth in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the victim is a child of one or both of the parties, and there is a need for, and cost of, care, healing and counseling for the child who is the victim of the crime.

(h) Unless specifically directed by a reviewing court, or upon good cause shown, the court shall not on remand consider any increase or decrease in the value of any "marital" or "non-marital" property occurring since the assessment of such property at the original trial or hearing, but shall use only that assessment made at the original trial or hearing.

(i) The court may make such judgments affecting the marital property as may be just and may enforce such judgments by ordering a sale of marital property, with proceeds therefrom to be applied as determined by the court.

(j) After proofs have closed in the final hearing on all other issues between the parties (or in conjunction with the final hearing, if all parties so stipulate) and before judgment is entered, a party's petition for contribution to fees and costs incurred in the proceeding shall be heard and decided, in accordance with the following provisions:

(1) A petition for contribution, if not filed before the final hearing on other issues between the parties, shall be filed no later than 30 days after the closing of proofs in the final hearing or within such other period as the court orders.

(2) Any award of contribution to one party from the other party shall be based on the criteria for division of marital property under this Section 503 and, if maintenance has been awarded, on the criteria for an award of maintenance under Section 504.

(3) The filing of a petition for contribution shall not be deemed to constitute a waiver of the attorney-client privilege between the petitioning party and current or former counsel; and such a waiver shall not constitute a prerequisite to a hearing for contribution. If either party's presentation on contribution, however, includes evidence within the scope of the attorney-client privilege, the disclosure or disclosures shall be narrowly construed and shall not be deemed by the court to constitute a general waiver of the privilege as to matters beyond the scope of the presentation.

(4) No finding on which a contribution award is based or denied shall be asserted against counsel or former counsel for purposes of any hearing under subsection (c) or (e) of Section 508.

(5) A contribution award (payable to either the petitioning party or the party's counsel, or jointly, as the court determines) may be in the form of either a set dollar amount or a percentage of fees and costs (or a portion of fees and costs) to be subsequently agreed upon by the petitioning party and counsel or, alternatively, thereafter determined in a hearing pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 508 or previously or thereafter determined in an independent proceeding under subsection (e) of Section 508.

(6) The changes to this Section 503 made by this amendatory Act of 1996 apply to cases pending on or after June 1, 1997, except as otherwise provided in Section 508.

The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly apply only to petitions for dissolution of marriage filed on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-583, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 985, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1100, eff. 7-1-11; 97-608, eff. 1-1-12; 97-941, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(750 ILCS 5/601) (from Ch. 40, par. 601)

Sec. 601. Jurisdiction; Commencement of Proceeding.

(a) A court of this State competent to decide child custody matters has jurisdiction to make a child custody determination in original or modification proceedings as provided in Section 201 of the Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act as adopted by this State.

(b) A child custody proceeding is commenced in the court:

(1) by a parent, by filing a petition:

(i) for dissolution of marriage or legal separation or declaration of invalidity of marriage; or

(ii) for custody of the child, in the county in which he is permanently resident or found;

(2) by a person other than a parent, by filing a petition for custody of the child in the county in which he is permanently resident or found, but only if he is not in the physical custody of one of his parents; or

(3) by a stepparent, by filing a petition, if all of the following circumstances are met:

(A) the child is at least 12 years old;

(B) the custodial parent and stepparent were married for at least 5 years during which the child resided with the parent and stepparent;

(C) the custodial parent is deceased or is disabled and cannot perform the duties of a parent to the child;

(D) the stepparent provided for the care, control, and welfare to the child prior to the initiation of custody proceedings;

(E) the child wishes to live with the stepparent; and

(F) it is alleged to be in the best interests and welfare of the child to live with the stepparent as provided in Section 602 of this Act.

(4) When one of the parents is deceased, by a grandparent who is a parent or stepparent of a deceased parent, by filing a petition, if one or more of the following existed at the time of the parent's death:

(A) the surviving parent had been absent from the marital abode for more than one month without the deceased spouse knowing his or her whereabouts;

(B) the surviving parent was in State or federal custody; or

(C) the surviving parent had: (i) received supervision for or been convicted of any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-1.70, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-35, 12C-40, 12C-45, 18-6, 19-6, or Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 directed towards the deceased parent or the child; or (ii) received supervision or been convicted of violating an order of protection entered under Section 217, 218, or 219 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 for the protection of the deceased parent or the child.

(c) Notice of a child custody proceeding, including an action for modification of a previous custody order, shall be given to the child's parents, guardian and custodian, who may appear, be heard, and file a responsive pleading. The court, upon showing of good cause, may permit intervention of other interested parties.

(d) Proceedings for modification of a previous custody order commenced more than 30 days following the entry of a previous custody order must be initiated by serving a written notice and a copy of the petition for modification upon the child's parent, guardian and custodian at least 30 days prior to hearing on the petition. Nothing in this Section shall preclude a party in custody modification proceedings from moving for a temporary order under Section 603 of this Act.

(e) (Blank).

(f) The court shall, at the court's discretion or upon the request of any party entitled to petition for custody of the child, appoint a guardian ad litem to represent the best interest of the child for the duration of the custody proceeding or for any modifications of any custody orders entered. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the court from appointing the same guardian ad litem for 2 or more children that are siblings or half-siblings.

(Source: P.A. 93-108, eff. 1-1-04; 93-1026, eff. 1-1-05.)

(750 ILCS 5/607) (from Ch. 40, par. 607)

Sec. 607. Visitation.

(a) A parent not granted custody of the child is entitled to reasonable visitation rights unless the court finds, after a hearing, that visitation would endanger seriously the child's physical, mental, moral or emotional health. If the custodian's street address is not identified, pursuant to Section 708, the court shall require the parties to identify reasonable alternative arrangements for visitation by a non-custodial parent, including but not limited to visitation of the minor child at the residence of another person or at a local public or private facility.

(1) "Visitation" means in-person time spent between a child and the child's parent. In appropriate circumstances, it may include electronic communication under conditions and at times determined by the court.

(2) "Electronic communication" means time that a parent spends with his or her child during which the child is not in the parent's actual physical custody, but which is facilitated by the use of communication tools such as the telephone, electronic mail, instant messaging, video conferencing or other wired or wireless technologies via the Internet, or another medium of communication.

(a-3) Grandparents, great-grandparents, and siblings of a minor child, who is one year old or older, have standing to bring an action in circuit court by petition, requesting visitation in accordance with this Section. The term "sibling" in this Section means a brother, sister, stepbrother, or stepsister of the minor child. Grandparents, great-grandparents, and siblings also have standing to file a petition for visitation and any electronic communication rights in a pending dissolution proceeding or any other proceeding that involves custody or visitation issues, requesting visitation in accordance with this Section. A petition for visitation with a child by a person other than a parent must be filed in the county in which the child resides. Nothing in this subsection (a-3) and subsection (a-5) of this Section shall apply to a child in whose interests a petition is pending under Section 2-13 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or a petition to adopt an unrelated child is pending under the Adoption Act.

(a-5)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (a-5), any grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling may file a petition for visitation rights to a minor child if there is an unreasonable denial of visitation by a parent and at least one of the following conditions exists:

(A) (Blank);

(A-5) the child's other parent is deceased or has been missing for at least 3 months. For the purposes of this Section a parent is considered to be missing if the parent's location has not been determined and the parent has been reported as missing to a law enforcement agency;

(A-10) a parent of the child is incompetent as a matter of law;

(A-15) a parent has been incarcerated in jail or prison during the 3 month period preceding the filing of the petition;

(B) the child's mother and father are divorced or have been legally separated from each other or there is pending a dissolution proceeding involving a parent of the child or another court proceeding involving custody or visitation of the child (other than any adoption proceeding of an unrelated child) and at least one parent does not object to the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling having visitation with the child. The visitation of the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling must not diminish the visitation of the parent who is not related to the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling seeking visitation;

(C) (Blank);

(D) the child is born out of wedlock, the parents are not living together, and the petitioner is a maternal grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling of the child born out of wedlock; or

(E) the child is born out of wedlock, the parents are not living together, the petitioner is a paternal grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling, and the paternity has been established by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(2) Any visitation rights granted pursuant to this Section before the filing of a petition for adoption of a child shall automatically terminate by operation of law upon the entry of an order terminating parental rights or granting the adoption of the child, whichever is earlier. If the person or persons who adopted the child are related to the child, as defined by Section 1 of the Adoption Act, any person who was related to the child as grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling prior to the adoption shall have standing to bring an action pursuant to this Section requesting visitation with the child.

(3) In making a determination under this subsection (a-5), there is a rebuttable presumption that a fit parent's actions and decisions regarding grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling visitation are not harmful to the child's mental, physical, or emotional health. The burden is on the party filing a petition under this Section to prove that the parent's actions and decisions regarding visitation times are harmful to the child's mental, physical, or emotional health.

(4) In determining whether to grant visitation, the court shall consider the following:

(A) the preference of the child if the child is determined to be of sufficient maturity to express a preference;

(B) the mental and physical health of the child;

(C) the mental and physical health of the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling;

(D) the length and quality of the prior relationship between the child and the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling;

(E) the good faith of the party in filing the petition;

(F) the good faith of the person denying visitation;

(G) the quantity of the visitation time requested and the potential adverse impact that visitation would have on the child's customary activities;

(H) whether the child resided with the petitioner for at least 6 consecutive months with or without the current custodian present;

(I) whether the petitioner had frequent or regular contact or visitation with the child for at least 12 consecutive months;

(J) any other fact that establishes that the loss of the relationship between the petitioner and the child is likely to harm the child's mental, physical, or emotional health; and

(K) whether the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling was a primary caretaker of the child for a period of not less than 6 consecutive months.

(5) The court may order visitation rights for the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling that include reasonable access without requiring overnight or possessory visitation.

(a-7)(1) Unless by stipulation of the parties, no motion to modify a grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling visitation order may be made earlier than 2 years after the date the order was filed, unless the court permits it to be made on the basis of affidavits that there is reason to believe the child's present environment may endanger seriously the child's mental, physical, or emotional health.

(2) The court shall not modify an order that grants visitation to a grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling unless it finds by clear and convincing evidence, upon the basis of facts that have arisen since the prior visitation order or that were unknown to the court at the time of entry of the prior visitation, that a change has occurred in the circumstances of the child or his or her custodian, and that the modification is necessary to protect the mental, physical, or emotional health of the child. The court shall state in its decision specific findings of fact in support of its modification or termination of the grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling visitation. A child's parent may always petition to modify visitation upon changed circumstances when necessary to promote the child's best interest.

(3) Attorney fees and costs shall be assessed against a party seeking modification of the visitation order if the court finds that the modification action is vexatious and constitutes harassment.

(4) Notice under this subsection (a-7) shall be given as provided in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 601.

(b) (1) (Blank.)

(1.5) The Court may grant reasonable visitation privileges to a stepparent upon petition to the court by the stepparent, with notice to the parties required to be notified under Section 601 of this Act, if the court determines that it is in the best interests and welfare of the child, and may issue any necessary orders to enforce those visitation privileges. A petition for visitation privileges may be filed under this paragraph (1.5) whether or not a petition pursuant to this Act has been previously filed or is currently pending if the following circumstances are met:

(A) the child is at least 12 years old;

(B) the child resided continuously with the parent and stepparent for at least 5 years;

(C) the parent is deceased or is disabled and is unable to care for the child;

(D) the child wishes to have reasonable visitation with the stepparent; and

(E) the stepparent was providing for the care, control, and welfare to the child prior to the initiation of the petition for visitation.

(2)(A) A petition for visitation privileges shall not be filed pursuant to this subsection (b) by the parents or grandparents of a putative father if the paternity of the putative father has not been legally established.

(B) A petition for visitation privileges may not be filed under this subsection (b) if the child who is the subject of the grandparents' or great-grandparents' petition has been voluntarily surrendered by the parent or parents, except for a surrender to the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services or a foster care facility, or has been previously adopted by an individual or individuals who are not related to the biological parents of the child or is the subject of a pending adoption petition by an individual or individuals who are not related to the biological parents of the child.

(3) (Blank).

(c) The court may modify an order granting or denying visitation rights of a parent whenever modification would serve the best interest of the child; but the court shall not restrict a parent's visitation rights unless it finds that the visitation would endanger seriously the child's physical, mental, moral or emotional health.

(d) If any court has entered an order prohibiting a non-custodial parent of a child from any contact with a child or restricting the non-custodial parent's contact with the child, the following provisions shall apply:

(1) If an order has been entered granting visitation privileges with the child to a grandparent or great-grandparent who is related to the child through the non-custodial parent, the visitation privileges of the grandparent or great-grandparent may be revoked if:

(i) a court has entered an order prohibiting the non-custodial parent from any contact with the child, and the grandparent or great-grandparent is found to have used his or her visitation privileges to facilitate contact between the child and the non-custodial parent; or

(ii) a court has entered an order restricting the non-custodial parent's contact with the child, and the grandparent or great-grandparent is found to have used his or her visitation privileges to facilitate contact between the child and the non-custodial parent in a manner that violates the terms of the order restricting the non-custodial parent's contact with the child.

Nothing in this subdivision (1) limits the authority of the court to enforce its orders in any manner permitted by law.

(2) Any order granting visitation privileges with the child to a grandparent or great-grandparent who is related to the child through the non-custodial parent shall contain the following provision:

"If the (grandparent or great-grandparent, whichever is applicable) who has been granted visitation privileges under this order uses the visitation privileges to facilitate contact between the child and the child's non-custodial parent, the visitation privileges granted under this order shall be permanently revoked."

(e) No parent, not granted custody of the child, or grandparent, or great-grandparent, or stepparent, or sibling of any minor child, convicted of any offense involving an illegal sex act perpetrated upon a victim less than 18 years of age including but not limited to offenses for violations of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-1.70, or Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, is entitled to visitation rights while incarcerated or while on parole, probation, conditional discharge, periodic imprisonment, or mandatory supervised release for that offense, and upon discharge from incarceration for a misdemeanor offense or upon discharge from parole, probation, conditional discharge, periodic imprisonment, or mandatory supervised release for a felony offense, visitation shall be denied until the person successfully completes a treatment program approved by the court.

(f) Unless the court determines, after considering all relevant factors, including but not limited to those set forth in Section 602(a), that it would be in the best interests of the child to allow visitation, the court shall not enter an order providing visitation rights and pursuant to a motion to modify visitation shall revoke visitation rights previously granted to any person who would otherwise be entitled to petition for visitation rights under this Section who has been convicted of first degree murder of the parent, grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling of the child who is the subject of the order. Until an order is entered pursuant to this subsection, no person shall visit, with the child present, a person who has been convicted of first degree murder of the parent, grandparent, great-grandparent, or sibling of the child without the consent of the child's parent, other than a parent convicted of first degree murder as set forth herein, or legal guardian.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Upon motion, the court may allow a parent who is deployed or who has orders to be deployed as a member of the United States Armed Forces to designate a person known to the child to exercise reasonable substitute visitation on behalf of the deployed parent, if the court determines that substitute visitation is in the best interest of the child. In determining whether substitute visitation is in the best interest of the child, the court shall consider all of the relevant factors listed in subsection (a) of Section 602 and apply those factors to the person designated as a substitute for the deployed parent for visitation purposes.

(Source: P.A. 96-331, eff. 1-1-10; 97-659, eff. 6-1-12.)

(750 ILCS 5/607.1) (from Ch. 40, par. 607.1)

Sec. 607.1. Enforcement of visitation orders; visitation abuse.

(a) The circuit court shall provide an expedited procedure for enforcement of court ordered visitation in cases of visitation abuse. Visitation abuse occurs when a party has willfully and without justification: (1) denied another party visitation as set forth by the court; or (2) exercised his or her visitation rights in a manner that is harmful to the child or child's custodian.

(b) An Action may be commenced by filing a petition setting forth: (i) the petitioner's name, residence address or mailing address, and telephone number; (ii) respondent's name and place of residence, place of employment, or mailing address; (iii) the nature of the visitation abuse, giving dates and other relevant information; (iv) that a reasonable attempt was made to resolve the dispute; and (v) the relief sought.

