HB5785 103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB103 39901 RLC 70908 b

103RD GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2023 and 2024
HB5785

Introduced 3/20/2024, by Rep. John M. Cabello

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Repeals the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. Amends the Criminal Code of 2012. Provides that the unlawful use of weapons and aggravated unlawful use of a weapon statutes do not apply to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver, or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. Amends various Acts to make conforming changes.

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning criminal law.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees, specific individuals who serve as independent contractors in a park, recreational, or educational setting, or specific volunteers of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee, a specific individual who serves as an independent contractor in a park, recreational, or educational setting, or a volunteer of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity. However, a meeting to consider an increase in compensation to a specific employee of a public body that is subject to the Local Government Wage Increase Transparency Act may not be closed and shall be open to the public and posted and held in accordance with this Act.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(4.5) Evidence or testimony presented to a school board regarding denial of admission to school events or property pursuant to Section 24-24 of the School Code, provided that the school board prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.

(8) Security procedures, school building safety and security, and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals, or for the discussion of matters protected under the federal Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005, and the regulations promulgated thereunder, including 42 C.F.R. Part 3 (73 FR 70732), or the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, and the regulations promulgated thereunder, including 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164, by a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(27) (Blank).

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards of the United States of America.

(30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(31) (Blank). Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and 3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

(33) Those meetings or portions of meetings of the advisory committee and peer review subcommittee created under Section 320 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act during which specific controlled substance prescriber, dispenser, or patient information is discussed.

(34) Meetings of the Tax Increment Financing Reform Task Force under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(35) Meetings of the group established to discuss Medicaid capitation rates under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(36) Those deliberations or portions of deliberations for decisions of the Illinois Gaming Board in which there is discussed any of the following: (i) personal, commercial, financial, or other information obtained from any source that is privileged, proprietary, confidential, or a trade secret; or (ii) information specifically exempted from the disclosure by federal or State law.

(37) Deliberations for decisions of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, the Certification Review Panel, and the Illinois State Police Merit Board regarding certification and decertification.

(38) Meetings of the Ad Hoc Statewide Domestic Violence Fatality Review Committee of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority Board that occur in closed executive session under subsection (d) of Section 35 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(39) Meetings of the regional review teams under subsection (a) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(40) Meetings of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-311, eff. 7-28-23.)

Section 10. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 103-472)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and 2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act (repealed).

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Record Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) (Blank).

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board that are exempted from disclosure under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports arising out of a peer support counseling session prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(pp) Names and all identifying information relating to an employee of an emergency services provider or law enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(qq) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives collected under the Reproductive Health Act.

(rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

(ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.

(vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.

(xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or information that shall not be made public under the Illinois Insurance Code.

(yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.

(aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State Police Act.

(ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act.

(eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera Act. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2025.

(ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse Agency Licensing Act.

(hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State Police in an affidavit or application for an assault weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement, .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the School Safety Drill Act.

(jjj) (hhh) Information exempt from disclosure under Section 30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.

(kkk) (iii) Confidential business information prohibited from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship Act.

(lll) (Reserved).

(mmm) (iii) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (e) of Section 1-129 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-292, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-559, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-946, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1042, eff. 6-3-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; revised 1-2-24.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 103-472)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act (repealed). This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and 2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act (repealed).

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Record Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) (Blank).

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board that are exempted from disclosure under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports arising out of a peer support counseling session prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(pp) Names and all identifying information relating to an employee of an emergency services provider or law enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(qq) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives collected under the Reproductive Health Act.

(rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

(ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.

(vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.

(xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or information that shall not be made public under the Illinois Insurance Code.

(yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.

(aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(bbb) Information that is prohibited from disclosure by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State Police Act.

(ccc) Records exempt from disclosure under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act.

(eee) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(fff) Images from cameras under the Expressway Camera Act. This subsection (fff) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2025.

(ggg) Information prohibited from disclosure under paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 14 of the Nurse Agency Licensing Act.

(hhh) Information submitted to the Illinois State Police in an affidavit or application for an assault weapon endorsement, assault weapon attachment endorsement, .50 caliber rifle endorsement, or .50 caliber cartridge endorsement under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the School Safety Drill Act.

(jjj) (hhh) Information exempt from disclosure under Section 30 of the Insurance Data Security Law.

(kkk) (iii) Confidential business information prohibited from disclosure under Section 45 of the Paint Stewardship Act.

(lll) (iii) Data exempt from disclosure under Section 2-3.196 of the School Code.

(mmm) (iii) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (e) of Section 1-129 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-292, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-559, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-946, eff. 7-1-22; 102-1042, eff. 6-3-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; 103-8, eff. 6-7-23; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23; 103-142, eff. 1-1-24; 103-372, eff. 1-1-24; 103-472, eff. 8-1-24; 103-508, eff. 8-4-23; 103-580, eff. 12-8-23; revised 1-2-24.)

Section 15. The Illinois TRUST Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(5 ILCS 805/15)

Sec. 15. Prohibition on enforcing federal civil immigration laws.

(a) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official shall not detain or continue to detain any individual solely on the basis of any immigration detainer or civil immigration warrant or otherwise comply with an immigration detainer or civil immigration warrant.

(b) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official shall not stop, arrest, search, detain, or continue to detain a person solely based on an individual's citizenship or immigration status.

(c) (Blank).

(d) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official acting in good faith in compliance with this Section who releases a person subject to an immigration detainer or civil immigration warrant shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise occur as a result of making the release, with the exception of willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) A law enforcement agency or law enforcement official may not inquire about or investigate the citizenship or immigration status or place of birth of any individual in the agency or official's custody or who has otherwise been stopped or detained by the agency or official. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit the ability of a law enforcement agency or law enforcement official, pursuant to State or federal law, to notify a person in the law enforcement agency's custody about that person's right to communicate with consular officers from that person's country of nationality, or facilitate such communication, in accordance with the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations or other bilateral agreements. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit the ability of a law enforcement agency or law enforcement official to request evidence of citizenship or immigration status pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or 18 United States Code Sections 921 through 931.

(f) Unless otherwise limited by federal law, a law enforcement agency or law enforcement official may not deny services, benefits, privileges, or opportunities to an individual in custody or under probation status, including, but not limited to, eligibility for or placement in a lower custody classification, educational, rehabilitative, or diversionary programs, on the basis of the individual's citizenship or immigration status, the issuance of an immigration detainer or civil immigration warrant against the individual, or the individual being in immigration removal proceedings.

(g)(1) No law enforcement agency, law enforcement official, or any unit of State or local government may enter into or renew any contract, intergovernmental service agreement, or any other agreement to house or detain individuals for federal civil immigration violations.

(2) Any law enforcement agency, law enforcement official, or unit of State or local government with an existing contract, intergovernmental agreement, or other agreement, whether in whole or in part, that is utilized to house or detain individuals for civil immigration violations shall exercise the termination provision in the agreement as applied to housing or detaining individuals for civil immigration violations no later than January 1, 2022.

(h) Unless presented with a federal criminal warrant, or otherwise required by federal law, a law enforcement agency or official may not:

(1) participate, support, or assist in any capacity with an immigration agent's enforcement operations, including any collateral assistance such as coordinating an arrest in a courthouse or other public facility, providing use of any equipment, transporting any individuals, or establishing a security or traffic perimeter surrounding such operations, or any other on-site support;

(2) give any immigration agent access, including by telephone, to any individual who is in that agency's custody;

(3) transfer any person into an immigration agent's custody;

(4) permit immigration agents use of agency facilities or equipment, including any agency electronic databases not available to the public, for investigative interviews or other investigative or immigration enforcement purpose;

(5) enter into or maintain any agreement regarding direct access to any electronic database or other data-sharing platform maintained by any law enforcement agency, or otherwise provide such direct access to the U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, United States Customs and Border Protection or any other federal entity enforcing civil immigration violations;

(6) provide information in response to any immigration agent's inquiry or request for information regarding any individual in the agency's custody; or

(7) provide to any immigration agent information not otherwise available to the public relating to an individual's release or contact information, or otherwise facilitate for an immigration agent to apprehend or question an individual for immigration enforcement.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall preclude a law enforcement official from otherwise executing that official's duties in investigating violations of criminal law and cooperating in such investigations with federal and other law enforcement agencies (including criminal investigations conducted by federal Homeland Security Investigations (HSI)) in order to ensure public safety.

(Source: P.A. 102-234, eff. 8-2-21; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)

Section 20. The Gun Trafficking Information Act is amended by changing Section 10-5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 830/10-5)

Sec. 10-5. Gun trafficking information.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall use all reasonable efforts, as allowed by State law and regulations, federal law and regulations, and executed Memoranda of Understanding between Illinois law enforcement agencies and the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, in making publicly available, on a regular and ongoing basis, key information related to firearms used in the commission of crimes in this State, including, but not limited to: reports on crimes committed with firearms, locations where the crimes occurred, the number of persons killed or injured in the commission of the crimes, the state where the firearms used originated, the Federal Firearms Licensee that sold the firearm, the type of firearms used, if known, annual statistical information concerning Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license applications, revocations, and compliance with Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the information required in the report or on the Illinois State Police's website under Section 85 of the Firearms Restraining Order Act, and firearm dealer license certification inspections. The Illinois State Police shall make the information available on its website, which may be presented in a dashboard format, in addition to electronically filing a report with the Governor and the General Assembly. The report to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall study, on a regular and ongoing basis, and compile reports on the number of Firearm Owner's Identification Card checks to determine firearms trafficking or straw purchase patterns. The Illinois State Police shall, to the extent not inconsistent with law, share such reports and underlying data with academic centers, foundations, and law enforcement agencies studying firearms trafficking, provided that personally identifying information is protected. For purposes of this subsection (b), a Firearm Owner's Identification Card number is not personally identifying information, provided that no other personal information of the card holder is attached to the record. The Illinois State Police may create and attach an alternate unique identifying number to each Firearm Owner's Identification Card number, instead of releasing the Firearm Owner's Identification Card number itself.

(c) Each department, office, division, and agency of this State shall, to the extent not inconsistent with law, cooperate fully with the Illinois State Police and furnish the Illinois State Police with all relevant information and assistance on a timely basis as is necessary to accomplish the purpose of this Act. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall submit the information required in subsection (a) of this Section to the Illinois State Police, and any other information as the Illinois State Police may request, to assist the Illinois State Police in carrying out its duties under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23.)

(15 ILCS 305/13.5 rep.)

Section 25. The Secretary of State Act is amended by repealing Section 13.5.

Section 30. The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2605-10, 2605-45, 2605-200, 2605-300, 2605-595, and 2605-605 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-10) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)

Sec. 2605-10. Powers and duties, generally.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall exercise the rights, powers, and duties that have been vested in the Illinois State Police by the following:

The Illinois State Police Act.

The Illinois State Police Radio Act.

The Criminal Identification Act.

The Illinois Vehicle Code.

The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

The Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

The Firearm Dealer License Certification Act.

The Intergovernmental Missing Child Recovery Act of 1984.

The Intergovernmental Drug Laws Enforcement Act.

The Narcotic Control Division Abolition Act.

The Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act.

The Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall have the powers and duties set forth in the following Sections.

(c) The Illinois State Police shall exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the Illinois State Police to implement the following protective service functions for State facilities, State officials, and State employees serving in their official capacity:

(1) Utilize subject matter expertise and law enforcement authority to strengthen the protection of State government facilities, State employees, State officials, and State critical infrastructure.

(2) Coordinate State, federal, and local law enforcement activities involving the protection of State facilities, officials, and employees.

(3) Conduct investigations of criminal threats to State facilities, State critical infrastructure, State officials, and State employees.

(4) Train State officials and employees in personal protection, crime prevention, facility occupant emergency planning, and incident management.

(5) Establish standard protocols for prevention and response to criminal threats to State facilities, State officials, State employees, and State critical infrastructure and standard protocols for reporting of suspicious activities.

(6) Establish minimum operational standards, qualifications, training, and compliance requirements for State employees and contractors engaged in the protection of State facilities and employees.

(7) At the request of departments or agencies of State government, conduct security assessments, including, but not limited to, examination of alarm systems, cameras systems, access points, personnel readiness, and emergency protocols based on risk and need.

(8) Oversee the planning and implementation of security and law enforcement activities necessary for the protection of major, multi-jurisdictional events implicating potential criminal threats to State officials, State employees, or State-owned, State-leased, or State-operated critical infrastructure or facilities.

(9) Oversee and direct the planning and implementation of security and law enforcement activities by the departments and agencies of the State necessary for the protection of State employees, State officials, and State-owned, State-leased, or State-operated critical infrastructure or facilities from criminal activity.

(10) Advise the Governor and Homeland Security Advisor on any matters necessary for the effective protection of State facilities, critical infrastructure, officials, and employees from criminal threats.

(11) Utilize intergovernmental agreements and administrative rules as needed for the effective, efficient implementation of law enforcement and support activities necessary for the protection of State facilities, State infrastructure, State employees, and, upon the express written consent of State constitutional officials, State constitutional officials.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-34, eff. 1-1-24; 103-564, eff. 11-17-23.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-45) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-5)

Sec. 2605-45. Division of Justice Services. The Division of Justice Services shall provide administrative and technical services and support to the Illinois State Police, criminal justice agencies, and the public and shall exercise the following functions:

(1) Operate and maintain the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS), a statewide, computerized telecommunications system designed to provide services, information, and capabilities to the law enforcement and criminal justice community in the State of Illinois. The Director is responsible for establishing policy, procedures, and regulations consistent with State and federal rules, policies, and law by which LEADS operates. The Director shall designate a statewide LEADS Administrator for management of the system. The Director may appoint a LEADS Advisory Policy Board to reflect the needs and desires of the law enforcement and criminal justice community and to make recommendations concerning policies and procedures.

