HB5501eng 102ND GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB5501 Engrossed LRB102 24698 AMC 33937 b

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2022 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 101-652 through 102-691 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.37 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.37)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-683)

Sec. 4.37. Acts and Articles repealed on January 1, 2027. The following are repealed on January 1, 2027:

The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.

The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987.

Articles II, III, IV, V, VI, VIIA, VIIB, VIIC, XVII, XXXI, and XXXI 1/4, and XXXI 3/4 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act.

The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act.

The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act.

The Cemetery Oversight Act.

The Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

The Detection of Deception Examiners Act.

The Home Inspector License Act.

The Massage Licensing Act.

The Medical Practice Act of 1987.

The Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act.

The Radiation Protection Act of 1990.

The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002.

The Registered Interior Designers Act.

The Landscape Architecture Registration Act.

The Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's License Act.

The Collateral Recovery Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 6-25-21; 102-284, eff. 8-6-21; 102-437, eff. 8-20-21; 102-656, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-683)

Sec. 4.37. Acts and Articles repealed on January 1, 2027. The following are repealed on January 1, 2027:

The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.

The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987.

Articles II, III, IV, V, VI, VIIA, VIIB, VIIC, XVII, XXXI, and XXXI 1/4, and XXXI 3/4 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act.

The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act.

The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act.

The Cemetery Oversight Act.

The Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

The Detection of Deception Examiners Act.

The Home Inspector License Act.

The Massage Licensing Act.

The Medical Practice Act of 1987.

The Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act.

The Radiation Protection Act of 1990.

The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002.

The Registered Interior Designers Act.

The Landscape Architecture Registration Act.

The Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's License Act.

The Collateral Recovery Act.

The Licensed Certified Professional Midwife Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 6-25-21; 102-284, eff. 8-6-21; 102-437, eff. 8-20-21; 102-656, eff. 8-27-21; 102-683, eff. 10-1-22; revised 1-5-22.)

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Section 5-45 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 5-45.8 and 5-45.9 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/5-45) (from Ch. 127, par. 1005-45)

Sec. 5-45. Emergency rulemaking.

(a) "Emergency" means the existence of any situation that any agency finds reasonably constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, or welfare.

(b) If any agency finds that an emergency exists that requires adoption of a rule upon fewer days than is required by Section 5-40 and states in writing its reasons for that finding, the agency may adopt an emergency rule without prior notice or hearing upon filing a notice of emergency rulemaking with the Secretary of State under Section 5-70. The notice shall include the text of the emergency rule and shall be published in the Illinois Register. Consent orders or other court orders adopting settlements negotiated by an agency may be adopted under this Section. Subject to applicable constitutional or statutory provisions, an emergency rule becomes effective immediately upon filing under Section 5-65 or at a stated date less than 10 days thereafter. The agency's finding and a statement of the specific reasons for the finding shall be filed with the rule. The agency shall take reasonable and appropriate measures to make emergency rules known to the persons who may be affected by them.

(c) An emergency rule may be effective for a period of not longer than 150 days, but the agency's authority to adopt an identical rule under Section 5-40 is not precluded. No emergency rule may be adopted more than once in any 24-month period, except that this limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24-month period does not apply to (i) emergency rules that make additions to and deletions from the Drug Manual under Section 5-5.16 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or the generic drug formulary under Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, (ii) emergency rules adopted by the Pollution Control Board before July 1, 1997 to implement portions of the Livestock Management Facilities Act, (iii) emergency rules adopted by the Illinois Department of Public Health under subsections (a) through (i) of Section 2 of the Department of Public Health Act when necessary to protect the public's health, (iv) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (n) of this Section, (v) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (o) of this Section, or (vi) emergency rules adopted pursuant to subsection (c-5) of this Section. Two or more emergency rules having substantially the same purpose and effect shall be deemed to be a single rule for purposes of this Section.

(c-5) To facilitate the maintenance of the program of group health benefits provided to annuitants, survivors, and retired employees under the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971, rules to alter the contributions to be paid by the State, annuitants, survivors, retired employees, or any combination of those entities, for that program of group health benefits, shall be adopted as emergency rules. The adoption of those rules shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(d) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 1999 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 90-587 or 90-588 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 1999 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (d). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (d) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(e) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2000 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 91-24 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2000 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (e). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (e) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(f) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2001 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 91-712 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2001 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (f). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (f) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(g) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2002 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 92-10 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2002 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (g). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (g) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(h) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2003 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 92-597 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2003 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (h). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (h) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(i) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the State's fiscal year 2004 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 93-20 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2004 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (i). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (i) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(j) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2005 budget as provided under the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of the Fiscal Year 2005 Budget Implementation (Human Services) Act may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (j). The Department of Public Aid may also adopt rules under this subsection (j) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (j) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(k) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2006 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 94-48 or any other budget initiative for fiscal year 2006 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative, except that the 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules and the provisions of Sections 5-115 and 5-125 do not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (k). The Department of Healthcare and Family Services may also adopt rules under this subsection (k) necessary to administer the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, the Senior Citizens and Disabled Persons Prescription Drug Discount Program Act (now the Illinois Prescription Drug Discount Program Act), and the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (k) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(l) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2007 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2007, including rules effective July 1, 2007, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (l) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(m) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2008 budget, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules during fiscal year 2008, including rules effective July 1, 2008, in accordance with this subsection to the extent necessary to administer the Department's responsibilities with respect to amendments to the State plans and Illinois waivers approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services necessitated by the requirements of Title XIX and Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (m) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(n) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2010 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 96-45 or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2010 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (n) shall be deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (n) shall apply only to rules promulgated during Fiscal Year 2010.

(o) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the State's fiscal year 2011 budget, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 96-958 or any other budget initiative authorized by the 96th General Assembly for fiscal year 2011 may be adopted in accordance with this Section by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (o) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (o) applies only to rules promulgated on or after July 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-958) through June 30, 2011.

(p) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 97-689, emergency rules to implement any provision of Public Act 97-689 may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (p) by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The 150-day limitation of the effective period of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p), and the effective period may continue through June 30, 2013. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (p). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (p) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(q) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Articles 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12 of Public Act 98-104, emergency rules to implement any provision of Articles 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12 of Public Act 98-104 may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (q) by the agency charged with administering that provision or initiative. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (q). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (q) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(r) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 98-651, emergency rules to implement Public Act 98-651 may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (r) by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (r). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (r) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(s) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Sections 5-5b.1 and 5A-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, emergency rules to implement any provision of Section 5-5b.1 or Section 5A-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (s) by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (s) shall apply only to those rules adopted prior to July 1, 2015. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any emergency rule adopted under this subsection (s) shall only apply to payments made for State fiscal year 2015. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (s) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(t) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Article II of Public Act 99-6, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Article II of Public Act 99-6 to the Emergency Telephone System Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (t) by the Department of State Police. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (t) shall apply only to those rules adopted prior to July 1, 2016. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (t). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (t) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(u) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the Burn Victims Relief Act, emergency rules to implement any provision of the Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (u) by the Department of Insurance. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (u) shall apply only to those rules adopted prior to December 31, 2015. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (u) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(v) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 99-516, emergency rules to implement Public Act 99-516 may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (v) by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules adopted under this subsection (v). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (v) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(w) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 99-796, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 99-796 may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (w) by the Adjutant General. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (w) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(x) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 99-906, emergency rules to implement subsection (i) of Section 16-115D, subsection (g) of Section 16-128A, and subsection (a) of Section 16-128B of the Public Utilities Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (x) by the Illinois Commerce Commission. The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (x) shall apply only to those rules adopted within 180 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (x) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(y) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 100-23, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 100-23 to Section 4.02 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, Sections 5.5.4 and 5-5.4i of the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 55-30 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, and Sections 74 and 75 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (y) by the respective Department. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (y) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(z) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 100-554, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 100-554 to Section 4.7 of the Lobbyist Registration Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (z) by the Secretary of State. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (z) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(aa) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely initial implementation of the changes made to Articles 5, 5A, 12, and 14 of the Illinois Public Aid Code under the provisions of Public Act 100-581, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may adopt emergency rules in accordance with this subsection (aa). The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules to initially implement the changes made to Articles 5, 5A, 12, and 14 of the Illinois Public Aid Code adopted under this subsection (aa). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (aa) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(bb) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 100-587, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 100-587 to Section 4.02 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, Sections 5.5.4 and 5-5.4i of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subsection (b) of Section 55-30 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, Section 5-104 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, and Section 75 and subsection (b) of Section 74 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (bb) by the respective Department. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (bb) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(cc) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 100-587, emergency rules may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (cc) to implement the changes made by Public Act 100-587 to: Sections 14-147.5 and 14-147.6 of the Illinois Pension Code by the Board created under Article 14 of the Code; Sections 15-185.5 and 15-185.6 of the Illinois Pension Code by the Board created under Article 15 of the Code; and Sections 16-190.5 and 16-190.6 of the Illinois Pension Code by the Board created under Article 16 of the Code. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (cc) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(dd) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 100-864, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 100-864 to Section 3.35 of the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (dd) by the Secretary of State. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (dd) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(ee) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 100-1172, emergency rules implementing the Illinois Underground Natural Gas Storage Safety Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection by the Department of Natural Resources. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(ff) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely initial implementation of the changes made to Articles 5A and 14 of the Illinois Public Aid Code under the provisions of Public Act 100-1181, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may on a one-time-only basis adopt emergency rules in accordance with this subsection (ff). The 24-month limitation on the adoption of emergency rules does not apply to rules to initially implement the changes made to Articles 5A and 14 of the Illinois Public Aid Code adopted under this subsection (ff). The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (ff) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(gg) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 101-1, emergency rules may be adopted by the Department of Labor in accordance with this subsection (gg) to implement the changes made by Public Act 101-1 to the Minimum Wage Law. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (gg) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(hh) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 101-10, emergency rules may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (hh) to implement the changes made by Public Act 101-10 to subsection (j) of Section 5-5.2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (hh) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(ii) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 101-10, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 101-10 to Sections 5-5.4 and 5-5.4i of the Illinois Public Aid Code may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (ii) by the Department of Public Health. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (ii) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(jj) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Public Act 101-10, emergency rules to implement the changes made by Public Act 101-10 to Section 74 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (jj) by the Department of Human Services. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (jj) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(kk) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act, Public Act 101-27, and Public Act 102-98 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Department of Revenue, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may adopt emergency rules in accordance with this subsection (kk). The rulemaking authority granted in this subsection (kk) shall apply only to rules adopted before December 31, 2021. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (c), emergency rules adopted under this subsection (kk) shall be effective for 180 days. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (kk) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(ll) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the Leveling the Playing Field for Illinois Retail Act, emergency rules may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (ll) to implement the changes made by the Leveling the Playing Field for Illinois Retail Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (ll) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(mm) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Section 25-70 of the Sports Wagering Act, emergency rules to implement Section 25-70 of the Sports Wagering Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (mm) by the Department of the Lottery as provided in the Sports Wagering Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (mm) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(nn) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the Sports Wagering Act, emergency rules to implement the Sports Wagering Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (nn) by the Illinois Gaming Board. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (nn) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(oo) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of subsection (c) of Section 20 of the Video Gaming Act, emergency rules to implement the provisions of subsection (c) of Section 20 of the Video Gaming Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (oo) by the Illinois Gaming Board. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (oo) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(pp) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act, emergency rules to implement Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (pp) by the Department of State Police. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (pp) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(qq) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of the Illinois Works Jobs Program Act, emergency rules may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (qq) to implement the Illinois Works Jobs Program Act. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (qq) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(rr) In order to provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the provisions of subsection (c) of Section 2-3.130 of the School Code, emergency rules to implement subsection (c) of Section 2-3.130 of the School Code may be adopted in accordance with this subsection (rr) by the State Board of Education. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by this subsection (rr) is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 101-1, eff. 2-19-19; 101-10, Article 20, Section 20-5, eff. 6-5-19; 101-10, Article 35, Section 35-5, eff. 6-5-19; 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-31, Article 15, Section 15-5, eff. 6-28-19; 101-31, Article 25, Section 25-900, eff. 6-28-19; 101-31, Article 35, Section 35-3, eff. 6-28-19; 101-377, eff. 8-16-19; 101-601, eff. 12-10-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-339, eff. 8-13-21; revised 10-6-21.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.8)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 17, 2022)

Sec. 5-45.8. Emergency rulemaking; federal American Rescue Plan Act of 2021. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the distribution of federal Coronavirus Local Fiscal Recovery Fund moneys to eligible units of local government in accordance with the Section 9901 of the federal American Rescue Plan Act of 2021, emergency rules may be adopted by any State agency authorized thereunder to so implement the distribution. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed June 17, 2022 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-16) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 10-22-21.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.9)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 17, 2022)

Sec. 5-45.9. Emergency rulemaking; Illinois Public Aid Code. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the changes made to Articles 5 and 12 of the Illinois Public Aid Code by Public Act 102-16 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing the changes made to Articles 5 and 12 of the Illinois Public Aid Code by Public Act 102-16 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or other department essential to the implementation of the changes. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed June 17, 2022 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-16) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 10-25-21.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.15)

Sec. 5-45.15 5-45.8. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 102-39, eff. 6-25-21; revised 1-5-22. Repealed internally, eff. 1-1-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.16)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 5-45.16 5-45.8. Emergency rulemaking; Medicaid eligibility expansion. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of the changes made to paragraph 6 of Section 5-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code by Public Act 102-43 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing the changes made to paragraph 6 of Section 5-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code by Public Act 102-43 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2027.

(Source: P.A. 102-43, eff. 7-6-21; revised 10-22-21.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.17)

Sec. 5-45.17 5-45.8. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 102-104, eff. 7-22-21; revised 1-5-22. Repealed internally, eff. 1-1-22.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.18)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 5-45.18 5-45.8. Emergency rulemaking; Nursing Home Care Act. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Public Act 102-640 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, emergency rules implementing Section 3-102.3 of the Nursing Home Care Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Department of Public Health. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2027.

(Source: P.A. 102-640, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-22-21.)

(5 ILCS 100/5-45.19)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on September 15, 2022)

Sec. 5-45.19 5-45.9. Emergency rulemaking; Multi-Year Integrated Grid Plans. To provide for the expeditious and timely implementation of Section 16-105.17 of the Public Utilities Act, emergency rules implementing Section 16-105.17 of the Public Utilities Act may be adopted in accordance with Section 5-45 by the Illinois Commerce Commission. The adoption of emergency rules authorized by Section 5-45 and this Section is deemed to be necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

This Section is repealed September 15, 2022 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-662) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-25-21.)

Section 15. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation, discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific employees, specific individuals who serve as independent contractors in a park, recreational, or educational setting, or specific volunteers of the public body or legal counsel for the public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint lodged against an employee, a specific individual who serves as an independent contractor in a park, recreational, or educational setting, or a volunteer of the public body or against legal counsel for the public body to determine its validity. However, a meeting to consider an increase in compensation to a specific employee of a public body that is subject to the Local Government Wage Increase Transparency Act may not be closed and shall be open to the public and posted and held in accordance with this Act.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public body and its employees or their representatives, or deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office, as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public office, when the public body is given power to appoint under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public body is given power to remove the occupant under law or ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided that the body prepares and makes available for public inspection a written decision setting forth its determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose of discussing whether a particular parcel should be acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.

(8) Security procedures, school building safety and security, and the use of personnel and equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees, students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special education programs and other matters relating to individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or when the public body finds that an action is probable or imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of claims as provided in the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the disposition of a claim or potential claim might be prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or risk management information, records, data, advice or communications from or with respect to any insurer of the public body or any intergovernmental risk management association or self insurance pool of which the public body is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing practices and creating a commission or administrative agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of a statewide association of which the public body is a member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or formal peer review of physicians or other health care professionals, or for the discussion of matters protected under the federal Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005, and the regulations promulgated thereunder, including 42 C.F.R. Part 3 (73 FR 70732), or the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, and the regulations promulgated thereunder, including 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164, by a hospital, or other institution providing medical care, that is operated by the public body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters classified as confidential or continued confidential by the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review Team Act.

(27) (Blank).

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Illinois Public Aid Code or (ii) that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards of the United States of America.

(30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and 3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act.

(33) Those meetings or portions of meetings of the advisory committee and peer review subcommittee created under Section 320 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act during which specific controlled substance prescriber, dispenser, or patient information is discussed.

(34) Meetings of the Tax Increment Financing Reform Task Force under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(35) Meetings of the group established to discuss Medicaid capitation rates under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(36) Those deliberations or portions of deliberations for decisions of the Illinois Gaming Board in which there is discussed any of the following: (i) personal, commercial, financial, or other information obtained from any source that is privileged, proprietary, confidential, or a trade secret; or (ii) information specifically exempted from the disclosure by federal or State law.

(37) Deliberations for decisions of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, the Certification Review Panel, and the Illinois State Police Merit Board regarding certification and decertification.

(38) Meetings of the Ad Hoc Statewide Domestic Violence Fatality Review Committee of the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority Board that occur in closed executive session under subsection (d) of Section 35 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(39) Meetings of the regional review teams under subsection (a) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(40) (38) Meetings of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose relationship with the public body constitutes an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign power of this State. The term "public office" shall include members of the public body, but it shall not include organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make determinations based thereon, but does not include local electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of the nature of the matter being considered and other information that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 101-459, eff. 8-23-19; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-6-21.)

Section 20. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Department of Transportation under Sections 2705-300 and 2705-616 of the Department of Transportation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Record Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Office due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(v-5) Records of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board that are exempted from disclosure under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports arising out of a peer support counseling session prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(pp) Names and all identifying information relating to an employee of an emergency services provider or law enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide Prevention Act.

(qq) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives collected under the Reproductive Health Act.

(rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act.

(ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.

(vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.

(xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or information that shall not be made public under the Illinois Insurance Code.

(yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.

(zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act.

(aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(bbb) (ccc) Information that is prohibited from disclosure by the Illinois Police Training Act and the Illinois State Police Act.

(ccc) (ddd) Records exempt from disclosure under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(ddd) (bbb) Information prohibited from being disclosed under Section 35 of the Address Confidentiality for Victims of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, Human Trafficking, or Stalking Act.

(eee) (ddd) Information prohibited from being disclosed under subsection (b) of Section 75 of the Domestic Violence Fatality Review Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-221, eff. 1-1-20; 101-236, eff. 1-1-20; 101-375, eff. 8-16-19; 101-377, eff. 8-16-19; 101-452, eff. 1-1-20; 101-466, eff. 1-1-20; 101-600, eff. 12-6-19; 101-620, eff 12-20-19; 101-649, eff. 7-7-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 101-656, eff. 3-23-21; 102-36, eff. 6-25-21; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-292, eff. 1-1-22; 102-520, eff. 8-20-21; 102-559, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 25. The Illinois Public Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 9, and 10 as follows:

(5 ILCS 315/3) (from Ch. 48, par. 1603)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Board" means the Illinois Labor Relations Board or, with respect to a matter over which the jurisdiction of the Board is assigned to the State Panel or the Local Panel under Section 5, the panel having jurisdiction over the matter.

(b) "Collective bargaining" means bargaining over terms and conditions of employment, including hours, wages, and other conditions of employment, as detailed in Section 7 and which are not excluded by Section 4.

(c) "Confidential employee" means an employee who, in the regular course of his or her duties, assists and acts in a confidential capacity to persons who formulate, determine, and effectuate management policies with regard to labor relations or who, in the regular course of his or her duties, has authorized access to information relating to the effectuation or review of the employer's collective bargaining policies. Determinations of confidential employee status shall be based on actual employee job duties and not solely on written job descriptions.

(d) "Craft employees" means skilled journeymen, crafts persons, and their apprentices and helpers.

(e) "Essential services employees" means those public employees performing functions so essential that the interruption or termination of the function will constitute a clear and present danger to the health and safety of the persons in the affected community.

(f) "Exclusive representative", except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of public employees in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act; , (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) as the exclusive representative of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit; , (iii) after July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit; (iv) recognized as the exclusive representative of personal assistants under Executive Order 2003-8 prior to July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the personal assistants as defined in this Section; or (v) recognized as the exclusive representative of child and day care home providers, including licensed and license exempt providers, pursuant to an election held under Executive Order 2005-1 prior to January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, and the organization shall be considered to be the exclusive representative of the child and day care home providers as defined in this Section.

With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, "exclusive representative" means the labor organization that has been (i) designated by the Board as the representative of a majority of peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit in accordance with the procedures contained in this Act, (ii) historically recognized by the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State before January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit, or (iii) after January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985) recognized by an employer upon evidence, acceptable to the Board, that the labor organization has been designated as the exclusive representative by a majority of the peace officers or fire fighters in an appropriate bargaining unit.

Where a historical pattern of representation exists for the workers of a water system that was owned by a public utility, as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, prior to becoming certified employees of a municipality or municipalities once the municipality or municipalities have acquired the water system as authorized in Section 11-124-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code, the Board shall find the labor organization that has historically represented the workers to be the exclusive representative under this Act, and shall find the unit represented by the exclusive representative to be the appropriate unit.

(g) "Fair share agreement" means an agreement between the employer and an employee organization under which all or any of the employees in a collective bargaining unit are required to pay their proportionate share of the costs of the collective bargaining process, contract administration, and pursuing matters affecting wages, hours, and other conditions of employment, but not to exceed the amount of dues uniformly required of members. The amount certified by the exclusive representative shall not include any fees for contributions related to the election or support of any candidate for political office. Nothing in this subsection (g) shall preclude an employee from making voluntary political contributions in conjunction with his or her fair share payment.

(g-1) "Fire fighter" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any person who has been or is hereafter appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a state university and sworn or commissioned to perform fire fighter duties or paramedic duties, including paramedics employed by a unit of local government, except that the following persons are not included: part-time fire fighters, auxiliary, reserve or voluntary fire fighters, including paid on-call fire fighters, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform fire fighter duties, or elected officials.

(g-2) "General Assembly of the State of Illinois" means the legislative branch of the government of the State of Illinois, as provided for under Article IV of the Constitution of the State of Illinois, and includes, but is not limited to, the House of Representatives, the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the Senate, the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services, and any legislative support services agency listed in the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(h) "Governing body" means, in the case of the State, the State Panel of the Illinois Labor Relations Board, the Director of the Department of Central Management Services, and the Director of the Department of Labor; the county board in the case of a county; the corporate authorities in the case of a municipality; and the appropriate body authorized to provide for expenditures of its funds in the case of any other unit of government.

(i) "Labor organization" means any organization in which public employees participate and that exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with a public employer concerning wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment, including the settlement of grievances.

(i-5) "Legislative liaison" means a person who is an employee of a State agency, the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, or the Treasurer, as the case may be, and whose job duties require the person to regularly communicate in the course of his or her employment with any official or staff of the General Assembly of the State of Illinois for the purpose of influencing any legislative action.

(j) "Managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged predominantly in executive and management functions and is charged with the responsibility of directing the effectuation of management policies and practices. Determination of managerial employee status shall be based on actual employee job duties and not solely on written job descriptions. With respect only to State employees in positions under the jurisdiction of the Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer (i) that were certified in a bargaining unit on or after December 2, 2008, (ii) for which a petition is filed with the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172), or (iii) for which a petition is pending before the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on that date, "managerial employee" means an individual who is engaged in executive and management functions or who is charged with the effectuation of management policies and practices or who represents management interests by taking or recommending discretionary actions that effectively control or implement policy. Nothing in this definition prohibits an individual from also meeting the definition of "supervisor" under subsection (r) of this Section.

(k) "Peace officer" means, for the purposes of this Act only, any persons who have been or are hereafter appointed to a police force, department, or agency and sworn or commissioned to perform police duties, except that the following persons are not included: part-time police officers, special police officers, auxiliary police as defined by Section 3.1-30-20 of the Illinois Municipal Code, night watchmen, "merchant police", court security officers as defined by Section 3-6012.1 of the Counties Code, temporary employees, traffic guards or wardens, civilian parking meter and parking facilities personnel or other individuals specially appointed to aid or direct traffic at or near schools or public functions or to aid in civil defense or disaster, parking enforcement employees who are not commissioned as peace officers and who are not armed and who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, parking lot attendants, clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a police department who are not routinely expected to effect arrests, or elected officials.

(l) "Person" includes one or more individuals, labor organizations, public employees, associations, corporations, legal representatives, trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers, or the State of Illinois or any political subdivision of the State or governing body, but does not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois or any individual employed by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois.

(m) "Professional employee" means any employee engaged in work predominantly intellectual and varied in character rather than routine mental, manual, mechanical or physical work; involving the consistent exercise of discretion and adjustment in its performance; of such a character that the output produced or the result accomplished cannot be standardized in relation to a given period of time; and requiring advanced knowledge in a field of science or learning customarily acquired by a prolonged course of specialized intellectual instruction and study in an institution of higher learning or a hospital, as distinguished from a general academic education or from apprenticeship or from training in the performance of routine mental, manual, or physical processes; or any employee who has completed the courses of specialized intellectual instruction and study prescribed in this subsection (m) and is performing related work under the supervision of a professional person to qualify to become a professional employee as defined in this subsection (m).

(n) "Public employee" or "employee", for the purposes of this Act, means any individual employed by a public employer, including (i) interns and residents at public hospitals, (ii) as of July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, but not before, personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, (iii) as of January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, but not before, child and day care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, (iv) as of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided in this subsection (n), home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, no matter whether the State provides those services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, (v) beginning on July 19, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-100) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any person employed by a public employer and who is classified as or who holds the employment title of Chief Stationary Engineer, Assistant Chief Stationary Engineer, Sewage Plant Operator, Water Plant Operator, Stationary Engineer, Plant Operating Engineer, and any other employee who holds the position of: Civil Engineer V, Civil Engineer VI, Civil Engineer VII, Technical Manager I, Technical Manager II, Technical Manager III, Technical Manager IV, Technical Manager V, Technical Manager VI, Realty Specialist III, Realty Specialist IV, Realty Specialist V, Technical Advisor I, Technical Advisor II, Technical Advisor III, Technical Advisor IV, or Technical Advisor V employed by the Department of Transportation who is in a position which is certified in a bargaining unit on or before July 19, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-100) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, and (vi) beginning on July 19, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-100) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any mental health administrator in the Department of Corrections who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 8K), any employee of the Office of the Inspector General in the Department of Human Services who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), any Deputy of Intelligence in the Department of Corrections who is classified as or who holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), and any employee of the Illinois State Police who handles issues concerning the Illinois State Police Sex Offender Registry and who is classified as or holds the position of Public Service Administrator (Option 7), but excluding all of the following: employees of the General Assembly of the State of Illinois; elected officials; executive heads of a department; members of boards or commissions; the Executive Inspectors General; any special Executive Inspectors General; employees of each Office of an Executive Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Executive Ethics Commission; the Auditor General's Inspector General; employees of the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General; the Legislative Inspector General; any special Legislative Inspectors General; employees of the Office of the Legislative Inspector General; commissioners and employees of the Legislative Ethics Commission; employees of any agency, board or commission created by this Act; employees appointed to State positions of a temporary or emergency nature; all employees of school districts and higher education institutions except firefighters and peace officers employed by a state university and except peace officers employed by a school district in its own police department in existence on July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1257) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly; managerial employees; short-term employees; legislative liaisons; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Office of the Attorney General who is licensed to practice law or whose position authorizes, either directly or indirectly, meaningful input into government decision-making on issues where there is room for principled disagreement on goals or their implementation; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Office of the Comptroller who holds the position of Public Service Administrator or whose position is otherwise exempt under the Comptroller Merit Employment Code; a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Secretary of State who holds the position classification of Executive I or higher, whose position authorizes, either directly or indirectly, meaningful input into government decision-making on issues where there is room for principled disagreement on goals or their implementation, or who is otherwise exempt under the Secretary of State Merit Employment Code; employees in the Office of the Secretary of State who are completely exempt from jurisdiction B of the Secretary of State Merit Employment Code and who are in Rutan-exempt positions on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172); a person who is a State employee under the jurisdiction of the Treasurer who holds a position that is exempt from the State Treasurer Employment Code; any employee of a State agency who (i) holds the title or position of, or exercises substantially similar duties as a legislative liaison, Agency General Counsel, Agency Chief of Staff, Agency Executive Director, Agency Deputy Director, Agency Chief Fiscal Officer, Agency Human Resources Director, Public Information Officer, or Chief Information Officer and (ii) was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any employee of a State agency who (i) is in a position that is Rutan-exempt, as designated by the employer, and completely exempt from jurisdiction B of the Personnel Code and (ii) was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any term appointed employee of a State agency pursuant to Section 8b.18 or 8b.19 of the Personnel Code who was neither included in a bargaining unit nor subject to an active petition for certification in a bargaining unit; any employment position properly designated pursuant to Section 6.1 of this Act; confidential employees; independent contractors; and supervisors except as provided in this Act.

Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

Child and day care home providers shall not be considered public employees for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 94-320 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

Notwithstanding Section 9, subsection (c), or any other provisions of this Act, all peace officers above the rank of captain in municipalities with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants shall be excluded from this Act.

(o) Except as otherwise in subsection (o-5), "public employer" or "employer" means the State of Illinois; any political subdivision of the State, unit of local government or school district; authorities including departments, divisions, bureaus, boards, commissions, or other agencies of the foregoing entities; and any person acting within the scope of his or her authority, express or implied, on behalf of those entities in dealing with its employees. As of July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204) the amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the personal assistants working under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act. As of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided in this subsection (o), the State shall be considered the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, no matter whether the State provides those services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, but subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act, for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also work under the Home Services Program under Section 3 of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971. As of January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly but not before, the State of Illinois shall be considered the employer of the day and child care home providers participating in the child care assistance program under Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, subject to the limitations set forth in this Act and in Section 9A-11 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of child and day care home providers for any purposes not specifically provided for in Public Act 94-320 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

"Public employer" or "employer" as used in this Act, however, does not mean and shall not include the General Assembly of the State of Illinois, the Executive Ethics Commission, the Offices of the Executive Inspectors General, the Legislative Ethics Commission, the Office of the Legislative Inspector General, the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General, the Office of the Governor, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the Illinois Finance Authority, the Office of the Lieutenant Governor, the State Board of Elections, and educational employers or employers as defined in the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, except with respect to a state university in its employment of firefighters and peace officers and except with respect to a school district in the employment of peace officers in its own police department in existence on July 23, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1257) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly. County boards and county sheriffs shall be designated as joint or co-employers of county peace officers appointed under the authority of a county sheriff. Nothing in this subsection (o) shall be construed to prevent the State Panel or the Local Panel from determining that employers are joint or co-employers.

(o-5) With respect to wages, fringe benefits, hours, holidays, vacations, proficiency examinations, sick leave, and other conditions of employment, the public employer of public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be determined as follows:

(1) For court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit, the chief judge of the Cook County Circuit Court is the public employer and employer representative.

(2) For court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(3) For court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits, a group consisting of the chief judges of those circuits, acting jointly by majority vote, is the public employer and employer representative.

(p) "Security employee" means an employee who is responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities. The term also includes other non-security employees in bargaining units having the majority of employees being responsible for the supervision and control of inmates at correctional facilities.

(q) "Short-term employee" means an employee who is employed for less than 2 consecutive calendar quarters during a calendar year and who does not have a reasonable assurance that he or she will be rehired by the same employer for the same service in a subsequent calendar year.

(q-5) "State agency" means an agency directly responsible to the Governor, as defined in Section 3.1 of the Executive Reorganization Implementation Act, and the Illinois Commerce Commission, the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, the Civil Service Commission, the Pollution Control Board, the Illinois Racing Board, and the Illinois State Police Merit Board.

(r) "Supervisor" is:

(1) An employee whose principal work is substantially different from that of his or her subordinates and who has authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, direct, reward, or discipline employees, to adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend any of those actions, if the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the consistent use of independent judgment. Except with respect to police employment, the term "supervisor" includes only those individuals who devote a preponderance of their employment time to exercising that authority, State supervisors notwithstanding. Determinations of supervisor status shall be based on actual employee job duties and not solely on written job descriptions. Nothing in this definition prohibits an individual from also meeting the definition of "managerial employee" under subsection (j) of this Section. In addition, in determining supervisory status in police employment, rank shall not be determinative. The Board shall consider, as evidence of bargaining unit inclusion or exclusion, the common law enforcement policies and relationships between police officer ranks and certification under applicable civil service law, ordinances, personnel codes, or Division 2.1 of Article 10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, but these factors shall not be the sole or predominant factors considered by the Board in determining police supervisory status.

Notwithstanding the provisions of the preceding paragraph, in determining supervisory status in fire fighter employment, no fire fighter shall be excluded as a supervisor who has established representation rights under Section 9 of this Act. Further, in new fire fighter units, employees shall consist of fire fighters of the rank of company officer and below. If a company officer otherwise qualifies as a supervisor under the preceding paragraph, however, he or she shall not be included in the fire fighter unit. If there is no rank between that of chief and the highest company officer, the employer may designate a position on each shift as a Shift Commander, and the persons occupying those positions shall be supervisors. All other ranks above that of company officer shall be supervisors.

(2) With respect only to State employees in positions under the jurisdiction of the Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer (i) that were certified in a bargaining unit on or after December 2, 2008, (ii) for which a petition is filed with the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on or after April 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1172), or (iii) for which a petition is pending before the Illinois Public Labor Relations Board on that date, an employee who qualifies as a supervisor under (A) Section 152 of the National Labor Relations Act and (B) orders of the National Labor Relations Board interpreting that provision or decisions of courts reviewing decisions of the National Labor Relations Board.

(s)(1) "Unit" means a class of jobs or positions that are held by employees whose collective interests may suitably be represented by a labor organization for collective bargaining. Except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both employees and supervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on July 1, 1984 (the effective date of this Act). With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers, and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, a bargaining unit determined by the Board shall not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, or supervisors only, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (s) and except for bargaining units in existence on January 1, 1986 (the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985). A bargaining unit determined by the Board to contain peace officers shall contain no employees other than peace officers unless otherwise agreed to by the employer and the labor organization or labor organizations involved. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a bargaining unit, including a historical bargaining unit, containing sworn peace officers of the Department of Natural Resources (formerly designated the Department of Conservation) shall contain no employees other than such sworn peace officers upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 or upon the expiration date of any collective bargaining agreement in effect upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1990 covering both such sworn peace officers and other employees.

(2) Notwithstanding the exclusion of supervisors from bargaining units as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (s), a public employer may agree to permit its supervisory employees to form bargaining units and may bargain with those units. This Act shall apply if the public employer chooses to bargain under this subsection.

(3) Public employees who are court reporters, as defined in the Court Reporters Act, shall be divided into 3 units for collective bargaining purposes. One unit shall be court reporters employed by the Cook County Judicial Circuit; one unit shall be court reporters employed by the 12th, 18th, 19th, and, on and after December 4, 2006, the 22nd judicial circuits; and one unit shall be court reporters employed by all other judicial circuits.

(t) "Active petition for certification in a bargaining unit" means a petition for certification filed with the Board under one of the following case numbers: S-RC-11-110; S-RC-11-098; S-UC-11-080; S-RC-11-086; S-RC-11-074; S-RC-11-076; S-RC-11-078; S-UC-11-052; S-UC-11-054; S-RC-11-062; S-RC-11-060; S-RC-11-042; S-RC-11-014; S-RC-11-016; S-RC-11-020; S-RC-11-030; S-RC-11-004; S-RC-10-244; S-RC-10-228; S-RC-10-222; S-RC-10-220; S-RC-10-214; S-RC-10-196; S-RC-10-194; S-RC-10-178; S-RC-10-176; S-RC-10-162; S-RC-10-156; S-RC-10-088; S-RC-10-074; S-RC-10-076; S-RC-10-078; S-RC-10-060; S-RC-10-070; S-RC-10-044; S-RC-10-038; S-RC-10-040; S-RC-10-042; S-RC-10-018; S-RC-10-024; S-RC-10-004; S-RC-10-006; S-RC-10-008; S-RC-10-010; S-RC-10-012; S-RC-09-202; S-RC-09-182; S-RC-09-180; S-RC-09-156; S-UC-09-196; S-UC-09-182; S-RC-08-130; S-RC-07-110; or S-RC-07-100.

(Source: P.A. 102-151, eff. 7-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(5 ILCS 315/9) (from Ch. 48, par. 1609)

Sec. 9. Elections; recognition.

(a) Whenever in accordance with such regulations as may be prescribed by the Board a petition has been filed:

(1) by a public employee or group of public employees or any labor organization acting in their behalf demonstrating that 30% of the public employees in an appropriate unit (A) wish to be represented for the purposes of collective bargaining by a labor organization as exclusive representative, or (B) asserting that the labor organization which has been certified or is currently recognized by the public employer as bargaining representative is no longer the representative of the majority of public employees in the unit; or

(2) by a public employer alleging that one or more labor organizations have presented to it a claim that they be recognized as the representative of a majority of the public employees in an appropriate unit, the Board shall investigate such petition, and if it has reasonable cause to believe that a question of representation exists, shall provide for an appropriate hearing upon due notice. Such hearing shall be held at the offices of the Board or such other location as the Board deems appropriate. If it finds upon the record of the hearing that a question of representation exists, it shall direct an election in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section, which election shall be held not later than 120 days after the date the petition was filed regardless of whether that petition was filed before or after July 1, 1988 (the effective date of Public Act 85-924) this amendatory Act of 1987; provided, however, the Board may extend the time for holding an election by an additional 60 days if, upon motion by a person who has filed a petition under this Section or is the subject of a petition filed under this Section and is a party to such hearing, or upon the Board's own motion, the Board finds that good cause has been shown for extending the election date; provided further, that nothing in this Section shall prohibit the Board, in its discretion, from extending the time for holding an election for so long as may be necessary under the circumstances, where the purpose for such extension is to permit resolution by the Board of an unfair labor practice charge filed by one of the parties to a representational proceeding against the other based upon conduct which may either affect the existence of a question concerning representation or have a tendency to interfere with a fair and free election, where the party filing the charge has not filed a request to proceed with the election; and provided further that prior to the expiration of the total time allotted for holding an election, a person who has filed a petition under this Section or is the subject of a petition filed under this Section and is a party to such hearing or the Board, may move for and obtain the entry of an order in the circuit court of the county in which the majority of the public employees sought to be represented by such person reside, such order extending the date upon which the election shall be held. Such order shall be issued by the circuit court only upon a judicial finding that there has been a sufficient showing that there is good cause to extend the election date beyond such period and shall require the Board to hold the election as soon as is feasible given the totality of the circumstances. Such 120-day 120 day period may be extended one or more times by the agreement of all parties to the hearing to a date certain without the necessity of obtaining a court order. The showing of interest in support of a petition filed under paragraph (1) of this subsection (a) may be evidenced by electronic communications, and such writing or communication may be evidenced by the electronic signature of the employee as provided under Section 5-120 of the Electronic Commerce Security Act. The showing of interest shall be valid only if signed within 12 months prior to the filing of the petition. Nothing in this Section prohibits the waiving of hearings by stipulation for the purpose of a consent election in conformity with the rules and regulations of the Board or an election in a unit agreed upon by the parties. Other interested employee organizations may intervene in the proceedings in the manner and within the time period specified by rules and regulations of the Board. Interested parties who are necessary to the proceedings may also intervene in the proceedings in the manner and within the time period specified by the rules and regulations of the Board.

(a-5) The Board shall designate an exclusive representative for purposes of collective bargaining when the representative demonstrates a showing of majority interest by employees in the unit. If the parties to a dispute are without agreement on the means to ascertain the choice, if any, of employee organization as their representative, the Board shall ascertain the employees' choice of employee organization, on the basis of dues deduction authorization or other evidence, or, if necessary, by conducting an election. The showing of interest in support of a petition filed under this subsection (a-5) may be evidenced by electronic communications, and such writing or communication may be evidenced by the electronic signature of the employee as provided under Section 5-120 of the Electronic Commerce Security Act. The showing of interest shall be valid only if signed within 12 months prior to the filing of the petition. All evidence submitted by an employee organization to the Board to ascertain an employee's choice of an employee organization is confidential and shall not be submitted to the employer for review. The Board shall ascertain the employee's choice of employee organization within 120 days after the filing of the majority interest petition; however, the Board may extend time by an additional 60 days, upon its own motion or upon the motion of a party to the proceeding. If either party provides to the Board, before the designation of a representative, clear and convincing evidence that the dues deduction authorizations, and other evidence upon which the Board would otherwise rely to ascertain the employees' choice of representative, are fraudulent or were obtained through coercion, the Board shall promptly thereafter conduct an election. The Board shall also investigate and consider a party's allegations that the dues deduction authorizations and other evidence submitted in support of a designation of representative without an election were subsequently changed, altered, withdrawn, or withheld as a result of employer fraud, coercion, or any other unfair labor practice by the employer. If the Board determines that a labor organization would have had a majority interest but for an employer's fraud, coercion, or unfair labor practice, it shall designate the labor organization as an exclusive representative without conducting an election. If a hearing is necessary to resolve any issues of representation under this Section, the Board shall conclude its hearing process and issue a certification of the entire appropriate unit not later than 120 days after the date the petition was filed. The 120-day period may be extended one or more times by the agreement of all parties to a hearing to a date certain.

(a-6) A labor organization or an employer may file a unit clarification petition seeking to clarify an existing bargaining unit. Unit clarification petitions may be filed if: (1) substantial changes occur in the duties and functions of an existing job title, raising an issue as to the title's unit placement; (2) an existing job title that is logically encompassed within the existing unit was inadvertently excluded by the parties at the time the unit was established; (3) a newly created job title is logically encompassed within an existing unit; (4) a significant change takes place in statutory or case law that affects the bargaining rights of employees; (5) a determination needs to be made as to the unit placement of positions in dispute following a majority interest certification of representative issued under subsection (a-5); (6) a determination needs to be made as to the unit placement of positions in dispute following a certification of representative issued following a direction of election under subsection (d); (7) the parties have agreed to eliminate a position or title because the employer no longer uses it; (8) the parties have agreed to exclude some of the positions in a title or classification from a bargaining unit and include others; or (9) as prescribed in rules set by the Board. The Board shall conclude its investigation, including any hearing process deemed necessary, and issue a certification of clarified unit or dismiss the petition not later than 120 days after the date the petition was filed. The 120-day period may be extended one or more times by the agreement of all parties to a hearing to a date certain.

(b) The Board shall decide in each case, in order to assure public employees the fullest freedom in exercising the rights guaranteed by this Act, a unit appropriate for the purpose of collective bargaining, based upon but not limited to such factors as: historical pattern of recognition; community of interest including employee skills and functions; degree of functional integration; interchangeability and contact among employees; fragmentation of employee groups; common supervision, wages, hours and other working conditions of the employees involved; and the desires of the employees. For purposes of this subsection, fragmentation shall not be the sole or predominant factor used by the Board in determining an appropriate bargaining unit. Except with respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, a single bargaining unit determined by the Board may not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, except for bargaining units in existence on the effective date of this Act. With respect to non-State fire fighters and paramedics employed by fire departments and fire protection districts, non-State peace officers and peace officers in the Illinois State Police, a single bargaining unit determined by the Board may not include both supervisors and nonsupervisors, except for bargaining units in existence on January 1, 1986 (the effective date of Public Act 84-1104) this amendatory Act of 1985.

In cases involving an historical pattern of recognition, and in cases where the employer has recognized the union as the sole and exclusive bargaining agent for a specified existing unit, the Board shall find the employees in the unit then represented by the union pursuant to the recognition to be the appropriate unit.

Notwithstanding the above factors, where the majority of public employees of a craft so decide, the Board shall designate such craft as a unit appropriate for the purposes of collective bargaining.

The Board shall not decide that any unit is appropriate if such unit includes both professional and nonprofessional employees, unless a majority of each group votes for inclusion in such unit.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall interfere with or negate the current representation rights or patterns and practices of labor organizations which have historically represented public employees for the purpose of collective bargaining, including but not limited to the negotiations of wages, hours and working conditions, discussions of employees' grievances, resolution of jurisdictional disputes, or the establishment and maintenance of prevailing wage rates, unless a majority of employees so represented express a contrary desire pursuant to the procedures set forth in this Act.

(d) In instances where the employer does not voluntarily recognize a labor organization as the exclusive bargaining representative for a unit of employees, the Board shall determine the majority representative of the public employees in an appropriate collective bargaining unit by conducting a secret ballot election, except as otherwise provided in subsection (a-5). Such a secret ballot election may be conducted electronically, using an electronic voting system, in addition to paper ballot voting systems. Within 7 days after the Board issues its bargaining unit determination and direction of election or the execution of a stipulation for the purpose of a consent election, the public employer shall submit to the labor organization the complete names and addresses of those employees who are determined by the Board to be eligible to participate in the election. When the Board has determined that a labor organization has been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in an appropriate unit, it shall certify such organization as the exclusive representative. If the Board determines that a majority of employees in an appropriate unit has fairly and freely chosen not to be represented by a labor organization, it shall so certify. The Board may also revoke the certification of the public employee organizations as exclusive bargaining representatives which have been found by a secret ballot election to be no longer the majority representative.

(e) The Board shall not conduct an election in any bargaining unit or any subdivision thereof within which a valid election has been held in the preceding 12-month period. The Board shall determine who is eligible to vote in an election and shall establish rules governing the conduct of the election or conduct affecting the results of the election. The Board shall include on a ballot in a representation election a choice of "no representation". A labor organization currently representing the bargaining unit of employees shall be placed on the ballot in any representation election. In any election where none of the choices on the ballot receives a majority, a runoff election shall be conducted between the 2 choices receiving the largest number of valid votes cast in the election. A labor organization which receives a majority of the votes cast in an election shall be certified by the Board as exclusive representative of all public employees in the unit.

(f) A labor organization shall be designated as the exclusive representative by a public employer, provided that the labor organization represents a majority of the public employees in an appropriate unit. Any employee organization which is designated or selected by the majority of public employees, in a unit of the public employer having no other recognized or certified representative, as their representative for purposes of collective bargaining may request recognition by the public employer in writing. The public employer shall post such request for a period of at least 20 days following its receipt thereof on bulletin boards or other places used or reserved for employee notices.

(g) Within the 20-day period any other interested employee organization may petition the Board in the manner specified by rules and regulations of the Board, provided that such interested employee organization has been designated by at least 10% of the employees in an appropriate bargaining unit which includes all or some of the employees in the unit recognized by the employer. In such event, the Board shall proceed with the petition in the same manner as provided by paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.

(h) No election shall be directed by the Board in any bargaining unit where there is in force a valid collective bargaining agreement. The Board, however, may process an election petition filed between 90 and 60 days prior to the expiration of the date of an agreement, and may further refine, by rule or decision, the implementation of this provision. Where more than 4 years have elapsed since the effective date of the agreement, the agreement shall continue to bar an election, except that the Board may process an election petition filed between 90 and 60 days prior to the end of the fifth year of such an agreement, and between 90 and 60 days prior to the end of each successive year of such agreement.

(i) An order of the Board dismissing a representation petition, determining and certifying that a labor organization has been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit, determining and certifying that a labor organization has not been fairly and freely chosen by a majority of employees in the bargaining unit or certifying a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate bargaining unit because of a determination by the Board that the labor organization is the historical bargaining representative of employees in the bargaining unit, is a final order. Any person aggrieved by any such order issued on or after July 1, 1988 (the effective date of Public Act 85-924) this amendatory Act of 1987 may apply for and obtain judicial review in accordance with provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now or hereafter amended, except that such review shall be afforded directly in the Appellate Court for the district in which the aggrieved party resides or transacts business. Any direct appeal to the Appellate Court shall be filed within 35 days from the date that a copy of the decision sought to be reviewed was served upon the party affected by the decision.

(Source: P.A. 102-151, eff. 7-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-596, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(5 ILCS 315/10) (from Ch. 48, par. 1610)

Sec. 10. Unfair labor practices.

(a) It shall be an unfair labor practice for an employer or its agents:

(1) to interfere with, restrain, or coerce public employees in the exercise of the rights guaranteed in this Act or to dominate or interfere with the formation, existence or administration of any labor organization or contribute financial or other support to it; provided, an employer shall not be prohibited from permitting employees to confer with him during working hours without loss of time or pay;

(2) to discriminate in regard to hire or tenure of employment or any term or condition of employment in order to encourage or discourage membership in or other support for any labor organization. Nothing in this Act or any other law precludes a public employer from making an agreement with a labor organization to require as a condition of employment the payment of a fair share under paragraph (e) of Section 6;

(3) to discharge or otherwise discriminate against a public employee because he has signed or filed an affidavit, petition, or charge or provided any information or testimony under this Act;

(4) to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with a labor organization which is the exclusive representative of public employees in an appropriate unit, including, but not limited to, the discussing of grievances with the exclusive representative;

(5) to violate any of the rules and regulations established by the Board with jurisdiction over them relating to the conduct of representation elections or the conduct affecting the representation elections;

(6) to expend or cause the expenditure of public funds to any external agent, individual, firm, agency, partnership, or association in any attempt to influence the outcome of representational elections held pursuant to Section 9 of this Act; provided, that nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit an employer's right to internally communicate with its employees as provided in subsection (c) of this Section, to be represented on any matter pertaining to unit determinations, unfair labor practice charges or pre-election conferences in any formal or informal proceeding before the Board, or to seek or obtain advice from legal counsel. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prohibit an employer from expending or causing the expenditure of public funds on, or seeking or obtaining services or advice from, any organization, group, or association established by and including public or educational employers, whether covered by this Act, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act or the public employment labor relations law of any other state or the federal government, provided that such services or advice are generally available to the membership of the organization, group or association, and are not offered solely in an attempt to influence the outcome of a particular representational election;

(7) to refuse to reduce a collective bargaining agreement to writing or to refuse to sign such agreement;

(8) to interfere with, restrain, coerce, deter, or discourage public employees or applicants to be public employees from: (i) becoming or remaining members of a labor organization; (ii) authorizing representation by a labor organization; or (iii) authorizing dues or fee deductions to a labor organization, nor shall the employer intentionally permit outside third parties to use its email or other communication systems to engage in that conduct. An employer's good faith implementation of a policy to block the use of its email or other communication systems for such purposes shall be a defense to an unfair labor practice;

(9) to disclose to any person or entity information set forth in subsection (c-5) of Section 6 of this Act that the employer knows or should know will be used to interfere with, restrain, coerce, deter, or discourage any public employee from: (i) becoming or remaining members of a labor organization, (ii) authorizing representation by a labor organization, or (iii) authorizing dues or fee deductions to a labor organization; or

(10) to promise, threaten, or take any action: (i) to permanently replace an employee who participates in a lawful strike as provided under Section 17; (ii) to discriminate against an employee who is working or has unconditionally offered to return to work for the employer because the employee supported or participated in such a lawful strike; or (iii) to lock out lockout, suspend, or otherwise withhold employment from employees in order to influence the position of such employees or the representative of such employees in collective bargaining prior to a lawful strike.

(b) It shall be an unfair labor practice for a labor organization or its agents:

(1) to restrain or coerce public employees in the exercise of the rights guaranteed in this Act, provided, (i) that this paragraph shall not impair the right of a labor organization to prescribe its own rules with respect to the acquisition or retention of membership therein or the determination of fair share payments and (ii) that a labor organization or its agents shall commit an unfair labor practice under this paragraph in duty of fair representation cases only by intentional misconduct in representing employees under this Act;

(2) to restrain or coerce a public employer in the selection of his representatives for the purposes of collective bargaining or the settlement of grievances; or

(3) to cause, or attempt to cause, an employer to discriminate against an employee in violation of subsection (a)(2);

(4) to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with a public employer, if it has been designated in accordance with the provisions of this Act as the exclusive representative of public employees in an appropriate unit;

(5) to violate any of the rules and regulations established by the boards with jurisdiction over them relating to the conduct of representation elections or the conduct affecting the representation elections;

(6) to discriminate against any employee because he has signed or filed an affidavit, petition, or charge or provided any information or testimony under this Act;

(7) to picket or cause to be picketed, or threaten to picket or cause to be picketed, any public employer where an object thereof is forcing or requiring an employer to recognize or bargain with a labor organization of the representative of its employees, or forcing or requiring the employees of an employer to accept or select such labor organization as their collective bargaining representative, unless such labor organization is currently certified as the representative of such employees:

(A) where the employer has lawfully recognized in accordance with this Act any labor organization and a question concerning representation may not appropriately be raised under Section 9 of this Act;

(B) where within the preceding 12 months a valid election under Section 9 of this Act has been conducted; or

(C) where such picketing has been conducted without a petition under Section 9 being filed within a reasonable period of time not to exceed 30 days from the commencement of such picketing; provided that when such a petition has been filed the Board shall forthwith, without regard to the provisions of subsection (a) of Section 9 or the absence of a showing of a substantial interest on the part of the labor organization, direct an election in such unit as the Board finds to be appropriate and shall certify the results thereof; provided further, that nothing in this subparagraph shall be construed to prohibit any picketing or other publicity for the purpose of truthfully advising the public that an employer does not employ members of, or have a contract with, a labor organization unless an effect of such picketing is to induce any individual employed by any other person in the course of his employment, not to pick up, deliver, or transport any goods or not to perform any services; or

(8) to refuse to reduce a collective bargaining agreement to writing or to refuse to sign such agreement.

(c) The expressing of any views, argument, or opinion or the dissemination thereof, whether in written, printed, graphic, or visual form, shall not constitute or be evidence of an unfair labor practice under any of the provisions of this Act, if such expression contains no threat of reprisal or force or promise of benefit.

(d) The employer shall not discourage public employees or applicants to be public employees from becoming or remaining union members or authorizing dues deductions, and shall not otherwise interfere with the relationship between employees and their exclusive bargaining representative. The employer shall refer all inquiries about union membership to the exclusive bargaining representative, except that the employer may communicate with employees regarding payroll processes and procedures. The employer will establish email policies in an effort to prohibit the use of its email system by outside sources.

(Source: P.A. 101-620, eff. 12-20-19; 102-596, eff. 8-27-21; revised 12-2-21.)

Section 30. The State Employee Indemnification Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(5 ILCS 350/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 1301)

Sec. 1. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act:

(a) The term "State" means the State of Illinois, the General Assembly, the court, or any State office, department, division, bureau, board, commission, or committee, the governing boards of the public institutions of higher education created by the State, the Illinois National Guard, the Illinois State Guard, the Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, any poison control center designated under the Poison Control System Act that receives State funding, or any other agency or instrumentality of the State. It does not mean any local public entity as that term is defined in Section 1-206 of the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act or a pension fund.

(b) The term "employee" means: any present or former elected or appointed officer, trustee or employee of the State, or of a pension fund; any present or former commissioner or employee of the Executive Ethics Commission or of the Legislative Ethics Commission; any present or former Executive, Legislative, or Auditor General's Inspector General; any present or former employee of an Office of an Executive, Legislative, or Auditor General's Inspector General; any present or former member of the Illinois National Guard while on active duty; any present or former member of the Illinois State Guard while on State active duty; individuals or organizations who contract with the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, or the Department of Veterans' Affairs to provide services; individuals or organizations who contract with the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) to provide services including but not limited to treatment and other services for sexually violent persons; individuals or organizations who contract with the Department of Military Affairs for youth programs; individuals or organizations who contract to perform carnival and amusement ride safety inspections for the Department of Labor; individuals who contract with the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to provide legal services, but only when performing duties within the scope of the Office's prosecutorial activities; individual representatives of or designated organizations authorized to represent the Office of State Long-Term Ombudsman for the Department on Aging; individual representatives of or organizations designated by the Department on Aging in the performance of their duties as adult protective services agencies or regional administrative agencies under the Adult Protective Services Act; individuals or organizations appointed as members of a review team or the Advisory Council under the Adult Protective Services Act; individuals or organizations who perform volunteer services for the State where such volunteer relationship is reduced to writing; individuals who serve on any public entity (whether created by law or administrative action) described in paragraph (a) of this Section; individuals or not for profit organizations who, either as volunteers, where such volunteer relationship is reduced to writing, or pursuant to contract, furnish professional advice or consultation to any agency or instrumentality of the State; individuals who serve as foster parents for the Department of Children and Family Services when caring for youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act; individuals who serve as members of an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law); and individuals who serve as arbitrators pursuant to Part 10A of Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure and the rules of the Supreme Court implementing Part 10A, each as now or hereafter amended; the members of the Certification Review Panel under the Illinois Police Training Act; the term "employee" does not mean an independent contractor except as provided in this Section. The term includes an individual appointed as an inspector by the Director of the Illinois State Police when performing duties within the scope of the activities of a Metropolitan Enforcement Group or a law enforcement organization established under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act. An individual who renders professional advice and consultation to the State through an organization which qualifies as an "employee" under the Act is also an employee. The term includes the estate or personal representative of an employee.

(c) The term "pension fund" means a retirement system or pension fund created under the Illinois Pension Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-6-21.)

Section 35. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Sections 3 and 6.11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/3) (from Ch. 127, par. 523)

Sec. 3. Definitions. Unless the context otherwise requires, the following words and phrases as used in this Act shall have the following meanings. The Department may define these and other words and phrases separately for the purpose of implementing specific programs providing benefits under this Act.

(a) "Administrative service organization" means any person, firm or corporation experienced in the handling of claims which is fully qualified, financially sound and capable of meeting the service requirements of a contract of administration executed with the Department.

(b) "Annuitant" means (1) an employee who retires, or has retired, on or after January 1, 1966 on an immediate annuity under the provisions of Articles 2, 14 (including an employee who has elected to receive an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of an annuity or who meets the criteria for retirement, but in lieu of receiving an annuity under that Article has elected to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 14-147.5 of that Article), 15 (including an employee who has retired under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2 or who meets the criteria for retirement but in lieu of receiving an annuity under that Article has elected to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 15-185.5 of the Article), paragraph paragraphs (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106 (including an employee who meets the criteria for retirement, but in lieu of receiving an annuity under that Article has elected to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 16-190.5 of the Illinois Pension Code), or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code; (2) any person who was receiving group insurance coverage under this Act as of March 31, 1978 by reason of his status as an annuitant, even though the annuity in relation to which such coverage was provided is a proportional annuity based on less than the minimum period of service required for a retirement annuity in the system involved; (3) any person not otherwise covered by this Act who has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code; (4) the spouse of any person who is receiving a retirement annuity under Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code and who is covered under a group health insurance program sponsored by a governmental employer other than the State of Illinois and who has irrevocably elected to waive his or her coverage under this Act and to have his or her spouse considered as the "annuitant" under this Act and not as a "dependent"; or (5) an employee who retires, or has retired, from a qualified position, as determined according to rules promulgated by the Director, under a qualified local government, a qualified rehabilitation facility, a qualified domestic violence shelter or service, or a qualified child advocacy center. (For definition of "retired employee", see (p) post).

(b-5) (Blank).

(b-6) (Blank).

(b-7) (Blank).

(c) "Carrier" means (1) an insurance company, a corporation organized under the Limited Health Service Organization Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act, a partnership, or other nongovernmental organization, which is authorized to do group life or group health insurance business in Illinois, or (2) the State of Illinois as a self-insurer.

(d) "Compensation" means salary or wages payable on a regular payroll by the State Treasurer on a warrant of the State Comptroller out of any State, trust or federal fund, or by the Governor of the State through a disbursing officer of the State out of a trust or out of federal funds, or by any Department out of State, trust, federal or other funds held by the State Treasurer or the Department, to any person for personal services currently performed, and ordinary or accidental disability benefits under Articles 2, 14, 15 (including ordinary or accidental disability benefits under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraph paragraphs (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code, for disability incurred after January 1, 1966, or benefits payable under the Workers' Compensation or Occupational Diseases Act or benefits payable under a sick pay plan established in accordance with Section 36 of the State Finance Act. "Compensation" also means salary or wages paid to an employee of any qualified local government, qualified rehabilitation facility, qualified domestic violence shelter or service, or qualified child advocacy center.

(e) "Commission" means the State Employees Group Insurance Advisory Commission authorized by this Act. Commencing July 1, 1984, "Commission" as used in this Act means the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability as established by the Legislative Commission Reorganization Act of 1984.

(f) "Contributory", when referred to as contributory coverage, shall mean optional coverages or benefits elected by the member toward the cost of which such member makes contribution, or which are funded in whole or in part through the acceptance of a reduction in earnings or the foregoing of an increase in earnings by an employee, as distinguished from noncontributory coverage or benefits which are paid entirely by the State of Illinois without reduction of the member's salary.

(g) "Department" means any department, institution, board, commission, officer, court or any agency of the State government receiving appropriations and having power to certify payrolls to the Comptroller authorizing payments of salary and wages against such appropriations as are made by the General Assembly from any State fund, or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer and includes boards of trustees of the retirement systems created by Articles 2, 14, 15, 16, and 18 of the Illinois Pension Code. "Department" also includes the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, the Board of Examiners established under the Illinois Public Accounting Act, and the Illinois Finance Authority.