Notice of the filing of the petitions shall be given as provided in Section 511.

(c) After hearing all of the evidence, the court may order one or more of the following:

(1) Modification of the visitation order to specifically outline periods of visitation or restrict visitation as provided by law.

(2) Supervised visitation with a third party or public agency.

(3) Make up visitation of the same time period, such as weekend for weekend, holiday for holiday.

(4) Counseling or mediation, except in cases where there is evidence of domestic violence, as defined in Section 1 of the Domestic Violence Shelters Act, occurring between the parties.

(5) Other appropriate relief deemed equitable.

(c-1) When the court issues an order holding a party in contempt for violation of a visitation order and finds that the party engaged in visitation abuse, the court may order one or more of the following:

(1) Suspension of a party's Illinois driving privileges pursuant to Section 7-703 of the Illinois Vehicle Code until the court determines that the party is in compliance with the visitation order. The court may also order that a party be issued a family financial responsibility driving permit that would allow limited driving privileges for employment, for medical purposes, and to transport a child to or from scheduled visitation in order to comply with a visitation order in accordance with subsection (a-1) of Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(2) Placement of a party on probation with such conditions of probation as the court deems advisable.

(3) Sentencing of a party to periodic imprisonment for a period not to exceed 6 months; provided, that the court may permit the party to be released for periods of time during the day or night to:

(A) work; or

(B) conduct a business or other self-employed occupation.

(4) Find that a party in engaging in visitation abuse is guilty of a petty offense and should be fined an amount of no more than $500 for each finding of visitation abuse.

(d) Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to limit the court's contempt power, except as provided in subsection (g) of this Section.

(e) When the court issues an order holding a party in contempt of court for violation of a visitation order, the clerk shall transmit a copy of the contempt order to the sheriff of the county. The sheriff shall furnish a copy of each contempt order to the Department of State Police on a daily basis in the form and manner required by the Department. The Department shall maintain a complete record and index of the contempt orders and make this data available to all local law enforcement agencies.

(f) Attorney fees and costs shall be assessed against a party if the court finds that the enforcement action is vexatious and constitutes harassment.

(g) A person convicted of unlawful visitation or parenting time interference under Section 10-5.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall not be subject to the provisions of this Section and the court may not enter a contempt order for visitation abuse against any person for the same conduct for which the person was convicted of unlawful visitation interference or subject that person to the sanctions provided for in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-333, eff. 8-11-09; 96-675, eff. 8-25-09; 97-1047, eff. 8-21-12.)

Section 765. The Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 is amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:

(750 ILCS 45/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Custody or visitation by sex offender prohibited.

(a) This Section applies to a person who has been found to be the father of a child under this Act and who has been convicted of or who has pled guilty or nolo contendere to a violation of Section 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.30 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.40 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), Section 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse), Section 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse), Section 11-11 (sexual relations within families), Section 12-13 (criminal sexual assault), Section 12-14 (aggravated criminal sexual assault), Section 12-14.1 (predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), Section 12-15 (criminal sexual abuse), or Section 12-16 (aggravated criminal sexual abuse) of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar statute in another jurisdiction, for his conduct in fathering that child.

(b) A person described in subsection (a) shall not be entitled to custody of or visitation with that child without the consent of the child's mother or guardian. If the person described in subsection (a) is also the guardian of the child, he does not have the authority to consent to visitation or custody under this Section. If the mother of the child is a minor, and the person described in subsection (a) is also the father or guardian of the mother, then he does not have the authority to consent to custody or visits.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, nothing in this Section shall be construed to relieve the father described in subsection (a) of any support and maintenance obligations to the child under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-568, eff. 8-25-11.)

Section 770. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 8, 12.1, and 14 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/1) (from Ch. 40, par. 1501)

Sec. 1. Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

A. "Child" means a person under legal age subject to adoption under this Act.

B. "Related child" means a child subject to adoption where either or both of the adopting parents stands in any of the following relationships to the child by blood or marriage: parent, grand-parent, brother, sister, step-parent, step-grandparent, step-brother, step-sister, uncle, aunt, great-uncle, great-aunt, or cousin of first degree. A child whose parent has executed a final irrevocable consent to adoption or a final irrevocable surrender for purposes of adoption, or whose parent has had his or her parental rights terminated, is not a related child to that person, unless the consent is determined to be void or is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10.

C. "Agency" for the purpose of this Act means a public child welfare agency or a licensed child welfare agency.

D. "Unfit person" means any person whom the court shall find to be unfit to have a child, without regard to the likelihood that the child will be placed for adoption. The grounds of unfitness are any one or more of the following, except that a person shall not be considered an unfit person for the sole reason that the person has relinquished a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act:

(a) Abandonment of the child.

(a-1) Abandonment of a newborn infant in a hospital.

(a-2) Abandonment of a newborn infant in any setting where the evidence suggests that the parent intended to relinquish his or her parental rights.

(b) Failure to maintain a reasonable degree of interest, concern or responsibility as to the child's welfare.

(c) Desertion of the child for more than 3 months next preceding the commencement of the Adoption proceeding.

(d) Substantial neglect of the child if continuous or repeated.

(d-1) Substantial neglect, if continuous or repeated, of any child residing in the household which resulted in the death of that child.

(e) Extreme or repeated cruelty to the child.

(f) There is a rebuttable presumption, which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence, that a parent is unfit if:

(1) Two or more findings of physical abuse have been entered regarding any children under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the most recent of which was determined by the juvenile court hearing the matter to be supported by clear and convincing evidence; or

(2) The parent has been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity and the conviction or finding resulted from the death of any child by physical abuse; or

(3) There is a finding of physical child abuse resulting from the death of any child under Section 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this item (f).

(g) Failure to protect the child from conditions within his environment injurious to the child's welfare.

(h) Other neglect of, or misconduct toward the child; provided that in making a finding of unfitness the court hearing the adoption proceeding shall not be bound by any previous finding, order or judgment affecting or determining the rights of the parents toward the child sought to be adopted in any other proceeding except such proceedings terminating parental rights as shall be had under either this Act, the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(i) Depravity. Conviction of any one of the following crimes shall create a presumption that a parent is depraved which can be overcome only by clear and convincing evidence: (1) first degree murder in violation of paragraph 1 or 2 of subsection (a) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or conviction of second degree murder in violation of subsection (a) of Section 9-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 of a parent of the child to be adopted; (2) first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (3) attempt or conspiracy to commit first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (4) solicitation to commit murder of any child, solicitation to commit murder of any child for hire, or solicitation to commit second degree murder of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (5) predatory criminal sexual assault of a child in violation of Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (6) heinous battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; or (7) aggravated battery of any child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if the parent has been criminally convicted of at least 3 felonies under the laws of this State or any other state, or under federal law, or the criminal laws of any United States territory; and at least one of these convictions took place within 5 years of the filing of the petition or motion seeking termination of parental rights.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is depraved if that parent has been criminally convicted of either first or second degree murder of any person as defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 within 10 years of the filing date of the petition or motion to terminate parental rights.

No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of applying any presumption under this item (i).

(j) Open and notorious adultery or fornication.

(j-1) (Blank).

(k) Habitual drunkenness or addiction to drugs, other than those prescribed by a physician, for at least one year immediately prior to the commencement of the unfitness proceeding.

There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is unfit under this subsection with respect to any child to which that parent gives birth where there is a confirmed test result that at birth the child's blood, urine, or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was not the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant; and the biological mother of this child is the biological mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) Failure to demonstrate a reasonable degree of interest, concern or responsibility as to the welfare of a new born child during the first 30 days after its birth.

(m) Failure by a parent (i) to make reasonable efforts to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent, or (ii) to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent within 9 months after an adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act, or (iii) to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent during any 9-month period after the end of the initial 9-month period following the adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act. If a service plan has been established as required under Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act to correct the conditions that were the basis for the removal of the child from the parent and if those services were available, then, for purposes of this Act, "failure to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child to the parent" includes (I) the parent's failure to substantially fulfill his or her obligations under the service plan and correct the conditions that brought the child into care within 9 months after the adjudication under Section 2-3 or 2-4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and (II) the parent's failure to substantially fulfill his or her obligations under the service plan and correct the conditions that brought the child into care during any 9-month period after the end of the initial 9-month period following the adjudication under Section 2-3 or 2-4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Notwithstanding any other provision, when a petition or motion seeks to terminate parental rights on the basis of item (iii) of this subsection (m), the petitioner shall file with the court and serve on the parties a pleading that specifies the 9-month period or periods relied on. The pleading shall be filed and served on the parties no later than 3 weeks before the date set by the court for closure of discovery, and the allegations in the pleading shall be treated as incorporated into the petition or motion. Failure of a respondent to file a written denial of the allegations in the pleading shall not be treated as an admission that the allegations are true.

(m-1) Pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, a child has been in foster care for 15 months out of any 22 month period which begins on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998 unless the child's parent can prove by a preponderance of the evidence that it is more likely than not that it will be in the best interests of the child to be returned to the parent within 6 months of the date on which a petition for termination of parental rights is filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The 15 month time limit is tolled during any period for which there is a court finding that the appointed custodian or guardian failed to make reasonable efforts to reunify the child with his or her family, provided that (i) the finding of no reasonable efforts is made within 60 days of the period when reasonable efforts were not made or (ii) the parent filed a motion requesting a finding of no reasonable efforts within 60 days of the period when reasonable efforts were not made. For purposes of this subdivision (m-1), the date of entering foster care is the earlier of: (i) the date of a judicial finding at an adjudicatory hearing that the child is an abused, neglected, or dependent minor; or (ii) 60 days after the date on which the child is removed from his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(n) Evidence of intent to forgo his or her parental rights, whether or not the child is a ward of the court, (1) as manifested by his or her failure for a period of 12 months: (i) to visit the child, (ii) to communicate with the child or agency, although able to do so and not prevented from doing so by an agency or by court order, or (iii) to maintain contact with or plan for the future of the child, although physically able to do so, or (2) as manifested by the father's failure, where he and the mother of the child were unmarried to each other at the time of the child's birth, (i) to commence legal proceedings to establish his paternity under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or the law of the jurisdiction of the child's birth within 30 days of being informed, pursuant to Section 12a of this Act, that he is the father or the likely father of the child or, after being so informed where the child is not yet born, within 30 days of the child's birth, or (ii) to make a good faith effort to pay a reasonable amount of the expenses related to the birth of the child and to provide a reasonable amount for the financial support of the child, the court to consider in its determination all relevant circumstances, including the financial condition of both parents; provided that the ground for termination provided in this subparagraph (n)(2)(ii) shall only be available where the petition is brought by the mother or the husband of the mother.

Contact or communication by a parent with his or her child that does not demonstrate affection and concern does not constitute reasonable contact and planning under subdivision (n). In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the ability to visit, communicate, maintain contact, pay expenses and plan for the future shall be presumed. The subjective intent of the parent, whether expressed or otherwise, unsupported by evidence of the foregoing parental acts manifesting that intent, shall not preclude a determination that the parent has intended to forgo his or her parental rights. In making this determination, the court may consider but shall not require a showing of diligent efforts by an authorized agency to encourage the parent to perform the acts specified in subdivision (n).

It shall be an affirmative defense to any allegation under paragraph (2) of this subsection that the father's failure was due to circumstances beyond his control or to impediments created by the mother or any other person having legal custody. Proof of that fact need only be by a preponderance of the evidence.

(o) Repeated or continuous failure by the parents, although physically and financially able, to provide the child with adequate food, clothing, or shelter.

(p) Inability to discharge parental responsibilities supported by competent evidence from a psychiatrist, licensed clinical social worker, or clinical psychologist of mental impairment, mental illness or an intellectual disability as defined in Section 1-116 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or developmental disability as defined in Section 1-106 of that Code, and there is sufficient justification to believe that the inability to discharge parental responsibilities shall extend beyond a reasonable time period. However, this subdivision (p) shall not be construed so as to permit a licensed clinical social worker to conduct any medical diagnosis to determine mental illness or mental impairment.

(q) (Blank).

(r) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated as a result of criminal conviction at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, prior to incarceration the parent had little or no contact with the child or provided little or no support for the child, and the parent's incarceration will prevent the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child for a period in excess of 2 years after the filing of the petition or motion for termination of parental rights.

(s) The child is in the temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services, the parent is incarcerated at the time the petition or motion for termination of parental rights is filed, the parent has been repeatedly incarcerated as a result of criminal convictions, and the parent's repeated incarceration has prevented the parent from discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the child.

(t) A finding that at birth the child's blood, urine, or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a metabolite of a controlled substance, with the exception of controlled substances or metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant, and that the biological mother of this child is the biological mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, after which the biological mother had the opportunity to enroll in and participate in a clinically appropriate substance abuse counseling, treatment, and rehabilitation program.

E. "Parent" means the father or mother of a lawful child of the parties or child born out of wedlock. For the purpose of this Act, a person who has executed a final and irrevocable consent to adoption or a final and irrevocable surrender for purposes of adoption, or whose parental rights have been terminated by a court, is not a parent of the child who was the subject of the consent or surrender, unless the consent is void pursuant to subsection O of Section 10.

F. A person is available for adoption when the person is:

(a) a child who has been surrendered for adoption to an agency and to whose adoption the agency has thereafter consented;

(b) a child to whose adoption a person authorized by law, other than his parents, has consented, or to whose adoption no consent is required pursuant to Section 8 of this Act;

(c) a child who is in the custody of persons who intend to adopt him through placement made by his parents;

(c-1) a child for whom a parent has signed a specific consent pursuant to subsection O of Section 10;

(d) an adult who meets the conditions set forth in Section 3 of this Act; or

(e) a child who has been relinquished as defined in Section 10 of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

A person who would otherwise be available for adoption shall not be deemed unavailable for adoption solely by reason of his or her death.

G. The singular includes the plural and the plural includes the singular and the "male" includes the "female", as the context of this Act may require.

H. "Adoption disruption" occurs when an adoptive placement does not prove successful and it becomes necessary for the child to be removed from placement before the adoption is finalized.

I. "Foreign placing agency" is an agency or individual operating in a country or territory outside the United States that is authorized by its country to place children for adoption either directly with families in the United States or through United States based international agencies.

J. "Immediate relatives" means the biological parents, the parents of the biological parents and siblings of the biological parents.

K. "Intercountry adoption" is a process by which a child from a country other than the United States is adopted.

L. "Intercountry Adoption Coordinator" is a staff person of the Department of Children and Family Services appointed by the Director to coordinate the provision of services by the public and private sector to prospective parents of foreign-born children.

M. "Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children" is a law enacted by most states for the purpose of establishing uniform procedures for handling the interstate placement of children in foster homes, adoptive homes, or other child care facilities.

N. "Non-Compact state" means a state that has not enacted the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children.

O. "Preadoption requirements" are any conditions established by the laws or regulations of the Federal Government or of each state that must be met prior to the placement of a child in an adoptive home.

P. "Abused child" means a child whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the child's welfare, or any individual residing in the same home as the child, or a paramour of the child's parent:

(a) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon the child physical injury, by other than accidental means, that causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(b) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to the child by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(c) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against the child, as sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include children under 18 years of age;

(d) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon the child; or

(e) inflicts excessive corporal punishment.

Q. "Neglected child" means any child whose parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare withholds or denies nourishment or medically indicated treatment including food or care denied solely on the basis of the present or anticipated mental or physical impairment as determined by a physician acting alone or in consultation with other physicians or otherwise does not provide the proper or necessary support, education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a child's well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being, including adequate food, clothing and shelter; or who is abandoned by his or her parents or other person responsible for the child's welfare.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for his or her welfare depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care as provided under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare failed to vaccinate, delayed vaccination, or refused vaccination for the child due to a waiver on religious or medical grounds as permitted by law.