(2) Pursue research and the publication of studies pertaining to local law enforcement activities.

(3) Serve as the State's point of contact for the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Uniform Crime Reporting Program and National Incident-Based Reporting System.

(4) Operate an electronic data processing and computer center for the storage and retrieval of data pertaining to criminal activity.

(5) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the Illinois State Police by the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act and the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(6) (Blank).

(6.5) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the Illinois State Police by the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the Firearm Transfer Inquiry Program, the prohibited persons portal under Section 2605-304, and the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act.

(7) Exercise other duties that may be assigned by the Director to fulfill the responsibilities and achieve the purposes of the Illinois State Police.

(8) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested by law in the Illinois State Police by the Criminal Identification Act and the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act.

(9) Exercise the powers and perform the duties that have been vested in the Illinois State Police by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, the Sex Offender Registration Act, and the Sex Offender Community Notification Law and adopt reasonable rules necessitated thereby.

(10) Serve as the State central repository for criminal history record information.

(11) Share all necessary information with the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board and the Firearms Owner's Identification Card Review Board necessary for the execution of its their duties.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-34, eff. 1-1-24.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-200) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)

Sec. 2605-200. Investigations of crime; enforcement of laws; records; crime laboratories; personnel.

(a) To do the following:

(1) Investigate the origins, activities, personnel, and incidents of crime and the ways and means to redress the victims of crimes; study the impact, if any, of legislation relative to the effusion of crime and growing crime rates; and enforce the criminal laws of this State related thereto.

(2) Enforce all laws regulating the production, sale, prescribing, manufacturing, administering, transporting, having in possession, dispensing, delivering, distributing, or use of controlled substances and cannabis.

(3) Employ skilled experts, scientists, technicians, investigators, or otherwise specially qualified persons to aid in preventing or detecting crime, apprehending criminals, or preparing and presenting evidence of violations of the criminal laws of the State.

(4) Cooperate with the police of cities, villages, and incorporated towns and with the police officers of any county in enforcing the laws of the State and in making arrests and recovering property.

(5) Apprehend and deliver up any person charged in this State or any other state of the United States with treason or a felony or other crime who has fled from justice and is found in this State.

(6) Conduct other investigations as provided by law.

(7) Be a central repository and custodian of criminal statistics for the State.

(8) Be a central repository for criminal history record information.

(9) Procure and file for record information that is necessary and helpful to plan programs of crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal justice.

(10) Procure and file for record copies of fingerprints that may be required by law.

(11) Establish general and field crime laboratories.

(12) Register and file for record information that may be required by law for the issuance of firearm owner's identification cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and concealed carry licenses under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(13) Employ laboratory technicians and other specially qualified persons to aid in the identification of criminal activity and the identification, collection, and recovery of cyber forensics, including, but not limited to, digital evidence, and may employ polygraph operators and forensic anthropologists.

(14) Undertake other identification, information, laboratory, statistical, or registration activities that may be required by law.

(b) Persons exercising the powers set forth in subsection (a) within the Illinois State Police are conservators of the peace and as such have all the powers possessed by policemen in cities and sheriffs, except that they may exercise those powers anywhere in the State in cooperation with and after contact with the local law enforcement officials. Those persons may use false or fictitious names in the performance of their duties under this Section, upon approval of the Director, and shall not be subject to prosecution under the criminal laws for that use.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-34, eff. 1-1-24.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-595)

Sec. 2605-595. State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act, and Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes, mandates, functions, and duties under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act, and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, including the cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, concealed carry licenses, the prompt and efficient processing of applications under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the improved efficiency and reporting of the LEADS and federal NICS law enforcement data systems, and support for investigations required under that Act these Acts and law. Any surplus funds beyond what is needed to comply with the aforementioned purposes shall be used by the Illinois State Police to improve the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) and criminal history background check system.

(c) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 103-363, eff. 7-28-23.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-605)

Sec. 2605-605. Violent Crime Intelligence Task Force. The Director of the Illinois State Police shall establish a statewide multi-jurisdictional Violent Crime Intelligence Task Force led by the Illinois State Police dedicated to combating gun violence, gun-trafficking, and other violent crime with the primary mission of preservation of life and reducing the occurrence and the fear of crime. The objectives of the Task Force shall include, but not be limited to, reducing and preventing illegal possession and use of firearms, firearm-related homicides, and other violent crimes, and solving firearm-related crimes.

(1) The Task Force may develop and acquire information, training, tools, and resources necessary to implement a data-driven approach to policing, with an emphasis on intelligence development.

(2) The Task Force may utilize information sharing, partnerships, crime analysis, and evidence-based practices to assist in the reduction of firearm-related shootings, homicides, and gun-trafficking, including, but not limited to, ballistic data, eTrace data, DNA evidence, latent fingerprints, firearm training data, and National Integrated Ballistic Information Network (NIBIN) data. The Task Force may design a model crime gun intelligence strategy which may include, but is not limited to, comprehensive collection and documentation of all ballistic evidence, timely transfer of NIBIN and eTrace leads to an intelligence center, which may include the Division of Criminal Investigation of the Illinois State Police, timely dissemination of intelligence to investigators, investigative follow-up, and coordinated prosecution.

(3) The Task Force may recognize and utilize best practices of community policing and may develop potential partnerships with faith-based and community organizations to achieve its goals.

(4) The Task Force may identify and utilize best practices in drug-diversion programs and other community-based services to redirect low-level offenders.

(5) The Task Force may assist in violence suppression strategies including, but not limited to, details in identified locations that have shown to be the most prone to gun violence and violent crime, focused deterrence against violent gangs and groups considered responsible for the violence in communities, and other intelligence driven methods deemed necessary to interrupt cycles of violence or prevent retaliation.

(6) In consultation with the Chief Procurement Officer, the Illinois State Police may obtain contracts for software, commodities, resources, and equipment to assist the Task Force with achieving this Act. Any contracts necessary to support the delivery of necessary software, commodities, resources, and equipment are not subject to the Illinois Procurement Code, except for Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of that Code, provided that the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(7) The Task Force shall conduct enforcement operations against persons whose Firearm Owner's Identification Cards have been revoked or suspended and persons who fail to comply with the requirements of Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, prioritizing individuals presenting a clear and present danger to themselves or to others under paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 8.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(8) The Task Force shall collaborate with local law enforcement agencies to enforce provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act, and Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(9) To implement this Section, the Director of the Illinois State Police may establish intergovernmental agreements with law enforcement agencies in accordance with the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act.

(10) Law enforcement agencies that participate in activities described in paragraphs (7) through (9) may apply to the Illinois State Police for grants from the State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

Section 35. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act is amended by changing Section 7.9 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3930/7.9)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2027)

Sec. 7.9. Firearm Prohibitors and Records Improvement Task Force.

(a) As used in this Section, "firearms prohibitor" means any factor listed in Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or Section 24-3 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that prohibits a person from transferring or possessing a firearm, firearm ammunition, or Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or concealed carry license.

(b) The Firearm Prohibitors and Records Improvement Task Force is created to identify and research all available grants, resources, and revenue that may be applied for and used by all entities responsible for reporting federal and State firearm prohibitors to the Illinois State Police and the National Instant Criminal Background Check System. Under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, these reporting entities include, but are not limited to, hospitals, courts, law enforcement and corrections. The Task Force shall identify weaknesses in reporting and recommend a strategy to direct resources and revenue to ensuring reporting is reliable, accurate, and timely. The Task Force shall inventory all statutorily mandated firearm and gun violence related data collection and reporting requirements, along with the agency responsible for collecting that data, and identify gaps in those requirements. The Task Force shall submit a coordinated application with and through the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for federal funds from the National Criminal History Improvement Program and the NICS Acts Record Improvement Program. The Firearm Prohibitors and Records Improvement Task Force shall be comprised of the following members, all of whom shall serve without compensation:

(1) the Executive Director of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, who shall serve as Chair;

(2) the Director of the Illinois State Police, or his or her designee;

(3) the Secretary of Human Services, or his or her designee;

(4) the Director of Corrections, or his or her designee;

(5) the Attorney General, or his or her designee;

(6) the Director of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, or his or her designee;

(7) a representative of an association representing circuit clerks appointed by the President of the Senate;

(8) a representative of an association representing sheriffs appointed by the House Minority Leader;

(9) a representative of an association representing State's Attorneys appointed by the House Minority Leader;

(10) a representative of an association representing chiefs of police appointed by the Senate Minority Leader;

(11) a representative of an association representing hospitals appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(12) a representative of an association representing counties appointed by the President of the Senate; and

(13) a representative of an association representing municipalities appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(c) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force. The Illinois State Police Division of Justice Services shall also provide support to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority and the Task Force.

(d) The Task Force may meet in person or virtually and shall issue a written report of its findings and recommendations to General Assembly on or before July 1, 2022. The Task Force shall issue an annual report, which shall include information on the state of FOID data, including a review of previous activity by the Task Force to close previously identified gaps; identifying known (or new) gaps; a proposal of policy and practice recommendations to close those gaps; and a preview of expected activities of the Task Force for the coming year.

(e) Within 60 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Chair shall establish the Task Force.

(f) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2027.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22.)

Section 40. The State Finance Act is amended by changing Sections 6z-99 and 6z-127 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/6z-99)

Sec. 6z-99. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the Mental Health Reporting Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Illinois State Police and Department of Human Services shall coordinate to use moneys in the Fund to finance their respective duties of collecting and reporting data on mental health records and ensuring that mental health firearm possession prohibitors are enforced as set forth under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is necessary to ensure compliance with mental health reporting under that Act these Acts shall be used by the Department of Human Services for mental health treatment programs as follows: (1) 50% shall be used to fund community-based mental health programs aimed at reducing gun violence, community integration and education, or mental health awareness and prevention, including administrative costs; and (2) 50% shall be used to award grants that use and promote the National School Mental Health Curriculum model for school-based mental health support, integration, and services.

(c) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-127)

Sec. 6z-127. State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund.

(a) The State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund is established as a special fund in the State treasury. This Fund is established to receive moneys from the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act to enforce that Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and other firearm offenses. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys from the Fund to establish task forces and, if necessary, include other law enforcement agencies, under intergovernmental contracts written and executed in conformity with the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act.

(c) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to hire and train State Police officers and for the prevention of violent crime.

(d) The State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund is not subject to administrative chargebacks.

(e) Law enforcement agencies that participate in Firearm Owner's Identification Card revocation enforcement in the Violent Crime Intelligence Task Force may apply for grants from the Illinois State Police.

(f) Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is necessary to ensure compliance with subsections (a) through (e) or moneys that are specifically appropriated for those purposes shall be used by the Illinois State Police to award grants to assist with the data reporting requirements of the Gun Trafficking Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 103-34, eff. 6-9-23.)

Section 45. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Section 10-1 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/10-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 183)

Sec. 10-1. Violations; penalties. Whereas a substantial threat to the sound and careful control, regulation, and taxation of the manufacture, sale, and distribution of alcoholic liquors exists by virtue of individuals who manufacture, import, distribute, or sell alcoholic liquors within the State without having first obtained a valid license to do so, and whereas such threat is especially serious along the borders of this State, and whereas such threat requires immediate correction by this Act, by active investigation and prosecution by the State Commission, law enforcement officials, and prosecutors, and by prompt and strict enforcement through the courts of this State to punish violators and to deter such conduct in the future:

(a) Any person who manufactures, imports for distribution or use, transports from outside this State into this State, or distributes or sells 108 liters (28.53 gallons) or more of wine, 45 liters (11.88 gallons) or more of distilled spirits, or 118 liters (31.17 gallons) or more of beer at any place within the State without having first obtained a valid license to do so under the provisions of this Act shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each offense. However, any person who was duly licensed under this Act and whose license expired within 30 days prior to a violation shall be guilty of a business offense and fined not more than $1,000 for the first such offense and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each subsequent offense.

Any person who manufactures, imports for distribution, transports from outside this State into this State for sale or resale in this State, or distributes or sells less than 108 liters (28.53 gallons) of wine, less than 45 liters (11.88 gallons) of distilled spirits, or less than 118 liters (31.17 gallons) of beer at any place within the State without having first obtained a valid license to do so under the provisions of this Act shall be guilty of a business offense and fined not more than $1,000 for the first such offense and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each subsequent offense. This subsection does not apply to a motor carrier or freight forwarder, as defined in Section 13102 of Title 49 of the United States Code, an air carrier, as defined in Section 40102 of Title 49 of the United States Code, or a rail carrier, as defined in Section 10102 of Title 49 of the United States Code.

Any person who: (1) has been issued an initial cease and desist notice from the State Commission; and (2) for compensation, does any of the following: (i) ships alcoholic liquor into this State without a license authorized by Section 5-1 issued by the State Commission or in violation of that license; or (ii) manufactures, imports for distribution, transports from outside this State into this State for sale or resale in this State, or distributes or sells alcoholic liquors at any place without having first obtained a valid license to do so is guilty of a Class 4 felony for each offense.

(b) (1) Any retailer, caterer retailer, brew pub, special event retailer, special use permit holder, homebrewer special event permit holder, or craft distiller tasting permit holder who knowingly causes alcoholic liquors to be imported directly into the State of Illinois from outside of the State for the purpose of furnishing, giving, or selling to another, except when having received the product from a duly licensed distributor or importing distributor, shall have his license suspended for 30 days for the first offense and for the second offense, shall have his license revoked by the Commission.