(h) "Dependent", when the term is used in the context of the health and life plan, means a member's spouse and any child (1) from birth to age 26 including an adopted child, a child who lives with the member from the time of the placement for adoption until entry of an order of adoption, a stepchild or adjudicated child, or a child who lives with the member if such member is a court appointed guardian of the child or (2) age 19 or over who has a mental or physical disability from a cause originating prior to the age of 19 (age 26 if enrolled as an adult child dependent). For the health plan only, the term "dependent" also includes (1) any person enrolled prior to the effective date of this Section who is dependent upon the member to the extent that the member may claim such person as a dependent for income tax deduction purposes and (2) any person who has received after June 30, 2000 an organ transplant and who is financially dependent upon the member and eligible to be claimed as a dependent for income tax purposes. A member requesting to cover any dependent must provide documentation as requested by the Department of Central Management Services and file with the Department any and all forms required by the Department.

(i) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Central Management Services.

(j) "Eligibility period" means the period of time a member has to elect enrollment in programs or to select benefits without regard to age, sex or health.

(k) "Employee" means and includes each officer or employee in the service of a department who (1) receives his compensation for service rendered to the department on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by a department or on a warrant or check issued and drawn by a department upon a trust, federal or other fund or on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by an elected or duly appointed officer of the State or who receives payment of the performance of personal services on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll certified by a Department and drawn by the Comptroller upon the State Treasurer against appropriations made by the General Assembly from any fund or against trust funds held by the State Treasurer, and (2) is employed full-time or part-time in a position normally requiring actual performance of duty during not less than 1/2 of a normal work period, as established by the Director in cooperation with each department, except that persons elected by popular vote will be considered employees during the entire term for which they are elected regardless of hours devoted to the service of the State, and (3) except that "employee" does not include any person who is not eligible by reason of such person's employment to participate in one of the State retirement systems under Articles 2, 14, 15 (either the regular Article 15 system or the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), or 18, or under paragraph (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, of the Illinois Pension Code, but such term does include persons who are employed during the 6-month 6 month qualifying period under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code. Such term also includes any person who (1) after January 1, 1966, is receiving ordinary or accidental disability benefits under Articles 2, 14, 15 (including ordinary or accidental disability benefits under the optional retirement program established under Section 15-158.2), paragraph paragraphs (2), (3), or (5) of Section 16-106, or Article 18 of the Illinois Pension Code, for disability incurred after January 1, 1966, (2) receives total permanent or total temporary disability under the Workers' Compensation Act or Occupational Disease Act as a result of injuries sustained or illness contracted in the course of employment with the State of Illinois, or (3) is not otherwise covered under this Act and has retired as a participating member under Article 2 of the Illinois Pension Code but is ineligible for the retirement annuity under Section 2-119 of the Illinois Pension Code. However, a person who satisfies the criteria of the foregoing definition of "employee" except that such person is made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code is also an "employee" for the purposes of this Act. "Employee" also includes any person receiving or eligible for benefits under a sick pay plan established in accordance with Section 36 of the State Finance Act. "Employee" also includes (i) each officer or employee in the service of a qualified local government, including persons appointed as trustees of sanitary districts regardless of hours devoted to the service of the sanitary district, (ii) each employee in the service of a qualified rehabilitation facility, (iii) each full-time employee in the service of a qualified domestic violence shelter or service, and (iv) each full-time employee in the service of a qualified child advocacy center, as determined according to rules promulgated by the Director.

(l) "Member" means an employee, annuitant, retired employee, or survivor. In the case of an annuitant or retired employee who first becomes an annuitant or retired employee on or after January 13, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-668), the individual must meet the minimum vesting requirements of the applicable retirement system in order to be eligible for group insurance benefits under that system. In the case of a survivor who first becomes a survivor on or after January 13, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-668), the deceased employee, annuitant, or retired employee upon whom the annuity is based must have been eligible to participate in the group insurance system under the applicable retirement system in order for the survivor to be eligible for group insurance benefits under that system.

(m) "Optional coverages or benefits" means those coverages or benefits available to the member on his or her voluntary election, and at his or her own expense.

(n) "Program" means the group life insurance, health benefits and other employee benefits designed and contracted for by the Director under this Act.

(o) "Health plan" means a health benefits program offered by the State of Illinois for persons eligible for the plan.

(p) "Retired employee" means any person who would be an annuitant as that term is defined herein but for the fact that such person retired prior to January 1, 1966. Such term also includes any person formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service who would be an annuitant but for the fact that such person was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q) "Survivor" means a person receiving an annuity as a survivor of an employee or of an annuitant. "Survivor" also includes: (1) the surviving dependent of a person who satisfies the definition of "employee" except that such person is made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code; (2) the surviving dependent of any person formerly employed by the University of Illinois in the Cooperative Extension Service who would be an annuitant except for the fact that such person was made ineligible to participate in the State Universities Retirement System by clause (4) of subsection (a) of Section 15-107 of the Illinois Pension Code; (3) the surviving dependent of a person who was an annuitant under this Act by virtue of receiving an alternative retirement cancellation payment under Section 14-108.5 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (4) a person who would be receiving an annuity as a survivor of an annuitant except that the annuitant elected on or after June 4, 2018 to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 14-147.5, 15-185.5, or 16-190.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of receiving an annuity.

(q-2) "SERS" means the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois, created under Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-3) "SURS" means the State Universities Retirement System, created under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-4) "TRS" means the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, created under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(q-5) (Blank).

(q-6) (Blank).

(q-7) (Blank).

(r) "Medical services" means the services provided within the scope of their licenses by practitioners in all categories licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(s) "Unit of local government" means any county, municipality, township, school district (including a combination of school districts under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act), special district or other unit, designated as a unit of local government by law, which exercises limited governmental powers or powers in respect to limited governmental subjects, any not-for-profit association with a membership that primarily includes townships and township officials, that has duties that include provision of research service, dissemination of information, and other acts for the purpose of improving township government, and that is funded wholly or partly in accordance with Section 85-15 of the Township Code; any not-for-profit corporation or association, with a membership consisting primarily of municipalities, that operates its own utility system, and provides research, training, dissemination of information, or other acts to promote cooperation between and among municipalities that provide utility services and for the advancement of the goals and purposes of its membership; the Southern Illinois Collegiate Common Market, which is a consortium of higher education institutions in Southern Illinois; the Illinois Association of Park Districts; and any hospital provider that is owned by a county that has 100 or fewer hospital beds and has not already joined the program. "Qualified local government" means a unit of local government approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (i) of Section 10 of this Act.

(t) "Qualified rehabilitation facility" means any not-for-profit organization that is accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities or certified by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) to provide services to persons with disabilities and which receives funds from the State of Illinois for providing those services, approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (j) of Section 10 of this Act.

(u) "Qualified domestic violence shelter or service" means any Illinois domestic violence shelter or service and its administrative offices funded by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Illinois Department of Public Aid), approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (k) of Section 10.

(v) "TRS benefit recipient" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is receiving a monthly benefit or retirement annuity under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code or would be receiving such monthly benefit or retirement annuity except that the benefit recipient elected on or after June 4, 2018 to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 16-190.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of receiving an annuity; and

(3) either (i) has at least 8 years of creditable service under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, or (ii) was enrolled in the health insurance program offered under that Article on January 1, 1996, or (iii) is the survivor of a benefit recipient who had at least 8 years of creditable service under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code or was enrolled in the health insurance program offered under that Article on June 21, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-25), or (iv) is a recipient or survivor of a recipient of a disability benefit under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(w) "TRS dependent beneficiary" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" or "dependent" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is a TRS benefit recipient's: (A) spouse, (B) dependent parent who is receiving at least half of his or her support from the TRS benefit recipient, or (C) natural, step, adjudicated, or adopted child who is (i) under age 26, (ii) was, on January 1, 1996, participating as a dependent beneficiary in the health insurance program offered under Article 16 of the Illinois Pension Code, or (iii) age 19 or over who has a mental or physical disability from a cause originating prior to the age of 19 (age 26 if enrolled as an adult child).

"TRS dependent beneficiary" does not include, as indicated under paragraph (2) of this subsection (w), a dependent of the survivor of a TRS benefit recipient who first becomes a dependent of a survivor of a TRS benefit recipient on or after January 13, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-668) unless that dependent would have been eligible for coverage as a dependent of the deceased TRS benefit recipient upon whom the survivor benefit is based.

(x) "Military leave" refers to individuals in basic training for reserves, special/advanced training, annual training, emergency call up, activation by the President of the United States, or any other training or duty in service to the United States Armed Forces.

(y) (Blank).

(z) "Community college benefit recipient" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is receiving a monthly survivor's annuity or retirement annuity under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code or would be receiving such monthly survivor's annuity or retirement annuity except that the benefit recipient elected on or after June 4, 2018 to receive an accelerated pension benefit payment under Section 15-185.5 of the Illinois Pension Code in lieu of receiving an annuity; and

(3) either (i) was a full-time employee of a community college district or an association of community college boards created under the Public Community College Act (other than an employee whose last employer under Article 15 of the Illinois Pension Code was a community college district subject to Article VII of the Public Community College Act) and was eligible to participate in a group health benefit plan as an employee during the time of employment with a community college district (other than a community college district subject to Article VII of the Public Community College Act) or an association of community college boards, or (ii) is the survivor of a person described in item (i).

(aa) "Community college dependent beneficiary" means a person who:

(1) is not a "member" or "dependent" as defined in this Section; and

(2) is a community college benefit recipient's: (A) spouse, (B) dependent parent who is receiving at least half of his or her support from the community college benefit recipient, or (C) natural, step, adjudicated, or adopted child who is (i) under age 26, or (ii) age 19 or over and has a mental or physical disability from a cause originating prior to the age of 19 (age 26 if enrolled as an adult child).

"Community college dependent beneficiary" does not include, as indicated under paragraph (2) of this subsection (aa), a dependent of the survivor of a community college benefit recipient who first becomes a dependent of a survivor of a community college benefit recipient on or after January 13, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-668) unless that dependent would have been eligible for coverage as a dependent of the deceased community college benefit recipient upon whom the survivor annuity is based.

(bb) "Qualified child advocacy center" means any Illinois child advocacy center and its administrative offices funded by the Department of Children and Family Services, as defined by the Children's Advocacy Center Act (55 ILCS 80/), approved by the Director and participating in a program created under subsection (n) of Section 10.

(cc) "Placement for adoption" means the assumption and retention by a member of a legal obligation for total or partial support of a child in anticipation of adoption of the child. The child's placement with the member terminates upon the termination of such legal obligation.

(Source: P.A. 101-242, eff. 8-9-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-2-21.)

(5 ILCS 375/6.11)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, and 356z.51 and 356z.43 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Sections 155.22a, 155.37, 355b, 356z.19, 370c, and 370c.1 and Article XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section with respect to Sections 370c and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code; all other requirements of this Section shall be enforced by the Department of Central Management Services.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-393, eff. 1-1-20; 101-452, eff. 1-1-20; 101-461, eff. 1-1-20; 101-625, eff. 1-1-21; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; revised 10-26-21.)

Section 40. The Sick Leave Bank Act is amended by changing Section 5.10 as follows:

(5 ILCS 400/5.10) (from Ch. 127, par. 4255.10)

Sec. 5.10. "Agency" means any branch, department, board, committee or commission of State government, but does not include units of local government, school districts, or boards of election commissioners, or the State Board of Education.

(Source: P.A. 102-539, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-2-21.)

Section 45. The Illinois Governmental Ethics Act is amended by changing Sections 4A-102 and 4A-107 as follows:

(5 ILCS 420/4A-102) (from Ch. 127, par. 604A-102)

Sec. 4A-102. The statement of economic interests required by this Article shall include the economic interests of the person making the statement as provided in this Section.

(a) The interest (if constructively controlled by the person making the statement) of a spouse or any other party, shall be considered to be the same as the interest of the person making the statement. Campaign receipts shall not be included in this statement. The following interests shall be listed by all persons required to file:

(1) each asset that has a value of more than $10,000 as of the end of the preceding calendar year and is: (i) held in the filer's name, (ii) held jointly by the filer with his or her spouse, or (iii) held jointly by the filer with his or her minor child or children. For a beneficial interest in a trust, the value is based on the total value of the assets either subject to the beneficial interest, or from which income is to be derived for the benefit of the beneficial interest, regardless of whether any distributions have been made for the benefit of the beneficial interest;

(2) excluding the income from the position that requires the filing of a statement of economic interests under this Act, each source of income in excess of $7,500 during the preceding calendar year (as required to be reported on the filer's federal income tax return covering the preceding calendar year) for the filer and his or her spouse and, if the sale or transfer of an asset produced more than $7,500 in capital gains during the preceding calendar year, the transaction date on which that asset was sold or transferred;

(3) each creditor of a debt in excess of $10,000 that, during the preceding calendar year, was: (i) owed by the filer, (ii) owed jointly by the filer with his or her spouse or (iii) owed jointly by the filer with his or her minor child or children;

(4) the name of each unit of government of which the filer or his or her spouse was an employee, contractor, or office holder during the preceding calendar year other than the unit or units of government in relation to which the person is required to file and the title of the position or nature of the contractual services;

(5) each person known to the filer to be registered as a lobbyist with any unit of government in the State of Illinois: (i) with whom the filer maintains an economic relationship, or (ii) who is a member of the filer's family; and

(6) each source and type of gift or gifts, or honorarium or honoraria, valued singly or in the aggregate in excess of $500 that was received during the preceding calendar year, excluding any gift or gifts from a member of the filer's family that was not known to the filer to be registered as a lobbyist with any unit of government in the State of Illinois; and .

(7) the name of any spouse or immediate family member living with such person employed by a public utility in this State and the name of the public utility that employs such person.

For the purposes of this Section, the unit of local government in relation to which a person is required to file under item (e) of Section 4A-101.5 shall be the unit of local government that contributes to the pension fund of which such person is a member of the board.

(b) Beginning December 1, 2025, and for every 5 years thereafter, the Secretary of State shall adjust the amounts specified under this Section that prompt disclosure under this Act for purposes of inflation as determined by the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers as issued by the United States Department of Labor and rounded to the nearest $100. The Secretary shall publish this information on the official website of the Secretary of State, and make changes to the statement of economic interests form to be completed for the following year.

(c) The Secretary of State shall develop and make publicly available on his or her website written guidance relating to the completion and filing of the statement of economic interests upon which a filer may reasonably and in good faith rely.

(d) The following interest shall also be listed by persons listed in items (a) through (f) of Section 4A-101: the name of any spouse or immediate family member living with such person employed by a public utility in this State and the name of the public utility that employs such person. is

(Source: P.A. 101-221, eff. 8-9-19; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; 102-664, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-17-21.)

(5 ILCS 420/4A-107) (from Ch. 127, par. 604A-107)

Sec. 4A-107. Any person required to file a statement of economic interests under this Article who willfully files a false or incomplete statement shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor; provided, a filer's statement made in reasonable, good faith reliance on the guidance provided by the Secretary of State pursuant to Section 4A-102 or his or her ethics officer shall not constitute a willful false or incomplete statement.

Except when the fees and penalties for late filing have been waived under Section 4A-105, failure to file a statement within the time prescribed shall result in ineligibility for, or forfeiture of, office or position of employment, as the case may be; provided, however, that if the notice of failure to file a statement of economic interests provided in Section 4A-105 of this Act is not given by the Secretary of State or the county clerk, as the case may be, no forfeiture shall result if a statement is filed within 30 days of actual notice of the failure to file. The Secretary of State shall provide the Attorney General with the names of persons who failed to file a statement. The county clerk shall provide the State's Attorney of the county of the entity for which the filing of a statement of economic interest is required with the name of persons who failed to file a statement.

The Attorney General, with respect to offices or positions described in items (a) through (f) and items (j), (l), (n), and (p) of Section 4A-101 of this Act, or the State's Attorney of the county of the entity for which the filing of statements of economic interests is required, with respect to offices or positions described in items (a) through (e) of Section 4A-101.5, shall bring an action in quo warranto against any person who has failed to file by either May 31 or June 30 of any given year and for whom the fees and penalties for late filing have not been waived under Section 4A-105.

(Source: P.A. 101-221, eff. 8-9-19; 102-664, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-16-21.)

Section 50. The State Officials and Employees Ethics Act is amended by changing Section 5-50 as follows:

(5 ILCS 430/5-50)

Sec. 5-50. Ex parte communications; special government agents.

(a) This Section applies to ex parte communications made to any agency listed in subsection (e).

(b) "Ex parte communication" means any written or oral communication by any person that imparts or requests material information or makes a material argument regarding potential action concerning regulatory, quasi-adjudicatory, investment, or licensing matters pending before or under consideration by the agency. "Ex parte communication" does not include the following: (i) statements by a person publicly made in a public forum; (ii) statements regarding matters of procedure and practice, such as format, the number of copies required, the manner of filing, and the status of a matter; and (iii) statements made by a State employee of the agency to the agency head or other employees of that agency.

(b-5) An ex parte communication received by an agency, agency head, or other agency employee from an interested party or his or her official representative or attorney shall promptly be memorialized and made a part of the record.

(c) An ex parte communication received by any agency, agency head, or other agency employee, other than an ex parte communication described in subsection (b-5), shall immediately be reported to that agency's ethics officer by the recipient of the communication and by any other employee of that agency who responds to the communication. The ethics officer shall require that the ex parte communication be promptly made a part of the record. The ethics officer shall promptly file the ex parte communication with the Executive Ethics Commission, including all written communications, all written responses to the communications, and a memorandum prepared by the ethics officer stating the nature and substance of all oral communications, the identity and job title of the person to whom each communication was made, all responses made, the identity and job title of the person making each response, the identity of each person from whom the written or oral ex parte communication was received, the individual or entity represented by that person, any action the person requested or recommended, and any other pertinent information. The disclosure shall also contain the date of any ex parte communication.

(d) "Interested party" means a person or entity whose rights, privileges, or interests are the subject of or are directly affected by a regulatory, quasi-adjudicatory, investment, or licensing matter. For purposes of an ex parte communication received by either the Illinois Commerce Commission or the Illinois Power Agency, "interested party" also includes: (1) an organization comprised of 2 or more businesses, persons, nonprofit entities, or any combination thereof, that are working in concert to advance public policy advocated by the organization, or (2) any party selling renewable energy resources procured by the Illinois Power Agency pursuant to Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act and Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(e) This Section applies to the following agencies:

Executive Ethics Commission

Illinois Commerce Commission

Illinois Power Agency Educational Labor Relations Board

State Board of Elections

Illinois Gaming Board

Health Facilities and Services Review Board

Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission

Illinois Labor Relations Board

Illinois Liquor Control Commission

Pollution Control Board

Property Tax Appeal Board

Illinois Racing Board

Illinois Purchased Care Review Board

Illinois State Police Merit Board

Motor Vehicle Review Board

Prisoner Review Board

Civil Service Commission

Personnel Review Board for the Treasurer

Merit Commission for the Secretary of State

Merit Commission for the Office of the Comptroller Court of Claims

Board of Review of the Department of Employment Security

Department of Insurance

Department of Professional Regulation and licensing boards

under the Department

Department of Public Health and licensing boards under the

Department

Office of Banks and Real Estate and licensing boards under

the Office State Employees Retirement System Board of Trustees

Judges Retirement System Board of Trustees

General Assembly Retirement System Board of Trustees

Illinois Board of Investment

State Universities Retirement System Board of Trustees

Teachers Retirement System Officers Board of Trustees

(f) Any person who fails to (i) report an ex parte communication to an ethics officer, (ii) make information part of the record, or (iii) make a filing with the Executive Ethics Commission as required by this Section or as required by Section 5-165 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act violates this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 11-17-21.)

Section 55. The Community-Law Enforcement and Other First Responder Partnership for Deflection and Substance Use Disorder Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 35 as follows:

(5 ILCS 820/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Case management" means those services which will assist persons in gaining access to needed social, educational, medical, substance use and mental health treatment, and other services.

"Community member or organization" means an individual volunteer, resident, public office, or a not-for-profit organization, religious institution, charitable organization, or other public body committed to the improvement of individual and family mental and physical well-being and the overall social welfare of the community, and may include persons with lived experience in recovery from substance use disorder, either themselves or as family members.

"Other first responder" means and includes emergency medical services providers that are public units of government, fire departments and districts, and officials and responders representing and employed by these entities.

"Deflection program" means a program in which a peace officer or member of a law enforcement agency or other first responder facilitates contact between an individual and a licensed substance use treatment provider or clinician for assessment and coordination of treatment planning, including co-responder approaches that incorporate behavioral health, peer, or social work professionals with law enforcement or other first responders at the scene. This facilitation includes defined criteria for eligibility and communication protocols agreed to by the law enforcement agency or other first responder entity and the licensed treatment provider for the purpose of providing substance use treatment to those persons in lieu of arrest or further justice system involvement, or unnecessary admissions to the emergency department. Deflection programs may include, but are not limited to, the following types of responses:

(1) a post-overdose deflection response initiated by a peace officer or law enforcement agency subsequent to emergency administration of medication to reverse an overdose, or in cases of severe substance use disorder with acute risk for overdose;

(2) a self-referral deflection response initiated by an individual by contacting a peace officer or law enforcement agency or other first responder in the acknowledgment of their substance use or disorder;

(3) an active outreach deflection response initiated by a peace officer or law enforcement agency or other first responder as a result of proactive identification of persons thought likely to have a substance use disorder;

(4) an officer or other first responder prevention deflection response initiated by a peace officer or law enforcement agency in response to a community call when no criminal charges are present; and

(5) an officer intervention deflection response when criminal charges are present but held in abeyance pending engagement with treatment.

"Law enforcement agency" means a municipal police department or county sheriff's office of this State, the Illinois State Police, or other law enforcement agency whose officers, by statute, are granted and authorized to exercise powers similar to those conferred upon any peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State.

"Licensed treatment provider" means an organization licensed by the Department of Human Services to perform an activity or service, or a coordinated range of those activities or services, as the Department of Human Services may establish by rule, such as the broad range of emergency, outpatient, intensive outpatient, and residential services and care, including assessment, diagnosis, case management, medical, psychiatric, psychological and social services, medication-assisted treatment, care and counseling, and recovery support, which may be extended to persons to assess or treat substance use disorder or to families of those persons.

"Peace officer" means any peace officer or member of any duly organized State, county, or municipal peace officer unit, any police force of another State, or any police force whose members, by statute, are granted and authorized to exercise powers similar to those conferred upon any peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State.

"Substance use disorder" means a pattern of use of alcohol or other drugs leading to clinical or functional impairment, in accordance with the definition in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), or in any subsequent editions.

"Treatment" means the broad range of emergency, outpatient, intensive outpatient, and residential services and care (including assessment, diagnosis, case management, medical, psychiatric, psychological and social services, medication-assisted treatment, care and counseling, and recovery support) which may be extended to persons who have substance use disorders, persons with mental illness, or families of those persons.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-6-21.)

(5 ILCS 820/35)

Sec. 35. Funding.

(a) The General Assembly may appropriate funds to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for the purpose of funding law enforcement agencies or other first responder entities for services provided by deflection program partners as part of deflection programs subject to subsection (d) of Section 15 of this Act.

(a.1) Up to 10 percent of appropriated funds may be expended on activities related to knowledge dissemination, training, technical assistance, or other similar activities intended to increase practitioner and public awareness of deflection and/or to support its implementation. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority may adopt guidelines and requirements to direct the distribution of funds for these activities.

(b) For all appropriated funds not distributed under subsection (a.1) a.1, the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority may adopt guidelines and requirements to direct the distribution of funds for expenses related to deflection programs. Funding shall be made available to support both new and existing deflection programs in a broad spectrum of geographic regions in this State, including urban, suburban, and rural communities. Funding for deflection programs shall be prioritized for communities that have been impacted by the war on drugs, communities that have a police/community relations issue, and communities that have a disproportionate lack of access to mental health and drug treatment. Activities eligible for funding under this Act may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) activities related to program administration, coordination, or management, including, but not limited to, the development of collaborative partnerships with licensed treatment providers and community members or organizations; collection of program data; or monitoring of compliance with a local deflection program plan;

(2) case management including case management provided prior to assessment, diagnosis, and engagement in treatment, as well as assistance navigating and gaining access to various treatment modalities and support services;

(3) peer recovery or recovery support services that include the perspectives of persons with the experience of recovering from a substance use disorder, either themselves or as family members;

(4) transportation to a licensed treatment provider or other program partner location;

(5) program evaluation activities; .

(6) naloxone and related supplies necessary for carrying out overdose reversal for purposes of distribution to program participants or for use by law enforcement or other first responders; and

(7) treatment necessary to prevent gaps in service delivery between linkage and coverage by other funding sources when otherwise non-reimbursable.

(c) Specific linkage agreements with recovery support services or self-help entities may be a requirement of the program services protocols. All deflection programs shall encourage the involvement of key family members and significant others as a part of a family-based approach to treatment. All deflection programs are encouraged to use evidence-based practices and outcome measures in the provision of substance use disorder treatment and medication-assisted treatment for persons with opioid use disorders.

(Source: P.A. 100-1025, eff. 1-1-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; revised 11-24-21.)

Section 60. The Gun Trafficking Information Act is amended by changing Section 10-5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 830/10-5)

Sec. 10-5. Gun trafficking information.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall use all reasonable efforts in making publicly available, on a regular and ongoing basis, key information related to firearms used in the commission of crimes in this State, including, but not limited to: reports on crimes committed with firearms, locations where the crimes occurred, the number of persons killed or injured in the commission of the crimes, the state where the firearms used originated, the Federal Firearms Licensee that sold the firearm, the type of firearms used, annual statistical information concerning Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license applications, revocations, and compliance with Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, firearm restraining order dispositions, and firearm dealer license certification inspections. The Illinois State Police shall make the information available on its website, which may be presented in a dashboard format, in addition to electronically filing a report with the Governor and the General Assembly. The report to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall study, on a regular and ongoing basis, and compile reports on the number of Firearm Owner's Identification Card checks to determine firearms trafficking or straw purchase patterns. The Illinois State Police shall, to the extent not inconsistent with law, share such reports and underlying data with academic centers, foundations, and law enforcement agencies studying firearms trafficking, provided that personally identifying information is protected. For purposes of this subsection (b), a Firearm Owner's Identification Card number is not personally identifying information, provided that no other personal information of the card holder is attached to the record. The Illinois State Police may create and attach an alternate unique identifying number to each Firearm Owner's Identification Card number, instead of releasing the Firearm Owner's Identification Card number itself.

(c) Each department, office, division, and agency of this State shall, to the extent not inconsistent with law, cooperate fully with the Illinois State Police and furnish the Illinois State Police with all relevant information and assistance on a timely basis as is necessary to accomplish the purpose of this Act. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority shall submit the information required in subsection (a) of this Section to the Illinois State Police, and any other information as the Illinois State Police may request, to assist the Illinois State Police in carrying out its duties under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 65. The Election Code is amended by changing Section 19-2 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/19-2) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-2)

Sec. 19-2. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, any elector as defined in Section 19-1 may by mail or electronically on the website of the appropriate election authority, not more than 90 nor less than 5 days prior to the date of such election, or by personal delivery not more than 90 nor less than one day prior to the date of such election, make application to the county clerk or to the Board of Election Commissioners for an official ballot for the voter's precinct to be voted at such election to. Such a ballot shall be delivered to the elector only upon separate application by the elector for each election. Voters who make an application for permanent vote by mail ballot status shall follow the procedures specified in Section 19-3 and may apply year round. Voters whose application for permanent vote by mail status is accepted by the election authority shall remain on the permanent vote by mail list until the voter requests to be removed from permanent vote by mail status, the voter provides notice to the election authority of a change in registration that affects their registration status, or the election authority receives confirmation that the voter has subsequently registered to vote in another election authority jurisdiction. The URL address at which voters may electronically request a vote by mail ballot shall be fixed no later than 90 calendar days before an election and shall not be changed until after the election.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; 102-668, eff. 11-15-21; 102-687, eff. 12-17-21; revised 1-5-22.)

Section 70. The Secretary of State Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 35 as follows:

(15 ILCS 305/35)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2022)

Sec. 35. Task Force on Best Practices and Licensing of Non-Transplant Organ Donation Organizations.

(a) The General Assembly finds and declares that:

(1) Non-transplant organ donation organizations that accept or process whole body donations or body parts not for transplantation owe a duty of transparency and safekeeping to the donor and his or her next of kin. Medical and scientific research is critical to a continued understanding of the human body, disease, and training the next generation of medical professionals, funeral home directors, coroners, and mortuary students. Non-transplant organ donation organizations do not include organizations that receive body parts for the purposes of transplantation.

(2) Recently, non-transplant organizations that receive or process whole body donation or body part donation not for transplantation purposes, have misused or mishandled donor bodies and body parts.

(3) Neither State nor federal law adequately regulates this industry.

(b) As used in this Section, "Task Force" means the Task Force on Best Practices and Licensing of Non-Transplant Organ Donation Organizations.

(c) There is created a Task Force on Best Practices and Licensing of Non-Transplant Organ Donation Organizations to review and report on national standards for best practices in relation to the licensing and regulation of organizations that solicit or accept non-transplantation whole bodies and body parts, including licensing standards, State regulation, identification of bodies and body parts, and sanctions. The goal of the Task Force is to research the industry, investigate State and local standards, and provide recommendations to the General Assembly and Office of the Governor.

(d) The Task Force's report shall include, but not be limited to, standards for organizations that accept whole body and body part donation, the application process for licensure, best practices regarding consent, the identification, labeling, handling and return of bodies and body parts to ensure proper end-use and return to the next of kin, and best practices for ensuring donors and next of kin are treated with transparency and dignity. The report shall also evaluate and make a recommendation as to the area of State government most appropriate for licensing organizations and regulation of the industry. The report shall also make a recommendation on legislation to enact the findings of the Task Force.

(e) The Task Force shall meet no less than 5 times between July 9, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-96) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and December 31, 2021. The Task Force shall prepare a report that summarizes its work and makes recommendations resulting from its review. The Task Force shall submit the report of its findings and recommendations to the Governor and General Assembly no later than January 15, 2022.

(f) The Task Force shall consist of the following 8 members:

(1) the Secretary of State or his or her designee;

(2) one member appointed by the Secretary of State from the Department of Organ Donor of the Office of the Secretary of State;

(3) one member appointed by the President of the Senate;

(4) one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate;

(5) one member appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(6) one member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(7) one member appointed by the Director of Public Health; and

(8) one member from a University or Mortuary School that has experience in receiving whole body donations, appointed by the Governor.

(g) The Secretary of State shall designate which member shall serve as chairperson and facilitate the Task Force. The members of the Task Force shall be appointed no later than 90 days after July 9, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-96) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. Vacancies in the membership of the Task Force shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment. The members of the Task Force shall not receive compensation for serving as members of the Task Force.

(h) The Office of the Secretary of State shall provide the Task Force with administrative and other support.

(i) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 102-96, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-27-21.)

(15 ILCS 305/36)

Sec. 36 35. Authority to accept electronic signatures.

(a) Through the adoption of administrative rules, the Secretary may authorize the filing of documents with his or her office that have been signed by electronic means.

(b) The administrative rules adopted by the Secretary shall set forth the following:

(1) the type of electronic signature required;

(2) the manner and format in which the electronic signature must be affixed to the electronic record;

(3) the types of transactions which may be filed with his or her office with electronic signatures;

(4) the procedures for seeking certification of compliance with electronic signature requirements; and

(5) the date on which the Secretary will begin accepting electronic signatures.

(c) Any entity seeking to provide services to third parties for the execution of electronic signatures for filing with the Secretary of State shall apply for a certification of compliance with the requirements for the submission of electronic signatures. To receive a certification of compliance, the entity must establish the ability to comply with all of the requirements of this Section and the administrative rules adopted pursuant to this Section. There is no limitation on the number of entities that may be issued a certification of compliance. The Secretary shall include on its Internet website a list of the entities that have been issued a certification of compliance.

(d) The Secretary shall only accept electronic signatures created by use of the services of an entity that has received a certification of compliance as set forth in this Section.

(e) An electronic signature must meet all of the following requirements:

(1) Be executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the document so as to indicate the person's approval of the information contained in the document.

(2) Be attached to or logically associated with the information contained in the document being signed.

(3) Be capable of reliable identification and authentication of the person as the signer. Identification and authentication may be accomplished through additional security procedures or processes if reliably correlated to the electronic signature.

(4) Be linked to the document in a manner that would invalidate the electronic signature if the document is changed.

(5) Be linked to the document so as to preserve its integrity as an accurate and complete record for the full retention period of the document.

(6) Be compatible with the standards and technology for electronic signatures that are generally used in commerce and industry and by state governments.

(f) If the Secretary determines an electronic signature is not in compliance with this Section or the administrative rules adopted pursuant to this Section, or is not in compliance with other applicable statutory or regulatory provisions, the Secretary may refuse to accept the signature.

(g) Electronic signatures accepted by the Secretary of State shall have the same force and effect as manual signatures.

(h) Electronic delivery of records accepted by the Secretary of State shall have the same force and effect as physical delivery of records.

(i) Electronic records and electronic signatures accepted by the Secretary of State shall be admissible in all administrative, quasi-judicial, and judicial proceedings. In any such proceeding, nothing in the application of the rules of evidence shall apply so as to deny the admissibility of an electronic record or electronic signature into evidence on the sole ground that it is an electronic record or electronic signature, or on the grounds that it is not in its original form or is not an original. Information in the form of an electronic record shall be given due evidentiary weight by the trier of fact.

(Source: P.A. 102-213, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-27-21.)

Section 75. The Secretary of State Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10b.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 310/10b.1) (from Ch. 124, par. 110b.1)

Sec. 10b.1. Competitive examinations.

(a) For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions. Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into the Office of the Secretary of State and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education and experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical skill; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and paragraphs (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which would give him the powers of a peace officer, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio or other media.

The Director may, at his discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by Federal law or by the law of any state State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Personnel and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Personnel for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(b) The Director of Personnel may require that each person seeking employment with the Secretary of State, as part of the application process, authorize an investigation to determine if the applicant has ever been convicted of a crime and if so, the disposition of those convictions; this authorization shall indicate the scope of the inquiry and the agencies which may be contacted. Upon this authorization, the Director of Personnel may request and receive information and assistance from any federal, state or local governmental agency as part of the authorized investigation. The investigation shall be undertaken after the fingerprinting of an applicant in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. The investigation shall consist of a criminal history records check performed by the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or some other entity that has the ability to check the applicant's fingerprints against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. If the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation conduct an investigation directly for the Secretary of State's Office, then the Illinois State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Illinois State Police shall provide information concerning any criminal convictions, and their disposition, brought against the applicant or prospective employee of the Secretary of State upon request of the Department of Personnel when the request is made in the form and manner required by the Illinois State Police. The information derived from this investigation, including the source of this information, and any conclusions or recommendations derived from this information by the Director of Personnel shall be provided to the applicant or prospective employee, or his designee, upon request to the Director of Personnel prior to any final action by the Director of Personnel on the application. No information obtained from such investigation may be placed in any automated information system. Any criminal convictions and their disposition information obtained by the Director of Personnel shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Office of the Secretary of State, except as required herein, and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Office of the Secretary of State except as needed for the purpose of evaluating the application. The only physical identity materials which the applicant or prospective employee can be required to provide the Director of Personnel are photographs or fingerprints; these shall be returned to the applicant or prospective employee upon request to the Director of Personnel, after the investigation has been completed and no copy of these materials may be kept by the Director of Personnel or any agency to which such identity materials were transmitted. Only information and standards which bear a reasonable and rational relation to the performance of an employee shall be used by the Director of Personnel. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules and regulations for the administration of this Section. Any employee of the Secretary of State who gives or causes to be given away any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions and their disposition of an applicant or prospective employee shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless release of such information is authorized by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-2-21.)

Section 80. The State Comptroller Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 28 as follows:

(15 ILCS 405/28)

Sec. 28. State Comptroller purchase of real property.

(a) Subject to the provisions of the Public Contract Fraud Act, the State Comptroller, on behalf of the State of Illinois, is authorized during State fiscal years 2021 and 2022 to acquire real property located in the City of Springfield, which the State Comptroller deems necessary to properly carry out the powers and duties vested in him or her. Real property acquired under this Section may be acquired subject to any third party interests in the property that do not prevent the State Comptroller from exercising the intended beneficial use of such property. This subsection (a) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2022.

(b) Subject to the provisions of the Comptroller's Procurement Rules, which shall be substantially in accordance with the requirements of the Illinois Procurement Code, the State Comptroller may:

(1) enter into contracts relating to construction, reconstruction, or renovation projects for any such buildings or lands acquired under subsection (a); and

(2) equip, lease, repair, operate, and maintain those grounds, buildings, and facilities as may be appropriate to carry out his or her statutory purposes and duties.

(c) The State Comptroller may enter into agreements for the purposes of exercising his or her authority under this Section.

(d) The exercise of the authority vested in the Comptroller to acquire property under this Section is subject to appropriation.

(e) The Capital Facility and Technology Modernization Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Comptroller for the purchase, reconstruction, lease, repair, and maintenance of real property as may be acquired under this Section, including for expenses related to the modernization and maintenance of information technology systems and infrastructure.

(Source: P.A. 101-665, eff. 4-2-21.)

(15 ILCS 405/29)

Sec. 29 28. Comptroller recess appointments. If, during a recess of the Senate, there is a vacancy in an office filled by appointment by the Comptroller by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, the Comptroller shall make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when he or she shall make a nomination to fill such office. Any nomination not acted upon by the Senate within 60 session days after the receipt thereof shall be deemed to have received the advice and consent of the Senate. No person rejected by the Senate for an office shall, except at the Senate's request, be nominated again for that office at the same session or be appointed to that office during a recess of that Senate.

(Source: P.A. 102-291, eff. 8-6-21; revised 10-27-21.)

Section 85. The Comptroller Merit Employment Code is amended by changing Section 10b.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 410/10b.1) (from Ch. 15, par. 426)

Sec. 10b.1. Competitive examinations. For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions. Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into the Office of the Comptroller and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education and experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical skill; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and paragraphs (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which entails financial responsibilities, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio or other media.

The Director may, at his or her discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by Federal law or by the law of any state State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Human Resources and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Human Resources for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-2-21.)

Section 90. The Deposit of State Moneys Act is amended by changing Section 22.5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 520/22.5) (from Ch. 130, par. 41a)

(For force and effect of certain provisions, see Section 90 of P.A. 94-79)

Sec. 22.5. Permitted investments. The State Treasurer may invest and reinvest any State money in the State Treasury which is not needed for current expenditures due or about to become due, in obligations of the United States government or its agencies or of National Mortgage Associations established by or under the National Housing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1701 et seq., or in mortgage participation certificates representing undivided interests in specified, first-lien conventional residential Illinois mortgages that are underwritten, insured, guaranteed, or purchased by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation or in Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes as defined in and issued pursuant to the Illinois Housing Development Act. All such obligations shall be considered as cash and may be delivered over as cash by a State Treasurer to his successor.

The State Treasurer may purchase any state bonds with any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and interest on the bonds. The bonds shall be considered as cash and may be delivered over as cash by the State Treasurer to his successor.

The State Treasurer may invest or reinvest any State money in the State Treasury that is not needed for current expenditures due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and interest on any State bonds, in bonds issued by counties or municipal corporations of the State of Illinois.

The State Treasurer may invest or reinvest up to 5% of the College Savings Pool Administrative Trust Fund, the Illinois Public Treasurer Investment Pool (IPTIP) Administrative Trust Fund, and the State Treasurer's Administrative Fund that is not needed for current expenditures due or about to become due, in common or preferred stocks of publicly traded corporations, partnerships, or limited liability companies, organized in the United States, with assets exceeding $500,000,000 if: (i) the purchases do not exceed 1% of the corporation's or the limited liability company's outstanding common and preferred stock; (ii) no more than 10% of the total funds are invested in any one publicly traded corporation, partnership, or limited liability company; and (iii) the corporation or the limited liability company has not been placed on the list of restricted companies by the Illinois Investment Policy Board under Section 1-110.16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

Whenever the total amount of vouchers presented to the Comptroller under Section 9 of the State Comptroller Act exceeds the funds available in the General Revenue Fund by $1,000,000,000 or more, then the State Treasurer may invest any State money in the State Treasury, other than money in the General Revenue Fund, Health Insurance Reserve Fund, Attorney General Court Ordered and Voluntary Compliance Payment Projects Fund, Attorney General Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund, and Attorney General's State Projects and Court Ordered Distribution Fund, which is not needed for current expenditures, due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury which has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and the interest on any State bonds with the Office of the Comptroller in order to enable the Comptroller to pay outstanding vouchers. At any time, and from time to time outstanding, such investment shall not be greater than $2,000,000,000. Such investment shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund or Health Insurance Reserve Fund as determined by the Comptroller. Such investment shall be repaid by the Comptroller with an interest rate tied to the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) or the Federal Funds Rate or an equivalent market established variable rate, but in no case shall such interest rate exceed the lesser of the penalty rate established under the State Prompt Payment Act or the timely pay interest rate under Section 368a of the Illinois Insurance Code. The State Treasurer and the Comptroller shall enter into an intergovernmental agreement to establish procedures for such investments, which market established variable rate to which the interest rate for the investments should be tied, and other terms which the State Treasurer and Comptroller reasonably believe to be mutually beneficial concerning these investments by the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall also enter into a written agreement for each such investment that specifies the period of the investment, the payment interval, the interest rate to be paid, the funds in the State Treasury from which the State Treasurer will draw the investment, and other terms upon which the State Treasurer and Comptroller mutually agree. Such investment agreements shall be public records and the State Treasurer shall post the terms of all such investment agreements on the State Treasurer's official website. In compliance with the intergovernmental agreement, the Comptroller shall order and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts sufficient for the payment of principal and interest invested by the State Treasurer with the Office of the Comptroller under this paragraph from the General Revenue Fund or the Health Insurance Reserve Fund to the respective funds in the State Treasury from which the State Treasurer drew the investment. Public Act 100-1107 shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing authority for all amounts necessary for the payment of principal and interest on the investments made with the Office of the Comptroller by the State Treasurer under this paragraph, and the irrevocable and continuing authority for and direction to the Comptroller and State Treasurer to make the necessary transfers.

The State Treasurer may invest or reinvest any State money in the State Treasury that is not needed for current expenditure, due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and the interest on any State bonds, in any of the following:

(1) Bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, Treasury bills, or other securities now or hereafter issued that are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States of America as to principal and interest.

(2) Bonds, notes, debentures, or other similar obligations of the United States of America, its agencies, and instrumentalities, or other obligations that are issued or guaranteed by supranational entities; provided, that at the time of investment, the entity has the United States government as a shareholder.

(2.5) Bonds, notes, debentures, or other similar obligations of a foreign government, other than the Republic of the Sudan, that are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of that government as to principal and interest, but only if the foreign government has not defaulted and has met its payment obligations in a timely manner on all similar obligations for a period of at least 25 years immediately before the time of acquiring those obligations.

(3) Interest-bearing savings accounts, interest-bearing certificates of deposit, interest-bearing time deposits, or any other investments constituting direct obligations of any bank as defined by the Illinois Banking Act.

(4) Interest-bearing accounts, certificates of deposit, or any other investments constituting direct obligations of any savings and loan associations incorporated under the laws of this State or any other state or under the laws of the United States.

(5) Dividend-bearing share accounts, share certificate accounts, or class of share accounts of a credit union chartered under the laws of this State or the laws of the United States; provided, however, the principal office of the credit union must be located within the State of Illinois.

(6) Bankers' acceptances of banks whose senior obligations are rated in the top 2 rating categories by 2 national rating agencies and maintain that rating during the term of the investment and the bank has not been placed on the list of restricted companies by the Illinois Investment Policy Board under Section 1-110.16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(7) Short-term obligations of either corporations or limited liability companies organized in the United States with assets exceeding $500,000,000 if (i) the obligations are rated at the time of purchase at one of the 3 highest classifications established by at least 2 standard rating services and mature not later than 270 days from the date of purchase, (ii) the purchases do not exceed 10% of the corporation's or the limited liability company's outstanding obligations, (iii) no more than one-third of the public agency's funds are invested in short-term obligations of either corporations or limited liability companies, and (iv) the corporation or the limited liability company has not been placed on the list of restricted companies by the Illinois Investment Policy Board under Section 1-110.16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(7.5) Obligations of either corporations or limited liability companies organized in the United States, that have a significant presence in this State, with assets exceeding $500,000,000 if: (i) the obligations are rated at the time of purchase at one of the 3 highest classifications established by at least 2 standard rating services and mature more than 270 days, but less than 10 years, from the date of purchase; (ii) the purchases do not exceed 10% of the corporation's or the limited liability company's outstanding obligations; (iii) no more than one-third of the public agency's funds are invested in such obligations of corporations or limited liability companies; and (iv) the corporation or the limited liability company has not been placed on the list of restricted companies by the Illinois Investment Policy Board under Section 1-110.16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(8) Money market mutual funds registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940.

(9) The Public Treasurers' Investment Pool created under Section 17 of the State Treasurer Act or in a fund managed, operated, and administered by a bank.

(10) Repurchase agreements of government securities having the meaning set out in the Government Securities Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended or succeeded, subject to the provisions of that Act and the regulations issued thereunder.

(11) Investments made in accordance with the Technology Development Act.

(12) Investments made in accordance with the Student Investment Account Act.

(13) Investments constituting direct obligations of a community development financial institution, which is certified by the United States Treasury Community Development Financial Institutions Fund and is operating in the State of Illinois.

(14) Investments constituting direct obligations of a minority depository institution, as designated by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, that is operating in the State of Illinois.

(15) (13) Investments made in accordance with any other law that authorizes the State Treasurer to invest or deposit funds.

For purposes of this Section, "agencies" of the United States Government includes:

(i) the federal land banks, federal intermediate credit banks, banks for cooperatives, federal farm credit banks, or any other entity authorized to issue debt obligations under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 et seq.) and Acts amendatory thereto;

(ii) the federal home loan banks and the federal home loan mortgage corporation;

(iii) the Commodity Credit Corporation; and

(iv) any other agency created by Act of Congress.

The State Treasurer may lend any securities acquired under this Act. However, securities may be lent under this Section only in accordance with Federal Financial Institution Examination Council guidelines and only if the securities are collateralized at a level sufficient to assure the safety of the securities, taking into account market value fluctuation. The securities may be collateralized by cash or collateral acceptable under Sections 11 and 11.1.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-206, eff. 8-2-19; 101-586, eff. 8-26-19; 101-657, eff. 3-23-21; 102-297, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-6-21.)

Section 95. The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 5-715 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5/5-715)

Sec. 5-715. Expedited licensure for service members and spouses.

(a) In this Section, "service member" means any person who, at the time of application under this Section, is an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces, the Coast Guard, or the National Guard of any state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia or whose active duty service concluded within the preceding 2 years before application.

(a-5) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall within 180 days after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-240) designate one staff member as the military liaison within the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation to ensure proper enactment of the requirements of this Section. The military liaison's responsibilities shall also include, but are not limited to: (1) the management of all expedited applications to ensure processing within 30 days after receipt of a completed application; (2) coordination with all military installation military and family support center directors within this State, including virtual, phone, or in-person periodic meetings with each military installation military and family support center; and (3) training by the military liaison to all directors of each division that issues an occupational or professional license to ensure proper application of this Section. At the end of each calendar year, the military liaison shall provide an annual report documenting the expedited licensure program for service members and spouses, and shall deliver that report to the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation and the Lieutenant Governor.

(b) Each director of a department that issues an occupational or professional license is authorized to and shall issue an expedited license to a service member who meets the requirements under this Section. Review and determination of an application for a license issued by the department shall be expedited by the department within 30 days after the date on which the department receives all necessary documentation required for licensure, including any required information from State and federal agencies. An expedited license shall be issued by the department to any service members meeting the application requirements of this Section, regardless of whether the service member currently resides in this State. The service member shall apply to the department on forms provided by the department. An application must include proof that:

(1) the applicant is a service member;

(2) the applicant holds a valid license in good standing for the occupation or profession issued by another state, commonwealth, possession, or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any foreign jurisdiction;

(2.5) the applicant meets the requirements and standards for licensure through endorsement or reciprocity for the occupation or profession for which the applicant is applying;

(3) the applicant is assigned to a duty station in this State, has established legal residence in this State, or will reside in this State within 6 months after the date of application for licensure;

(4) a complete set of the applicant's fingerprints has been submitted to the Illinois State Police for statewide and national criminal history checks, if applicable to the requirements of the department issuing the license; the applicant shall pay the fee to the Illinois State Police or to the fingerprint vendor for electronic fingerprint processing; no temporary occupational or professional license shall be issued to an applicant if the statewide or national criminal history check discloses information that would cause the denial of an application for licensure under any applicable occupational or professional licensing Act;

(5) the applicant is not ineligible for licensure pursuant to Section 2105-165 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois;

(6) the applicant has submitted an application for full licensure; and

(7) the applicant has paid the required fee; fees shall not be refundable.

(c) Each director of a department that issues an occupational or professional license is authorized to and shall issue an expedited license to the spouse of a service member who meets the requirements under this Section. Review and determination of an application for a license shall be expedited by the department within 30 days after the date on which the department receives all necessary documentation required for licensure, including information from State and federal agencies. An expedited license shall be issued by the department to any spouse of a service member meeting the application requirements of this Section, regardless of whether the spouse or the service member currently resides reside in this State. The spouse of a service member shall apply to the department on forms provided by the department. An application must include proof that:

(1) the applicant is the spouse of a service member;

(2) the applicant holds a valid license in good standing for the occupation or profession issued by another state, commonwealth, possession, or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any foreign jurisdiction;

(2.5) the applicant meets the requirements and standards for licensure through endorsement or reciprocity for the occupation or profession for which the applicant is applying;

(3) the applicant's spouse is assigned to a duty station in this State, has established legal residence in this State, or will reside in this State within 6 months after the date of application for licensure;

(4) a complete set of the applicant's fingerprints has been submitted to the Illinois State Police for statewide and national criminal history checks, if applicable to the requirements of the department issuing the license; the applicant shall pay the fee to the Illinois State Police or to the fingerprint vendor for electronic fingerprint processing; no temporary occupational or professional license shall be issued to an applicant if the statewide or national criminal history check discloses information that would cause the denial of an application for licensure under any applicable occupational or professional licensing Act;

(5) the applicant is not ineligible for licensure pursuant to Section 2105-165 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois;

(6) the applicant has submitted an application for full licensure; and

(7) the applicant has paid the required fee; fees shall not be refundable.

(c-5) If a service member or his or her spouse relocates from this State, he or she shall be provided an opportunity to place his or her license in inactive status through coordination with the military liaison. If the service member or his or her spouse returns to this State, he or she may reactivate the license in accordance with the statutory provisions regulating the profession and any applicable administrative rules. The license reactivation shall be expedited and completed within 30 days after receipt of a completed application to reactivate the license. A license reactivation is only applicable when the valid license for which the first issuance of a license was predicated is still valid and in good standing. An application to reactivate a license must include proof that the applicant still holds a valid license in good standing for the occupation or profession issued in another State, commonwealth, possession, or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any foreign jurisdiction.

(d) All relevant experience of a service member or his or her spouse in the discharge of official duties, including full-time and part-time experience, shall be credited in the calculation of any years of practice in an occupation or profession as may be required under any applicable occupational or professional licensing Act. All relevant training provided by the military and completed by a service member shall be credited to that service member as meeting any training or education requirement under any applicable occupational or professional licensing Act, provided that the training or education is determined by the department to meet the requirements under any applicable Act and is not otherwise contrary to any other licensure requirement.

(e) A department may adopt any rules necessary for the implementation and administration of this Section and shall by rule provide for fees for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-240, eff. 1-1-20; 102-384, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 1-15-22.)

Section 100. The Substance Use Disorder Act is amended by changing Section 30-5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/30-5)

Sec. 30-5. Patients' rights established.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "patient" means any person who is receiving or has received early intervention, treatment, or other recovery support services under this Act or any category of service licensed as "intervention" under this Act.

(b) No patient shall be deprived of any rights, benefits, or privileges guaranteed by law, the Constitution of the United States of America, or the Constitution of the State of Illinois solely because of his or her status as a patient.

(c) Persons who have substance use disorders who are also suffering from medical conditions shall not be discriminated against in admission or treatment by any hospital that receives support in any form supported in whole or in part by funds appropriated to any State department or agency.

(d) Every patient shall have impartial access to services without regard to race, religion, sex, ethnicity, age, sexual orientation, gender identity, marital status, or other disability.

(e) Patients shall be permitted the free exercise of religion.

(f) Every patient's personal dignity shall be recognized in the provision of services, and a patient's personal privacy shall be assured and protected within the constraints of his or her individual treatment.

(g) Treatment services shall be provided in the least restrictive environment possible.

(h) Each patient receiving treatment services shall be provided an individual treatment plan, which shall be periodically reviewed and updated as mandated by administrative rule.

(i) Treatment shall be person-centered, meaning that every patient shall be permitted to participate in the planning of his or her total care and medical treatment to the extent that his or her condition permits.

(j) A person shall not be denied treatment solely because he or she has withdrawn from treatment against medical advice on a prior occasion or had prior treatment episodes.

(k) The patient in residential treatment shall be permitted visits by family and significant others, unless such visits are clinically contraindicated.

(l) A patient in residential treatment shall be allowed to conduct private telephone conversations with family and friends unless clinically contraindicated.

(m) A patient in residential treatment shall be permitted to send and receive mail without hindrance, unless clinically contraindicated.

(n) A patient shall be permitted to manage his or her own financial affairs unless the patient or the patient's guardian, or if the patient is a minor, the patient's parent, authorizes another competent person to do so.

(o) A patient shall be permitted to request the opinion of a consultant at his or her own expense, or to request an in-house review of a treatment plan, as provided in the specific procedures of the provider. A treatment provider is not liable for the negligence of any consultant.

(p) Unless otherwise prohibited by State or federal law, every patient shall be permitted to obtain from his or her own physician, the treatment provider, or the treatment provider's consulting physician complete and current information concerning the nature of care, procedures, and treatment that he or she will receive.

(q) A patient shall be permitted to refuse to participate in any experimental research or medical procedure without compromising his or her access to other, non-experimental services. Before a patient is placed in an experimental research or medical procedure, the provider must first obtain his or her informed written consent or otherwise comply with the federal requirements regarding the protection of human subjects contained in 45 CFR C.F.R. Part 46.

(r) All medical treatment and procedures shall be administered as ordered by a physician and in accordance with all Department rules.

(s) Every patient in treatment shall be permitted to refuse medical treatment and to know the consequences of such action. Such refusal by a patient shall free the treatment licensee from the obligation to provide the treatment.

(t) Unless otherwise prohibited by State or federal law, every patient, patient's guardian, or parent, if the patient is a minor, shall be permitted to inspect and copy all clinical and other records kept by the intervention or treatment licensee or by his or her physician concerning his or her care and maintenance. The licensee or physician may charge a reasonable fee for the duplication of a record.

(u) No owner, licensee, administrator, employee, or agent of a licensed intervention or treatment program shall abuse or neglect a patient. It is the duty of any individual who becomes aware of such abuse or neglect to report it to the Department immediately.

(v) The licensee may refuse access to any person if the actions of that person are or could be injurious to the health and safety of a patient or the licensee, or if the person seeks access for commercial purposes.

(w) All patients admitted to community-based treatment facilities shall be considered voluntary treatment patients and such patients shall not be contained within a locked setting.

(x) Patients and their families or legal guardians shall have the right to present complaints to the provider or the Department concerning the quality of care provided to the patient, without threat of discharge or reprisal in any form or manner whatsoever. The complaint process and procedure shall be adopted by the Department by rule. The treatment provider shall have in place a mechanism for receiving and responding to such complaints, and shall inform the patient and the patient's family or legal guardian of this mechanism and how to use it. The provider shall analyze any complaint received and, when indicated, take appropriate corrective action. Every patient and his or her family member or legal guardian who makes a complaint shall receive a timely response from the provider that substantively addresses the complaint. The provider shall inform the patient and the patient's family or legal guardian about other sources of assistance if the provider has not resolved the complaint to the satisfaction of the patient or the patient's family or legal guardian.

(y) A patient may refuse to perform labor at a program unless such labor is a part of the patient's individual treatment plan as documented in the patient's clinical record.

(z) A person who is in need of services may apply for voluntary admission in the manner and with the rights provided for under regulations promulgated by the Department. If a person is refused admission, then staff, subject to rules promulgated by the Department, shall refer the person to another facility or to other appropriate services.

(aa) No patient shall be denied services based solely on HIV status. Further, records and information governed by the AIDS Confidentiality Act and the AIDS Confidentiality and Testing Code (77 Ill. Adm. Code 697) shall be maintained in accordance therewith.

(bb) Records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis or treatment of any patient maintained in connection with the performance of any service or activity relating to substance use disorder education, early intervention, intervention, training, or treatment that is regulated, authorized, or directly or indirectly assisted by any Department or agency of this State or under any provision of this Act shall be confidential and may be disclosed only in accordance with the provisions of federal law and regulations concerning the confidentiality of substance use disorder patient records as contained in 42 U.S.C. Sections 290dd-2 and 42 CFR C.F.R. Part 2, or any successor federal statute or regulation.

(1) The following are exempt from the confidentiality protections set forth in 42 CFR C.F.R. Section 2.12(c):

(A) Veteran's Administration records.

(B) Information obtained by the Armed Forces.

(C) Information given to qualified service organizations.

(D) Communications within a program or between a program and an entity having direct administrative control over that program.

(E) Information given to law enforcement personnel investigating a patient's commission of a crime on the program premises or against program personnel.

(F) Reports under State law of incidents of suspected child abuse and neglect; however, confidentiality restrictions continue to apply to the records and any follow-up information for disclosure and use in civil or criminal proceedings arising from the report of suspected abuse or neglect.

(2) If the information is not exempt, a disclosure can be made only under the following circumstances:

(A) With patient consent as set forth in 42 CFR C.F.R. Sections 2.1(b)(1) and 2.31, and as consistent with pertinent State law.

(B) For medical emergencies as set forth in 42 CFR C.F.R. Sections 2.1(b)(2) and 2.51.

(C) For research activities as set forth in 42 CFR C.F.R. Sections 2.1(b)(2) and 2.52.

(D) For audit evaluation activities as set forth in 42 CFR C.F.R. Section 2.53.

(E) With a court order as set forth in 42 CFR C.F.R. Sections 2.61 through 2.67.

(3) The restrictions on disclosure and use of patient information apply whether the holder of the information already has it, has other means of obtaining it, is a law enforcement or other official, has obtained a subpoena, or asserts any other justification for a disclosure or use that is not permitted by 42 CFR C.F.R. Part 2. Any court orders authorizing disclosure of patient records under this Act must comply with the procedures and criteria set forth in 42 CFR C.F.R. Sections 2.64 and 2.65. Except as authorized by a court order granted under this Section, no record referred to in this Section may be used to initiate or substantiate any charges against a patient or to conduct any investigation of a patient.

(4) The prohibitions of this subsection shall apply to records concerning any person who has been a patient, regardless of whether or when the person ceases to be a patient.

(5) Any person who discloses the content of any record referred to in this Section except as authorized shall, upon conviction, be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(6) The Department shall prescribe regulations to carry out the purposes of this subsection. These regulations may contain such definitions, and may provide for such safeguards and procedures, including procedures and criteria for the issuance and scope of court orders, as in the judgment of the Department are necessary or proper to effectuate the purposes of this Section, to prevent circumvention or evasion thereof, or to facilitate compliance therewith.

(cc) Each patient shall be given a written explanation of all the rights enumerated in this Section and a copy, signed by the patient, shall be kept in every patient record. If a patient is unable to read such written explanation, it shall be read to the patient in a language that the patient understands. A copy of all the rights enumerated in this Section shall be posted in a conspicuous place within the program where it may readily be seen and read by program patients and visitors.

(dd) The program shall ensure that its staff is familiar with and observes the rights and responsibilities enumerated in this Section.

(ee) Licensed organizations shall comply with the right of any adolescent to consent to treatment without approval of the parent or legal guardian in accordance with the Consent by Minors to Health Care Services Medical Procedures Act.

(ff) At the point of admission for services, licensed organizations must obtain written informed consent, as defined in Section 1-10 and in administrative rule, from each client, patient, or legal guardian.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; revised 12-1-21.)