R. "Putative father" means a man who may be a child's father, but who (1) is not married to the child's mother on or before the date that the child was or is to be born and (2) has not established paternity of the child in a court proceeding before the filing of a petition for the adoption of the child. The term includes a male who is less than 18 years of age. "Putative father" does not mean a man who is the child's father as a result of criminal sexual abuse or assault as defined under Article 11 12 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

S. "Standby adoption" means an adoption in which a parent consents to custody and termination of parental rights to become effective upon the occurrence of a future event, which is either the death of the parent or the request of the parent for the entry of a final judgment of adoption.

T. (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(750 ILCS 50/8) (from Ch. 40, par. 1510)

Sec. 8. Consents to adoption and surrenders for purposes of adoption.

(a) Except as hereinafter provided in this Section consents or surrenders shall be required in all cases, unless the person whose consent or surrender would otherwise be required shall be found by the court:

(1) to be an unfit person as defined in Section 1 of this Act, by clear and convincing evidence; or

(2) not to be the biological or adoptive father of the child; or

(3) to have waived his parental rights to the child under Section 12a or 12.1 or subsection S of Section 10 of this Act; or

(4) to be the parent of an adult sought to be adopted; or

(5) to be the father of the child as a result of criminal sexual abuse or assault as defined under Article 11 12 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; or

(6) to be the father of a child who:

(i) is a family member of the mother of the child, and the mother is under the age of 18 at the time of the child's conception; for purposes of this subsection, a "family member" is a parent, step-parent, grandparent, step-grandparent, sibling, or cousin of the first degree, whether by whole blood, half-blood, or adoption, as well as a person age 18 or over at the time of the child's conception who has resided in the household with the mother continuously for at least one year; or

(ii) is at least 5 years older than the child's mother, and the mother was under the age of 17 at the time of the child's conception, unless the mother and father voluntarily acknowledge the father's paternity of the child by marrying or by establishing the father's paternity by consent of the parties pursuant to the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or pursuant to a substantially similar statute in another state.

A criminal conviction of any offense pursuant to Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-1.70, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-35, 12C-40, 12C-45, 18-6, 19-6, or Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 is not required.

(b) Where consents are required in the case of an adoption of a minor child, the consents of the following persons shall be sufficient:

(1) (A) The mother of the minor child; and

(B) The father of the minor child, if the father:

(i) was married to the mother on the date of birth of the child or within 300 days before the birth of the child, except for a husband or former husband who has been found by a court of competent jurisdiction not to be the biological father of the child; or

(ii) is the father of the child under a judgment for adoption, an order of parentage, or an acknowledgment of parentage or paternity pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984; or

(iii) in the case of a child placed with the adopting parents less than 6 months after birth, openly lived with the child, the child's biological mother, or both, and held himself out to be the child's biological father during the first 30 days following the birth of the child; or

(iv) in the case of a child placed with the adopting parents less than 6 months after birth, made a good faith effort to pay a reasonable amount of the expenses related to the birth of the child and to provide a reasonable amount for the financial support of the child before the expiration of 30 days following the birth of the child, provided that the court may consider in its determination all relevant circumstances, including the financial condition of both biological parents; or

(v) in the case of a child placed with the adopting parents more than 6 months after birth, has maintained substantial and continuous or repeated contact with the child as manifested by: (I) the payment by the father toward the support of the child of a fair and reasonable sum, according to the father's means, and either (II) the father's visiting the child at least monthly when physically and financially able to do so and not prevented from doing so by the person or authorized agency having lawful custody of the child, or (III) the father's regular communication with the child or with the person or agency having the care or custody of the child, when physically and financially unable to visit the child or prevented from doing so by the person or authorized agency having lawful custody of the child. The subjective intent of the father, whether expressed or otherwise unsupported by evidence of acts specified in this sub-paragraph as manifesting such intent, shall not preclude a determination that the father failed to maintain substantial and continuous or repeated contact with the child; or

(vi) in the case of a child placed with the adopting parents more than six months after birth, openly lived with the child for a period of six months within the one year period immediately preceding the placement of the child for adoption and openly held himself out to be the father of the child; or

(vii) has timely registered with Putative Father Registry, as provided in Section 12.1 of this Act, and prior to the expiration of 30 days from the date of such registration, commenced legal proceedings to establish paternity under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or under the law of the jurisdiction of the child's birth; or

(2) The legal guardian of the person of the child, if there is no surviving parent; or

(3) An agency, if the child has been surrendered for adoption to such agency; or

(4) Any person or agency having legal custody of a child by court order if the parental rights of the parents have been judicially terminated, and the court having jurisdiction of the guardianship of the child has authorized the consent to the adoption; or

(5) The execution and verification of the petition by any petitioner who is also a parent of the child sought to be adopted shall be sufficient evidence of such parent's consent to the adoption.

(c) Where surrenders to an agency are required in the case of a placement for adoption of a minor child by an agency, the surrenders of the following persons shall be sufficient:

(1) (A) The mother of the minor child; and

(B) The father of the minor child, if the father:

(i) was married to the mother on the date of birth of the child or within 300 days before the birth of the child, except for a husband or former husband who has been found by a court of competent jurisdiction not to be the biological father of the child; or

(ii) is the father of the child under a judgment for adoption, an order of parentage, or an acknowledgment of parentage or paternity pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984; or

(iii) in the case of a child placed with the adopting parents less than 6 months after birth, openly lived with the child, the child's biological mother, or both, and held himself out to be the child's biological father during the first 30 days following the birth of a child; or

(iv) in the case of a child placed with the adopting parents less than 6 months after birth, made a good faith effort to pay a reasonable amount of the expenses related to the birth of the child and to provide a reasonable amount for the financial support of the child before the expiration of 30 days following the birth of the child, provided that the court may consider in its determination all relevant circumstances, including the financial condition of both biological parents; or

(v) in the case of a child placed with the adopting parents more than six months after birth, has maintained substantial and continuous or repeated contact with the child as manifested by: (I) the payment by the father toward the support of the child of a fair and reasonable sum, according to the father's means, and either (II) the father's visiting the child at least monthly when physically and financially able to do so and not prevented from doing so by the person or authorized agency having lawful custody of the child or (III) the father's regular communication with the child or with the person or agency having the care or custody of the child, when physically and financially unable to visit the child or prevented from doing so by the person or authorized agency having lawful custody of the child. The subjective intent of the father, whether expressed or otherwise, unsupported by evidence of acts specified in this sub-paragraph as manifesting such intent, shall not preclude a determination that the father failed to maintain substantial and continuous or repeated contact with the child; or

(vi) in the case of a child placed with the adopting parents more than six months after birth, openly lived with the child for a period of six months within the one year period immediately preceding the placement of the child for adoption and openly held himself out to be the father of the child; or

(vii) has timely registered with the Putative Father Registry, as provided in Section 12.1 of this Act, and prior to the expiration of 30 days from the date of such registration, commenced legal proceedings to establish paternity under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or under the law of the jurisdiction of the child's birth.

(d) In making a determination under subparagraphs (b)(1) and (c)(1), no showing shall be required of diligent efforts by a person or agency to encourage the father to perform the acts specified therein.

(e) In the case of the adoption of an adult, only the consent of such adult shall be required.

(Source: P.A. 97-493, eff. 8-22-11.)

(750 ILCS 50/12.1)

Sec. 12.1. Putative Father Registry. The Department of Children and Family Services shall establish a Putative Father Registry for the purpose of determining the identity and location of a putative father of a minor child who is, or is expected to be, the subject of an adoption proceeding, in order to provide notice of such proceeding to the putative father. The Department of Children and Family Services shall establish rules and informational material necessary to implement the provisions of this Section. The Department shall have the authority to set reasonable fees for the use of the Registry. All such fees for the use of the Registry that are received by the Department or its agent shall be deposited into the fund authorized under subsection (b) of Section 25 of the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall use the moneys in that fund for the purpose of maintaining the Registry.

(a) The Department shall maintain the following information in the Registry:

(1) With respect to the putative father:

(i) Name, including any other names by which the putative father may be known and that he may provide to the Registry;

(ii) Address at which he may be served with notice of a petition under this Act, including any change of address;

(iii) Social Security Number;

(iv) Date of birth; and

(v) If applicable, a certified copy of an order by a court of this State or of another state or territory of the United States adjudicating the putative father to be the father of the child.

(2) With respect to the mother of the child:

(i) Name, including all other names known to the putative father by which the mother may be known;

(ii) If known to the putative father, her last address;

(iii) Social Security Number; and

(iv) Date of birth.

(3) If known to the putative father, the name, gender, place of birth, and date of birth or anticipated date of birth of the child.

(4) The date that the Department received the putative father's registration.

(5) Other information as the Department may by rule determine necessary for the orderly administration of the Registry.

(b) A putative father may register with the Department before the birth of the child but shall register no later than 30 days after the birth of the child. All registrations shall be in writing and signed by the putative father. No fee shall be charged for the initial registration. The Department shall have no independent obligation to gather the information to be maintained.

(c) An interested party, including persons intending to adopt a child, a child welfare agency with whom the mother has placed or has given written notice of her intention to place a child for adoption, the mother of the child, or an attorney representing an interested party may request that the Department search the Registry to determine whether a putative father is registered in relation to a child who is or may be the subject to an adoption petition.

(d) A search of the Registry may be proven by the production of a certified copy of the registration form, or by the certified statement of the administrator of the Registry that after a search, no registration of a putative father in relation to a child who is or may be the subject of an adoption petition could be located.

(e) Except as otherwise provided, information contained within the Registry is confidential and shall not be published or open to public inspection.

(f) A person who knowingly or intentionally registers false information under this Section commits a Class B misdemeanor. A person who knowingly or intentionally releases confidential information in violation of this Section commits a Class B misdemeanor.

(g) Except as provided in subsections (b) or (c) of Section 8 of this Act, a putative father who fails to register with the Putative Father Registry as provided in this Section is barred from thereafter bringing or maintaining any action to assert any interest in the child, unless he proves by clear and convincing evidence that:

(1) it was not possible for him to register within the period of time specified in subsection (b) of this Section; and

(2) his failure to register was through no fault of his own; and

(3) he registered within 10 days after it became possible for him to file.

A lack of knowledge of the pregnancy or birth is not an acceptable reason for failure to register.

(h) Except as provided in subsection (b) or (c) of Section 8 of this Act, failure to timely register with the Putative Father Registry (i) shall be deemed to be a waiver and surrender of any right to notice of any hearing in any judicial proceeding for the adoption of the child, and the consent or surrender of that person to the adoption of the child is not required, and (ii) shall constitute an abandonment of the child and shall be prima facie evidence of sufficient grounds to support termination of such father's parental rights under this Act.

(i) In any adoption proceeding pertaining to a child born out of wedlock, if there is no showing that a putative father has executed a consent or surrender or waived his rights regarding the proposed adoption, certification as specified in subsection (d) shall be filed with the court prior to entry of a final judgment order of adoption.

(j) The Registry shall not be used to notify a putative father who is the father of a child as a result of criminal sexual abuse or assault as defined under Article 11 12 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 94-1010, eff. 10-1-06.)

(750 ILCS 50/14) (from Ch. 40, par. 1517)

Sec. 14. Judgment.

(a) Prior to the entry of the judgment for order of adoption in any case other than an adoption of a related child or of an adult, each petitioner and each person, agency, association, corporation, institution, society or organization involved in the adoption of the child, except a child welfare agency, shall execute an affidavit setting forth the hospital and medical costs, legal fees, counseling fees, and any other fees or expenditures paid in accordance with the Adoption Compensation Prohibition Act or Section 12C-70 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(b) Before the entry of the judgment for adoption, each child welfare agency involved in the adoption of the child shall file an affidavit concerning the costs, expenses, contributions, fees, compensation, or other things of value which have been given, promised, or received including but not limited to hospital and medical costs, legal fees, social services, living expenses, or any other expenses related to the adoption paid in accordance with the Adoption Compensation Prohibition Act or Section 12C-70 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

If the total amount paid by the child welfare agency is $4,500 or more, the affidavit shall contain an itemization of expenditures.

If the total amount paid by the child welfare agency is less than $4,500, the agency may file an unitemized affidavit stating that the total amount paid is less than $4,500 unless the court, in its discretion, requires that agency to file an itemized affidavit.

(c) No affidavit need be filed in the case of an adoption of a related child or an adult, nor shall an affidavit be required to be filed by a non-consenting parent, or by any judge, or clerk, involved in an official capacity in the adoption proceedings.

(d) All affidavits filed in accordance with this Section shall be under penalty of perjury and shall include, but are not limited to, hospital and medical costs, legal fees, social services, living expenses or any other expenses related to the adoption or to the placement of the child, whether or not the payments are permitted by applicable laws.

(e) Upon the expiration of 6 months after the date of any interim order vesting temporary care, custody and control of a child, other than a related child, in the petitioners, entered pursuant to this Act, the petitioners may apply to the court for a judgment of adoption. Notice of such application shall be served by the petitioners upon the investigating agency or the person making such investigation, and the guardian ad litem. After the hearing on such application, at which the petitioners and the child shall appear in person, unless their presence is waived by the court for good cause shown, the court may enter a judgment for adoption, provided the court is satisfied from the report of the investigating agency or the person making the investigation, and from the evidence, if any, introduced, that the adoption is for the welfare of the child and that there is a valid consent, or that no consent is required as provided in Section 8 of this Act.

(f) A judgment for adoption of a related child, an adult, or a child as to whose adoption an agency or person authorized by law has the right of authority to consent may be entered at any time after service of process and after the return day designated therein.

(f-5) A standby adoption judgment may be entered upon notice of the death of the consenting parent or upon the consenting parent's request that a final judgment for adoption be entered. The notice must be provided to the court within 60 days after the standby adoptive parent's receipt of knowledge of death of the consenting parent or the consenting parent's request that a final judgment for adoption be entered. If the court finds that adoption is for the welfare of the child and that there is a valid consent, including consent for standby adoption, which is still in effect, or that no consent is required under Section 8 of the Act, a judgment for adoption shall be entered unless the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that it is no longer in the best interest of the child for the adoption to be finalized.

(g) No special findings of fact or certificate of evidence shall be necessary in any case to support the judgment.

(h) Only the circuit court that entered the judgment of the adoption may order the issuance of any contents of the court file or that the original birth record of the adoptee be provided to any persons.

(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 775. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Sections 103, 214, 216, 223, 301, and 304 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/103) (from Ch. 40, par. 2311-3)

Sec. 103. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

(1) "Abuse" means physical abuse, harassment, intimidation of a dependent, interference with personal liberty or willful deprivation but does not include reasonable direction of a minor child by a parent or person in loco parentis.

(2) "Adult with disabilities" means an elder adult with disabilities or a high-risk adult with disabilities. A person may be an adult with disabilities for purposes of this Act even though he or she has never been adjudicated an incompetent adult. However, no court proceeding may be initiated or continued on behalf of an adult with disabilities over that adult's objection, unless such proceeding is approved by his or her legal guardian, if any.

(3) "Domestic violence" means abuse as defined in paragraph (1).

(4) "Elder adult with disabilities" means an adult prevented by advanced age from taking appropriate action to protect himself or herself from abuse by a family or household member.

(5) "Exploitation" means the illegal, including tortious, use of a high-risk adult with disabilities or of the assets or resources of a high-risk adult with disabilities. Exploitation includes, but is not limited to, the misappropriation of assets or resources of a high-risk adult with disabilities by undue influence, by breach of a fiduciary relationship, by fraud, deception, or extortion, or the use of such assets or resources in a manner contrary to law.

(6) "Family or household members" include spouses, former spouses, parents, children, stepchildren and other persons related by blood or by present or prior marriage, persons who share or formerly shared a common dwelling, persons who have or allegedly have a child in common, persons who share or allegedly share a blood relationship through a child, persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship, persons with disabilities and their personal assistants, and caregivers as defined in Section 12-4.4a or paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 12-21 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. For purposes of this paragraph, neither a casual acquaintanceship nor ordinary fraternization between 2 individuals in business or social contexts shall be deemed to constitute a dating relationship. In the case of a high-risk adult with disabilities, "family or household members" includes any person who has the responsibility for a high-risk adult as a result of a family relationship or who has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of a high-risk adult with disabilities voluntarily, or by express or implied contract, or by court order.