(2) In the event the State Commission receives a certified copy of a final order from a foreign jurisdiction that an Illinois retail licensee has been found to have violated that foreign jurisdiction's laws, rules, or regulations concerning the importation of alcoholic liquor into that foreign jurisdiction, the violation may be grounds for the State Commission to revoke, suspend, or refuse to issue or renew a license, to impose a fine, or to take any additional action provided by this Act with respect to the Illinois retail license or licensee. Any such action on the part of the State Commission shall be in accordance with this Act and implementing rules.

For the purposes of paragraph (2): (i) "foreign jurisdiction" means a state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and (ii) "final order" means an order or judgment of a court or administrative body that determines the rights of the parties respecting the subject matter of the proceeding, that remains in full force and effect, and from which no appeal can be taken.

(c) Any person who shall make any false statement or otherwise violates any of the provisions of this Act in obtaining any license hereunder, or who having obtained a license hereunder shall violate any of the provisions of this Act with respect to the manufacture, possession, distribution or sale of alcoholic liquor, or with respect to the maintenance of the licensed premises, or shall violate any other provision of this Act, shall for a first offense be guilty of a petty offense and fined not more than $500, and for a second or subsequent offense shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(c-5) (Blank). Any owner of an establishment that serves alcohol on its premises, if more than 50% of the establishment's gross receipts within the prior 3 months is from the sale of alcohol, who knowingly fails to prohibit concealed firearms on its premises or who knowingly makes a false statement or record to avoid the prohibition of concealed firearms on its premises under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act shall be guilty of a business offense with a fine up to $5,000.

(d) Each day any person engages in business as a manufacturer, foreign importer, importing distributor, distributor or retailer in violation of the provisions of this Act shall constitute a separate offense.

(e) Any person, under the age of 21 years who, for the purpose of buying, accepting or receiving alcoholic liquor from a licensee, represents that he is 21 years of age or over shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(f) In addition to the penalties herein provided, any person licensed as a wine-maker in either class who manufactures more wine than authorized by his license shall be guilty of a business offense and shall be fined $1 for each gallon so manufactured.

(g) A person shall be exempt from prosecution for a violation of this Act if he is a peace officer in the enforcement of the criminal laws and such activity is approved in writing by one of the following:

(1) In all counties, the respective State's Attorney;

(2) The Director of the Illinois State Police under Section 2605-10, 2605-15, 2605-51, 2605-52, 2605-75, 2605-190, 2605-200, 2605-205, 2605-210, 2605-215, 2605-250, 2605-275, 2605-305, 2605-315, 2605-325, 2605-335, 2605-340, 2605-350, 2605-355, 2605-360, 2605-365, 2605-375, 2605-400, 2605-405, 2605-420, 2605-430, 2605-435, 2605-525, or 2605-550 of the Illinois State Police Law; or

(3) In cities over 1,000,000, the Superintendent of Police.

(Source: P.A. 101-37, eff. 7-3-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 50. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 3, 3.1, 4, 5, 7, 8.5 and 13.1 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/2) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-2)

Sec. 2. Firearm Owner's Identification Card required; exceptions.

(a) (1) No person may acquire or possess any firearm, stun gun, or taser within this State without having in his or her possession a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police under the provisions of this Act.

(2) No person may acquire or possess firearm ammunition within this State without having in his or her possession a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police under the provisions of this Act.

(b) The provisions of this Section regarding the possession of firearms, firearm ammunition, stun guns, and tasers do not apply to:

(1) United States Marshals, while engaged in the operation of their official duties;

(2) Members of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard, while engaged in the operation of their official duties;

(3) Federal officials required to carry firearms, while engaged in the operation of their official duties;

(4) Members of bona fide veterans organizations which receive firearms directly from the armed forces of the United States, while using the firearms for ceremonial purposes with blank ammunition;

(5) Nonresident hunters during hunting season, with valid nonresident hunting licenses and while in an area where hunting is permitted; however, at all other times and in all other places these persons must have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;

(6) Those hunters exempt from obtaining a hunting license who are required to submit their Firearm Owner's Identification Card when hunting on Department of Natural Resources owned or managed sites;

(7) Nonresidents while on a firing or shooting range recognized by the Illinois State Police; however, these persons must at all other times and in all other places have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;

(8) Nonresidents while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Illinois State Police; however, at all other times and in all other places these persons must have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;

(9) Nonresidents whose firearms are unloaded and enclosed in a case;

(10) Nonresidents who are currently licensed or registered to possess a firearm in their resident state;

(11) Unemancipated minors while in the custody and immediate control of their parent or legal guardian or other person in loco parentis to the minor if the parent or legal guardian or other person in loco parentis to the minor has a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(12) Color guards of bona fide veterans organizations or members of bona fide American Legion bands while using firearms for ceremonial purposes with blank ammunition;

(13) Nonresident hunters whose state of residence does not require them to be licensed or registered to possess a firearm and only during hunting season, with valid hunting licenses, while accompanied by, and using a firearm owned by, a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and while in an area within a commercial club licensed under the Wildlife Code where hunting is permitted and controlled, but in no instance upon sites owned or managed by the Department of Natural Resources;

(14) Resident hunters who are properly authorized to hunt and, while accompanied by a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, hunt in an area within a commercial club licensed under the Wildlife Code where hunting is permitted and controlled; and

(15) A person who is otherwise eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act and is under the direct supervision of a holder of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card who is 21 years of age or older while the person is on a firing or shooting range or is a participant in a firearms safety and training course recognized by a law enforcement agency or a national, statewide shooting sports organization.

(c) The provisions of this Section regarding the acquisition and possession of firearms, firearm ammunition, stun guns, and tasers do not apply to law enforcement officials of this or any other jurisdiction, while engaged in the operation of their official duties.

(c-5) (Blank). The provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (a) of this Section regarding the possession of firearms and firearm ammunition do not apply to the holder of a valid concealed carry license issued under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act who is in physical possession of the concealed carry license.

(d) Any person who becomes a resident of this State, who is not otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm or firearm ammunition, shall not be required to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card to possess firearms or firearms ammunition until 60 calendar days after he or she obtains an Illinois driver's license or Illinois Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23.)

(430 ILCS 65/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3)

Sec. 3. (a) Except as provided in Section 3a, no person may knowingly transfer, or cause to be transferred, any firearm, firearm ammunition, stun gun, or taser to any person within this State unless the transferee with whom he deals displays either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card which has previously been issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police under the provisions of this Act; or (2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm which has previously been issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. In addition, all firearm, stun gun, and taser transfers by federally licensed firearm dealers are subject to Section 3.1.

(a-5) Any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm while that person is on the grounds of a gun show must, before selling or transferring the firearm, request the Illinois State Police to conduct a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1.

(a-10) Notwithstanding item (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm or firearms to any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer shall, before selling or transferring the firearms, contact a federal firearm license dealer under paragraph (1) of subsection (a-15) of this Section to conduct the transfer or the Illinois State Police with the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number to determine the validity of the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under State and federal law, including the National Instant Criminal Background Check System. This subsection shall not be effective until July 1, 2023. Until that date the transferor shall contact the Illinois State Police with the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number to determine the validity of the card. The Illinois State Police may adopt rules concerning the implementation of this subsection. The Illinois State Police shall provide the seller or transferor an approval number if the purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is valid. Approvals issued by the Illinois State Police for the purchase of a firearm pursuant to this subsection are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

(a-15) The provisions of subsection (a-10) of this Section do not apply to:

(1) transfers that occur at the place of business of a federally licensed firearm dealer, if the federally licensed firearm dealer conducts a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1 of this Act and follows all other applicable federal, State, and local laws as if he or she were the seller or transferor of the firearm, although the dealer is not required to accept the firearm into his or her inventory. The purchaser or transferee may be required by the federally licensed firearm dealer to pay a fee not to exceed $25 per firearm, which the dealer may retain as compensation for performing the functions required under this paragraph, plus the applicable fees authorized by Section 3.1;

(2) transfers as a bona fide gift to the transferor's husband, wife, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, nephew, niece, uncle, aunt, grandfather, grandmother, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, or daughter-in-law;

(3) transfers by persons acting pursuant to operation of law or a court order;

(4) transfers on the grounds of a gun show under subsection (a-5) of this Section;

(5) the delivery of a firearm by its owner to a gunsmith for service or repair, the return of the firearm to its owner by the gunsmith, or the delivery of a firearm by a gunsmith to a federally licensed firearms dealer for service or repair and the return of the firearm to the gunsmith;

(6) temporary transfers that occur while in the home of the unlicensed transferee, if the unlicensed transferee is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms and the unlicensed transferee reasonably believes that possession of the firearm is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to the unlicensed transferee;

(7) transfers to a law enforcement or corrections agency or a law enforcement or corrections officer acting within the course and scope of his or her official duties;

(8) transfers of firearms that have been rendered permanently inoperable to a nonprofit historical society, museum, or institutional collection; and

(9) transfers to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of this Act.

(a-20) The Illinois State Police shall develop an Internet-based system for individuals to determine the validity of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card prior to the sale or transfer of a firearm. The Illinois State Police shall have the Internet-based system updated and available for use by January 1, 2024. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system; but no rule shall allow the Illinois State Police to retain records in contravention of State and federal law.

(a-25) On or before January 1, 2022, the Illinois State Police shall develop an Internet-based system upon which the serial numbers of firearms that have been reported stolen are available for public access for individuals to ensure any firearms are not reported stolen prior to the sale or transfer of a firearm under this Section. The Illinois State Police shall have the Internet-based system completed and available for use by July 1, 2022. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(b) Any person within this State who transfers or causes to be transferred any firearm, stun gun, or taser shall keep a record of such transfer for a period of 10 years from the date of transfer. Any person within this State who receives any firearm, stun gun, or taser pursuant to subsection (a-10) shall provide a record of the transfer within 10 days of the transfer to a federally licensed firearm dealer and shall not be required to maintain a transfer record. The federally licensed firearm dealer shall maintain the transfer record for 20 years from the date of receipt. A federally licensed firearm dealer may charge a fee not to exceed $25 to retain the record. The record shall be provided and maintained in either an electronic or paper format. The federally licensed firearm dealer shall not be liable for the accuracy of any information in the transfer record submitted pursuant to this Section. Such records shall contain the date of the transfer; the description, serial number or other information identifying the firearm, stun gun, or taser if no serial number is available; and, if the transfer was completed within this State, the transferee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number and any approval number or documentation provided by the Illinois State Police pursuant to subsection (a-10) of this Section; if the transfer was not completed within this State, the record shall contain the name and address of the transferee. On or after January 1, 2006, the record shall contain the date of application for transfer of the firearm. On demand of a peace officer such transferor shall produce for inspection such record of transfer. For any transfer pursuant to subsection (a-10) of this Section, on the demand of a peace officer, such transferee shall identify the federally licensed firearm dealer maintaining the transfer record. If the transfer or sale took place at a gun show, the record shall include the unique identification number. Failure to record the unique identification number or approval number is a petty offense. For transfers of a firearm, stun gun, or taser made on or after January 18, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1178), failure by the private seller to maintain the transfer records in accordance with this Section, or failure by a transferee pursuant to subsection a-10 of this Section to identify the federally licensed firearm dealer maintaining the transfer record, is a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense occurring within 10 years of the first offense and the second offense was committed after conviction of the first offense. Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of any violation of subsection (a-5), the court may grant supervision pursuant to and consistent with the limitations of Section 5-6-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections. A transferee or transferor shall not be criminally liable under this Section provided that he or she provides the Illinois State Police with the transfer records in accordance with procedures established by the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police shall establish, by rule, a standard form on its website.

(b-5) Any resident may purchase ammunition from a person within or outside of Illinois if shipment is by United States mail or by a private express carrier authorized by federal law to ship ammunition. Any resident purchasing ammunition within or outside the State of Illinois must provide the seller with a copy of his or her valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card or valid concealed carry license and either his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois State Identification Card prior to the shipment of the ammunition. The ammunition may be shipped only to an address on either of those 2 documents.

(c) The provisions of this Section regarding the transfer of firearm ammunition shall not apply to those persons specified in paragraph (b) of Section 2 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-24; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23.)

(430 ILCS 65/3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3.1)

Sec. 3.1. Firearm Transfer Inquiry Program.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall provide a dial up telephone system or utilize other existing technology which shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm, stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Act. The Illinois State Police may utilize existing technology which allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. Fees collected by the Illinois State Police shall be deposited in the State Police Firearm Services Fund and used to provide the service.

(b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the Illinois State Police shall immediately approve or, within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and tasers, notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Illinois State Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its criminal history record information files and those of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a person from obtaining or require revocation of a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(b-5) By January 1, 2023, the Illinois State Police shall by rule provide a process for the automatic renewal of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person at the time of an inquiry in subsection (b). Persons eligible for this process must have a set of fingerprints on file with their applications under either subsection (a-25) of Section 4 or the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, federal law, or this Act, the Illinois State Police shall:

(1) assign a unique identification number to the transfer; and

(2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor with the number.

(d) Approvals issued by the Illinois State Police for the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

(e) (1) The Illinois State Police must act as the Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(2) The Illinois State Police and the Department of Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal Background Check System in the State. The Illinois State Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System Index, Denied Persons Files.

(3) The Illinois State Police shall provide notice of the disqualification of a person under subsection (b) of this Section or the revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 or Section 8.2 of this Act, and the reason for the disqualification or revocation, to all law enforcement agencies with jurisdiction to assist with the seizure of the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(430 ILCS 65/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-4)

Sec. 4. Application for Firearm Owner's Identification Cards.