Section 105. The Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 405-535 as follows:

(20 ILCS 405/405-535)

Sec. 405-535. Race and gender wage reports.

(a) Each State agency and public institution of higher education shall annually submit to the Commission on Equity and Inclusion a report, categorized by both race and gender, specifying the respective wage earnings of employees of that State agency or public institution of higher education.

(b) The Commission shall compile the information submitted under this Section and make that information available to the public on the Internet website of the Commission.

(c) The Commission shall annually submit a report of the information compiled under this Section to the Governor and the General Assembly.

(d) As used in this Section:

"Public institution of higher education" has the meaning provided in Section 1 of the Board of Higher Education Act.

"State agency" has the meaning provided in subsection (b) of Section 405-5.

(Source: P.A. 101-657, Article 25, Section 25-5, eff. 3-23-21; 102-29, eff. 6-25-21.)

(20 ILCS 405/405-536)

Sec. 405-536 405-535. State building municipal identification card access. Any State-owned building that requires the display of a State-issued identification card for the purpose of gaining access to the premises shall, in addition to other acceptable forms of identification, accept the use of any Illinois municipal identification card as an acceptable form of identification for the purpose of entering the premises. An Illinois municipal identification card may not be sufficient to access certain secure areas within the premises and may require additional authorization or identification at the discretion of the premises' security, the Department of Central Management Services, or the user agency.

For the purposes of this Section, "municipal identification card" means a photo identification card that is issued by an Illinois municipality, as defined under Section 1-1-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code, in accordance with its ordinances or codes that consists of the photo, name, and address of the card holder.

(Source: P.A. 102-561, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-27-21.)

Section 110. The Personnel Code is amended by changing Sections 4c and 8b.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 415/4c) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b104c)

Sec. 4c. General exemptions. The following positions in State service shall be exempt from jurisdictions A, B, and C, unless the jurisdictions shall be extended as provided in this Act:

(1) All officers elected by the people.

(2) All positions under the Lieutenant Governor, Secretary of State, State Treasurer, State Comptroller, State Board of Education, Clerk of the Supreme Court, Attorney General, and State Board of Elections.

(3) Judges, and officers and employees of the courts, and notaries public.

(4) All officers and employees of the Illinois General Assembly, all employees of legislative commissions, all officers and employees of the Illinois Legislative Reference Bureau and the Legislative Printing Unit.

(5) All positions in the Illinois National Guard and Illinois State Guard, paid from federal funds or positions in the State Military Service filled by enlistment and paid from State funds.

(6) All employees of the Governor at the executive mansion and on his immediate personal staff.

(7) Directors of Departments, the Adjutant General, the Assistant Adjutant General, the Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, members of boards and commissions, and all other positions appointed by the Governor by and with the consent of the Senate.

(8) The presidents, other principal administrative officers, and teaching, research and extension faculties of Chicago State University, Eastern Illinois University, Governors State University, Illinois State University, Northeastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, the Illinois Community College Board, Southern Illinois University, Illinois Board of Higher Education, University of Illinois, State Universities Civil Service System, University Retirement System of Illinois, and the administrative officers and scientific and technical staff of the Illinois State Museum.

(9) All other employees except the presidents, other principal administrative officers, and teaching, research and extension faculties of the universities under the jurisdiction of the Board of Regents and the colleges and universities under the jurisdiction of the Board of Governors of State Colleges and Universities, Illinois Community College Board, Southern Illinois University, Illinois Board of Higher Education, Board of Governors of State Colleges and Universities, the Board of Regents, University of Illinois, State Universities Civil Service System, University Retirement System of Illinois, so long as these are subject to the provisions of the State Universities Civil Service Act.

(10) The Illinois State Police so long as they are subject to the merit provisions of the Illinois State Police Act. Employees of the Illinois State Police Merit Board are subject to the provisions of this Code.

(11) (Blank).

(12) The technical and engineering staffs of the Department of Transportation, the Department of Nuclear Safety, the Pollution Control Board, and the Illinois Commerce Commission, and the technical and engineering staff providing architectural and engineering services in the Department of Central Management Services.

(13) All employees of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority.

(14) The Secretary of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission.

(15) All persons who are appointed or employed by the Director of Insurance under authority of Section 202 of the Illinois Insurance Code to assist the Director of Insurance in discharging his responsibilities relating to the rehabilitation, liquidation, conservation, and dissolution of companies that are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(16) All employees of the St. Louis Metropolitan Area Airport Authority.

(17) All investment officers employed by the Illinois State Board of Investment.

(18) Employees of the Illinois Young Adult Conservation Corps program, administered by the Illinois Department of Natural Resources, authorized grantee under Title VIII of the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. USC 993.

(19) Seasonal employees of the Department of Agriculture for the operation of the Illinois State Fair and the DuQuoin State Fair, no one person receiving more than 29 days of such employment in any calendar year.

(20) All "temporary" employees hired under the Department of Natural Resources' Illinois Conservation Service, a youth employment program that hires young people to work in State parks for a period of one year or less.

(21) All hearing officers of the Human Rights Commission.

(22) All employees of the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy.

(23) All employees of the Kankakee River Valley Area Airport Authority.

(24) The commissioners and employees of the Executive Ethics Commission.

(25) The Executive Inspectors General, including special Executive Inspectors General, and employees of each Office of an Executive Inspector General.

(26) The commissioners and employees of the Legislative Ethics Commission.

(27) The Legislative Inspector General, including special Legislative Inspectors General, and employees of the Office of the Legislative Inspector General.

(28) The Auditor General's Inspector General and employees of the Office of the Auditor General's Inspector General.

(29) All employees of the Illinois Power Agency.

(30) Employees having demonstrable, defined advanced skills in accounting, financial reporting, or technical expertise who are employed within executive branch agencies and whose duties are directly related to the submission to the Office of the Comptroller of financial information for the publication of the Comprehensive Annual Financial Report.

(31) All employees of the Illinois Sentencing Policy Advisory Council.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-291, eff. 8-6-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(20 ILCS 415/8b.1) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b108b.1)

Sec. 8b.1. For open competitive examinations to test the relative fitness of applicants for the respective positions. Tests shall be designed to eliminate those who are not qualified for entrance into or promotion within the service, and to discover the relative fitness of those who are qualified. The Director may use any one of or any combination of the following examination methods which in his judgment best serves this end: investigation of education; investigation of experience; test of cultural knowledge; test of capacity; test of knowledge; test of manual skill; test of linguistic ability; test of character; test of physical fitness; test of psychological fitness. No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and paragraphs (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) sub-sections 1, 6 and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted thereon shall be disqualified from taking such examinations or subsequent appointment, unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position which would give him the powers of a peace officer, in which case the person's conviction or arrest record may be considered as a factor in determining the person's fitness for the position. The eligibility conditions specified for the position of Assistant Director of Healthcare and Family Services in the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in Section 5-230 of the Departments of State Government Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 5/5-230) shall be applied to that position in addition to other standards, tests or criteria established by the Director. All examinations shall be announced publicly at least 2 weeks in advance of the date of the examinations and may be advertised through the press, radio and other media. The Director may, however, in his discretion, continue to receive applications and examine candidates long enough to assure a sufficient number of eligibles to meet the needs of the service and may add the names of successful candidates to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings.

The Director may, in his discretion, accept the results of competitive examinations conducted by any merit system established by federal law or by the law of any state State, and may compile eligible lists therefrom or may add the names of successful candidates in examinations conducted by those merit systems to existing eligible lists in accordance with their respective ratings. No person who is a non-resident of the State of Illinois may be appointed from those eligible lists, however, unless the requirement that applicants be residents of the State of Illinois is waived by the Director of Central Management Services and unless there are less than 3 Illinois residents available for appointment from the appropriate eligible list. The results of the examinations conducted by other merit systems may not be used unless they are comparable in difficulty and comprehensiveness to examinations conducted by the Department of Central Management Services for similar positions. Special linguistic options may also be established where deemed appropriate.

When an agency requests an open competitive eligible list from the Department, the Director shall also provide to the agency a Successful Disability Opportunities Program eligible candidate list.

(Source: P.A. 101-192, eff. 1-1-20; revised 12-2-21.)

Section 115. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 7.3a as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/7.3a)

Sec. 7.3a. Normalcy parenting for children in foster care; participation in childhood activities.

(a) Legislative findings.

(1) Every day parents make important decisions about their child's participation in extracurricular activities. Caregivers for children in out-of-home care are faced with making the same decisions.

(2) When a caregiver makes decisions, he or she must consider applicable laws, rules, and regulations to safeguard the health, safety, and best interests of a child in out-of-home care.

(3) Participation in extracurricular activities is important to a child's well-being, not only emotionally, but also in developing valuable life skills.

(4) The General Assembly recognizes the importance of making every effort to normalize the lives of children in out-of-home care and to empower a caregiver to approve or not approve a child's participation in appropriate extracurricular activities based on the caregiver's own assessment using the reasonable and prudent parent standard, without prior approval of the Department, the caseworker, or the court.

(5) Nothing in this Section shall be presumed to discourage or diminish the engagement of families and guardians in the child's life activities.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Appropriate activities" means activities or items that are generally accepted as suitable for children of the same chronological age or developmental level of maturity. Appropriateness is based on the development of cognitive, emotional, physical, and behavioral capacity that is typical for an age or age group, taking into account the individual child's cognitive, emotional, physical, and behavioral development.

"Caregiver" means a person with whom the child is placed in out-of-home care or a designated official for child care facilities licensed by the Department as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

"Reasonable and prudent parent standard" means the standard characterized by careful and sensible parental decisions that maintain the child's health, safety, and best interests while at the same time supporting the child's emotional and developmental growth that a caregiver shall use when determining whether to allow a child in out-of-home care to participate in extracurricular, enrichment, cultural, and social activities.

(c) Requirements for decision-making.

(1) Each child who comes into the care and custody of the Department is fully entitled to participate in appropriate extracurricular, enrichment, cultural, and social activities in a manner that allows that child to participate in his or her community to the fullest extent possible.

(2) Caregivers must use the reasonable and prudent parent standard in determining whether to give permission for a child in out-of-home care to participate in appropriate extracurricular, enrichment, cultural, and social activities. Caregivers are expected to promote and support a child's participation in such activities. When using the reasonable and prudent parent standard, the caregiver shall consider:

(A) the child's age, maturity, and developmental level to promote the overall health, safety, and best interests of the child;

(B) the best interest of the child based on information known by the caregiver;

(C) the importance and fundamental value of encouraging the child's emotional and developmental growth gained through participation in activities in his or her community;

(D) the importance and fundamental value of providing the child with the most family-like living experience possible; and

(E) the behavioral history of the child and the child's ability to safely participate in the proposed activity.

(3) A caregiver is not liable for harm caused to a child in out-of-home care who participates in an activity approved by the caregiver, provided that the caregiver has acted as a reasonable and prudent parent in permitting the child to engage in the activity.

(c-5) No youth in care shall be required to store his or her belongings in plastic bags or in similar forms of disposable containers, including, but not limited to, trash bags, paper or plastic shopping bags, or pillow cases when relocating from one placement type to another placement type or when discharged from the custody or guardianship of the Department. The Department shall ensure that each youth in care has appropriate baggage and other items to store his or her belongings when moving through the State's child welfare system. As used in this subsection, "purchase of service agency" means any entity that contracts with the Department to provide services that are consistent with the purposes of this Act.

(d) Rulemaking. The Department shall adopt, by rule, procedures no later than June 1, 2017 that promote and protect the ability of children to participate in appropriate extracurricular, enrichment, cultural, and social activities.

(e) The Department shall ensure that every youth in care who is entering his or her final year of high school has completed a Free Application for Federal Student Aid form, if applicable, or an application for State financial aid on or after October 1, but no later than November 1, of the youth's final year of high school.

(Source: P.A. 102-70, eff. 1-1-22; 102-545, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 120. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 605-1055 and by changing Section 605-1057 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-1055)

Sec. 605-1055. Illinois SBIR/STTR Matching Funds Program.

(a) There is established the Illinois Small Business Innovation Research (SBIR) and Small Business Technology Transfer (STTR) Matching Funds Program to be administered by the Department. In order to foster job creation and economic development in the State, the Department may make grants to eligible businesses to match funds received by the business as an SBIR or STTR Phase I award and to encourage businesses to apply for Phase II awards.

(b) In order to be eligible for a grant under this Section, a business must satisfy all of the following conditions:

(1) The business must be a for-profit, Illinois-based business. For the purposes of this Section, an Illinois-based business is one that has its principal place of business in this State;

(2) The business must have received an SBIR/STTR Phase I award from a participating federal agency in response to a specific federal solicitation. To receive the full match, the business must also have submitted a final Phase I report, demonstrated that the sponsoring agency has interest in the Phase II proposal, and submitted a Phase II proposal to the agency.

(3) The business must satisfy all federal SBIR/STTR requirements.

(4) The business shall not receive concurrent funding support from other sources that duplicates the purpose of this Section.

(5) The business must certify that at least 51% of the research described in the federal SBIR/STTR Phase II proposal will be conducted in this State and that the business will remain an Illinois-based business for the duration of the SBIR/STTR Phase II project.

(6) The business must demonstrate its ability to conduct research in its SBIR/STTR Phase II proposal.

(c) The Department may award grants to match the funds received by a business through an SBIR/STTR Phase I proposal up to a maximum of $50,000. Seventy-five percent of the total grant shall be remitted to the business upon receipt of the SBIR/STTR Phase I award and application for funds under this Section. Twenty-five percent of the total grant shall be remitted to the business upon submission by the business of the Phase II application to the funding agency and acceptance of the Phase I report by the funding agency. A business may receive only one grant under this Section per year. A business may receive only one grant under this Section with respect to each federal proposal submission. Over its lifetime, a business may receive a maximum of 5 awards under this Section.

(d) A business shall apply, under oath, to the Department for a grant under this Section on a form prescribed by the Department that includes at least all of the following:

(1) the name of the business, the form of business organization under which it is operated, and the names and addresses of the principals or management of the business;

(2) an acknowledgment of receipt of the Phase I report and Phase II proposal by the relevant federal agency; and

(3) any other information necessary for the Department to evaluate the application.

(Source: P.A. 101-657, eff. 3-23-21.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-1057)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2031)

Sec. 605-1057. State-designated cultural districts.

(a) As used in this Section, "State-designated cultural district" means a geographical area certified under this Section that has a distinct, historic, and cultural identity. Municipalities or 501(c)(3) organizations working on behalf of a certified geographical area should seek to:

(1) Promote a distinct historic and cultural community.

(2) Encourage economic development and support supports entrepreneurship in the geographic area and community.

(3) Encourage the preservation and development of historic and culturally significant structures, traditions, and languages.

(4) Foster local cultural development and education.

(5) Provide a focal point for celebrating and strengthening the unique cultural identity of the community.

(6) Promote growth and opportunity without generating displacement or expanding inequality.

(b) Administrative authority. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall establish criteria and guidelines for State-designated cultural districts by rule in accordance with qualifying criteria outlined in subsection (c). In executing its powers and duties under this Section, the Department shall:

(1) establish a competitive application system by which a community may apply for certification as a State-designated cultural district;

(2) provide technical assistance for State-designated cultural districts by collaborating with all relevant offices and grantees of the Department to help them identify and achieve their goals for cultural preservation, including, but not limited to, promotional support of State-designated cultural districts and support for small businesses looking to access resources;

(3) collaborate with other State agencies, units of local government, community organizations, and private entities to maximize the benefits of State-designated cultural districts; and

(4) establish an advisory committee to advise the Department on program rules and the certification process. The advisory committee shall reflect the diversity of the State of Illinois, including geographic, racial, and ethnic diversity. The advisory committee must include:

(A) a representative of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity appointed by the Director;

(B) a representative of the Department of Agriculture appointed by the Director of Agriculture;

(C) a representative of the Illinois Housing Development Authority appointed by the Executive Director of the Illinois Housing Development Authority;

(D) two members of the House of Representatives appointed one each by the Speaker of the House of Representatives and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(E) two members of the Senate appointed one each by the President of the Senate and the Minority Leader of the Senate; and

(F) four community representatives appointed by the Governor representing diverse racial, ethnic, and geographic groups not captured in the membership of the other designees, with the input of community and stakeholder groups.

(c) Certification. A geographical area within the State may be certified as a State-designated cultural district by applying to the Department for certification. Certification as a State-designated cultural district shall be for a period of 10 years, after which the district may renew certification every 5 years. A municipality or 501(c)(3) organization may apply for certification on behalf of a geographic area. The applying entity is responsible for complying with reporting requirements under subsection (f). The Department shall develop criteria to assess whether an applicant qualifies for certification under this Section. That criteria must include a demonstration that the applicant and the community:

(1) have been historically impacted and are currently at risk of losing their cultural identity because of gentrification, displacement, or the COVID-19 pandemic;

(2) can demonstrate a history of economic disinvestment; and

(3) can demonstrate strong community support for the cultural district designation through active and formal participation by community organizations and municipal and regional government agencies or officials.

(d) Each applicant shall be encouraged by the Department to:

(1) have development plans that include and prioritize the preservation of local businesses and retention of existing residents and businesses; and

(2) have an education framework in place informed with a vision of food justice, social justice, community sustainability, and social equity.

(e) The Department shall award no more than 5 State-designated cultural districts every year. At no point shall the total amount of State-designated cultural districts be more than 15, unless otherwise directed by the Director of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in consultation with the advisory committee.

(f) Within 12 months after being designated a cultural district, the State-designated cultural district shall submit a report to the Department detailing its current programs and goals for the next 4 years of its designation. For each year thereafter that the district remains a State-designated cultural district, it shall submit a report to the Department on the status of the program and future developments of the district. Any State-designated cultural district that fails to file a report for 2 consecutive years shall lose its status.

(g) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2031.

(Source: P.A. 102-628, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-6-21.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-1080)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 605-1080 605-1055. Personal care products industry supplier disparity study.

(a) The Department shall compile and publish a disparity study by December 31, 2022 that: (1) evaluates whether there exists intentional discrimination at the supplier or distribution level for retailers of beauty products, cosmetics, hair care supplies, and personal care products in the State of Illinois; and (2) if so, evaluates the impact of such discrimination on the State and includes recommendations for reducing or eliminating any barriers to entry to those wishing to establish businesses at the retail level involving such products. The Department shall forward a copy of its findings and recommendations to the General Assembly and Governor.

(b) The Department may compile, collect, or otherwise gather data necessary for the administration of this Section and to carry out the Department's duty relating to the recommendation of policy changes. The Department shall compile all of the data into a single report, submit the report to the Governor and the General Assembly, and publish the report on its website.

(c) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 101-658, eff. 3-23-21; revised 11-2-21.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-1085)

Sec. 605-1085 605-1055. The Illinois Small Business Fund. The Illinois Small Business Fund is created as a nonappropriated separate and apart trust fund in the State Treasury. The Department shall use moneys in the Fund to manage proceeds that result from investments that the Department has undertaken through economic development programs, including, but not limited to, the Department's Venture Capital Investment Program. The Department may use moneys collected to reinvest in small business and economic development initiatives through grants or loans. The Fund may receive any grants or other moneys designated for small business growth from the State, or any unit of federal or local government, or any other person, firm, partnership, or corporation. Any interest earnings that are attributable to moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-330, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-2-21.)

(20 ILCS 605/605-1090)

Sec. 605-1090 605-1055. Illinois Innovation Voucher Program.

(a) The Department is authorized to establish the Illinois Innovation Voucher Program to be administered in accordance with this Section for the purpose of fostering research and development in key industry clusters leading to the creation of new products and services that can be marketed by Illinois businesses. Subject to appropriation, the Department may award innovation vouchers to eligible businesses to offset a portion of expenses incurred through a collaborative research engagement with an Illinois institution of higher education.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the Department may award matching funds in the form of innovation vouchers up to 75% of the cost of the research engagement not to exceed $75,000. A business may receive only one innovation voucher under this Section per year.

(c) The Department, when administering the Program under this Section:

(1) must encourage participation among small and mid-sized businesses;

(2) must encourage participation in the Program in diverse geographic and economic areas, including urban, suburban, and rural areas of the State; and

(3) must encourage participation in the Program from businesses that operate in key industries, as defined by the Department. These industries include, but are not limited to, the following: (i) agribusiness and agtech; (ii) energy; (iii) information technology; (iv) life sciences and healthcare; (v) manufacturing; and (vi) transportation and logistics.

(d) In order to be eligible for an innovation voucher under this Section, a business must satisfy all of the following conditions:

(1) the business must be an Illinois-based business. For the purposes of this Section, "Illinois-based business" means a business that has its principal place of business in this State or that employs at least 100 full-time employees, as defined under Section 5-5 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act, in this State;

(2) the business must remain in this State for the duration of research engagement; and

(3) the partnering institution of higher education must be an Illinois-based institution of higher education and non-profit. For the purposes of this Section, "Illinois-based institution of higher education" means an institution of higher education that has its main physical campus in this State.

(e) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to administer the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-648, eff. 8-27-21; revised 11-2-21.)

Section 125. The Illinois Enterprise Zone Act is amended by changing Section 5.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 655/5.5) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 609.1)

Sec. 5.5. High Impact Business.

(a) In order to respond to unique opportunities to assist in the encouragement, development, growth, and expansion of the private sector through large scale investment and development projects, the Department is authorized to receive and approve applications for the designation of "High Impact Businesses" in Illinois subject to the following conditions:

(1) such applications may be submitted at any time during the year;

(2) such business is not located, at the time of designation, in an enterprise zone designated pursuant to this Act;

(3) the business intends to do one or more of the following:

(A) the business intends to make a minimum investment of $12,000,000 which will be placed in service in qualified property and intends to create 500 full-time equivalent jobs at a designated location in Illinois or intends to make a minimum investment of $30,000,000 which will be placed in service in qualified property and intends to retain 1,500 full-time retained jobs at a designated location in Illinois. The business must certify in writing that the investments would not be placed in service in qualified property and the job creation or job retention would not occur without the tax credits and exemptions set forth in subsection (b) of this Section. The terms "placed in service" and "qualified property" have the same meanings as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(B) the business intends to establish a new electric generating facility at a designated location in Illinois. "New electric generating facility", for purposes of this Section, means a newly constructed newly-constructed electric generation plant or a newly constructed newly-constructed generation capacity expansion at an existing electric generation plant, including the transmission lines and associated equipment that transfers electricity from points of supply to points of delivery, and for which such new foundation construction commenced not sooner than July 1, 2001. Such facility shall be designed to provide baseload electric generation and shall operate on a continuous basis throughout the year; and (i) shall have an aggregate rated generating capacity of at least 1,000 megawatts for all new units at one site if it uses natural gas as its primary fuel and foundation construction of the facility is commenced on or before December 31, 2004, or shall have an aggregate rated generating capacity of at least 400 megawatts for all new units at one site if it uses coal or gases derived from coal as its primary fuel and shall support the creation of at least 150 new Illinois coal mining jobs, or (ii) shall be funded through a federal Department of Energy grant before December 31, 2010 and shall support the creation of Illinois coal-mining jobs, or (iii) shall use coal gasification or integrated gasification-combined cycle units that generate electricity or chemicals, or both, and shall support the creation of Illinois coal-mining jobs. The business must certify in writing that the investments necessary to establish a new electric generating facility would not be placed in service and the job creation in the case of a coal-fueled plant would not occur without the tax credits and exemptions set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. The term "placed in service" has the same meaning as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(B-5) the business intends to establish a new gasification facility at a designated location in Illinois. As used in this Section, "new gasification facility" means a newly constructed coal gasification facility that generates chemical feedstocks or transportation fuels derived from coal (which may include, but are not limited to, methane, methanol, and nitrogen fertilizer), that supports the creation or retention of Illinois coal-mining jobs, and that qualifies for financial assistance from the Department before December 31, 2010. A new gasification facility does not include a pilot project located within Jefferson County or within a county adjacent to Jefferson County for synthetic natural gas from coal; or

(C) the business intends to establish production operations at a new coal mine, re-establish production operations at a closed coal mine, or expand production at an existing coal mine at a designated location in Illinois not sooner than July 1, 2001; provided that the production operations result in the creation of 150 new Illinois coal mining jobs as described in subdivision (a)(3)(B) of this Section, and further provided that the coal extracted from such mine is utilized as the predominant source for a new electric generating facility. The business must certify in writing that the investments necessary to establish a new, expanded, or reopened coal mine would not be placed in service and the job creation would not occur without the tax credits and exemptions set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. The term "placed in service" has the same meaning as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(D) the business intends to construct new transmission facilities or upgrade existing transmission facilities at designated locations in Illinois, for which construction commenced not sooner than July 1, 2001. For the purposes of this Section, "transmission facilities" means transmission lines with a voltage rating of 115 kilovolts or above, including associated equipment, that transfer electricity from points of supply to points of delivery and that transmit a majority of the electricity generated by a new electric generating facility designated as a High Impact Business in accordance with this Section. The business must certify in writing that the investments necessary to construct new transmission facilities or upgrade existing transmission facilities would not be placed in service without the tax credits and exemptions set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. The term "placed in service" has the same meaning as described in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; or

(E) the business intends to establish a new wind power facility at a designated location in Illinois. For purposes of this Section, "new wind power facility" means a newly constructed electric generation facility, a newly constructed expansion of an existing electric generation facility, or the replacement of an existing electric generation facility, including the demolition and removal of an electric generation facility irrespective of whether it will be replaced, placed in service or replaced on or after July 1, 2009, that generates electricity using wind energy devices, and such facility shall be deemed to include any permanent structures associated with the electric generation facility and all associated transmission lines, substations, and other equipment related to the generation of electricity from wind energy devices. For purposes of this Section, "wind energy device" means any device, with a nameplate capacity of at least 0.5 megawatts, that is used in the process of converting kinetic energy from the wind to generate electricity; or

(E-5) the business intends to establish a new utility-scale solar facility at a designated location in Illinois. For purposes of this Section, "new utility-scale solar power facility" means a newly constructed electric generation facility, or a newly constructed expansion of an existing electric generation facility, placed in service on or after July 1, 2021, that (i) generates electricity using photovoltaic cells and (ii) has a nameplate capacity that is greater than 5,000 kilowatts, and such facility shall be deemed to include all associated transmission lines, substations, energy storage facilities, and other equipment related to the generation and storage of electricity from photovoltaic cells; or

(F) the business commits to (i) make a minimum investment of $500,000,000, which will be placed in service in a qualified property, (ii) create 125 full-time equivalent jobs at a designated location in Illinois, (iii) establish a fertilizer plant at a designated location in Illinois that complies with the set-back standards as described in Table 1: Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the 2012 Emergency Response Guidebook published by the United States Department of Transportation, (iv) pay a prevailing wage for employees at that location who are engaged in construction activities, and (v) secure an appropriate level of general liability insurance to protect against catastrophic failure of the fertilizer plant or any of its constituent systems; in addition, the business must agree to enter into a construction project labor agreement including provisions establishing wages, benefits, and other compensation for employees performing work under the project labor agreement at that location; for the purposes of this Section, "fertilizer plant" means a newly constructed or upgraded plant utilizing gas used in the production of anhydrous ammonia and downstream nitrogen fertilizer products for resale; for the purposes of this Section, "prevailing wage" means the hourly cash wages plus fringe benefits for training and apprenticeship programs approved by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, health and welfare, insurance, vacations and pensions paid generally, in the locality in which the work is being performed, to employees engaged in work of a similar character on public works; this paragraph (F) applies only to businesses that submit an application to the Department within 60 days after July 25, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-109); and

(4) no later than 90 days after an application is submitted, the Department shall notify the applicant of the Department's determination of the qualification of the proposed High Impact Business under this Section.

(b) Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses pursuant to subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section shall qualify for the credits and exemptions described in the following Acts: Section 9-222 and Section 9-222.1A of the Public Utilities Act, subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, and Section 1d of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act; provided that these credits and exemptions described in these Acts shall not be authorized until the minimum investments set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section have been placed in service in qualified properties and, in the case of the exemptions described in the Public Utilities Act and Section 1d of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the minimum full-time equivalent jobs or full-time retained jobs set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section have been created or retained. Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses under this Section shall also qualify for the exemption described in Section 5l of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The credit provided in subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall be applicable to investments in qualified property as set forth in subdivision (a)(3)(A) of this Section.

(b-5) Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses pursuant to subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(B-5), (a)(3)(C), and (a)(3)(D) of this Section shall qualify for the credits and exemptions described in the following Acts: Section 51 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9-222 and Section 9-222.1A of the Public Utilities Act, and subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act; however, the credits and exemptions authorized under Section 9-222 and Section 9-222.1A of the Public Utilities Act, and subsection (h) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall not be authorized until the new electric generating facility, the new gasification facility, the new transmission facility, or the new, expanded, or reopened coal mine is operational, except that a new electric generating facility whose primary fuel source is natural gas is eligible only for the exemption under Section 5l of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(b-6) Businesses designated as High Impact Businesses pursuant to subdivision (a)(3)(E) or (a)(3)(E-5) of this Section shall qualify for the exemptions described in Section 5l of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act; any business so designated as a High Impact Business being, for purposes of this Section, a "Wind Energy Business".

(b-7) Beginning on January 1, 2021, businesses designated as High Impact Businesses by the Department shall qualify for the High Impact Business construction jobs credit under subsection (h-5) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act if the business meets the criteria set forth in subsection (i) of this Section. The total aggregate amount of credits awarded under the Blue Collar Jobs Act (Article 20 of Public Act 101-9) shall not exceed $20,000,000 in any State fiscal year.

(c) High Impact Businesses located in federally designated foreign trade zones or sub-zones are also eligible for additional credits, exemptions and deductions as described in the following Acts: Section 9-221 and Section 9-222.1 of the Public Utilities Act; and subsection (g) of Section 201, and Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(d) Except for businesses contemplated under subdivision (a)(3)(E) or (a)(3)(E-5) of this Section, existing Illinois businesses which apply for designation as a High Impact Business must provide the Department with the prospective plan for which 1,500 full-time retained jobs would be eliminated in the event that the business is not designated.

(e) Except for new wind power facilities contemplated under subdivision (a)(3)(E) of this Section, new proposed facilities which apply for designation as High Impact Business must provide the Department with proof of alternative non-Illinois sites which would receive the proposed investment and job creation in the event that the business is not designated as a High Impact Business.

(f) Except for businesses contemplated under subdivision (a)(3)(E) of this Section, in the event that a business is designated a High Impact Business and it is later determined after reasonable notice and an opportunity for a hearing as provided under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, that the business would have placed in service in qualified property the investments and created or retained the requisite number of jobs without the benefits of the High Impact Business designation, the Department shall be required to immediately revoke the designation and notify the Director of the Department of Revenue who shall begin proceedings to recover all wrongfully exempted State taxes with interest. The business shall also be ineligible for all State funded Department programs for a period of 10 years.

(g) The Department shall revoke a High Impact Business designation if the participating business fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the designation.

(h) Prior to designating a business, the Department shall provide the members of the General Assembly and Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability with a report setting forth the terms and conditions of the designation and guarantees that have been received by the Department in relation to the proposed business being designated.

(i) High Impact Business construction jobs credit. Beginning on January 1, 2021, a High Impact Business may receive a tax credit against the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act in an amount equal to 50% of the amount of the incremental income tax attributable to High Impact Business construction jobs credit employees employed in the course of completing a High Impact Business construction jobs project. However, the High Impact Business construction jobs credit may equal 75% of the amount of the incremental income tax attributable to High Impact Business construction jobs credit employees if the High Impact Business construction jobs credit project is located in an underserved area.

The Department shall certify to the Department of Revenue: (1) the identity of taxpayers that are eligible for the High Impact Business construction jobs credit; and (2) the amount of High Impact Business construction jobs credits that are claimed pursuant to subsection (h-5) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act in each taxable year. Any business entity that receives a High Impact Business construction jobs credit shall maintain a certified payroll pursuant to subsection (j) of this Section.

As used in this subsection (i):

"High Impact Business construction jobs credit" means an amount equal to 50% (or 75% if the High Impact Business construction project is located in an underserved area) of the incremental income tax attributable to High Impact Business construction job employees. The total aggregate amount of credits awarded under the Blue Collar Jobs Act (Article 20 of Public Act 101-9) shall not exceed $20,000,000 in any State fiscal year

"High Impact Business construction job employee" means a laborer or worker who is employed by an Illinois contractor or subcontractor in the actual construction work on the site of a High Impact Business construction job project.

"High Impact Business construction jobs project" means building a structure or building or making improvements of any kind to real property, undertaken and commissioned by a business that was designated as a High Impact Business by the Department. The term "High Impact Business construction jobs project" does not include the routine operation, routine repair, or routine maintenance of existing structures, buildings, or real property.

"Incremental income tax" means the total amount withheld during the taxable year from the compensation of High Impact Business construction job employees.

"Underserved area" means a geographic area that meets one or more of the following conditions:

(1) the area has a poverty rate of at least 20% according to the latest American Community Survey;

(2) 35% or more of the families with children in the area are living below 130% of the poverty line, according to the latest American Community Survey;

(3) at least 20% of the households in the area receive assistance under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP); or

(4) the area has an average unemployment rate, as determined by the Illinois Department of Employment Security, that is more than 120% of the national unemployment average, as determined by the U.S. Department of Labor, for a period of at least 2 consecutive calendar years preceding the date of the application.

(j) Each contractor and subcontractor who is engaged in and executing a High Impact Business Construction jobs project, as defined under subsection (i) of this Section, for a business that is entitled to a credit pursuant to subsection (i) of this Section shall:

(1) make and keep, for a period of 5 years from the date of the last payment made on or after June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-9) on a contract or subcontract for a High Impact Business Construction Jobs Project, records for all laborers and other workers employed by the contractor or subcontractor on the project; the records shall include:

(A) the worker's name;

(B) the worker's address;

(C) the worker's telephone number, if available;

(D) the worker's social security number;

(E) the worker's classification or classifications;

(F) the worker's gross and net wages paid in each pay period;

(G) the worker's number of hours worked each day;

(H) the worker's starting and ending times of work each day;

(I) the worker's hourly wage rate;

(J) the worker's hourly overtime wage rate;

(K) the worker's race and ethnicity; and

(L) the worker's gender;

(2) no later than the 15th day of each calendar month, provide a certified payroll for the immediately preceding month to the taxpayer in charge of the High Impact Business construction jobs project; within 5 business days after receiving the certified payroll, the taxpayer shall file the certified payroll with the Department of Labor and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity; a certified payroll must be filed for only those calendar months during which construction on a High Impact Business construction jobs project has occurred; the certified payroll shall consist of a complete copy of the records identified in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j), but may exclude the starting and ending times of work each day; the certified payroll shall be accompanied by a statement signed by the contractor or subcontractor or an officer, employee, or agent of the contractor or subcontractor which avers that:

(A) he or she has examined the certified payroll records required to be submitted by the Act and such records are true and accurate; and

(B) the contractor or subcontractor is aware that filing a certified payroll that he or she knows to be false is a Class A misdemeanor.

A general contractor is not prohibited from relying on a certified payroll of a lower-tier subcontractor, provided the general contractor does not knowingly rely upon a subcontractor's false certification.

Any contractor or subcontractor subject to this subsection, and any officer, employee, or agent of such contractor or subcontractor whose duty as an officer, employee, or agent it is to file a certified payroll under this subsection, who willfully fails to file such a certified payroll on or before the date such certified payroll is required by this paragraph to be filed and any person who willfully files a false certified payroll that is false as to any material fact is in violation of this Act and guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

The taxpayer in charge of the project shall keep the records submitted in accordance with this subsection on or after June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-9) for a period of 5 years from the date of the last payment for work on a contract or subcontract for the High Impact Business construction jobs project.

The records submitted in accordance with this subsection shall be considered public records, except an employee's address, telephone number, and social security number, and made available in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act. The Department of Labor shall share the information with the Department in order to comply with the awarding of a High Impact Business construction jobs credit. A contractor, subcontractor, or public body may retain records required under this Section in paper or electronic format.

(k) Upon 7 business days' notice, each contractor and subcontractor shall make available for inspection and copying at a location within this State during reasonable hours, the records identified in this subsection (j) to the taxpayer in charge of the High Impact Business construction jobs project, its officers and agents, the Director of the Department of Labor and his or her deputies and agents, and to federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies and prosecutors.

(Source: P.A. 101-9, eff. 6-5-19; 102-108, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-605, eff. 8-27-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; 102-673, eff. 11-30-21; revised 12-8-21.)

Section 130. The Illinois Promotion Act is amended by changing Section 8a as follows:

(20 ILCS 665/8a) (from Ch. 127, par. 200-28a)

Sec. 8a. Tourism grants and loans.

(1) The Department is authorized to make grants and loans, subject to appropriations by the General Assembly for this purpose from the Tourism Promotion Fund, to counties, municipalities, other units of local government, local promotion groups, not-for-profit organizations, or for-profit businesses for the development or improvement of tourism attractions in Illinois. Individual grants and loans shall not exceed $1,000,000 and shall not exceed 50% of the entire amount of the actual expenditures for the development or improvement of a tourist attraction. Agreements for loans made by the Department pursuant to this subsection may contain provisions regarding term, interest rate, security as may be required by the Department and any other provisions the Department may require to protect the State's interest.

(2) From appropriations to the Department from the State CURE fund for this purpose, the Department shall establish Tourism Attraction grants for purposes outlined in subsection (1). Grants under this subsection shall not exceed $1,000,000 but may exceed 50% of the entire amount of the actual expenditure for the development or improvement of a tourist attraction, including, but not limited to, festivals. Expenditures of such funds shall be in accordance with the permitted purposes under Section 9901 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 and all related federal guidance.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-287, eff. 8-6-21; revised 9-28-21.)

Section 135. The Financial Institutions Code is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1205/6) (from Ch. 17, par. 106)

Sec. 6. In addition to the duties imposed elsewhere in this Act, the Department has the following powers:

(1) To exercise the rights, powers and duties vested by law in the Auditor of Public Accounts under "An Act to provide for the incorporation, management and regulation of pawners' societies and limiting the rate of compensation to be paid for advances, storage and insurance on pawns and pledges and to allow the loaning of money upon personal property", approved March 29, 1899, as amended.

(2) To exercise the rights, powers and duties vested by law in the Auditor of Public Accounts under the Currency Exchange Act "An Act in relation to the definition, licensing and regulation of community currency exchanges and ambulatory currency exchanges, and the operators and employees thereof, and to make an appropriation therefor, and to provide penalties and remedies for the violation thereof", approved June 30, 1943, as amended.

(3) To exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested by law in the Auditor of Public Accounts under "An Act in relation to the buying and selling of foreign exchange and the transmission or transfer of money to foreign countries", approved June 28, 1923, as amended.

(4) To exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested by law in the Auditor of Public Accounts under "An Act to provide for and regulate the business of guaranteeing titles to real estate by corporations", approved May 13, 1901, as amended.

(5) To exercise the rights, powers and duties vested by law in the Department of Insurance under "An Act to define, license, and regulate the business of making loans of eight hundred dollars or less, permitting an interest charge thereon greater than otherwise allowed by law, authorizing and regulating the assignment of wages or salary when taken as security for any such loan or as consideration for a payment of eight hundred dollars or less, providing penalties, and to repeal Acts therein named", approved July 11, 1935, as amended.

(6) To administer and enforce the Safety Deposit License Act "An Act to license and regulate the keeping and letting of safety deposit boxes, safes, and vaults, and the opening thereof, and to repeal a certain Act therein named", approved June 13, 1945, as amended.

(7) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Illinois State Police Law, the Illinois State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, such information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(8) To administer the Payday Loan Reform Act, the Consumer Installment Loan Act, the Predatory Loan Prevention Act, the Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act, and the Retail Installment Sales Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-658, eff. 3-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 140. The Department of Innovation and Technology Act is amended by changing Section 1-5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1370/1-5)

Sec. 1-5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Client agency" means each transferring agency, or its successor, and any other public agency to which the Department provides service to the extent specified in an interagency agreement with the public agency.

"Dedicated unit" means the dedicated bureau, division, office, or other unit within a transferring agency that is responsible for the information technology functions of the transferring agency.

"Department" means the Department of Innovation and Technology.

"Information technology" means technology, infrastructure, equipment, systems, software, networks, and processes used to create, send, receive, and store electronic or digital information, including, without limitation, computer systems and telecommunication services and systems. "Information technology" shall be construed broadly to incorporate future technologies (such as sensors and balanced private hybrid or public cloud posture tailored to the mission of the agency) that change or supplant those in effect as of the effective date of this Act.

"Information technology functions" means the development, procurement, installation, retention, maintenance, operation, possession, storage, and related functions of all information technology.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Innovation and Technology.

"State agency" means each State agency, department, board, and commission under the jurisdiction of the Governor.

"Transferring agency" means the Department on Aging; the Departments of Agriculture, Central Management Services, Children and Family Services, Commerce and Economic Opportunity, Corrections, Employment Security, Financial and Professional Regulation, Healthcare and Family Services, Human Rights, Human Services, Insurance, Juvenile Justice, Labor, Lottery, Military Affairs, Natural Resources, Public Health, Revenue, Transportation, and Veterans' Affairs; the Illinois State Police; the Capital Development Board; the Deaf and Hard of Hearing Commission; the Environmental Protection Agency; the Governor's Office of Management and Budget; the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission; the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum; the Illinois Arts Council; the Illinois Council on Developmental Disabilities; the Illinois Emergency Management Agency; the Illinois Gaming Board; the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority; the Illinois Liquor Control Commission; the Office of the State Fire Marshal; and the Prisoner Review Board.

(Source: P.A. 102-376, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-28-21.)

Section 145. The Department of Insurance Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 1405-40 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1405/1405-40)

Sec. 1405-40. Transfer of functions.

(a) On July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-37) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, all powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Insurance Compliance Division within the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission are transferred to the Department of Insurance. The personnel of the Insurance Compliance Division are transferred to the Department of Insurance. The status and rights of such personnel under the Personnel Code are not affected by the transfer. The rights of the employees and the State of Illinois and its agencies under the Personnel Code and applicable collective bargaining agreements or under any pension, retirement, or annuity plan are not affected by Public Act 102-37 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. All books, records, papers, documents, property (real and personal), contracts, causes of action, and pending business pertaining to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by Public Act 102-37 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly from the Insurance Compliance Division to the Department of Insurance, including, but not limited to, material in electronic or magnetic format and necessary computer hardware and software, are transferred to the Department of Insurance. The powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities relating to the Insurance Compliance Division transferred by Public Act 102-37 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are vested in the Department of Insurance.

(b) Whenever reports or notices are required to be made or given or papers or documents furnished or served by any person to or upon the Insurance Compliance Division in connection with any of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by Public Act 102-37 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Department of Insurance shall make, give, furnish, or serve them.

(c) Public Act 102-37 This amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly does not affect any act done, ratified, or canceled, any right occurring or established, or any action or proceeding had or commenced in an administrative, civil, or criminal cause by the Insurance Compliance Division before July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-37) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. Such actions or proceedings may be prosecuted and continued by the Department of Insurance.

(d) Any rules that relate to its powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Insurance Compliance Division and are in force on July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-37) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly become the rules of the Department of Insurance. Public Act 102-37 This amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly does not affect the legality of any such rules.

(e) Any proposed rules filed with the Secretary of State by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission that are pending in the rulemaking process on July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-37) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and pertain to the transferred powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities are deemed to have been filed by the Department of Insurance. As soon as practicable, the Department of Insurance shall revise and clarify the rules transferred to it under Public Act 102-37 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly to reflect the reorganization of powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities affected by Public Act 102-37 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, using the procedures for recodification of rules available under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that existing title, part, and section numbering for the affected rules may be retained. The Department of Insurance may propose and adopt under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act other rules of the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission pertaining to Public Act 102-37 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly that are administered by the Department of Insurance.

(Source: P.A. 102-37, eff. 7-1-21; revised 11-3-21.)

(20 ILCS 1405/1405-45)

Sec. 1405-45 1405-40. Transfer of the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan. Upon entry of an Order of Rehabilitation or Liquidation against the Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan in accordance with Article XIII of the Illinois Insurance Code, all powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan and the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Board under the Comprehensive Health Insurance Plan Act shall be transferred to and vested in the Director of Insurance as rehabilitator or liquidator as provided in the provisions of Public Act 102-159 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-159, eff. 7-23-21; revised 11-3-21.)

Section 150. The Department of Labor Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 1505-215 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1505/1505-215)

Sec. 1505-215. Bureau on Apprenticeship Programs and Clean Energy Jobs.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "clean energy sector" means solar energy, wind energy, energy efficiency, solar thermal, green hydrogen, geothermal, and electric vehicle industries and other renewable energy industries, industries achieving emission reductions, and related industries that manufacture, develop, build, maintain, or provide ancillary services to renewable energy resources or energy efficiency products or services, including the manufacture and installation of healthier building materials that contain fewer hazardous chemicals.

(b) There is created within the Department of Labor a Bureau on Apprenticeship Programs and Clean Energy Jobs. This Bureau shall work to increase minority participation in active apprentice programs in Illinois that are approved by the United States Department of Labor and in clean energy jobs in Illinois. The Bureau shall identify barriers to minorities gaining access to construction careers and careers in the clean energy sector and make recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly for policies to remove those barriers. The Department may hire staff to perform outreach in promoting diversity in active apprenticeship programs approved by the United States Department of Labor.

(c) The Bureau shall annually compile racial and gender workforce diversity information from contractors receiving State or other public funds and by labor unions with members working on projects receiving State or other public funds.

(d) The Bureau shall compile racial and gender workforce diversity information from certified transcripts of payroll reports filed in the preceding year pursuant to the Prevailing Wage Act for all clean energy sector construction projects. The Bureau shall work with the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Illinois Power Agency, the Illinois Commerce Commission, and other agencies, as necessary, to receive and share data and reporting on racial and gender workforce diversity, demographic data, and any other data necessary to achieve the goals of this Section.

(e) By April 15, 2022 and every April 15 thereafter, the Bureau shall publish and make available on the Department's website a report summarizing the racial and gender diversity of the workforce on all clean energy sector projects by county. The report shall use a consistent structure for information requests and presentation, with an easy-to-use table of contents, to enable comparable year-over-year solicitation and benchmarking of data. The development of the report structure shall be open to a public review and comment period. That report shall compare the race, ethnicity, and gender of the workers on covered clean energy sector projects to the general population of the county in which the project is located. The report shall also disaggregate such data to compare the race, ethnicity, and gender of workers employed by union and nonunion contractors and compare the race, ethnicity, and gender of workers who reside in Illinois and those who reside outside of Illinois. The report shall also include the race, ethnicity, and gender of the workers by prevailing wage classification.

(f) The Bureau shall present its annual report to the Energy Workforce Advisory Council in order to inform its program evaluations, recommendations, and objectives pursuant to Section 5-65 of the Energy Transition Act. The Bureau shall also present its annual report to the Illinois Power Agency in order to inform its ongoing equity and compliance efforts in the clean energy sector.

The Bureau and all entities subject to the requirements of subsection (d) shall hold an annual workshop open to the public in 2022 and every year thereafter on the state of racial and gender workforce diversity in the clean energy sector in order to collaboratively seek solutions to structural impediments to achieving diversity, equity, and inclusion goals, including testimony from each participating entity, subject matter experts, and advocates.

(g) The Bureau shall publish each annual report prepared and filed pursuant to subsection (d) on the Department of Labor's website for at least 5 years.

(Source: P.A. 101-170, eff. 1-1-20; 101-601, eff. 1-1-20; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-12-21.)

Section 155. The Illinois Lottery Law is amended by changing Section 21.8 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1605/21.8)

Sec. 21.8. Quality of Life scratch-off game.

(a) The Department shall offer a special instant scratch-off game with the title of "Quality of Life". The game shall commence on July 1, 2007 or as soon thereafter, in the discretion of the Director, as is reasonably practical, and shall be discontinued on December 31, 2025. The operation of the game is governed by this Act and by any rules adopted by the Department. The Department must consult with the Quality of Life Board, which is established under Section 2310-348 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, regarding the design and promotion of the game. If any provision of this Section is inconsistent with any other provision of this Act, then this Section governs.

(b) The Quality of Life Endowment Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The net revenue from the Quality of Life special instant scratch-off game must be deposited into the Fund for appropriation by the General Assembly solely to the Department of Public Health for the purpose of HIV/AIDS-prevention education and for making grants to public or private entities in Illinois for the purpose of funding organizations that serve the highest at-risk categories for contracting HIV or developing AIDS. Grants shall be targeted to serve at-risk populations in proportion to the distribution of recent reported Illinois HIV/AIDS cases among risk groups as reported by the Illinois Department of Public Health. The recipient organizations must be engaged in HIV/AIDS-prevention education and HIV/AIDS healthcare treatment. The Department must, before grants are awarded, provide copies of all grant applications to the Quality of Life Board, receive and review the Board's recommendations and comments, and consult with the Board regarding the grants. Organizational size will determine an organization's competitive slot in the "Request for Proposal" process. Organizations with an annual budget of $300,000 or less will compete with like size organizations for 50% of the Quality of Life annual fund. Organizations with an annual budget of $300,001 to $700,000 will compete with like organizations for 25% of the Quality of Life annual fund, and organizations with an annual budget of $700,001 and upward will compete with like organizations for 25% of the Quality of Life annual fund. The lottery may designate a percentage of proceeds for marketing purposes purpose. The grant funds may not be used for institutional, organizational, or community-based overhead costs, indirect costs, or levies.

Grants awarded from the Fund are intended to augment the current and future State funding for the prevention and treatment of HIV/AIDS and are not intended to replace that funding.

Moneys received for the purposes of this Section, including, without limitation, net revenue from the special instant scratch-off game and gifts, grants, and awards from any public or private entity, must be deposited into the Fund. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

For purposes of this subsection, "net revenue" means the total amount for which tickets have been sold less the sum of the amount paid out in prizes and the actual administrative expenses of the Department solely related to the Quality of Life game.

(c) During the time that tickets are sold for the Quality of Life game, the Department shall not unreasonably diminish the efforts devoted to marketing any other instant scratch-off lottery game.

(d) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement and administer the provisions of this Section in consultation with the Quality of Life Board.

(Source: P.A. 98-499, eff. 8-16-13; 99-791, eff. 8-12-16; revised 12-2-21.)

Section 160. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by renumbering Section 30 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2205/2205-31)

Sec. 2205-31 30. Health care telementoring.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall designate one or more health care telementoring entities based on an application to be developed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. Applicants shall demonstrate a record of expertise and demonstrated success in providing health care telementoring services. Approved applicants from Illinois shall be eligible for State funding in accordance with rules developed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. Funding shall be provided based on the number of physicians who are assisted by each approved health care telementoring entity and the hours of assistance provided to each physician.

(b) In this Section, "health care telementoring" means a program:

(1) based on interactive video technology that connects groups of community health care providers in urban and rural underserved areas with specialists in regular real-time collaborative sessions;

(2) designed around case-based learning and mentorship; and

(3) that helps local health care providers gain the expertise required to more effectively provide needed services.

"Health care telementoring" includes, but is not limited to, a program provided to improve services in a variety of areas, including, but not limited to, adolescent health, Hepatitis C, complex diabetes, geriatrics, mental illness, opioid use disorders, substance use disorders, maternity care, childhood adversity and trauma, pediatric ADHD, and other priorities identified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(Source: P.A. 102-512, eff. 1-1-22; revised 9-30-21.)

Section 165. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2310-223 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2310-431 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-223)

Sec. 2310-223. Maternal care.

(a) The Department shall establish a classification system for the following levels of maternal care:

(1) basic care: care of uncomplicated pregnancies with the ability to detect, stabilize, and initiate management of unanticipated maternal-fetal or neonatal problems that occur during the antepartum, intrapartum, or postpartum period until the patient can be transferred to a facility at which specialty maternal care is available;

(2) specialty care: basic care plus care of appropriate high-risk antepartum, intrapartum, or postpartum conditions, both directly admitted and transferred to another facility;

(3) subspecialty care: specialty care plus care of more complex maternal medical conditions, obstetric complications, and fetal conditions; and

(4) regional perinatal health care: subspecialty care plus on-site medical and surgical care of the most complex maternal conditions, critically ill pregnant women, and fetuses throughout antepartum, intrapartum, and postpartum care.

(b) The Department shall:

(1) introduce uniform designations for levels of maternal care that are complementary complimentary but distinct from levels of neonatal care;

(2) establish clear, uniform criteria for designation of maternal centers that are integrated with emergency response systems to help ensure that the appropriate personnel, physical space, equipment, and technology are available to achieve optimal outcomes, as well as to facilitate subsequent data collection regarding risk-appropriate care;

(3) require each health care facility to have a clear understanding of its capability to handle increasingly complex levels of maternal care, and to have a well-defined threshold for transferring women to health care facilities that offer a higher level of care; to ensure optimal care of all pregnant women, the Department shall require all birth centers, hospitals, and higher-level facilities to collaborate in order to develop and maintain maternal and neonatal transport plans and cooperative agreements capable of managing the health care needs of women who develop complications; the Department shall require that receiving hospitals openly accept transfers;

(4) require higher-level facilities to provide training for quality improvement initiatives, educational support, and severe morbidity and mortality case review for lower-level hospitals; the Department shall ensure that, in those regions that do not have a facility that qualifies as a regional perinatal health care facility, any specialty care facility in the region will provide the educational and consultation function;

(5) require facilities and regional systems to develop methods to track severe maternal morbidity and mortality to assess the efficacy of utilizing maternal levels of care;

(6) analyze data collected from all facilities and regional systems in order to inform future updates to the levels of maternal care;

(7) require follow-up interdisciplinary work groups to further explore the implementation needs that are necessary to adopt the proposed classification system for levels of maternal care in all facilities that provide maternal care;

(8) disseminate data and materials to raise public awareness about the importance of prenatal care and maternal health;

(9) engage the Illinois Chapter of the American Academy of Pediatrics in creating a quality improvement initiative to expand efforts of pediatricians conducting postpartum depression screening at well baby visits during the first year of life; and

(10) adopt rules in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to implement this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 101-447, eff. 8-23-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-1-21.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-431)

Sec. 2310-431. Healthy Illinois Survey.

(a) The General Assembly finds the following:

(1) The Coronavirus pandemic that struck in 2020 caused more illness and death in Black, Latinx, and other communities with people of color in Illinois.

(2) Many rural and other underserved communities in Illinois experienced higher rates of COVID-19 illness and death than higher-resourced communities.

(3) The structural racism and underlying health and social disparities in communities of color and other underserved communities that produced these COVID-19 disparities also produce disparities in chronic disease, access to care, and social determinants of health, such as overcrowded housing and prevalence of working in low-wage essential jobs.

(4) Traditional public health data collected by existing methods is insufficient to help State and local governments, health care partners, and communities understand local health concerns and social factors associated with health. Nor does the data provide adequate information to help identify policies and interventions that address health inequities.

(5) Comprehensive, relevant, and current public health data could be used to: identify health concerns for communities across Illinois; understand environmental, neighborhood, and social factors associated with health; and support the development, implementation, and progress of programs for public health interventions and addressing health inequities.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall administer an annual survey, which shall be named the Healthy Illinois Survey. The Healthy Illinois Survey shall:

(1) include interviews of a sample of State residents such that statistically reliable data for every county, zip code groupings within more highly populated counties and cities, suburban Cook County municipalities, and Chicago community areas can be developed, as well as statistically reliable data on racial, ethnic, gender, age, and other demographic groups of State residents important to inform health equity goals;

(2) be collected at the zip code level; and

(3) include questions on a range of topics designed to establish an initial baseline public health data set and annual updates, including:

(A) access to health services;

(B) civic engagement;

(C) childhood experiences;

(D) chronic health conditions;

(E) COVID-19;

(F) diet;

(G) financial security;

(H) food security;

(I) mental health;

(J) community conditions;

(K) physical activity;

(L) physical safety;

(M) substance abuse; and

(N) violence.

(c) In developing the Healthy Illinois Survey, the Department shall consult with local public health departments and stakeholders with expertise in health, mental health, nutrition, physical activity, violence prevention, safety, tobacco and drug use, and emergency preparedness with the goal of developing a comprehensive survey that will assist the State and other partners in developing the data to measure public health and health equity.

(d) The Department shall provide the results of the Healthy Illinois Survey in forms useful to cities, communities, local health departments, hospitals, and other potential users, including annually publishing on its website data at the most granular geographic and demographic levels possible while protecting identifying information. The Department shall produce periodic special reports and analyses relevant to ongoing and emerging health and social issues in communities and the State. The Department shall use this data to inform the development and monitoring of its State Health Assessment. The Department shall provide the full relevant jurisdictional data set to local health departments for their local use and analysis each year.

(e) The identity, or any group of facts that tends to lead to the identity, of any person whose condition or treatment is submitted to the Healthy Illinois Survey is confidential and shall not be open to public inspection or dissemination and is exempt from disclosure under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act. Information for specific research purposes may be released in accordance with procedures established by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 102-483, eff. 1-1-22.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-432)

Sec. 2310-432 2310-431. Medical examiner offices; medical facilities. The Department shall ensure that medical examiner offices are included as part of medical facilities for the purposes of complying with and implementing Sections 212(e) and 214(l) of the federal Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1182(e) and 8 U.S.C. 1184(l)) and 22 CFR 62 regarding the federal Exchange Visitor Program.

(Source: P.A. 102-488, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-3-21.)

Section 170. The Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2605-35, 2605-40, 2605-50, 2605-410, and 2605-605 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 2601-51 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-35) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-3)

Sec. 2605-35. Division of Criminal Investigation.

(a) The Division of Criminal Investigation shall exercise the following functions and those in Section 2605-30:

(1) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested by law in the Illinois State Police by the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975, including those set forth in Section 2605-215.

(2) Investigate the origins, activities, personnel, and incidents of crime and enforce the criminal laws of this State related thereto.

(3) Enforce all laws regulating the production, sale, prescribing, manufacturing, administering, transporting, having in possession, dispensing, delivering, distributing, or use of controlled substances and cannabis.

(4) Cooperate with the police of cities, villages, and incorporated towns and with the police officers of any county in enforcing the laws of the State and in making arrests and recovering property.

(5) Apprehend and deliver up any person charged in this State or any other state with treason or a felony or other crime who has fled from justice and is found in this State.

(6) Investigate recipients and providers under the Illinois Public Aid Code and any personnel involved in the administration of the Code who are suspected of any violation of the Code pertaining to fraud in the administration, receipt, or provision of assistance and pertaining to any violation of criminal law; and exercise the functions required under Section 2605-220 in the conduct of those investigations.

(7) Conduct other investigations as provided by law.

(8) Investigate public corruption..

(9) Exercise other duties that may be assigned by the Director in order to fulfill the responsibilities and achieve the purposes of the Illinois State Police, which may include the coordination of gang, terrorist, and organized crime prevention, control activities, and assisting local law enforcement in their crime control activities.

(b) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-2-21.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-40) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-4)

Sec. 2605-40. Division of Forensic Services. The Division of Forensic Services shall exercise the following functions:

(1) Provide crime scene services and traffic crash reconstruction..

(2) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested by law in the Illinois State Police by Section 2605-300 of this Law.

(3) Provide assistance to local law enforcement agencies through training, management, and consultant services.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Exercise other duties that may be assigned by the Director in order to fulfill the responsibilities and achieve the purposes of the Illinois State Police.

(6) Establish and operate a forensic science laboratory system, including a forensic toxicological laboratory service, for the purpose of testing specimens submitted by coroners and other law enforcement officers in their efforts to determine whether alcohol, drugs, or poisonous or other toxic substances have been involved in deaths, accidents, or illness. Forensic toxicological laboratories shall be established in Springfield, Chicago, and elsewhere in the State as needed.

(6.5) Establish administrative rules in order to set forth standardized requirements for the disclosure of toxicology results and other relevant documents related to a toxicological analysis. These administrative rules are to be adopted to produce uniform and sufficient information to allow a proper, well-informed determination of the admissibility of toxicology evidence and to ensure that this evidence is presented competently. These administrative rules are designed to provide a minimum standard for compliance of toxicology evidence and are not intended to limit the production and discovery of material information.

(7) Subject to specific appropriations made for these purposes, establish and coordinate a system for providing accurate and expedited forensic science and other investigative and laboratory services to local law enforcement agencies and local State's Attorneys in aid of the investigation and trial of capital cases.

(Source: P.A. 101-378, eff. 1-1-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-2-21.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-50) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-6)

Sec. 2605-50. Division of Internal Investigation. The Division of Internal Investigation shall have jurisdiction and initiate internal Illinois State Police investigations and, at the direction of the Governor, investigate complaints and initiate investigations of official misconduct by State officers and all State employees. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, the Division shall serve as the investigative body for the Illinois State Police for purposes of compliance with the provisions of Sections 12.6 and 12.7 of the Illinois State Police this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-4-21.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-51)

Sec. 2605-51. Division of the Academy and Training.