(7) "Harassment" means knowing conduct which is not necessary to accomplish a purpose that is reasonable under the circumstances; would cause a reasonable person emotional distress; and does cause emotional distress to the petitioner. Unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, the following types of conduct shall be presumed to cause emotional distress:

(i) creating a disturbance at petitioner's place of employment or school;

(ii) repeatedly telephoning petitioner's place of employment, home or residence;

(iii) repeatedly following petitioner about in a public place or places;

(iv) repeatedly keeping petitioner under surveillance by remaining present outside his or her home, school, place of employment, vehicle or other place occupied by petitioner or by peering in petitioner's windows;

(v) improperly concealing a minor child from petitioner, repeatedly threatening to improperly remove a minor child of petitioner's from the jurisdiction or from the physical care of petitioner, repeatedly threatening to conceal a minor child from petitioner, or making a single such threat following an actual or attempted improper removal or concealment, unless respondent was fleeing an incident or pattern of domestic violence; or

(vi) threatening physical force, confinement or restraint on one or more occasions.

(8) "High-risk adult with disabilities" means a person aged 18 or over whose physical or mental disability impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation.

(9) "Interference with personal liberty" means committing or threatening physical abuse, harassment, intimidation or willful deprivation so as to compel another to engage in conduct from which she or he has a right to abstain or to refrain from conduct in which she or he has a right to engage.

(10) "Intimidation of a dependent" means subjecting a person who is dependent because of age, health or disability to participation in or the witnessing of: physical force against another or physical confinement or restraint of another which constitutes physical abuse as defined in this Act, regardless of whether the abused person is a family or household member.

(11) (A) "Neglect" means the failure to exercise that degree of care toward a high-risk adult with disabilities which a reasonable person would exercise under the circumstances and includes but is not limited to:

(i) the failure to take reasonable steps to protect a high-risk adult with disabilities from acts of abuse;

(ii) the repeated, careless imposition of unreasonable confinement;

(iii) the failure to provide food, shelter, clothing, and personal hygiene to a high-risk adult with disabilities who requires such assistance;

(iv) the failure to provide medical and rehabilitative care for the physical and mental health needs of a high-risk adult with disabilities; or

(v) the failure to protect a high-risk adult with disabilities from health and safety hazards.

(B) Nothing in this subsection (10) shall be construed to impose a requirement that assistance be provided to a high-risk adult with disabilities over his or her objection in the absence of a court order, nor to create any new affirmative duty to provide support to a high-risk adult with disabilities.

(12) "Order of protection" means an emergency order, interim order or plenary order, granted pursuant to this Act, which includes any or all of the remedies authorized by Section 214 of this Act.

(13) "Petitioner" may mean not only any named petitioner for the order of protection and any named victim of abuse on whose behalf the petition is brought, but also any other person protected by this Act.

(14) "Physical abuse" includes sexual abuse and means any of the following:

(i) knowing or reckless use of physical force, confinement or restraint;

(ii) knowing, repeated and unnecessary sleep deprivation; or

(iii) knowing or reckless conduct which creates an immediate risk of physical harm.

(14.5) "Stay away" means for the respondent to refrain from both physical presence and nonphysical contact with the petitioner whether direct, indirect (including, but not limited to, telephone calls, mail, email, faxes, and written notes), or through third parties who may or may not know about the order of protection.

(15) "Willful deprivation" means wilfully denying a person who because of age, health or disability requires medication, medical care, shelter, accessible shelter or services, food, therapeutic device, or other physical assistance, and thereby exposing that person to the risk of physical, mental or emotional harm, except with regard to medical care or treatment when the dependent person has expressed an intent to forgo such medical care or treatment. This paragraph does not create any new affirmative duty to provide support to dependent persons.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(750 ILCS 60/214) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-14)

Sec. 214. Order of protection; remedies.

(a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner has been abused by a family or household member or that petitioner is a high-risk adult who has been abused, neglected, or exploited, as defined in this Act, an order of protection prohibiting the abuse, neglect, or exploitation shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, or Section 219 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall not be denied an order of protection because petitioner or respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue an order of protection, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim. Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with this Section and one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, and Section 219 on plenary orders. The remedies listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse, or willful deprivation, neglect or exploitation, as defined in this Act, or stalking of the petitioner, as defined in Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, if such abuse, neglect, exploitation, or stalking has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

(A) If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing an order of protection and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or change of program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The Court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary legal custody. Award temporary legal custody to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary legal custody to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Visitation. Determine the visitation rights, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or temporary legal custody of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's visitation with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during visitation; (ii) use the visitation as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 607.1 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants visitation, the order shall specify dates and times for the visitation to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for visitation shall refer merely to the term "reasonable visitation".

Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for visitation, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner.

If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for visitation, and the parties shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for visitation. A person may be approved to supervise visitation only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or custody, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care or custody of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care or custody, prior to entry of an order for legal custody. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order granting legal custody to another, unless otherwise provided in the custody order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including but not limited to legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(a) Prohibit a respondent against whom an order of protection was issued from possessing any firearms during the duration of the order if the order:

(1) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

(2) restrains such person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; and

(3)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or (ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.

Any Firearm Owner's Identification Card in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subsection (b), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to the local law enforcement agency. The local law enforcement agency shall immediately mail the card to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping. The court shall issue a warrant for seizure of any firearm in the possession of the respondent, to be kept by the local law enforcement agency for safekeeping, except as provided in subsection (b). The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if unexpired, shall at the respondent's request, be returned to the respondent at the end of the order of protection. It is the respondent's responsibility to notify the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(b) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the order of protection.

(c) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 203, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or further abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a high-risk adult with disabilities or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and consequences of the respondent's past abuse, neglect or exploitation of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse, neglect, or exploitation to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly removed from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection.

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency order of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as a supplement to making the findings described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this subsection, may use the following procedure:

When a verified petition for an emergency order of protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections 203 and 217 is presented to the court, the court shall examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An emergency order of protection shall be issued by the court if it appears from the contents of the petition and the examination of petitioner that the averments are sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency order of protection.

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 12 of the Vital Records Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Probate Act of 1985, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Expedited Child Support Act of 1990, any judicial, administrative, or other act of another state or territory, any other Illinois statute, or by any foreign nation establishing the father and child relationship, any other proceeding substantially in conformity with the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-193), or where both parties appeared in open court or at an administrative hearing acknowledging under oath or admitting by affirmation the existence of a father and child relationship. Absent such an adjudication, finding, or acknowledgement, no putative father shall be granted temporary custody of the minor child, visitation with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 VII of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 VII of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961;

(4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(7) Conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse, neglect, or exploitation if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1239, eff. 1-1-11; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-294, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(750 ILCS 60/216) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-16)

Sec. 216. Accountability for Actions of Others. For the purposes of issuing an order of protection, deciding what remedies should be included and enforcing the order, Article 5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall govern whether respondent is legally accountable for the conduct of another person.

(Source: P.A. 84-1305.)

(750 ILCS 60/223) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-23)

Sec. 223. Enforcement of orders of protection.

(a) When violation is crime. A violation of any order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding, shall be enforced by a criminal court when:

(1) The respondent commits the crime of violation of an order of protection pursuant to Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act; or

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), and (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act, in a valid order of protection which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory; or

(iii) any other remedy when the act constitutes a crime against the protected parties as defined by the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Prosecution for a violation of an order of protection shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the order of protection; or

(2) The respondent commits the crime of child abduction pursuant to Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraphs (5), (6) or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act; or

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraphs (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act, in a valid order of protection which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(b) When violation is contempt of court. A violation of any valid Illinois order of protection, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding, may be enforced through civil or criminal contempt procedures, as appropriate, by any court with jurisdiction, regardless where the act or acts which violated the order of protection were committed, to the extent consistent with the venue provisions of this Act. Nothing in this Act shall preclude any Illinois court from enforcing any valid order of protection issued in another state. Illinois courts may enforce orders of protection through both criminal prosecution and contempt proceedings, unless the action which is second in time is barred by collateral estoppel or the constitutional prohibition against double jeopardy.

(1) In a contempt proceeding where the petition for a rule to show cause sets forth facts evidencing an immediate danger that the respondent will flee the jurisdiction, conceal a child, or inflict physical abuse on the petitioner or minor children or on dependent adults in petitioner's care, the court may order the attachment of the respondent without prior service of the rule to show cause or the petition for a rule to show cause. Bond shall be set unless specifically denied in writing.

(2) A petition for a rule to show cause for violation of an order of protection shall be treated as an expedited proceeding.

(b-1) The court shall not hold a school district or private or non-public school or any of its employees in civil or criminal contempt unless the school district or private or non-public school has been allowed to intervene.

(b-2) The court may hold the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent in civil or criminal contempt for a violation of any provision of any order entered under this Act for conduct of the minor respondent in violation of this Act if the parents, guardian, or legal custodian directed, encouraged, or assisted the respondent minor in such conduct.

(c) Violation of custody or support orders. A violation of remedies described in paragraphs (5), (6), (8), or (9) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of this Act may be enforced by any remedy provided by Section 611 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. The court may enforce any order for support issued under paragraph (12) of subsection (b) of Section 214 in the manner provided for under Parts V and VII of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(d) Actual knowledge. An order of protection may be enforced pursuant to this Section if the respondent violates the order after the respondent has actual knowledge of its contents as shown through one of the following means:

(1) By service, delivery, or notice under Section 210.

(2) By notice under Section 210.1 or 211.

(3) By service of an order of protection under Section 222.

(4) By other means demonstrating actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

(e) The enforcement of an order of protection in civil or criminal court shall not be affected by either of the following:

(1) The existence of a separate, correlative order, entered under Section 215.

(2) Any finding or order entered in a conjoined criminal proceeding.

(f) Circumstances. The court, when determining whether or not a violation of an order of protection has occurred, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection, where the court finds the commission of a crime or contempt of court under subsections (a) or (b) of this Section, the penalty shall be the penalty that generally applies in such criminal or contempt proceedings, and may include one or more of the following: incarceration, payment of restitution, a fine, payment of attorneys' fees and costs, or community service.

(2) The court shall hear and take into account evidence of any factors in aggravation or mitigation before deciding an appropriate penalty under paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(3) To the extent permitted by law, the court is encouraged to:

(i) increase the penalty for the knowing violation of any order of protection over any penalty previously imposed by any court for respondent's violation of any order of protection or penal statute involving petitioner as victim and respondent as defendant;

(ii) impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for respondent's first violation of any order of protection; and

(iii) impose a minimum penalty of 48 hours imprisonment for respondent's second or subsequent violation of an order of protection

unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or that period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust.

(4) In addition to any other penalties imposed for a violation of an order of protection, a criminal court may consider evidence of any violations of an order of protection:

(i) to increase, revoke or modify the bail bond on an underlying criminal charge pursuant to Section 110-6 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(ii) to revoke or modify an order of probation, conditional discharge or supervision, pursuant to Section 5-6-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(iii) to revoke or modify a sentence of periodic imprisonment, pursuant to Section 5-7-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(5) In addition to any other penalties, the court shall impose an additional fine of $20 as authorized by Section 5-9-1.11 of the Unified Code of Corrections upon any person convicted of or placed on supervision for a violation of an order of protection. The additional fine shall be imposed for each violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-294, eff. 1-1-12.)

(750 ILCS 60/301) (from Ch. 40, par. 2313-1)

Sec. 301. Arrest without warrant.

(a) Any law enforcement officer may make an arrest without warrant if the officer has probable cause to believe that the person has committed or is committing any crime, including but not limited to violation of an order of protection, under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, even if the crime was not committed in the presence of the officer.

(b) The law enforcement officer may verify the existence of an order of protection by telephone or radio communication with his or her law enforcement agency or by referring to the copy of the order provided by the petitioner or respondent.

(c) Any law enforcement officer may make an arrest without warrant if the officer has reasonable grounds to believe a defendant at liberty under the provisions of subdivision (d)(1) or (d)(2) of Section 110-10 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 has violated a condition of his or her bail bond or recognizance.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(750 ILCS 60/304) (from Ch. 40, par. 2313-4)

Sec. 304. Assistance by law enforcement officers.

(a) Whenever a law enforcement officer has reason to believe that a person has been abused, neglected, or exploited by a family or household member, the officer shall immediately use all reasonable means to prevent further abuse, neglect, or exploitation, including:

(1) Arresting the abusing, neglecting and exploiting party, where appropriate;

(2) If there is probable cause to believe that particular weapons were used to commit the incident of abuse, subject to constitutional limitations, seizing and taking inventory of the weapons;

(3) Accompanying the victim of abuse, neglect, or exploitation to his or her place of residence for a reasonable period of time to remove necessary personal belongings and possessions;

(4) Offering the victim of abuse, neglect, or exploitation immediate and adequate information (written in a language appropriate for the victim or in Braille or communicated in appropriate sign language), which shall include a summary of the procedures and relief available to victims of abuse under subsection (c) of Section 217 and the officer's name and badge number;

(5) Providing the victim with one referral to an accessible service agency;

(6) Advising the victim of abuse about seeking medical attention and preserving evidence (specifically including photographs of injury or damage and damaged clothing or other property); and

(7) Providing or arranging accessible transportation for the victim of abuse (and, at the victim's request, any minors or dependents in the victim's care) to a medical facility for treatment of injuries or to a nearby place of shelter or safety; or, after the close of court business hours, providing or arranging for transportation for the victim (and, at the victim's request, any minors or dependents in the victim's care) to the nearest available circuit judge or associate judge so the victim may file a petition for an emergency order of protection under subsection (c) of Section 217. When a victim of abuse chooses to leave the scene of the offense, it shall be presumed that it is in the best interests of any minors or dependents in the victim's care to remain with the victim or a person designated by the victim, rather than to remain with the abusing party.

(b) Whenever a law enforcement officer does not exercise arrest powers or otherwise initiate criminal proceedings, the officer shall:

(1) Make a police report of the investigation of any bona fide allegation of an incident of abuse, neglect, or exploitation and the disposition of the investigation, in accordance with subsection (a) of Section 303;

(2) Inform the victim of abuse neglect, or exploitation of the victim's right to request that a criminal proceeding be initiated where appropriate, including specific times and places for meeting with the State's Attorney's office, a warrant officer, or other official in accordance with local procedure; and

(3) Advise the victim of the importance of seeking medical attention and preserving evidence (specifically including photographs of injury or damage and damaged clothing or other property).

(c) Except as provided by Section 24-6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 or under a court order, any weapon seized under subsection (a)(2) shall be returned forthwith to the person from whom it was seized when it is no longer needed for evidentiary purposes.

(Source: P.A. 87-1186; 88-498.)

Section 780. The Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995 is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(750 ILCS 70/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Abortion" means the use of any instrument, medicine, drug, or any other substance or device to terminate the pregnancy of a woman known to be pregnant with an intention other than to increase the probability of a live birth, to preserve the life or health of a child after live birth, or to remove a dead fetus.

"Actual notice" means the giving of notice directly, in person, or by telephone.

"Adult family member" means a person over 21 years of age who is the parent, grandparent, step-parent living in the household, or legal guardian.

"Constructive notice" means notice by certified mail to the last known address of the person entitled to notice with delivery deemed to have occurred 48 hours after the certified notice is mailed.

"Incompetent" means any person who has been adjudged as mentally ill or developmentally disabled and who, because of her mental illness or developmental disability, is not fully able to manage her person and for whom a guardian of the person has been appointed under Section 11a-3(a)(1) of the Probate Act of 1975.

"Medical emergency" means a condition that, on the basis of the physician's good faith clinical judgment, so complicates the medical condition of a pregnant woman as to necessitate the immediate abortion of her pregnancy to avert her death or for which a delay will create serious risk of substantial and irreversible impairment of major bodily function.

"Minor" means any person under 18 years of age who is not or has not been married or who has not been emancipated under the Emancipation of Minors Act.

"Neglect" means the failure of an adult family member to supply a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, or medical care when reasonably able to do so or the failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that imminently and seriously endanger the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so.