(a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card must:

(1) Submit an application as made available by the Illinois State Police; and

(2) Submit evidence to the Illinois State Police that:

(i) This subparagraph (i) applies through the 180th day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80). He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition and that he or she has never been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the Department stating that he or she is not an individual prohibited from having a Card;

(i-5) This subparagraph (i-5) applies on and after the 181st day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80). He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has never been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent and is an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or the Illinois National Guard or has the written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition, provided, however, that such parent or legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files an affidavit with the Illinois State Police as prescribed by the Illinois State Police stating that he or she is not an individual prohibited from having a Card or the active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or the Illinois National Guard under 21 years of age annually submits proof to the Illinois State Police, in a manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police;

(ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;

(iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental health facility within the past 5 years or, if he or she has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago submit the certification required under subsection (u) of Section 8 of this Act;

(v) He or she is not a person with an intellectual disability;

(vi) He or she is not a noncitizen who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a firearm;

(viii) He or she has not been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this clause (ix) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Section;

(x) (Blank);

(xi) He or she is not a noncitizen who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is a noncitizen who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that noncitizen is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that noncitizen is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(xiv) He or she is a resident of the State of Illinois;

(xv) He or she has not been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability;

(xvi) He or she has not been involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility; and

(xvii) He or she is not a person with a developmental disability; and

(3) Upon request by the Illinois State Police, sign a release on a form prescribed by the Illinois State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and requesting the disclosure to the Illinois State Police of limited mental health institution admission information from another state, the District of Columbia, any other territory of the United States, or a foreign nation concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a mental health institution and disqualified because of that status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be requested. The information received shall be destroyed within one year of receipt.

(a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Illinois State Police either his or her Illinois driver's license number or Illinois Identification Card number, except as provided in subsection (a-10).

(a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, who is employed as a law enforcement officer, an armed security officer in Illinois, or by the United States Military permanently assigned in Illinois and who is not an Illinois resident, shall furnish to the Illinois State Police his or her driver's license number or state identification card number from his or her state of residence. The Illinois State Police may adopt rules to enforce the provisions of this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) If an applicant applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card moves from the residence address named in the application, he or she shall immediately notify in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police of that change of address.

(a-20) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall furnish to the Illinois State Police his or her photograph. An applicant who is 21 years of age or older seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement must furnish with the application an approved copy of United States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form 4029. In lieu of a photograph, an applicant regardless of age seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement shall submit fingerprints on a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police with his or her application.

(a-25) Beginning January 1, 2023, each applicant for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card may include a full set of his or her fingerprints in electronic format to the Illinois State Police, unless the applicant has previously provided a full set of his or her fingerprints to the Illinois State Police under this Act or the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

The fingerprints must be transmitted through a live scan fingerprint vendor licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases, including all available State and local criminal history record information files.

The Illinois State Police shall charge applicants a one-time fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the State and national criminal history record check.

(a-26) The Illinois State Police shall research, explore, and report to the General Assembly by January 1, 2022 on the feasibility of permitting voluntarily submitted fingerprints obtained for purposes other than Firearm Owner's Identification Card enforcement that are contained in the Illinois State Police database for purposes of this Act.

(b) Each application form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.".

(c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4, paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.

(Source: P.A. 101-80, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1030, eff. 5-27-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23.)

(430 ILCS 65/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-5)

Sec. 5. Application and renewal.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall either approve or deny all applications within 30 days from the date they are received, except as provided in subsections (b) and (c), and every applicant found qualified under Section 8 of this Act by the Illinois State Police shall be entitled to a Firearm Owner's Identification Card upon the payment of a $10 fee and applicable processing fees. The processing fees shall be limited to charges by the State Treasurer for using the electronic online payment system. Any applicant who is an active duty member of the Armed Forces of the United States, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the Reserve Forces of the United States is exempt from the application fee. $5 of each fee derived from the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card or renewals thereof shall be deposited in the State Police Firearm Services Fund and $5 into the State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund.

(b) Renewal applications shall be approved or denied within 60 business days, provided the applicant submitted his or her renewal application prior to the expiration of his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If a renewal application has been submitted prior to the expiration date of the applicant's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall remain valid while the Illinois State Police processes the application, unless the person is subject to or becomes subject to revocation under this Act. The cost for a renewal application shall be $10 and may include applicable processing fees, which shall be limited to charges by the State Treasurer for using the electronic online payment system, which shall be deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(c) (Blank). If the Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a licensee under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act expires during the term of the licensee's concealed carry license, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card and the license remain valid and the licensee does not have to renew his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card during the duration of the concealed carry license. Unless the Illinois State Police has reason to believe the licensee is no longer eligible for the card, the Illinois State Police may automatically renew the licensee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and send a renewed Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the licensee.

(d) The Illinois State Police may adopt rules concerning the use of voluntarily submitted fingerprints, as allowed by State and federal law.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(430 ILCS 65/7) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-7)

Sec. 7. Validity of Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(a) Except as provided in Section 8 of this Act or elsewhere in this Section, a Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued under the provisions of this Act shall be valid for the person to whom it is issued for a period of 10 years from the date of issuance. Unless the person no longer meets the requirements or becomes subject to suspension or revocation under this Act, a card issued under an application made as provided in subsection (a-25) of Section 4 shall remain valid if the person meets the requirements of subsection (b-5) of Section 3.1.

(b) If a renewal application is submitted to the Department before the expiration date of the applicant's current Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall remain valid, unless the person is subject to or becomes subject to revocation under this Act. Unless the person no longer meets the requirements or becomes subject to suspension or revocation under this Act, a card issued under a renewal application made as provided in subsection (a-25) of Section 4 shall remain valid if the person meets the implementation requirements of Section 3.1.

(c) (Blank). Beginning January 1, 2022, if the Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a licensee under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act expires during the term of the licensee's concealed carry license, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card and the license remain valid during the validity of the concealed carry license and the licensee does not have to renew his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if the Firearm Owner's Identification Card has not been otherwise renewed as provided in this Act. Unless the Illinois State Police has reason to believe the licensee is no longer eligible for the card, the Illinois State Police may automatically renew the licensee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22.)

(430 ILCS 65/8.5)

Sec. 8.5. Illinois State Police to monitor databases for firearms prohibitors. The Illinois State Police shall continuously monitor relevant State and federal databases, as allowed by State and federal law, for firearms prohibitors and correlate those records with Firearm Owner's Identification Card holders to ensure compliance with this Act and any other State and federal laws. As used in this Section, "firearms prohibitor" means any factor listed in Section 8 or Section 8.2 of this Act or Section 24-3 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that prohibits a person from transferring or possessing a firearm, firearm ammunition, or Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or concealed carry license.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22.)

(430 ILCS 65/13.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-13.1)

Sec. 13.1. Preemption.

(a) (Blank). Except as otherwise provided in the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, the provisions of any ordinance enacted by any municipality which requires registration or imposes greater restrictions or limitations on the acquisition, possession and transfer of firearms than are imposed by this Act, are not invalidated or affected by this Act.

(b) The Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the regulation, licensing, possession, and registration of handguns and ammunition for a handgun, and the transportation of any firearm and ammunition by a holder of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued by the Illinois State Police under this Act are exclusive powers and functions of this State. Any ordinance or regulation, or portion of that ordinance or regulation, enacted on or before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly that purports to impose regulations or restrictions on a holder of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued by the Illinois State Police under this Act in a manner that is inconsistent with this Act, on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, shall be invalid in its application to a holder of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued by the Illinois State Police under this Act.

(c) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the regulation of the possession or ownership of assault weapons are exclusive powers and functions of this State. Any ordinance or regulation, or portion of that ordinance or regulation, that purports to regulate the possession or ownership of assault weapons in a manner that is inconsistent with this Act, shall be invalid unless the ordinance or regulation is enacted on, before, or within 10 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. Any ordinance or regulation described in this subsection (c) enacted more than 10 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly is invalid. An ordinance enacted on, before, or within 10 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be amended. The enactment or amendment of ordinances under this subsection (c) are subject to the submission requirements of Section 13.3. For the purposes of this subsection, "assault weapons" means firearms designated by either make or model or by a test or list of cosmetic features that cumulatively would place the firearm into a definition of "assault weapon" under the ordinance.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "handgun" means any device which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas, or escape of gas that is designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand. "Handgun" does not include:

(1) a stun gun or taser;

(2) a machine gun as defined in item (i) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(3) a short-barreled rifle or shotgun as defined in item (ii) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(4) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter, or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second, or which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(e) This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/13.4 rep.)

Section 55. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by repealing Section 13.4.

(430 ILCS 66/Act rep.)

Section 60. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is repealed.

Section 65. The Firearms Restraining Order Act is amended by changing Sections 35 and 40 as follows:

(430 ILCS 67/35)

Sec. 35. Ex parte orders and emergency hearings.

(a) A petitioner may request an emergency firearms restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading alleging that the respondent poses an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The petition shall also describe the type and location of any firearm or firearms, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by the respondent.

(b) If the respondent is alleged to pose an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include that the petitioner intends to petition the court for an emergency firearms restraining order, and, if the petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling resources, if appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners, the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what efforts were made.

(c) Every person who files a petition for an emergency firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) An emergency firearms restraining order shall be issued on an ex parte basis, that is, without notice to the respondent.

(e) An emergency hearing held on an ex parte basis shall be held the same day that the petition is filed or the next day that the court is in session.

(f) If a circuit or associate judge finds probable cause to believe that the respondent poses an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, the circuit or associate judge shall issue an emergency order.

(f-5) If the court issues an emergency firearms restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the respondent possesses firearms, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, issue a search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence and other places where the court finds there is probable cause to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. A return of the search warrant shall be filed by the law enforcement agency within 4 days thereafter, setting forth the time, date, and location that the search warrant was executed and what items, if any, were seized.

(g) An emergency firearms restraining order shall require:

(1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving additional firearms, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, or removing firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for the duration of the order under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and

(2) the respondent to comply with Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and subsection (g) of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(h) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (h-5) of this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license cannot be returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for training purposes, or use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency.

(h-5) On or before January 1, 2022, a respondent whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm if the person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she shall not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to the respondent or to anyone residing in the same residence as the respondent.

(h-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm surrendered under this Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm returned to him or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:

(1) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm are removed from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm; and

(2) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm are not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.

The person petitioning for the return of his or her firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm.

(i) In accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, the court shall schedule a full hearing as soon as possible, but no longer than 14 days from the issuance of an ex parte firearms restraining order, to determine if a 6-month firearms restraining order shall be issued. The court may extend an ex parte order as needed, but not to exceed 14 days, to effectuate service of the order or if necessary to continue protection. The court may extend the order for a greater length of time by mutual agreement of the parties.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-345, eff. 6-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

(430 ILCS 67/40)

Sec. 40. Plenary orders.

(a) A petitioner may request a firearms restraining order for up to one year by filing an affidavit or verified pleading alleging that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another in the near future by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The petition shall also describe the number, types, and locations of any firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by the respondent. The firearms restraining order may be renewed for an additional period of up to one year in accordance with Section 45 of this Act.

(b) If the respondent is alleged to pose a significant danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include the duration of time that the petitioner intends to petition the court for a firearms restraining order, and, if the petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling resources, if appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners, the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what efforts were made.

(c) Every person who files a petition for a plenary firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) Upon receipt of a petition for a plenary firearms restraining order, the court shall order a hearing within 30 days.

(e) In determining whether to issue a firearms restraining order under this Section, the court shall consider evidence including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) The unlawful and reckless use, display, or brandishing of a firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm by the respondent.

(2) The history of use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force by the respondent against another person.

(3) Any prior arrest of the respondent for a felony offense.

(4) Evidence of the abuse of controlled substances or alcohol by the respondent.

(5) A recent threat of violence or act of violence by the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or another.

(6) A violation of an emergency order of protection issued under Section 217 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or Section 112A-17 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or of an order of protection issued under Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or Section 112A-14 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(7) A pattern of violent acts or violent threats, including, but not limited to, threats of violence or acts of violence by the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or another.

(f) At the hearing, the petitioner shall have the burden of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, that the respondent poses a significant danger of personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm.

(g) If the court finds that there is clear and convincing evidence to issue a plenary firearms restraining order, the court shall issue a firearms restraining order that shall be in effect for up to one year, but not less than 6 months, subject to renewal under Section 45 of this Act or termination under that Section.

(g-5) If the court issues a plenary firearms restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the respondent possesses firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, issue a search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence and other places where the court finds there is probable cause to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. A return of the search warrant shall be filed by the law enforcement agency within 4 days thereafter, setting forth the time, date, and location that the search warrant was executed and what items, if any, were seized.

(h) A plenary firearms restraining order shall require:

(1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving additional firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for the duration of the order under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and

(2) the respondent to comply with Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and subsection (g) of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(i) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (i-5) of this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for training purposes, or use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency.

(i-5) A respondent whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm if the person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she shall not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to the respondent or to anyone residing in the same residence as the respondent.

(i-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm surrendered under this Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm returned to him or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:

(1) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm are removed from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm; and

(2) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm are not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.

The person petitioning for the return of his or her firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm.

(j) If the court does not issue a firearms restraining order at the hearing, the court shall dissolve any emergency firearms restraining order then in effect.

(k) When the court issues a firearms restraining order under this Section, the court shall inform the respondent that he or she is entitled to one hearing during the period of the order to request a termination of the order, under Section 45 of this Act, and shall provide the respondent with a form to request a hearing.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-345, eff. 6-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23.)