(a) The Division of the Academy and Training shall exercise, but not be limited to, the following functions:

(1) Oversee and operate the Illinois State Police Training Academy.

(2) Train and prepare new officers for a career in law enforcement, with innovative, quality training and educational practices.

(3) Offer continuing training and educational programs for Illinois State Police employees.

(4) Oversee the Illinois State Police's recruitment initiatives.

(5) Oversee and operate the Illinois State Police's quartermaster.

(6) Duties assigned to the Illinois State Police in Article 5, Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code concerning testing and training officers on the detection of impaired driving.

(7) Duties assigned to the Illinois State Police in Article 108B of the Code of Criminal Procedure.

(b) The Division of the Academy and Training shall exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in the former Division of State Troopers by Section 17 of the Illinois State Police Act.

(c) Specialized training.

(1) Training; cultural diversity. The Division of the Academy and Training shall provide training and continuing education to State police officers concerning cultural diversity, including sensitivity toward racial and ethnic differences. This training and continuing education shall include, but not be limited to, an emphasis on the fact that the primary purpose of enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code is safety and equal and uniform enforcement under the law.

(2) Training; death and homicide investigations. The Division of the Academy and Training shall provide training in death and homicide investigation for State police officers. Only State police officers who successfully complete the training may be assigned as lead investigators in death and homicide investigations. Satisfactory completion of the training shall be evidenced by a certificate issued to the officer by the Division of the Academy and Training. The Director shall develop a process for waiver applications for officers whose prior training and experience as homicide investigators may qualify them for a waiver. The Director may issue a waiver, at his or her discretion, based solely on the prior training and experience of an officer as a homicide investigator.

(3) Training; police dog training standards. All police dogs used by the Illinois State Police for drug enforcement purposes pursuant to the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall be trained by programs that meet the certification requirements set by the Director or the Director's designee. Satisfactory completion of the training shall be evidenced by a certificate issued by the Division of the Academy and Training.

(4) Training; post-traumatic stress disorder. The Division of the Academy and Training shall conduct or approve a training program in post-traumatic stress disorder for State police officers. The purpose of that training shall be to equip State police officers to identify the symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder and to respond appropriately to individuals exhibiting those symptoms.

(5) Training; opioid antagonists. The Division of the Academy and Training shall conduct or approve a training program for State police officers in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act that is in accordance with that Section. As used in this Section, "State police officers" includes full-time or part-time State police officers, investigators, and any other employee of the Illinois State Police exercising the powers of a peace officer.

(6) Training; sexual assault and sexual abuse.

(A) Every 3 years, the Division of the Academy and Training shall present in-service training on sexual assault and sexual abuse response and report writing training requirements, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) recognizing the symptoms of trauma;

(ii) understanding the role trauma has played in a victim's life;

(iii) responding to the needs and concerns of a victim;

(iv) delivering services in a compassionate, sensitive, and nonjudgmental manner;

(v) interviewing techniques in accordance with the curriculum standards in this paragraph (6);

(vi) understanding cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse; and

(vii) report writing techniques in accordance with the curriculum standards in this paragraph (6).

(B) This training must also be presented in all full and part-time basic law enforcement academies.

(C) Instructors providing this training shall have successfully completed training on evidence-based, trauma-informed, victim-centered responses to cases of sexual assault and sexual abuse and have experience responding to sexual assault and sexual abuse cases.

(D) The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules, in consultation with the Office of the Attorney General and the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, to determine the specific training requirements for these courses, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) evidence-based curriculum standards for report writing and immediate response to sexual assault and sexual abuse, including trauma-informed, victim-centered interview techniques, which have been demonstrated to minimize retraumatization, for all State police officers; and

(ii) evidence-based curriculum standards for trauma-informed, victim-centered investigation and interviewing techniques, which have been demonstrated to minimize retraumatization, for cases of sexual assault and sexual abuse for all State police officers who conduct sexual assault and sexual abuse investigations.

(7) Training; human trafficking. The Division of the Academy and Training shall conduct or approve a training program in the detection and investigation of all forms of human trafficking, including, but not limited to, involuntary servitude under subsection (b) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor under subsection (c) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and trafficking in persons under subsection (d) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012. This program shall be made available to all cadets and State police officers.

(8) Training; hate crimes. The Division of the Academy and Training shall provide training for State police officers in identifying, responding to, and reporting all hate crimes.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-51.1)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 1, 2026)

Sec. 2605-51.1 2605-51. Commission on Implementing the Firearms Restraining Order Act.

(a) There is created the Commission on Implementing the Firearms Restraining Order Act composed of at least 12 members to advise on the strategies of education and implementation of the Firearms Restraining Order Act. The Commission shall be appointed by the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designee and shall include a liaison or representative nominated from the following:

(1) the Office of the Attorney General, appointed by the Attorney General;

(2) the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designee;

(3) at least 3 State's Attorneys, nominated by the Director of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor;

(4) at least 2 municipal police department representatives, nominated by the Illinois Association of Chiefs of Police;

(5) an Illinois sheriff, nominated by the Illinois Sheriffs' Association;

(6) the Director of Public Health or his or her designee;

(7) the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, nominated by the Executive Director of the Board;

(8) a representative from a public defender's office, nominated by the State Appellate Defender;

(9) a circuit court judge, nominated by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court;

(10) a prosecutor with experience managing or directing a program in another state where the implementation of that state's extreme risk protection order law has achieved high rates of petition filings nominated by the National District Attorneys Association; and

(11) an expert from law enforcement who has experience managing or directing a program in another state where the implementation of that state's extreme risk protection order law has achieved high rates of petition filings nominated by the Director of the Illinois State Police.

(b) The Commission shall be chaired by the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designee. The Commission shall meet, either virtually or in person, to discuss the implementation of the Firearms Restraining Order Act as determined by the Commission while the strategies are being established.

(c) The members of the Commission shall serve without compensation and shall serve 3-year terms.

(d) An annual report shall be submitted to the General Assembly by the Commission that may include summary information about firearms restraining order use by county, challenges to Firearms Restraining Order Act implementation, and recommendations for increasing and improving implementation.

(e) The Commission shall develop a model policy with an overall framework for the timely relinquishment of firearms whenever a firearms restraining order is issued. The model policy shall be finalized within the first 4 months of convening. In formulating the model policy, the Commission shall consult counties in Illinois and other states with extreme risk protection order laws which have achieved a high rate of petition filings. Once approved, the Illinois State Police shall work with their local law enforcement agencies within their county to design a comprehensive strategy for the timely relinquishment of firearms, using the model policy as an overall framework. Each individual agency may make small modifications as needed to the model policy and must approve and adopt a policy that aligns with the model policy. The Illinois State Police shall convene local police chiefs and sheriffs within their county as needed to discuss the relinquishment of firearms.

(f) The Commission shall be dissolved June 1, 2025 (3 years after the effective date of Public Act 102-345) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(g) This Section is repealed June 1, 2026 (4 years after the effective date of Public Act 102-345) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-345, eff. 6-1-22; revised 11-3-21.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-410)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 2605-410. Over Dimensional Load Police Escort Fund. To charge, collect, and receive fees or moneys as described in Section 15-312 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. All fees received by the Illinois State Police under Section 15-312 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall be deposited into the Over Dimensional Load Police Escort Fund, a special fund that is created in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation, the money in the Over Dimensional Load Police Escort Fund shall be used by the Illinois State Police for its expenses in providing police escorts and commercial vehicle enforcement activities. This Fund is dissolved upon the transfer of the remaining balance from the Over Dimensional Load Police Escort Fund to the State Police Operations Assistance Fund as provided under subsection (a-5) of Section 6z-82 of the State Finance Act. This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-4-21.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-605)

Sec. 2605-605. Violent Crime Intelligence Task Force. The Director of the Illinois State Police shall establish a statewide multi-jurisdictional Violent Crime Intelligence Task Force led by the Illinois State Police dedicated to combating gun violence, gun-trafficking, and other violent crime with the primary mission of preservation of life and reducing the occurrence and the fear of crime. The objectives of the Task Force shall include, but not be limited to, reducing and preventing illegal possession and use of firearms, firearm-related homicides, and other violent crimes, and solving firearm-related crimes.

(1) The Task Force may develop and acquire information, training, tools, and resources necessary to implement a data-driven approach to policing, with an emphasis on intelligence development.

(2) The Task Force may utilize information sharing, partnerships, crime analysis, and evidence-based practices to assist in the reduction of firearm-related shootings, homicides, and gun-trafficking, including, but not limited to, ballistic data, eTrace data, DNA evidence, latent fingerprints, firearm training data, and National Integrated Ballistic Information Network (NIBIN) data. The Task Force may design a model crime gun intelligence strategy which may include, but is not limited to, comprehensive collection and documentation of all ballistic evidence, timely transfer of NIBIN and eTrace leads to an intelligence center, which may include the Division of Criminal Investigation of the Illinois State Police, timely dissemination of intelligence to investigators, investigative follow-up, and coordinated prosecution.

(3) The Task Force may recognize and utilize best practices of community policing and may develop potential partnerships with faith-based and community organizations to achieve its goals.

(4) The Task Force may identify and utilize best practices in drug-diversion programs and other community-based services to redirect low-level offenders.

(5) The Task Force may assist in violence suppression strategies including, but not limited to, details in identified locations that have shown to be the most prone to gun violence and violent crime, focused deterrence against violent gangs and groups considered responsible for the violence in communities, and other intelligence driven methods deemed necessary to interrupt cycles of violence or prevent retaliation.

(6) In consultation with the Chief Procurement Officer, the Illinois State Police may obtain contracts for software, commodities, resources, and equipment to assist the Task Force with achieving this Act. Any contracts necessary to support the delivery of necessary software, commodities, resources, and equipment are not subject to the Illinois Procurement Code, except for Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of that Code, provided that the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(7) The Task Force shall conduct enforcement operations against persons whose Firearm Owner's Identification Cards have been revoked or suspended and persons who fail to comply with the requirements of Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, prioritizing individuals presenting a clear and present danger to themselves or to others under paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of Section 8.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(8) The Task Force shall collaborate with local law enforcement agencies to enforce provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, the Firearm Dealer License Certification Act, and Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(9) To implement this Section, the Director of the Illinois State Police may establish intergovernmental agreements with law enforcement agencies in accordance with the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act.

(10) Law enforcement agencies that participate in activities described in paragraphs (7) through (9) may apply to the Illinois State Police for grants from the State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-4-21.)

Section 175. The Illinois State Police Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 8, 9, 12.6, 12.7, 14, and 46 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2610/3) (from Ch. 121, par. 307.3)

Sec. 3. The Governor shall appoint, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, an Illinois State Police Merit Board, hereinafter called the Board, consisting of 7 members to hold office. The Governor shall appoint new board members within 30 days for the vacancies created under Public Act 101-652 this amendatory Act. Board members shall be appointed to four-year terms. No member shall be appointed to more than 2 terms. In making the appointments, the Governor shall make a good faith effort to appoint members reflecting the geographic, ethnic ethic, and cultural diversity of this State. In making the appointments, the Governor should also consider appointing: persons with professional backgrounds, possessing legal, management, personnel, or labor experience; at least one member with at least 10 years of experience as a licensed physician or clinical psychologist with expertise in mental health; and at least one member affiliated with an organization committed commitment to social and economic rights and to eliminating discrimination.. No more than 4 members of the Board shall be affiliated with the same political party. If the Senate is not in session at the time initial appointments are made pursuant to this Section section, the Governor shall make temporary appointments as in the case of a vacancy. In order to avoid actual conflicts of interest, or the appearance of conflicts of interest, no board member shall be a retired or former employee of the Illinois State Police. When a Board member may have an actual, perceived, or potential conflict of interest that could prevent the Board member from making a fair and impartial decision on a complaint or formal complaint against an Illinois State Police officer, the Board member shall recuse himself or herself; or, if If the Board member fails to recuse himself or herself, then the Board may, by a simple majority, vote to recuse the Board member.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-22-21.)

(20 ILCS 2610/8) (from Ch. 121, par. 307.8)

Sec. 8. Board jurisdiction.

(a) The Board shall exercise jurisdiction over the certification for appointment and promotion, and over the discipline, removal, demotion, and suspension of Illinois State Police officers. The Board and the Illinois State Police should also ensure Illinois State Police cadets and officers represent the utmost integrity and professionalism and represent the geographic, ethnic, and cultural diversity of this State. The Board shall also exercise jurisdiction to certify and terminate Illinois State Police officers Officers in compliance with certification standards consistent with Sections 9, 11.5, and 12.6 of this Act. Pursuant to recognized merit principles of public employment, the Board shall formulate, adopt, and put into effect rules, regulations, and procedures for its operation and the transaction of its business. The Board shall establish a classification of ranks of persons subject to its jurisdiction and shall set standards and qualifications for each rank. Each Illinois State Police officer appointed by the Director shall be classified as a State Police officer as follows: trooper, sergeant, master sergeant, lieutenant, captain, major, or Special Agent.

(b) The Board shall publish all standards and qualifications for each rank, including Cadet, on its website. This shall include, but not be limited to, all physical fitness, medical, visual, and hearing standards. The Illinois State Police shall cooperate with the Board by providing any necessary information to complete this requirement.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-4-21.)

(20 ILCS 2610/9) (from Ch. 121, par. 307.9)

Sec. 9. Appointment; qualifications.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the appointment of Illinois State Police officers shall be made from those applicants who have been certified by the Board as being qualified for appointment. All persons so appointed shall, at the time of their appointment, be not less than 21 years of age, or 20 years of age and have successfully completed an associate's degree or 60 credit hours at an accredited college or university. Any person appointed subsequent to successful completion of an associate's degree or 60 credit hours at an accredited college or university shall not have power of arrest, nor shall he or she be permitted to carry firearms, until he or she reaches 21 years of age. In addition, all persons so certified for appointment shall be of sound mind and body, be of good moral character, be citizens of the United States, have no criminal records, possess such prerequisites of training, education, and experience as the Board may from time to time prescribe so long as persons who have an associate's degree or 60 credit hours at an accredited college or university are not disqualified, and shall be required to pass successfully such mental and physical tests and examinations as may be prescribed by the Board. All persons who meet one of the following requirements are deemed to have met the collegiate educational requirements:

(i) have been honorably discharged and who have been awarded a Southwest Asia Service Medal, Kosovo Campaign Medal, Korean Defense Service Medal, Afghanistan Campaign Medal, Iraq Campaign Medal, or Global War on Terrorism Expeditionary Medal by the United States Armed Forces;

(ii) are active members of the Illinois National Guard or a reserve component of the United States Armed Forces and who have been awarded a Southwest Asia Service Medal, Kosovo Campaign Medal, Korean Defense Service Medal, Afghanistan Campaign Medal, Iraq Campaign Medal, or Global War on Terrorism Expeditionary Medal as a result of honorable service during deployment on active duty;

(iii) have been honorably discharged who served in a combat mission by proof of hostile fire pay or imminent danger pay during deployment on active duty; or

(iv) have at least 3 years of full active and continuous military duty and received an honorable discharge before hiring.

Preference shall be given in such appointments to persons who have honorably served in the military or naval services of the United States. All appointees shall serve a probationary period of 12 months from the date of appointment and during that period may be discharged at the will of the Director. However, the Director may in his or her sole discretion extend the probationary period of an officer up to an additional 6 months when to do so is deemed in the best interest of the Illinois State Police. Nothing in this subsection (a) limits the Board's ability to prescribe education prerequisites or requirements to certify Illinois State Police officers for promotion as provided in Section 10 of this Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act, after July 1, 1977 and before July 1, 1980, the Director of State Police may appoint and promote not more than 20 persons having special qualifications as special agents as he or she deems necessary to carry out the Department's objectives. Any such appointment or promotion shall be ratified by the Board.

(c) During the 90 days following March 31, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-9) this amendatory Act of 1995, the Director of State Police may appoint up to 25 persons as State Police officers. These appointments shall be made in accordance with the requirements of this subsection (c) and any additional criteria that may be established by the Director, but are not subject to any other requirements of this Act. The Director may specify the initial rank for each person appointed under this subsection.

All appointments under this subsection (c) shall be made from personnel certified by the Board. A person certified by the Board and appointed by the Director under this subsection must have been employed by the Illinois Commerce Commission on November 30, 1994 in a job title subject to the Personnel Code and in a position for which the person was eligible to earn "eligible creditable service" as a "noncovered employee", as those terms are defined in Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code.

Persons appointed under this subsection (c) shall thereafter be subject to the same requirements and procedures as other State police officers. A person appointed under this subsection must serve a probationary period of 12 months from the date of appointment, during which he or she may be discharged at the will of the Director.

This subsection (c) does not affect or limit the Director's authority to appoint other State Police officers under subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) During the 180 days following January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, the Director of the Illinois State Police may appoint current Illinois State Police employees Employees serving in law enforcement officer positions previously within Central Management Services as State Police officers Officers. These appointments shall be made in accordance with the requirements of this subsection (d) and any institutional criteria that may be established by the Director, but are not subject to any other requirements of this Act. All appointments under this subsection (d) shall be made from personnel certified by the Board. A person certified by the Board and appointed by the Director under this subsection must have been employed by the a State state agency, board, or commission on January 1, 2021, in a job title subject to the Personnel Code and in a position for which the person was eligible to earn "eligible creditable service" as a "noncovered employee", as those terms are defined in Article 14 of the Illinois Pension Code. Persons appointed under this subsection (d) shall thereafter be subject to the same requirements, and subject to the same contractual benefits and obligations, as other State police officers. This subsection (d) does not affect or limit the Director's authority to appoint other State Police officers under subsection (a) of this Section.

(e) The Merit Board shall review Illinois State Police Cadet applicants. The Illinois State Police may provide background check and investigation material to the Board for its their review 10 pursuant to this Section section. The Board shall approve and ensure that no cadet applicant is certified unless the applicant is a person of good character and has not been convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty to, a felony offense, any of the misdemeanors specified in this Section or if committed in any other state would be an offense similar to Section 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-30, 12-2, 12- 3.2, 12-3.5, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 26.5-1, 26.5-2, 26.5-3, 28-3, 29-1, any misdemeanor in violation of any Section section of Part E of Title III of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, 32-4a, or 32-7 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, to Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act, or any felony or misdemeanor in violation of federal law or the law of any state that is the equivalent of any of the offenses specified therein. The Officer Professional Conduct Misconduct Database, provided for in Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act, shall be searched as part of this process. For purposes of this Section, "convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty" regardless of whether the adjudication of guilt or sentence is withheld or not entered thereon. This includes sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, or any similar disposition provided for by law.

(f) The Board shall by rule establish an application fee waiver program for any person who meets one or more of the following criteria:

(1) his or her available personal income is 200% or less of the current poverty level; or

(2) he or she is, in the discretion of the Board, unable to proceed in an action with payment of application fee and payment of that fee would result in substantial hardship to the person or the person's family.

(Source: P.A. 101-374, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff 8-20-21; revised 11-22-21.)

(20 ILCS 2610/12.6)

Sec. 12.6. Automatic termination of Illinois State Police officers. The Board shall terminate a State state police officer convicted of a felony offense under the laws of this State or any other state which if committed in this State would be punishable as a felony. The Board must also terminate Illinois State Police officers who were convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty to, on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, any misdemeanor specified in this Section or if committed in any other state would be an offense similar to Section 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9.1, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-30, 12-2, 12-3.2, 12-3.5, 16-1, 17-1, 17-2, 26.5-1, 26.5-2, 26.5-3, 28-3, 29-1, any misdemeanor in violation of any Section section of Part E of Title III of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, 32-4a, or 32-7 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (a) of Section 17-32 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, to Section 5 or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control Act, or any felony or misdemeanor in violation of federal law or the law of any state that is the equivalent of any of the offenses specified therein. The Illinois State Police Merit Board shall report terminations under this Section to the Officer Professional Conduct Misconduct Database, provided in Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act. For purposes of this Section, section "convicted of, or entered a plea of guilty" regardless of whether the adjudication of guilt or sentence is withheld or not entered thereon. This includes sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, or any similar disposition provided for by law.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-1-21.)

(20 ILCS 2610/12.7)

Sec. 12.7. Discretionary termination of Illinois State Police officers.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this Section 12.7 6.3:

"Duty to intervene" means an obligation to intervene to prevent harm from occurring that arises when an officer is present and has reason to know:

(1) that excessive force is being used; or

(2) that any constitutional violation has been committed by a law enforcement official; and the officer has a realistic opportunity to intervene.

This duty applies equally to supervisory and nonsupervisory officers. If aid is required, the officer shall not, when reasonable to administer aid, knowingly and willingly refuse to render aid as defined by State or federal law. An officer does not violate this duty if the failure to render aid is due to circumstances such as lack of appropriate specialized training, lack of resources or equipment, or both, or if it is unsafe or impracticable to render aid.

"Excessive use of force" means using force in violation of State or federal law.

"False statement" means:

(1) any knowingly false statement provided on a form or report;

(2) that the writer does not believe to be true; and

(3) that the writer includes to mislead a public servant in performing that public servant's official functions.

"Perjury" has the meaning as defined under Sections 32-2 and 32-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Tampers with or fabricates evidence" means if a law enforcement officer:

(1) has reason to believe that an official proceeding is pending or may be instituted; and

(2) alters, destroys, conceals, or removes any record, document, data, video or thing to impair its validity or availability in the proceeding.

(b) Discretionary termination conduct. The Board may terminate an Illinois State Police officer upon a determination by the Board that the Illinois State Police officer has:

(1) committed an act that would constitute a felony or misdemeanor which could serve as basis for automatic decertification, whether or not the law enforcement officer was criminally prosecuted, and whether or not the law enforcement officer's employment was terminated;

(2) exercised excessive use of force;

(3) failed to comply with the officer's duty to intervene, including through acts or omission;

(4) tampered with a dash camera or body-worn camera or data recorded by a dash camera or body-worn camera or directed another to tamper with or turn off a dash camera or body-worn camera or data recorded by a dash camera or body-worn camera for the purpose of concealing, destroying or altering potential evidence;

(5) engaged in the following conduct relating to the reporting, investigation, or prosecution of a crime: committed perjury, made a false statement, or knowingly tampered with or fabricated evidence;

(6) engaged in any unprofessional, unethical, deceptive, or deleterious conduct or practice harmful to the public; such conduct or practice need not have resulted in actual injury to any person. As used in this paragraph, the term "unprofessional conduct" shall include any departure from, or failure to conform to, the minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing practice of an officer.

(c) (b) If an officer enters a plea of guilty, nolo contendere, stipulates to the facts or is found guilty of a violation of any law, or if there is any other Board or judicial determination that will support any punitive measure taken against the officer, such action by the officer or judicial entity may be considered for the purposes of this Section. Termination under this Section shall be by clear and convincing evidence. If the Board votes to terminate, the Board shall put its decision in writing, setting forth the specific reasons for its decision. Final decisions under this Section are reviewable under the Administrative Review Law.

(d) (c) The Illinois State Police Merit Board shall report all terminations under this Section to the Officer Professional Conduct Misconduct Database, provided in Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act.

(e) (d) Nothing in this Act shall require an Illinois State Police officer to waive any applicable constitutional rights.

(f) (e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the Merit Board from administering discipline up to and including termination for violations of Illinois State Police policies and procedures pursuant to other Sections sections of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-1-21.)

(20 ILCS 2610/14) (from Ch. 121, par. 307.14)

Sec. 14. Except as is otherwise provided in this Act, no Illinois State Police officer shall be removed, demoted, or suspended except for cause, upon written charges filed with the Board by the Director and a hearing before the Board thereon upon not less than 10 days' notice at a place to be designated by the chairman thereof. At such hearing, the accused shall be afforded full opportunity to be heard in his or her own defense and to produce proof in his or her defense. It shall not be a requirement of a person filing a complaint against a State Police officer Officer to have a complaint supported by a sworn affidavit or any other legal documentation. This ban on an affidavit requirement shall apply to any collective bargaining agreements entered after the effective date of this provision.

Before any such officer may be interrogated or examined by or before the Board, or by an Illinois State Police agent or investigator specifically assigned to conduct an internal investigation, the results of which hearing, interrogation, or examination may be the basis for filing charges seeking his or her suspension for more than 15 days or his or her removal or discharge, he or she shall be advised in writing as to what specific improper or illegal act he or she is alleged to have committed; he or she shall be advised in writing that his or her admissions made in the course of the hearing, interrogation, or examination may be used as the basis for charges seeking his or her suspension, removal, or discharge; and he or she shall be advised in writing that he or she has a right to counsel of his or her choosing, who may be present to advise him or her at any hearing, interrogation, or examination. A complete record of any hearing, interrogation, or examination shall be made, and a complete transcript or electronic recording thereof shall be made available to such officer without charge and without delay.

The Board shall have the power to secure by its subpoena both the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books and papers in support of the charges and for the defense. Each member of the Board or a designated hearing officer shall have the power to administer oaths or affirmations. If the charges against an accused are established by a preponderance of evidence, the Board shall make a finding of guilty and order either removal, demotion, suspension for a period of not more than 180 days, or such other disciplinary punishment as may be prescribed by the rules and regulations of the Board which, in the opinion of the members thereof, the offense merits. Thereupon the Director shall direct such removal or other punishment as ordered by the Board and if the accused refuses to abide by any such disciplinary order, the Director shall remove him or her forthwith.

If the accused is found not guilty or has served a period of suspension greater than prescribed by the Board, the Board shall order that the officer receive compensation for the period involved. The award of compensation shall include interest at the rate of 7% per annum.

The Board may include in its order appropriate sanctions based upon the Board's rules and regulations. If the Board finds that a party has made allegations or denials without reasonable cause or has engaged in frivolous litigation for the purpose of delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation, it may order that party to pay the other party's reasonable expenses, including costs and reasonable attorney's fees. The State of Illinois and the Illinois State Police shall be subject to these sanctions in the same manner as other parties.

In case of the neglect or refusal of any person to obey a subpoena issued by the Board, any circuit court, upon application of any member of the Board, may order such person to appear before the Board and give testimony or produce evidence, and any failure to obey such order is punishable by the court as a contempt thereof.

The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and all amendments and modifications thereof, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of any order of the Board rendered pursuant to the provisions of this Section.

Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, a policy making officer, as defined in the Employee Rights Violation Act, of the Illinois State Police shall be discharged from the Illinois State Police as provided in the Employee Rights Violation Act, enacted by the 85th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-4-21.)

(20 ILCS 2610/46)

Sec. 46. Officer Professional Conduct Database; reporting, transparency.

(a) The Illinois State Police Merit Board shall be responsible for reporting all required information contained in the Officer Professional Conduct Misconduct Database, provided in Section 9.2 of the Illinois Police Training Act.

(b) Before the Illinois State Police Merit Board certifies any Illinois State Police Cadet the Board shall conduct a search of all Illinois State Police Cadet applicants in the Officer Professional Conduct Database.

(c) The database, documents, materials, or other information in the possession or control of the Board that are obtained by or disclosed to the Board pursuant to this subsection shall be confidential by law and privileged, shall not be subject to subpoena, and shall not be subject to discovery or admissible in evidence in any private civil action. However, the Board is authorized to use such documents, materials, or other information in furtherance of any regulatory or legal action brought as part of the Board's official duties. Unless otherwise required by law, the Board shall not disclose the database or make such documents, materials, or other information public without the prior written consent of the governmental agency and the law enforcement officer. The Board nor any person who received documents, materials or other information shared pursuant to this subsection shall be required to testify in any private civil action concerning the database or any confidential documents, materials, or information subject to this subsection.

Nothing in this Section shall exempt a governmental agency from disclosing public records in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-1-21.)

Section 180. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement, sealing, and immediate sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the following Sections of the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense, Section 5-1-2. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge, Section 5-1-3. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court, Section 5-1-6. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant, Section 5-1-7. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony, Section 5-1-9. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment, Section 5-1-10. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment, Section 5-1-12. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor, Section 5-1-14. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense, Section 5-1-15. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole, Section 5-1-16. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense, Section 5-1-17. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation, Section 5-1-18. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence, Section 5-1-19. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision, Section 5-1-21. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim, Section 5-1-22. (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by Section 5-1-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(G-5) "Minor Cannabis Offense" means a violation of Section 4 or 5 of the Cannabis Control Act concerning not more than 30 grams of any substance containing cannabis, provided the violation did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act and is not associated with an arrest, conviction or other disposition for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes, but is not limited to, the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section. A sentence is terminated notwithstanding any outstanding financial legal obligation.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(2.5) Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the law enforcement agency issuing the citation shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the law enforcement records of a person found to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the law enforcement agency's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for that offense. The law enforcement agency shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and to confirm the automatic expungement by the law enforcement agency issuing the citation. Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the clerk of the circuit court shall expunge, upon order of the court, or in the absence of a court order on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the court records of a person found in the circuit court to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the clerk's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for any of those offenses.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 and a misdemeanor violation of Section 11-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) Class A misdemeanors or felony offenses under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) (blank).

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(1.5) When a petitioner seeks to have a record of arrest expunged under this Section, and the offender has been convicted of a criminal offense, the State's Attorney may object to the expungement on the grounds that the records contain specific relevant information aside from the mere fact of the arrest.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Illinois State Police Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Illinois State Police Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Illinois Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Illinois Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Illinois Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults. Subsection (g) of this Section provides for immediate sealing of certain records.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions unless otherwise excluded by subsection (a) paragraph (3) of this Section.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)). Convictions requiring public registration under the Arsonist Registration Act, the Sex Offender Registration Act, or the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act may not be sealed until the petitioner is no longer required to register under that relevant Act.

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, except no fee shall be required if the petitioner has obtained a court order waiving fees under Supreme Court Rule 298 or it is otherwise waived.

(1.5) County fee waiver pilot program. From August 9, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-306) through December 31, 2020, in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, no fee shall be required to be paid by a petitioner if the records sought to be expunged or sealed were arrests resulting in release without charging or arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B). The provisions of this paragraph (1.5), other than this sentence, are inoperative on and after January 1, 2022.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Illinois Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Illinois Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(C) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not deny a petition for sealing under this Section because the petitioner has not satisfied an outstanding legal financial obligation established, imposed, or originated by a court, law enforcement agency, or a municipal, State, county, or other unit of local government, including, but not limited to, any cost, assessment, fine, or fee. An outstanding legal financial obligation does not include any court ordered restitution to a victim under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the restitution has been converted to a civil judgment. Nothing in this subparagraph (C) waives, rescinds, or abrogates a legal financial obligation or otherwise eliminates or affects the right of the holder of any financial obligation to pursue collection under applicable federal, State, or local law.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Illinois State Police Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Illinois State Police Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to subsection (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Illinois State Police Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Illinois State Police Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to subsection (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Illinois State Police Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Illinois State Police Department may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Illinois State Police Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Illinois State Police Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Illinois State Police Department may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Illinois State Police Department, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Illinois State Police Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Illinois State Police Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Illinois State Police Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Illinois State Police Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Illinois State Police Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(E) Upon motion, the court may order that a sealed judgment or other court record necessary to demonstrate the amount of any legal financial obligation due and owing be made available for the limited purpose of collecting any legal financial obligations owed by the petitioner that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceeding for which those records have been sealed. The records made available under this subparagraph (E) shall not be entered into the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act and shall be immediately re-impounded upon the collection of the outstanding financial obligations.

(F) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a circuit court clerk may access a sealed record for the limited purpose of collecting payment for any legal financial obligations that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceedings for which those records have been sealed.

(10) Fees. The Illinois State Police Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and remit the Illinois Department of State Police portion of the fee to the State Treasurer and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund. If the record brought under an expungement petition was previously sealed under this Section, the fee for the expungement petition for that same record shall be waived.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police Department may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Illinois State Police Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police Department may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Illinois State Police Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois State Police Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Illinois State Police Department may be disseminated by the Illinois State Police Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Illinois State Police Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(g) Immediate Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement or sealing of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the immediate sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal or dismissal with prejudice, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B), that occur on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282), may be sealed immediately if the petition is filed with the circuit court clerk on the same day and during the same hearing in which the case is disposed.

(3) When Records are Eligible to be Immediately Sealed. Eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) may be sealed immediately after entry of the final disposition of a case, notwithstanding the disposition of other charges in the same case.

(4) Notice of Eligibility for Immediate Sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (g), the defendant shall be informed by the court of his or her right to have eligible records immediately sealed and the procedure for the immediate sealing of these records.

(5) Procedure. The following procedures apply to immediate sealing under this subsection (g).

(A) Filing the Petition. Upon entry of the final disposition of the case, the defendant's attorney may immediately petition the court, on behalf of the defendant, for immediate sealing of eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) that are entered on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282). The immediate sealing petition may be filed with the circuit court clerk during the hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered. If the defendant's attorney does not file the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing, the defendant may file a petition for sealing at any time as authorized under subsection (c)(3)(A).

(B) Contents of Petition. The immediate sealing petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address, and for each eligible record, the case number, the date of arrest if applicable, the identity of the arresting authority if applicable, and other information as the court may require.

(C) Drug Test. The petitioner shall not be required to attach proof that he or she has passed a drug test.

(D) Service of Petition. A copy of the petition shall be served on the State's Attorney in open court. The petitioner shall not be required to serve a copy of the petition on any other agency.

(E) Entry of Order. The presiding trial judge shall enter an order granting or denying the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing in which it is filed. Petitions for immediate sealing shall be ruled on in the same hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered.

(F) Hearings. The court shall hear the petition for immediate sealing on the same day and during the same hearing in which the disposition is rendered.

(G) Service of Order. An order to immediately seal eligible records shall be served in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(H) Implementation of Order. An order to immediately seal records shall be implemented in conformance with subsections (d)(9)(C) and (d)(9)(D).

(I) Fees. The fee imposed by the circuit court clerk and the Illinois Department of State Police shall comply with paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(J) Final Order. No court order issued under this subsection (g) shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to service of the order in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(K) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner, State's Attorney, or the Illinois Department of State Police may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order denying the petition to immediately seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(L) Effect of Order. An order granting an immediate sealing petition shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of an error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable, and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under subparagraph (L) of this subsection (g).

(M) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to immediately seal, all parties entitled to service of the order must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order.

(h) Sealing; trafficking victims.

(1) A trafficking victim as defined by paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be eligible to petition for immediate sealing of his or her criminal record upon the completion of his or her last sentence if his or her participation in the underlying offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(2) A petitioner under this subsection (h), in addition to the requirements provided under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, shall include in his or her petition a clear and concise statement that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(3) If an objection is filed alleging that the petitioner is not entitled to immediate sealing under this subsection (h), the court shall conduct a hearing under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section and the court shall determine whether the petitioner is entitled to immediate sealing under this subsection (h). A petitioner is eligible for immediate relief under this subsection (h) if he or she shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(i) Minor Cannabis Offenses under the Cannabis Control Act.

(1) Expungement of Arrest Records of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) The Illinois Department of State Police and all law enforcement agencies within the State shall automatically expunge all criminal history records of an arrest, charge not initiated by arrest, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation for a Minor Cannabis Offense committed prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) if:

(i) One year or more has elapsed since the date of the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records; and

(ii) No criminal charges were filed relating to the arrest or law enforcement interaction or criminal charges were filed and subsequently dismissed or vacated or the arrestee was acquitted.

(B) If the law enforcement agency is unable to verify satisfaction of condition (ii) in paragraph (A), records that satisfy condition (i) in paragraph (A) shall be automatically expunged.

(C) Records shall be expunged by the law enforcement agency under the following timelines:

(i) Records created prior to June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), but on or after January 1, 2013, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2021;

(ii) Records created prior to January 1, 2013, but on or after January 1, 2000, shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2023;

(iii) Records created prior to January 1, 2000 shall be automatically expunged prior to January 1, 2025.

In response to an inquiry for expunged records, the law enforcement agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed; however, it shall provide a certificate of disposition or confirmation that the record was expunged to the individual whose record was expunged if such a record exists.

(D) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to restrict or modify an individual's right to have that individual's records expunged except as otherwise may be provided in this Act, or diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(2) Pardons Authorizing Expungement of Minor Cannabis Offenses.

(A) Upon June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), the Department of State Police shall review all criminal history record information and identify all records that meet all of the following criteria:

(i) one or more convictions for a Minor Cannabis Offense;

(ii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) did not include a penalty enhancement under Section 7 of the Cannabis Control Act; and

(iii) the conviction identified in paragraph (2)(A)(i) is not associated with a conviction for a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(B) Within 180 days after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27), the Department of State Police shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of all such records that meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A).

(i) The Prisoner Review Board shall notify the State's Attorney of the county of conviction of each record identified by State Police in paragraph (2)(A) that is classified as a Class 4 felony. The State's Attorney may provide a written objection to the Prisoner Review Board on the sole basis that the record identified does not meet the criteria established in paragraph (2)(A). Such an objection must be filed within 60 days or by such later date set by the Prisoner Review Board in the notice after the State's Attorney received notice from the Prisoner Review Board.

(ii) In response to a written objection from a State's Attorney, the Prisoner Review Board is authorized to conduct a non-public hearing to evaluate the information provided in the objection.

(iii) The Prisoner Review Board shall make a confidential and privileged recommendation to the Governor as to whether to grant a pardon authorizing expungement for each of the records identified by the Department of State Police as described in paragraph (2)(A).

(C) If an individual has been granted a pardon authorizing expungement as described in this Section, the Prisoner Review Board, through the Attorney General, shall file a petition for expungement with the Chief Judge of the circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge where the individual had been convicted. Such petition may include more than one individual. Whenever an individual who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor that specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed. Petitions to expunge under this subsection (i) may include more than one individual. Within 90 days of the filing of such a petition, the court shall enter an order expunging the records of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Illinois Department of State Police be expunged and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which the individual had received a pardon but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual who was pardoned to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make it available to the individual upon request.

(D) Nothing in this Section is intended to diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the individual.

(3) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the motion to vacate and expunge, and any supporting documentation, on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. An individual may file such a petition after the completion of any non-financial sentence or non-financial condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of such motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to such a petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and (d)(9)(A) of this Section. An agency providing civil legal aid, as defined by Section 15 of the Public Interest Attorney Assistance Act, assisting individuals seeking to file a motion to vacate and expunge under this subsection may file motions to vacate and expunge with the Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and the motion may include more than one individual. Motions filed by an agency providing civil legal aid concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically.

(4) Any State's Attorney may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a misdemeanor or Class 4 felony violation of Section 4 or Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (i) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and may include more than one individual. Motions filed by a State's Attorney concerning more than one individual may be prepared, presented, and signed electronically. When considering such a motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the individual's age, the individual's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. Upon entry of an order granting a motion to vacate and expunge records pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly provide a copy of the order and a certificate of disposition to the individual whose records will be expunged to the individual's last known address or by electronic means (if available) or otherwise make available to the individual upon request. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraphs (d)(8) and (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(5) In the public interest, the State's Attorney of a county has standing to file motions to vacate and expunge pursuant to this Section in the circuit court with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction.

(6) If a person is arrested for a Minor Cannabis Offense as defined in this Section before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) and the person's case is still pending but a sentence has not been imposed, the person may petition the court in which the charges are pending for an order to summarily dismiss those charges against him or her, and expunge all official records of his or her arrest, plea, trial, conviction, incarceration, supervision, or expungement. If the court determines, upon review, that: (A) the person was arrested before June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27) for an offense that has been made eligible for expungement; (B) the case is pending at the time; and (C) the person has not been sentenced of the minor cannabis violation eligible for expungement under this subsection, the court shall consider the following: the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement, the petitioner's age, the petitioner's age at the time of offense, the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. If a motion to dismiss and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(7) A person imprisoned solely as a result of one or more convictions for Minor Cannabis Offenses under this subsection (i) shall be released from incarceration upon the issuance of an order under this subsection.

(8) The Illinois Department of State Police shall allow a person to use the access and review process, established in the Illinois Department of State Police, for verifying that his or her records relating to Minor Cannabis Offenses of the Cannabis Control Act eligible under this Section have been expunged.

(9) No conviction vacated pursuant to this Section shall serve as the basis for damages for time unjustly served as provided in the Court of Claims Act.

(10) Effect of Expungement. A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be limited under this Section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be to restore the person to the status he or she occupied before the arrest, charge, or conviction.

(11) Information. The Illinois Department of State Police shall post general information on its website about the expungement process described in this subsection (i).

(j) Felony Prostitution Convictions.

(1) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a prior Class 4 felony violation of prostitution. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (j) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit, or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge. When considering the motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following:

(A) the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement;

(B) the petitioner's age;

(C) the petitioner's age at the time of offense; and

(D) the time since the conviction, and the specific adverse consequences if denied. An individual may file the petition after the completion of any sentence or condition imposed by the conviction. Within 60 days of the filing of the motion, a State's Attorney may file an objection to the petition along with supporting evidence. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section. An agency providing civil legal aid, as defined in Section 15 of the Public Interest Attorney Assistance Act, assisting individuals seeking to file a motion to vacate and expunge under this subsection may file motions to vacate and expunge with the Chief Judge of a judicial circuit or any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, and the motion may include more than one individual.

(2) Any State's Attorney may file a motion to vacate and expunge a conviction for a Class 4 felony violation of prostitution. Motions to vacate and expunge under this subsection (j) may be filed with the circuit court, Chief Judge of a judicial circuit, or any judge of the circuit court designated by the Chief Judge, and may include more than one individual. When considering the motion to vacate and expunge, a court shall consider the following reasons:

(A) the reasons to retain the records provided by law enforcement;

(B) the petitioner's age;

(C) the petitioner's age at the time of offense;

(D) the time since the conviction; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences if denied.

If the State's Attorney files a motion to vacate and expunge records for felony prostitution convictions pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney shall notify the Prisoner Review Board within 30 days of the filing. If a motion to vacate and expunge is granted, the records shall be expunged in accordance with subparagraph (d)(9)(A) of this Section.

(3) In the public interest, the State's Attorney of a county has standing to file motions to vacate and expunge pursuant to this Section in the circuit court with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction.

(4) The Illinois State Police shall allow a person to a use the access and review process, established in the Illinois State Police, for verifying that his or her records relating to felony prostitution eligible under this Section have been expunged.

(5) No conviction vacated pursuant to this Section shall serve as the basis for damages for time unjustly served as provided in the Court of Claims Act.

(6) Effect of Expungement. A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be limited under this Section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be to restore the person to the status he or she occupied before the arrest, charge, or conviction.

(7) Information. The Illinois State Police shall post general information on its website about the expungement process described in this subsection (j).

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-159, eff. 1-1-20; 101-306, eff. 8-9-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 101-645, eff. 6-26-20; 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-558, 8-20-21; 102-639, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 185. The Department of Veterans' Affairs Act is amended by changing Sections 2.01a and 2.04 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2805/2.01a) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 67.01a)

Sec. 2.01a. Members benefits fund; personal property. The Department shall direct the expenditure of all money which has been or may be received by any officer of an Illinois Veterans Home including profit on sales from commissary stores. The money shall be deposited into the members benefits fund and expenditures from the fund shall be made under the direction of the Department for the special comfort, pleasure, and amusement of residents and employees, provided that amounts expended for comfort, pleasure, and amusement of employees shall not exceed the amount of profits derived from sales made to employees by such commissaries, as determined by the Department. The Department may also make expenditures from the fund, subject to approval by the Director of Veterans' Affairs, for recognition and appreciation programs for volunteers who assist the Veterans Homes. Expenditures from the fund may not be used to supplement a shortfall in the ordinary and contingent operating expenses of the Home and shall be expended only for the special comfort, pleasure, and amusement of the residents.

The Department shall prepare a quarterly report on all locally held locally-held member's benefits funds from each Illinois Veterans Home. The report shall contain the amount of donations received for each veterans' home, including monetary and nonmonetary items, the expenditures and items disbursed dispersed, and the end of quarter balance of the locally held locally-held member's benefits funds. The Department shall submit the quarterly report to the General Assembly and to the Governor and publish the report on its website.

Money received as interest and income on funds deposited for residents of an Illinois Veterans Home shall be paid to the individual accounts of the residents. If home residents choose to hold savings accounts or other investments outside the Home, interest or income on the individual savings accounts or investments of residents shall accrue to the individual accounts of the residents.

Any money belonging to residents separated by death, discharge, or unauthorized absence from an Illinois Veterans Home, in custody of officers thereof, may, if unclaimed by the resident or the legal representatives thereof for a period of 2 years, be expended at the direction of the Department for the purposes and in the manner specified above. Articles of personal property, with the exception of clothing left in the custody of officers, shall, if unclaimed for the period of 2 years, be sold and the money disposed of in the same manner.

Clothing left at a Home by residents at the time of separation may be used as determined by the Home if unclaimed by the resident or legal representatives thereof within 30 days after notification.

(Source: P.A. 102-549, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-1-21.)

(20 ILCS 2805/2.04) (from Ch. 126 1/2, par. 67.04)

Sec. 2.04. There shall be established in the State Treasury special funds known as (i) the LaSalle Veterans Home Fund, (ii) the Anna Veterans Home Fund, (iii) the Manteno Veterans Home Fund, and (iv) the Quincy Veterans Home Fund. All moneys received by an Illinois Veterans Home from Medicare and from maintenance charges to veterans, spouses, and surviving spouses residing at that Home shall be paid into that Home's Fund. All moneys received from the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs for patient care shall be transmitted to the Treasurer of the State for deposit in the Veterans Home Fund for the Home in which the veteran resides. Appropriations shall be made from a Fund only for the needs of the Home, including capital improvements, building rehabilitation, and repairs. The Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund shall be the Veterans Home Fund for the Illinois Veterans Home at Chicago.

The administrator of each Veterans Home shall establish a locally held locally-held member's benefits fund. The Director may authorize the Veterans Home to conduct limited fundraising in accordance with applicable laws and regulations for which the sole purpose is to benefit the Veterans Home's member's benefits fund. Revenues accruing to an Illinois Veterans Home, including any donations, grants for the operation of the Home, profits from commissary stores, and funds received from any individual or other source, including limited fundraising, shall be deposited into that Home's benefits fund. Expenditures from the benefits funds shall be solely for the special comfort, pleasure, and amusement of residents. Contributors of unsolicited private donations may specify the purpose for which the private donations are to be used.

Upon request of the Department, the State's Attorney of the county in which a resident or living former resident of an Illinois Veterans Home who is liable under this Act for payment of sums representing maintenance charges resides shall file an action in a court of competent jurisdiction against any such person who fails or refuses to pay such sums. The court may order the payment of sums due to maintenance charges for such period or periods of time as the circumstances require.

Upon the death of a person who is or has been a resident of an Illinois Veterans Home who is liable for maintenance charges and who is possessed of property, the Department may present a claim for such sum or for the balance due in case less than the rate prescribed under this Act has been paid. The claim shall be allowed and paid as other lawful claims against the estate.

The administrator of each Veterans Home shall establish a locally held locally-held trust fund to maintain moneys held for residents. Whenever the Department finds it necessary to preserve order, preserve health, or enforce discipline, the resident shall deposit in a trust account at the Home such monies from any source of income as may be determined necessary, and disbursement of these funds to the resident shall be made only by direction of the administrator.

If a resident of an Illinois Veterans Home has a dependent child, spouse, or parent the administrator may require that all monies received be deposited in a trust account with dependency contributions being made at the direction of the administrator. The balance retained in the trust account shall be disbursed to the resident at the time of discharge from the Home or to his or her heirs or legal representative at the time of the resident's death, subject to Department regulations or order of the court.

The Director of Central Management Services, with the consent of the Director of Veterans' Affairs, is authorized and empowered to lease or let any real property held by the Department of Veterans' Affairs for an Illinois Veterans Home to entities or persons upon terms and conditions which are considered to be in the best interest of that Home. The real property must not be needed for any direct or immediate purpose of the Home. In any leasing or letting, primary consideration shall be given to the use of real property for agricultural purposes, and all moneys received shall be transmitted to the Treasurer of the State for deposit in the appropriate Veterans Home Fund.

Each administrator of an Illinois Veterans Home who has an established locally held locally-held member's benefits fund shall prepare and submit to the Department a monthly report of all donations received, including donations of a nonmonetary nature. The report shall include the end of month balance of the locally held locally-held member's benefits fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-549, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-1-21.)

Section 190. The State Fire Marshal Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2905/3) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 3)

Sec. 3. There is created the Illinois Fire Advisory Commission which shall advise the Office in the exercise of its powers and duties. The Commission shall be appointed by the Governor as follows:

(1) 3 professional, full-time paid firefighters;

(2) one volunteer firefighter;

(3) one Fire Protection Engineer who is registered in Illinois;

(4) one person who is a representative of the fire insurance industry in Illinois;

(5) one person who is a representative of a registered United States Department of Labor apprenticeship program primarily instructing in the installation and repair of fire extinguishing systems;

(6) one licensed operating or stationary engineer who has an associate degree in facilities engineering technology and has knowledge of the operation and maintenance of fire alarm and fire extinguishing systems primarily for the life safety of occupants in a variety of commercial or residential structures; and

(7) 3 persons with an interest in and knowledgeable about fire prevention methods.

In addition, the following shall serve as ex officio members of the Commission: the Chicago Fire Commissioner, or his or her designee; the executive officer, or his or her designee, of each of the following organizations: the Illinois Fire Chiefs Association, the Illinois Fire Protection District Association, the Illinois Fire Inspectors Association, the Illinois Professional Firefighters Association, the Illinois Firemen's Association, the Associated Firefighters of Illinois, the Illinois Society of Fire Service Instructors, the Illinois Chapter of the International Association of Arson Investigators, the Mutual Aid Box Alarm System (MABAS) Illinois, and the Fire Service Institute, University of Illinois.

The Governor shall designate, at the time of appointment, 3 members to serve terms expiring on the third Monday in January, 1979; 3 members to serve terms expiring the third Monday in January, 1980; and 2 members to serve terms expiring the third Monday in January, 1981. The additional member appointed by the Governor pursuant to Public Act 85-718 shall serve for a term expiring the third Monday in January, 1990. Thereafter, all terms shall be for 3 years. A member shall serve until his or her successor is appointed and qualified. A vacancy shall be filled for the unexpired term.

The Governor shall designate one of the appointed members to be chairperson of the Commission.

Members shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their actual reasonable expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(Source: P.A. 101-234, eff. 8-9-19; 102-269, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 195. The Energy Efficient Building Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 15, and 30 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3125/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions.

"Agency" means the Environmental Protection Agency.

"Board" means the Capital Development Board.

"Building" includes both residential buildings and commercial buildings.

"Code" means the latest published edition of the International Code Council's International Energy Conservation Code as adopted by the Board, including any published supplements adopted by the Board and any amendments and adaptations to the Code that are made by the Board.

"Commercial building" means any building except a building that is a residential building, as defined in this Section.

"Municipality" means any city, village, or incorporated town.

"Residential building" means (i) a detached one-family or 2-family dwelling or (ii) any building that is 3 stories or less in height above grade that contains multiple dwelling units, in which the occupants reside on a primarily permanent basis, such as a townhouse, a row house, an apartment house, a convent, a monastery, a rectory, a fraternity or sorority house, a dormitory, and a rooming house; provided, however, that when applied to a building located within the boundaries of a municipality having a population of 1,000,000 or more, the term "residential building" means a building containing one or more dwelling units, not exceeding 4 stories above grade, where occupants are primarily permanent.

"Site energy index" means a scalar published by the Pacific Northwest National Laboratories representing the ratio of the site energy performance of an evaluated code compared to the site energy performance of the 2006 International Energy Conservation Code. A "site energy index" includes only conservation measures and excludes net energy credit for any on-site or off-site energy production.

(Source: P.A. 101-144, eff. 7-26-19; 102-444, eff. 8-20-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(20 ILCS 3125/15)

Sec. 15. Energy Efficient Building Code. The Board, in consultation with the Agency, shall adopt the Code as minimum requirements for commercial buildings, applying to the construction of, renovations to, and additions to all commercial buildings in the State. The Board, in consultation with the Agency, shall also adopt the Code as the minimum and maximum requirements for residential buildings, applying to the construction of, renovations to, and additions to all residential buildings in the State, except as provided for in Section 45 of this Act. The Board may appropriately adapt the International Energy Conservation Code to apply to the particular economy, population distribution, geography, and climate of the State and construction therein, consistent with the public policy objectives of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-444, eff. 8-20-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-21-21.)

(20 ILCS 3125/30)

Sec. 30. Enforcement. The Board, in consultation with the Agency, shall determine procedures for compliance with the Code. These procedures may include but need not be limited to certification by a national, State, or local accredited energy conservation program or inspections from private Code-certified inspectors using the Code. For purposes of the Illinois Stretch Energy Code under Section 55, the Board shall allow and encourage, as an alternative compliance mechanism, project certification by a nationally recognized nonprofit certification organization specializing in high-performance passive buildings and offering climate-specific building energy standards that require equal or better energy performance than the Illinois Stretch Energy Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-444, eff. 8-20-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-19-21.)

Section 200. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3305/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1055)

Sec. 5. Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

(a) There is created within the executive branch of the State Government an Illinois Emergency Management Agency and a Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, herein called the "Director" who shall be the head thereof. The Director shall be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, and shall serve for a term of 2 years beginning on the third Monday in January of the odd-numbered year, and until a successor is appointed and has qualified; except that the term of the first Director appointed under this Act shall expire on the third Monday in January, 1989. The Director shall not hold any other remunerative public office. For terms ending before December 31, 2019, the Director shall receive an annual salary as set by the Compensation Review Board. For terms beginning after January 18, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1179) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the annual salary of the Director shall be as provided in Section 5-300 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(b) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall obtain, under the provisions of the Personnel Code, technical, clerical, stenographic and other administrative personnel, and may make expenditures within the appropriation therefor as may be necessary to carry out the purpose of this Act. The agency created by this Act is intended to be a successor to the agency created under the Illinois Emergency Services and Disaster Agency Act of 1975 and the personnel, equipment, records, and appropriations of that agency are transferred to the successor agency as of June 30, 1988 (the effective date of this Act).

(c) The Director, subject to the direction and control of the Governor, shall be the executive head of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the State Emergency Response Commission and shall be responsible under the direction of the Governor, for carrying out the program for emergency management of this State. The Director shall also maintain liaison and cooperate with the emergency management organizations of this State and other states and of the federal government.

(d) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall take an integral part in the development and revision of political subdivision emergency operations plans prepared under paragraph (f) of Section 10. To this end it shall employ or otherwise secure the services of professional and technical personnel capable of providing expert assistance to the emergency services and disaster agencies. These personnel shall consult with emergency services and disaster agencies on a regular basis and shall make field examinations of the areas, circumstances, and conditions that particular political subdivision emergency operations plans are intended to apply.

(e) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency and political subdivisions shall be encouraged to form an emergency management advisory committee composed of private and public personnel representing the emergency management phases of mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery. The Local Emergency Planning Committee, as created under the Illinois Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act, shall serve as an advisory committee to the emergency services and disaster agency or agencies serving within the boundaries of that Local Emergency Planning Committee planning district for:

(1) the development of emergency operations plan provisions for hazardous chemical emergencies; and

(2) the assessment of emergency response capabilities related to hazardous chemical emergencies.

(f) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall:

(1) Coordinate the overall emergency management program of the State.

(2) Cooperate with local governments, the federal government, and any public or private agency or entity in achieving any purpose of this Act and in implementing emergency management programs for mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(2.5) Develop a comprehensive emergency preparedness and response plan for any nuclear accident in accordance with Section 65 of the Nuclear Safety Law of 2004 and in development of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness program in accordance with Section 8 of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness Act.

(2.6) Coordinate with the Department of Public Health with respect to planning for and responding to public health emergencies.

(3) Prepare, for issuance by the Governor, executive orders, proclamations, and regulations as necessary or appropriate in coping with disasters.

(4) Promulgate rules and requirements for political subdivision emergency operations plans that are not inconsistent with and are at least as stringent as applicable federal laws and regulations.

(5) Review and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, emergency operations plans for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(5.5) Promulgate rules and requirements for the political subdivision emergency management exercises, including, but not limited to, exercises of the emergency operations plans.

(5.10) Review, evaluate, and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, political subdivision emergency management exercises for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(6) Determine requirements of the State and its political subdivisions for food, clothing, and other necessities in event of a disaster.

(7) Establish a register of persons with types of emergency management training and skills in mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(8) Establish a register of government and private response resources available for use in a disaster.

(9) Expand the Earthquake Awareness Program and its efforts to distribute earthquake preparedness materials to schools, political subdivisions, community groups, civic organizations, and the media. Emphasis will be placed on those areas of the State most at risk from an earthquake. Maintain the list of all school districts, hospitals, airports, power plants, including nuclear power plants, lakes, dams, emergency response facilities of all types, and all other major public or private structures which are at the greatest risk of damage from earthquakes under circumstances where the damage would cause subsequent harm to the surrounding communities and residents.

(10) Disseminate all information, completely and without delay, on water levels for rivers and streams and any other data pertaining to potential flooding supplied by the Division of Water Resources within the Department of Natural Resources to all political subdivisions to the maximum extent possible.

(11) Develop agreements, if feasible, with medical supply and equipment firms to supply resources as are necessary to respond to an earthquake or any other disaster as defined in this Act. These resources will be made available upon notifying the vendor of the disaster. Payment for the resources will be in accordance with Section 7 of this Act. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall determine which resources will be required and requested.

(11.5) In coordination with the Illinois State Police, develop and implement a community outreach program to promote awareness among the State's parents and children of child abduction prevention and response.

(12) Out of funds appropriated for these purposes, award capital and non-capital grants to Illinois hospitals or health care facilities located outside of a city with a population in excess of 1,000,000 to be used for purposes that include, but are not limited to, preparing to respond to mass casualties and disasters, maintaining and improving patient safety and quality of care, and protecting the confidentiality of patient information. No single grant for a capital expenditure shall exceed $300,000. No single grant for a non-capital expenditure shall exceed $100,000. In awarding such grants, preference shall be given to hospitals that serve a significant number of Medicaid recipients, but do not qualify for disproportionate share hospital adjustment payments under the Illinois Public Aid Code. To receive such a grant, a hospital or health care facility must provide funding of at least 50% of the cost of the project for which the grant is being requested. In awarding such grants the Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall consider the recommendations of the Illinois Hospital Association.

(13) Do all other things necessary, incidental or appropriate for the implementation of this Act.

(g) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency is authorized to make grants to various higher education institutions, public K-12 school districts, area vocational centers as designated by the State Board of Education, inter-district special education cooperatives, regional safe schools, and nonpublic K-12 schools for safety and security improvements. For the purpose of this subsection (g), "higher education institution" means a public university, a public community college, or an independent, not-for-profit or for-profit higher education institution located in this State. Grants made under this subsection (g) shall be paid out of moneys appropriated for that purpose from the Build Illinois Bond Fund. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (g). These rules may specify: (i) the manner of applying for grants; (ii) project eligibility requirements; (iii) restrictions on the use of grant moneys; (iv) the manner in which the various higher education institutions must account for the use of grant moneys; and (v) any other provision that the Illinois Emergency Management Agency determines to be necessary or useful for the administration of this subsection (g).

(g-5) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency is authorized to make grants to not-for-profit organizations which are exempt from federal income taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the Federal Internal Revenue Code for eligible security improvements that assist the organization in preventing, preparing for, or responding to acts of terrorism. The Director shall establish procedures and forms by which applicants may apply for a grant and procedures for distributing grants to recipients. The procedures shall require each applicant to do the following:

(1) identify and substantiate prior threats or attacks by a terrorist organization, network, or cell against the not-for-profit organization;

(2) indicate the symbolic or strategic value of one or more sites that renders the site a possible target of terrorism;

(3) discuss potential consequences to the organization if the site is damaged, destroyed, or disrupted by a terrorist act;

(4) describe how the grant will be used to integrate organizational preparedness with broader State and local preparedness efforts;

(5) submit a vulnerability assessment conducted by experienced security, law enforcement, or military personnel, and a description of how the grant award will be used to address the vulnerabilities identified in the assessment; and

(6) submit any other relevant information as may be required by the Director.

The Agency is authorized to use funds appropriated for the grant program described in this subsection (g-5) to administer the program.

(h) Except as provided in Section 17.5 of this Act, any moneys received by the Agency from donations or sponsorships unrelated to a disaster shall be deposited in the Emergency Planning and Training Fund and used by the Agency, subject to appropriation, to effectuate planning and training activities. Any moneys received by the Agency from donations during a disaster and intended for disaster response or recovery shall be deposited into the Disaster Response and Recovery Fund and used for disaster response and recovery pursuant to the Disaster Relief Act.