"Physical abuse" means any physical injury intentionally inflicted by an adult family member on a child.

"Physician" means any person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Illinois Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 that is prohibited by the criminal laws of the State of Illinois and committed against a minor by an adult family member as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 785. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 1-5, 2-6.2, 2-6.6, and 25-1 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/1-5) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 1-5)

Sec. 1-5. Petition under oath.) Every petition under this Act, except a petition under Section 8-1 or Section 8-2, shall be under oath or affirmation. If a statement is known to petitioner only upon information and belief, or is unknown to him, the petition shall so state. Whenever any instrument is required to be verified or under oath, a statement that is made under the penalties of perjury has the same effect as if the instrument were verified or made under oath. A fraudulent statement so made is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 85-692.)

(755 ILCS 5/2-6.2)

Sec. 2-6.2. Financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability.

(a) In this Section:

"Abuse" means any offense described in Section 12-21 or subsection (b) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Financial exploitation" means any offense described in Section 16-1.3 or 17-56 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Neglect" means any offense described in Section 12-19 or subsection (a) of Section 12-4.4a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) Persons convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability shall not receive any property, benefit, or other interest by reason of the death of that elderly person or person with a disability, whether as heir, legatee, beneficiary, survivor, appointee, claimant under Section 18-1.1, or in any other capacity and whether the property, benefit, or other interest passes pursuant to any form of title registration, testamentary or nontestamentary instrument, intestacy, renunciation, or any other circumstance. The property, benefit, or other interest shall pass as if the person convicted of the financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect died before the decedent, provided that with respect to joint tenancy property the interest possessed prior to the death by the person convicted of the financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect shall not be diminished by the application of this Section. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a person convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability shall be entitled to receive property, a benefit, or an interest in any capacity and under any circumstances described in this subsection (b) if it is demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that the victim of that offense knew of the conviction and subsequent to the conviction expressed or ratified his or her intent to transfer the property, benefit, or interest to the person convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability in any manner contemplated by this subsection (b).

(c)(1) The holder of any property subject to the provisions of this Section shall not be liable for distributing or releasing the property to the person convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability if the distribution or release occurs prior to the conviction.

(2) If the holder is a financial institution, trust company, trustee, or similar entity or person, the holder shall not be liable for any distribution or release of the property, benefit, or other interest to the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 unless the holder knowingly distributes or releases the property, benefit, or other interest to the person so convicted after first having received actual written notice of the conviction in sufficient time to act upon the notice.

(d) If the holder of any property subject to the provisions of this Section knows that a potential beneficiary has been convicted of financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect of an elderly person or a person with a disability within the scope of this Section, the holder shall fully cooperate with law enforcement authorities and judicial officers in connection with any investigation of the financial exploitation, abuse, or neglect. If the holder is a person or entity that is subject to regulation by a regulatory agency pursuant to the laws of this or any other state or pursuant to the laws of the United States, including but not limited to the business of a financial institution, corporate fiduciary, or insurance company, then such person or entity shall not be deemed to be in violation of this Section to the extent that privacy laws and regulations applicable to such person or entity prevent it from voluntarily providing law enforcement authorities or judicial officers with information.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 995, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-155, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(755 ILCS 5/2-6.6)

Sec. 2-6.6. Person convicted of certain offenses against the elderly or disabled. A person who is convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 may not receive any property, benefit, or other interest by reason of the death of the victim of that offense, whether as heir, legatee, beneficiary, joint tenant, tenant by the entirety, survivor, appointee, or in any other capacity and whether the property, benefit, or other interest passes pursuant to any form of title registration, testamentary or nontestamentary instrument, intestacy, renunciation, or any other circumstance. The property, benefit, or other interest shall pass as if the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 died before the decedent; provided that with respect to joint tenancy property or property held in tenancy by the entirety, the interest possessed prior to the death by the person convicted may not be diminished by the application of this Section. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be entitled to receive property, a benefit, or an interest in any capacity and under any circumstances described in this Section if it is demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence that the victim of that offense knew of the conviction and subsequent to the conviction expressed or ratified his or her intent to transfer the property, benefit, or interest to the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 in any manner contemplated by this Section.

The holder of any property subject to the provisions of this Section is not liable for distributing or releasing the property to the person convicted of violating Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

If the holder is a financial institution, trust company, trustee, or similar entity or person, the holder shall not be liable for any distribution or release of the property, benefit, or other interest to the person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 unless the holder knowingly distributes or releases the property, benefit, or other interest to the person so convicted after first having received actual written notice of the conviction in sufficient time to act upon the notice.

The Department of State Police shall have access to State of Illinois databases containing information that may help in the identification or location of persons convicted of the offenses enumerated in this Section. Interagency agreements shall be implemented, consistent with security and procedures established by the State agency and consistent with the laws governing the confidentiality of the information in the databases. Information shall be used only for administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 955, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-155, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

(755 ILCS 5/25-1) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 25-1)

Sec. 25-1. Payment or delivery of small estate of decedent upon affidavit.

(a) When any person or corporation (1) indebted to or holding personal estate of a decedent, (2) controlling the right of access to decedent's safe deposit box or (3) acting as registrar or transfer agent of any evidence of interest, indebtedness, property or right is furnished with a small estate affidavit in substantially the form hereinafter set forth, that person or corporation shall pay the indebtedness, grant access to the safe deposit box, deliver the personal estate or transfer or issue the evidence of interest, indebtedness, property or right to persons and in the manner specified in paragraph 11 of the affidavit or to an agent appointed as hereinafter set forth.

(b) Small Estate Affidavit

I, (name of affiant) , on oath state:

1. (a) My post office address is: ;

(b) My residence address is: ; and

(c) I understand that, if I am an out-of-state resident, I submit myself to the jurisdiction of Illinois courts for all matters related to the preparation and use of this affidavit. My agent for service of process in Illinois is:

NAME..........................

ADDRESS.......................

CITY..........................

TELEPHONE (IF ANY)............

I understand that if no person is named above as my agent for service or, if for any reason, service on the named person cannot be effectuated, the clerk of the circuit court of ......(County) (Judicial Circuit) Illinois is recognized by Illinois law as my agent for service of process.

2. The decedent's name is ;

3. The date of the decedent's death was , and I have attached a copy of the death certificate hereto.

4. The decedent's place of residence immediately before his death was ;

5. No letters of office are now outstanding on the decedent's estate and no petition for letters is contemplated or pending in Illinois or in any other jurisdiction, to my knowledge;

6. The gross value of the decedent's entire personal estate, including the value of all property passing to any party either by intestacy or under a will, does not exceed $100,000. (Here, list each asset, e.g., cash, stock, and its fair market value.);

Name Specific sum or property to be distributed

The foregoing statement is made under the penalties of perjury*.

.........................

Signature of Affiant

*(Note: A fraudulent statement made under the penalties of perjury is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.)

(c) Appointment of Agent. If safe deposit access is involved or if sale of any personal property is desirable to facilitate distribution pursuant to the small estate affidavit, all persons named in paragraph 11 of the small estate affidavit (excluding minors and unascertained or disabled persons) may in writing appoint one or more persons as their agent for that purpose. The agent shall have power, without court approval, to gain access to, sell, and distribute the property for the benefit of all persons named in paragraph 11 of the affidavit; and the payment, delivery, transfer, access or issuance shall be made or granted to or on the order of the agent.

(d) Release. Upon payment, delivery, transfer, access or issuance pursuant to a properly executed affidavit, the person or corporation is released to the same extent as if the payment, delivery, transfer, access or issuance had been made or granted to the representative of the estate. Such person or corporation is not required to see to the application or disposition of the property; but each person to whom a payment, delivery, transfer, access or issuance is made or given is answerable therefor to any person having a prior right and is accountable to any representative of the estate.

(e) The affiant signing the small estate affidavit prepared pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section shall indemnify and hold harmless all creditors and heirs of the decedent and other persons relying upon the affidavit who incur loss because of such reliance. That indemnification shall only be up to the amount lost because of the act or omission of the affiant. Any person recovering under this subsection (e) shall be entitled to reasonable attorney's fees and the expenses of recovery.

(f) The affiant of a small estate affidavit who is a non-resident of Illinois submits himself or herself to the jurisdiction of Illinois courts for all matters related to the preparation or use of the affidavit. The affidavit shall provide the name, address, and phone number of a person whom the affiant names as his agent for service of process. If no such person is named or if, for any reason, service on the named person cannot be effectuated, the clerk of the circuit court of the county or judicial circuit of which the decedent was a resident at the time of his death shall be the agent for service of process.

(g) Any action properly taken under this Section, as amended by Public Act 93-877, on or after August 6, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-877) is valid regardless of the date of death of the decedent.

(h) The changes made by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly apply to a decedent whose date of death is on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 96-968, eff. 7-2-10.)

Section 790. The Illinois Power of Attorney Act is amended by changing Sections 2-8, 2-10.3, and 2-10.5 as follows:

(755 ILCS 45/2-8) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 802-8)

Sec. 2-8. Reliance on document purporting to establish an agency.

(a) Any person who acts in good faith reliance on a copy of a document purporting to establish an agency will be fully protected and released to the same extent as though the reliant had dealt directly with the named principal as a fully-competent person. The named agent shall furnish an affidavit or Agent's Certification and Acceptance of Authority to the reliant on demand stating that the instrument relied on is a true copy of the agency and that, to the best of the named agent's knowledge, the named principal is alive and the relevant powers of the named agent have not been altered or terminated; but good faith reliance on a document purporting to establish an agency will protect the reliant without the affidavit or Agent's Certification and Acceptance of Authority.

(b) Upon request, the named agent in a power of attorney shall furnish an Agent's Certification and Acceptance of Authority to the reliant in substantially the following form:

AGENT'S CERTIFICATION AND ACCEPTANCE OF AUTHORITY

I, .......... (insert name of agent), certify that the attached is a true copy of a power of attorney naming the undersigned as agent or successor agent for ............. (insert name of principal).

I certify that to the best of my knowledge the principal had the capacity to execute the power of attorney, is alive, and has not revoked the power of attorney; that my powers as agent have not been altered or terminated; and that the power of attorney remains in full force and effect.

I accept appointment as agent under this power of attorney.

This certification and acceptance is made under penalty of perjury.*

Dated: ............

.......................

(Agent's Signature)

.......................

(Print Agent's Name)

.......................

(Agent's Address)

*(NOTE: Perjury is defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, and is a Class 3 felony.)

(c) Any person dealing with an agent named in a copy of a document purporting to establish an agency may presume, in the absence of actual knowledge to the contrary, that the document purporting to establish the agency was validly executed, that the agency was validly established, that the named principal was competent at the time of execution, and that, at the time of reliance, the named principal is alive, the agency was validly established and has not terminated or been amended, the relevant powers of the named agent were properly and validly granted and have not terminated or been amended, and the acts of the named agent conform to the standards of this Act. No person relying on a copy of a document purporting to establish an agency shall be required to see to the application of any property delivered to or controlled by the named agent or to question the authority of the named agent.

(d) Each person to whom a direction by the named agent in accordance with the terms of the copy of the document purporting to establish an agency is communicated shall comply with that direction, and any person who fails to comply arbitrarily or without reasonable cause shall be subject to civil liability for any damages resulting from noncompliance. A health care provider who complies with Section 4-7 shall not be deemed to have acted arbitrarily or without reasonable cause.

(Source: P.A. 96-1195, eff. 7-1-11.)

(755 ILCS 45/2-10.3)

Sec. 2-10.3. Successor agents.

(a) A principal may designate one or more successor agents to act if an initial or predecessor agent resigns, dies, becomes incapacitated, is not qualified to serve, or declines to serve. A principal may grant authority to another person, designated by name, by office, or by function, including an initial or successor agent, to designate one or more successor agents. Unless a power of attorney otherwise provides, a successor agent has the same authority as that granted to an initial agent.

(b) An agent is not liable for the actions of another agent, including a predecessor agent, unless the agent participates in or conceals a breach of fiduciary duty committed by the other agent. An agent who has knowledge of a breach or imminent breach of fiduciary duty by another agent must notify the principal and, if the principal is incapacitated, take whatever actions may be reasonably appropriate in the circumstances to safeguard the principal's best interest.

(c) Any person who acts in good faith reliance on the representation of a successor agent regarding the unavailability of a predecessor agent will be fully protected and released to the same extent as though the reliant had dealt directly with the predecessor agent. Upon request, the successor agent shall furnish an affidavit or Successor Agent's Certification and Acceptance of Authority to the reliant, but good faith reliance on a document purporting to establish an agency will protect the reliant without the affidavit or Successor Agent's Certification and Acceptance of Authority. A Successor Agent's Certification and Acceptance of Authority shall be in substantially the following form:

SUCCESSOR AGENT'S

CERTIFICATION AND ACCEPTANCE OF AUTHORITY

I certify that the attached is a true copy of a power of attorney naming the undersigned as agent or successor agent for .......... (insert name of principal).

I certify that to the best of my knowledge the principal had the capacity to execute the power of attorney, is alive, and has not revoked the power of attorney; that my powers as agent have not been altered or terminated; and that the power of attorney remains in full force and effect.

I certify that to the best of my knowledge .......... (insert name of unavailable agent) is unavailable due to ................. (specify death, resignation, absence, illness, or other temporary incapacity).

I accept appointment as agent under this power of attorney.

This certification and acceptance is made under penalty of perjury.*

Dated: ............

.......................

(Agent's Signature)

.......................

(Print Agent's Name)

.......................

(Agent's Address)

*(NOTE: Perjury is defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, and is a Class 3 felony.)

(Source: P.A. 96-1195, eff. 7-1-11.)

(755 ILCS 45/2-10.5)

Sec. 2-10.5. Co-agents.

(a) Co-agents may not be named by a principal in a statutory short form power of attorney for property under Article III or a statutory short form power of attorney for health care under Article IV. In the event that co-agents are named in any other form of power of attorney, then the provisions of this Section shall govern the use and acceptance of co-agency designations.

(b) Unless the power of attorney or this Section otherwise provides, authority granted to 2 or more co-agents is exercisable only by their majority consent. However, if prompt action is required to accomplish the purposes of the power of attorney or to avoid irreparable injury to the principal's interests and an agent is unavailable because of absence, illness, or other temporary incapacity, the other agent or agents may act for the principal. If a vacancy occurs in one or more of the designations of agent under a power of attorney, the remaining agent or agents may act for the principal.

(c) An agent is not liable for the actions of another agent, including a co-agent or predecessor agent, unless the agent participates in or conceals a breach of fiduciary duty committed by the other agent. An agent who has knowledge of a breach or imminent breach of fiduciary duty by another agent must notify the principal and, if the principal is incapacitated, take whatever actions may be reasonably appropriate in the circumstances to safeguard the principal's best interest.

(d) Any person who acts in good faith reliance on the representation of a co-agent regarding the unavailability of a predecessor agent or one or more co-agents, or the need for prompt action to accomplish the purposes of the power of attorney or to avoid irreparable injury to the principal's interests, will be fully protected and released to the same extent as though the reliant had dealt directly with all named agents. Upon request, the co-agent shall furnish an affidavit or Co-Agent's Certification and Acceptance of Authority to the reliant, but good faith reliance on a document purporting to establish an agency will protect the reliant without the affidavit or Co-Agent's Certification and Acceptance of Authority. A Co-Agent's Certification and Acceptance of Authority shall be in substantially the following form:

CO-AGENT'S

CERTIFICATION AND ACCEPTANCE OF AUTHORITY

I certify that the attached is a true copy of a power of attorney naming the undersigned as agent or co-agent for .......... (insert name of principal).

I certify that to the best of my knowledge the principal had the capacity to execute the power of attorney, is alive, and has not revoked the power of attorney; that my powers as agent have not been altered or terminated; and that the power of attorney remains in full force and effect.

I certify that to the best of my knowledge .......... (insert name of unavailable agent) is unavailable due to ................. (specify death, resignation, absence, illness, or other temporary incapacity).

I certify that prompt action is required to accomplish the purposes of the power of attorney or to avoid irreparable injury to the principal's interests.