Section 70. The Firearm Dealer License Certification Act is amended by changing Section 5-85 as follows:

(430 ILCS 68/5-85)

Sec. 5-85. Disciplinary sanctions.

(a) For violations of this Act not penalized under Section 5-15, the Illinois State Police may refuse to renew or restore, or may reprimand, place on probation, suspend, revoke, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against any licensee, and may impose a fine commensurate with the severity of the violation not to exceed $10,000 for each violation for any of the following, consistent with the Protection of Lawful Commerce in Arms Act, 15 U.S.C. 7901 through 7903:

(1) Violations of this Act, or any law applicable to the sale or transfer of firearms.

(2) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under this Act.

(3) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(4) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Illinois State Police.

(5) Conviction of, plea of guilty to, or plea of nolo contendere to any crime that disqualifies the person from obtaining a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(6) Continued practice, although the person has become unfit to practice due to any of the following:

(A) Any circumstance that disqualifies the person from obtaining a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card or concealed carry license.

(B) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(7) Receiving, directly or indirectly, compensation for any firearms sold or transferred illegally.

(8) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction, foreign nation, or governmental agency, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(9) Violation of any disciplinary order imposed on a licensee by the Illinois State Police.

(10) A finding by the Illinois State Police that the licensee, after having his or her certified license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(11) A fraudulent or material misstatement in the completion of an affirmative obligation or inquiry by law enforcement.

(b) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 90 days after the effective date of the final order imposing the fine.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

Section 75. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 2.11, 2.26, 2.33, and 2.34 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.11) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.11)

Sec. 2.11. Before any person may lawfully hunt wild turkey, he shall first obtain a "Wild Turkey Hunting Permit" in accordance with the prescribed regulations set forth in an administrative rule of the Department. The fee for a Resident Wild Turkey Hunting Permit shall not exceed $15.

Upon submitting suitable evidence of legal residence in any other state, non-residents shall be charged a fee not to exceed $125 for wild turkey hunting permits.

The Department may by administrative rule allocate and issue non-resident Wild Turkey Permits and establish fees for such permits.

It shall be unlawful to take wild turkey except by use of a bow and arrow or a shotgun of not larger than 10 nor smaller than 20 gauge with shot size not larger than No. 4, and no person while attempting to so take wild turkey may have in his possession any other gun unless in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

It shall be unlawful to take, or attempt to take wild turkey except during the time from 1/2 hour before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset or during such lesser period of time as may be specified by administrative rule, during those days for which an open season is established.

It shall be unlawful for any person to take, or attempt to take, wild turkey by use of dogs, horses, automobiles, aircraft or other vehicles, or conveyances, or by the use or aid of bait or baiting of any kind. For the purposes of this Section, "bait" means any material, whether liquid or solid, including food, salt, minerals, and other products, except pure water, that can be ingested, placed, or scattered in such a manner as to attract or lure wild turkeys. "Baiting" means the placement or scattering of bait to attract wild turkeys. An area is considered as baited during the presence of and for 10 consecutive days following the removal of the bait.

It is unlawful for any person to take in Illinois or have in his possession more than one wild turkey per valid permit.

For the purposes of calculating acreage under this Section, the Department shall, after determining the total acreage of the applicable tract or tracts of land, round remaining fractional portions of an acre greater than or equal to half of an acre up to the next whole acre.

For the purposes of taking wild turkey, nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the manipulation, including mowing or cutting, of standing crops as a normal agricultural or soil stabilization practice, food plots, or normal agricultural practices, including planting, harvesting, and maintenance such as cultivating. Such manipulation for the purpose of taking wild turkey may be further modified by administrative rule.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.26) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.26)

Sec. 2.26. Deer hunting permits. Any person attempting to take deer shall first obtain a "Deer Hunting Permit" issued by the Department in accordance with its administrative rules. Those rules must provide for the issuance of the following types of resident deer archery permits: (i) a combination permit, consisting of one either-sex permit and one antlerless-only permit, (ii) a single antlerless-only permit, and (iii) a single either-sex permit. The fee for a Deer Hunting Permit to take deer with either bow and arrow or gun shall not exceed $25 for residents of the State. The Department may by administrative rule provide for non-resident deer hunting permits for which the fee will not exceed $300 in 2005, $350 in 2006, and $400 in 2007 and thereafter except as provided below for non-resident landowners and non-resident archery hunters. The Department may by administrative rule provide for a non-resident archery deer permit consisting of not more than 2 harvest tags at a total cost not to exceed $325 in 2005, $375 in 2006, and $425 in 2007 and thereafter. The fees for a youth resident and non-resident archery deer permit shall be the same.

The Department shall create a pilot program during the special 3-day, youth-only deer hunting season to allow for youth deer hunting permits that are valid statewide, excluding those counties or portions of counties closed to firearm deer hunting. The Department shall adopt rules to implement the pilot program. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prohibit the Department from issuing Special Hunt Area Permits for the youth-only deer hunting season or establishing, through administrative rule, additional requirements pertaining to the youth-only deer hunting season on Department-owned or Department-managed sites, including site-specific quotas or drawings. The provisions of this paragraph are inoperative on and after January 1, 2023.

The standards and specifications for use of guns and bow and arrow for deer hunting shall be established by administrative rule.

No person may have in his or her possession any firearm not authorized by administrative rule for a specific hunting season when taking deer unless in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

Persons having a firearm deer hunting permit shall be permitted to take deer only during the period from 1/2 hour before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset, and only during those days for which an open season is established for the taking of deer by use of shotgun, handgun, rifle, or muzzle loading rifle.

Persons having an archery deer hunting permit shall be permitted to take deer only during the period from 1/2 hour before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset, and only during those days for which an open season is established for the taking of deer by use of bow and arrow.

It shall be unlawful for any person to take deer by use of dogs, horses, automobiles, aircraft or other vehicles, or by the use or aid of bait or baiting of any kind. For the purposes of this Section, "bait" means any material, whether liquid or solid, including food, salt, minerals, and other products, except pure water, that can be ingested, placed, or scattered in such a manner as to attract or lure white-tailed deer. "Baiting" means the placement or scattering of bait to attract deer. An area is considered as baited during the presence of and for 10 consecutive days following the removal of bait. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the use of a dog to track wounded deer. Any person using a dog for tracking wounded deer must maintain physical control of the dog at all times by means of a maximum 50 foot lead attached to the dog's collar or harness. Tracking wounded deer is permissible at night, but at no time outside of legal deer hunting hours or seasons shall any person handling or accompanying a dog being used for tracking wounded deer be in possession of any firearm or archery device. Persons tracking wounded deer with a dog during the firearm deer seasons shall wear blaze orange or solid blaze pink color as required. Dog handlers tracking wounded deer with a dog are exempt from hunting license and deer permit requirements so long as they are accompanied by the licensed deer hunter who wounded the deer.

It shall be unlawful to possess or transport any wild deer which has been injured or killed in any manner upon a public highway or public right-of-way of this State unless exempted by administrative rule.

Persons hunting deer must have gun unloaded and no bow and arrow device shall be carried with the arrow in the nocked position during hours when deer hunting is unlawful.

It shall be unlawful for any person, having taken the legal limit of deer by gun, to further participate with gun in any deer hunting party.

It shall be unlawful for any person, having taken the legal limit of deer by bow and arrow, to further participate with bow and arrow in any deer hunting party.

The Department may prohibit upland game hunting during the gun deer season by administrative rule.

The Department shall not limit the number of non-resident, either-sex archery deer hunting permits to less than 20,000.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of this Section, including administrative rules, shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

For the purposes of calculating acreage under this Section, the Department shall, after determining the total acreage of the applicable tract or tracts of land, round remaining fractional portions of an acre greater than or equal to half of an acre up to the next whole acre.

For the purposes of taking white-tailed deer, nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the manipulation, including mowing or cutting, of standing crops as a normal agricultural or soil stabilization practice, food plots, or normal agricultural practices, including planting, harvesting, and maintenance such as cultivating or the use of products designed for scent only and not capable of ingestion, solid or liquid, placed or scattered, in such a manner as to attract or lure deer. Such manipulation for the purpose of taking white-tailed deer may be further modified by administrative rule.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-444, eff. 6-1-20; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-932, eff. 1-1-23.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.33)

Sec. 2.33. Prohibitions.

(a) It is unlawful to carry or possess any gun in any State refuge unless otherwise permitted by administrative rule.

(b) It is unlawful to use or possess any snare or snare-like device, deadfall, net, or pit trap to take any species, except that snares not powered by springs or other mechanical devices may be used to trap fur-bearing mammals, in water sets only, if at least one-half of the snare noose is located underwater at all times.

(c) It is unlawful for any person at any time to take a wild mammal protected by this Act from its den by means of any mechanical device, spade, or digging device or to use smoke or other gases to dislodge or remove such mammal except as provided in Section 2.37.

(d) It is unlawful to use a ferret or any other small mammal which is used in the same or similar manner for which ferrets are used for the purpose of frightening or driving any mammals from their dens or hiding places.

(e) (Blank).

(f) It is unlawful to use spears, gigs, hooks, or any like device to take any species protected by this Act.

(g) It is unlawful to use poisons, chemicals, or explosives for the purpose of taking any species protected by this Act.

(h) It is unlawful to hunt adjacent to or near any peat, grass, brush, or other inflammable substance when it is burning.

(i) It is unlawful to take, pursue or intentionally harass or disturb in any manner any wild birds or mammals by use or aid of any vehicle, conveyance, or unmanned aircraft as defined by the Illinois Aeronautics Act, except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl; except that nothing in this subsection shall prohibit the use of unmanned aircraft in the inspection of a public utility facility, tower, or structure or a mobile service facility, tower, or structure by a public utility, as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, or a provider of mobile services as defined in Section 153 of Title 47 of the United States Code. It is also unlawful to use the lights of any vehicle or conveyance, any light connected to any vehicle or conveyance, or any other lighting device or mechanism from inside or on a vehicle or conveyance in any area where wildlife may be found except in accordance with Section 2.37 of this Act; however, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the normal use of headlamps for the purpose of driving upon a roadway. For purposes of this Section, any other lighting device or mechanism shall include, but not be limited to, any device that uses infrared or other light not visible to the naked eye, electronic image intensification, active illumination, thermal imaging, or night vision. Striped skunk, opossum, red fox, gray fox, raccoon, bobcat, and coyote may be taken during the open season by use of a small light which is worn on the body or hand-held by a person on foot and not in any vehicle.

(j) It is unlawful to use any shotgun larger than 10 gauge while taking or attempting to take any of the species protected by this Act.

(k) It is unlawful to use or possess in the field any shotgun shell loaded with a shot size larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) when taking or attempting to take any species of wild game mammals (excluding white-tailed deer), wild game birds, migratory waterfowl or migratory game birds protected by this Act, except white-tailed deer as provided for in Section 2.26 and other species as provided for by subsection (l) or administrative rule.

(l) It is unlawful to take any species of wild game, except white-tailed deer and fur-bearing mammals, with a shotgun loaded with slugs unless otherwise provided for by administrative rule.

(m) It is unlawful to use any shotgun capable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine or chamber combined, except on game breeding and hunting preserve areas licensed under Section 3.27 and except as permitted by the Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. If the shotgun is capable of holding more than 3 shells, it shall, while being used on an area other than a game breeding and shooting preserve area licensed pursuant to Section 3.27, be fitted with a one-piece plug that is irremovable without dismantling the shotgun or otherwise altered to render it incapable of holding more than 3 shells in the magazine and chamber, combined.

(n) It is unlawful for any person, except persons who possess a permit to hunt from a vehicle as provided in this Section and persons otherwise permitted by law, to have or carry any gun in or on any vehicle, conveyance, or aircraft, unless such gun is unloaded and enclosed in a case, except that at field trials authorized by Section 2.34 of this Act, unloaded guns or guns loaded with blank cartridges only may be carried on horseback while not contained in a case, or to have or carry any bow or arrow device in or on any vehicle unless such bow or arrow device is unstrung or enclosed in a case, or otherwise made inoperable unless in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(o) (Blank).

(p) It is unlawful to take game birds, migratory game birds or migratory waterfowl with a rifle, pistol, revolver, or air rifle.

(q) It is unlawful to fire a rifle, pistol, revolver, or air rifle on, over, or into any waters of this State, including frozen waters.

(r) It is unlawful to discharge any gun or bow and arrow device along, upon, across, or from any public right-of-way or highway in this State.

(s) It is unlawful to use a silencer or other device to muffle or mute the sound of the explosion or report resulting from the firing of any gun.

(t) It is unlawful for any person to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, or allow a dog to hunt, within or upon the land of another, or upon waters flowing over or standing on the land of another, or to knowingly shoot a gun or bow and arrow device at any wildlife physically on or flying over the property of another without first obtaining permission from the owner or the owner's designee. For the purposes of this Section, the owner's designee means anyone who the owner designates in a written authorization and the authorization must contain (i) the legal or common description of property for which such authority is given, (ii) the extent that the owner's designee is authorized to make decisions regarding who is allowed to take or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, and (iii) the owner's notarized signature. Before enforcing this Section, the law enforcement officer must have received notice from the owner or the owner's designee of a violation of this Section. Statements made to the law enforcement officer regarding this notice shall not be rendered inadmissible by the hearsay rule when offered for the purpose of showing the required notice.