(i) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency may by rule assess and collect reasonable fees for attendance at Agency-sponsored conferences to enable the Agency to carry out the requirements of this Act. Any moneys received under this subsection shall be deposited in the Emergency Planning and Training Fund and used by the Agency, subject to appropriation, for planning and training activities.

(j) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency is authorized to make grants to other State agencies, public universities, units of local government, and statewide mutual aid organizations to enhance statewide emergency preparedness and response.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 205. The Nuclear Safety Law of 2004 is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3310/40)

Sec. 40. Regulation of nuclear safety. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall have primary responsibility for the coordination and oversight of all State governmental functions concerning the regulation of nuclear power, including low level waste management, environmental monitoring, environmental radiochemical analysis, and transportation of nuclear waste. Functions performed by the Illinois State Police and the Department of Transportation in the area of nuclear safety, on the effective date of this Act, may continue to be performed by these agencies but under the direction of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency. All other governmental functions regulating nuclear safety shall be coordinated by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

(Source: P.A. 102-133, eff. 7-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-28-21.)

Section 210. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act is amended by changing Section 7.7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3930/7.7)

Sec. 7.7. Pretrial data collection.

(a) The Administrative Director of the Administrative Office Officer of the Illinois Courts shall convene an oversight board to be known as the Pretrial Practices Data Oversight Board to oversee the collection and analysis of data regarding pretrial practices in circuit court systems. The Board shall include, but is not limited to, designees from the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, and other entities that possess knowledge of pretrial practices and data collection issues. Members of the Board shall serve without compensation.

(b) The Oversight Board shall:

(1) identify existing pretrial data collection processes in local jurisdictions;

(2) define, gather and maintain records of pretrial data relating to the topics listed in subsection (c) from circuit clerks' offices, sheriff's departments, law enforcement agencies, jails, pretrial departments, probation department, State's Attorneys' offices, public defenders' offices and other applicable criminal justice system agencies;

(3) identify resources necessary to systematically collect and report data related to the topics listed in subsection subsections (c); and

(4) develop a plan to implement data collection processes sufficient to collect data on the topics listed in subsection (c) no later than one year after July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. The plan and, once implemented, the reports and analysis shall be published and made publicly available on the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts (AOIC) website.

(c) The Pretrial Practices Data Oversight Board shall develop a strategy to collect quarterly, county-level data on the following topics; which collection of data shall begin starting one year after July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly:

(1) information on all persons arrested and charged with misdemeanor or felony charges, or both, including information on persons released directly from law enforcement custody;

(2) information on the outcomes of pretrial conditions and pretrial detention hearings in the county courts, including but not limited to the number of hearings held, the number of defendants detained, the number of defendants released, and the number of defendants released with electronic monitoring;

(3) information regarding persons detained in the county jail pretrial, including, but not limited to, the number of persons detained in the jail pretrial and the number detained in the jail for other reasons, the demographics of the pretrial jail population, race, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, age, and ethnicity, the charges including on which pretrial defendants are detained, the average length of stay of pretrial defendants;

(4) information regarding persons placed on electronic monitoring programs pretrial, including, but not limited to, the number of participants, the demographics of the participant population, including race, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, age, and ethnicity, the charges on which participants are ordered to the program, and the average length of participation in the program;

(5) discharge data regarding persons detained pretrial in the county jail, including, but not limited to, the number who are sentenced to the Illinois Department of Corrections, the number released after being sentenced to time served, the number who are released on probation, conditional discharge, or other community supervision, the number found not guilty, the number whose cases are dismissed, the number whose cases are dismissed as part of diversion or deferred prosecution program, and the number who are released pretrial after a hearing re-examining their pretrial detention;

(6) information on the pretrial rearrest of individuals released pretrial, including the number arrested and charged with a new misdemeanor offense while released, the number arrested and charged with a new felony offense while released, and the number arrested and charged with a new forcible felony offense while released, and how long after release these arrests occurred;

(7) information on the pretrial failure to appear rates of individuals released pretrial, including the number who missed one or more court dates, how many warrants for failures to appear were issued, and how many individuals were detained pretrial or placed on electronic monitoring pretrial after a failure to appear in court;

(8) what, if any, validated pretrial risk assessment tools are in use in each jurisdiction, and comparisons of the pretrial release and pretrial detention decisions of judges as compared to and the risk assessment scores of individuals; and

(9) any other information the Pretrial Practices Data Oversight Board considers important and probative of the effectiveness of pretrial practices in the State state of Illinois.

(d) d) Circuit clerks' offices, sheriff's departments, law enforcement agencies, jails, pretrial departments, probation department, State's Attorneys' offices, public defenders' offices and other applicable criminal justice system agencies are mandated to provide data to the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts as described in subsection (c).

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; revised 12-3-21.)

Section 215. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.935, 5.937, and 5.938, by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 5.936 and 6z-125, and by changing Sections 6z-82, 6z-99, 8.3, and 25 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.935)

Sec. 5.935. The Freedom Schools Fund.

(Source: P.A. 101-654, eff. 3-8-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.936)

Sec. 5.936. The Law Enforcement Training Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.937)

Sec. 5.937. The Sickle Cell Chronic Disease Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.938)

Sec. 5.938. The DoIT Special Projects Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.942)

Sec. 5.942 5.935. The Equal Pay Registration Fund.

(Source: P.A. 101-656, eff. 3-23-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.943)

Sec. 5.943 5.935. The Capital Facility and Technology Modernization Fund.

(Source: P.A. 101-665, eff. 4-2-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.944)

Sec. 5.944 5.935. The Managed Care Oversight Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, Article 160, Section 160-5, eff. 4-27-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.945)

Sec. 5.945 5.935. The Medicaid Technical Assistance Center Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, Article 185, Section 185-90, eff. 4-27-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.946)

Sec. 5.946 5.935. The State Police Training and Academy Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.947)

Sec. 5.947 5.935. The Ronald McDonald House Charities Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-73, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.948)

Sec. 5.948 5.935. The Illinois Higher Education Savings Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-129, eff. 7-23-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.949)

Sec. 5.949 5.935. The Infrastructure Development Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-141, eff. 7-23-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.950)

Sec. 5.950 5.935. The Water and Sewer Low-Income Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-262, eff. 8-6-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.951)

Sec. 5.951 5.935. The Department of Juvenile Justice Reimbursement and Education Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-350, eff. 8-13-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.952)

Sec. 5.952 5.935. The Folds of Honor Foundation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-383, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.953)

Sec. 5.953 5.935. The Experimental Aircraft Association Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-422, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.954)

Sec. 5.954 5.935. The Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-423, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.955)

Sec. 5.955 5.935. The Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-515, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.956)

Sec. 5.956 5.935. The Pembroke Township Natural Gas Investment Pilot Program Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-609, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.957)

Sec. 5.957 5.935. The Illinois Broadband Adoption Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-648, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.958)

Sec. 5.958 5.935. The Coal to Solar and Energy Storage Initiative Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.959)

Sec. 5.959 5.936. The Illinois Small Business Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-330, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.960)

Sec. 5.960 5.936. The Energy Transition Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.961)

Sec. 5.961 5.937. The Consumer Intervenor Compensation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.962)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5.962 5.938. The Electronic Notarization Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-160 (See Section 99 of P.A. 102-160 for effective date of P.A. 102-160); revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.963)

Sec. 5.963 5.938. The State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.964)

Sec. 5.964 5.938. The Lead Service Line Replacement Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-613, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-5-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-82)

Sec. 6z-82. State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(a-5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, and in addition to any other transfers that may be provided by law, on August 20, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-505) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the Over Dimensional Load Police Escort Fund into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. Upon completion of the transfer, the Over Dimensional Load Police Escort Fund is dissolved, and any future deposits due to that Fund and any outstanding obligations or liabilities of that Fund shall pass to the State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

This Fund may charge, collect, and receive fees or moneys as described in Section 15-312 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and receive all fees received by the Illinois State Police under that Section. The moneys shall be used by the Illinois State Police for its expenses in providing police escorts and commercial vehicle enforcement activities.

(b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes or functions.

(c) Expenditures may be made from the Fund only as appropriated by the General Assembly by law.

(d) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(e) The State Police Operations Assistance Fund shall not be subject to administrative chargebacks.

(f) (Blank). the Illinois

(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2021, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Director of the Illinois State Police, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding $7,000,000 into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund from the State Police Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-22-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-99)

Sec. 6z-99. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the Mental Health Reporting Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Illinois State Police and Department of Human Services shall coordinate to use moneys in the Fund to finance their respective duties of collecting and reporting data on mental health records and ensuring that mental health firearm possession prohibitors are enforced as set forth under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is necessary to ensure compliance with mental health reporting under these Acts shall be used by the Department of Human Services for mental health treatment programs as follows: (1) 50% shall be used to fund community-based mental health programs aimed at reducing gun violence, community integration and education, or mental health awareness and prevention, including administrative costs; and (2) 50% shall be used to award grants that use and promote the National School Mental Health Curriculum model for school-based mental health support, integration, and services.

(c) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-26-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-125)

Sec. 6z-125. State Police Training and Academy Fund. The State Police Training and Academy Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall consist of: (i) 10% of the revenue from increasing the insurance producer license fees, as provided under subsection (a-5) of Section 500-135 of the Illinois Insurance Code; and (ii) 10% of the moneys collected from auto insurance policy fees under Section 8.6 of the Illinois Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention and Insurance Verification Act. This Fund shall be used by the Illinois State Police to fund training and other State Police institutions, including, but not limited to, forensic laboratories.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-127)

Sec. 6z-127 6z-125. State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund.

(a) The State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund is established as a special fund in the State treasury. This Fund is established to receive moneys from the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act to enforce that Act, the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and other firearm offenses. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Illinois State Police may use moneys from the Fund to establish task forces and, if necessary, include other law enforcement agencies, under intergovernmental contracts written and executed in conformity with the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act.

(c) The Illinois State Police may use moneys in the Fund to hire and train State Police officers and for the prevention of violent crime.

(d) The State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund is not subject to administrative chargebacks.

(e) Law enforcement agencies that participate in Firearm Owner's Identification Card revocation enforcement in the Violent Crime Intelligence Task Force may apply for grants from the Illinois State Police.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-9-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.3) (from Ch. 127, par. 144.3)

Sec. 8.3. Money in the Road Fund shall, if and when the State of Illinois incurs any bonded indebtedness for the construction of permanent highways, be set aside and used for the purpose of paying and discharging annually the principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then due and payable, and for no other purpose. The surplus, if any, in the Road Fund after the payment of principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then annually due shall be used as follows:

first -- to pay the cost of administration of Chapters 2 through 10 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except the cost of administration of Articles I and II of Chapter 3 of that Code, and to pay the costs of the Executive Ethics Commission for oversight and administration of the Chief Procurement Officer appointed under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10-20 of the Illinois Procurement Code for transportation; and

secondly -- for expenses of the Department of Transportation for construction, reconstruction, improvement, repair, maintenance, operation, and administration of highways in accordance with the provisions of laws relating thereto, or for any purpose related or incident to and connected therewith, including the separation of grades of those highways with railroads and with highways and including the payment of awards made by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under the terms of the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act for injury or death of an employee of the Division of Highways in the Department of Transportation; or for the acquisition of land and the erection of buildings for highway purposes, including the acquisition of highway right-of-way or for investigations to determine the reasonably anticipated future highway needs; or for making of surveys, plans, specifications and estimates for and in the construction and maintenance of flight strips and of highways necessary to provide access to military and naval reservations, to defense industries and defense-industry sites, and to the sources of raw materials and for replacing existing highways and highway connections shut off from general public use at military and naval reservations and defense-industry sites, or for the purchase of right-of-way, except that the State shall be reimbursed in full for any expense incurred in building the flight strips; or for the operating and maintaining of highway garages; or for patrolling and policing the public highways and conserving the peace; or for the operating expenses of the Department relating to the administration of public transportation programs; or, during fiscal year 2021 only, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $8,394,800 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or, during fiscal year 2022 only, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $8,394,800 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or for any of those purposes or any other purpose that may be provided by law.

Appropriations for any of those purposes are payable from the Road Fund. Appropriations may also be made from the Road Fund for the administrative expenses of any State agency that are related to motor vehicles or arise from the use of motor vehicles.

Beginning with fiscal year 1980 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Department of Public Health;

2. Department of Transportation, only with respect to subsidies for one-half fare Student Transportation and Reduced Fare for Elderly, except fiscal year 2021 only when no more than $17,570,000 may be expended and except fiscal year 2022 only when no more than $17,570,000 may be expended;

3. Department of Central Management Services, except for expenditures incurred for group insurance premiums of appropriate personnel;

4. Judicial Systems and Agencies.

Beginning with fiscal year 1981 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Illinois State Police, except for expenditures with respect to the Division of Patrol Operations and Division of Criminal Investigation;

2. Department of Transportation, only with respect to Intercity Rail Subsidies, except fiscal year 2021 only when no more than $50,000,000 may be expended and except fiscal year 2022 only when no more than $50,000,000 may be expended, and Rail Freight Services.

Beginning with fiscal year 1982 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement: Department of Central Management Services, except for awards made by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under the terms of the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act for injury or death of an employee of the Division of Highways in the Department of Transportation.

Beginning with fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Illinois State Police, except not more than 40% of the funds appropriated for the Division of Patrol Operations and Division of Criminal Investigation;

2. State Officers.

Beginning with fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to any Department or agency of State government for administration, grants, or operations except as provided hereafter; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement. It shall not be lawful to circumvent the above appropriation limitations by governmental reorganization or other methods. Appropriations shall be made from the Road Fund only in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

Money in the Road Fund shall, if and when the State of Illinois incurs any bonded indebtedness for the construction of permanent highways, be set aside and used for the purpose of paying and discharging during each fiscal year the principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness as it becomes due and payable as provided in the Transportation Bond Act, and for no other purpose. The surplus, if any, in the Road Fund after the payment of principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then annually due shall be used as follows:

first -- to pay the cost of administration of Chapters 2 through 10 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and

secondly -- no Road Fund monies derived from fees, excises, or license taxes relating to registration, operation and use of vehicles on public highways or to fuels used for the propulsion of those vehicles, shall be appropriated or expended other than for costs of administering the laws imposing those fees, excises, and license taxes, statutory refunds and adjustments allowed thereunder, administrative costs of the Department of Transportation, including, but not limited to, the operating expenses of the Department relating to the administration of public transportation programs, payment of debts and liabilities incurred in construction and reconstruction of public highways and bridges, acquisition of rights-of-way for and the cost of construction, reconstruction, maintenance, repair, and operation of public highways and bridges under the direction and supervision of the State, political subdivision, or municipality collecting those monies, or during fiscal year 2021 only for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $8,394,800 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, or during fiscal year 2022 only for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $8,394,800 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, and the costs for patrolling and policing the public highways (by the State, political subdivision, or municipality collecting that money) for enforcement of traffic laws. The separation of grades of such highways with railroads and costs associated with protection of at-grade highway and railroad crossing shall also be permissible.

Appropriations for any of such purposes are payable from the Road Fund or the Grade Crossing Protection Fund as provided in Section 8 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law.

Except as provided in this paragraph, beginning with fiscal year 1991 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Illinois State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of its total fiscal year 1990 Road Fund appropriations for those purposes unless otherwise provided in Section 5g of this Act. For fiscal years 2003, 2004, 2005, 2006, and 2007 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $97,310,000. For fiscal year 2008 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $106,100,000. For fiscal year 2009 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $114,700,000. Beginning in fiscal year 2010, no road fund moneys shall be appropriated to the Illinois State Police. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods unless otherwise provided in Section 5g of this Act.

In fiscal year 1994, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section in excess of the total fiscal year 1991 Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for those purposes, plus $9,800,000. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other method.

Beginning with fiscal year 1995 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section in excess of the total fiscal year 1994 Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for those purposes. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods.

Beginning with fiscal year 2000, total Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section shall not exceed the amounts specified for the following fiscal years:

For fiscal year 2010, no road fund moneys shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State.

Beginning in fiscal year 2011, moneys in the Road Fund shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the exclusive purpose of paying refunds due to overpayment of fees related to Chapter 3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code unless otherwise provided for by law.

It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods.

No new program may be initiated in fiscal year 1991 and thereafter that is not consistent with the limitations imposed by this Section for fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, insofar as appropriation of Road Fund monies is concerned.

Nothing in this Section prohibits transfers from the Road Fund to the State Construction Account Fund under Section 5e of this Act; nor to the General Revenue Fund, as authorized by Public Act 93-25.

The additional amounts authorized for expenditure in this Section by Public Acts 92-0600, 93-0025, 93-0839, and 94-91 shall be repaid to the Road Fund from the General Revenue Fund in the next succeeding fiscal year that the General Revenue Fund has a positive budgetary balance, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles applicable to government.

The additional amounts authorized for expenditure by the Secretary of State and the Department of State Police in this Section by Public Act 94-91 shall be repaid to the Road Fund from the General Revenue Fund in the next succeeding fiscal year that the General Revenue Fund has a positive budgetary balance, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles applicable to government.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(30 ILCS 105/25) (from Ch. 127, par. 161)

Sec. 25. Fiscal year limitations.

(a) All appropriations shall be available for expenditure for the fiscal year or for a lesser period if the Act making that appropriation so specifies. A deficiency or emergency appropriation shall be available for expenditure only through June 30 of the year when the Act making that appropriation is enacted unless that Act otherwise provides.

(b) Outstanding liabilities as of June 30, payable from appropriations which have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 2-month period ending at the close of business on August 31. Any service involving professional or artistic skills or any personal services by an employee whose compensation is subject to income tax withholding must be performed as of June 30 of the fiscal year in order to be considered an "outstanding liability as of June 30" that is thereby eligible for payment out of the expiring appropriation.

(b-1) However, payment of tuition reimbursement claims under Section 14-7.03 or 18-3 of the School Code may be made by the State Board of Education from its appropriations for those respective purposes for any fiscal year, even though the claims reimbursed by the payment may be claims attributable to a prior fiscal year, and payments may be made at the direction of the State Superintendent of Education from the fund from which the appropriation is made without regard to any fiscal year limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payment of tuition reimbursement claims under Section 14-7.03 or 18-3 of the School Code as of June 30, payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-2) (Blank).

(b-2.5) (Blank).

(b-2.6) (Blank).

(b-2.6a) (Blank).

(b-2.6b) (Blank).

(b-2.6c) (Blank).

(b-2.6d) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2020, payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2020, and interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations until December 31, 2020, without regard to the fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later than September 30, 2020.

(b-2.6e) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2021, payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2021, and interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations until September 30, 2021, without regard to the fiscal year in which the payment is made.

(b-2.7) For fiscal years 2012, 2013, 2014, 2018, 2019, 2020, 2021, and 2022, interest penalties payable under the State Prompt Payment Act associated with a voucher for which payment is issued after June 30 may be paid out of the next fiscal year's appropriation. The future year appropriation must be for the same purpose and from the same fund as the original payment. An interest penalty voucher submitted against a future year appropriation must be submitted within 60 days after the issuance of the associated voucher, except that, for fiscal year 2018 only, an interest penalty voucher submitted against a future year appropriation must be submitted within 60 days of June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-10). The Comptroller must issue the interest payment within 60 days after acceptance of the interest voucher.

(b-3) Medical payments may be made by the Department of Veterans' Affairs from its appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical payments payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-4) Medical payments and child care payments may be made by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) from appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical or child care services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year; and payments may be made at the direction of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (or successor agency) from the Health Insurance Reserve Fund without regard to any fiscal year limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical and child care payments made by the Department of Human Services and payments made at the discretion of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (or successor agency) from the Health Insurance Reserve Fund and payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-5) Medical payments may be made by the Department of Human Services from its appropriations relating to substance abuse treatment services for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the medical services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, provided the payments are made on a fee-for-service basis consistent with requirements established for Medicaid reimbursement by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical payments made by the Department of Human Services relating to substance abuse treatment services payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(b-6) (Blank).

(b-7) Payments may be made in accordance with a plan authorized by paragraph (11) or (12) of Section 405-105 of the Department of Central Management Services Law from appropriations for those payments without regard to fiscal year limitations.

(b-8) Reimbursements to eligible airport sponsors for the construction or upgrading of Automated Weather Observation Systems may be made by the Department of Transportation from appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the qualification or obligation may have occurred in a prior fiscal year, provided that at the time the expenditure was made the project had been approved by the Department of Transportation prior to June 1, 2012 and, as a result of recent changes in federal funding formulas, can no longer receive federal reimbursement.

(b-9) (Blank).

(c) Further, payments may be made by the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Health under the Department of Human Services Act) from their respective appropriations for grants for medical care to or on behalf of premature and high-mortality risk infants and their mothers and for grants for supplemental food supplies provided under the United States Department of Agriculture Women, Infants and Children Nutrition Program, for any fiscal year without regard to the fact that the services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payments made by the Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services from their respective appropriations for grants for medical care to or on behalf of premature and high-mortality risk infants and their mothers and for grants for supplemental food supplies provided under the United States Department of Agriculture Women, Infants and Children Nutrition Program payable from appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31.

(d) The Department of Public Health and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Health under the Department of Human Services Act) shall each annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, and the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before December 31, a report of fiscal year funds used to pay for services provided in any prior fiscal year. This report shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.

(e) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid), and the Department of Human Services making fee-for-service payments relating to substance abuse treatment services provided during a previous fiscal year shall each annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before November 30, a report that shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for (i) services provided in prior fiscal years and (ii) services for which claims were received in prior fiscal years.

(f) The Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Public Aid) shall annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority Leader, and the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before December 31, a report of fiscal year funds used to pay for services (other than medical care) provided in any prior fiscal year. This report shall document by program or service category those expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.

(g) In addition, each annual report required to be submitted by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under subsection (e) shall include the following information with respect to the State's Medicaid program:

(1) Explanations of the exact causes of the variance between the previous year's estimated and actual liabilities.

(2) Factors affecting the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' liabilities, including, but not limited to, numbers of aid recipients, levels of medical service utilization by aid recipients, and inflation in the cost of medical services.

(3) The results of the Department's efforts to combat fraud and abuse.

(h) As provided in Section 4 of the General Assembly Compensation Act, any utility bill for service provided to a General Assembly member's district office for a period including portions of 2 consecutive fiscal years may be paid from funds appropriated for such expenditure in either fiscal year.

(i) An agency which administers a fund classified by the Comptroller as an internal service fund may issue rules for:

(1) billing user agencies in advance for payments or authorized inter-fund transfers based on estimated charges for goods or services;

(2) issuing credits, refunding through inter-fund transfers, or reducing future inter-fund transfers during the subsequent fiscal year for all user agency payments or authorized inter-fund transfers received during the prior fiscal year which were in excess of the final amounts owed by the user agency for that period; and

(3) issuing catch-up billings to user agencies during the subsequent fiscal year for amounts remaining due when payments or authorized inter-fund transfers received from the user agency during the prior fiscal year were less than the total amount owed for that period.

User agencies are authorized to reimburse internal service funds for catch-up billings by vouchers drawn against their respective appropriations for the fiscal year in which the catch-up billing was issued or by increasing an authorized inter-fund transfer during the current fiscal year. For the purposes of this Act, "inter-fund transfers" means transfers without the use of the voucher-warrant process, as authorized by Section 9.01 of the State Comptroller Act.

(i-1) Beginning on July 1, 2021, all outstanding liabilities, not payable during the 4-month lapse period as described in subsections (b-1), (b-3), (b-4), (b-5), and (c) of this Section, that are made from appropriations for that purpose for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the services being compensated for by those payments may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, are limited to only those claims that have been incurred but for which a proper bill or invoice as defined by the State Prompt Payment Act has not been received by September 30th following the end of the fiscal year in which the service was rendered.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, the aggregate amount of payments to be made without regard for fiscal year limitations as contained in subsections (b-1), (b-3), (b-4), (b-5), and (c) of this Section, and determined by using Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, shall not exceed the following amounts:

(1) $6,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2012;

(2) $5,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2013;

(3) $4,600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2014;

(4) $4,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2015;

(5) $3,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2016;

(6) $2,600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2017;

(7) $2,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2018;

(8) $1,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2019;

(9) $600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2020; and

(10) $0 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal year 2021 and fiscal years thereafter.

(k) Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical Assistance Payments.

(1) Definition of Medical Assistance.

For purposes of this subsection, the term "Medical Assistance" shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, medical programs and services authorized under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act, and medical care to or on behalf of persons suffering from chronic renal disease, persons suffering from hemophilia, and victims of sexual assault.

(2) Limitations on Medical Assistance payments that may be paid from future fiscal year appropriations.

(A) The maximum amounts of annual unpaid Medical Assistance bills received and recorded by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services on or before June 30th of a particular fiscal year attributable in aggregate to the General Revenue Fund, Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, Long-Term Care Provider Fund, and the Drug Rebate Fund that may be paid in total by the Department from future fiscal year Medical Assistance appropriations to those funds are: $700,000,000 for fiscal year 2013 and $100,000,000 for fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter.

(B) Bills for Medical Assistance services rendered in a particular fiscal year, but received and recorded by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services after June 30th of that fiscal year, may be paid from either appropriations for that fiscal year or future fiscal year appropriations for Medical Assistance. Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).

(C) Medical Assistance bills received by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in a particular fiscal year, but subject to payment amount adjustments in a future fiscal year may be paid from a future fiscal year's appropriation for Medical Assistance. Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).

(D) Medical Assistance payments made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services from funds other than those specifically referenced in subparagraph (A) may be made from appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year without regard to the fact that the Medical Assistance services being compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year. Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).

(3) Extended lapse period for Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical Assistance payments. Notwithstanding any other State law to the contrary, outstanding Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical Assistance liabilities, as of June 30th, payable from appropriations which have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on October 31st.

(l) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-691 shall be effective for payment of Medical Assistance bills incurred in fiscal year 2013 and future fiscal years. The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-691 shall not be applied to Medical Assistance bills incurred in fiscal year 2012 or prior fiscal years.

(m) The Comptroller must issue payments against outstanding liabilities that were received prior to the lapse period deadlines set forth in this Section as soon thereafter as practical, but no payment may be issued after the 4 months following the lapse period deadline without the signed authorization of the Comptroller and the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-275, eff. 8-9-19; 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-291, eff. 8-6-21; revised 9-28-21.)

Section 220. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Section 1-10 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Application.

(a) This Code applies only to procurements for which bidders, offerors, potential contractors, or contractors were first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This Code shall not be construed to affect or impair any contract, or any provision of a contract, entered into based on a solicitation prior to the implementation date of this Code as described in Article 99, including, but not limited to, any covenant entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or similar instruments. All procurements for which contracts are solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this Code and its intent.

(b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:

(1) Contracts between the State and its political subdivisions or other governments, or between State governmental bodies, except as specifically provided in this Code.

(2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of Section 20-80.

(3) Purchase of care, except as provided in Section 5-30.6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and this Section.

(4) Hiring of an individual as an employee and not as an independent contractor, whether pursuant to an employment code or policy or by contract directly with that individual.

(5) Collective bargaining contracts.

(6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of this type of contract with a value of more than $25,000 must be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 10 calendar days after the deed is recorded in the county of jurisdiction. The notice shall identify the real estate purchased, the names of all parties to the contract, the value of the contract, and the effective date of the contract.

(7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations, provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring agency is one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor, and provided that the chief legal counsel of any other procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring entity is not one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor.

(8) (Blank).

(9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.

(10) (Blank).

(11) Public-private agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and design-build agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 25 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.

(12) (A) Contracts for legal, financial, and other professional and artistic services entered into by the Illinois Finance Authority in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process authorized by the members of the Illinois Finance Authority and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by the members of the Illinois Finance Authority of the terms of the contract.

(B) Contracts for legal and financial services entered into by the Illinois Housing Development Authority in connection with the issuance of bonds in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process authorized by the members of the Illinois Housing Development Authority and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by the members of the Illinois Housing Development Authority of the terms of the contract.

(13) Contracts for services, commodities, and equipment to support the delivery of timely forensic science services in consultation with and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer as provided in subsection (d) of Section 5-4-3a of the Unified Code of Corrections, except for the requirements of Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code; however, the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of this Code. For any contracts for services which are currently provided by members of a collective bargaining agreement, the applicable terms of the collective bargaining agreement concerning subcontracting shall be followed.

On and after January 1, 2019, this paragraph (13), except for this sentence, is inoperative.

(14) Contracts for participation expenditures required by a domestic or international trade show or exhibition of an exhibitor, member, or sponsor.

(15) Contracts with a railroad or utility that requires the State to reimburse the railroad or utilities for the relocation of utilities for construction or other public purpose. Contracts included within this paragraph (15) shall include, but not be limited to, those associated with: relocations, crossings, installations, and maintenance. For the purposes of this paragraph (15), "railroad" means any form of non-highway ground transportation that runs on rails or electromagnetic guideways and "utility" means: (1) public utilities as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, (2) telecommunications carriers as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, (3) electric cooperatives as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, (4) telephone or telecommunications cooperatives as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, (5) rural water or waste water systems with 10,000 connections or less, (6) a holder as defined in Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act, and (7) municipalities owning or operating utility systems consisting of public utilities as that term is defined in Section 11-117-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(16) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Public Health to provide the delivery of timely newborn screening services in accordance with the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act.

(17) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Public Health to implement the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program requirements and ensure access to medical cannabis for patients with debilitating medical conditions in accordance with the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(18) This Code does not apply to any procurements necessary for the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and the Department of Public Health to implement the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act if the applicable agency has made a good faith determination that it is necessary and appropriate for the expenditure to fall within this exemption and if the process is conducted in a manner substantially in accordance with the requirements of Sections 20-160, 25-60, 30-22, 50-5, 50-10, 50-10.5, 50-12, 50-13, 50-15, 50-20, 50-21, 50-35, 50-36, 50-37, 50-38, and 50-50 of this Code; however, for Section 50-35, compliance applies only to contracts or subcontracts over $100,000. Notice of each contract entered into under this paragraph (18) that is related to the procurement of goods and services identified in paragraph (1) through (9) of this subsection shall be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 14 calendar days after contract execution. The Chief Procurement Officer shall prescribe the form and content of the notice. Each agency shall provide the Chief Procurement Officer, on a monthly basis, in the form and content prescribed by the Chief Procurement Officer, a report of contracts that are related to the procurement of goods and services identified in this subsection. At a minimum, this report shall include the name of the contractor, a description of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to this Code utilized. A copy of any or all of these contracts shall be made available to the Chief Procurement Officer immediately upon request. The Chief Procurement Officer shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year that includes, at a minimum, an annual summary of the monthly information reported to the Chief Procurement Officer. This exemption becomes inoperative 5 years after June 25, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-27).

(19) Acquisition of modifications or adjustments, limited to assistive technology devices and assistive technology services, adaptive equipment, repairs, and replacement parts to provide reasonable accommodations (i) that enable a qualified applicant with a disability to complete the job application process and be considered for the position such qualified applicant desires, (ii) that modify or adjust the work environment to enable a qualified current employee with a disability to perform the essential functions of the position held by that employee, (iii) to enable a qualified current employee with a disability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment as are enjoyed by its other similarly situated employees without disabilities, and (iv) that allow a customer, client, claimant, or member of the public seeking State services full use and enjoyment of and access to its programs, services, or benefits.

For purposes of this paragraph (19):

"Assistive technology devices" means any item, piece of equipment, or product system, whether acquired commercially off the shelf, modified, or customized, that is used to increase, maintain, or improve functional capabilities of individuals with disabilities.

"Assistive technology services" means any service that directly assists an individual with a disability in selection, acquisition, or use of an assistive technology device.

"Qualified" has the same meaning and use as provided under the federal Americans with Disabilities Act when describing an individual with a disability.

(20) (19) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Illinois Commerce Commission to hire third-party facilitators pursuant to Sections 16-105.17 and Section 16-108.18 of the Public Utilities Act or an ombudsman pursuant to Section 16-107.5 of the Public Utilities Act, a facilitator pursuant to Section 16-105.17 of the Public Utilities Act, or a grid auditor pursuant to Section 16-105.10 of the Public Utilities Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for contracts entered into on or after October 1, 2017 under an exemption provided in any paragraph of this subsection (b), except paragraph (1), (2), or (5), each State agency shall post to the appropriate procurement bulletin the name of the contractor, a description of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to the Code utilized. The chief procurement officer shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year that shall include, at a minimum, an annual summary of the monthly information reported to the chief procurement officer.

(c) This Code does not apply to the electric power procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code, and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related to the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range of capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance costs, or the sequestration costs or monitoring the construction of clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of construction.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) This Code does not apply to the process to procure or contracts entered into in accordance with Sections 11-5.2 and 11-5.3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(i) Each chief procurement officer may access records necessary to review whether a contract, purchase, or other expenditure is or is not subject to the provisions of this Code, unless such records would be subject to attorney-client privilege.

(j) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain an artist or work or works of art as required in Section 14 of the Capital Development Board Act.

(k) This Code does not apply to the process to procure contracts, or contracts entered into, by the State Board of Elections or the State Electoral Board for hearing officers appointed pursuant to the Election Code.

(l) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission to procure supplies and services paid for from the private funds of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Fund. As used in this subsection (l), "private funds" means funds derived from deposits paid into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund and the earnings thereon.

(m) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of funds with which contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. Except as specifically provided in this Code, this Code shall not apply to procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Public Health to conduct the Healthy Illinois Survey in accordance with Section 2310-431 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-175, eff. 7-29-21; 102-483, eff 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-600, eff. 8-27-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 11-23-21.)

Section 225. The State Property Control Act is amended by changing Sections 7b and 7c as follows:

(30 ILCS 605/7b)

Sec. 7b. Maintenance and operation of Illinois State Police vehicles. All proceeds received by the Department of Central Management Services under this Act from the sale of vehicles operated by the Illinois State Police shall be deposited into the State Police Vehicle Fund. Illinois

(Source: P.A. 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-28-21.)

(30 ILCS 605/7c)

Sec. 7c. Acquisition of Illinois State Police vehicles.

(a) The State Police Vehicle Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Fund, subject to appropriation, shall be used by the Illinois State Police:

(1) for the acquisition of vehicles for the Illinois State Police;

(2) for debt service on bonds issued to finance the acquisition of vehicles for the Illinois State Police; or

(3) for the maintenance and operation of vehicles for the Illinois State Police.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, and in addition to any other transfers that may be provided by law, on August 20, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-505) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as practicable, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the State Police Vehicle Maintenance Fund into the State Police Vehicle Fund. Upon completion of the transfer, the State Police Vehicle Maintenance Fund is dissolved, and any future deposits due to that Fund and any outstanding obligations or liabilities of that Fund shall pass to the State Police Vehicle Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-2-21.)

Section 230. The Grant Accountability and Transparency Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 45 as follows:

(30 ILCS 708/20)

Sec. 20. Adoption of federal rules applicable to grants.

(a) On or before July 1, 2016, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, with the advice and technical assistance of the Illinois Single Audit Commission, shall adopt rules which adopt the Uniform Guidance at 2 CFR 200. The rules, which shall apply to all State and federal pass-through awards effective on and after July 1, 2016, shall include the following:

(1) Administrative requirements. In accordance with Subparts B through D of 2 CFR 200, the rules shall set forth the uniform administrative requirements for grant and cooperative agreements, including the requirements for the management by State awarding agencies of federal grant programs before State and federal pass-through awards have been made and requirements that State awarding agencies may impose on non-federal entities in State and federal pass-through awards.

(2) Cost principles. In accordance with Subpart E of 2 CFR 200, the rules shall establish principles for determining the allowable costs incurred by non-federal entities under State and federal pass-through awards. The principles are intended for cost determination, but are not intended to identify the circumstances or dictate the extent of State or federal pass-through participation in financing a particular program or project. The principles shall provide that State and federal awards bear their fair share of cost recognized under these principles, except where restricted or prohibited by State or federal law.

(3) Audit and single audit requirements and audit follow-up. In accordance with Subpart F of 2 CFR 200 and the federal Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996, the rules shall set forth standards to obtain consistency and uniformity among State and federal pass-through awarding agencies for the audit of non-federal entities expending State and federal awards. These provisions shall also set forth the policies and procedures for State and federal pass-through entities when using the results of these audits.

The provisions of this item (3) do not apply to for-profit subrecipients because for-profit subrecipients are not subject to the requirements of 2 CFR 200, Subpart F, Audits of States, Local and Non-Profit Organizations. Audits of for-profit subrecipients must be conducted pursuant to a Program Audit Guide issued by the Federal awarding agency. If a Program Audit Guide is not available, the State awarding agency must prepare a Program Audit Guide in accordance with the 2 CFR 200, Subpart F – Audit Requirements - Compliance Supplement. For-profit entities are subject to all other general administrative requirements and cost principles applicable to grants.

(b) This Act addresses only State and federal pass-through auditing functions and does not address the external audit function of the Auditor General.

(c) For public institutions of higher education, the provisions of this Section apply only to awards funded by federal pass-through awards from a State agency to public institutions of higher education. Federal pass-through awards from a State agency to public institutions of higher education are governed by and must comply with federal guidelines under 2 CFR 200.

(d) The State grant-making agency is responsible for establishing requirements, as necessary, to ensure compliance by for-profit subrecipients. The agreement with the for-profit subrecipient shall describe the applicable compliance requirements and the for-profit subrecipient's compliance responsibility. Methods to ensure compliance for State and federal pass-through awards made to for-profit subrecipients shall include pre-award, audits, monitoring during the agreement, and post-award audits. The Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall provide such advice and technical assistance to the State grant-making agency as is necessary or indicated.

(Source: P.A. 102-626, eff. 8-27-21; revised 12-2-21.)

(30 ILCS 708/45)

Sec. 45. Applicability.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the requirements established under this Act apply to State grant-making agencies that make State and federal pass-through awards to non-federal entities. These requirements apply to all costs related to State and federal pass-through awards. The requirements established under this Act do not apply to private awards, to allocations of State revenues paid over by the Comptroller to units of local government and other taxing districts pursuant to the State Revenue Sharing Act from the Local Government Distributive Fund or the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund, or to allotments of State motor fuel tax revenues distributed by the Department of Transportation to units of local government pursuant to the Motor Fuel Tax Law from the Motor Fuel Tax Fund or the Transportation Renewal Fund.

(a-5) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the use of State funds for purposes of federal match or maintenance of effort.

(b) The terms and conditions of State, federal, and pass-through awards apply to subawards and subrecipients unless a particular Section of this Act or the terms and conditions of the State or federal award specifically indicate otherwise. Non-federal entities shall comply with requirements of this Act regardless of whether the non-federal entity is a recipient or subrecipient of a State or federal pass-through award. Pass-through entities shall comply with the requirements set forth under the rules adopted under subsection (a) of Section 20 of this Act, but not to any requirements in this Act directed towards State or federal awarding agencies, unless the requirements of the State or federal awards indicate otherwise.

When a non-federal entity is awarded a cost-reimbursement contract, only 2 CFR 200.330 through 200.332 are incorporated by reference into the contract. However, when the Cost Accounting Standards are applicable to the contract, they take precedence over the requirements of this Act unless they are in conflict with Subpart F of 2 CFR 200. In addition, costs that are made unallowable under 10 U.S.C. 2324(e) and 41 U.S.C. 4304(a), as described in the Federal Acquisition Regulations, subpart 31.2 and subpart 31.603, are always unallowable. For requirements other than those covered in Subpart D of 2 CFR 200.330 through 200.332, the terms of the contract and the Federal Acquisition Regulations apply.

With the exception of Subpart F of 2 CFR 200, which is required by the Single Audit Act, in any circumstances where the provisions of federal statutes or regulations differ from the provisions of this Act, the provision of the federal statutes or regulations govern. This includes, for agreements with Indian tribes, the provisions of the Indian Self-Determination and Education and Assistance Act, as amended, 25 U.S.C. 450-458ddd-2.

(c) State grant-making agencies may apply subparts A through E of 2 CFR 200 to for-profit entities, foreign public entities, or foreign organizations, except where the awarding agency determines that the application of these subparts would be inconsistent with the international obligations of the United States or the statute or regulations of a foreign government.

(d) 2 CFR 200.101 specifies how 2 CFR 200 is applicable to different types of awards. The same applicability applies to this Act.

(e) (Blank).

(f) For public institutions of higher education, the provisions of this Act apply only to awards funded by federal pass-through awards from a State agency to public institutions of higher education. This Act shall recognize provisions in 2 CFR 200 as applicable to public institutions of higher education, including Appendix III of Part 200 and the cost principles under Subpart E.

(g) Each grant-making agency shall enhance its processes to monitor and address noncompliance with reporting requirements and with program performance standards. Where applicable, the process may include a corrective action plan. The monitoring process shall include a plan for tracking and documenting performance-based contracting decisions.

(h) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, grants awarded from federal funds received from the federal Coronavirus State Fiscal Recovery Fund in accordance with Section 9901 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 are subject to the provisions of this Act, but only to the extent required by Section 9901 of the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 and other applicable federal law or regulation.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-626, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-27-21.)

Section 235. The Intergovernmental Drug Laws Enforcement Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 715/3) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1703)

Sec. 3. A Metropolitan Enforcement Group which meets the minimum criteria established in this Section is eligible to receive State grants to help defray the costs of operation. To be eligible a MEG must:

(1) Be established and operating pursuant to intergovernmental contracts written and executed in conformity with the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, and involve 2 or more units of local government.

(2) Establish a MEG Policy Board composed of an elected official, or his designee, and the chief law enforcement officer, or his designee, from each participating unit of local government to oversee the operations of the MEG and make such reports to the Illinois State Police as the Illinois State Police may require.

(3) Designate a single appropriate elected official of a participating unit of local government to act as the financial officer of the MEG for all participating units of local government and to receive funds for the operation of the MEG.

(4) Limit its operations to enforcement of drug laws; enforcement of Sections 10-9, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.5, 24-1.7, 24-1.8, 24-2.1, 24-2.2, 24-3, 24-3.1, 24-3.2, 24-3.3, 24-3.4, 24-3.5, 24-3.7, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 24-3A, 24-3B, 24-4, and 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012; Sections 2, 3, 6.1, and 14 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and the investigation of streetgang related offenses.

(5) Cooperate with the Illinois State Police in order to assure compliance with this Act and to enable the Illinois State Police to fulfill its duties under this Act, and supply the Illinois State Police with all information the Illinois State Police deems necessary therefor.

(6) Receive funding of at least 50% of the total operating budget of the MEG from the participating units of local government.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-6-21.)

Section 240. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Sections 8.43, 8.44, and 8.45 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.43)

Sec. 8.43. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 101-11, 101-49, 101-275, 101-320, 101-377, 101-387, 101-474, 101-492, 101-502, 101-504, 101-522, 101-610, or 101-627, or 101-673.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by the Seizure Smart School Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-11, eff. 6-7-19; 101-49, eff. 7-12-19; 101-50, eff. 7-1-20; 101-275, eff. 8-9-19; 101-320, eff. 8-9-19; 101-377, eff. 8-16-19; 101-387, eff. 8-16-19; 101-474, eff. 8-23-19; 101-492, eff. 8-23-19; 101-502, eff. 8-23-19; 101-504, eff. 7-1-20; 101-522, eff. 8-23-19; 101-610, eff. 1-1-20; 101-627, eff. 1-24-20; 101-673, eff. 4-5-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-28-21.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.44)

Sec. 8.44. Exempt mandate.

(a) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Section 4-7 of the Illinois Local Library Act or Section 30-55.60 of the Public Library District Act of 1991.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 101-633 or 101-653.

(Source: P.A. 101-632, eff. 6-5-20; 101-633, eff. 6-5-20; 101-653, eff. 2-28-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 8-20-21.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.45)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 8.45. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 102-16, 102-63, 102-81, 102-91, 102-97, 102-113, 102-125, 102-202, 102-210, 102-263, 102-265, 102-293, 102-342, 102-540, 102-552, or 102-636 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-63, eff. 7-9-21; 102-81, eff. 7-9-21; 102-91, eff. 7-9-21; 102-97, eff. 1-1-22; 102-113, eff. 7-23-21; 102-125, eff. 7-23-21; 102-202, eff. 7-30-21; 102-210, eff. 1-1-22; 102-263, eff. 8-6-21; 102-265, eff. 8-6-21; 102-293, eff. 8-6-21; 102-342, eff. 8-13-21; 102-540, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; 102-636, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-1-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 8.45. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 102-16, 102-63, 102-81, 102-91, 102-97, 102-113, 102-125, 102-202, 102-210, 102-263, 102-265, 102-293, 102-342, 102-466, 102-540, 102-552, or 102-636 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-63, eff. 7-9-21; 102-81, eff. 7-9-21; 102-91, eff. 7-9-21; 102-97, eff. 1-1-22; 102-113, eff. 7-23-21; 102-125, eff. 7-23-21; 102-202, eff. 7-30-21; 102-210, eff. 1-1-22; 102-263, eff. 8-6-21; 102-265, eff. 8-6-21; 102-293, eff. 8-6-21; 102-342, eff. 8-13-21; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-540, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; 102-636, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-1-21.)

Section 245. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 203, 901, and 917 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/203) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-203)

Sec. 203. Base income defined.

(a) Individuals.

(1) In general. In the case of an individual, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The adjusted gross income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income, except stock dividends of qualified public utilities described in Section 305(e) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year;

(C) An amount equal to the amount received during the taxable year as a recovery or refund of real property taxes paid with respect to the taxpayer's principal residence under the Revenue Act of 1939 and for which a deduction was previously taken under subparagraph (L) of this paragraph (2) prior to July 1, 1991, the retrospective application date of Article 4 of Public Act 87-17. In the case of multi-unit or multi-use structures and farm dwellings, the taxes on the taxpayer's principal residence shall be that portion of the total taxes for the entire property which is attributable to such principal residence;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income;

(D-5) An amount, to the extent not included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of money withdrawn by the taxpayer in the taxable year from a medical care savings account and the interest earned on the account in the taxable year of a withdrawal pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act or subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000;

(D-10) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the individual deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the individual claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(D-15) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-16) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (Z) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (Z) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (Z), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-17) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-18) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-19) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) or Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) of this Act;

(D-20) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2006, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, or (iii) a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that (I) adopts and determines that its offering materials comply with the College Savings Plans Network's disclosure principles and (II) has made reasonable efforts to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs by informing Illinois residents directly and, where applicable, to inform financial intermediaries distributing the program to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs at least annually, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B).

For the purposes of this subparagraph (D-20), a qualified tuition program has made reasonable efforts if it makes disclosures (which may use the term "in-state program" or "in-state plan" and need not specifically refer to Illinois or its qualified programs by name) (i) directly to prospective participants in its offering materials or makes a public disclosure, such as a website posting; and (ii) where applicable, to intermediaries selling the out-of-state program in the same manner that the out-of-state program distributes its offering materials;

(D-20.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of a distribution from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code, other than a distribution from a qualified ABLE program created under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529A(c)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-21) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by the State to an out-of-state program, an amount equal to the amount of moneys previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section;

(D-21.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of the transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 or a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by this State to an ABLE account established under an out-of-state ABLE account program, an amount equal to the contribution component of the transferred amount that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) or subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-22) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2009, and prior to January 1, 2018, in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified expenses at an eligible education institution, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(y) of this Section, provided that the withdrawal or refund did not result from the beneficiary's death or disability. For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018: (1) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund, as defined under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section, and (2) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified disability expenses, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-23) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-24) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(D-25) In the case of a resident, an amount equal to the amount of tax for which a credit is allowed pursuant to Section 201(p)(7) of this Act;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(E) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 1971 or thereafter for annual training performed pursuant to Sections 502 and 503, Title 32, United States Code as a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being a member of any component of the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 2001 or thereafter by reason of being a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. The provisions of this subparagraph (E) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(F) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a), and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(G) The valuation limitation amount;

(H) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(J) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (J) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (J) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (K);

(L) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1983, an amount equal to all social security benefits and railroad retirement benefits included in such total pursuant to Sections 72(r) and 86 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(M) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (N), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(O) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code or of any itemized deduction taken from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year;

(Q) An amount equal to any amounts included in such total, received by the taxpayer as an acceleration in the payment of life, endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable as an indemnity for a terminal illness;

(R) An amount equal to the amount of any federal or State bonus paid to veterans of the Persian Gulf War;

(S) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of a contribution made in the taxable year on behalf of the taxpayer to a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 to the extent the contribution is accepted by the account administrator as provided in that Act;

(T) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of interest earned in the taxable year on a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 on behalf of the taxpayer, other than interest added pursuant to item (D-5) of this paragraph (2);

(U) For one taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, an amount equal to the total amount of tax imposed and paid under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act on grant amounts received by the taxpayer under the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Act during the taxpayer's taxable years 1992 and 1993;

(V) Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with tax years ending on or before December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount paid by a taxpayer who is a self-employed taxpayer, a partner of a partnership, or a shareholder in a Subchapter S corporation for health insurance or long-term care insurance for that taxpayer or that taxpayer's spouse or dependents, to the extent that the amount paid for that health insurance or long-term care insurance may be deducted under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code, has not been deducted on the federal income tax return of the taxpayer, and does not exceed the taxable income attributable to that taxpayer's income, self-employment income, or Subchapter S corporation income; except that no deduction shall be allowed under this item (V) if the taxpayer is eligible to participate in any health insurance or long-term care insurance plan of an employer of the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse. The amount of the health insurance and long-term care insurance subtracted under this item (V) shall be determined by multiplying total health insurance and long-term care insurance premiums paid by the taxpayer times a number that represents the fractional percentage of eligible medical expenses under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 not actually deducted on the taxpayer's federal income tax return;

(W) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1998, all amounts included in the taxpayer's federal gross income in the taxable year from amounts converted from a regular IRA to a Roth IRA. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2004, moneys contributed in the taxable year to a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2005, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to (i) a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For purposes of this subparagraph, contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee. This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation deprecation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1–bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(AA) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (Z) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (AA) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(BB) Any amount included in adjusted gross income, other than salary, received by a driver in a ridesharing arrangement using a motor vehicle;

(CC) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification, and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (CC) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(DD) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (DD) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(EE) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (EE) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(FF) An amount equal to any amount awarded to the taxpayer during the taxable year by the Court of Claims under subsection (c) of Section 8 of the Court of Claims Act for time unjustly served in a State prison. This subparagraph (FF) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(GG) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (GG), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (GG). This subparagraph (GG) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(HH) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018 and prior to January 1, 2023, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to a qualified ABLE account under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) or Section 529A(c)(1)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (HH). For purposes of this subparagraph (HH), contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee.

(b) Corporations.

(1) In general. In the case of a corporation, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest and all distributions received from regulated investment companies during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(C) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the excess of (i) the net long-term capital gain for the taxable year, over (ii) the amount of the capital gain dividends designated as such in accordance with Section 852(b)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code and any amount designated under Section 852(b)(3)(D) of the Internal Revenue Code, attributable to the taxable year (this amendatory Act of 1995 (Public Act 89-89) is declarative of existing law and is not a new enactment);

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such earlier taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(E-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the corporation deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the corporation claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(E-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(E-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (T) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (T) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (T), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(E-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) or Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) of this Act;

(E-15) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2008, any deduction for dividends paid by a captive real estate investment trust that is allowed to a real estate investment trust under Section 857(b)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code for dividends paid;

(E-16) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(E-17) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-18) for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2018, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 250(a)(1)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-19) for taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 250(a)(1)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

(E-20) for taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Sections 243(e) and 245A(a) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year.

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to any amount included in such total under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(H) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the amount of exempt interest dividends as defined in subsection (b)(5) of Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, paid to shareholders for the taxable year;

(I) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (J), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) and amounts disallowed as interest expense by Section 291(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, 291(a)(3), and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, amounts disallowed as deductions by Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code and the policyholders' share of tax-exempt interest of a life insurance company under Section 807(a)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company with gross income from a decrease in reserves for the tax year) or Section 807(b)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company allowed a deduction for an increase in reserves for the tax year); the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph 2 of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (L);

(M) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(f) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(f) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in the River Edge Redevelopment Zone. The subtraction modification available to the taxpayer in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M-1) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the High Impact Business Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(h) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(h) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois. No taxpayer that is eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M-1). The subtraction modification available to taxpayers in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence;

(N) Two times any contribution made during the taxable year to a designated zone organization to the extent that the contribution (i) qualifies as a charitable contribution under subsection (c) of Section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code and (ii) must, by its terms, be used for a project approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Section 11 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or under Section 10-10 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. This subparagraph (N) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(O) An amount equal to: (i) 85% for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 1992, or, a percentage equal to the percentage allowable under Section 243(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 for taxable years ending after December 31, 1992, of the amount by which dividends included in taxable income and received from a corporation that is not created or organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 965 of the Internal Revenue Code, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends, and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust; plus (ii) 100% of the amount by which dividends, included in taxable income and received, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust, from any such corporation specified in clause (i) that would but for the provisions of Section 1504(b)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code be treated as a member of the affiliated group which includes the dividend recipient, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends. For taxable years ending on or after June 30, 2021, (i) for purposes of this subparagraph, the term "dividend" does not include any amount treated as a dividend under Section 1248 of the Internal Revenue Code, and (ii) this subparagraph shall not apply to dividends for which a deduction is allowed under Section 245(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act;

(P) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(Q) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(R) On and after July 20, 1999, in the case of an attorney-in-fact with respect to whom an interinsurer or a reciprocal insurer has made the election under Section 835 of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 835, an amount equal to the excess, if any, of the amounts paid or incurred by that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer in the taxable year to the attorney-in-fact over the deduction allowed to that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer with respect to the attorney-in-fact under Section 835(b) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1997, in the case of a Subchapter S corporation, an amount equal to all amounts of income allocable to a shareholder subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, including amounts allocable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation deprecation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1–bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (T) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) The amount of: (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, and (iii) any insurance premium income (net of deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), or Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(Z) The difference between the nondeductible controlled foreign corporation dividends under Section 965(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code over the taxable income of the taxpayer, computed without regard to Section 965(e)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, and without regard to any net operating loss deduction. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(3) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (2)(A), "gross income" in the case of a life insurance company, for tax years ending on and after December 31, 1994, and prior to December 31, 2011, shall mean the gross investment income for the taxable year and, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall mean all amounts included in life insurance gross income under Section 803(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) Trusts and estates.

(1) In general. In the case of a trust or estate, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3), the taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) In the case of (i) an estate, $600; (ii) a trust which, under its governing instrument, is required to distribute all of its income currently, $300; and (iii) any other trust, $100, but in each such case, only to the extent such amount was deducted in the computation of taxable income;

(C) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(F) For taxable years ending on or after January 1, 1989, an amount equal to the tax deducted pursuant to Section 164 of the Internal Revenue Code if the trust or estate is claiming the same tax for purposes of the Illinois foreign tax credit under Section 601 of this Act;

(G) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(G-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the trust or estate deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the trust or estate claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(G-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(G-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (R) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (R) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (R), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(G-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes: (1) expenses, losses, and costs for or related to the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) or Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) of this Act;

(G-15) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(G-16) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(H) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a) and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(I) The valuation limitation amount;

(J) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(K) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(L) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (K), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(O) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (O);

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(Q) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(R) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation deprecation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1–bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (R) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) in the case of an estate, an amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted by the decedent from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from Section 250;

(X) an amount equal to the refund included in such total of any tax deducted for federal income tax purposes, to the extent that deduction was added back under subparagraph (F). This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(Z) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2018 and before January 1, 2026, the amount of excess business loss of the taxpayer disallowed as a deduction by Section 461(l)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(3) Limitation. The amount of any modification otherwise required under this subsection shall, under regulations prescribed by the Department, be adjusted by any amounts included therein which were properly paid, credited, or required to be distributed, or permanently set aside for charitable purposes pursuant to Internal Revenue Code Section 642(c) during the taxable year.

(d) Partnerships.

(1) In general. In the case of a partnership, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income for the taxable year;

(C) The amount of deductions allowed to the partnership pursuant to Section 707 (c) of the Internal Revenue Code in calculating its taxable income;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(D-5) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-6) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (O) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (O) and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (O), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-7) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act; and

(D-8) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets;

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-9) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) or Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) of this Act;

(D-10) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-11) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the following amounts:

(E) The valuation limitation amount;

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C) and (D) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(H) Any income of the partnership which constitutes personal service income as defined in Section 1348(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code (as in effect December 31, 1981) or a reasonable allowance for compensation paid or accrued for services rendered by partners to the partnership, whichever is greater; this subparagraph (H) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts of income distributable to an entity subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act including amounts distributable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code; this subparagraph (I) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (G), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations from a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Real Property Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M);

(N) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(O) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429);

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0;

(iii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals the depreciation deduction that would be allowed on that property if the taxpayer had made the election under Section 168(k)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code to not claim bonus depreciation deprecation on that property; and

(iv) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of a percentage other than 30%, 50% or 100% of the adjusted basis was taken in a taxable year ending on or after December 31, 2021, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 100 times the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(bonus%)) and then divided by 100 times 1 minus the percentage bonus depreciation on the property (that is, 100(1–bonus%)).

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(P) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which a subtraction is allowed with respect to that property under subparagraph (O) and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (P) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Q) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (Q) is exempt from Section 250;

(R) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from Section 250;

(S) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from Section 250; and

(T) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (T), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (T). This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Gross income; adjusted gross income; taxable income.

(1) In general. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) and subsection (b)(3), for purposes of this Section and Section 803(e), a taxpayer's gross income, adjusted gross income, or taxable income for the taxable year shall mean the amount of gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year under the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code. Taxable income may be less than zero. However, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1986, net operating loss carryforwards from taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, may not exceed the sum of federal taxable income for the taxable year before net operating loss deduction, plus the excess of addition modifications over subtraction modifications for the taxable year. For taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, taxable income may never be an amount in excess of the net operating loss for the taxable year as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code, provided that when taxable income of a corporation (other than a Subchapter S corporation), trust, or estate is less than zero and addition modifications, other than those provided by subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) for corporations or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) for trusts and estates, exceed subtraction modifications, an addition modification must be made under those subparagraphs for any other taxable year to which the taxable income less than zero (net operating loss) is applied under Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code or under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (e) applied in conjunction with Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes shall mean:

(A) Certain life insurance companies. In the case of a life insurance company subject to the tax imposed by Section 801 of the Internal Revenue Code, life insurance company taxable income, plus the amount of distribution from pre-1984 policyholder surplus accounts as calculated under Section 815a of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) Certain other insurance companies. In the case of mutual insurance companies subject to the tax imposed by Section 831 of the Internal Revenue Code, insurance company taxable income;

(C) Regulated investment companies. In the case of a regulated investment company subject to the tax imposed by Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, investment company taxable income;

(D) Real estate investment trusts. In the case of a real estate investment trust subject to the tax imposed by Section 857 of the Internal Revenue Code, real estate investment trust taxable income;

(E) Consolidated corporations. In the case of a corporation which is a member of an affiliated group of corporations filing a consolidated income tax return for the taxable year for federal income tax purposes, taxable income determined as if such corporation had filed a separate return for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year and each preceding taxable year for which it was a member of an affiliated group. For purposes of this subparagraph, the taxpayer's separate taxable income shall be determined as if the election provided by Section 243(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code had been in effect for all such years;

(F) Cooperatives. In the case of a cooperative corporation or association, the taxable income of such organization determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 1381 through 1388 of the Internal Revenue Code, but without regard to the prohibition against offsetting losses from patronage activities against income from nonpatronage activities; except that a cooperative corporation or association may make an election to follow its federal income tax treatment of patronage losses and nonpatronage losses. In the event such election is made, such losses shall be computed and carried over in a manner consistent with subsection (a) of Section 207 of this Act and apportioned by the apportionment factor reported by the cooperative on its Illinois income tax return filed for the taxable year in which the losses are incurred. The election shall be effective for all taxable years with original returns due on or after the date of the election. In addition, the cooperative may file an amended return or returns, as allowed under this Act, to provide that the election shall be effective for losses incurred or carried forward for taxable years occurring prior to the date of the election. Once made, the election may only be revoked upon approval of the Director. The Department shall adopt rules setting forth requirements for documenting the elections and any resulting Illinois net loss and the standards to be used by the Director in evaluating requests to revoke elections. Public Act 96-932 is declaratory of existing law;

(G) Subchapter S corporations. In the case of: (i) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect an election for the taxable year under Section 1362 of the Internal Revenue Code, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with Section 1363(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 1363(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code to be separately stated; and (ii) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect a federal election to opt out of the provisions of the Subchapter S Revision Act of 1982 and have applied instead the prior federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with the federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982; and

(H) Partnerships. In the case of a partnership, taxable income determined in accordance with Section 703 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 703(a)(1) to be separately stated but which would be taken into account by an individual in calculating his taxable income.