I accept appointment as agent under this power of attorney.

This certification and acceptance is made under penalty of perjury.*

Dated: ............

.......................

(Agent's Signature)

.......................

(Print Agent's Name)

.......................

(Agent's Address)

*(NOTE: Perjury is defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, and is a Class 3 felony.)

(Source: P.A. 96-1195, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 795. The Charitable Trust Act is amended by changing Section 16.5 as follows:

(760 ILCS 55/16.5)

Sec. 16.5. Terrorist acts.

(a) Any person or organization subject to registration under this Act, who knowingly acts to further, directly or indirectly, or knowingly uses charitable assets to conduct or further, directly or indirectly, an act or actions as set forth in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, is thereby engaged in an act or actions contrary to public policy and antithetical to charity, and all of the funds, assets, and records of the person or organization shall be subject to temporary and permanent injunction from use or expenditure and the appointment of a temporary and permanent receiver to take possession of all of the assets and related records.

(b) An ex parte action may be commenced by the Attorney General, and, upon a showing of probable cause of a violation of this Section or Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, an immediate seizure of books and records by the Attorney General by and through his or her assistants or investigators or the Department of State Police and freezing of all assets shall be made by order of a court to protect the public, protect the assets, and allow a full review of the records.

(c) Upon a finding by a court after a hearing that a person or organization has acted or is in violation of this Section, the person or organization shall be permanently enjoined from soliciting funds from the public, holding charitable funds, or acting as a trustee or fiduciary within Illinois. Upon a finding of violation all assets and funds held by the person or organization shall be forfeited to the People of the State of Illinois or otherwise ordered by the court to be accounted for and marshaled and then delivered to charitable causes and uses within the State of Illinois by court order.

(d) A determination under this Section may be made by any court separate and apart from any criminal proceedings and the standard of proof shall be that for civil proceedings.

(e) Any knowing use of charitable assets to conduct or further, directly or indirectly, an act or actions set forth in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 shall be a misuse of charitable assets and breach of fiduciary duty relative to all other Sections of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-854, eff. 12-5-02.)

Section 800. The Land Trust Beneficial Interest Disclosure Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(765 ILCS 405/3) (from Ch. 148, par. 73)

Sec. 3. False verification - Perjury. Whoever, in swearing to, or affirming, an application or statement as required under this Act, makes a false statement as to the identification of beneficiaries of a land trust, or which is material to an issue or point in question in such application or statement, or who, having taken a lawful oath or made affirmation, shall testify willfully and falsely as to any of such matters for the purpose of inducing the approval of any such benefit, authorization, license or permit, or who shall suborn any other person to so swear, affirm or testify, is guilty of perjury or subornation of perjury, as the case may be, and upon conviction thereof, shall be sentenced as provided in Sections 32-2 or 32-3, respectively, of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, as amended, for such offenses.

(Source: P.A. 85-747.)

Section 805. The Landlord and Tenant Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(765 ILCS 705/10)

Sec. 10. Failure to inform lessor who is a child sex offender and who resides in the same building in which the lessee resides or intends to reside that the lessee is a parent or guardian of a child under 18 years of age. If a lessor of residential real estate resides at such real estate and is a child sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and rents such real estate to a person who does not inform the lessor that the person is a parent or guardian of a child or children under 18 years of age and subsequent to such lease, the lessee discovers that the landlord is a child sex offender, then the lessee may not terminate the lease based upon such discovery that the lessor is a child sex offender and such lease shall be in full force and effect. This subsection shall apply only to leases or other rental arrangements entered into after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 95-820, eff. 1-1-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 810. The Safe Homes Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(765 ILCS 750/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:

"Domestic violence" means "abuse" as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 by a "family or household member" as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Landlord" means the owner of a building or the owner's agent with regard to matters concerning landlord's leasing of a dwelling.

"Sexual violence" means any act of sexual assault, sexual abuse, or stalking of an adult or minor child, including but not limited to non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration as defined in the Civil No Contact Order Act and the offenses of stalking, aggravated stalking, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, and aggravated criminal sexual abuse as those offenses are described in the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

"Tenant" means a person who has entered into an oral or written lease with a landlord whereby the person is the lessee under the lease.

(Source: P.A. 94-1038, eff. 1-1-07.)

Section 815. The Cemetery Protection Act is amended by changing Section 16 as follows:

(765 ILCS 835/16)

Sec. 16. When a multiple interment right owner becomes deceased, the ownership of any unused rights of interment shall pass in accordance with the specific bequest in the decedent's will. If there is no will or specific bequest then the ownership and use of the unused rights of interment shall be determined by a cemetery authority in accordance with the information set out on a standard affidavit for cemetery interment rights use form if such a form has been prepared. The unused right of interment shall be used for the interment of the first deceased heir listed on the standard affidavit and continue in sequence until all listed heirs are deceased. In the event that an interment right is not used, the interment right shall pass to the heirs of the heirs of the deceased interment right owner in perpetuity. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, this shall not preclude the ability of the heirs to sell said interment rights, in the event that all listed living heirs are in agreement, and it shall not preclude the ability of a 2/3 majority of the living heirs to sell a specific interment right to the spouse of a living or deceased heir. If the standard affidavit for cemetery interment rights use, showing heirship of decedent interment right owner's living heirs is provided to and followed by a cemetery authority, the cemetery authority shall be released of any liability in relying on that affidavit.

The following is the form of the standard affidavit:

STATE OF ILLINOIS ) ) SS COUNTY OF ....................)

AFFIDAVIT FOR CEMETERY INTERMENT RIGHTS USE

I, .............., being first duly sworn on oath depose and say that:

1. A. My place of residence is ........................

B. My post office address is .......................

C. I understand that I am providing the information contained in this affidavit to the ............ ("Cemetery") and the Cemetery shall, in the absence of directions to the contrary in my will, rely on this information to allow the listed individuals to be interred in any unused interment rights in the order of their death.

D. I understand that, if I am an out-of-state resident, I submit myself to the jurisdiction of Illinois courts for all matters related to the preparation and use of this affidavit. My agent for service of process in Illinois is:

Name ................. Address .....................

City ................. Telephone ...................

Items 2 through 6 must be completed by the executor of the decedent's estate, a personal representative, owner's surviving spouse, or surviving heir.

2. The decedent's name is ..............................

3. The date of decedent's death was ....................

4. The decedent's place of residence immediately before his or her death was ........................................

5. My relationship to the decedent is .................. and I am authorized to sign and file this affidavit.

6. At the time of death, the decedent (had no) (had a) surviving spouse. The name of the surviving spouse, if any, is ....................., and he or she (has) (has not) remarried.

7. The following is a list of the cemetery interment rights that may be used by the heirs if the owner is deceased:

.............................................................

.............................................................

8. The following persons have an ownership interest in and the right to use the cemetery interment rights in the order of their death:

.......................... Address ..........................

.......................... Address ..........................

.......................... Address ..........................

.......................... Address ..........................

.......................... Address ..........................

.......................... Address ..........................

.......................... Address ..........................

9. This affidavit is made for the purpose of obtaining the consent of the undersigned to transfer the right of interment at the above mentioned cemetery property to the listed heirs. Affiants agree that they will save, hold harmless, and indemnify Cemetery, its heirs, successors, employees, and assigns, from all claims, loss, or damage whatsoever that may result from relying on this affidavit to record said transfer in its records and allow interments on the basis of the information contained in this affidavit.

WHEREFORE affiant requests Cemetery to recognize the above named heirs-at-law as those rightfully entitled to the ownership of and use of said interment (spaces) (space).

THE FOREGOING STATEMENT IS MADE UNDER THE PENALTIES OF PERJURY. (A FRAUDULENT STATEMENT MADE UNDER THE PENALTIES OF PERJURY IS PERJURY AS DEFINED IN THE CRIMINAL CODE OF 2012 1961.)

Dated this ........ day of .............., .....

................... (Seal) (To be signed by the owner or the individual who completes items 2 through 6 above.)

Subscribed and sworn to before me, a Notary Public in and for the County and State of .............. aforesaid this ........ day of ..............., .....

............................ Notary Public.

(Source: P.A. 93-772, eff. 1-1-05; 94-520, eff. 8-10-05.)

Section 820. The Counterfeit Trademark Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1040/9)

Sec. 9. Seizure and disposition.

(a) A peace officer shall, upon probable cause, seize any counterfeit items, counterfeit marks, or any component of that merchandise knowingly possessed in violation of this Act.

(b) A peace officer shall seize any vehicle, aircraft, vessel, machinery or other instrumentality which the officer reasonably believed was knowingly used to commit or facilitate a violation of this Act.

(c) A peace officer shall, upon probable cause, seize any proceeds resulting from a violation of this Act.

(d) Seized counterfeit goods shall be destroyed upon the written consent of the defendant or by judicial determination that the seized goods are counterfeit items or otherwise bear the trademark, trade name or service mark without the authorization of the owner, unless another disposition of the goods is consented to by the owner of the trademark, trade name or service mark.

The seizure and forfeiture of vehicles, aircraft, vessels, machinery, or other instrumentalities provided for by this Section shall be carried out in the same manner and pursuant to the same procedures as provided in Article 36 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 with respect to vessels, vehicles, and aircraft.

(Source: P.A. 96-631, eff. 1-1-10.)

Section 825. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Section 4-101 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/4-101) (from Ch. 68, par. 4-101)

Sec. 4-101. Definitions. The following definitions are applicable strictly in the context of this Article:

(A) Credit Card. "Credit card" has the meaning set forth in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(B) Financial Institution. "Financial institution" means any bank, credit union, insurance company, mortgage banking company or savings and loan association which operates or has a place of business in this State.

(C) Loan. "Loan" includes, but is not limited to, the providing of funds, for consideration, which are sought for: (1) the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing, or maintaining a housing accommodation as that term is defined in paragraph (C) of Section 3-101; or (2) any commercial or industrial purposes.

(D) Varying Terms. "Varying the terms of a loan" includes, but is not limited to, the following practices:

(1) Requiring a greater down payment than is usual for the particular type of a loan involved.

(2) Requiring a shorter period of amortization than is usual for the particular type of loan involved.

(3) Charging a higher interest rate than is usual for the particular type of loan involved.

(4) An under appraisal of real estate or other item of property offered as security.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 830. The Business Corporation Act of 1983 is amended by changing Section 8.70 as follows:

(805 ILCS 5/8.70) (from Ch. 32, par. 8.70)

Sec. 8.70. Kickbacks, bribes, etc. -Liability of officers or directors. Any Corporate director or officer who commits commercial bribery or commercial bribe receiving as defined in Article 29A 29 of the "Criminal Code of 2012 1961", shall be liable to the corporation which he or she serves as officer or director for treble damages, based on the aggregate amount given or received plus attorneys' fees. A conviction in a criminal proceeding for a commercial bribery or commercial bribe receiving shall be deemed prima facie evidence of the convicted director's or officer's liability under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 83-1025.)

Section 835. The Assumed Business Name Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(805 ILCS 405/4) (from Ch. 96, par. 7)

Sec. 4. This Act shall in no way affect or apply to any corporation, limited liability company, limited partnership, or limited liability partnership duly organized under the laws of this State, or any corporation, limited liability company, limited partnership, or limited liability partnership organized under the laws of any other State and lawfully doing business in this State, nor shall this Act be deemed or construed to prevent the lawful use of a partnership name or designation, provided that such partnership shall include the true, real name of such person or persons transacting said business or partnership nor shall it be construed as in any way affecting subdivision (a)(8) or subsection (c) of Section 17-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961. This Act shall in no way affect or apply to testamentary or other express trusts where the business is carried on in the name of the trust and such trust is created by will or other instrument in writing under which title to the trust property is vested in a designated trustee or trustees for the use and benefit of the cestuis que trustent.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 840. The Uniform Commercial Code is amended by changing Section 3-505A as follows:

(810 ILCS 5/3-505A) (from Ch. 26, par. 3-505A)

Sec. 3-505A. Provision of credit card number as a condition of check cashing or acceptance prohibited.

(1) No person may record the number of a credit card given as identification or given as proof of creditworthiness when payment for goods or services is made by check or draft other than a transaction in which the check or draft is issued in payment of the credit card designated by the credit card number.

(2) This Section shall not prohibit a person from requesting a purchaser to display a credit card as indication of creditworthiness and financial responsibility or as additional identification, but the only information concerning a credit card which may be recorded is the type of credit card so displayed and the issuer of the credit card. This Section shall not require acceptance of a check or draft whether or not a credit card is presented.

(3) This Section shall not prohibit a person from requesting or receiving a credit card number or expiration date and recording the number or date, or both, in lieu of a deposit to secure payment in the event of default, loss, damage, or other occurrence.

(4) This Section shall not prohibit a person from recording a credit card number and expiration date as a condition for cashing or accepting a check or draft if that person, firm, partnership or association has agreed with the card issuer to cash or accept checks and share drafts from the issuer's cardholders and the issuer guarantees cardholder checks and drafts cashed or accepted by that person.

(5) Recording a credit card number in connection with a sale of goods or services in which the purchaser pays by check or draft, or in connection with the acceptance of a check or draft, is a business offense with a fine not to exceed $500.

As used in this Section, credit card has the meaning as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 845. The Illinois Securities Law of 1953 is amended by changing Section 7a as follows:

(815 ILCS 5/7a) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 137.7a)

Sec. 7a. (a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, no securities, issued by an issuer engaged in or deriving revenues from the conduct of any business or profession, the conduct of which would violate Section 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4 as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) or that involves soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-19 or 11-19.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, as now or hereafter amended, if conducted in this State, shall be sold or registered pursuant to Section 5, 6 or 7 of this Act nor sold pursuant to the provisions of Section 3 or 4 of this Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) hereof, such securities issued prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989 may be sold by a resident of this State in transactions which qualify for an exemption from the registration requirements of this Act pursuant to subsection A of Section 4 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 850. The Credit Card Issuance Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(815 ILCS 140/1) (from Ch. 17, par. 6001)

Sec. 1. As used in this Act:

(a) "Credit card" has the meaning set forth in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, but does not include "debit card" as defined in that Section, which can also be used to obtain money, goods, services and anything else of value on credit, nor shall it include any negotiable instrument as defined in the Uniform Commercial Code, as now or hereafter amended;

(b) "Merchant credit card agreement" means a written agreement between a seller of goods, services or both, and the issuer of a credit card to any other party, pursuant to which the seller is obligated to accept credit cards; and

(c) "Credit card transaction" means a purchase and sale of goods, services or both, in which a seller, pursuant to a merchant credit card agreement, is obligated to accept a credit card and does accept the credit card in connection with such purchase and sale.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 855. The Credit Card Liability Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(815 ILCS 145/1) (from Ch. 17, par. 6101)

Sec. 1. (a) No person in whose name a credit card is issued without his having requested or applied for the card or for the extension of the credit or establishment of a charge account which that card evidences is liable to the issuer of the card for any purchases made or other amounts owing by a use of that card from which he or a member of his family or household derive no benefit unless he has indicated his acceptance of the card by signing or using the card or by permitting or authorizing use of the card by another. A mere failure to destroy or return an unsolicited card is not such an indication. As used in this Act, "credit card" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961, except that it does not include a card issued by any telephone company that is subject to supervision or regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission or other public authority.

(b) When an action is brought by an issuer against the person named on the card, the burden of proving the request, application, authorization, permission, use or benefit as set forth in Section 1 hereof shall be upon plaintiff if put in issue by defendant. In the event of judgment for defendant, the court shall allow defendant a reasonable attorney's fee, to be taxed as costs.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 860. The Interest Act is amended by changing Section 4.1 as follows:

(815 ILCS 205/4.1) (from Ch. 17, par. 6405)

Sec. 4.1. The term "revolving credit" means an arrangement, including by means of a credit card as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 between a lender and debtor pursuant to which it is contemplated or provided that the lender may from time to time make loans or advances to or for the account of the debtor through the means of drafts, items, orders for the payment of money, evidences of debt or similar written instruments, whether or not negotiable, signed by the debtor or by any person authorized or permitted so to do on behalf of the debtor, which loans or advances are charged to an account in respect of which account the lender is to render bills or statements to the debtor at regular intervals (hereinafter sometimes referred to as the "billing cycle") the amount of which bills or statements is payable by and due from the debtor on a specified date stated in such bill or statement or at the debtor's option, may be payable by the debtor in installments. A revolving credit arrangement which grants the debtor a line of credit in excess of $5,000 may include provisions granting the lender a security interest in real property or in a beneficial interest in a land trust to secure amounts of credit extended by the lender. Credit extended or available under a revolving credit plan operated in accordance with the Illinois Financial Services Development Act shall be deemed to be "revolving credit" as defined in this Section 4.1 but shall not be subject to Sections 4.1a, 4.2 or 4.3 hereof.