(u) It is unlawful for any person to discharge any firearm for the purpose of taking any of the species protected by this Act, or hunt with gun or dog, or allow a dog to hunt, within 300 yards of an inhabited dwelling without first obtaining permission from the owner or tenant, except that while trapping, hunting with bow and arrow, hunting with dog and shotgun using shot shells only, or hunting with shotgun using shot shells only, or providing outfitting services under a waterfowl outfitter permit, or on licensed game breeding and hunting preserve areas, as defined in Section 3.27, on federally owned and managed lands and on Department owned, managed, leased, or controlled lands, a 100 yard restriction shall apply.

(v) It is unlawful for any person to remove fur-bearing mammals from, or to move or disturb in any manner, the traps owned by another person without written authorization of the owner to do so.

(w) It is unlawful for any owner of a dog to allow his or her dog to pursue, harass, or kill deer, except that nothing in this Section shall prohibit the tracking of wounded deer with a dog in accordance with the provisions of Section 2.26 of this Code.

(x) It is unlawful for any person to wantonly or carelessly injure or destroy, in any manner whatsoever, any real or personal property on the land of another while engaged in hunting or trapping thereon.

(y) It is unlawful to hunt wild game protected by this Act between one-half hour after sunset and one-half hour before sunrise, except that hunting hours between one-half hour after sunset and one-half hour before sunrise may be established by administrative rule for fur-bearing mammals.

(z) It is unlawful to take any game bird (excluding wild turkeys and crippled pheasants not capable of normal flight and otherwise irretrievable) protected by this Act when not flying. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a person from carrying an uncased, unloaded shotgun in a boat, while in pursuit of a crippled migratory waterfowl that is incapable of normal flight, for the purpose of attempting to reduce the migratory waterfowl to possession, provided that the attempt is made immediately upon downing the migratory waterfowl and is done within 400 yards of the blind from which the migratory waterfowl was downed. This exception shall apply only to migratory game birds that are not capable of normal flight. Migratory waterfowl that are crippled may be taken only with a shotgun as regulated by subsection (j) of this Section using shotgun shells as regulated in subsection (k) of this Section.

(aa) It is unlawful to use or possess any device that may be used for tree climbing or cutting while hunting fur-bearing mammals, excluding coyotes. However, coyotes may not be hunted utilizing these devices during open season for deer except by properly licensed deer hunters.

(bb) It is unlawful for any person, except licensed game breeders, pursuant to Section 2.29 to import, carry into, or possess alive in this State any species of wildlife taken outside of this State, without obtaining permission to do so from the Director.

(cc) It is unlawful for any person to have in his or her possession any freshly killed species protected by this Act during the season closed for taking.

(dd) It is unlawful to take any species protected by this Act and retain it alive except as provided by administrative rule.

(ee) It is unlawful to possess any rifle while in the field during gun deer season except as provided in Sections 2.25 and 2.26 and administrative rules.

(ff) It is unlawful for any person to take any species protected by this Act, except migratory waterfowl, during the gun deer hunting season in those counties open to gun deer hunting, unless he or she wears, when in the field, a cap and upper outer garment of a solid blaze orange color or solid blaze pink color, with such articles of clothing displaying a minimum of 400 square inches of blaze orange or solid blaze pink color material.

(gg) It is unlawful during the upland game season for any person to take upland game with a firearm unless he or she wears, while in the field, a cap of solid blaze orange color or solid blaze pink color. For purposes of this Act, upland game is defined as Bobwhite Quail, Hungarian Partridge, Ring-necked Pheasant, Eastern Cottontail, and Swamp Rabbit.

(hh) It shall be unlawful to kill or cripple any species protected by this Act for which there is a bag limit without making a reasonable effort to retrieve such species and include such in the bag limit. It shall be unlawful for any person having control over harvested game mammals, game birds, or migratory game birds for which there is a bag limit to wantonly waste or destroy the usable meat of the game, except this shall not apply to wildlife taken under Sections 2.37 or 3.22 of this Code. For purposes of this subsection, "usable meat" means the breast meat of a game bird or migratory game bird and the hind ham and front shoulders of a game mammal. It shall be unlawful for any person to place, leave, dump, or abandon a wildlife carcass or parts of it along or upon a public right-of-way or highway or on public or private property, including a waterway or stream, without the permission of the owner or tenant. It shall not be unlawful to discard game meat that is determined to be unfit for human consumption.

(ii) This Section shall apply only to those species protected by this Act taken within the State. Any species or any parts thereof, legally taken in and transported from other states or countries, may be possessed within the State, except as provided in this Section and Sections 2.35, 2.36, and 3.21.

(jj) (Blank).

(kk) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the Director from issuing permits to paraplegics or to other persons with disabilities who meet the requirements set forth in administrative rule to shoot or hunt from a vehicle as provided by that rule, provided that such is otherwise in accord with this Act.

(ll) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the taking of aquatic life protected by the Fish and Aquatic Life Code or birds and mammals protected by this Act, except deer and fur-bearing mammals, from a boat not camouflaged or disguised to alter its identity or to further provide a place of concealment and not propelled by sail or mechanical power. However, only shotguns not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than .410 bore loaded with not more than 3 shells of a shot size no larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) may be used to take species protected by this Act.

(mm) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the use of a shotgun, not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than a 20 gauge, with a rifled barrel.

(nn) It shall be unlawful to possess any species of wildlife or wildlife parts taken unlawfully in Illinois, any other state, or any other country, whether or not the wildlife or wildlife parts are indigenous to Illinois. For the purposes of this subsection, the statute of limitations for unlawful possession of wildlife or wildlife parts shall not cease until 2 years after the possession has permanently ended.

(oo) It is unlawful while deer hunting:

(1) to possess or be in close proximity to a rifle that is not centerfire; or

(2) to be in possession of or in close proximity to a magazine that is capable of making a rifle not a single shot.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-837, eff. 5-13-22; 102-932, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.34) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.34)

Sec. 2.34. Dog trials.

(a) Dogs of any breed may be trained the year round in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(b) During the periods of time when it is unlawful to take species protected by this Act, the only firearms which shall be used in the training of dogs from sunrise to sunset shall be pistols with blank cartridges. No other gun or ammunition may be in immediate possession during this time. No person or persons in, along with, or accompanying the dog training party, shall be in possession of any firearm or live ammunition, except pistols capable of firing only blank cartridges during the hours from sunset to sunrise. All organized field trials or training grounds approved by the Department shall be exempt from this provision unless in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(c) No field trial shall be held without a permit from the Department.

The following Department areas shall be designated as horseback field trial sites; Lee County Conservation Area, Des Plaines Conservation Area, Moraine View State Park, Middle Fork Fish and Wildlife Area, Hamilton County Conservation Area, and Wayne Fitzgerrell State Park. The Department shall provide and maintain quality wildlife habitat on these sites.

Field trials shall be scheduled only from September 1 through April 30 in the Northern Zone and September 1 through April 15 in the Southern Zone. The Department maintains the authority to schedule and administer field trials. The boundary between the Northern Zone and the Southern Zone shall be U.S. Route 36. However, (i) if the opening date of the field trial season falls on Sunday, the season will begin on Saturday of that weekend; and (ii) if the closing date of the field trial season falls on Saturday, the season will conclude on Sunday of that weekend; and (iii) if during the final days of the field trial season a field trial organization begins a field trial which is subsequently interrupted due to inclement weather, the field trial organization may complete the trial, subject to the Department's approval, even though the field trial season has ended. The field trial organization must complete the trial on the first possible day or days. Field trials for the retrieving breeds are exempt from these field trials season provisions and shall have no closed season.

The fee for field trials shall be established by the Department by rule.

(d) The Department is authorized to designate dog training areas and to grant permits for all field trials including those field trials where game birds reared under Section 3.23 are released and taken in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth by the Department. Applications for permits for such trials and training areas shall be accompanied by detailed information as to the date and the location of the grounds where such trial area or training grounds is located. Applicants for field trial or dog training permits must have the consent of the landowner prior to applying for such permit. Fees and other regulations will be set by administrative rule.

(e) All permits for designated dog training areas shall expire March 31st of each year.

(f) Permit holders for designated dog training areas must possess a wild game breeder's permit or a game breeding and hunting preserve area permit and may utilize live bird recall devices on such areas.

(g) Nothing shall prevent an individual from using a dog in the taking of squirrel during the open season.

(h) All hand reared game released and shot at field trials shall be properly identified with tags as provided for by this Act and such birds shall be banded before they are removed from the field trial area.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22.)

Section 80. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 24-1, 24-1.6, 24-1.9, 24-1.10, 24-2, and 24-3 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)

Sec. 24-1. Unlawful use of weapons.

(a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:

(1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or

(2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or

(2.5) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, any firearm in a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place used for religious worship; or

(3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or

(4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a)(4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(5) Sets a spring gun; or

(6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or

(7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:

(i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;

(ii) any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or

(iii) any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or

(8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.

This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or

(9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his or her person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he or she is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his or her identity; or

(10) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village, or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun, or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a)(10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Concealed Carry Act.

A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means (i) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or (ii) any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or

(11) Sells, manufactures, delivers, imports, possesses, or purchases any assault weapon attachment or .50 caliber cartridge in violation of Section 24-1.9 or any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or

(12) (Blank); or

(13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material; or

(14) Manufactures, possesses, sells, or offers to sell, purchase, manufacture, import, transfer, or use any device, part, kit, tool, accessory, or combination of parts that is designed to and functions to increase the rate of fire of a semiautomatic firearm above the standard rate of fire for semiautomatic firearms that is not equipped with that device, part, or combination of parts; or

(15) Carries or possesses any assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle in violation of Section 24-1.9; or

(16) Manufactures, sells, delivers, imports, or purchases any assault weapon or .50 caliber rifle in violation of Section 24-1.9.

(b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), subsection 24-1(a)(13), or 24-1(a)(15) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6), 24-1(a)(7)(ii), 24-1(a)(7)(iii), or 24-1(a)(16) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), 24-1(a)(10), or 24-1(a)(15) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(2.5) or 24-1(a)(14) commits a Class 2 felony. The possession of each weapon or device in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(c) Violations in specific places.

(1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.

(2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.

(3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

(5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers; and "public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.

(d) The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his or her trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.

(e) Exemptions.

(1) Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The provision of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibiting the sale, manufacture, purchase, possession, or carrying of any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, does not apply to a person who possesses a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police or to a person or an entity engaged in the business of selling or manufacturing switchblade knives.

(Source: P.A. 101-223, eff. 1-1-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)

Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon when he or she knowingly:

(1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; or

(2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; and

(3) One of the following factors is present:

(A) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(A-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card under the Firearm Owners Identification Card license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(B) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(B-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card under the Firearm Owners Identification Card license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(C) the person possessing the firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or

(D) the person possessing the weapon was previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or

(F) (blank); or

(G) the person possessing the weapon had an order of protection issued against him or her within the previous 2 years; or

(H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence against the person or property of another; or

(I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21 years of age and in possession of a handgun, unless the person under 21 is engaged in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).

(a-5) "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning given to it in Section 13.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the transportation or possession of weapons that:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon committed with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) or both items (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than 3 years.

(3) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person who has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(4) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X felony.

(e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 100-3, eff. 1-1-18; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.9)

Sec. 24-1.9. Manufacture, possession, delivery, sale, and purchase of assault weapons, .50 caliber rifles, and .50 caliber cartridges.

(a) Definitions. In this Section:

(1) "Assault weapon" means any of the following, except as provided in subdivision (2) of this subsection:

(A) A semiautomatic rifle that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine or that may be readily modified to accept a detachable magazine, if the firearm has one or more of the following:

(i) a pistol grip or thumbhole stock;

(ii) any feature capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger hand;

(iii) a folding, telescoping, thumbhole, or detachable stock, or a stock that is otherwise foldable or adjustable in a manner that operates to reduce the length, size, or any other dimension, or otherwise enhances the concealability of, the weapon;

(iv) a flash suppressor;

(v) a grenade launcher;

(vi) a shroud attached to the barrel or that partially or completely encircles the barrel, allowing the bearer to hold the firearm with the non-trigger hand without being burned, but excluding a slide that encloses the barrel.

(B) A semiautomatic rifle that has a fixed magazine with the capacity to accept more than 10 rounds, except for an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition.

(C) A semiautomatic pistol that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine or that may be readily modified to accept a detachable magazine, if the firearm has one or more of the following:

(i) a threaded barrel;

(ii) a second pistol grip or another feature capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger hand;

(iii) a shroud attached to the barrel or that partially or completely encircles the barrel, allowing the bearer to hold the firearm with the non-trigger hand without being burned, but excluding a slide that encloses the barrel;

(iv) a flash suppressor;

(v) the capacity to accept a detachable magazine at some location outside of the pistol grip; or

(vi) a buffer tube, arm brace, or other part that protrudes horizontally behind the pistol grip and is designed or redesigned to allow or facilitate a firearm to be fired from the shoulder.

(D) A semiautomatic pistol that has a fixed magazine with the capacity to accept more than 15 rounds.

(E) Any shotgun with a revolving cylinder.

(F) A semiautomatic shotgun that has one or more of the following:

(i) a pistol grip or thumbhole stock;

(ii) any feature capable of functioning as a protruding grip that can be held by the non-trigger hand;

(iii) a folding or thumbhole stock;

(iv) a grenade launcher;

(v) a fixed magazine with the capacity of more than 5 rounds; or

(vi) the capacity to accept a detachable magazine.

(G) Any semiautomatic firearm that has the capacity to accept a belt ammunition feeding device.

(H) Any firearm that has been modified to be operable as an assault weapon as defined in this Section.

(I) Any part or combination of parts designed or intended to convert a firearm into an assault weapon, including any combination of parts from which an assault weapon may be readily assembled if those parts are in the possession or under the control of the same person.