(3) Recapture of business expenses on disposition of asset or business. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if in prior years income from an asset or business has been classified as business income and in a later year is demonstrated to be non-business income, then all expenses, without limitation, deducted in such later year and in the 2 immediately preceding taxable years related to that asset or business that generated the non-business income shall be added back and recaptured as business income in the year of the disposition of the asset or business. Such amount shall be apportioned to Illinois using the greater of the apportionment fraction computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year or the average of the apportionment fractions computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year and for the 2 immediately preceding taxable years.

(f) Valuation limitation amount.

(1) In general. The valuation limitation amount referred to in subsections (a)(2)(G), (c)(2)(I) and (d)(2)(E) is an amount equal to:

(A) The sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of gain reportable under the provisions of Section 1245 or 1250 of the Internal Revenue Code) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for the taxable year; plus

(B) The lesser of (i) the sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of capital gain) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or (ii) the net capital gain for the taxable year, reduced in either case by any amount of such gain included in the amount determined under subsection (a)(2)(F) or (c)(2)(H).

(2) Pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount.

(A) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is the lesser of (i) the excess of such fair market value over the taxpayer's basis (for determining gain) for such property on that date (determined under the Internal Revenue Code as in effect on that date), or (ii) the total gain realized and reportable for federal income tax purposes in respect of the sale, exchange or other disposition of such property.

(B) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was not readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is that amount which bears the same ratio to the total gain reported in respect of the property for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, as the number of full calendar months in that part of the taxpayer's holding period for the property ending July 31, 1969 bears to the number of full calendar months in the taxpayer's entire holding period for the property.

(C) The Department shall prescribe such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this paragraph.

(g) Double deductions. Unless specifically provided otherwise, nothing in this Section shall permit the same item to be deducted more than once.

(h) Legislative intention. Except as expressly provided by this Section there shall be no modifications or limitations on the amounts of income, gain, loss or deduction taken into account in determining gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or in the amount of such items entering into the computation of base income and net income under this Act for such taxable year, whether in respect of property values as of August 1, 1969 or otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 101-9, eff. 6-5-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-658, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(35 ILCS 5/901)

Sec. 901. Collection authority.

(a) In general. The Department shall collect the taxes imposed by this Act. The Department shall collect certified past due child support amounts under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (e), (f), (g), and (h) of this Section, money collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury; money collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury; and money collected under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund, a special fund outside the State Treasury, or to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as directed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(b) Local Government Distributive Fund. Beginning August 1, 2017, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of: (i) 6.06% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 4.95% individual income tax rate after July 1, 2017) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month; (ii) 6.85% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 7% corporate income tax rate after July 1, 2017) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month; and (iii) beginning February 1, 2022, 6.06% of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsection (p) of Section 201 of this Act upon electing pass-through entities. Net revenue realized for a month shall be defined as the revenue from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act which is deposited in the General Revenue Fund, the Education Assistance Fund, the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund, the Fund for the Advancement of Education, and the Commitment to Human Services Fund during the month minus the amount paid out of the General Revenue Fund in State warrants during that same month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23), those amounts required under this subsection (b) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Local Government Distributive Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Local Government Distributive Fund as the revenue is realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

(c) Deposits Into Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.5%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 10%. For fiscal year 2018, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.8%. For fiscal year 2019, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.7%. For fiscal year 2020, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.5%. For fiscal year 2021, the Annual Percentage shall be 9%. For fiscal year 2022, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.25%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, minus the amounts transferred into the Income Tax Refund Fund from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 7.6%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(2) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 13.4%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2018, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2019, the Annual Percentage shall be 15.5%. For fiscal year 2020, the Annual Percentage shall be 14.25%. For fiscal year 2021, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2022, the Annual Percentage shall be 15%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 23%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(3) The Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund (i) $35,000,000 in January, 2001, (ii) $35,000,000 in January, 2002, and (iii) $35,000,000 in January, 2003.

(d) Expenditures from Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning January 1, 1989, money in the Income Tax Refund Fund shall be expended exclusively for the purpose of paying refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act and for making transfers pursuant to this subsection (d).

(2) The Director shall order payment of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act from the Income Tax Refund Fund only to the extent that amounts collected pursuant to Section 201 of this Act and transfers pursuant to this subsection (d) and item (3) of subsection (c) have been deposited and retained in the Fund.

(3) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4.5) As soon as possible after the end of fiscal year 1999 and of each fiscal year thereafter, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the General Revenue Fund any surplus remaining in the Income Tax Refund Fund as of the end of such fiscal year; excluding for fiscal years 2000, 2001, and 2002 amounts attributable to transfers under item (3) of subsection (c) less refunds resulting from the earned income tax credit.

(5) This Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation from the Income Tax Refund Fund for the purpose of paying refunds upon the order of the Director in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(e) Deposits into the Education Assistance Fund and the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund. On July 1, 1991, and thereafter, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 7.3% into the Education Assistance Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1991, and continuing through January 31, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 3.0% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning February 1, 1993 and continuing through June 30, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 4.4% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1993, and continuing through June 30, 1994, of the amounts collected under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 1.475% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury.

(f) Deposits into the Fund for the Advancement of Education. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Fund for the Advancement of Education:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (f) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(g) Deposits into the Commitment to Human Services Fund. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Commitment to Human Services Fund:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (g) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(h) Deposits into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. Beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department from the tax imposed by subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, net of deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund made from those cash receipts.

(Source: P.A. 101-8, see Section 99 for effective date; 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-658, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-19-21.)

(35 ILCS 5/917) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-917)

Sec. 917. Confidentiality and information sharing.

(a) Confidentiality. Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the Department from returns filed under this Act, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Act, shall be confidential, except for official purposes within the Department or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State tax or pursuant to an investigation or audit by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission of a delinquent student loan or monetary award or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by another statute imposing a State tax, and any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except for such purposes and pursuant to order of the Director or in accordance with a proper judicial order, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. However, the provisions of this paragraph are not applicable to information furnished to (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), State's Attorneys, and the Attorney General for child support enforcement purposes and (ii) a licensed attorney representing the taxpayer where an appeal or a protest has been filed on behalf of the taxpayer. If it is necessary to file information obtained pursuant to this Act in a child support enforcement proceeding, the information shall be filed under seal. The furnishing upon request of the Auditor General, or his or her authorized agents, for official use of returns filed and information related thereto under this Act is deemed to be an official purpose within the Department within the meaning of this Section.

(b) Public information. Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from publishing or making available to the public the names and addresses of persons filing returns under this Act, or from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the tax wherein the contents of returns are grouped into aggregates in such a way that the information contained in any individual return shall not be disclosed.

(c) Governmental agencies. The Director may make available to the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States or his delegate, or the proper officer or his delegate of any other state imposing a tax upon or measured by income, for exclusively official purposes, information received by the Department in the administration of this Act, but such permission shall be granted only if the United States or such other state, as the case may be, grants the Department substantially similar privileges. The Director may exchange information with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, and any other health benefit program administered by the State. The Director may exchange information with the Director of the Department of Employment Security for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act and Acts administered by the Department of Employment Security. The Director may make available to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission information regarding employers for the purpose of verifying the insurance coverage required under the Workers' Compensation Act and Workers' Occupational Diseases Act. The Director may exchange information with the Illinois Department on Aging for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income for purposes directly related to confirming eligibility for participation in the programs of benefits authorized by the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act. The Director may exchange information with the State Treasurer's Office and the Department of Employment Security for the purpose of implementing, administering, and enforcing the Illinois Secure Choice Savings Program Act. The Director may exchange information with the State Treasurer's Office for the purpose of administering the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act or successor Acts. The Director may exchange information with the State Treasurer's Office for the purpose of administering the Illinois Higher Education Savings Program established under Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, which licenses persons to engage in any occupation, information that a person licensed by such agency has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, information regarding whether a bidder, contractor, or an affiliate of a bidder or contractor has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty, and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest due under this Act, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications. For purposes of this Section, the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (a), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (a), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, units of local government, and school districts, information regarding whether a bidder or contractor is an affiliate of a person who is not collecting and remitting Illinois Use taxes, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications.

The Director may also make available to the Secretary of State information that a corporation which has been issued a certificate of incorporation by the Secretary of State has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. An assessment is final when all proceedings in court for review of such assessment have terminated or the time for the taking thereof has expired without such proceedings being instituted. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the Director may make available to the Director or principal officer of any Department of the State of Illinois, information that a person employed by such Department has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein. For purposes of this paragraph, the word "Department" shall have the same meaning as provided in Section 3 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

(d) The Director shall make available for public inspection in the Department's principal office and for publication, at cost, administrative decisions issued on or after January 1, 1995. These decisions are to be made available in a manner so that the following taxpayer information is not disclosed:

(1) The names, addresses, and identification numbers of the taxpayer, related entities, and employees.

(2) At the sole discretion of the Director, trade secrets or other confidential information identified as such by the taxpayer, no later than 30 days after receipt of an administrative decision, by such means as the Department shall provide by rule.

The Director shall determine the appropriate extent of the deletions allowed in paragraph (2). In the event the taxpayer does not submit deletions, the Director shall make only the deletions specified in paragraph (1).

The Director shall make available for public inspection and publication an administrative decision within 180 days after the issuance of the administrative decision. The term "administrative decision" has the same meaning as defined in Section 3-101 of Article III of the Code of Civil Procedure. Costs collected under this Section shall be paid into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from divulging information to any person pursuant to a request or authorization made by the taxpayer, by an authorized representative of the taxpayer, or, in the case of information related to a joint return, by the spouse filing the joint return with the taxpayer.

(Source: P.A. 102-61, eff. 7-9-21; 102-129, eff. 7-23-21; revised 8-10-21.)

Section 250. The Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act is amended by changing Section 5-45 as follows:

(35 ILCS 10/5-45)

Sec. 5-45. Amount and duration of the credit.

(a) The Department shall determine the amount and duration of the credit awarded under this Act. The duration of the credit may not exceed 10 taxable years. The credit may be stated as a percentage of the Incremental Income Tax attributable to the applicant's project and may include a fixed dollar limitation.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a), and except as the credit may be applied in a carryover year pursuant to Section 211(4) of the Illinois Income Tax Act, the credit may be applied against the State income tax liability in more than 10 taxable years but not in more than 15 taxable years for an eligible business that (i) qualifies under this Act and the Corporate Headquarters Relocation Act and has in fact undertaken a qualifying project within the time frame specified by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under that Act, and (ii) applies against its State income tax liability, during the entire 15-year period, no more than 60% of the maximum credit per year that would otherwise be available under this Act.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department, in consultation with the Department of Revenue, from adopting rules to extend the sunset of any earned, existing, and unused tax credit or credits a taxpayer may be in possession of, as provided for in Section 605-1070 605-1055 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, notwithstanding the carry-forward provisions pursuant to paragraph (4) of Section 211 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; revised 12-6-21.)

Section 255. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 2-5, and 3 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/1) (from Ch. 120, par. 440)

Sec. 1. Definitions. "Sale at retail" means any transfer of the ownership of or title to tangible personal property to a purchaser, for the purpose of use or consumption, and not for the purpose of resale in any form as tangible personal property to the extent not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, for a valuable consideration: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or byproduct of manufacturing. For this purpose, slag produced as an incident to manufacturing pig iron or steel and sold is considered to be an intentionally produced byproduct of manufacturing. Transactions whereby the possession of the property is transferred but the seller retains the title as security for payment of the selling price shall be deemed to be sales.

"Sale at retail" shall be construed to include any transfer of the ownership of or title to tangible personal property to a purchaser, for use or consumption by any other person to whom such purchaser may transfer the tangible personal property without a valuable consideration, and to include any transfer, whether made for or without a valuable consideration, for resale in any form as tangible personal property unless made in compliance with Section 2c of this Act.

Sales of tangible personal property, which property, to the extent not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, as an ingredient or constituent, goes into and forms a part of tangible personal property subsequently the subject of a "Sale at retail", are not sales at retail as defined in this Act: Provided that the property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or byproduct of manufacturing.

"Sale at retail" shall be construed to include any Illinois florist's sales transaction in which the purchase order is received in Illinois by a florist and the sale is for use or consumption, but the Illinois florist has a florist in another state deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in such other state.

Nonreusable tangible personal property that is used by persons engaged in the business of operating a restaurant, cafeteria, or drive-in is a sale for resale when it is transferred to customers in the ordinary course of business as part of the sale of food or beverages and is used to deliver, package, or consume food or beverages, regardless of where consumption of the food or beverages occurs. Examples of those items include, but are not limited to nonreusable, paper and plastic cups, plates, baskets, boxes, sleeves, buckets or other containers, utensils, straws, placemats, napkins, doggie bags, and wrapping or packaging materials that are transferred to customers as part of the sale of food or beverages in the ordinary course of business.

The purchase, employment and transfer of such tangible personal property as newsprint and ink for the primary purpose of conveying news (with or without other information) is not a purchase, use or sale of tangible personal property.

A person whose activities are organized and conducted primarily as a not-for-profit service enterprise, and who engages in selling tangible personal property at retail (whether to the public or merely to members and their guests) is engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail with respect to such transactions, excepting only a person organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes either (1), to the extent of sales by such person to its members, students, patients or inmates of tangible personal property to be used primarily for the purposes of such person, or (2), to the extent of sales by such person of tangible personal property which is not sold or offered for sale by persons organized for profit. The selling of school books and school supplies by schools at retail to students is not "primarily for the purposes of" the school which does such selling. The provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to nor subject to taxation occasional dinners, socials or similar activities of a person organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes, whether or not such activities are open to the public.

A person who is the recipient of a grant or contract under Title VII of the Older Americans Act of 1965 (P.L. 92-258) and serves meals to participants in the federal Nutrition Program for the Elderly in return for contributions established in amount by the individual participant pursuant to a schedule of suggested fees as provided for in the federal Act is not engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail with respect to such transactions.

"Purchaser" means anyone who, through a sale at retail, acquires the ownership of or title to tangible personal property for a valuable consideration.

"Reseller of motor fuel" means any person engaged in the business of selling or delivering or transferring title of motor fuel to another person other than for use or consumption. No person shall act as a reseller of motor fuel within this State without first being registered as a reseller pursuant to Section 2c or a retailer pursuant to Section 2a.

"Selling price" or the "amount of sale" means the consideration for a sale valued in money whether received in money or otherwise, including cash, credits, property, other than as hereinafter provided, and services, but, prior to January 1, 2020 and beginning again on January 1, 2022, not including the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property where the item that is traded-in is of like kind and character as that which is being sold; beginning January 1, 2020 and until January 1, 2022, "selling price" includes the portion of the value of or credit given for traded-in motor vehicles of the First Division as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code of like kind and character as that which is being sold that exceeds $10,000. "Selling price" shall be determined without any deduction on account of the cost of the property sold, the cost of materials used, labor or service cost or any other expense whatsoever, but does not include charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's tax liability under this Act, or on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax that is imposed by the Use Tax Act, or, except as otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit, on account of the seller's tax liability under any local occupation tax administered by the Department, or, except as otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchasers, the tax that is imposed under any local use tax administered by the Department. Effective December 1, 1985, "selling price" shall include charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's tax liability under the Cigarette Tax Act, on account of the sellers' duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax imposed under the Cigarette Use Tax Act, and on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, any cigarette tax imposed by a home rule unit.

Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, for any motor vehicle, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Vehicle Code, that is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of leasing the vehicle for a defined period that is longer than one year and (1) is a motor vehicle of the second division that: (A) is a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently converted to provide living quarters for recreational, camping, or travel use, with direct walk through access to the living quarters from the driver's seat; (B) is of the van configuration designed for the transportation of not less than 7 nor more than 16 passengers; or (C) has a gross vehicle weight rating of 8,000 pounds or less or (2) is a motor vehicle of the first division, "selling price" or "amount of sale" means the consideration received by the lessor pursuant to the lease contract, including amounts due at lease signing and all monthly or other regular payments charged over the term of the lease. Also included in the selling price is any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed, including, but not limited to, excess mileage charges and charges for excess wear and tear. For sales that occur in Illinois, with respect to any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed, the lessor who purchased the motor vehicle does not incur the tax imposed by the Use Tax Act on those amounts, and the retailer who makes the retail sale of the motor vehicle to the lessor is not required to collect the tax imposed by the Use Tax Act or to pay the tax imposed by this Act on those amounts. However, the lessor who purchased the motor vehicle assumes the liability for reporting and paying the tax on those amounts directly to the Department in the same form (Illinois Retailers' Occupation Tax, and local retailers' occupation taxes, if applicable) in which the retailer would have reported and paid such tax if the retailer had accounted for the tax to the Department. For amounts received by the lessor from the lessee that are not calculated at the time the lease is executed, the lessor must file the return and pay the tax to the Department by the due date otherwise required by this Act for returns other than transaction returns. If the retailer is entitled under this Act to a discount for collecting and remitting the tax imposed under this Act to the Department with respect to the sale of the motor vehicle to the lessor, then the right to the discount provided in this Act shall be transferred to the lessor with respect to the tax paid by the lessor for any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed; provided that the discount is only allowed if the return is timely filed and for amounts timely paid. The "selling price" of a motor vehicle that is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of leasing for a defined period of longer than one year shall not be reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property owned by the lessor, nor shall it be reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible personal property owned by the lessee, regardless of whether the trade-in value thereof is assigned by the lessee to the lessor. In the case of a motor vehicle that is sold for the purpose of leasing for a defined period of longer than one year, the sale occurs at the time of the delivery of the vehicle, regardless of the due date of any lease payments. A lessor who incurs a Retailers' Occupation Tax liability on the sale of a motor vehicle coming off lease may not take a credit against that liability for the Use Tax the lessor paid upon the purchase of the motor vehicle (or for any tax the lessor paid with respect to any amount received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that was not calculated at the time the lease was executed) if the selling price of the motor vehicle at the time of purchase was calculated using the definition of "selling price" as defined in this paragraph. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, lessors shall file all returns and make all payments required under this paragraph to the Department by electronic means in the manner and form as required by the Department. This paragraph does not apply to leases of motor vehicles for which, at the time the lease is entered into, the term of the lease is not a defined period, including leases with a defined initial period with the option to continue the lease on a month-to-month or other basis beyond the initial defined period.

The phrase "like kind and character" shall be liberally construed (including but not limited to any form of motor vehicle for any form of motor vehicle, or any kind of farm or agricultural implement for any other kind of farm or agricultural implement), while not including a kind of item which, if sold at retail by that retailer, would be exempt from retailers' occupation tax and use tax as an isolated or occasional sale.

"Gross receipts" from the sales of tangible personal property at retail means the total selling price or the amount of such sales, as hereinbefore defined. In the case of charge and time sales, the amount thereof shall be included only as and when payments are received by the seller. Receipts or other consideration derived by a seller from the sale, transfer or assignment of accounts receivable to a wholly owned subsidiary will not be deemed payments prior to the time the purchaser makes payment on such accounts.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

The isolated or occasional sale of tangible personal property at retail by a person who does not hold himself out as being engaged (or who does not habitually engage) in selling such tangible personal property at retail, or a sale through a bulk vending machine, does not constitute engaging in a business of selling such tangible personal property at retail within the meaning of this Act; provided that any person who is engaged in a business which is not subject to the tax imposed by this Act because of involving the sale of or a contract to sell real estate or a construction contract to improve real estate or a construction contract to engineer, install, and maintain an integrated system of products, but who, in the course of conducting such business, transfers tangible personal property to users or consumers in the finished form in which it was purchased, and which does not become real estate or was not engineered and installed, under any provision of a construction contract or real estate sale or real estate sales agreement entered into with some other person arising out of or because of such nontaxable business, is engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail to the extent of the value of the tangible personal property so transferred. If, in such a transaction, a separate charge is made for the tangible personal property so transferred, the value of such property, for the purpose of this Act, shall be the amount so separately charged, but not less than the cost of such property to the transferor; if no separate charge is made, the value of such property, for the purposes of this Act, is the cost to the transferor of such tangible personal property. Construction contracts for the improvement of real estate consisting of engineering, installation, and maintenance of voice, data, video, security, and all telecommunication systems do not constitute engaging in a business of selling tangible personal property at retail within the meaning of this Act if they are sold at one specified contract price.

A person who holds himself or herself out as being engaged (or who habitually engages) in selling tangible personal property at retail is a person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail hereunder with respect to such sales (and not primarily in a service occupation) notwithstanding the fact that such person designs and produces such tangible personal property on special order for the purchaser and in such a way as to render the property of value only to such purchaser, if such tangible personal property so produced on special order serves substantially the same function as stock or standard items of tangible personal property that are sold at retail.

Persons who engage in the business of transferring tangible personal property upon the redemption of trading stamps are engaged in the business of selling such property at retail and shall be liable for and shall pay the tax imposed by this Act on the basis of the retail value of the property transferred upon redemption of such stamps.

"Bulk vending machine" means a vending machine, containing unsorted confections, nuts, toys, or other items designed primarily to be used or played with by children which, when a coin or coins of a denomination not larger than $0.50 are inserted, are dispensed in equal portions, at random and without selection by the customer.

"Remote retailer" means a retailer that does not maintain within this State, directly or by a subsidiary, an office, distribution house, sales house, warehouse or other place of business, or any agent or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the retailer or its subsidiary, irrespective of whether such place of business or agent is located here permanently or temporarily or whether such retailer or subsidiary is licensed to do business in this State.

"Marketplace" means a physical or electronic place, forum, platform, application, or other method by which a marketplace seller sells or offers to sell items.

"Marketplace facilitator" means a person who, pursuant to an agreement with an unrelated third-party marketplace seller, directly or indirectly through one or more affiliates facilitates a retail sale by an unrelated third party marketplace seller by:

(1) listing or advertising for sale by the marketplace seller in a marketplace, tangible personal property that is subject to tax under this Act; and

(2) either directly or indirectly, through agreements or arrangements with third parties, collecting payment from the customer and transmitting that payment to the marketplace seller regardless of whether the marketplace facilitator receives compensation or other consideration in exchange for its services.

A person who provides advertising services, including listing products for sale, is not considered a marketplace facilitator, so long as the advertising service platform or forum does not engage, directly or indirectly through one or more affiliated persons, in the activities described in paragraph (2) of this definition of "marketplace facilitator".

"Marketplace facilitator" does not include any person licensed under the Auction License Act. This exemption does not apply to any person who is an Internet auction listing service, as defined by the Auction License Act.

"Marketplace seller" means a person that makes sales through a marketplace operated by an unrelated third party marketplace facilitator.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 101-604, eff. 1-1-20; 102-353, eff. 1-1-22; 102-634, eff. 8-27-21; revised 11-1-21.)

(35 ILCS 120/2-5)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (2) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (14).

(5) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) (Blank).

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (14) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (14) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (4) of this Section.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Tangible personal property sold to a purchaser if the purchaser is exempt from use tax by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Until July 1, 2023, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(22) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 C.F.R. 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010 and continuing through December 31, 2024, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the sale of qualifying tangible personal property to persons who modify, refurbish, complete, replace, or maintain an aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (40) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the exemption under this paragraph (40) applies continuously from January 1, 2010 through December 31, 2024; however, no claim for credit or refund is allowed for taxes paid as a result of the disallowance of this exemption on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(41) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(42) Beginning January 1, 2017 and through December 31, 2026, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(43) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(44) Qualified tangible personal property used in the construction or operation of a data center that has been granted a certificate of exemption by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, whether that tangible personal property is purchased by the owner, operator, or tenant of the data center or by a contractor or subcontractor of the owner, operator, or tenant. Data centers that would have qualified for a certificate of exemption prior to January 1, 2020 had this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly been in effect, may apply for and obtain an exemption for subsequent purchases of computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased to upgrade, supplement, or replace computer equipment or enabling software purchased or leased in the original investment that would have qualified.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall grant a certificate of exemption under this item (44) to qualified data centers as defined by Section 605-1025 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

For the purposes of this item (44):

"Data center" means a building or a series of buildings rehabilitated or constructed to house working servers in one physical location or multiple sites within the State of Illinois.

"Qualified tangible personal property" means: electrical systems and equipment; climate control and chilling equipment and systems; mechanical systems and equipment; monitoring and secure systems; emergency generators; hardware; computers; servers; data storage devices; network connectivity equipment; racks; cabinets; telecommunications cabling infrastructure; raised floor systems; peripheral components or systems; software; mechanical, electrical, or plumbing systems; battery systems; cooling systems and towers; temperature control systems; other cabling; and other data center infrastructure equipment and systems necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property, including fixtures; and component parts of any of the foregoing, including installation, maintenance, repair, refurbishment, and replacement of qualified tangible personal property to generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage electricity necessary to operate qualified tangible personal property; and all other tangible personal property that is essential to the operations of a computer data center. The term "qualified tangible personal property" also includes building materials physically incorporated into in to the qualifying data center. To document the exemption allowed under this Section, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser a copy of the certificate of eligibility issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

This item (44) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(45) Beginning January 1, 2020 and through December 31, 2020, sales of tangible personal property made by a marketplace seller over a marketplace for which tax is due under this Act but for which use tax has been collected and remitted to the Department by a marketplace facilitator under Section 2d of the Use Tax Act are exempt from tax under this Act. A marketplace seller claiming this exemption shall maintain books and records demonstrating that the use tax on such sales has been collected and remitted by a marketplace facilitator. Marketplace sellers that have properly remitted tax under this Act on such sales may file a claim for credit as provided in Section 6 of this Act. No claim is allowed, however, for such taxes for which a credit or refund has been issued to the marketplace facilitator under the Use Tax Act, or for which the marketplace facilitator has filed a claim for credit or refund under the Use Tax Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-629, eff. 2-5-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-634, eff. 8-27-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(35 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 120, par. 442)

Sec. 3. Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. His residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. Total amount of receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter, as the case may be, from sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him during such preceding calendar month or quarter;

4. Total amount received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter on charge and time sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him prior to the month or quarter for which the return is filed;

5. Deductions allowed by law;

6. Gross receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

7. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

8. The amount of tax due;

9. The signature of the taxpayer; and

10. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

On and after January 1, 2018, except for returns for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Retailers who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Each return shall be accompanied by the statement of prepaid tax issued pursuant to Section 2e for which credit is claimed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a retailer may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted by a retailer prior to October 1, 2003 and on and after September 1, 2004 as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act, may be used by that retailer to satisfy Retailers' Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchase Purchaser Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Every person engaged in the business of selling aviation fuel at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall, instead of reporting and paying tax as otherwise required by this Section, report and pay such tax on a separate aviation fuel tax return. The requirements related to the return shall be as otherwise provided in this Section. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act to the contrary, retailers selling aviation fuel shall file all aviation fuel tax returns and shall make all aviation fuel tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department. For purposes of this Section, "aviation fuel" means jet fuel and aviation gasoline.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, any person who is not a licensed distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer, as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, but is engaged in the business of selling, at retail, alcoholic liquor shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, in a format and at a time prescribed by the Department, showing the total amount paid for alcoholic liquor purchased during the preceding month and such other information as is reasonably required by the Department. The Department may adopt rules to require that this statement be filed in an electronic or telephonic format. Such rules may provide for exceptions from the filing requirements of this paragraph. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "alcoholic liquor" shall have the meaning prescribed in the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, every distributor, importing distributor, and manufacturer of alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which transactions occurred, by electronic means, showing the total amount of gross receipts from the sale of alcoholic liquor sold or distributed during the preceding month to purchasers; identifying the purchaser to whom it was sold or distributed; the purchaser's tax registration number; and such other information reasonably required by the Department. A distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer of alcoholic liquor must personally deliver, mail, or provide by electronic means to each retailer listed on the monthly statement a report containing a cumulative total of that distributor's, importing distributor's, or manufacturer's total sales of alcoholic liquor to that retailer no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which the transaction occurred. The distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall notify the retailer as to the method by which the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer will provide the sales information. If the retailer is unable to receive the sales information by electronic means, the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall furnish the sales information by personal delivery or by mail. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "electronic means" includes, but is not limited to, the use of a secure Internet website, e-mail, or facsimile.

If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable or creditable, such amount shall be disregarded if it is less than 50 cents and shall be increased to $1 if it is 50 cents or more.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, retailers subject to tax on cannabis shall file all cannabis tax returns and shall make all cannabis tax payments by electronic means in the manner and form required by the Department.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Any amount which is required to be shown or reported on any return or other document under this Act shall, if such amount is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest whole-dollar amount in any case where the fractional part of a dollar is 50 cents or more, and decreased to the nearest whole-dollar amount where the fractional part of a dollar is less than 50 cents.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability with the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, except as otherwise provided in this Section, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle retailer or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 2-5 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every person who is engaged in the business of leasing or renting such items and who, in connection with such business, sells any such item to a retailer for the purpose of resale is, notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, authorized to meet the return-filing requirement of this Act by reporting the transfer of all the aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transferred for resale during a month to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form on or before the 20th of the month following the month in which the transfer takes place. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, all returns filed under this paragraph must be filed by electronic means in the manner and form as required by the Department.

Any retailer who sells only motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, so that all retailers' occupation tax liability is required to be reported, and is reported, on such transaction reporting returns and who is not otherwise required to file monthly or quarterly returns, need not file monthly or quarterly returns. However, those retailers shall be required to file returns on an annual basis.

The transaction reporting return, in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft or aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the day of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the Illinois use tax may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a use tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of the tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Refunds made by the seller during the preceding return period to purchasers, on account of tangible personal property returned to the seller, shall be allowed as a deduction under subdivision 5 of his monthly or quarterly return, as the case may be, in case the seller had theretofore included the receipts from the sale of such tangible personal property in a return filed by him and had paid the tax imposed by this Act with respect to such receipts.

Where the seller is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

Where the seller is a limited liability company, the return filed on behalf of the limited liability company shall be signed by a manager, member, or properly accredited agent of the limited liability company.

Except as provided in this Section, the retailer filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. On and after January 1, 2021, a certified service provider, as defined in the Leveling the Playing Field for Illinois Retail Act, filing the return under this Section on behalf of a remote retailer shall, at the time of such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 1.75%. A remote retailer using a certified service provider to file a return on its behalf, as provided in the Leveling the Playing Field for Illinois Retail Act, is not eligible for the discount. The discount under this Section is not allowed for the 1.25% portion of taxes paid on aviation fuel that is subject to the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133. Any prepayment made pursuant to Section 2d of this Act shall be included in the amount on which such 2.1% or 1.75% discount is computed. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985 and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987 and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $10,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $20,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

The provisions of this paragraph apply before October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes which average in excess of $25,000 per month during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters, shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to September 1, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-221), each payment shall be in an amount not less than 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability under Section 2d. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1986, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding calendar year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters is $25,000 or less. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

The provisions of this paragraph apply on and after October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes that average in excess of $20,000 per month during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which the liability is incurred. Each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of the quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until the taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarters is less than $20,000. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The credit evidenced by such credit memorandum may be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determined that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% and 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If a retailer of motor fuel is entitled to a credit under Section 2d of this Act which exceeds the taxpayer's liability to the Department under this Act for the month for which the taxpayer is filing a return, the Department shall issue the taxpayer a credit memorandum for the excess.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax imposed under this Act.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate other than aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property other than aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019. This exception for aviation fuel only applies for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

For aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, each month the Department shall pay into the State Aviation Program Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of aviation fuel, less an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 20% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act, which amount shall be deposited into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall only pay moneys into the State Aviation Program Fund and the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this Act for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund under this Act and the Use Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as hereinafter defined), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; the "Annual Specified Amount" means the amounts specified below for fiscal years 1986 through 1993: and means the Certified Annual Debt Service Requirement (as defined in Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act) or the Tax Act Amount, whichever is greater, for fiscal year 1994 and each fiscal year thereafter; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year. The amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under clause (b) of the first sentence in this paragraph shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the first sentence of this paragraph and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to that clause (b). The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Capital Projects Fund, the Clean Air Act Permit Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, for aviation fuel sold on or after December 1, 2019, the Department shall each month deposit into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund an amount estimated by the Department to be required for refunds of the 80% portion of the tax on aviation fuel under this Act. The Department shall only deposit moneys into the Aviation Fuel Sales Tax Refund Fund under this paragraph for so long as the revenue use requirements of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b) and 49 U.S.C. 47133 are binding on the State.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Subject to successful execution and delivery of a public-private agreement between the public agency and private entity and completion of the civic build, beginning on July 1, 2023, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, the Department shall deposit the following specified deposits in the aggregate from collections under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, as required under Section 8.25g of the State Finance Act for distribution consistent with the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Civic and Transit Infrastructure Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 25-55 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act. As used in this paragraph, "civic build", "private entity", "public-private agreement", and "public agency" have the meanings provided in Section 25-10 of the Public-Private Partnership for Civic and Transit Infrastructure Project Act.

Fiscal Year.............................Total Deposit

2024.....................................$200,000,000

2025....................................$206,000,000

2026....................................$212,200,000

2027....................................$218,500,000

2028....................................$225,100,000

2029....................................$288,700,000

2030....................................$298,900,000

2031....................................$309,300,000

2032....................................$320,100,000

2033....................................$331,200,000

2034....................................$341,200,000

2035....................................$351,400,000

2036....................................$361,900,000

2037....................................$372,800,000

2038....................................$384,000,000

2039....................................$395,500,000

2040....................................$407,400,000

2041....................................$419,600,000

2042....................................$432,200,000

2043....................................$445,100,000

Beginning July 1, 2021 and until July 1, 2022, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 16% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2022 and until July 1, 2023, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 32% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2023 and until July 1, 2024, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 48% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning July 1, 2024 and until July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 64% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning on July 1, 2025, subject to the payment of amounts into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, the Local Government Tax Fund, the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, the Department shall pay each month into the Road Fund the amount estimated to represent 80% of the net revenue realized from the taxes imposed on motor fuel and gasohol. As used in this paragraph "motor fuel" has the meaning given to that term in Section 1.1 of the Motor Fuel Tax Act, and "gasohol" has the meaning given to that term in Section 3-40 of the Use Tax Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the retailer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the retailer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The retailer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the retailer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, costs of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the retailer during such year, payroll information of the retailer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such retailer as provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The provisions of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return do not apply to a retailer who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

Any person who promotes, organizes, provides retail selling space for concessionaires or other types of sellers at the Illinois State Fair, DuQuoin State Fair, county fairs, local fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, including any transient merchant as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, is required to file a report with the Department providing the name of the merchant's business, the name of the person or persons engaged in merchant's business, the permanent address and Illinois Retailers Occupation Tax Registration Number of the merchant, the dates and location of the event and other reasonable information that the Department may require. The report must be filed not later than the 20th day of the month next following the month during which the event with retail sales was held. Any person who fails to file a report required by this Section commits a business offense and is subject to a fine not to exceed $250.

Any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail as a concessionaire or other type of seller at the Illinois State Fair, county fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, or any transient merchants, as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, may be required to make a daily report of the amount of such sales to the Department and to make a daily payment of the full amount of tax due. The Department shall impose this requirement when it finds that there is a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State at such an exhibition or event. Such a finding shall be based on evidence that a substantial number of concessionaires or other sellers who are not residents of Illinois will be engaging in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail at the exhibition or event, or other evidence of a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State. The Department shall notify concessionaires and other sellers affected by the imposition of this requirement. In the absence of notification by the Department, the concessionaires and other sellers shall file their returns as otherwise required in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, Article 15, Section 15-25, eff. 6-5-19; 101-10, Article 25, Section 25-120, eff. 6-5-19; 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-32, eff. 6-28-19; 101-604, eff. 12-13-19; 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-634, eff. 8-27-21; revised 12-7-21.)

Section 260. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 18-185, 21-260, and 22-10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/18-185)

Sec. 18-185. Short title; definitions. This Division 5 may be cited as the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law. As used in this Division 5:

"Consumer Price Index" means the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor.

"Extension limitation" means (a) the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year or (b) the rate of increase approved by voters under Section 18-205.

"Affected county" means a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants or a county contiguous to a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants.

"Taxing district" has the same meaning provided in Section 1-150, except as otherwise provided in this Section. For the 1991 through 1994 levy years only, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district having the majority of its 1990 equalized assessed value within any county or counties contiguous to a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants. Beginning with the 1995 levy year, "taxing district" includes only each non-home rule taxing district subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year and each non-home rule taxing district not subject to this Law before the 1995 levy year having the majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value in an affected county or counties. Beginning with the levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to a taxing district as provided in Section 18-213, "taxing district" also includes those taxing districts made subject to this Law as provided in Section 18-213.

"Aggregate extension" for taxing districts to which this Law applied before the 1995 levy year means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before October 1, 1991; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after October 1, 1991 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before October 1, 1991 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before October 1, 1991, to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before October 1, 1991; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), (e), and (h) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made by a school district that participates in the Special Education District of Lake County, created by special education joint agreement under Section 10-22.31 of the School Code, for payment of the school district's share of the amounts required to be contributed by the Special Education District of Lake County to the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under Article 7 of the Illinois Pension Code; the amount of any extension under this item (k) shall be certified by the school district to the county clerk; (l) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (m) made for temporary relocation loan repayment purposes pursuant to Sections 2-3.77 and 17-2.2d of the School Code; (n) made for payment of principal and interest on any bonds issued under the authority of Section 17-2.2d of the School Code; (o) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (p) made for road purposes in the first year after a township assumes the rights, powers, duties, assets, property, liabilities, obligations, and responsibilities of a road district abolished under the provisions of Section 6-133 of the Illinois Highway Code.

"Aggregate extension" for the taxing districts to which this Law did not apply before the 1995 levy year (except taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213) means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 1, 1995; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 1, 1995 that were approved by referendum; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 1, 1995 for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 1, 1995 to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 1, 1995; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act to finance construction projects initiated before October 1, 1991; (h-4) made for stormwater management purposes by the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District of Greater Chicago under Section 12 of the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum and bonds described in subsection (h) of this definition; (j) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (k) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium or museum projects and bonds issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for the purpose of making contributions to the pension fund established under Article 12 of the Illinois Pension Code; (l) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds authorized by Public Act 87-1191 or 93-601 and (i) issued pursuant to Section 21.2 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act, (ii) issued under Section 42 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for zoological park projects, or (iii) issued under Section 44.1 of the Cook County Forest Preserve District Act for botanical gardens projects; (m) made pursuant to Section 34-53.5 of the School Code, whether levied annually or not; (n) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (o) made by the Chicago Park District for recreational programs for persons with disabilities under subsection (c) of Section 7.06 of the Chicago Park District Act; (p) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; (q) made by Ford Heights School District 169 under Section 17-9.02 of the School Code; and (r) made for the purpose of making employer contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago under Section 34-53 of the School Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those taxing districts subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held if the bonds were approved by referendum after the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before the date on which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held; (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code; and (m) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of the School Code.

"Aggregate extension" for all taxing districts to which this Law applies in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 means the annual corporate extension for the taxing district and those special purpose extensions that are made annually for the taxing district, excluding special purpose extensions: (a) made for the taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds that were approved by referendum; (b) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (c) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund those bonds issued before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (d) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on bonds issued to refund or continue to refund bonds issued after March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718) if the bonds were approved by referendum after March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (e) made for any taxing district to pay interest or principal on revenue bonds issued before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718) for payment of which a property tax levy or the full faith and credit of the unit of local government is pledged; however, a tax for the payment of interest or principal on those bonds shall be made only after the governing body of the unit of local government finds that all other sources for payment are insufficient to make those payments; (f) made for payments under a building commission lease when the lease payments are for the retirement of bonds issued by the commission before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718) to pay for the building project; (g) made for payments due under installment contracts entered into before March 7, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-718); (h) made for payments of principal and interest on limited bonds, as defined in Section 3 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, in an amount not to exceed the debt service extension base less the amount in items (b), (c), and (e) of this definition for non-referendum obligations, except obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum; (i) made for payments of principal and interest on bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; (j) made for a qualified airport authority to pay interest or principal on general obligation bonds issued for the purpose of paying obligations due under, or financing airport facilities required to be acquired, constructed, installed or equipped pursuant to, contracts entered into before March 1, 1996 (but not including any amendments to such a contract taking effect on or after that date); (k) made to fund expenses of providing joint recreational programs for persons with disabilities under Section 5-8 of the Park District Code or Section 11-95-14 of the Illinois Municipal Code; and (l) made for contributions to a firefighter's pension fund created under Article 4 of the Illinois Pension Code, to the extent of the amount certified under item (5) of Section 4-134 of the Illinois Pension Code.

"Debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for a taxing district for the 1994 levy year, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with Section 18-213, except for those subject to paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213, for the levy year in which the referendum making this Law applicable to the taxing district is held, or for those taxing districts subject to this Law in accordance with paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 18-213 for the 1996 levy year, constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the taxing district without referendum, but not including excluded non-referendum bonds. For park districts (i) that were first subject to this Law in 1991 or 1995 and (ii) whose extension for the 1994 levy year for the payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds) was less than 51% of the amount for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds), "debt service extension base" means an amount equal to that portion of the extension for the 1991 levy year constituting an extension for payment of principal and interest on bonds issued by the park district without referendum (but not including excluded non-referendum bonds). A debt service extension base established or increased at any time pursuant to any provision of this Law, except Section 18-212, shall be increased each year commencing with the later of (i) the 2009 levy year or (ii) the first levy year in which this Law becomes applicable to the taxing district, by the lesser of 5% or the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index during the 12-month calendar year preceding the levy year. The debt service extension base may be established or increased as provided under Section 18-212. "Excluded non-referendum bonds" means (i) bonds authorized by Public Act 88-503 and issued under Section 20a of the Chicago Park District Act for aquarium and museum projects; (ii) bonds issued under Section 15 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act; or (iii) refunding obligations issued to refund or to continue to refund obligations initially issued pursuant to referendum.

"Special purpose extensions" include, but are not limited to, extensions for levies made on an annual basis for unemployment and workers' compensation, self-insurance, contributions to pension plans, and extensions made pursuant to Section 6-601 of the Illinois Highway Code for a road district's permanent road fund whether levied annually or not. The extension for a special service area is not included in the aggregate extension.

"Aggregate extension base" means the taxing district's last preceding aggregate extension as adjusted under Sections 18-135, 18-215, 18-230, 18-206, and 18-233. An adjustment under Section 18-135 shall be made for the 2007 levy year and all subsequent levy years whenever one or more counties within which a taxing district is located (i) used estimated valuations or rates when extending taxes in the taxing district for the last preceding levy year that resulted in the over or under extension of taxes, or (ii) increased or decreased the tax extension for the last preceding levy year as required by Section 18-135(c). Whenever an adjustment is required under Section 18-135, the aggregate extension base of the taxing district shall be equal to the amount that the aggregate extension of the taxing district would have been for the last preceding levy year if either or both (i) actual, rather than estimated, valuations or rates had been used to calculate the extension of taxes for the last levy year, or (ii) the tax extension for the last preceding levy year had not been adjusted as required by subsection (c) of Section 18-135.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for levy year 2012, the aggregate extension base for West Northfield School District No. 31 in Cook County shall be $12,654,592.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for levy year 2022, the aggregate extension base of a home equity assurance program that levied at least $1,000,000 in property taxes in levy year 2019 or 2020 under the Home Equity Assurance Act shall be the amount that the program's aggregate extension base for levy year 2021 would have been if the program had levied a property tax for levy year 2021.

"Levy year" has the same meaning as "year" under Section 1-155.

"New property" means (i) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of new improvements or additions to existing improvements on any parcel of real property that increase the assessed value of that real property during the levy year multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, (ii) the assessed value, after final board of review or board of appeals action, of real property not exempt from real estate taxation, which real property was exempt from real estate taxation for any portion of the immediately preceding levy year, multiplied by the equalization factor issued by the Department under Section 17-30, including the assessed value, upon final stabilization of occupancy after new construction is complete, of any real property located within the boundaries of an otherwise or previously exempt military reservation that is intended for residential use and owned by or leased to a private corporation or other entity, (iii) in counties that classify in accordance with Section 4 of Article IX of the Illinois Constitution, an incentive property's additional assessed value resulting from a scheduled increase in the level of assessment as applied to the first year final board of review market value, and (iv) any increase in assessed value due to oil or gas production from an oil or gas well required to be permitted under the Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act that was not produced in or accounted for during the previous levy year. In addition, the county clerk in a county containing a population of 3,000,000 or more shall include in the 1997 recovered tax increment value for any school district, any recovered tax increment value that was applicable to the 1995 tax year calculations.

"Qualified airport authority" means an airport authority organized under the Airport Authorities Act and located in a county bordering on the State of Wisconsin and having a population in excess of 200,000 and not greater than 500,000.

"Recovered tax increment value" means, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value, in the first year after a municipality terminates the designation of an area as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Economic Development Project Area Tax Increment Act of 1995, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. For the taxes which are extended for the 1997 levy year, the recovered tax increment value for a non-home rule taxing district that first became subject to this Law for the 1995 levy year because a majority of its 1994 equalized assessed value was in an affected county or counties shall be increased if a municipality terminated the designation of an area in 1993 as a redevelopment project area previously established under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, previously established under the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or previously established under the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, by an amount equal to the 1994 equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property in the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of each property in the redevelopment project area. In the first year after a municipality removes a taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property from a redevelopment project area established under the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act in the Illinois Municipal Code, the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law in the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Economic Development Area Tax Increment Allocation Act, "recovered tax increment value" means the amount of the current year's equalized assessed value of each taxable lot, block, tract, or parcel of real property removed from the redevelopment project area over and above the initial equalized assessed value of that real property before removal from the redevelopment project area.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, "limiting rate" means a fraction the numerator of which is the last preceding aggregate extension base times an amount equal to one plus the extension limitation defined in this Section and the denominator of which is the current year's equalized assessed value of all real property in the territory under the jurisdiction of the taxing district during the prior levy year. For those taxing districts that reduced their aggregate extension for the last preceding levy year, except for school districts that reduced their extension for educational purposes pursuant to Section 18-206, the highest aggregate extension in any of the last 3 preceding levy years shall be used for the purpose of computing the limiting rate. The denominator shall not include new property or the recovered tax increment value. If a new rate, a rate decrease, or a limiting rate increase has been approved at an election held after March 21, 2006, then (i) the otherwise applicable limiting rate shall be increased by the amount of the new rate or shall be reduced by the amount of the rate decrease, as the case may be, or (ii) in the case of a limiting rate increase, the limiting rate shall be equal to the rate set forth in the proposition approved by the voters for each of the years specified in the proposition, after which the limiting rate of the taxing district shall be calculated as otherwise provided. In the case of a taxing district that obtained referendum approval for an increased limiting rate on March 20, 2012, the limiting rate for tax year 2012 shall be the rate that generates the approximate total amount of taxes extendable for that tax year, as set forth in the proposition approved by the voters; this rate shall be the final rate applied by the county clerk for the aggregate of all capped funds of the district for tax year 2012.

(Source: P.A. 102-263, eff. 8-6-21; 102-311, eff. 8-6-21; 102-519, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-260)

Sec. 21-260. Collector's scavenger sale. Upon the county collector's application under Section 21-145, to be known as the Scavenger Sale Application, the Court shall enter judgment for the general taxes, special taxes, special assessments, interest, penalties and costs as are included in the advertisement and appear to be due thereon after allowing an opportunity to object and a hearing upon the objections as provided in Section 21-175, and order those properties sold by the County Collector at public sale, or by electronic automated sale if the collector chooses to conduct an electronic automated sale pursuant to Section 21-261, to the highest bidder for cash, notwithstanding the bid may be less than the full amount of taxes, special taxes, special assessments, interest, penalties and costs for which judgment has been entered.

(a) Conducting the sale; bidding sale - Bidding. All properties shall be offered for sale in consecutive order as they appear in the delinquent list. The minimum bid for any property shall be $250 or one-half of the tax if the total liability is less than $500. For in-person scavenger sales, the successful bidder shall pay the amount of the minimum bid to the County Collector by the end of the business day on which the bid was placed. That amount shall be paid in cash, by certified or cashier's check, by money order, or, if the successful bidder is a governmental unit, by a check issued by that governmental unit. For electronic automated scavenger sales, the successful bidder shall pay the minimum bid amount by the close of the business day on which the bid was placed. That amount shall be paid online via ACH debit or by the electronic payment method required by the county collector. For in-person scavenger sales, if the bid exceeds the minimum bid, the successful bidder shall pay the balance of the bid to the county collector in cash, by certified or cashier's check, by money order, or, if the successful bidder is a governmental unit, by a check issued by that governmental unit by the close of the next business day. For electronic automated scavenger sales, the successful bidder shall pay, by the close of the next business day, the balance of the bid online via ACH debit or by the electronic payment method required by the county collector. If the minimum bid is not paid at the time of sale or if the balance is not paid by the close of the next business day, then the sale is void and the minimum bid, if paid, is forfeited to the county general fund. In that event, the property shall be reoffered for sale within 30 days of the last offering of property in regular order. The collector shall make available to the public a list of all properties to be included in any reoffering due to the voiding of the original sale. The collector is not required to serve or publish any other notice of the reoffering of those properties. In the event that any of the properties are not sold upon reoffering, or are sold for less than the amount of the original voided sale, the original bidder who failed to pay the bid amount shall remain liable for the unpaid balance of the bid in an action under Section 21-240. Liability shall not be reduced where the bidder upon reoffering also fails to pay the bid amount, and in that event both bidders shall remain liable for the unpaid balance of their respective bids. A sale of properties under this Section shall not be final until confirmed by the court.

(b) Confirmation of sales. The county collector shall file his or her report of sale in the court within 30 days of the date of sale of each property. No notice of the county collector's application to confirm the sales shall be required except as prescribed by rule of the court. Upon confirmation, except in cases where the sale becomes void under Section 22-85, or in cases where the order of confirmation is vacated by the court, a sale under this Section shall extinguish the in rem lien of the general taxes, special taxes and special assessments for which judgment has been entered and a redemption shall not revive the lien. Confirmation of the sale shall in no event affect the owner's personal liability to pay the taxes, interest and penalties as provided in this Code or prevent institution of a proceeding under Section 21-440 to collect any amount that may remain due after the sale.

(c) Issuance of tax sale certificates. Upon confirmation of the sale, the County Clerk and the County Collector shall issue to the purchaser a certificate of purchase in the form prescribed by Section 21-250 as near as may be. A certificate of purchase shall not be issued to any person who is ineligible to bid at the sale or to receive a certificate of purchase under Section 21-265.

(d) Scavenger Tax Judgment, Sale and Redemption Record; sale Record - Sale of parcels not sold. The county collector shall prepare a Scavenger Tax Judgment, Sale and Redemption Record. The county clerk shall write or stamp on the scavenger tax judgment, sale, forfeiture and redemption record opposite the description of any property offered for sale and not sold, or not confirmed for any reason, the words "offered but not sold". The properties which are offered for sale under this Section and not sold or not confirmed shall be offered for sale annually thereafter in the manner provided in this Section until sold, except in the case of mineral rights, which after 10 consecutive years of being offered for sale under this Section and not sold or confirmed shall no longer be required to be offered for sale. At any time between annual sales the County Collector may advertise for sale any properties subject to sale under judgments for sale previously entered under this Section and not executed for any reason. The advertisement and sale shall be regulated by the provisions of this Code as far as applicable.

(e) Proceeding to tax deed. The owner of the certificate of purchase shall give notice as required by Sections 22-5 through 22-30, and may extend the period of redemption as provided by Section 21-385. At any time within 6 months prior to expiration of the period of redemption from a sale under this Code, the owner of a certificate of purchase may file a petition and may obtain a tax deed under Sections 22-30 through 22-55. Within 30 days from filing of the petition, the owner of a certificate must file with the county clerk the names and addresses of the owners of the property and those persons entitled to service of notice at their last known addresses. The clerk shall mail notice within 30 days from the date of the filing of addresses with the clerk. All proceedings for the issuance of a tax deed and all tax deeds for properties sold under this Section shall be subject to Sections 22-30 through 22-55. Deeds issued under this Section are subject to Section 22-70. This Section shall be liberally construed so that the deeds provided for in this Section convey merchantable title.

(f) Redemptions from scavenger sales. Redemptions may be made from sales under this Section in the same manner and upon the same terms and conditions as redemptions from sales made under the County Collector's annual application for judgment and order of sale, except that in lieu of penalty the person redeeming shall pay interest as follows if the sale occurs before September 9, 1993:

(1) If redeemed within the first 2 months from the date of the sale, 3% per month or portion thereof upon the amount for which the property was sold;

(2) If redeemed between 2 and 6 months from the date of the sale, 12% of the amount for which the property was sold;

(3) If redeemed between 6 and 12 months from the date of the sale, 24% of the amount for which the property was sold;

(4) If redeemed between 12 and 18 months from the date of the sale, 36% of the amount for which the property was sold;

(5) If redeemed between 18 and 24 months from the date of the sale, 48% of the amount for which the property was sold;

(6) If redeemed after 24 months from the date of sale, the 48% herein provided together with interest at 6% per year thereafter.

If the sale occurs on or after September 9, 1993, the person redeeming shall pay interest on that part of the amount for which the property was sold equal to or less than the full amount of delinquent taxes, special assessments, penalties, interest, and costs, included in the judgment and order of sale as follows:

(1) If redeemed within the first 2 months from the date of the sale, 3% per month upon the amount of taxes, special assessments, penalties, interest, and costs due for each of the first 2 months, or fraction thereof.

(2) If redeemed at any time between 2 and 6 months from the date of the sale, 12% of the amount of taxes, special assessments, penalties, interest, and costs due.

(3) If redeemed at any time between 6 and 12 months from the date of the sale, 24% of the amount of taxes, special assessments, penalties, interest, and costs due.

(4) If redeemed at any time between 12 and 18 months from the date of the sale, 36% of the amount of taxes, special assessments, penalties, interest, and costs due.

(5) If redeemed at any time between 18 and 24 months from the date of the sale, 48% of the amount of taxes, special assessments, penalties, interest, and costs due.

(6) If redeemed after 24 months from the date of sale, the 48% provided for the 24 months together with interest at 6% per annum thereafter on the amount of taxes, special assessments, penalties, interest, and costs due.

The person redeeming shall not be required to pay any interest on any part of the amount for which the property was sold that exceeds the full amount of delinquent taxes, special assessments, penalties, interest, and costs included in the judgment and order of sale.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, except for owner-occupied single family residential units which are condominium units, cooperative units or dwellings, the amount required to be paid for redemption shall also include an amount equal to all delinquent taxes on the property which taxes were delinquent at the time of sale. The delinquent taxes shall be apportioned by the county collector among the taxing districts in which the property is situated in accordance with law. In the event that all moneys received from any sale held under this Section exceed an amount equal to all delinquent taxes on the property sold, which taxes were delinquent at the time of sale, together with all publication and other costs associated with the sale, then, upon redemption, the County Collector and the County Clerk shall apply the excess amount to the cost of redemption.

(g) Bidding by county or other taxing districts. Any taxing district may bid at a scavenger sale. The county board of the county in which properties offered for sale under this Section are located may bid as trustee for all taxing districts having an interest in the taxes for the nonpayment of which the parcels are offered. The County shall apply on the bid the unpaid taxes due upon the property and no cash need be paid. The County or other taxing district acquiring a tax sale certificate shall take all steps necessary to acquire title to the property and may manage and operate the property so acquired.

When a county, or other taxing district within the county, is a petitioner for a tax deed, no filing fee shall be required on the petition. The county as a tax creditor and as trustee for other tax creditors, or other taxing district within the county shall not be required to allege and prove that all taxes and special assessments which become due and payable after the sale to the county have been paid. The county shall not be required to pay the subsequently accruing taxes or special assessments at any time. Upon the written request of the county board or its designee, the county collector shall not offer the property for sale at any tax sale subsequent to the sale of the property to the county under this Section. The lien of taxes and special assessments which become due and payable after a sale to a county shall merge in the fee title of the county, or other taxing district, on the issuance of a deed. The County may sell the properties so acquired, or the certificate of purchase thereto, and the proceeds of the sale shall be distributed to the taxing districts in proportion to their respective interests therein. The presiding officer of the county board, with the advice and consent of the County Board, may appoint some officer or person to attend scavenger sales and bid on its behalf.

(h) Miscellaneous provisions. In the event that the tract of land or lot sold at any such sale is not redeemed within the time permitted by law and a tax deed is issued, all moneys that may be received from the sale of properties in excess of the delinquent taxes, together with all publication and other costs associated with the sale, shall, upon petition of any interested party to the court that issued the tax deed, be distributed by the County Collector pursuant to order of the court among the persons having legal or equitable interests in the property according to the fair value of their interests in the tract or lot. Section 21-415 does not apply to properties sold under this Section. Appeals may be taken from the orders and judgments entered under this Section as in other civil cases. The remedy herein provided is in addition to other remedies for the collection of delinquent taxes.

(i) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 95-477 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly apply only to matters in which a petition for tax deed is filed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-477) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-519, eff. 8-20-21; 102-528, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-18-21.)

(35 ILCS 200/22-10)

Sec. 22-10. Notice of expiration of period of redemption. A purchaser or assignee shall not be entitled to a tax deed to the property sold unless, not less than 3 months nor more than 6 months prior to the expiration of the period of redemption, he or she gives notice of the sale and the date of expiration of the period of redemption to the owners, occupants, and parties interested in the property, including any mortgagee of record, as provided below. The clerk must mail notice in accordance with the provisions of subsection (e) of Section 21-260.

The Notice to be given to the parties shall be in at least 10 point type in the following form completely filled in:

TAX DEED NO. .................... FILED ....................

TAKE NOTICE

County of ...............................................

Date Premises Sold ......................................

Certificate No. ........................................

Sold for General Taxes of (year) ........................

Sold for Special Assessment of (Municipality)

and special assessment number ...........................

Warrant No. ................ Inst. No. .................

THIS PROPERTY HAS BEEN SOLD FOR

DELINQUENT TAXES

Property located at .........................................

Legal Description or Property Index No. .....................

.............................................................

.............................................................

This notice is to advise you that the above property has been sold for delinquent taxes and that the period of redemption from the sale will expire on .....................

.............................................................

The amount to redeem is subject to increase at 6 month intervals from the date of sale and may be further increased if the purchaser at the tax sale or his or her assignee pays any subsequently accruing taxes or special assessments to redeem the property from subsequent forfeitures or tax sales. Check with the county clerk as to the exact amount you owe before redeeming.

This notice is also to advise you that a petition has been filed for a tax deed which will transfer title and the right to possession of this property if redemption is not made on or before ......................................................

This matter is set for hearing in the Circuit Court of this county in ...., Illinois on .....

You may be present at this hearing but your right to redeem will already have expired at that time.

YOU ARE URGED TO REDEEM IMMEDIATELY

TO PREVENT LOSS OF PROPERTY

Redemption can be made at any time on or before .... by applying to the County Clerk of ...., County, Illinois at the Office of the County Clerk in ...., Illinois.

For further information contact the County Clerk

ADDRESS:.................... TELEPHONE:..................

..........................

Purchaser or Assignee.

Dated (insert date).

In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the notice shall also state the address, room number and time at which the matter is set for hearing.

The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-557 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly apply only to matters in which a petition for tax deed is filed on or after July 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-557) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-528, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-7-21.)

Section 265. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 1-160, 7-109, 7-141, 14-103.42, 14-110, 16-158, and 16-203 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/1-160)

Sec. 1-160. Provisions applicable to new hires.

(a) The provisions of this Section apply to a person who, on or after January 1, 2011, first becomes a member or a participant under any reciprocal retirement system or pension fund established under this Code, other than a retirement system or pension fund established under Article 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 15, or 18 of this Code, notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, but do not apply to any self-managed plan established under this Code or to any participant of the retirement plan established under Section 22-101; except that this Section applies to a person who elected to establish alternative credits by electing in writing after January 1, 2011, but before August 8, 2011, under Section 7-145.1 of this Code. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, for purposes of this Section, a person who is a Tier 1 regular employee as defined in Section 7-109.4 of this Code or who participated in a retirement system under Article 15 prior to January 1, 2011 shall be deemed a person who first became a member or participant prior to January 1, 2011 under any retirement system or pension fund subject to this Section. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-596 are a clarification of existing law and are intended to be retroactive to January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-889), notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-103.1 of this Code.

This Section does not apply to a person who first becomes a noncovered employee under Article 14 on or after the implementation date of the plan created under Section 1-161 for that Article, unless that person elects under subsection (b) of Section 1-161 to instead receive the benefits provided under this Section and the applicable provisions of that Article.