Whenever a lender is granted a security interest in real property or in a beneficial interest in a land trust, the lender shall disclose the existence of such interest to the borrower in compliance with the Federal Truth in Lending Act, amendments thereto, and any regulations issued or which may be issued thereunder, and shall agree to pay all expenses, including recording fees and otherwise, to release any such security interest of record whenever it no longer secures any credit under a revolving credit arrangement. A lender shall not be granted a security interest in any real property or in any beneficial interest in a land trust under a revolving credit arrangement, or if any such security interest exists, such interest shall be released, if a borrower renders payment of the total outstanding balance due under the revolving credit arrangement and requests in writing to reduce the line of credit below that amount for which a security interest in real property or in a beneficial interest in a land trust may be required by a lender. Any request by a borrower to release a security interest under a revolving credit arrangement shall be granted by the lender provided the borrower renders payment of the total outstanding balance as required by this Section before the security interest of record may be released.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 870. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Sections 2MM, 2NN, and 2VV as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2MM)

Sec. 2MM. Verification of accuracy of consumer reporting information used to extend consumers credit and security freeze on credit reports.

(a) A credit card issuer who mails an offer or solicitation to apply for a credit card and who receives a completed application in response to the offer or solicitation which lists an address that is not substantially the same as the address on the offer or solicitation may not issue a credit card based on that application until reasonable steps have been taken to verify the applicant's change of address.

(b) Any person who uses a consumer credit report in connection with the approval of credit based on the application for an extension of credit, and who has received notification of a police report filed with a consumer reporting agency that the applicant has been a victim of financial identity theft, as defined in Section 16-30 or 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, may not lend money or extend credit without taking reasonable steps to verify the consumer's identity and confirm that the application for an extension of credit is not the result of financial identity theft.

(c) A consumer may request that a security freeze be placed on his or her credit report by sending a request in writing by certified mail to a consumer reporting agency at an address designated by the consumer reporting agency to receive such requests. This subsection (c) does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from advising a third party that a security freeze is in effect with respect to the consumer's credit report.

(d) A consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze on a consumer's credit report no later than 5 business days after receiving a written request from the consumer:

(1) a written request described in subsection (c);

(2) proper identification; and

(3) payment of a fee, if applicable.

(e) Upon placing the security freeze on the consumer's credit report, the consumer reporting agency shall send to the consumer within 10 business days a written confirmation of the placement of the security freeze and a unique personal identification number or password or similar device, other than the consumer's Social Security number, to be used by the consumer when providing authorization for the release of his or her credit report for a specific party or period of time.

(f) If the consumer wishes to allow his or her credit report to be accessed for a specific party or period of time while a freeze is in place, he or she shall contact the consumer reporting agency using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, request that the freeze be temporarily lifted, and provide the following:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency;

(3) The proper information regarding the third party or time period for which the report shall be available to users of the credit report; and

(4) A fee, if applicable.

(g) A consumer reporting agency shall develop a contact method to receive and process a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f) in an expedited manner.

A contact method under this subsection shall include: (i) a postal address; and (ii) an electronic contact method chosen by the consumer reporting agency, which may include the use of telephone, fax, Internet, or other electronic means.

(h) A consumer reporting agency that receives a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (f), shall comply with the request no later than 3 business days after receiving the request.

(i) A consumer reporting agency shall remove or temporarily lift a freeze placed on a consumer's credit report only in the following cases:

(1) upon consumer request, pursuant to subsection (f) or subsection (l) of this Section; or

(2) if the consumer's credit report was frozen due to a material misrepresentation of fact by the consumer.

If a consumer reporting agency intends to remove a freeze upon a consumer's credit report pursuant to this subsection, the consumer reporting agency shall notify the consumer in writing prior to removing the freeze on the consumer's credit report.

(j) If a third party requests access to a credit report on which a security freeze is in effect, and this request is in connection with an application for credit or any other use, and the consumer does not allow his or her credit report to be accessed for that specific party or period of time, the third party may treat the application as incomplete.

(k) If a consumer requests a security freeze, the credit reporting agency shall disclose to the consumer the process of placing and temporarily lifting a security freeze, and the process for allowing access to information from the consumer's credit report for a specific party or period of time while the freeze is in place.

(l) A security freeze shall remain in place until the consumer requests, using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, that the security freeze be removed. A credit reporting agency shall remove a security freeze within 3 business days of receiving a request for removal from the consumer, who provides:

(1) Proper identification;

(2) The unique personal identification number or password or similar device provided by the consumer reporting agency; and

(3) A fee, if applicable.

(m) A consumer reporting agency shall require proper identification of the person making a request to place or remove a security freeze.

(n) The provisions of subsections (c) through (m) of this Section do not apply to the use of a consumer credit report by any of the following:

(1) A person or entity, or a subsidiary, affiliate, or agent of that person or entity, or an assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity, or a prospective assignee of a financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity in conjunction with the proposed purchase of the financial obligation, with which the consumer has or had prior to assignment an account or contract, including a demand deposit account, or to whom the consumer issued a negotiable instrument, for the purposes of reviewing the account or collecting the financial obligation owing for the account, contract, or negotiable instrument. For purposes of this subsection, "reviewing the account" includes activities related to account maintenance, monitoring, credit line increases, and account upgrades and enhancements.

(2) A subsidiary, affiliate, agent, assignee, or prospective assignee of a person to whom access has been granted under subsection (f) of this Section for purposes of facilitating the extension of credit or other permissible use.

(3) Any state or local agency, law enforcement agency, trial court, or private collection agency acting pursuant to a court order, warrant, or subpoena.

(4) A child support agency acting pursuant to Title IV-D of the Social Security Act.

(5) The State or its agents or assigns acting to investigate fraud.

(6) The Department of Revenue or its agents or assigns acting to investigate or collect delinquent taxes or unpaid court orders or to fulfill any of its other statutory responsibilities.

(7) The use of credit information for the purposes of prescreening as provided for by the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act.

(8) Any person or entity administering a credit file monitoring subscription or similar service to which the consumer has subscribed.

(9) Any person or entity for the purpose of providing a consumer with a copy of his or her credit report or score upon the consumer's request.

(10) Any person using the information in connection with the underwriting of insurance.

(n-5) This Section does not prevent a consumer reporting agency from charging a fee of no more than $10 to a consumer for each freeze, removal, or temporary lift of the freeze, regarding access to a consumer credit report, except that a consumer reporting agency may not charge a fee to (i) a consumer 65 years of age or over for placement and removal of a freeze, or (ii) a victim of identity theft who has submitted to the consumer reporting agency a valid copy of a police report, investigative report, or complaint that the consumer has filed with a law enforcement agency about unlawful use of his or her personal information by another person.

(o) If a security freeze is in place, a consumer reporting agency shall not change any of the following official information in a credit report without sending a written confirmation of the change to the consumer within 30 days of the change being posted to the consumer's file: (i) name, (ii) date of birth, (iii) Social Security number, and (iv) address. Written confirmation is not required for technical modifications of a consumer's official information, including name and street abbreviations, complete spellings, or transposition of numbers or letters. In the case of an address change, the written confirmation shall be sent to both the new address and to the former address.

(p) The following entities are not required to place a security freeze in a consumer report, however, pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection, a consumer reporting agency acting as a reseller shall honor any security freeze placed on a consumer credit report by another consumer reporting agency:

(1) A check services or fraud prevention services company, which issues reports on incidents of fraud or authorizations for the purpose of approving or processing negotiable instruments, electronic funds transfers, or similar methods of payment.

(2) A deposit account information service company, which issues reports regarding account closures due to fraud, substantial overdrafts, ATM abuse, or similar negative information regarding a consumer to inquiring banks or other financial institutions for use only in reviewing a consumer request for a deposit account at the inquiring bank or financial institution.

(3) A consumer reporting agency that:

(A) acts only to resell credit information by assembling and merging information contained in a database of one or more consumer reporting agencies; and

(B) does not maintain a permanent database of credit information from which new credit reports are produced.

(q) For purposes of this Section:

"Credit report" has the same meaning as "consumer report", as ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(d).

"Consumer reporting agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(f).

"Security freeze" means a notice placed in a consumer's credit report, at the request of the consumer and subject to certain exceptions, that prohibits the consumer reporting agency from releasing the consumer's credit report or score relating to an extension of credit, without the express authorization of the consumer.

"Extension of credit" does not include an increase in an existing open-end credit plan, as defined in Regulation Z of the Federal Reserve System (12 C.F.R. 226.2), or any change to or review of an existing credit account.

"Proper identification" means information generally deemed sufficient to identify a person. Only if the consumer is unable to reasonably identify himself or herself with the information described above, may a consumer reporting agency require additional information concerning the consumer's employment and personal or family history in order to verify his or her identity.

(r) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

(815 ILCS 505/2NN)

Sec. 2NN. Receipts; credit card and debit card account numbers.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Cardholder" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

"Credit card" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

"Debit card" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

"Issuer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

"Person" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

"Provider" means a person who furnishes money, goods, services, or anything else of value upon presentation, whether physically, in writing, verbally, electronically, or otherwise, of a credit card or debit card by the cardholder, or any agent or employee of that person.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, no provider may print or otherwise produce or reproduce or permit the printing or other production or reproduction of the following: (i) any part of the credit card or debit card account number, other than the last 4 digits or other characters, (ii) the credit card or debit card expiration date on any receipt provided or made available to the cardholder.

(c) This Section does not apply to a credit card or debit card transaction in which the sole means available to the provider of recording the credit card or debit card account number is by handwriting or by imprint of the card.

(d) This Section does not apply to receipts issued for transactions on the electronic benefits transfer card system in accordance with 7 CFR 274.12(g)(3).

(e) A violation of this Section constitutes an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(f) This Section is operative on January 1, 2005.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

(815 ILCS 505/2VV)

Sec. 2VV. Credit and public utility service; identity theft. It is an unlawful practice for a person to deny credit or public utility service to or reduce the credit limit of a consumer solely because the consumer has been a victim of identity theft as defined in Section 16-30 or 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if the consumer:

(1) has provided a copy of an identity theft report as defined under the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act and implementing regulations evidencing the consumer's claim of identity theft;

(2) has provided a properly completed copy of a standardized affidavit of identity theft developed and made available by the Federal Trade Commission pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1681g or an affidavit of fact that is acceptable to the person for that purpose;

(3) has obtained placement of an extended fraud alert in his or her file maintained by a nationwide consumer reporting agency, in accordance with the requirements of the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act; and

(4) is able to establish his or her identity and address to the satisfaction of the person providing credit or utility services.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12.)

Section 875. The Home Repair Fraud Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(815 ILCS 515/5) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 1605)

Sec. 5. Aggravated Home Repair Fraud. A person commits the offense of aggravated home repair fraud when he commits home repair fraud:

(i) against an elderly person or a person with a disability as defined in Section 17-56 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961; or

(ii) in connection with a home repair project intended to assist a disabled person.

(a) Aggravated violation of paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3 of this Act shall be a Class 2 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is more than $500, a Class 3 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is $500 or less, and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense when the amount of the contract or agreement is $500 or less. If 2 or more contracts or agreements for home repair exceed an aggregate amount of $500 or more and such contracts or agreements are entered into with the same victim by one or more of the defendants as part of or in furtherance of a common fraudulent scheme, design or intention, the violation shall be a Class 2 felony.

(b) Aggravated violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 3 of this Act shall be a Class 2 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is more than $5,000 and a Class 3 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is $5,000 or less.

(c) Aggravated violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 3 of this Act shall be a Class 3 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is more than $500, a Class 4 felony when the amount of the contract or agreement is $500 or less and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense when the amount of the contract or agreement is $500 or less.

(d) Aggravated violation of paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (b) of Section 3 of this Act shall be a Class 3 felony.

(e) If a person commits aggravated home repair fraud, then any State or local license or permit held by that person that relates to the business of home repair may be appropriately suspended or revoked by the issuing authority, commensurate with the severity of the offense.

(f) A defense to aggravated home repair fraud does not exist merely because the accused reasonably believed the victim to be a person less than 60 years of age.

(Source: P.A. 96-1026, eff. 7-12-10; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 880. The Music Licensing Fees Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(815 ILCS 637/40)

Sec. 40. Exceptions. This Act shall not apply to contracts between copyright owners or performing rights societies and broadcasters licensed by the Federal Communications Commission, or to contracts with cable operators, programmers, or other transmission services. Nor shall this Act apply to musical works performed in synchronization with an audio/visual film or tape, or to the gathering of information for determination of compliance with or activities related to the enforcement of Sections 16-7 and 16-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 89-114, eff. 1-1-96.)

Section 885. The Victims' Economic Security and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(820 ILCS 180/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act, except as otherwise expressly provided:

(1) "Commerce" includes trade, traffic, commerce, transportation, or communication; and "industry or activity affecting commerce" means any activity, business, or industry in commerce or in which a labor dispute would hinder or obstruct commerce or the free flow of commerce, and includes "commerce" and any "industry affecting commerce".

(2) "Course of conduct" means a course of repeatedly maintaining a visual or physical proximity to a person or conveying oral or written threats, including threats conveyed through electronic communications, or threats implied by conduct.

(3) "Department" means the Department of Labor.

(4) "Director" means the Director of Labor.

(5) "Domestic or sexual violence" means domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking.

(6) "Domestic violence" means abuse, as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, by a family or household member, as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(7) "Electronic communications" includes communications via telephone, mobile phone, computer, e-mail, video recorder, fax machine, telex, or pager, or any other electronic communication, as defined in Section 12-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961.

(8) "Employ" includes to suffer or permit to work.

(9) Employee.

(A) In general. "Employee" means any person employed by an employer.

(B) Basis. "Employee" includes a person employed as described in subparagraph (A) on a full or part-time basis, or as a participant in a work assignment as a condition of receipt of federal or State income-based public assistance.

(10) "Employer" means any of the following: (A) the State or any agency of the State; (B) any unit of local government or school district; or (C) any person that employs at least 15 employees.

(11) "Employment benefits" means all benefits provided or made available to employees by an employer, including group life insurance, health insurance, disability insurance, sick leave, annual leave, educational benefits, pensions, and profit-sharing, regardless of whether such benefits are provided by a practice or written policy of an employer or through an "employee benefit plan". "Employee benefit plan" or "plan" means an employee welfare benefit plan or an employee pension benefit plan or a plan which is both an employee welfare benefit plan and an employee pension benefit plan.

(12) "Family or household member", for employees with a family or household member who is a victim of domestic or sexual violence, means a spouse, parent, son, daughter, other person related by blood or by present or prior marriage, other person who shares a relationship through a son or daughter, and persons jointly residing in the same household.

(13) "Parent" means the biological parent of an employee or an individual who stood in loco parentis to an employee when the employee was a son or daughter. "Son or daughter" means a biological, adopted, or foster child, a stepchild, a legal ward, or a child of a person standing in loco parentis, who is under 18 years of age, or is 18 years of age or older and incapable of self-care because of a mental or physical disability.

(14) "Perpetrator" means an individual who commits or is alleged to have committed any act or threat of domestic or sexual violence.

(15) "Person" means an individual, partnership, association, corporation, business trust, legal representative, or any organized group of persons.

(16) "Public agency" means the Government of the State or political subdivision thereof; any agency of the State, or of a political subdivision of the State; or any governmental agency.