(J) All of the following rifles, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon:

(i) All AK types, including the following:

(I) AK, AK47, AK47S, AK-74, AKM, AKS, ARM, MAK90, MISR, NHM90, NHM91, SA85, SA93, Vector Arms AK-47, VEPR, WASR-10, and WUM.

(II) IZHMASH Saiga AK.

(III) MAADI AK47 and ARM.

(IV) Norinco 56S, 56S2, 84S, and 86S.

(V) Poly Technologies AK47 and AKS.

(VI) SKS with a detachable magazine.

(ii) all AR types, including the following:

(I) AR-10.

(II) AR-15.

(III) Alexander Arms Overmatch Plus 16.

(IV) Armalite M15 22LR Carbine.

(V) Armalite M15-T.

(VI) Barrett REC7.

(VII) Beretta AR-70.

(VIII) Black Rain Ordnance Recon Scout.

(IX) Bushmaster ACR.

(X) Bushmaster Carbon 15.

(XI) Bushmaster MOE series.

(XII) Bushmaster XM15.

(XIII) Chiappa Firearms MFour rifles.

(XIV) Colt Match Target rifles.

(XV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 rifles.

(XVI) Daniel Defense M4A1 rifles.

(XVII) Devil Dog Arms 15 Series rifles.

(XVIII) Diamondback DB15 rifles.

(XIX) DoubleStar AR rifles.

(XX) DPMS Tactical rifles.

(XXI) DSA Inc. ZM-4 Carbine.

(XXII) Heckler & Koch MR556.

(XXIII) High Standard HSA-15 rifles.

(XXIV) Jesse James Nomad AR-15 rifle.

(XXV) Knight's Armament SR-15.

(XXVI) Lancer L15 rifles.

(XXVII) MGI Hydra Series rifles.

(XXVIII) Mossberg MMR Tactical rifles.

(XXIX) Noreen Firearms BN 36 rifle.

(XXX) Olympic Arms.

(XXXI) POF USA P415.

(XXXII) Precision Firearms AR rifles.

(XXXIII) Remington R-15 rifles.

(XXXIV) Rhino Arms AR rifles.

(XXXV) Rock River Arms LAR-15 or Rock River Arms LAR-47.

(XXXVI) Sig Sauer SIG516 rifles and MCX rifles.

(XXXVII) Smith & Wesson M&P15 rifles.

(XXXVIII) Stag Arms AR rifles.

(XXXIX) Sturm, Ruger & Co. SR556 and AR-556 rifles.

(XL) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M-4 rifles.

(XLI) Windham Weaponry AR rifles.

(XLII) WMD Guns Big Beast.

(XLIII) Yankee Hill Machine Company, Inc. YHM-15 rifles.

(iii) Barrett M107A1.

(iv) Barrett M82A1.

(v) Beretta CX4 Storm.

(vi) Calico Liberty Series.

(vii) CETME Sporter.

(viii) Daewoo K-1, K-2, Max 1, Max 2, AR 100, and AR 110C.

(ix) Fabrique Nationale/FN Herstal FAL, LAR, 22 FNC, 308 Match, L1A1 Sporter, PS90, SCAR, and FS2000.

(x) Feather Industries AT-9.

(xi) Galil Model AR and Model ARM.

(xii) Hi-Point Carbine.

(xiii) HK-91, HK-93, HK-94, HK-PSG-1, and HK USC.

(xiv) IWI TAVOR, Galil ACE rifle.

(xv) Kel-Tec Sub-2000, SU-16, and RFB.

(xvi) SIG AMT, SIG PE-57, Sig Sauer SG 550, Sig Sauer SG 551, and SIG MCX.

(xvii) Springfield Armory SAR-48.

(xviii) Steyr AUG.

(xix) Sturm, Ruger & Co. Mini-14 Tactical Rifle M-14/20CF.

(xx) All Thompson rifles, including the following:

(I) Thompson M1SB.

(II) Thompson T1100D.

(III) Thompson T150D.

(IV) Thompson T1B.

(V) Thompson T1B100D.

(VI) Thompson T1B50D.

(VII) Thompson T1BSB.

(VIII) Thompson T1-C.

(IX) Thompson T1D.

(X) Thompson T1SB.

(XI) Thompson T5.

(XII) Thompson T5100D.

(XIII) Thompson TM1.

(XIV) Thompson TM1C.

(xxi) UMAREX UZI rifle.

(xxii) UZI Mini Carbine, UZI Model A Carbine, and UZI Model B Carbine.

(xxiii) Valmet M62S, M71S, and M78.

(xxiv) Vector Arms UZI Type.

(xxv) Weaver Arms Nighthawk.

(xxvi) Wilkinson Arms Linda Carbine.

(K) All of the following pistols, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon thereof:

(i) All AK types, including the following:

(I) Centurion 39 AK pistol.

(II) CZ Scorpion pistol.

(III) Draco AK-47 pistol.

(IV) HCR AK-47 pistol.

(V) IO Inc. Hellpup AK-47 pistol.

(VI) Krinkov pistol.

(VII) Mini Draco AK-47 pistol.

(VIII) PAP M92 pistol.

(IX) Yugo Krebs Krink pistol.

(ii) All AR types, including the following:

(I) American Spirit AR-15 pistol.

(II) Bushmaster Carbon 15 pistol.

(III) Chiappa Firearms M4 Pistol GEN II.

(IV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 Roscoe pistol.

(V) Daniel Defense MK18 pistol.

(VI) DoubleStar Corporation AR pistol.

(VII) DPMS AR-15 pistol.

(VIII) Jesse James Nomad AR-15 pistol.

(IX) Olympic Arms AR-15 pistol.

(X) Osprey Armament MK-18 pistol.

(XI) POF USA AR pistols.

(XII) Rock River Arms LAR 15 pistol.

(XIII) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M-4 pistol.

(iii) Calico pistols.

(iv) DSA SA58 PKP FAL pistol.

(v) Encom MP-9 and MP-45.

(vi) Heckler & Koch model SP-89 pistol.

(vii) Intratec AB-10, TEC-22 Scorpion, TEC-9, and TEC-DC9.

(viii) IWI Galil Ace pistol, UZI PRO pistol.

(ix) Kel-Tec PLR 16 pistol.

(x) All MAC types, including the following:

(I) MAC-10.

(II) MAC-11.

(III) Masterpiece Arms MPA A930 Mini Pistol, MPA460 Pistol, MPA Tactical Pistol, and MPA Mini Tactical Pistol.

(IV) Military Armament Corp. Ingram M-11.

(V) Velocity Arms VMAC.

(xi) Sig Sauer P556 pistol.

(xii) Sites Spectre.

(xiii) All Thompson types, including the following:

(I) Thompson TA510D.

(II) Thompson TA5.

(xiv) All UZI types, including Micro-UZI.

(L) All of the following shotguns, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon thereof:

(i) DERYA Anakon MC-1980, Anakon SD12.

(ii) Doruk Lethal shotguns.

(iii) Franchi LAW-12 and SPAS 12.

(iv) All IZHMASH Saiga 12 types, including the following:

(I) IZHMASH Saiga 12.

(II) IZHMASH Saiga 12S.

(III) IZHMASH Saiga 12S EXP-01.

(IV) IZHMASH Saiga 12K.

(V) IZHMASH Saiga 12K-030.

(VI) IZHMASH Saiga 12K-040 Taktika.

(v) Streetsweeper.

(vi) Striker 12.

(2) "Assault weapon" does not include:

(A) Any firearm that is an unserviceable firearm or has been made permanently inoperable.

(B) An antique firearm or a replica of an antique firearm.

(C) A firearm that is manually operated by bolt, pump, lever or slide action, unless the firearm is a shotgun with a revolving cylinder.

(D) Any air rifle as defined in Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.

(E) Any handgun, as defined under Section 13.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise listed in this Section.

(3) "Assault weapon attachment" means any device capable of being attached to a firearm that is specifically designed for making or converting a firearm into any of the firearms listed in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a).

(4) "Antique firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(16).

(5) ".50 caliber rifle" means a centerfire rifle capable of firing a .50 caliber cartridge. The term does not include any antique firearm, any shotgun including a shotgun that has a rifle barrel, or any muzzle-loader which uses black powder for hunting or historical reenactments.

(6) ".50 caliber cartridge" means a cartridge in .50 BMG caliber, either by designation or actual measurement, that is capable of being fired from a centerfire rifle. The term ".50 caliber cartridge" does not include any memorabilia or display item that is filled with a permanent inert substance or that is otherwise permanently altered in a manner that prevents ready modification for use as live ammunition or shotgun ammunition with a caliber measurement that is equal to or greater than .50 caliber.

(7) "Detachable magazine" means an ammunition feeding device that may be removed from a firearm without disassembly of the firearm action, including an ammunition feeding device that may be readily removed from a firearm with the use of a bullet, cartridge, accessory, or other tool, or any other object that functions as a tool, including a bullet or cartridge.

(8) "Fixed magazine" means an ammunition feeding device that is permanently attached to a firearm, or contained in and not removable from a firearm, or that is otherwise not a detachable magazine, but does not include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition.

(b) Except as provided in subsections (c), (d), and (e), on or after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly manufacture, deliver, sell, import, or purchase or cause to be manufactured, delivered, sold, imported, or purchased by another, an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), beginning January 1, 2024, it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

(d) This Section does not apply to a person's possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge device if the person lawfully possessed that assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge prohibited by subsection (c) of this Section, if the person has provided in an endorsement affidavit, prior to January 1, 2024, under oath or affirmation and in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police, no later than October 1, 2023:

(1) the affiant's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number;

(2) an affirmation that the affiant: (i) possessed an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly; or (ii) inherited the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge from a person with an endorsement under this Section or from a person authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of subsection (e) to possess the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge; and

(3) the make, model, caliber, and serial number of the .50 caliber rifle or assault weapon or assault weapons listed in paragraphs (J), (K), and (L) of subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of this Section possessed by the affiant prior to January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and any assault weapons identified and published by the Illinois State Police pursuant to this subdivision (3). No later than October 1, 2023, and every October 1 thereafter, the Illinois State Police shall, via rulemaking, identify, publish, and make available on its website, the list of assault weapons subject to an endorsement affidavit under this subsection (d). The list shall identify, but is not limited to, the copies, duplicates, variants, and altered facsimiles of the assault weapons identified in paragraphs (J), (K), and (L) of subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of this Section and shall be consistent with the definition of "assault weapon" identified in this Section. The Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and this paragraph is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

The affidavit form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Entering false information on this form is a violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act."

In any administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding in this State, a completed endorsement affidavit submitted to the Illinois State Police by a person under this Section creates a rebuttable presumption that the person is entitled to possess and transport the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge.

Beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, a person authorized under this Section to possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge shall possess such items only:

(1) on private property owned or immediately controlled by the person;

(2) on private property that is not open to the public with the express permission of the person who owns or immediately controls such property;

(3) while on the premises of a licensed firearms dealer or gunsmith for the purpose of lawful repair;

(4) while engaged in the legal use of the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge at a properly licensed firing range or sport shooting competition venue; or

(5) while traveling to or from these locations, provided that the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, or .50 caliber rifle is unloaded and the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge is enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container.

Beginning on January 1, 2024, the person with the endorsement for an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge or a person authorized under subdivisions (1) through (5) of subsection (e) to possess an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge may transfer the assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge only to an heir, an individual residing in another state maintaining it in another state, or a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968. Within 10 days after transfer of the weapon except to an heir, the person shall notify the Illinois State Police of the name and address of the transferee and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The person to whom the weapon or ammunition is transferred shall, within 60 days of the transfer, complete an affidavit required under this Section. A person to whom the weapon is transferred may transfer it only as provided in this subsection.

Except as provided in subsection (e) and beginning on January 1, 2024, any person who moves into this State in possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge shall, within 60 days, apply for a Firearm Owners Identification Card and complete an endorsement application as outlined in subsection (d).

Notwithstanding any other law, information contained in the endorsement affidavit shall be confidential, is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, and shall not be disclosed, except to law enforcement agencies acting in the performance of their duties.

(e) The provisions of this Section regarding the purchase or possession of assault weapons, assault weapon attachments, .50 caliber rifles, and .50 cartridges, as well as the provisions of this Section that prohibit causing those items to be purchased or possessed, do not apply to:

(1) Peace officers, as defined in Section 2-13 of this Code.

(2) Qualified law enforcement officers and qualified retired law enforcement officers as defined in the Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. 926B and 926C) and as recognized under Illinois law.

(3) Acquisition and possession by a federal, State, or local law enforcement agency for the purpose of equipping the agency's peace officers as defined in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (e).

(4) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(5) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while performing their official duties or while traveling to or from their places of duty.

(6) Any company that employs armed security officers in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and any person employed as an armed security force member at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and while performing official duties.

(7) Any private security contractor agency licensed under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 that employs private security contractors and any private security contractor who is licensed and has been issued a firearm control card under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 while performing official duties.

The provisions of this Section do not apply to the manufacture, delivery, sale, import, purchase, or possession of an assault weapon, assault weapon attachment, .50 caliber rifle, or .50 caliber cartridge or causing the manufacture, delivery, sale, importation, purchase, or possession of those items:

(A) for sale or transfer to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (7) of this subsection (e) to possess those items;

(B) for sale or transfer to the United States or any department or agency thereof; or

(C) for sale or transfer in another state or for export.