This Section does not apply to a person who first becomes a member or participant under Article 16 on or after the implementation date of the plan created under Section 1-161 for that Article, unless that person elects under subsection (b) of Section 1-161 to instead receive the benefits provided under this Section and the applicable provisions of that Article.

This Section does not apply to a person who elects under subsection (c-5) of Section 1-161 to receive the benefits under Section 1-161.

This Section does not apply to a person who first becomes a member or participant of an affected pension fund on or after 6 months after the resolution or ordinance date, as defined in Section 1-162, unless that person elects under subsection (c) of Section 1-162 to receive the benefits provided under this Section and the applicable provisions of the Article under which he or she is a member or participant.

(b) "Final average salary" means, except as otherwise provided in this subsection, the average monthly (or annual) salary obtained by dividing the total salary or earnings calculated under the Article applicable to the member or participant during the 96 consecutive months (or 8 consecutive years) of service within the last 120 months (or 10 years) of service in which the total salary or earnings calculated under the applicable Article was the highest by the number of months (or years) of service in that period. For the purposes of a person who first becomes a member or participant of any retirement system or pension fund to which this Section applies on or after January 1, 2011, in this Code, "final average salary" shall be substituted for the following:

(1) (Blank).

(2) In Articles 8, 9, 10, 11, and 12, "highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal".

(3) In Article 13, "average final salary".

(4) In Article 14, "final average compensation".

(5) In Article 17, "average salary".

(6) In Section 22-207, "wages or salary received by him at the date of retirement or discharge".

A member of the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois who retires on or after June 1, 2021 and for whom the 2020-2021 school year is used in the calculation of the member's final average salary shall use the higher of the following for the purpose of determining the member's final average salary:

(A) the amount otherwise calculated under the first paragraph of this subsection; or

(B) an amount calculated by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois using the average of the monthly (or annual) salary obtained by dividing the total salary or earnings calculated under Article 16 applicable to the member or participant during the 96 months (or 8 years) of service within the last 120 months (or 10 years) of service in which the total salary or earnings calculated under the Article was the highest by the number of months (or years) of service in that period.

(b-5) Beginning on January 1, 2011, for all purposes under this Code (including without limitation the calculation of benefits and employee contributions), the annual earnings, salary, or wages (based on the plan year) of a member or participant to whom this Section applies shall not exceed $106,800; however, that amount shall annually thereafter be increased by the lesser of (i) 3% of that amount, including all previous adjustments, or (ii) one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, including all previous adjustments.

For the purposes of this Section, "consumer price index-u" means the index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor that measures the average change in prices of goods and services purchased by all urban consumers, United States city average, all items, 1982-84 = 100. The new amount resulting from each annual adjustment shall be determined by the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance and made available to the boards of the retirement systems and pension funds by November 1 of each year.

(c) A member or participant is entitled to a retirement annuity upon written application if he or she has attained age 67 (age 65, with respect to service under Article 12 that is subject to this Section, for a member or participant under Article 12 who first becomes a member or participant under Article 12 on or after January 1, 2022 or who makes the election under item (i) of subsection (d-15) of this Section) and has at least 10 years of service credit and is otherwise eligible under the requirements of the applicable Article.

A member or participant who has attained age 62 (age 60, with respect to service under Article 12 that is subject to this Section, for a member or participant under Article 12 who first becomes a member or participant under Article 12 on or after January 1, 2022 or who makes the election under item (i) of subsection (d-15) of this Section) and has at least 10 years of service credit and is otherwise eligible under the requirements of the applicable Article may elect to receive the lower retirement annuity provided in subsection (d) of this Section.

(c-5) A person who first becomes a member or a participant subject to this Section on or after July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23), notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, is entitled to a retirement annuity under Article 8 or Article 11 upon written application if he or she has attained age 65 and has at least 10 years of service credit and is otherwise eligible under the requirements of Article 8 or Article 11 of this Code, whichever is applicable.

(d) The retirement annuity of a member or participant who is retiring after attaining age 62 (age 60, with respect to service under Article 12 that is subject to this Section, for a member or participant under Article 12 who first becomes a member or participant under Article 12 on or after January 1, 2022 or who makes the election under item (i) of subsection (d-15) of this Section) with at least 10 years of service credit shall be reduced by one-half of 1% for each full month that the member's age is under age 67 (age 65, with respect to service under Article 12 that is subject to this Section, for a member or participant under Article 12 who first becomes a member or participant under Article 12 on or after January 1, 2022 or who makes the election under item (i) of subsection (d-15) of this Section).

(d-5) The retirement annuity payable under Article 8 or Article 11 to an eligible person subject to subsection (c-5) of this Section who is retiring at age 60 with at least 10 years of service credit shall be reduced by one-half of 1% for each full month that the member's age is under age 65.

(d-10) Each person who first became a member or participant under Article 8 or Article 11 of this Code on or after January 1, 2011 and prior to July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall make an irrevocable election either:

(i) to be eligible for the reduced retirement age provided in subsections (c-5) and (d-5) of this Section, the eligibility for which is conditioned upon the member or participant agreeing to the increases in employee contributions for age and service annuities provided in subsection (a-5) of Section 8-174 of this Code (for service under Article 8) or subsection (a-5) of Section 11-170 of this Code (for service under Article 11); or

(ii) to not agree to item (i) of this subsection (d-10), in which case the member or participant shall continue to be subject to the retirement age provisions in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section and the employee contributions for age and service annuity as provided in subsection (a) of Section 8-174 of this Code (for service under Article 8) or subsection (a) of Section 11-170 of this Code (for service under Article 11).

The election provided for in this subsection shall be made between October 1, 2017 and November 15, 2017. A person subject to this subsection who makes the required election shall remain bound by that election. A person subject to this subsection who fails for any reason to make the required election within the time specified in this subsection shall be deemed to have made the election under item (ii).

(d-15) Each person who first becomes a member or participant under Article 12 on or after January 1, 2011 and prior to January 1, 2022 shall make an irrevocable election either:

(i) to be eligible for the reduced retirement age specified in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section, the eligibility for which is conditioned upon the member or participant agreeing to the increase in employee contributions for service annuities specified in subsection (b) of Section 12-150; or

(ii) to not agree to item (i) of this subsection (d-15), in which case the member or participant shall not be eligible for the reduced retirement age specified in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section and shall not be subject to the increase in employee contributions for service annuities specified in subsection (b) of Section 12-150.

The election provided for in this subsection shall be made between January 1, 2022 and April 1, 2022. A person subject to this subsection who makes the required election shall remain bound by that election. A person subject to this subsection who fails for any reason to make the required election within the time specified in this subsection shall be deemed to have made the election under item (ii).

(e) Any retirement annuity or supplemental annuity shall be subject to annual increases on the January 1 occurring either on or after the attainment of age 67 (age 65, with respect to service under Article 12 that is subject to this Section, for a member or participant under Article 12 who first becomes a member or participant under Article 12 on or after January 1, 2022 or who makes the election under item (i) of subsection (d-15); and beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, age 65 with respect to service under Article 8 or Article 11 for eligible persons who: (i) are subject to subsection (c-5) of this Section; or (ii) made the election under item (i) of subsection (d-10) of this Section) or the first anniversary of the annuity start date, whichever is later. Each annual increase shall be calculated at 3% or one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, whichever is less, of the originally granted retirement annuity. If the annual unadjusted percentage change in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1 is zero or there is a decrease, then the annuity shall not be increased.

For the purposes of Section 1-103.1 of this Code, the changes made to this Section by Public Act 102-263 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are applicable without regard to whether the employee was in active service on or after August 6, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-263) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

For the purposes of Section 1-103.1 of this Code, the changes made to this Section by Public Act 100-23 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly are applicable without regard to whether the employee was in active service on or after July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(f) The initial survivor's or widow's annuity of an otherwise eligible survivor or widow of a retired member or participant who first became a member or participant on or after January 1, 2011 shall be in the amount of 66 2/3% of the retired member's or participant's retirement annuity at the date of death. In the case of the death of a member or participant who has not retired and who first became a member or participant on or after January 1, 2011, eligibility for a survivor's or widow's annuity shall be determined by the applicable Article of this Code. The initial benefit shall be 66 2/3% of the earned annuity without a reduction due to age. A child's annuity of an otherwise eligible child shall be in the amount prescribed under each Article if applicable. Any survivor's or widow's annuity shall be increased (1) on each January 1 occurring on or after the commencement of the annuity if the deceased member died while receiving a retirement annuity or (2) in other cases, on each January 1 occurring after the first anniversary of the commencement of the annuity. Each annual increase shall be calculated at 3% or one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1, whichever is less, of the originally granted survivor's annuity. If the annual unadjusted percentage change in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1 is zero or there is a decrease, then the annuity shall not be increased.

(g) The benefits in Section 14-110 apply only if the person is a State policeman, a fire fighter in the fire protection service of a department, a conservation police officer, an investigator for the Secretary of State, an arson investigator, a Commerce Commission police officer, investigator for the Department of Revenue or the Illinois Gaming Board, a security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, or a security employee of the Department of Innovation and Technology, as those terms are defined in subsection (b) and subsection (c) of Section 14-110. A person who meets the requirements of this Section is entitled to an annuity calculated under the provisions of Section 14-110, in lieu of the regular or minimum retirement annuity, only if the person has withdrawn from service with not less than 20 years of eligible creditable service and has attained age 60, regardless of whether the attainment of age 60 occurs while the person is still in service.

(h) If a person who first becomes a member or a participant of a retirement system or pension fund subject to this Section on or after January 1, 2011 is receiving a retirement annuity or retirement pension under that system or fund and becomes a member or participant under any other system or fund created by this Code and is employed on a full-time basis, except for those members or participants exempted from the provisions of this Section under subsection (a) of this Section, then the person's retirement annuity or retirement pension under that system or fund shall be suspended during that employment. Upon termination of that employment, the person's retirement annuity or retirement pension payments shall resume and be recalculated if recalculation is provided for under the applicable Article of this Code.

If a person who first becomes a member of a retirement system or pension fund subject to this Section on or after January 1, 2012 and is receiving a retirement annuity or retirement pension under that system or fund and accepts on a contractual basis a position to provide services to a governmental entity from which he or she has retired, then that person's annuity or retirement pension earned as an active employee of the employer shall be suspended during that contractual service. A person receiving an annuity or retirement pension under this Code shall notify the pension fund or retirement system from which he or she is receiving an annuity or retirement pension, as well as his or her contractual employer, of his or her retirement status before accepting contractual employment. A person who fails to submit such notification shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and required to pay a fine of $1,000. Upon termination of that contractual employment, the person's retirement annuity or retirement pension payments shall resume and, if appropriate, be recalculated under the applicable provisions of this Code.

(i) (Blank).

(j) In the case of a conflict between the provisions of this Section and any other provision of this Code, the provisions of this Section shall control.

(Source: P.A. 101-610, eff. 1-1-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-210, eff. 1-1-22; 102-263, eff. 8-6-21; revised 9-28-21.)

(40 ILCS 5/7-109) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 7-109)

Sec. 7-109. Employee.

(1) "Employee" means any person who:

(a) 1. Receives earnings as payment for the performance of personal services or official duties out of the general fund of a municipality, or out of any special fund or funds controlled by a municipality, or by an instrumentality thereof, or a participating instrumentality, including, in counties, the fees or earnings of any county fee office; and

2. Under the usual common law rules applicable in determining the employer-employee relationship, has the status of an employee with a municipality, or any instrumentality thereof, or a participating instrumentality, including alderpersons, county supervisors and other persons (excepting those employed as independent contractors) who are paid compensation, fees, allowances or other emolument for official duties, and, in counties, the several county fee offices.

(b) Serves as a township treasurer appointed under the School Code, as heretofore or hereafter amended, and who receives for such services regular compensation as distinguished from per diem compensation, and any regular employee in the office of any township treasurer whether or not his earnings are paid from the income of the permanent township fund or from funds subject to distribution to the several school districts and parts of school districts as provided in the School Code, or from both such sources; or is the chief executive officer, chief educational officer, chief fiscal officer, or other employee of a Financial Oversight Panel established pursuant to Article 1H of the School Code, other than a superintendent or certified school business official, except that such person shall not be treated as an employee under this Section if that person has negotiated with the Financial Oversight Panel, in conjunction with the school district, a contractual agreement for exclusion from this Section.

(c) Holds an elective office in a municipality, instrumentality thereof or participating instrumentality.

(2) "Employee" does not include persons who:

(a) Are eligible for inclusion under any of the following laws:

1. "An Act in relation to an Illinois State Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund", approved May 27, 1915, as amended;

2. Articles 15 and 16 of this Code.

However, such persons shall be included as employees to the extent of earnings that are not eligible for inclusion under the foregoing laws for services not of an instructional nature of any kind.

However, any member of the armed forces who is employed as a teacher of subjects in the Reserve Officers Training Corps of any school and who is not certified under the law governing the certification of teachers shall be included as an employee.

(b) Are designated by the governing body of a municipality in which a pension fund is required by law to be established for policemen or firemen, respectively, as performing police or fire protection duties, except that when such persons are the heads of the police or fire department and are not eligible to be included within any such pension fund, they shall be included within this Article; provided, that such persons shall not be excluded to the extent of concurrent service and earnings not designated as being for police or fire protection duties. However, (i) any head of a police department who was a participant under this Article immediately before October 1, 1977 and did not elect, under Section 3-109 of this Act, to participate in a police pension fund shall be an "employee", and (ii) any chief of police who became a participating employee under this Article before January 1, 2019 and who elects to participate in this Fund under Section 3-109.1 of this Code, regardless of whether such person continues to be employed as chief of police or is employed in some other rank or capacity within the police department, shall be an employee under this Article for so long as such person is employed to perform police duties by a participating municipality and has not lawfully rescinded that election.

(b-5) Were not participating employees under this Article before August 26, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1097) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly and participated as a chief of police in a fund under Article 3 and return to work in any capacity with the police department, with any oversight of the police department, or in an advisory capacity for the police department with the same municipality with which that pension was earned, regardless of whether they are considered an employee of the police department or are eligible for inclusion in the municipality's Article 3 fund.

(c) Are contributors to or eligible to contribute to a Taft-Hartley pension plan to which the participating municipality is required to contribute as the person's employer based on earnings from the municipality. Nothing in this paragraph shall affect service credit or creditable service for any period of service prior to July 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-712) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, and this paragraph shall not apply to individuals who are participating in the Fund prior to July 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-712) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(d) Become an employee of any of the following participating instrumentalities on or after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-830) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly: the Illinois Municipal League; the Illinois Association of Park Districts; the Illinois Supervisors, County Commissioners and Superintendents of Highways Association; an association, or not-for-profit corporation, membership in which is authorized under Section 85-15 of the Township Code; the United Counties Council; or the Will County Governmental League.

(e) Are members of the Board of Trustees of the Firefighters' Pension Investment Fund, as created under Article 22C of this Code, in their capacity as members of the Board of Trustees of the Firefighters' Pension Investment Fund.

(f) Are members of the Board of Trustees of the Police Officers' Pension Investment Fund, as created under Article 22B of this Code, in their capacity as members of the Board of Trustees of the Police Officers' Pension Investment Fund.

(3) All persons, including, without limitation, public defenders and probation officers, who receive earnings from general or special funds of a county for performance of personal services or official duties within the territorial limits of the county, are employees of the county (unless excluded by subsection (2) of this Section) notwithstanding that they may be appointed by and are subject to the direction of a person or persons other than a county board or a county officer. It is hereby established that an employer-employee relationship under the usual common law rules exists between such employees and the county paying their salaries by reason of the fact that the county boards fix their rates of compensation, appropriate funds for payment of their earnings and otherwise exercise control over them. This finding and this amendatory Act shall apply to all such employees from the date of appointment whether such date is prior to or after the effective date of this amendatory Act and is intended to clarify existing law pertaining to their status as participating employees in the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; 102-637, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(40 ILCS 5/7-141) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 7-141)

Sec. 7-141. Retirement annuities; conditions. Retirement annuities shall be payable as hereinafter set forth:

(a) A participating employee who, regardless of cause, is separated from the service of all participating municipalities and instrumentalities thereof and participating instrumentalities shall be entitled to a retirement annuity provided:

1. He is at least age 55 if he is a Tier 1 regular employee, he is age 62 if he is a Tier 2 regular employee, or, in the case of a person who is eligible to have his annuity calculated under Section 7-142.1, he is at least age 50;

2. He is not entitled to receive earnings for employment in a position requiring him, or entitling him to elect, to be a participating employee;

3. The amount of his annuity, before the application of paragraph (b) of Section 7-142 is at least $10 per month;

4. If he first became a participating employee after December 31, 1961 and is a Tier 1 regular employee, he has at least 8 years of service, or, if he is a Tier 2 regular member, he has at least 10 years of service. This service requirement shall not apply to any participating employee, regardless of participation date, if the General Assembly terminates the Fund.

(b) Retirement annuities shall be payable:

1. As provided in Section 7-119;

2. Except as provided in item 3, upon receipt by the fund of a written application. The effective date may be not more than one year prior to the date of the receipt by the fund of the application;

3. Upon attainment of the required age of distribution under Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, if the member (i) is no longer in service, and (ii) is otherwise entitled to an annuity under this Article;

4. To the beneficiary of the deceased annuitant for the unpaid amount accrued to date of death, if any.

(Source: P.A. 102-210, Article 5, Section 5-5, eff. 7-30-21; 102-210, Article 10, Section 10-5, eff. 1-1-22; revised 9-28-21.)

(40 ILCS 5/14-103.42)

Sec. 14-103.42. Licensed health care professional. "Licensed health care professional": Any individual who has obtained a license through the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act or an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-54, eff. 7-12-19; revised 1-9-22.)

(40 ILCS 5/14-110) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 14-110)

Sec. 14-110. Alternative retirement annuity.

(a) Any member who has withdrawn from service with not less than 20 years of eligible creditable service and has attained age 55, and any member who has withdrawn from service with not less than 25 years of eligible creditable service and has attained age 50, regardless of whether the attainment of either of the specified ages occurs while the member is still in service, shall be entitled to receive at the option of the member, in lieu of the regular or minimum retirement annuity, a retirement annuity computed as follows:

(i) for periods of service as a noncovered employee: if retirement occurs on or after January 1, 2001, 3% of final average compensation for each year of creditable service; if retirement occurs before January 1, 2001, 2 1/4% of final average compensation for each of the first 10 years of creditable service, 2 1/2% for each year above 10 years to and including 20 years of creditable service, and 2 3/4% for each year of creditable service above 20 years; and

(ii) for periods of eligible creditable service as a covered employee: if retirement occurs on or after January 1, 2001, 2.5% of final average compensation for each year of creditable service; if retirement occurs before January 1, 2001, 1.67% of final average compensation for each of the first 10 years of such service, 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of such service, 2.10% for each year of such service in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30, and 2.30% for each year in excess of 30.

Such annuity shall be subject to a maximum of 75% of final average compensation if retirement occurs before January 1, 2001 or to a maximum of 80% of final average compensation if retirement occurs on or after January 1, 2001.

These rates shall not be applicable to any service performed by a member as a covered employee which is not eligible creditable service. Service as a covered employee which is not eligible creditable service shall be subject to the rates and provisions of Section 14-108.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, "eligible creditable service" means creditable service resulting from service in one or more of the following positions:

(1) State policeman;

(2) fire fighter in the fire protection service of a department;

(3) air pilot;

(4) special agent;

(5) investigator for the Secretary of State;

(6) conservation police officer;

(7) investigator for the Department of Revenue or the Illinois Gaming Board;

(8) security employee of the Department of Human Services;

(9) Central Management Services security police officer;

(10) security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice;

(11) dangerous drugs investigator;

(12) investigator for the Illinois State Police;

(13) investigator for the Office of the Attorney General;

(14) controlled substance inspector;

(15) investigator for the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor;

(16) Commerce Commission police officer;

(17) arson investigator;

(18) State highway maintenance worker;

(19) security employee of the Department of Innovation and Technology; or

(20) transferred employee.

A person employed in one of the positions specified in this subsection is entitled to eligible creditable service for service credit earned under this Article while undergoing the basic police training course approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, if completion of that training is required of persons serving in that position. For the purposes of this Code, service during the required basic police training course shall be deemed performance of the duties of the specified position, even though the person is not a sworn peace officer at the time of the training.

A person under paragraph (20) is entitled to eligible creditable service for service credit earned under this Article on and after his or her transfer by Executive Order No. 2003-10, Executive Order No. 2004-2, or Executive Order No. 2016-1.

(c) For the purposes of this Section:

(1) The term "State policeman" includes any title or position in the Illinois State Police that is held by an individual employed under the Illinois State Police Act.

(2) The term "fire fighter in the fire protection service of a department" includes all officers in such fire protection service including fire chiefs and assistant fire chiefs.

(3) The term "air pilot" includes any employee whose official job description on file in the Department of Central Management Services, or in the department by which he is employed if that department is not covered by the Personnel Code, states that his principal duty is the operation of aircraft, and who possesses a pilot's license; however, the change in this definition made by Public Act 83-842 this amendatory Act of 1983 shall not operate to exclude any noncovered employee who was an "air pilot" for the purposes of this Section on January 1, 1984.

(4) The term "special agent" means any person who by reason of employment by the Division of Narcotic Control, the Bureau of Investigation or, after July 1, 1977, the Division of Criminal Investigation, the Division of Internal Investigation, the Division of Operations, the Division of Patrol Operations, or any other Division or organizational entity in the Illinois State Police is vested by law with duties to maintain public order, investigate violations of the criminal law of this State, enforce the laws of this State, make arrests and recover property. The term "special agent" includes any title or position in the Illinois State Police that is held by an individual employed under the Illinois State Police Act.

(5) The term "investigator for the Secretary of State" means any person employed by the Office of the Secretary of State and vested with such investigative duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

A person who became employed as an investigator for the Secretary of State between January 1, 1967 and December 31, 1975, and who has served as such until attainment of age 60, either continuously or with a single break in service of not more than 3 years duration, which break terminated before January 1, 1976, shall be entitled to have his retirement annuity calculated in accordance with subsection (a), notwithstanding that he has less than 20 years of credit for such service.

(6) The term "Conservation Police Officer" means any person employed by the Division of Law Enforcement of the Department of Natural Resources and vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act. The term "Conservation Police Officer" includes the positions of Chief Conservation Police Administrator and Assistant Conservation Police Administrator.

(7) The term "investigator for the Department of Revenue" means any person employed by the Department of Revenue and vested with such investigative duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

The term "investigator for the Illinois Gaming Board" means any person employed as such by the Illinois Gaming Board and vested with such peace officer duties as render the person ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(8) The term "security employee of the Department of Human Services" means any person employed by the Department of Human Services who (i) is employed at the Chester Mental Health Center and has daily contact with the residents thereof, (ii) is employed within a security unit at a facility operated by the Department and has daily contact with the residents of the security unit, (iii) is employed at a facility operated by the Department that includes a security unit and is regularly scheduled to work at least 50% of his or her working hours within that security unit, or (iv) is a mental health police officer. "Mental health police officer" means any person employed by the Department of Human Services in a position pertaining to the Department's mental health and developmental disabilities functions who is vested with such law enforcement duties as render the person ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act. "Security unit" means that portion of a facility that is devoted to the care, containment, and treatment of persons committed to the Department of Human Services as sexually violent persons, persons unfit to stand trial, or persons not guilty by reason of insanity. With respect to past employment, references to the Department of Human Services include its predecessor, the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

The changes made to this subdivision (c)(8) by Public Act 92-14 apply to persons who retire on or after January 1, 2001, notwithstanding Section 1-103.1.

(9) "Central Management Services security police officer" means any person employed by the Department of Central Management Services who is vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(10) For a member who first became an employee under this Article before July 1, 2005, the term "security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice" means any employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice or the former Department of Personnel, and any member or employee of the Prisoner Review Board, who has daily contact with inmates or youth by working within a correctional facility or Juvenile facility operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice or who is a parole officer or an employee who has direct contact with committed persons in the performance of his or her job duties. For a member who first becomes an employee under this Article on or after July 1, 2005, the term means an employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice who is any of the following: (i) officially headquartered at a correctional facility or Juvenile facility operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, (ii) a parole officer, (iii) a member of the apprehension unit, (iv) a member of the intelligence unit, (v) a member of the sort team, or (vi) an investigator.

(11) The term "dangerous drugs investigator" means any person who is employed as such by the Department of Human Services.

(12) The term "investigator for the Illinois State Police" means a person employed by the Illinois State Police who is vested under Section 4 of the Narcotic Control Division Abolition Act with such law enforcement powers as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(13) "Investigator for the Office of the Attorney General" means any person who is employed as such by the Office of the Attorney General and is vested with such investigative duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act. For the period before January 1, 1989, the term includes all persons who were employed as investigators by the Office of the Attorney General, without regard to social security status.

(14) "Controlled substance inspector" means any person who is employed as such by the Department of Professional Regulation and is vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D) and 218(l)(1) of that Act. The term "controlled substance inspector" includes the Program Executive of Enforcement and the Assistant Program Executive of Enforcement.

(15) The term "investigator for the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor" means a person employed in that capacity on a full-time full time basis under the authority of Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(16) "Commerce Commission police officer" means any person employed by the Illinois Commerce Commission who is vested with such law enforcement duties as render him ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act.

(17) "Arson investigator" means any person who is employed as such by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and is vested with such law enforcement duties as render the person ineligible for coverage under the Social Security Act by reason of Sections 218(d)(5)(A), 218(d)(8)(D), and 218(l)(1) of that Act. A person who was employed as an arson investigator on January 1, 1995 and is no longer in service but not yet receiving a retirement annuity may convert his or her creditable service for employment as an arson investigator into eligible creditable service by paying to the System the difference between the employee contributions actually paid for that service and the amounts that would have been contributed if the applicant were contributing at the rate applicable to persons with the same social security status earning eligible creditable service on the date of application.

(18) The term "State highway maintenance worker" means a person who is either of the following:

(i) A person employed on a full-time basis by the Illinois Department of Transportation in the position of highway maintainer, highway maintenance lead worker, highway maintenance lead/lead worker, heavy construction equipment operator, power shovel operator, or bridge mechanic; and whose principal responsibility is to perform, on the roadway, the actual maintenance necessary to keep the highways that form a part of the State highway system in serviceable condition for vehicular traffic.

(ii) A person employed on a full-time basis by the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority in the position of equipment operator/laborer H-4, equipment operator/laborer H-6, welder H-4, welder H-6, mechanical/electrical H-4, mechanical/electrical H-6, water/sewer H-4, water/sewer H-6, sign maker/hanger H-4, sign maker/hanger H-6, roadway lighting H-4, roadway lighting H-6, structural H-4, structural H-6, painter H-4, or painter H-6; and whose principal responsibility is to perform, on the roadway, the actual maintenance necessary to keep the Authority's tollways in serviceable condition for vehicular traffic.

(19) The term "security employee of the Department of Innovation and Technology" means a person who was a security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, was transferred to the Department of Innovation and Technology pursuant to Executive Order 2016-01, and continues to perform similar job functions under that Department.

(20) "Transferred employee" means an employee who was transferred to the Department of Central Management Services by Executive Order No. 2003-10 or Executive Order No. 2004-2 or transferred to the Department of Innovation and Technology by Executive Order No. 2016-1, or both, and was entitled to eligible creditable service for services immediately preceding the transfer.

(d) A security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, a security employee of the Department of Human Services who is not a mental health police officer, and a security employee of the Department of Innovation and Technology shall not be eligible for the alternative retirement annuity provided by this Section unless he or she meets the following minimum age and service requirements at the time of retirement:

(i) 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(ii) beginning January 1, 1987, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 54, or 24 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(iii) beginning January 1, 1988, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 53, or 23 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(iv) beginning January 1, 1989, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 52, or 22 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(v) beginning January 1, 1990, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 51, or 21 years of eligible creditable service and age 55; or

(vi) beginning January 1, 1991, 25 years of eligible creditable service and age 50, or 20 years of eligible creditable service and age 55.

Persons who have service credit under Article 16 of this Code for service as a security employee of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services in a position requiring certification as a teacher may count such service toward establishing their eligibility under the service requirements of this Section; but such service may be used only for establishing such eligibility, and not for the purpose of increasing or calculating any benefit.

(e) If a member enters military service while working in a position in which eligible creditable service may be earned, and returns to State service in the same or another such position, and fulfills in all other respects the conditions prescribed in this Article for credit for military service, such military service shall be credited as eligible creditable service for the purposes of the retirement annuity prescribed in this Section.

(f) For purposes of calculating retirement annuities under this Section, periods of service rendered after December 31, 1968 and before October 1, 1975 as a covered employee in the position of special agent, conservation police officer, mental health police officer, or investigator for the Secretary of State, shall be deemed to have been service as a noncovered employee, provided that the employee pays to the System prior to retirement an amount equal to (1) the difference between the employee contributions that would have been required for such service as a noncovered employee, and the amount of employee contributions actually paid, plus (2) if payment is made after July 31, 1987, regular interest on the amount specified in item (1) from the date of service to the date of payment.

For purposes of calculating retirement annuities under this Section, periods of service rendered after December 31, 1968 and before January 1, 1982 as a covered employee in the position of investigator for the Department of Revenue shall be deemed to have been service as a noncovered employee, provided that the employee pays to the System prior to retirement an amount equal to (1) the difference between the employee contributions that would have been required for such service as a noncovered employee, and the amount of employee contributions actually paid, plus (2) if payment is made after January 1, 1990, regular interest on the amount specified in item (1) from the date of service to the date of payment.

(g) A State policeman may elect, not later than January 1, 1990, to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of his service as a policeman under Article 3, by filing a written election with the Board, accompanied by payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.5, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman may elect, not later than July 1, 1993, to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of his service as a member of the County Police Department under Article 9, by filing a written election with the Board, accompanied by payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 9-121.10 and the amounts that would have been contributed had those contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

(h) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman or investigator for the Secretary of State may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 12 years of his service as a policeman under Article 5, by filing a written election with the Board on or before January 31, 1992, and paying to the System by January 31, 1994 an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 5-236, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman, conservation police officer, or investigator for the Secretary of State may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of service as a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, by filing a written election with the Board on or before January 31, 1993, and paying to the System by January 31, 1994 an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 7-139.7, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman, conservation police officer, or investigator for the Secretary of State may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 5 years of service as a police officer under Article 3, a policeman under Article 5, a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, a member of the county police department under Article 9, or a police officer under Article 15 by filing a written election with the Board and paying to the System an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.6, 5-236, 7-139.8, 9-121.10, or 15-134.4 and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), an investigator for the Office of the Attorney General, or an investigator for the Department of Revenue, may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 5 years of service as a police officer under Article 3, a policeman under Article 5, a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, or a member of the county police department under Article 9 by filing a written election with the Board within 6 months after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-745) and paying to the System an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.6, 5-236, 7-139.8, or 9-121.10 and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the actuarially assumed rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman, conservation police officer, investigator for the Office of the Attorney General, an investigator for the Department of Revenue, or investigator for the Secretary of State may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 5 years of service as a person employed by a participating municipality to perform police duties, or law enforcement officer employed on a full-time basis by a forest preserve district under Article 7, a county corrections officer, or a court services officer under Article 9, by filing a written election with the Board within 6 months after August 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-745) and paying to the System an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Sections 7-139.8 and 9-121.10 and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the actuarially assumed rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman, arson investigator, or Commerce Commission police officer may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 5 years of service as a person employed by a participating municipality to perform police duties under Article 7, a county corrections officer, a court services officer under Article 9, or a firefighter under Article 4 by filing a written election with the Board within 6 months after July 30, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-210) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and paying to the System an amount to be determined by the Board equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Sections 4-108.8, 7-139.8, and 9-121.10 and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the actuarially assumed rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a conservation police officer may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 5 years of service as a person employed by a participating municipality to perform police duties under Article 7, a county corrections officer, or a court services officer under Article 9 by filing a written election with the Board within 6 months after July 30, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-210) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and paying to the System an amount to be determined by the Board equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Sections 7-139.8 and 9-121.10 and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) interest thereon at the actuarially assumed rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

Notwithstanding the limitation in subsection (i), a State policeman or conservation police officer may elect to convert service credit earned under this Article to eligible creditable service, as defined by this Section, by filing a written election with the board within 6 months after July 30, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-210) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and paying to the System an amount to be determined by the Board equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee contributions originally paid for that service and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (ii) the difference between the employer's normal cost of the credit prior to the conversion authorized by Public Act 102-210 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly and the employer's normal cost of the credit converted in accordance with Public Act 102-210 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, plus (iii) interest thereon at the actuarially assumed rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

(i) The total amount of eligible creditable service established by any person under subsections (g), (h), (j), (k), (l), (l-5), and (o) of this Section shall not exceed 12 years.

(j) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), an investigator for the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor or a controlled substance inspector may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of his service as a policeman under Article 3 or a sheriff's law enforcement employee under Article 7, by filing a written election with the Board, accompanied by payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (1) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.6 or 7-139.8, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to State policemen, plus (2) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

(k) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i) of this Section, an alternative formula employee may elect to establish eligible creditable service for periods spent as a full-time law enforcement officer or full-time corrections officer employed by the federal government or by a state or local government located outside of Illinois, for which credit is not held in any other public employee pension fund or retirement system. To obtain this credit, the applicant must file a written application with the Board by March 31, 1998, accompanied by evidence of eligibility acceptable to the Board and payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (1) employee contributions for the credit being established, based upon the applicant's salary on the first day as an alternative formula employee after the employment for which credit is being established and the rates then applicable to alternative formula employees, plus (2) an amount determined by the Board to be the employer's normal cost of the benefits accrued for the credit being established, plus (3) regular interest on the amounts in items (1) and (2) from the first day as an alternative formula employee after the employment for which credit is being established to the date of payment.

(l) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a security employee of the Department of Corrections may elect, not later than July 1, 1998, to establish eligible creditable service for up to 10 years of his or her service as a policeman under Article 3, by filing a written election with the Board, accompanied by payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (i) the difference between the amount of employee and employer contributions transferred to the System under Section 3-110.5, and the amounts that would have been contributed had such contributions been made at the rates applicable to security employees of the Department of Corrections, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

(l-5) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i) of this Section, a State policeman may elect to establish eligible creditable service for up to 5 years of service as a full-time law enforcement officer employed by the federal government or by a state or local government located outside of Illinois for which credit is not held in any other public employee pension fund or retirement system. To obtain this credit, the applicant must file a written application with the Board no later than 3 years after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-610) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, accompanied by evidence of eligibility acceptable to the Board and payment of an amount to be determined by the Board, equal to (1) employee contributions for the credit being established, based upon the applicant's salary on the first day as an alternative formula employee after the employment for which credit is being established and the rates then applicable to alternative formula employees, plus (2) an amount determined by the Board to be the employer's normal cost of the benefits accrued for the credit being established, plus (3) regular interest on the amounts in items (1) and (2) from the first day as an alternative formula employee after the employment for which credit is being established to the date of payment.

(m) The amendatory changes to this Section made by Public Act 94-696 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly apply only to: (1) security employees of the Department of Juvenile Justice employed by the Department of Corrections before June 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-696) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly and transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice by Public Act 94-696 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly; and (2) persons employed by the Department of Juvenile Justice on or after June 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-696) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly who are required by subsection (b) of Section 3-2.5-15 of the Unified Code of Corrections to have any bachelor's or advanced degree from an accredited college or university or, in the case of persons who provide vocational training, who are required to have adequate knowledge in the skill for which they are providing the vocational training.

(n) A person employed in a position under subsection (b) of this Section who has purchased service credit under subsection (j) of Section 14-104 or subsection (b) of Section 14-105 in any other capacity under this Article may convert up to 5 years of that service credit into service credit covered under this Section by paying to the Fund an amount equal to (1) the additional employee contribution required under Section 14-133, plus (2) the additional employer contribution required under Section 14-131, plus (3) interest on items (1) and (2) at the actuarially assumed rate from the date of the service to the date of payment.

(o) Subject to the limitation in subsection (i), a conservation police officer, investigator for the Secretary of State, Commerce Commission police officer, investigator for the Department of Revenue or the Illinois Gaming Board, or arson investigator subject to subsection (g) of Section 1-160 may elect to convert up to 8 years of service credit established before January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-610) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly as a conservation police officer, investigator for the Secretary of State, Commerce Commission police officer, investigator for the Department of Revenue or the Illinois Gaming Board, or arson investigator under this Article into eligible creditable service by filing a written election with the Board no later than one year after January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-610) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, accompanied by payment of an amount to be determined by the Board equal to (i) the difference between the amount of the employee contributions actually paid for that service and the amount of the employee contributions that would have been paid had the employee contributions been made as a noncovered employee serving in a position in which eligible creditable service, as defined in this Section, may be earned, plus (ii) interest thereon at the effective rate for each year, compounded annually, from the date of service to the date of payment.

(Source: P.A. 101-610, eff. 1-1-20; 102-210, eff. 7-30-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-158) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-158)

Sec. 16-158. Contributions by State and other employing units.

(a) The State shall make contributions to the System by means of appropriations from the Common School Fund and other State funds of amounts which, together with other employer contributions, employee contributions, investment income, and other income, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, using the formula in subsection (b-3).

(a-1) Annually, on or before November 15 until November 15, 2011, the Board shall certify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution for the coming fiscal year. The certification under this subsection (a-1) shall include a copy of the actuarial recommendations upon which it is based and shall specifically identify the System's projected State normal cost for that fiscal year.

On or before May 1, 2004, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2005, taking into account the amounts appropriated to and received by the System under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act.

On or before July 1, 2005, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2006, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by Public Act 94-4.

On or before April 1, 2011, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2011, applying the changes made by Public Act 96-889 to the System's assets and liabilities as of June 30, 2009 as though Public Act 96-889 was approved on that date.

(a-5) On or before November 1 of each year, beginning November 1, 2012, the Board shall submit to the State Actuary, the Governor, and the General Assembly a proposed certification of the amount of the required State contribution to the System for the next fiscal year, along with all of the actuarial assumptions, calculations, and data upon which that proposed certification is based. On or before January 1 of each year, beginning January 1, 2013, the State Actuary shall issue a preliminary report concerning the proposed certification and identifying, if necessary, recommended changes in actuarial assumptions that the Board must consider before finalizing its certification of the required State contributions. On or before January 15, 2013 and each January 15 thereafter, the Board shall certify to the Governor and the General Assembly the amount of the required State contribution for the next fiscal year. The Board's certification must note any deviations from the State Actuary's recommended changes, the reason or reasons for not following the State Actuary's recommended changes, and the fiscal impact of not following the State Actuary's recommended changes on the required State contribution.

(a-10) By November 1, 2017, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the State Actuary, the Governor, and the General Assembly the amount of the State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2018, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by Public Act 100-23. The State Actuary shall review the assumptions and valuations underlying the Board's revised certification and issue a preliminary report concerning the proposed recertification and identifying, if necessary, recommended changes in actuarial assumptions that the Board must consider before finalizing its certification of the required State contributions. The Board's final certification must note any deviations from the State Actuary's recommended changes, the reason or reasons for not following the State Actuary's recommended changes, and the fiscal impact of not following the State Actuary's recommended changes on the required State contribution.

(a-15) On or after June 15, 2019, but no later than June 30, 2019, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor and the General Assembly the amount of the State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2019, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by Public Act 100-587. The recalculation shall be made using assumptions adopted by the Board for the original fiscal year 2019 certification. The monthly voucher for the 12th month of fiscal year 2019 shall be paid by the Comptroller after the recertification required pursuant to this subsection is submitted to the Governor, Comptroller, and General Assembly. The recertification submitted to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(b) Through State fiscal year 1995, the State contributions shall be paid to the System in accordance with Section 18-7 of the School Code.

(b-1) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, on the 15th day of each month, or as soon thereafter as may be practicable, the Board shall submit vouchers for payment of State contributions to the System, in a total monthly amount of one-twelfth of the required annual State contribution certified under subsection (a-1). From March 5, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-665) through June 30, 2004, the Board shall not submit vouchers for the remainder of fiscal year 2004 in excess of the fiscal year 2004 certified contribution amount determined under this Section after taking into consideration the transfer to the System under subsection (a) of Section 6z-61 of the State Finance Act. These vouchers shall be paid by the State Comptroller and Treasurer by warrants drawn on the funds appropriated to the System for that fiscal year.

If in any month the amount remaining unexpended from all other appropriations to the System for the applicable fiscal year (including the appropriations to the System under Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act and Section 1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act) is less than the amount lawfully vouchered under this subsection, the difference shall be paid from the Common School Fund under the continuing appropriation authority provided in Section 1.1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act.

(b-2) Allocations from the Common School Fund apportioned to school districts not coming under this System shall not be diminished or affected by the provisions of this Article.

(b-3) For State fiscal years 2012 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For each of State fiscal years 2018, 2019, and 2020, the State shall make an additional contribution to the System equal to 2% of the total payroll of each employee who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (c) of Section 1-161.

A change in an actuarial or investment assumption that increases or decreases the required State contribution and first applies in State fiscal year 2018 or thereafter shall be implemented in equal annual amounts over a 5-year period beginning in the State fiscal year in which the actuarial change first applies to the required State contribution.

A change in an actuarial or investment assumption that increases or decreases the required State contribution and first applied to the State contribution in fiscal year 2014, 2015, 2016, or 2017 shall be implemented:

(i) as already applied in State fiscal years before 2018; and

(ii) in the portion of the 5-year period beginning in the State fiscal year in which the actuarial change first applied that occurs in State fiscal year 2018 or thereafter, by calculating the change in equal annual amounts over that 5-year period and then implementing it at the resulting annual rate in each of the remaining fiscal years in that 5-year period.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section; except that in the following specified State fiscal years, the State contribution to the System shall not be less than the following indicated percentages of the applicable employee payroll, even if the indicated percentage will produce a State contribution in excess of the amount otherwise required under this subsection and subsection (a), and notwithstanding any contrary certification made under subsection (a-1) before May 27, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-582): 10.02% in FY 1999; 10.77% in FY 2000; 11.47% in FY 2001; 12.16% in FY 2002; 12.86% in FY 2003; and 13.56% in FY 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $534,627,700.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $738,014,500.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $2,089,268,000 and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the Common School Fund in fiscal year 2010, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2011 is the amount recertified by the System on or before April 1, 2011 pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the Common School Fund in fiscal year 2011, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable. This amount shall include, in addition to the amount certified by the System, an amount necessary to meet employer contributions required by the State as an employer under paragraph (e) of this Section, which may also be used by the System for contributions required by paragraph (a) of Section 16-127.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under subsection (a-1), shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(b-4) Beginning in fiscal year 2018, each employer under this Article shall pay to the System a required contribution determined as a percentage of projected payroll and sufficient to produce an annual amount equal to:

(i) for each of fiscal years 2018, 2019, and 2020, the defined benefit normal cost of the defined benefit plan, less the employee contribution, for each employee of that employer who has elected or who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (b) of Section 1-161; for fiscal year 2021 and each fiscal year thereafter, the defined benefit normal cost of the defined benefit plan, less the employee contribution, plus 2%, for each employee of that employer who has elected or who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (b) of Section 1-161; plus

(ii) the amount required for that fiscal year to amortize any unfunded actuarial accrued liability associated with the present value of liabilities attributable to the employer's account under Section 16-158.3, determined as a level percentage of payroll over a 30-year rolling amortization period.

In determining contributions required under item (i) of this subsection, the System shall determine an aggregate rate for all employers, expressed as a percentage of projected payroll.

In determining the contributions required under item (ii) of this subsection, the amount shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation.

The contributions required under this subsection (b-4) shall be paid by an employer concurrently with that employer's payroll payment period. The State, as the actual employer of an employee, shall make the required contributions under this subsection.

(c) Payment of the required State contributions and of all pensions, retirement annuities, death benefits, refunds, and other benefits granted under or assumed by this System, and all expenses in connection with the administration and operation thereof, are obligations of the State.

If members are paid from special trust or federal funds which are administered by the employing unit, whether school district or other unit, the employing unit shall pay to the System from such funds the full accruing retirement costs based upon that service, which, beginning July 1, 2017, shall be at a rate, expressed as a percentage of salary, equal to the total employer's normal cost, expressed as a percentage of payroll, as determined by the System. Employer contributions, based on salary paid to members from federal funds, may be forwarded by the distributing agency of the State of Illinois to the System prior to allocation, in an amount determined in accordance with guidelines established by such agency and the System. Any contribution for fiscal year 2015 collected as a result of the change made by Public Act 98-674 shall be considered a State contribution under subsection (b-3) of this Section.

(d) Effective July 1, 1986, any employer of a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 shall pay the employer's normal cost of benefits based upon the teacher's service, in addition to employee contributions, as determined by the System. Such employer contributions shall be forwarded monthly in accordance with guidelines established by the System.

However, with respect to benefits granted under Section 16-133.4 or 16-133.5 to a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106, the employer's contribution shall be 12% (rather than 20%) of the member's highest annual salary rate for each year of creditable service granted, and the employer shall also pay the required employee contribution on behalf of the teacher. For the purposes of Sections 16-133.4 and 16-133.5, a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 who is serving in that capacity while on leave of absence from another employer under this Article shall not be considered an employee of the employer from which the teacher is on leave.

(e) Beginning July 1, 1998, every employer of a teacher shall pay to the System an employer contribution computed as follows:

(1) Beginning July 1, 1998 through June 30, 1999, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.3% of each teacher's salary.

(2) Beginning July 1, 1999 and thereafter, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.58% of each teacher's salary.

The school district or other employing unit may pay these employer contributions out of any source of funding available for that purpose and shall forward the contributions to the System on the schedule established for the payment of member contributions.

These employer contributions are intended to offset a portion of the cost to the System of the increases in retirement benefits resulting from Public Act 90-582.

Each employer of teachers is entitled to a credit against the contributions required under this subsection (e) with respect to salaries paid to teachers for the period January 1, 2002 through June 30, 2003, equal to the amount paid by that employer under subsection (a-5) of Section 6.6 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 with respect to salaries paid to teachers for that period.

The additional 1% employee contribution required under Section 16-152 by Public Act 90-582 is the responsibility of the teacher and not the teacher's employer, unless the employer agrees, through collective bargaining or otherwise, to make the contribution on behalf of the teacher.

If an employer is required by a contract in effect on May 1, 1998 between the employer and an employee organization to pay, on behalf of all its full-time employees covered by this Article, all mandatory employee contributions required under this Article, then the employer shall be excused from paying the employer contribution required under this subsection (e) for the balance of the term of that contract. The employer and the employee organization shall jointly certify to the System the existence of the contractual requirement, in such form as the System may prescribe. This exclusion shall cease upon the termination, extension, or renewal of the contract at any time after May 1, 1998.

(f) If the amount of a teacher's salary for any school year used to determine final average salary exceeds the member's annual full-time salary rate with the same employer for the previous school year by more than 6%, the teacher's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in salary that is in excess of 6%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. If a teacher's salary for the 2005-2006 school year is used to determine final average salary under this subsection (f), then the changes made to this subsection (f) by Public Act 94-1057 shall apply in calculating whether the increase in his or her salary is in excess of 6%. For the purposes of this Section, change in employment under Section 10-21.12 of the School Code on or after June 1, 2005 shall constitute a change in employer. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation. The changes made to this subsection (f) by Public Act 94-1111 apply without regard to whether the teacher was in service on or after its effective date.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection, the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that the calculation is subject to subsection (g), (g-5), (g-10), (g-15), or (h) of this Section, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of that subsection. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (f) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(f-1) (Blank).

(g) This subsection (g) applies only to payments made or salary increases given on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. The changes made by Public Act 94-1057 shall not require the System to refund any payments received before July 31, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-1057).

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to teachers under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before June 1, 2005.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to a teacher at a time when the teacher is 10 or more years from retirement eligibility under Section 16-132 or 16-133.2.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases resulting from overload work, including summer school, when the school district has certified to the System, and the System has approved the certification, that (i) the overload work is for the sole purpose of classroom instruction in excess of the standard number of classes for a full-time teacher in a school district during a school year and (ii) the salary increases are equal to or less than the rate of pay for classroom instruction computed on the teacher's current salary and work schedule.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude a salary increase resulting from a promotion (i) for which the employee is required to hold a certificate or supervisory endorsement issued by the State Teacher Certification Board that is a different certification or supervisory endorsement than is required for the teacher's previous position and (ii) to a position that has existed and been filled by a member for no less than one complete academic year and the salary increase from the promotion is an increase that results in an amount no greater than the lesser of the average salary paid for other similar positions in the district requiring the same certification or the amount stipulated in the collective bargaining agreement for a similar position requiring the same certification.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any payment to the teacher from the State of Illinois or the State Board of Education over which the employer does not have discretion, notwithstanding that the payment is included in the computation of final average salary.

(g-5) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases resulting from overload or stipend work performed in a school year subsequent to a school year in which the employer was unable to offer or allow to be conducted overload or stipend work due to an emergency declaration limiting such activities.

(g-10) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases resulting from increased instructional time that exceeded the instructional time required during the 2019-2020 school year.

(g-15) (g-5) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases resulting from teaching summer school on or after May 1, 2021 and before September 15, 2022.

(h) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any salary increase described in subsection (g) of this Section given on or after July 1, 2011 but before July 1, 2014 under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any payments made or salary increases given after June 30, 2014 shall be used in assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f) of this Section.

(i) The System shall prepare a report and file copies of the report with the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2007 that contains all of the following information:

(1) The number of recalculations required by the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 for each employer.

(2) The dollar amount by which each employer's contribution to the System was changed due to recalculations required by Public Act 94-1057.

(3) The total amount the System received from each employer as a result of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-4.

(4) The increase in the required State contribution resulting from the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057.

(i-5) For school years beginning on or after July 1, 2017, if the amount of a participant's salary for any school year exceeds the amount of the salary set for the Governor, the participant's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, an amount determined by the System to be equal to the employer normal cost, as established by the System and expressed as a total percentage of payroll, multiplied by the amount of salary in excess of the amount of the salary set for the Governor. This amount shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection, the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(j) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(k) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the system for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the system's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-525, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-21-21.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-203)

Sec. 16-203. Application and expiration of new benefit increases.

(a) As used in this Section, "new benefit increase" means an increase in the amount of any benefit provided under this Article, or an expansion of the conditions of eligibility for any benefit under this Article, that results from an amendment to this Code that takes effect after June 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-4). "New benefit increase", however, does not include any benefit increase resulting from the changes made to Article 1 or this Article by Public Act 95-910, Public Act 100-23, Public Act 100-587, Public Act 100-743, Public Act 100-769, Public Act 101-10, or Public Act 101-49, or Public Act 102-16 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code or any subsequent amendment to this Code, every new benefit increase is subject to this Section and shall be deemed to be granted only in conformance with and contingent upon compliance with the provisions of this Section.

(c) The Public Act enacting a new benefit increase must identify and provide for payment to the System of additional funding at least sufficient to fund the resulting annual increase in cost to the System as it accrues.

Every new benefit increase is contingent upon the General Assembly providing the additional funding required under this subsection. The Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability shall analyze whether adequate additional funding has been provided for the new benefit increase and shall report its analysis to the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance. A new benefit increase created by a Public Act that does not include the additional funding required under this subsection is null and void. If the Public Pension Division determines that the additional funding provided for a new benefit increase under this subsection is or has become inadequate, it may so certify to the Governor and the State Comptroller and, in the absence of corrective action by the General Assembly, the new benefit increase shall expire at the end of the fiscal year in which the certification is made.

(d) Every new benefit increase shall expire 5 years after its effective date or on such earlier date as may be specified in the language enacting the new benefit increase or provided under subsection (c). This does not prevent the General Assembly from extending or re-creating a new benefit increase by law.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the language creating the new benefit increase, a new benefit increase that expires under this Section continues to apply to persons who applied and qualified for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect and to the affected beneficiaries and alternate payees of such persons, but does not apply to any other person, including, without limitation, a person who continues in service after the expiration date and did not apply and qualify for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-49, eff. 7-12-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

Section 270. The Public Officer Prohibited Activities Act is amended by changing Section 4.1 as follows:

(50 ILCS 105/4.1)

Sec. 4.1. Retaliation against a whistleblower.

(a) It is prohibited for a unit of local government, any agent or representative of a unit of local government, or another employee to retaliate against an employee or contractor who:

(1) reports an improper governmental action under this Section;

(2) cooperates with an investigation by an auditing official related to a report of improper governmental action; or

(3) testifies in a proceeding or prosecution arising out of an improper governmental action.

(b) To invoke the protections of this Section, an employee shall make a written report of improper governmental action to the appropriate auditing official. An employee who believes he or she has been retaliated against in violation of this Section must submit a written report to the auditing official within 60 days of gaining knowledge of the retaliatory action. If the auditing official is the individual doing the improper governmental action, then a report under this subsection may be submitted to any State's Attorney.

(c) Each auditing official shall establish written processes and procedures for managing complaints filed under this Section, and each auditing official shall investigate and dispose of reports of improper governmental action in accordance with these processes and procedures. If an auditing official concludes that an improper governmental action has taken place or concludes that the relevant unit of local government, department, agency, or supervisory officials have hindered the auditing official's investigation into the report, the auditing official shall notify in writing the chief executive of the unit of local government and any other individual or entity the auditing official deems necessary in the circumstances.

(d) An auditing official may transfer a report of improper governmental action to another auditing official for investigation if an auditing official deems it appropriate, including, but not limited to, the appropriate State's Attorney.

(e) To the extent allowed by law, the identity of an employee reporting information about an improper governmental action shall be kept confidential unless the employee waives confidentiality in writing. Auditing officials may take reasonable measures to protect employees who reasonably believe they may be subject to bodily harm for reporting improper government action.

(f) The following remedies are available to employees subjected to adverse actions for reporting improper government action:

(1) Auditing officials may reinstate, reimburse for lost wages or expenses incurred, promote, or provide some other form of restitution.

(2) In instances where an auditing official determines that restitution will not suffice, the auditing official may make his or her investigation findings available for the purposes of aiding in that employee or the employee's attorney's effort to make the employee whole.

(g) A person who engages in prohibited retaliatory action under subsection (a) is subject to the following penalties: a fine of no less than $500 and no more than $5,000, suspension without pay, demotion, discharge, civil or criminal prosecution, or any combination of these penalties, as appropriate.

(h) Every employee shall receive a written summary or a complete copy of this Section upon commencement of employment and at least once each year of employment. At the same time, the employee shall also receive a copy of the written processes and procedures for reporting improper governmental actions from the applicable auditing official.

(i) As used in this Section:

"Auditing official" means any elected, appointed, or hired individual, by whatever name, in a unit of local government whose duties are similar to, but not limited to, receiving, registering, and investigating complaints and information concerning misconduct, inefficiency, and waste within the unit of local government; investigating the performance of officers, employees, functions, and programs; and promoting economy, efficiency, effectiveness and integrity in the administration of the programs and operations of the municipality. If a unit of local government does not have an "auditing official", the "auditing official" shall be a State's Attorney of the county in which the unit of local government is located within.

"Employee" means anyone employed by a unit of local government, whether in a permanent or temporary position, including full-time, part-time, and intermittent workers. "Employee" also includes members of appointed boards or commissions, whether or not paid. "Employee" also includes persons who have been terminated because of any report or complaint submitted under this Section.

"Improper governmental action" means any action by a unit of local government employee, an appointed member of a board, commission, or committee, or an elected official of the unit of local government that is undertaken in violation of a federal, State, or unit of local government law or rule; is an abuse of authority; violates the public's trust or expectation of his or her conduct; is of substantial and specific danger to the public's health or safety; or is a gross waste of public funds. The action need not be within the scope of the employee's, elected official's, board member's, commission member's, or committee member's official duties to be subject to a claim of "improper governmental action". "Improper governmental action" does not include a unit of local government personnel actions, including, but not limited to employee grievances, complaints, appointments, promotions, transfers, assignments, reassignments, reinstatements, restorations, reemployment, performance evaluations, reductions in pay, dismissals, suspensions, demotions, reprimands, or violations of collective bargaining agreements, except to the extent that the action amounts to retaliation.

"Retaliate", "retaliation", or "retaliatory action" means any adverse change in an employee's employment status or the terms and conditions of employment that results from an employee's protected activity under this Section. "Retaliatory action" includes, but is not limited to, denial of adequate staff to perform duties; frequent staff changes; frequent and undesirable office changes; refusal to assign meaningful work; unsubstantiated letters of reprimand or unsatisfactory performance evaluations; demotion; reduction in pay; denial of promotion; transfer or reassignment; suspension or dismissal; or other disciplinary action made because of an employee's protected activity under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; revised 12-3-21.)

Section 275. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Sections 9 and 10.18 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/9) (from Ch. 85, par. 509)

Sec. 9. A special fund is hereby established in the State Treasury to be known as the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund. Moneys in this Fund shall be expended as follows:

(1) a portion of the total amount deposited in the Fund may be used, as appropriated by the General Assembly, for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board;

(2) a portion of the total amount deposited in the Fund shall be appropriated for the reimbursement of local governmental agencies participating in training programs certified by the Board, in an amount equaling 1/2 of the total sum paid by such agencies during the State's previous fiscal year for mandated training for probationary law enforcement officers or probationary county corrections officers and for optional advanced and specialized law enforcement or county corrections training; these reimbursements may include the costs for tuition at training schools, the salaries of trainees while in schools, and the necessary travel and room and board expenses for each trainee; if the appropriations under this paragraph (2) are not sufficient to fully reimburse the participating local governmental agencies, the available funds shall be apportioned among such agencies, with priority first given to repayment of the costs of mandatory training given to law enforcement officer or county corrections officer recruits, then to repayment of costs of advanced or specialized training for permanent law enforcement officers or permanent county corrections officers;

(3) a portion of the total amount deposited in the Fund may be used to fund the Intergovernmental Law Enforcement Officer's In-Service Training Act, veto overridden October 29, 1981, as now or hereafter amended, at a rate and method to be determined by the board;

(4) a portion of the Fund also may be used by the Illinois State Police for expenses incurred in the training of employees from any State, county, or municipal agency whose function includes enforcement of criminal or traffic law;

(5) a portion of the Fund may be used by the Board to fund grant-in-aid programs and services for the training of employees from any county or municipal agency whose functions include corrections or the enforcement of criminal or traffic law;

(6) for fiscal years 2013 through 2017 only, a portion of the Fund also may be used by the Department of State Police to finance any of its lawful purposes or functions;

(7) a portion of the Fund may be used by the Board, subject to appropriation, to administer grants to local law enforcement agencies for the purpose of purchasing bulletproof vests under the Law Enforcement Officer Bulletproof Vest Act; and

(8) a portion of the Fund may be used by the Board to create a law enforcement grant program available for units of local government to fund crime prevention programs, training, and interdiction efforts, including enforcement and prevention efforts, relating to the illegal cannabis market and driving under the influence of cannabis.

All payments from the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund shall be made each year from moneys appropriated for the purposes specified in this Section. No more than 50% of any appropriation under this Act shall be spent in any city having a population of more than 500,000. The State Comptroller and the State Treasurer shall from time to time, at the direction of the Governor, transfer from the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund to the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury such amounts as the Governor determines are in excess of the amounts required to meet the obligations of the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.18)

Sec. 10.18. Training; administration of opioid antagonists. The Board shall conduct or approve an in-service training program for law enforcement officers in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act that is in accordance with that Section. As used in this Section, the term "law enforcement officers" includes full-time or part-time probationary law enforcement officers, permanent or part-time law enforcement officers, law enforcement officers, recruits, permanent or probationary county corrections officers, permanent or probationary county security officers, and court security officers. The term does not include auxiliary police officers as defined in Section 3.1-30-20 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 101-652, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-24-21.)

Section 280. The Uniform Crime Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 5-10, 5-11, 5-12, and 5-20 as follows:

(50 ILCS 709/5-10)

Sec. 5-10. Central repository of crime statistics. The Illinois State Police shall be a central repository and custodian of crime statistics for the State and shall have all the power necessary to carry out the purposes of this Act, including the power to demand and receive cooperation in the submission of crime statistics from all law enforcement agencies. All data and information provided to the Illinois State Police under this Act must be provided in a manner and form prescribed by the Illinois State Police. On an annual basis, the Illinois State Police shall make available compilations of crime statistics and monthly reporting required to be reported by each law enforcement agency.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(50 ILCS 709/5-11)

Sec. 5-11. FBI National Use of Force Database. The Illinois State Police Department shall participate in and regularly submit use of force information to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) National Use of Force Database. Within 90 days of July 1, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-652) this amendatory Act, the Illinois State Police Department shall promulgate rules outlining the use of force information required for submission to the Database, which shall be submitted monthly by law enforcement agencies under Section 5-12.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; revised 12-3-21.)