(17) "Public assistance" includes cash, food stamps, medical assistance, housing assistance, and other benefits provided on the basis of income by a public agency or public employer.

(18) "Reduced work schedule" means a work schedule that reduces the usual number of hours per workweek, or hours per workday, of an employee.

(19) "Repeatedly" means on 2 or more occasions.

(20) "Sexual assault" means any conduct proscribed by the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16.

(21) "Stalking" means any conduct proscribed by the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 in Sections 12-7.3, 12-7.4, and 12-7.5.

(22) "Victim" or "survivor" means an individual who has been subjected to domestic or sexual violence.

(23) "Victim services organization" means a nonprofit, nongovernmental organization that provides assistance to victims of domestic or sexual violence or to advocates for such victims, including a rape crisis center, an organization carrying out a domestic violence program, an organization operating a shelter or providing counseling services, or a legal services organization or other organization providing assistance through the legal process.

(Source: P.A. 96-635, eff. 8-24-09; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

Section 890. The Workers' Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 25.5 as follows:

(820 ILCS 305/25.5)

Sec. 25.5. Unlawful acts; penalties.

(a) It is unlawful for any person, company, corporation, insurance carrier, healthcare provider, or other entity to:

(1) Intentionally present or cause to be presented any false or fraudulent claim for the payment of any workers' compensation benefit.

(2) Intentionally make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent material statement or material representation for the purpose of obtaining or denying any workers' compensation benefit.

(3) Intentionally make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent statements with regard to entitlement to workers' compensation benefits with the intent to prevent an injured worker from making a legitimate claim for any workers' compensation benefits.

(4) Intentionally prepare or provide an invalid, false, or counterfeit certificate of insurance as proof of workers' compensation insurance.

(5) Intentionally make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent material statement or material representation for the purpose of obtaining workers' compensation insurance at less than the proper rate for that insurance.

(6) Intentionally make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent material statement or material representation on an initial or renewal self-insurance application or accompanying financial statement for the purpose of obtaining self-insurance status or reducing the amount of security that may be required to be furnished pursuant to Section 4 of this Act.

(7) Intentionally make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent material statement to the Department of Insurance's fraud and insurance non-compliance unit in the course of an investigation of fraud or insurance non-compliance.

(8) Intentionally assist, abet, solicit, or conspire with any person, company, or other entity to commit any of the acts in paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) of this subsection (a).

(9) Intentionally present a bill or statement for the payment for medical services that were not provided.

For the purposes of paragraphs (2), (3), (5), (6), (7), and (9), the term "statement" includes any writing, notice, proof of injury, bill for services, hospital or doctor records and reports, or X-ray and test results.

(b) Sentences for violations of subsection (a) are as follows:

(1) A violation in which the value of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is $300 or less is a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) A violation in which the value of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is more than $300 but not more than $10,000 is a Class 3 felony.

(3) A violation in which the value of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is more than $10,000 but not more than $100,000 is a Class 2 felony.

(4) A violation in which the value of the property obtained or attempted to be obtained is more than $100,000 is a Class 1 felony.

(5) A person convicted under this Section shall be ordered to pay monetary restitution to the insurance company or self-insured entity or any other person for any financial loss sustained as a result of a violation of this Section, including any court costs and attorney fees. An order of restitution also includes expenses incurred and paid by the State of Illinois or an insurance company or self-insured entity in connection with any medical evaluation or treatment services.

For the purposes of this Section, where the exact value of property obtained or attempted to be obtained is either not alleged or is not specifically set by the terms of a policy of insurance, the value of the property shall be the fair market replacement value of the property claimed to be lost, the reasonable costs of reimbursing a vendor or other claimant for services to be rendered, or both. Notwithstanding the foregoing, an insurance company, self-insured entity, or any other person suffering financial loss sustained as a result of violation of this Section may seek restitution, including court costs and attorney's fees in a civil action in a court of competent jurisdiction.

(c) The Department of Insurance shall establish a fraud and insurance non-compliance unit responsible for investigating incidences of fraud and insurance non-compliance pursuant to this Section. The size of the staff of the unit shall be subject to appropriation by the General Assembly. It shall be the duty of the fraud and insurance non-compliance unit to determine the identity of insurance carriers, employers, employees, or other persons or entities who have violated the fraud and insurance non-compliance provisions of this Section. The fraud and insurance non-compliance unit shall report violations of the fraud and insurance non-compliance provisions of this Section to the Special Prosecutions Bureau of the Criminal Division of the Office of the Attorney General or to the State's Attorney of the county in which the offense allegedly occurred, either of whom has the authority to prosecute violations under this Section.

With respect to the subject of any investigation being conducted, the fraud and insurance non-compliance unit shall have the general power of subpoena of the Department of Insurance, including the authority to issue a subpoena to a medical provider, pursuant to Section 8-802 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(d) Any person may report allegations of insurance non-compliance and fraud pursuant to this Section to the Department of Insurance's fraud and insurance non-compliance unit whose duty it shall be to investigate the report. The unit shall notify the Commission of reports of insurance non-compliance. Any person reporting an allegation of insurance non-compliance or fraud against either an employee or employer under this Section must identify himself. Except as provided in this subsection and in subsection (e), all reports shall remain confidential except to refer an investigation to the Attorney General or State's Attorney for prosecution or if the fraud and insurance non-compliance unit's investigation reveals that the conduct reported may be in violation of other laws or regulations of the State of Illinois, the unit may report such conduct to the appropriate governmental agency charged with administering such laws and regulations. Any person who intentionally makes a false report under this Section to the fraud and insurance non-compliance unit is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) In order for the fraud and insurance non-compliance unit to investigate a report of fraud related to an employee's claim, (i) the employee must have filed with the Commission an Application for Adjustment of Claim and the employee must have either received or attempted to receive benefits under this Act that are related to the reported fraud or (ii) the employee must have made a written demand for the payment of benefits that are related to the reported fraud. There shall be no immunity, under this Act or otherwise, for any person who files a false report or who files a report without good and just cause. Confidentiality of medical information shall be strictly maintained. Investigations that are not referred for prosecution shall be destroyed upon the expiration of the statute of limitations for the acts under investigation and shall not be disclosed except that the person making the report shall be notified that the investigation is being closed. It is unlawful for any employer, insurance carrier, service adjustment company, third party administrator, self-insured, or similar entity to file or threaten to file a report of fraud against an employee because of the exercise by the employee of the rights and remedies granted to the employee by this Act.

(e-5) The fraud and insurance non-compliance unit shall procure and implement a system utilizing advanced analytics inclusive of predictive modeling, data mining, social network analysis, and scoring algorithms for the detection and prevention of fraud, waste, and abuse on or before January 1, 2012. The fraud and insurance non-compliance unit shall procure this system using a request for proposals process governed by the Illinois Procurement Code and rules adopted under that Code. The fraud and insurance non-compliance unit shall provide a report to the President of the Senate, Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, Minority Leader of the Senate, Governor, Chairman of the Commission, and Director of Insurance on or before July 1, 2012 and annually thereafter detailing its activities and providing recommendations regarding opportunities for additional fraud waste and abuse detection and prevention.

(f) Any person convicted of fraud related to workers' compensation pursuant to this Section shall be subject to the penalties prescribed in the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 and shall be ineligible to receive or retain any compensation, disability, or medical benefits as defined in this Act if the compensation, disability, or medical benefits were owed or received as a result of fraud for which the recipient of the compensation, disability, or medical benefit was convicted. This subsection applies to accidental injuries or diseases that occur on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(g) Civil liability. Any person convicted of fraud who knowingly obtains, attempts to obtain, or causes to be obtained any benefits under this Act by the making of a false claim or who knowingly misrepresents any material fact shall be civilly liable to the payor of benefits or the insurer or the payor's or insurer's subrogee or assignee in an amount equal to 3 times the value of the benefits or insurance coverage wrongfully obtained or twice the value of the benefits or insurance coverage attempted to be obtained, plus reasonable attorney's fees and expenses incurred by the payor or the payor's subrogee or assignee who successfully brings a claim under this subsection. This subsection applies to accidental injuries or diseases that occur on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(h) The fraud and insurance non-compliance unit shall submit a written report on an annual basis to the Chairman of the Commission, the Workers' Compensation Advisory Board, the General Assembly, the Governor, and the Attorney General by January 1 and July 1 of each year. This report shall include, at the minimum, the following information:

(1) The number of allegations of insurance non-compliance and fraud reported to the fraud and insurance non-compliance unit.

(2) The source of the reported allegations (individual, employer, or other).

(3) The number of allegations investigated by the fraud and insurance non-compliance unit.

(4) The number of criminal referrals made in accordance with this Section and the entity to which the referral was made.

(5) All proceedings under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-18, eff. 6-28-11.)

Section 895. The Unemployment Insurance Act is amended by changing Section 1900 as follows:

(820 ILCS 405/1900) (from Ch. 48, par. 640)

Sec. 1900. Disclosure of information.

A. Except as provided in this Section, information obtained from any individual or employing unit during the administration of this Act shall:

1. be confidential,

2. not be published or open to public inspection,

3. not be used in any court in any pending action or proceeding,

4. not be admissible in evidence in any action or proceeding other than one arising out of this Act.

B. No finding, determination, decision, ruling or order (including any finding of fact, statement or conclusion made therein) issued pursuant to this Act shall be admissible or used in evidence in any action other than one arising out of this Act, nor shall it be binding or conclusive except as provided in this Act, nor shall it constitute res judicata, regardless of whether the actions were between the same or related parties or involved the same facts.

C. Any officer or employee of this State, any officer or employee of any entity authorized to obtain information pursuant to this Section, and any agent of this State or of such entity who, except with authority of the Director under this Section, shall disclose information shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor and shall be disqualified from holding any appointment or employment by the State.

D. An individual or his duly authorized agent may be supplied with information from records only to the extent necessary for the proper presentation of his claim for benefits or with his existing or prospective rights to benefits. Discretion to disclose this information belongs solely to the Director and is not subject to a release or waiver by the individual. Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, an individual or his or her duly authorized agent may be supplied with a statement of the amount of benefits paid to the individual during the 18 months preceding the date of his or her request.

E. An employing unit may be furnished with information, only if deemed by the Director as necessary to enable it to fully discharge its obligations or safeguard its rights under the Act. Discretion to disclose this information belongs solely to the Director and is not subject to a release or waiver by the employing unit.

F. The Director may furnish any information that he may deem proper to any public officer or public agency of this or any other State or of the federal government dealing with:

1. the administration of relief,

2. public assistance,

3. unemployment compensation,

4. a system of public employment offices,

5. wages and hours of employment, or

6. a public works program.

The Director may make available to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission information regarding employers for the purpose of verifying the insurance coverage required under the Workers' Compensation Act and Workers' Occupational Diseases Act.

G. The Director may disclose information submitted by the State or any of its political subdivisions, municipal corporations, instrumentalities, or school or community college districts, except for information which specifically identifies an individual claimant.

H. The Director shall disclose only that information required to be disclosed under Section 303 of the Social Security Act, as amended, including:

1. any information required to be given the United States Department of Labor under Section 303(a)(6); and

2. the making available upon request to any agency of the United States charged with the administration of public works or assistance through public employment, the name, address, ordinary occupation and employment status of each recipient of unemployment compensation, and a statement of such recipient's right to further compensation under such law as required by Section 303(a)(7); and

3. records to make available to the Railroad Retirement Board as required by Section 303(c)(1); and

4. information that will assure reasonable cooperation with every agency of the United States charged with the administration of any unemployment compensation law as required by Section 303(c)(2); and

5. information upon request and on a reimbursable basis to the United States Department of Agriculture and to any State food stamp agency concerning any information required to be furnished by Section 303(d); and

6. any wage information upon request and on a reimbursable basis to any State or local child support enforcement agency required by Section 303(e); and

7. any information required under the income eligibility and verification system as required by Section 303(f); and

8. information that might be useful in locating an absent parent or that parent's employer, establishing paternity or establishing, modifying, or enforcing child support orders for the purpose of a child support enforcement program under Title IV of the Social Security Act upon the request of and on a reimbursable basis to the public agency administering the Federal Parent Locator Service as required by Section 303(h); and

9. information, upon request, to representatives of any federal, State or local governmental public housing agency with respect to individuals who have signed the appropriate consent form approved by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development and who are applying for or participating in any housing assistance program administered by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development as required by Section 303(i).

I. The Director, upon the request of a public agency of Illinois, of the federal government or of any other state charged with the investigation or enforcement of Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1961 (or a similar federal law or similar law of another State), may furnish the public agency information regarding the individual specified in the request as to:

1. the current or most recent home address of the individual, and

2. the names and addresses of the individual's employers.

J. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to interfere with the disclosure of certain records as provided for in Section 1706 or with the right to make available to the Internal Revenue Service of the United States Department of the Treasury, or the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois, information obtained under this Act.

K. The Department shall make available to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission, upon request, information in the possession of the Department that may be necessary or useful to the Commission in the collection of defaulted or delinquent student loans which the Commission administers.

L. The Department shall make available to the State Employees' Retirement System, the State Universities Retirement System, the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, and the Department of Central Management Services, Risk Management Division, upon request, information in the possession of the Department that may be necessary or useful to the System or the Risk Management Division for the purpose of determining whether any recipient of a disability benefit from the System or a workers' compensation benefit from the Risk Management Division is gainfully employed.

M. This Section shall be applicable to the information obtained in the administration of the State employment service, except that the Director may publish or release general labor market information and may furnish information that he may deem proper to an individual, public officer or public agency of this or any other State or the federal government (in addition to those public officers or public agencies specified in this Section) as he prescribes by Rule.

N. The Director may require such safeguards as he deems proper to insure that information disclosed pursuant to this Section is used only for the purposes set forth in this Section.

O. Nothing in this Section prohibits communication with an individual or entity through unencrypted e-mail or other unencrypted electronic means as long as the communication does not contain the individual's or entity's name in combination with any one or more of the individual's or entity's social security number; driver's license or State identification number; account number or credit or debit card number; or any required security code, access code, or password that would permit access to further information pertaining to the individual or entity.

P. Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993 and annually thereafter, the Department shall provide to the Department of Financial Institutions a list of individuals or entities that, for the most recently completed calendar year, report to the Department as paying wages to workers. The lists shall be deemed confidential and may not be disclosed to any other person.

Q. The Director shall make available to an elected federal official the name and address of an individual or entity that is located within the jurisdiction from which the official was elected and that, for the most recently completed calendar year, has reported to the Department as paying wages to workers, where the information will be used in connection with the official duties of the official and the official requests the information in writing, specifying the purposes for which it will be used. For purposes of this subsection, the use of information in connection with the official duties of an official does not include use of the information in connection with the solicitation of contributions or expenditures, in money or in kind, to or on behalf of a candidate for public or political office or a political party or with respect to a public question, as defined in Section 1-3 of the Election Code, or in connection with any commercial solicitation. Any elected federal official who, in submitting a request for information covered by this subsection, knowingly makes a false statement or fails to disclose a material fact, with the intent to obtain the information for a purpose not authorized by this subsection, shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

R. The Director may provide to any State or local child support agency, upon request and on a reimbursable basis, information that might be useful in locating an absent parent or that parent's employer, establishing paternity, or establishing, modifying, or enforcing child support orders.

S. The Department shall make available to a State's Attorney of this State or a State's Attorney's investigator, upon request, the current address or, if the current address is unavailable, current employer information, if available, of a victim of a felony or a witness to a felony or a person against whom an arrest warrant is outstanding.

T. The Director shall make available to the Department of State Police, a county sheriff's office, or a municipal police department, upon request, any information concerning the current address and place of employment or former places of employment of a person who is required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act that may be useful in enforcing the registration provisions of that Act.

U. The Director shall make information available to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services for the purpose of determining eligibility for public benefit programs authorized under the Illinois Public Aid Code and related statutes administered by those departments, for verifying sources and amounts of income, and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of those programs.

(Source: P.A. 96-420, eff. 8-13-09; 97-621, eff. 11-18-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)

Section 990. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect January 1, 2013.".