This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(i) Possession of any firearm if that firearm is sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee and by USA Shooting, the national governing body for international shooting competition in the United States, but only when the firearm is in the actual possession of an Olympic target shooting competitor or target shooting coach for the purpose of storage, transporting to and from Olympic target shooting practice or events if the firearm is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms, and when the Olympic target shooting competitor or target shooting coach is engaging in those practices or events. For the purposes of this paragraph (8), "firearm" has the meaning provided in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(ii) Any nonresident who transports, within 24 hours, a weapon for any lawful purpose from any place where the nonresident may lawfully possess and carry that weapon to any other place where the nonresident may lawfully possess and carry that weapon if, during the transportation, the weapon is unloaded, and neither the weapon nor any ammunition being transported is readily accessible or is directly accessible from the passenger compartment of the transporting vehicle. In the case of a vehicle without a compartment separate from the driver's compartment, the weapon or ammunition shall be contained in a locked container other than the glove compartment or console.

(iii) Possession of a weapon at an event taking place at the World Shooting and Recreational Complex at Sparta, only while engaged in the legal use of the weapon, or while traveling to or from that location if the weapon is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms.

(iv) Possession of a weapon only for hunting use expressly permitted under the Wildlife Code, or while traveling to or from a location authorized for this hunting use under the Wildlife Code if the weapon is broken down in a nonfunctioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a firearm case, carrying box, shipping box, or other similar portable container designed for the safe transportation of firearms. By October 1, 2023, the Illinois State Police, in consultation with the Department of Natural Resources, shall adopt rules concerning the list of applicable weapons approved under this subparagraph (iv). The Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and this paragraph is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(v) The manufacture, transportation, possession, sale, or rental of blank-firing assault weapons and .50 caliber rifles, or the weapon's respective attachments, to persons authorized or permitted, or both authorized and permitted, to acquire and possess these weapons or attachments for the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a motion picture, television, or video production or entertainment event.

Any person not subject to this Section may submit an endorsement affidavit if the person chooses.

(f) Any sale or transfer with a background check initiated to the Illinois State Police on or before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly is allowed to be completed after January 10, 2023 the effective date of this amendatory Act once an approval is issued by the Illinois State Police and any applicable waiting period under Section 24-3 has expired.

(g) The Illinois State Police shall take all steps necessary to carry out the requirements of this Section within by October 1, 2023.

(h) The Illinois Department of the State Police shall also develop and implement a public notice and public outreach campaign to promote awareness about the provisions of Public Act 102-1116 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and to increase compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; revised 4-6-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.10)

Sec. 24-1.10. Manufacture, delivery, sale, and possession of large capacity ammunition feeding devices.

(a) In this Section:

"Handgun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 13.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

"Long gun" means a rifle or shotgun.

"Large capacity ammunition feeding device" means:

(1) a magazine, belt, drum, feed strip, or similar device that has a capacity of, or that can be readily restored or converted to accept, more than 10 rounds of ammunition for long guns and more than 15 rounds of ammunition for handguns; or

(2) any combination of parts from which a device described in paragraph (1) can be assembled.

"Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does not include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition. "Large capacity ammunition feeding device" does not include a tubular magazine that is contained in a lever-action firearm or any device that has been made permanently inoperable.

(b) Except as provided in subsections (e) and (f), it is unlawful for any person within this State to knowingly manufacture, deliver, sell, purchase, or cause to be manufactured, delivered, sold, or purchased a large capacity ammunition feeding device.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (d), (e), and (f), and beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, it is unlawful to knowingly possess a large capacity ammunition feeding device.

(d) Subsection (c) does not apply to a person's possession of a large capacity ammunition feeding device if the person lawfully possessed that large capacity ammunition feeding device before January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, provided that the person shall possess such device only:

(1) on private property owned or immediately controlled by the person;

(2) on private property that is not open to the public with the express permission of the person who owns or immediately controls such property;

(3) while on the premises of a licensed firearms dealer or gunsmith for the purpose of lawful repair;

(4) while engaged in the legal use of the large capacity ammunition feeding device at a properly licensed firing range or sport shooting competition venue; or

(5) while traveling to or from these locations, provided that the large capacity ammunition feeding device is stored unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container.

A person authorized under this Section to possess a large capacity ammunition feeding device may transfer the large capacity ammunition feeding device only to an heir, an individual residing in another state maintaining it in another state, or a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968. Within 10 days after transfer of the large capacity ammunition feeding device except to an heir, the person shall notify the Illinois State Police of the name and address of the transferee and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The person to whom the large capacity ammunition feeding device is transferred shall, within 60 days of the transfer, notify the Illinois State Police of the person's acquisition and comply with the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. A person to whom the large capacity ammunition feeding device is transferred may transfer it only as provided in this subsection.

Except as provided in subsections (e) and (f) and beginning 90 days after January 10, 2023 (the effective date of Public Act 102-1116) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, any person who moves into this State in possession of a large capacity ammunition feeding device shall, within 60 days, apply for a Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(e) The provisions of this Section regarding the purchase or possession of large capacity ammunition feeding devices, as well as the provisions of this Section that prohibit causing those items to be purchased or possessed, do not apply to:

(1) Peace officers as defined in Section 2-13 of this Code.

(2) Qualified law enforcement officers and qualified retired law enforcement officers as defined in the Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. 926B and 926C) and as recognized under Illinois law.

(3) A federal, State, or local law enforcement agency for the purpose of equipping the agency's peace officers as defined in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection (e).

(4) Wardens, superintendents, and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(5) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while performing their official duties or while traveling to or from their places of duty.

(6) Any company that employs armed security officers in this State at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and any person employed as an armed security force member at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission and while performing official duties.

(7) Any private security contractor agency licensed under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 that employs private security contractors and any private security contractor who is licensed and has been issued a firearm control card under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 while performing official duties.

(f) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Manufacture, delivery, sale, importation, purchase, or possession or causing to be manufactured, delivered, sold, imported, purchased, or possessed a large capacity ammunition feeding device:

(A) for sale or transfer to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (7) of subsection (e) to possess those items;

(B) for sale or transfer to the United States or any department or agency thereof; or

(C) for sale or transfer in another state or for export.

(2) Sale or rental of large capacity ammunition feeding devices for blank-firing assault weapons and .50 caliber rifles, to persons authorized or permitted, or both authorized and permitted, to acquire these devices for the purpose of rental for use solely as props for a motion picture, television, or video production or entertainment event.

(g) Sentence. A person who knowingly manufactures, delivers, sells, purchases, possesses, or causes to be manufactured, delivered, sold, possessed, or purchased in violation of this Section a large capacity ammunition feeding device capable of holding more than 10 rounds of ammunition for long guns or more than 15 rounds of ammunition for handguns commits a petty offense with a fine of $1,000 for each violation.

(h) The Illinois Department of the State Police shall also develop and implement a public notice and public outreach campaign to promote awareness about the provisions of Public Act 102-1116 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and to increase compliance with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-1116, eff. 1-10-23; revised 4-6-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of a licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 48 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution as a security guard for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department; provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 48 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 28 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card. For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed, if they have received weapons training according to requirements of the Peace Officer and Probation Officer Firearm Training Act.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver, or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card under the Firearm Owners Identification Card license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of the commission of the offense.

(a-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply to or affect a qualified current or retired law enforcement officer or a current or retired deputy, county correctional officer, or correctional officer of the Department of Corrections qualified under the laws of this State or under the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers, or fishermen while engaged in lawful hunting, trapping, or fishing under the provisions of the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the modification is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 inches.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordnance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordnance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.

(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(g-10) (Blank).

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 102-152, eff. 1-1-22; 102-779, eff. 1-1-23; 102-837, eff. 5-13-22; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years. In this subsection (e):

"Mental institution" means any hospital, institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is a person with an intellectual disability.

(g) Delivers any firearm, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of the firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of the stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm from a federally licensed firearms dealer to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a federally licensed firearms dealer outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) (blank); (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923); or (5) the transfer or sale of any rifle, shotgun, or other long gun to a resident registered competitor or attendee or non-resident registered competitor or attendee by any dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 at competitive shooting events held at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. For purposes of transfers or sales under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph (g), the Department of Natural Resources shall give notice to the Illinois State Police at least 30 calendar days prior to any competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. The notification shall be made on a form prescribed by the Illinois State Police. The sanctioning body shall provide a list of all registered competitors and attendees at least 24 hours before the events to the Illinois State Police. Any changes to the list of registered competitors and attendees shall be forwarded to the Illinois State Police as soon as practicable. The Illinois State Police must destroy the list of registered competitors and attendees no later than 30 days after the date of the event. Nothing in this paragraph (g) relieves a federally licensed firearm dealer from the requirements of conducting a NICS background check through the Illinois Point of Contact under 18 U.S.C. 922(t). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm. For purposes of this paragraph (g), "national governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Illinois State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; or (2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Illinois State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card or license to carry a concealed firearm means receipt of an approval number issued in accordance with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 or Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(1) In addition to the other requirements of this paragraph (k), all persons who are not federally licensed firearms dealers must also have complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(2) All sellers or transferors who have complied with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the transferee of the firearm transferred, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller or transferor.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4-year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5-year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)

Section 85. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Section 5-6-1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/5-6-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-1)

Sec. 5-6-1. Sentences of probation and of conditional discharge and disposition of supervision. The General Assembly finds that in order to protect the public, the criminal justice system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation by responding to violations with swift, certain and fair punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge or disposition of supervision.

(a) Except where specifically prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court shall impose a sentence of probation or conditional discharge upon an offender unless, having regard to the nature and circumstance of the offense, and to the history, character and condition of the offender, the court is of the opinion that:

(1) his imprisonment or periodic imprisonment is necessary for the protection of the public; or

(2) probation or conditional discharge would deprecate the seriousness of the offender's conduct and would be inconsistent with the ends of justice; or

(3) a combination of imprisonment with concurrent or consecutive probation when an offender has been admitted into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug Court Treatment Act is necessary for the protection of the public and for the rehabilitation of the offender.

The court shall impose as a condition of a sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, subject to the provisions of Section 5-6-4 of this Act.

(b) The court may impose a sentence of conditional discharge for an offense if the court is of the opinion that neither a sentence of imprisonment nor of periodic imprisonment nor of probation supervision is appropriate.

(b-1) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the defendant within the past 12 months has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(c) The court may, upon a plea of guilty or a stipulation by the defendant of the facts supporting the charge or a finding of guilt, defer further proceedings and the imposition of a sentence, and enter an order for supervision of the defendant, if the defendant is not charged with: (i) a Class A misdemeanor, as defined by the following provisions of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: Sections 11-9.1; 12-3.2; 11-1.50 or 12-15; 26-5 or 48-1; 31-1; 31-6; 31-7; paragraphs (2) and (3) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1; paragraph (1) through (5), (8), (10), and (11) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1; (ii) a Class A misdemeanor violation of Section 3.01, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act; or (iii) a felony. If the defendant is not barred from receiving an order for supervision as provided in this subsection, the court may enter an order for supervision after considering the circumstances of the offense, and the history, character and condition of the offender, if the court is of the opinion that:

(1) the offender is not likely to commit further crimes;

(2) the defendant and the public would be best served if the defendant were not to receive a criminal record; and

(3) in the best interests of justice an order of supervision is more appropriate than a sentence otherwise permitted under this Code.

(c-5) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section do not apply to a defendant charged with a second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit or privileges were revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the defendant has previously been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(3) pleaded guilty to or stipulated to the facts supporting a charge or a finding of guilty to a violation of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state, and the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(e) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if said defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(f) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with: (1) violating Sections 15-111, 15-112, 15-301, paragraph (b) of Section 6-104, Section 11-605, paragraph (d-5) of Section 11-605.1, Section 11-1002.5, or Section 11-1414 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (2) committing a Class A misdemeanor under subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (i) of this Section, the provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has within the last 5 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting authority with regard to the standards set forth in this Section.

(h) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with violating a serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code:

(1) unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision; or

(2) if the defendant has previously been sentenced under the provisions of paragraph (c) on or after January 1, 1998 for any serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(h-1) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant under the age of 21 years charged with an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or before the termination date of the supervision order, the supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty plea under this provision.

(i) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the defendant has been assigned supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(j) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a violation of Section 11-501.1 or paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if the defendant has within the last 10 years been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(k) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance that governs the movement of vehicles if, within the 12 months preceding the date of the defendant's arrest, the defendant has been assigned court supervision on 2 occasions for a violation that governs the movement of vehicles under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The provisions of this paragraph (k) do not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(l) (Blank).

(m) (Blank).

(n) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to any person under the age of 18 who commits an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except upon personal appearance of the defendant in court and upon the written consent of the defendant's parent or legal guardian, executed before the presiding judge. The presiding judge shall have the authority to waive this requirement upon the showing of good cause by the defendant.

(o) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and when:

(1) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and the defendant failed to obtain a monitoring device driving permit; or

(2) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, had subsequently obtained a monitoring device driving permit, but was driving a vehicle not equipped with a breath alcohol ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(p) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating Section 11-601.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the defendant has previously been:

(1) convicted for a violation of Section 11-601.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state; or

(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section 11-601.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state.

(q) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating subsection (b) of Section 11-601 or Section 11-601.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code when the defendant was operating a vehicle, in an urban district, at a speed that is 26 miles per hour or more in excess of the applicable maximum speed limit established under Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(r) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the violation was the proximate cause of the death of another and the defendant's driving abstract contains a prior conviction or disposition of court supervision for any violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, other than an equipment violation, or a suspension, revocation, or cancellation of the driver's license.

(s) (Blank). The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a defendant charged with violating subsection (i) of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; 101-173, eff. 1-1-20.)

Section 95. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.