(50 ILCS 709/5-12)

Sec. 5-12. Monthly reporting. All law enforcement agencies shall submit to the Illinois State Police on a monthly basis the following:

(1) beginning January 1, 2016, a report on any arrest-related death that shall include information regarding the deceased, the officer, any weapon used by the officer or the deceased, and the circumstances of the incident. The Illinois State Police shall submit on a quarterly basis all information collected under this paragraph (1) to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, contingent upon updated federal guidelines regarding the Uniform Crime Reporting Program;

(2) beginning January 1, 2017, a report on any instance when a law enforcement officer discharges his or her firearm causing a non-fatal injury to a person, during the performance of his or her official duties or in the line of duty;

(3) a report of incident-based information on hate crimes including information describing the offense, location of the offense, type of victim, offender, and bias motivation. If no hate crime incidents occurred during a reporting month, the law enforcement agency must submit a no incident record, as required by the Illinois State Police;

(4) a report on any incident of an alleged commission of a domestic crime, that shall include information regarding the victim, offender, date and time of the incident, any injury inflicted, any weapons involved in the commission of the offense, and the relationship between the victim and the offender;

(5) data on an index of offenses selected by the Illinois State Police based on the seriousness of the offense, frequency of occurrence of the offense, and likelihood of being reported to law enforcement. The data shall include the number of index crime offenses committed and number of associated arrests;

(6) data on offenses and incidents reported by schools to local law enforcement. The data shall include offenses defined as an attack against school personnel, intimidation offenses, drug incidents, and incidents involving weapons;

(7) beginning on July 1, 2021, a report on incidents where a law enforcement officer was dispatched to deal with a person experiencing a mental health crisis or incident. The report shall include the number of incidents, the level of law enforcement response and the outcome of each incident. For purposes of this Section, a "mental health crisis" is when a person's behavior puts them at risk of hurting themselves or others or prevents them from being able to care for themselves;

(8) beginning on July 1, 2021, a report on use of force, including any action that resulted in the death or serious bodily injury of a person or the discharge of a firearm at or in the direction of a person. The report shall include information required by the Illinois State Police Department, pursuant to Section 5-11 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(50 ILCS 709/5-20)

Sec. 5-20. Reporting compliance. The Illinois State Police shall annually report to the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board and the Department of Revenue any law enforcement agency not in compliance with the reporting requirements under this Act. A law enforcement agency's compliance with the reporting requirements under this Act shall be a factor considered by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board in awarding grant funding under the Law Enforcement Camera Grant Act, with preference to law enforcement agencies which are in compliance with reporting requirements under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

Section 285. The Emergency Telephone System Act is amended by changing Sections 2, 7, 8, 10, 15.6, 15.6a, 15.6b, 17.5, 19, 20, 30, and 40 as follows:

(50 ILCS 750/2) (from Ch. 134, par. 32)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"9-1-1 network" means the network used for the delivery of 9-1-1 calls and messages over dedicated and redundant facilities to a primary or backup 9-1-1 PSAP that meets the appropriate grade of service.

"9-1-1 system" means the geographic area that has been granted an order of authority by the Commission or the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator to use "9-1-1" as the primary emergency telephone number, including, but not limited to, the network, software applications, databases, CPE components and operational and management procedures required to provide 9-1-1 service.

"9-1-1 Authority" means an Emergency Telephone System Board or , Joint Emergency Telephone System Board that provides for the management and operation of a 9-1-1 system. "9-1-1 Authority" includes the Illinois State Police only to the extent it provides 9-1-1 services under this Act.

"9-1-1 System Manager" means the manager, director, administrator, or coordinator who at the direction of his or her Emergency Telephone System Board is responsible for the implementation and execution of the order of authority issued by the Commission or the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator through the programs, policies, procedures, and daily operations of the 9-1-1 system consistent with the provisions of this Act.

"Administrator" means the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator.

"Advanced service" means any telecommunications service with or without dynamic bandwidth allocation, including, but not limited to, ISDN Primary Rate Interface (PRI), that, through the use of a DS-1, T-1, or other un-channelized or multi-channel transmission facility, is capable of transporting either the subscriber's inter-premises voice telecommunications services to the public switched network or the subscriber's 9-1-1 calls to the public agency.

"Aggregator" means an entity that ingresses 9-1-1 calls of multiple traffic types or 9-1-1 calls from multiple originating service providers and combines them on a trunk group or groups (or equivalent egress connection arrangement to a 9-1-1 system provider's E9-1-1/NG9-1-1 network or system), and that uses the routing information provided in the received call setup signaling to select the appropriate trunk group and proceeds to signal call setup toward the 9-1-1 system provider. "Aggregator" includes an originating service provider that provides aggregation functions for its own 9-1-1 calls. "Aggregator" also includes an aggregation network or an aggregation entity that provides aggregator services for other types of system providers, such as cloud-based services or enterprise networks as its client.

"ALI" or "automatic location identification" means the automatic display at the public safety answering point of the address or location of the caller's telephone and supplementary emergency services information of the location from which a call originates.

"ANI" or "automatic number identification" means the automatic display of the 10-digit 10 digit telephone number associated with the caller's telephone number.

"Automatic alarm" and "automatic alerting device" mean any device that will access the 9-1-1 system for emergency services upon activation and does not provide for two-way communication.

"Answering point" means a PSAP, SAP, Backup PSAP, Unmanned Backup Answering Point, or VAP.

"Authorized entity" means an answering point or participating agency other than a decommissioned PSAP.

"Backup PSAP" means an answering point that meets the appropriate standards of service and serves as an alternate to the PSAP operating independently from the PSAP at a different location, that has the capability to direct dispatch for the PSAP or otherwise transfer emergency calls directly to an authorized entity. A backup PSAP may accept overflow calls from the PSAP or be activated if the primary PSAP is disabled.

"Board" means an Emergency Telephone System Board or a Joint Emergency Telephone System Board created pursuant to Section 15.4.

"Carrier" includes a telecommunications carrier and a wireless carrier.

"Commission" means the Illinois Commerce Commission.

"Computer aided dispatch" or "CAD" means a computer-based system that aids public safety telecommunicators by automating selected dispatching and recordkeeping activities.

"Direct dispatch" means a 9-1-1 service wherein upon receipt of an emergency call, a public safety telecommunicator transmits - without delay, transfer, relay, or referral - all relevant available information to the appropriate public safety personnel or emergency responders.

"Decommissioned" means the revocation of a PSAPs authority to handle 9-1-1 calls as an answering point within the 9-1-1 network.

"DS-1, T-1, or similar un-channelized or multi-channel transmission facility" means a facility that can transmit and receive a bit rate of at least 1.544 megabits per second (Mbps).

"Dynamic bandwidth allocation" means the ability of the facility or customer to drop and add channels, or adjust bandwidth, when needed in real time for voice or data purposes.

"Emergency call" means any type of request for emergency assistance through a 9-1-1 network either to the digits 9-1-1 or the emergency 24/7 10-digit telephone number for all answering points. An emergency call is not limited to a voice telephone call. It could be a two-way video call, an interactive text, Teletypewriter (TTY), an SMS, an Instant Message, or any new mechanism for communications available in the future. An emergency call occurs when the request for emergency assistance is received by a public safety telecommunicator.

"Enhanced 9-1-1" or "E9-1-1" means a telephone system that includes network switching, database and PSAP premise elements capable of providing automatic location identification data, selective routing, selective transfer, fixed transfer, and a call back number, including any enhanced 9-1-1 service so designated by the Federal Communications Commission in its report and order in WC Dockets Nos. 04-36 and 05-196, or any successor proceeding.

"ETSB" means an emergency telephone system board appointed by the corporate authorities of any county or municipality that provides for the management and operation of a 9-1-1 system.

"Grade of service" means P.01 for enhanced 9-1-1 services or the NENA i3 Solution adopted standard for NG9-1-1.

"Hearing-impaired individual" means a person with a permanent hearing loss who can regularly and routinely communicate by telephone only through the aid of devices which can send and receive written messages over the telephone network.

"Hosted supplemental 9-1-1 service" means a database service that:

(1) electronically provides information to 9-1-1 call takers when a call is placed to 9-1-1;

(2) allows telephone subscribers to provide information to 9-1-1 to be used in emergency scenarios;

(3) collects a variety of formatted data relevant to 9-1-1 and first responder needs, which may include, but is not limited to, photographs of the telephone subscribers, physical descriptions, medical information, household data, and emergency contacts;

(4) allows for information to be entered by telephone subscribers through a secure website where they can elect to provide as little or as much information as they choose;

(5) automatically displays data provided by telephone subscribers to 9-1-1 call takers for all types of telephones when a call is placed to 9-1-1 from a registered and confirmed phone number;

(6) supports the delivery of telephone subscriber information through a secure internet connection to all emergency telephone system boards;

(7) works across all 9-1-1 call taking equipment and allows for the easy transfer of information into a computer aided dispatch system; and

(8) may be used to collect information pursuant to an Illinois Premise Alert Program as defined in the Illinois Premise Alert Program (PAP) Act.

"Interconnected voice over Internet protocol provider" or "Interconnected VoIP provider" has the meaning given to that term under Section 13-235 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Joint ETSB" means a Joint Emergency Telephone System Board established by intergovernmental agreement of two or more municipalities or counties, or a combination thereof, to provide for the management and operation of a 9-1-1 system.

"Local public agency" means any unit of local government or special purpose district located in whole or in part within this State that provides or has authority to provide firefighting, police, ambulance, medical, or other emergency services.

"Mechanical dialer" means any device that accesses the 9-1-1 system without human intervention and does not provide for two-way communication.

"Master Street Address Guide" or "MSAG" is a database of street names and house ranges within their associated communities defining emergency service zones (ESZs) and their associated emergency service numbers (ESNs) to enable proper routing of 9-1-1 calls.

"Mobile telephone number" or "MTN" means the telephone number assigned to a wireless telephone at the time of initial activation.

"Network connections" means the number of voice grade communications channels directly between a subscriber and a telecommunications carrier's public switched network, without the intervention of any other telecommunications carrier's switched network, which would be required to carry the subscriber's inter-premises traffic and which connection either (1) is capable of providing access through the public switched network to a 9-1-1 Emergency Telephone System, if one exists, or (2) if no system exists at the time a surcharge is imposed under Section 15.3, that would be capable of providing access through the public switched network to the local 9-1-1 Emergency Telephone System if one existed. Where multiple voice grade communications channels are connected to a telecommunications carrier's public switched network through a private branch exchange (PBX) service, there shall be determined to be one network connection for each trunk line capable of transporting either the subscriber's inter-premises traffic to the public switched network or the subscriber's 9-1-1 calls to the public agency. Where multiple voice grade communications channels are connected to a telecommunications carrier's public switched network through Centrex type service, the number of network connections shall be equal to the number of PBX trunk equivalents for the subscriber's service or other multiple voice grade communication channels facility, as determined by reference to any generally applicable exchange access service tariff filed by the subscriber's telecommunications carrier with the Commission.

"Network costs" means those recurring costs that directly relate to the operation of the 9-1-1 network as determined by the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator with the advice of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, which may include, but need not be limited to, some or all of the following: costs for interoffice trunks, selective routing charges, transfer lines and toll charges for 9-1-1 services, Automatic Location Information (ALI) database charges, independent local exchange carrier charges and non-system provider charges, carrier charges for third party database for on-site customer premises equipment, back-up PSAP trunks for non-system providers, periodic database updates as provided by carrier (also known as "ALI data dump"), regional ALI storage charges, circuits for call delivery (fiber or circuit connection), NG9-1-1 costs, and all associated fees, taxes, and surcharges on each invoice. "Network costs" shall not include radio circuits or toll charges that are other than for 9-1-1 services.

"Next generation 9-1-1" or "NG9-1-1" means a secure Internet Protocol-based (IP-based) open-standards system comprised of hardware, software, data, and operational policies and procedures that:

(A) provides standardized interfaces from emergency call and message services to support emergency communications;

(B) processes all types of emergency calls, including voice, text, data, and multimedia information;

(C) acquires and integrates additional emergency call data useful to call routing and handling;

(D) delivers the emergency calls, messages, and data to the appropriate public safety answering point and other appropriate emergency entities based on the location of the caller;

(E) supports data, video, and other communications needs for coordinated incident response and management; and

(F) interoperates with services and networks used by first responders to facilitate emergency response.

"NG9-1-1 costs" means those recurring costs that directly relate to the Next Generation 9-1-1 service as determined by the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator with the advice of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, which may include, but need not be limited to, costs for NENA i3 Core Components (Border Control Function (BCF), Emergency Call Routing Function (ECRF), Location Validation Function (LVF), Emergency Services Routing Proxy (ESRP), Policy Store/Policy Routing Functions (PSPRF), and Location Information Servers (LIS)), Statewide ESInet, software external to the PSAP (data collection, identity management, aggregation, and GIS functionality), and gateways (legacy 9-1-1 tandems or gateways or both).

"Originating service provider" or "OSP" means the entity that provides services to end users that may be used to originate voice or nonvoice 9-1-1 requests for assistance and who would interconnect, in any of various fashions, to the 9-1-1 system provider for purposes of delivering 9-1-1 traffic to the public safety answering points.

"Private branch exchange" or "PBX" means a private telephone system and associated equipment located on the user's property that provides communications between internal stations and external networks.

"Private business switch service" means network and premises based systems including a VoIP, Centrex type service, or PBX service, even though key telephone systems or equivalent telephone systems registered with the Federal Communications Commission under 47 CFR Part 68 are directly connected to Centrex type and PBX systems. "Private business switch service" does not include key telephone systems or equivalent telephone systems registered with the Federal Communications Commission under 47 CFR Part 68 when not used in conjunction with a VoIP, Centrex type, or PBX systems. "Private business switch service" typically includes, but is not limited to, private businesses, corporations, and industries where the telecommunications service is primarily for conducting business.

"Private residential switch service" means network and premise based systems including a VoIP, Centrex type service, or PBX service or key telephone systems or equivalent telephone systems registered with the Federal Communications Commission under 47 CFR C.F.R. Part 68 that are directly connected to a VoIP, Centrex type service, or PBX systems equipped for switched local network connections or 9-1-1 system access to residential end users through a private telephone switch. "Private residential switch service" does not include key telephone systems or equivalent telephone systems registered with the Federal Communications Commission under 47 CFR C.F.R. Part 68 when not used in conjunction with a VoIP, Centrex type, or PBX systems. "Private residential switch service" typically includes, but is not limited to, apartment complexes, condominiums, and campus or university environments where shared tenant service is provided and where the usage of the telecommunications service is primarily residential.

"Public agency" means the State, and any unit of local government or special purpose district located in whole or in part within this State, that provides or has authority to provide firefighting, police, ambulance, medical, or other emergency services.

"Public safety agency" means a functional division of a public agency that provides firefighting, police, medical, or other emergency services to respond to and manage emergency incidents. For the purpose of providing wireless service to users of 9-1-1 emergency services, as expressly provided for in this Act, the Illinois State Police may be considered a public safety agency.

"Public safety answering point" or "PSAP" means the primary answering location of an emergency call that meets the appropriate standards of service and is responsible for receiving and processing those calls and events according to a specified operational policy.

"PSAP representative" means the manager or supervisor of a Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) who oversees the daily operational functions and is responsible for the overall management and administration of the PSAP.

"Public safety telecommunicator" means any person employed in a full-time or part-time capacity at an answering point whose duties or responsibilities include answering, receiving, or transferring an emergency call for dispatch to the appropriate emergency responder.

"Public safety telecommunicator supervisor" means any person employed in a full-time or part-time capacity at an answering point or by a 9-1-1 Authority, whose primary duties or responsibilities are to direct, administer, or manage any public safety telecommunicator and whose responsibilities include answering, receiving, or transferring an emergency call for dispatch to the appropriate responders.

"Referral" means a 9-1-1 service in which the public safety telecommunicator provides the calling party with the telephone number of the appropriate public safety agency or other provider of emergency services.

"Regular service" means any telecommunications service, other than advanced service, that is capable of transporting either the subscriber's inter-premises voice telecommunications services to the public switched network or the subscriber's 9-1-1 calls to the public agency.

"Relay" means a 9-1-1 service in which the public safety telecommunicator takes the pertinent information from a caller and relays that information to the appropriate public safety agency or other provider of emergency services.

"Remit period" means the billing period, one month in duration, for which a wireless carrier remits a surcharge and provides subscriber information by zip code to the Illinois State Police, in accordance with Section 20 of this Act.

"Secondary Answering Point" or "SAP" means a location, other than a PSAP, that is able to receive the voice, data, and call back number of E9-1-1 or NG9-1-1 emergency calls transferred from a PSAP and completes the call taking process by dispatching police, medical, fire, or other emergency responders.

"Statewide wireless emergency 9-1-1 system" means all areas of the State where an emergency telephone system board has not declared its intention for one or more of its public safety answering points to serve as a primary wireless 9-1-1 public safety answering point for its jurisdiction. The operator of the statewide wireless emergency 9-1-1 system shall be the Illinois State Police.

"System" means the communications equipment and related software applications required to produce a response by the appropriate emergency public safety agency or other provider of emergency services as a result of an emergency call being placed to 9-1-1.

"System provider" means the contracted entity providing 9-1-1 network and database services.

"Telecommunications carrier" means those entities included within the definition specified in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, and includes those carriers acting as resellers of telecommunications services. "Telecommunications carrier" includes telephone systems operating as mutual concerns. "Telecommunications carrier" does not include a wireless carrier.

"Telecommunications technology" means equipment that can send and receive written messages over the telephone network.

"Transfer" means a 9-1-1 service in which the public safety telecommunicator, who receives an emergency call, transmits, redirects, or conferences that call to the appropriate public safety agency or other provider of emergency services. "Transfer" Transfer shall not include a relay or referral of the information without transferring the caller.

"Transmitting messages" shall have the meaning given to that term under Section 8-11-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

"Trunk line" means a transmission path, or group of transmission paths, connecting a subscriber's PBX to a telecommunications carrier's public switched network. In the case of regular service, each voice grade communications channel or equivalent amount of bandwidth capable of transporting either the subscriber's inter-premises voice telecommunications services to the public switched network or the subscriber's 9-1-1 calls to the public agency shall be considered a trunk line, even if it is bundled with other channels or additional bandwidth. In the case of advanced service, each DS-1, T-1, or other un-channelized or multi-channel transmission facility that is capable of transporting either the subscriber's inter-premises voice telecommunications services to the public switched network or the subscriber's 9-1-1 calls to the public agency shall be considered a single trunk line, even if it contains multiple voice grade communications channels or otherwise supports 2 or more voice grade calls at a time; provided, however, that each additional increment of up to 24 voice grade channels of transmission capacity that is capable of transporting either the subscriber's inter-premises voice telecommunications services to the public switched network or the subscriber's 9-1-1 calls to the public agency shall be considered an additional trunk line.

"Unmanned backup answering point" means an answering point that serves as an alternate to the PSAP at an alternate location and is typically unmanned but can be activated if the primary PSAP is disabled.

"Virtual answering point" or "VAP" means a temporary or nonpermanent location that is capable of receiving an emergency call, contains a fully functional worksite that is not bound to a specific location, but rather is portable and scalable, connecting public safety telecommunicators to the work process, and is capable of completing the call dispatching process.

"Voice-impaired individual" means a person with a permanent speech disability which precludes oral communication, who can regularly and routinely communicate by telephone only through the aid of devices which can send and receive written messages over the telephone network.

"Wireless carrier" means a provider of two-way cellular, broadband PCS, geographic area 800 MHZ and 900 MHZ Commercial Mobile Radio Service (CMRS), Wireless Communications Service (WCS), or other Commercial Mobile Radio Service (CMRS), as defined by the Federal Communications Commission, offering radio communications that may provide fixed, mobile, radio location, or satellite communication services to individuals or businesses within its assigned spectrum block and geographical area or that offers real-time, two-way voice service that is interconnected with the public switched network, including a reseller of such service.

"Wireless enhanced 9-1-1" means the ability to relay the telephone number of the originator of a 9-1-1 call and location information from any mobile handset or text telephone device accessing the wireless system to the designated wireless public safety answering point as set forth in the order of the Federal Communications Commission, FCC Docket No. 94-102, adopted June 12, 1996, with an effective date of October 1, 1996, and any subsequent amendment thereto.

"Wireless public safety answering point" means the functional division of a 9-1-1 authority accepting wireless 9-1-1 calls.

"Wireless subscriber" means an individual or entity to whom a wireless service account or number has been assigned by a wireless carrier, other than an account or number associated with prepaid wireless telecommunication service.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/7) (from Ch. 134, par. 37)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 7. The General Assembly finds that, because of overlapping jurisdiction of public agencies, public safety agencies, and telephone service areas, the Administrator, with the advice and recommendation of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, shall establish a general overview or plan to effectuate the purposes of this Act within the time frame provided in this Act. The General Assembly further finds and declares that direct dispatch should be used if possible to shorten the time required for the public to request and receive emergency aid. The Administrator shall minimize the use of transfer, relay, and referral of an emergency call if possible and encourage Backup PSAPs to be able to direct dispatch. Transfer, relay, and referral of an emergency call to an entity other than an answering point or the Illinois State Police shall not be used in response to emergency calls unless exigent circumstances exist. In order to insure that proper preparation and implementation of emergency telephone systems are accomplished by all public agencies as required under this Act, the Illinois State Police, with the advice and assistance of the Attorney General, shall secure compliance by public agencies as provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-4-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/8) (from Ch. 134, par. 38)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 8. The Administrator, with the advice and recommendation of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, shall coordinate the implementation of systems established under this Act. To assist with this coordination, all systems authorized to operate under this Act shall register with the Administrator information regarding its composition and organization, including, but not limited to, identification of the 9-1-1 System Manager and all answering points. Decommissioned PSAPs shall not be registered and are not part of the 9-1-1 system in Illinois. The Illinois State Police may adopt rules for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff 8-20-21; revised 10-4-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/10) (from Ch. 134, par. 40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 10. (a) The Administrator, with the advice and recommendation of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, shall establish uniform technical and operational standards for all 9-1-1 systems in Illinois. All findings, orders, decisions, rules, and regulations issued or promulgated by the Commission under this Act or any other Act establishing or conferring power on the Commission with respect to emergency telecommunications services, shall continue in force. Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, where applicable, the Administrator shall, with the advice and recommendation of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, amend the Commission's findings, orders, decisions, rules, and regulations to conform to the specific provisions of this Act as soon as practicable after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(a-5) All 9-1-1 systems are responsible for complying with the uniform technical and operational standards adopted by the Administrator and the Illinois State Police with the advice and recommendation of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board.

(b) The Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rules necessary to implement the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly under subsection (t) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall deprive the Commission of any authority to regulate the provision by telecommunication carriers or 9-1-1 system service providers of telecommunication or other services under the Public Utilities Act.

(d) For rules that implicate both the regulation of 9-1-1 authorities under this Act and the regulation of telecommunication carriers and 9-1-1 system service providers under the Public Utilities Act, the Illinois State Police and the Commission may adopt joint rules necessary for implementation.

(e) Any findings, orders, or decisions of the Administrator under this Section shall be deemed a final administrative decision and shall be subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/15.6)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 15.6. 9-1-1 service; business service.

(a) After June 30, 2000, or within 18 months after 9-1-1 service becomes available, any entity that installs or operates a private business switch service and provides telecommunications facilities or services to businesses shall assure that the system is connected to the public switched network in a manner that calls to 9-1-1 result in automatic number and location identification. For buildings having their own street address and containing workspace of 40,000 square feet or less, location identification shall include the building's street address. For buildings having their own street address and containing workspace of more than 40,000 square feet, location identification shall include the building's street address and one distinct location identification per 40,000 square feet of workspace. Separate buildings containing workspace of 40,000 square feet or less having a common public street address shall have a distinct location identification for each building in addition to the street address.

(b) Exemptions. Buildings containing workspace of more than 40,000 square feet are exempt from the multiple location identification requirements of subsection (a) if the building maintains, at all times, alternative and adequate means of signaling and responding to emergencies. Those means shall include, but not be limited to, a telephone system that provides the physical location of 9-1-1 calls coming from within the building. Health care facilities are presumed to meet the requirements of this paragraph if the facilities are staffed with medical or nursing personnel 24 hours per day and if an alternative means of providing information about the source of an emergency call exists. Buildings under this exemption must provide 9-1-1 service that provides the building's street address.

Buildings containing workspace of more than 40,000 square feet are exempt from subsection (a) if the building maintains, at all times, alternative and adequate means of signaling and responding to emergencies, including a telephone system that provides the location of a 9-1-1 call coming from within the building, and the building is serviced by its own medical, fire and security personnel. Buildings under this exemption are subject to emergency phone system certification by the Administrator.

Buildings in communities not serviced by 9-1-1 service are exempt from subsection (a).

Correctional institutions and facilities, as defined in subsection (d) of Section 3-1-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, are exempt from subsection (a).

(c) This Act does not apply to any PBX telephone extension that uses radio transmissions to convey electrical signals directly between the telephone extension and the serving PBX.

(d) An entity that violates this Section is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined not less than $1,000 and not more than $5,000.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to preclude the Attorney General on behalf of the Illinois State Police or on his or her own initiative, or any other interested person, from seeking judicial relief, by mandamus, injunction, or otherwise, to compel compliance with this Section.

(f) The Illinois State Police may promulgate rules for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/15.6a)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 15.6a. Wireless emergency 9-1-1 service.

(a) The digits "9-1-1" shall be the designated emergency telephone number within the wireless system.

(b) The Illinois State Police may set non-discriminatory and uniform technical and operational standards consistent with the rules of the Federal Communications Commission for directing calls to authorized public safety answering points. These standards shall not in any way prescribe the technology or manner a wireless carrier shall use to deliver wireless 9-1-1 or wireless E9-1-1 calls, and these standards shall not exceed the requirements set by the Federal Communications Commission; however, standards for directing calls to the authorized public safety answering point shall be included. The authority given to the Illinois State Police in this Section is limited to setting standards as set forth herein and does not constitute authority to regulate wireless carriers.

(c) For the purpose of providing wireless 9-1-1 emergency services, an emergency telephone system board may declare its intention for one or more of its public safety answering points to serve as a primary wireless 9-1-1 public safety answering point for its jurisdiction by notifying the Administrator in writing within 6 months after receiving its authority to operate a 9-1-1 system under this Act. In addition, 2 or more emergency telephone system boards may, by virtue of an intergovernmental agreement, provide wireless 9-1-1 service. Until the jurisdiction comes into compliance with Section 15.4a of this Act, the Illinois State Police shall be the primary wireless 9-1-1 public safety answering point for any jurisdiction that did not provide notice to the Illinois Commerce Commission and the Illinois State Police prior to January 1, 2016.

(d) The Administrator, upon a request from an emergency telephone system board and with the advice and recommendation of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, may grant authority to the emergency telephone system board to provide wireless 9-1-1 service in areas for which the Illinois State Police has accepted wireless 9-1-1 responsibility. The Administrator shall maintain a current list of all 9-1-1 systems providing wireless 9-1-1 service under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/15.6b)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 15.6b. Next Generation 9-1-1 service.

(a) The Administrator, with the advice and recommendation of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, shall develop and implement a plan for a statewide Next Generation 9-1-1 network. The Next Generation 9-1-1 network must be an Internet protocol-based platform that at a minimum provides:

(1) improved 9-1-1 call delivery;

(2) enhanced interoperability;

(3) increased ease of communication between 9-1-1 service providers, allowing immediate transfer of 9-1-1 calls, caller information, photos, and other data statewide;

(4) a hosted solution with redundancy built in; and

(5) compliance with the most current NENA Standards.

(b) By July 1, 2016, the Administrator, with the advice and recommendation of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board, shall design and issue a competitive request for a proposal to secure the services of a consultant to complete a feasibility study on the implementation of a statewide Next Generation 9-1-1 network in Illinois. By July 1, 2017, the consultant shall complete the feasibility study and make recommendations as to the appropriate procurement approach for developing a statewide Next Generation 9-1-1 network.

(c) Within 12 months of the final report from the consultant under subsection (b) of this Section, the Illinois State Police shall procure and finalize a contract with a vendor certified under Section 13-900 of the Public Utilities Act to establish a statewide Next Generation 9-1-1 network. The Illinois State Police, in consultation with and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer, may procure a single contract or multiple contracts to implement the provisions of this Section. A contract or contracts under this subsection are not subject to the provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code, except for Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of that Code, provided that the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of the Illinois Procurement Code. This exemption is inoperative 2 years from June 3, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-9) this Amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. Within 18 months of securing the contract, the vendor shall implement a Next Generation 9-1-1 network that allows 9-1-1 systems providing 9-1-1 service to Illinois residents to access the system utilizing their current infrastructure if it meets the standards adopted by the Illinois State Police.

(Source: P.A. 101-639, eff. 6-12-20; 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/17.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 17.5. Statewide 9-1-1 Call Directory.

(a) The General Assembly finds the following:

(1) Some 9-1-1 systems throughout this State do not have a procedure in place to manually transfer 9-1-1 calls originating within one 9-1-1 system's jurisdiction, but which should properly be answered and dispatched by another 9-1-1 system, to the appropriate 9-1-1 system for answering and dispatch of first responders.

(2) On January 1, 2016, the General Assembly gave oversight authority of 9-1-1 systems to the Illinois State Police.

(3) Since that date, the Illinois State Police has authorized individual 9-1-1 systems in counties and municipalities to implement and upgrade 9-1-1 systems throughout the State.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall prepare a directory of all authorized 9-1-1 systems in the State. The directory shall include an emergency 24/7 10-digit telephone number for all primary public safety answering points located in each 9-1-1 system to which 9-1-1 calls from another jurisdiction can be transferred. This directory shall be made available to each 9-1-1 authority for its use in establishing standard operating procedures regarding calls outside its 9-1-1 jurisdiction.

(c) Each 9-1-1 system shall provide the Illinois State Police with the following information:

(1) The name of the PSAP, a list of every participating agency, and the county the PSAP is in, including college and university public safety entities.

(2) The 24/7 10-digit emergency telephone number for the dispatch agency to which 9-1-1 calls originating in another 9-1-1 jurisdiction can be transferred to exchange information. The emergency telephone number must be a direct line that is not answered by an automated system but rather is answered by a person. Each 9-1-1 system shall provide the Illinois State Police with any changes to the participating agencies and this number immediately upon the change occurring. Each 9-1-1 system shall provide the PSAP information and the 24/7 10-digit emergency telephone number Illinois State Police's within 30 days of June 3, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-9) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(3) The standard operating procedure describing the manner in which the 9-1-1 system will transfer 9-1-1 calls originating within its jurisdiction, but which should properly be answered and dispatched by another 9-1-1 system, to the appropriate 9-1-1 system. Each 9-1-1 system shall provide the standard operating procedures to the Manager of the Illinois State Police's 9-1-1 Program within 180 days after July 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-20) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(d) Unless exigent circumstances dictate otherwise, each 9-1-1 system's public safety telecommunicators shall be responsible for remaining on the line with the caller when a 9-1-1 call originates within its jurisdiction to ensure the 9-1-1 call is transferred to the appropriate authorized entity for answer and dispatch until a public safety telecommunicator is on the line and confirms jurisdiction for the call.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/19)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 19. Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board.

(a) Beginning July 1, 2015, there is created the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board within the Illinois State Police. The Board shall consist of the following 11 voting members:

(1) The Director of the Illinois State Police, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chairman.

(2) The Executive Director of the Commission, or his or her designee.

(3) Members Nine members appointed by the Governor as follows:

(A) one member representing the Illinois chapter of the National Emergency Number Association, or his or her designee;

(B) one member representing the Illinois chapter of the Association of Public-Safety Communications Officials, or his or her designee;

(C) one member representing a county 9-1-1 system from a county with a population of less than 37,000;

(C-5) one member representing a county 9-1-1 system from a county with a population between 37,000 and 100,000;

(D) one member representing a county 9-1-1 system from a county with a population between 100,001 and 250,000;

(E) one member representing a county 9-1-1 system from a county with a population of more than 250,000;

(F) one member representing a municipal or intergovernmental cooperative 9-1-1 system, excluding any single municipality with a population over 500,000;

(G) one member representing the Illinois Association of Chiefs of Police;

(H) one member representing the Illinois Sheriffs' Association; and

(I) one member representing the Illinois Fire Chiefs Association.

The Governor shall appoint the following non-voting members: (i) one member representing an incumbent local exchange 9-1-1 system provider; (ii) one member representing a non-incumbent local exchange 9-1-1 system provider; (iii) one member representing a large wireless carrier; (iv) one member representing an incumbent local exchange carrier; (v) one member representing the Illinois Broadband and Telecommunications Association; (vi) one member representing the Illinois Broadband and Cable Association; and (vii) one member representing the Illinois State Ambulance Association. The Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, and the Minority Leader of the Senate may each appoint a member of the General Assembly to temporarily serve as a non-voting member of the Board during the 12 months prior to the repeal date of this Act to discuss legislative initiatives of the Board.

(b) The Governor shall make initial appointments to the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board by August 31, 2015. Six of the voting members appointed by the Governor shall serve an initial term of 2 years, and the remaining voting members appointed by the Governor shall serve an initial term of 3 years. Thereafter, each appointment by the Governor shall be for a term of 3 years. Non-voting members shall serve for a term of 3 years. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment. Persons appointed to fill a vacancy shall serve for the balance of the unexpired term.

Members of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board shall serve without compensation.

(c) The 9-1-1 Services Advisory Board, as constituted on June 1, 2015 without the legislative members, shall serve in the role of the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board until all appointments of voting members have been made by the Governor under subsection (a) of this Section.

(d) The Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board shall:

(1) advise the Illinois State Police and the Statewide 9-1-1 Administrator on the oversight of 9-1-1 systems and the development and implementation of a uniform statewide 9-1-1 system;

(2) make recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding improvements to 9-1-1 services throughout the State; and

(3) exercise all other powers and duties provided in this Act.

(e) The Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board shall submit to the General Assembly a report by March 1 of each year providing an update on the transition to a statewide 9-1-1 system and recommending any legislative action.

(f) The Illinois State Police shall provide administrative support to the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 20. Statewide surcharge.

(a) On and after January 1, 2016, and except with respect to those customers who are subject to surcharges as provided in Sections 15.3 and 15.3a of this Act, a monthly surcharge shall be imposed on all customers of telecommunications carriers and wireless carriers as follows:

(1) Each telecommunications carrier shall impose a monthly surcharge per network connection; provided, however, the monthly surcharge shall not apply to a network connection provided for use with pay telephone services. Where multiple voice grade communications channels are connected between the subscriber's premises and a public switched network through private branch exchange (PBX), Centrex type service, or other multiple voice grade communication channels facility, there shall be imposed 5 such surcharges per network connection for both regular service and advanced service provisioned trunk lines. Until December 31, 2017, the surcharge shall be $0.87 per network connection and on and after January 1, 2018, the surcharge shall be $1.50 per network connection.

(2) Each wireless carrier shall impose and collect a monthly surcharge per CMRS connection that either has a telephone number within an area code assigned to Illinois by the North American Numbering Plan Administrator or has a billing address in this State. Until December 31, 2017, the surcharge shall be $0.87 per connection and on and after January 1, 2018, the surcharge shall be $1.50 per connection.

(b) State and local taxes shall not apply to the surcharges imposed under this Section.

(c) The surcharges imposed by this Section shall be stated as a separately stated item on subscriber bills.

(d) The telecommunications carrier collecting the surcharge may deduct and retain 1.74% of the gross amount of surcharge collected to reimburse the telecommunications carrier for the expense of accounting and collecting the surcharge. On and after July 1, 2022, the wireless carrier collecting a surcharge under this Section may deduct and retain 1.74% of the gross amount of the surcharge collected to reimburse the wireless carrier for the expense of accounting and collecting the surcharge.

(d-5) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (d) of this Section, an amount not greater than 2.5% may be deducted and retained if the telecommunications or wireless carrier can support, through documentation, expenses that exceed the 1.74% allowed. The documentation shall be submitted to the Illinois State Police and input obtained from the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board prior to approval of the deduction.

(e) Surcharges imposed under this Section shall be collected by the carriers and shall be remitted to the Illinois State Police, either by check or electronic funds transfer, by the end of the next calendar month after the calendar month in which it was collected for deposit into the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund. Carriers are not required to remit surcharge moneys that are billed to subscribers but not yet collected.

The first remittance by wireless carriers shall include the number of subscribers by zip code, and the 9-digit zip code if currently being used or later implemented by the carrier, that shall be the means by which the Illinois State Police shall determine distributions from the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund. This information shall be updated at least once each year. Any carrier that fails to provide the zip code information required under this subsection (e) shall be subject to the penalty set forth in subsection (g) of this Section.

(f) If, within 8 calendar days after it is due under subsection (e) of this Section, a carrier does not remit the surcharge or any portion thereof required under this Section, then the surcharge or portion thereof shall be deemed delinquent until paid in full, and the Illinois State Police may impose a penalty against the carrier in an amount equal to the greater of:

(1) $25 for each month or portion of a month from the time an amount becomes delinquent until the amount is paid in full; or

(2) an amount equal to the product of 1% and the sum of all delinquent amounts for each month or portion of a month that the delinquent amounts remain unpaid.

A penalty imposed in accordance with this subsection (f) for a portion of a month during which the carrier pays the delinquent amount in full shall be prorated for each day of that month that the delinquent amount was paid in full. Any penalty imposed under this subsection (f) is in addition to the amount of the delinquency and is in addition to any other penalty imposed under this Section.

(g) If, within 8 calendar days after it is due, a wireless carrier does not provide the number of subscribers by zip code as required under subsection (e) of this Section, then the report is deemed delinquent and the Illinois State Police may impose a penalty against the carrier in an amount equal to the greater of:

(1) $25 for each month or portion of a month that the report is delinquent; or

(2) an amount equal to the product of $0.01 and the number of subscribers served by the carrier for each month or portion of a month that the delinquent report is not provided.

A penalty imposed in accordance with this subsection (g) for a portion of a month during which the carrier provides the number of subscribers by zip code as required under subsection (e) of this Section shall be prorated for each day of that month during which the carrier had not provided the number of subscribers by zip code as required under subsection (e) of this Section. Any penalty imposed under this subsection (g) is in addition to any other penalty imposed under this Section.

(h) A penalty imposed and collected in accordance with subsection (f) or (g) of this Section shall be deposited into the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund for distribution according to Section 30 of this Act.

(i) The Illinois State Police may enforce the collection of any delinquent amount and any penalty due and unpaid under this Section by legal action or in any other manner by which the collection of debts due the State of Illinois may be enforced under the laws of this State. The Illinois State Police may excuse the payment of any penalty imposed under this Section if the Administrator determines that the enforcement of this penalty is unjust.

(j) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, nothing shall impair the right of wireless carriers to recover compliance costs for all emergency communications services that are not reimbursed out of the Wireless Carrier Reimbursement Fund directly from their wireless subscribers by line-item charges on the wireless subscriber's bill. Those compliance costs include all costs incurred by wireless carriers in complying with local, State, and federal regulatory or legislative mandates that require the transmission and receipt of emergency communications to and from the general public, including, but not limited to, E9-1-1.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-26-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 30. Statewide 9-1-1 Fund; surcharge disbursement.

(a) A special fund in the State treasury known as the Wireless Service Emergency Fund shall be renamed the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund. Any appropriations made from the Wireless Service Emergency Fund shall be payable from the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund. The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) 9-1-1 wireless surcharges assessed under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(2) 9-1-1 surcharges assessed under Section 20 of this Act.

(3) Prepaid wireless 9-1-1 surcharges assessed under Section 15 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

(4) Any appropriations, grants, or gifts made to the Fund.

(5) Any income from interest, premiums, gains, or other earnings on moneys in the Fund.

(6) Money from any other source that is deposited in or transferred to the Fund.

(b) Subject to appropriation and availability of funds, the Illinois State Police shall distribute the 9-1-1 surcharges monthly as follows:

(1) From each surcharge collected and remitted under Section 20 of this Act:

(A) $0.013 shall be distributed monthly in equal amounts to each County Emergency Telephone System Board in counties with a population under 100,000 according to the most recent census data which is authorized to serve as a primary wireless 9-1-1 public safety answering point for the county and to provide wireless 9-1-1 service as prescribed by subsection (b) of Section 15.6a of this Act, and which does provide such service.

(B) $0.033 shall be transferred by the Comptroller at the direction of the Illinois State Police to the Wireless Carrier Reimbursement Fund until June 30, 2017; from July 1, 2017 through June 30, 2018, $0.026 shall be transferred; from July 1, 2018 through June 30, 2019, $0.020 shall be transferred; from July 1, 2019, through June 30, 2020, $0.013 shall be transferred; from July 1, 2020 through June 30, 2021, $0.007 will be transferred; and after June 30, 2021, no transfer shall be made to the Wireless Carrier Reimbursement Fund.

(C) Until December 31, 2017, $0.007 and on and after January 1, 2018, $0.017 shall be used to cover the Illinois State Police's administrative costs.

(D) Beginning January 1, 2018, until June 30, 2020, $0.12, and on and after July 1, 2020, $0.04 shall be used to make monthly proportional grants to the appropriate 9-1-1 Authority currently taking wireless 9-1-1 based upon the United States Postal Zip Code of the billing addresses of subscribers wireless carriers.

(E) Until June 30, 2023, $0.05 shall be used by the Illinois State Police for grants for NG9-1-1 expenses, with priority given to 9-1-1 Authorities that provide 9-1-1 service within the territory of a Large Electing Provider as defined in Section 13-406.1 of the Public Utilities Act.

(F) On and after July 1, 2020, $0.13 shall be used for the implementation of and continuing expenses for the Statewide NG9-1-1 system.

(2) After disbursements under paragraph (1) of this subsection (b), all remaining funds in the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund shall be disbursed in the following priority order:

(A) The Fund shall pay monthly to:

(i) the 9-1-1 Authorities that imposed surcharges under Section 15.3 of this Act and were required to report to the Illinois Commerce Commission under Section 27 of the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act on October 1, 2014, except a 9-1-1 Authority in a municipality with a population in excess of 500,000, an amount equal to the average monthly wireline and VoIP surcharge revenue attributable to the most recent 12-month period reported to the Illinois State Police under that Section for the October 1, 2014 filing, subject to the power of the Illinois State Police to investigate the amount reported and adjust the number by order under Article X of the Public Utilities Act, so that the monthly amount paid under this item accurately reflects one-twelfth of the aggregate wireline and VoIP surcharge revenue properly attributable to the most recent 12-month period reported to the Commission; or

(ii) county qualified governmental entities that did not impose a surcharge under Section 15.3 as of December 31, 2015, and counties that did not impose a surcharge as of June 30, 2015, an amount equivalent to their population multiplied by .37 multiplied by the rate of $0.69; counties that are not county qualified governmental entities and that did not impose a surcharge as of December 31, 2015, shall not begin to receive the payment provided for in this subsection until E9-1-1 and wireless E9-1-1 services are provided within their counties; or

(iii) counties without 9-1-1 service that had a surcharge in place by December 31, 2015, an amount equivalent to their population multiplied by .37 multiplied by their surcharge rate as established by the referendum.

(B) All 9-1-1 network costs for systems outside of municipalities with a population of at least 500,000 shall be paid by the Illinois State Police directly to the vendors.

(C) All expenses incurred by the Administrator and the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board and costs associated with procurement under Section 15.6b including requests for information and requests for proposals.

(D) Funds may be held in reserve by the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board and disbursed by the Illinois State Police for grants under Section 15.4b of this Act and for NG9-1-1 expenses up to $12.5 million per year in State fiscal years 2016 and 2017; up to $20 million in State fiscal year 2018; up to $20.9 million in State fiscal year 2019; up to $15.3 million in State fiscal year 2020; up to $16.2 million in State fiscal year 2021; up to $23.1 million in State fiscal year 2022; and up to $17.0 million per year for State fiscal year 2023 and each year thereafter. The amount held in reserve in State fiscal years 2021, 2022, and 2023 shall not be less than $6.5 million. Disbursements under this subparagraph (D) shall be prioritized as follows: (i) consolidation grants prioritized under subsection (a) of Section 15.4b of this Act; (ii) NG9-1-1 expenses; and (iii) consolidation grants under Section 15.4b of this Act for consolidation expenses incurred between January 1, 2010, and January 1, 2016.

(E) All remaining funds per remit month shall be used to make monthly proportional grants to the appropriate 9-1-1 Authority currently taking wireless 9-1-1 based upon the United States Postal Zip Code of the billing addresses of subscribers of wireless carriers.

(c) The moneys deposited into the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund under this Section shall not be subject to administrative charges or chargebacks unless otherwise authorized by this Act.

(d) Whenever two or more 9-1-1 Authorities consolidate, the resulting Joint Emergency Telephone System Board shall be entitled to the monthly payments that had theretofore been made to each consolidating 9-1-1 Authority. Any reserves held by any consolidating 9-1-1 Authority shall be transferred to the resulting Joint Emergency Telephone System Board. Whenever a county that has no 9-1-1 service as of January 1, 2016 enters into an agreement to consolidate to create or join a Joint Emergency Telephone System Board, the Joint Emergency Telephone System Board shall be entitled to the monthly payments that would have otherwise been paid to the county if it had provided 9-1-1 service.

(Source: P.A. 101-639, eff. 6-12-20; 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(50 ILCS 750/40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2023)

Sec. 40. Financial reports.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall create uniform accounting procedures, with such modification as may be required to give effect to statutory provisions applicable only to municipalities with a population in excess of 500,000, that any emergency telephone system board or unit of local government receiving surcharge money pursuant to Section 15.3, 15.3a, or 30 of this Act must follow.

(b) By January 31, 2018, and every January 31 thereafter, each emergency telephone system board or unit of local government receiving surcharge money pursuant to Section 15.3, 15.3a, or 30 shall report to the Illinois State Police audited financial statements showing total revenue and expenditures for the period beginning with the end of the period covered by the last submitted report through the end of the previous calendar year in a form and manner as prescribed by the Illinois State Police. Such financial information shall include:

(1) a detailed summary of revenue from all sources including, but not limited to, local, State, federal, and private revenues, and any other funds received;

(2) all expenditures made during the reporting period from distributions under this Act;

(3) call data and statistics, when available, from the reporting period, as specified by the Illinois State Police and collected in accordance with any reporting method established or required by the Illinois State Police;

(4) all costs associated with dispatching appropriate public safety agencies to respond to 9-1-1 calls received by the PSAP; and

(5) all funding sources and amounts of funding used for costs described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b).

The emergency telephone system board or unit of local government is responsible for any costs associated with auditing such financial statements. The Illinois State Police shall post the audited financial statements on the Illinois State Police's website.

(c) Along with its audited financial statement, each emergency telephone system board or unit of local government receiving a grant under Section 15.4b of this Act shall include a report of the amount of grant moneys received and how the grant moneys were used. In case of a conflict between this requirement and the Grant Accountability and Transparency Act, or with the rules of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget adopted thereunder, that Act and those rules shall control.

(d) If an emergency telephone system board that receives funds from the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund fails to file the 9-1-1 system financial reports as required under this Section, the Illinois State Police shall suspend and withhold monthly disbursements otherwise due to the emergency telephone system board under Section 30 of this Act until the report is filed.

Any monthly disbursements that have been withheld for 12 months or more shall be forfeited by the emergency telephone system board and shall be distributed proportionally by the Illinois State Police to compliant emergency telephone system boards that receive funds from the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund.

Any emergency telephone system board not in compliance with this Section shall be ineligible to receive any consolidation grant or infrastructure grant issued under this Act.

(e) The Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rules necessary to implement the provisions of this Section.

(f) Any findings or decisions of the Illinois State Police under this Section shall be deemed a final administrative decision and shall be subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.

(g) Beginning October 1, 2017, the Illinois State Police shall provide a quarterly report to the Statewide 9-1-1 Advisory Board of its expenditures from the Statewide 9-1-1 Fund for the prior fiscal quarter.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 6-3-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-18-21.)

Section 290. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-9008 and 5-1069.3 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 5-1186 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-9008) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-9008)

Sec. 3-9008. Appointment of attorney to perform duties.

(a) (Blank).

(a-5) The court on its own motion, or an interested person in a cause or proceeding, civil or criminal, may file a petition alleging that the State's Attorney is sick, absent, or unable to fulfill the State's Attorney's duties. The court shall consider the petition, any documents filed in response, and if necessary, grant a hearing to determine whether the State's Attorney is sick, absent, or otherwise unable to fulfill the State's Attorney's duties. If the court finds that the State's Attorney is sick, absent, or otherwise unable to fulfill the State's Attorney's duties, the court may appoint some competent attorney to prosecute or defend the cause or proceeding.

(a-10) The court on its own motion, or an interested person in a cause, proceeding, or other matter arising under the State's Attorney's duties, civil or criminal, may file a petition alleging that the State's Attorney has an actual conflict of interest in the cause, proceeding, or other matter. The court shall consider the petition, any documents filed in response, and if necessary, grant a hearing to determine whether the State's Attorney has an actual conflict of interest in the cause, proceeding, or other matter. If the court finds that the petitioner has proven by sufficient facts and evidence that the State's Attorney has an actual conflict of interest in a specific case, the court may appoint some competent attorney to prosecute or defend the cause, proceeding, or other matter.

(a-15) Notwithstanding subsections (a-5) and (a-10) of this Section, the State's Attorney may file a petition to recuse the State's Attorney from a cause or proceeding for any other reason the State's Attorney deems appropriate and the court shall appoint a special prosecutor as provided in this Section.

(a-20) Prior to appointing a private attorney under this Section, the court shall contact public agencies, including, but not limited to, the Office of Attorney General, Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor, or local State's Attorney's Offices throughout the State, to determine a public prosecutor's availability to serve as a special prosecutor at no cost to the county and shall appoint a public agency if they are able and willing to accept the appointment. An attorney so appointed shall have the same power and authority in relation to the cause or proceeding as the State's Attorney would have if present and attending to the cause or proceedings.

(b) In case of a vacancy of more than one year occurring in any county in the office of State's attorney, by death, resignation or otherwise, and it becomes necessary for the transaction of the public business, that some competent attorney act as State's attorney in and for such county during the period between the time of the occurrence of such vacancy and the election and qualification of a State's attorney, as provided by law, the vacancy shall be filled upon the written request of a majority of the circuit judges of the circuit in which is located the county where such vacancy exists, by appointment as provided in the Election Code of some competent attorney to perform and discharge all the duties of a State's attorney in the said county, such appointment and all authority thereunder to cease upon the election and qualification of a State's attorney, as provided by law. Any attorney appointed for any reason under this Section shall possess all the powers and discharge all the duties of a regularly elected State's attorney under the laws of the State to the extent necessary to fulfill the purpose of such appointment, and shall be paid by the county the State's Attorney serves not to exceed in any one period of 12 months, for the reasonable amount of time actually expended in carrying out the purpose of such appointment, the same compensation as provided by law for the State's attorney of the county, apportioned, in the case of lesser amounts of compensation, as to the time of service reasonably and actually expended. The county shall participate in all agreements on the rate of compensation of a special prosecutor.

(c) An order granting authority to a special prosecutor must be construed strictly and narrowly by the court. The power and authority of a special prosecutor shall not be expanded without prior notice to the county. In the case of the proposed expansion of a special prosecutor's power and authority, a county may provide the court with information on the financial impact of an expansion on the county. Prior to the signing of an order requiring a county to pay for attorney's fees or litigation expenses, the county shall be provided with a detailed copy of the invoice describing the fees, and the invoice shall include all activities performed in relation to the case and the amount of time spent on each activity.

(Source: P.A. 102-56, eff. 7-9-21; 102-657, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-18-21.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, and 356z.51 and 356z.43 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-393, eff. 1-1-20; 101-461, eff. 1-1-20; 101-625, eff. 1-1-21; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; revised 10-26-21.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1186)

Sec. 5-1186. Kane County criminal courts complex drug treatment center. Notwithstanding any other provision of law:

(1) A private drug addiction treatment center may operate on the property transferred to Kane County in Public Act 86-729.

(2) Kane County may lease portions of the property transferred to the County in Public Act 86-729 to a not-for-profit or for-profit company for a drug addiction treatment center. Kane County may share in the drug addiction treatment center revenue with a company to whom it leases the property.

(3) Kane County may authorize the expenditure of funds for a private drug addiction treatment center on the property transferred to the County in Public Act 86-729.

(Source: P.A. 102-281, eff. 8-6-21.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1187)

Sec. 5-1187 5-1186. COVID-19 business relief; waiver of business fees, costs, and licensing. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a county board or board of county commissioners may, by resolution, waive or provide credit for any application or permit costs, fees, or other licensing or registration costs for businesses, including, but not limited to, professional or business licensing, liquor licenses, construction, insurance, sales, builders, contractors, food service, delivery, repair, consultation, legal services, accounting, transportation, manufacturing, technology, assembly, tourism, entertainment, or any business, industry, or service the county is permitted by law to regulate or license.

A waiver of business fees or costs shall be subject to an application or review process and a demonstration of need based upon any financial or logistical hardship as a result of the COVID-19 pandemic.

Any such waiver or credit shall not be construed to apply to any of the business and licensing costs of the State or any of its agencies or departments and is not an exemption from safety, health, or regulatory requirements or inspections of a county, municipality, or the State.

(Source: P.A. 102-435, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

Section 295. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-4-25, 10-1-7, 10-1-7.1, 10-2.1-6, 10-2.1-6.3, and 10-4-2.3 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-4-25) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-4-25)

Sec. 8-4-25. Subject to the requirements of the Bond Issue Notification Act, any municipality is authorized to issue from time to time full faith and credit general obligation notes in an amount not to exceed 85% of the specific taxes levied for the year during which and for which such notes are issued, provided no notes shall be issued in lieu of tax warrants for any tax at any time there are outstanding tax anticipation warrants against the specific taxes levied for the year. Such notes shall bear interest at a rate not to exceed the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act, as amended at the time of the making of the contract, if issued before January 1, 1972 and not more than the maximum rate authorized by the Bond Authorization Act, as amended at the time of the making of the contract, if issued after January 1, 1972 and shall mature within two years from date. The first interest payment date on any such notes shall not be earlier than the delinquency date of the first installment of taxes levied to pay interest and principal of such notes. Notes may be issued for taxes levied for the following purposes:

(a) Corporate.

(b) For the payment of judgments.

(c) Public Library for Maintenance and Operation.

(d) Public Library for Buildings and Sites.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Relief (General Assistance).

In order to authorize and issue such notes, the corporate authorities shall adopt an ordinance fixing the amount of the notes, the date thereof, the maturity, rate of interest, place of payment and denomination, which shall be in equal multiples of $1,000, and provide for the levy and collection of a direct annual tax upon all the taxable property in the municipality sufficient to pay the principal of and interest on such notes as the same becomes due.

A certified copy of the ordinance authorizing the issuance of the notes shall be filed in the office of the County Clerk of the county in which the municipality is located, or if the municipality lies partly within two or more counties, a certified copy of the ordinance authorizing such notes shall be filed with the County Clerk of each of the respective counties, and it shall be the duty of the County Clerk, or County Clerks, whichever the case may be, to extend the tax therefor in addition to and in excess of all other taxes heretofore or hereafter authorized to be levied by such municipality.

From and after any such notes have been issued and while such notes are outstanding, it shall be the duty of the County Clerk or County Clerks, whichever the case may be, in computing the tax rate for the purpose for which the notes have been issued to reduce the tax rate levied for such purpose by the amount levied to pay the principal of and interest on the notes to maturity, provided the tax rate shall not be reduced beyond the amount necessary to reimburse any money borrowed from the working cash fund, and it shall be the duty of the Clerk of the municipality annually, not less than thirty (30) days prior to the tax extension date, to certify to the County Clerk, or County Clerks, whichever the case may be, the amount of money borrowed from the working cash fund to be reimbursed from the specific tax levy.

No reimbursement shall be made to the working cash fund until there has been accumulated from the tax levy provided for the notes an amount sufficient to pay the principal of and interest on such notes as the same become due.

With respect to instruments for the payment of money issued under this Section either before, on, or after June 6, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-4) this amendatory Act of 1989, it is and always has been the intention of the General Assembly (i) that the Omnibus Bond Acts are and always have been supplementary grants of power to issue instruments in accordance with the Omnibus Bond Acts, regardless of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts, (ii) that the provisions of this Section are not a limitation on the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts, and (iii) that instruments issued under this Section within the supplementary authority granted by the Omnibus Bond Acts are not invalid because of any provision of this Act that may appear to be or to have been more restrictive than those Acts.

(Source: P.A. 102-587, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-3-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-7) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-1-7)

Sec. 10-1-7. Examination of applicants; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for offices or places in the classified service, except those mentioned in Section 10-1-17, are subject to examination. The examination shall be public, competitive, and open to all citizens of the United States, with specified limitations as to residence, age, health, habits and moral character.

(b) Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire or police service of a municipality (other than a municipality that has more than 1,000,000 inhabitants) cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of Fire or Police Chief.

(c) No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and paragraphs subsections (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or arrested for any cause but not convicted on that cause shall be disqualified from taking the examination on grounds of habits or moral character, unless the person is attempting to qualify for a position on the police department, in which case the conviction or arrest may be considered as a factor in determining the person's habits or moral character.

(d) Persons entitled to military preference under Section 10-1-16 shall not be subject to limitations specifying age unless they are applicants for a position as a fireman or a policeman having no previous employment status as a fireman or policeman in the regularly constituted fire or police department of the municipality, in which case they must not have attained their 35th birthday, except any person who has served as an auxiliary police officer under Section 3.1-30-20 for at least 5 years and is under 40 years of age.

(e) All employees of a municipality of less than 500,000 population (except those who would be excluded from the classified service as provided in this Division 1) who are holding that employment as of the date a municipality adopts this Division 1, or as of July 17, 1959, whichever date is the later, and who have held that employment for at least 2 years immediately before that later date, and all firemen and policemen regardless of length of service who were either appointed to their respective positions by the board of fire and police commissioners under the provisions of Division 2 of this Article or who are serving in a position (except as a temporary employee) in the fire or police department in the municipality on the date a municipality adopts this Division 1, or as of July 17, 1959, whichever date is the later, shall become members of the classified civil service of the municipality without examination.

(f) The examinations shall be practical in their character, and shall relate to those matters that will fairly test the relative capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek to be appointed. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications, health, and (when appropriate) manual skill. If an applicant is unable to pass the physical examination solely as the result of an injury received by the applicant as the result of the performance of an act of duty while working as a temporary employee in the position for which he or she is being examined, however, the physical examination shall be waived and the applicant shall be considered to have passed the examination. No questions in any examination shall relate to political or religious opinions or affiliations. Results of examinations and the eligible registers prepared from the results shall be published by the commission within 60 days after any examinations are held.

(g) The commission shall control all examinations, and may, whenever an examination is to take place, designate a suitable number of persons, either in or not in the official service of the municipality, to be examiners. The examiners shall conduct the examinations as directed by the commission and shall make a return or report of the examinations to the commission. If the appointed examiners are in the official service of the municipality, the examiners shall not receive extra compensation for conducting the examinations unless the examiners are subject to a collective bargaining agreement with the municipality. The commission may at any time substitute any other person, whether or not in the service of the municipality, in the place of any one selected as an examiner. The commission members may themselves at any time act as examiners without appointing examiners. The examiners at any examination shall not all be members of the same political party.

(h) In municipalities of 500,000 or more population, no person who has attained his or her 35th birthday shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a fireman or a policeman unless the person has had previous employment status as a policeman or fireman in the regularly constituted police or fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section.

(i) In municipalities of more than 5,000 but not more than 200,000 inhabitants, no person who has attained his or her 35th birthday shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a fireman or a policeman unless the person has had previous employment status as a policeman or fireman in the regularly constituted police or fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section.

(j) In all municipalities, applicants who are 20 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of law enforcement studies at an accredited college or university may be considered for appointment to active duty with the police department. An applicant described in this subsection (j) who is appointed to active duty shall not have power of arrest, nor shall the applicant be permitted to carry firearms, until he or she reaches 21 years of age.

(k) In municipalities of more than 500,000 population, applications for examination for and appointment to positions as firefighters or police shall be made available at various branches of the public library of the municipality.

(l) No municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 shall require that any fireman appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year. The limitation on periods of probationary employment provided in Public Act 86-990 this amendatory Act of 1989 is an exclusive power and function of the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 must comply with this limitation on periods of probationary employment, which is a denial and limitation of home rule powers. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.

(m) To the extent that this Section or any other Section in this Division conflicts with Section 10-1-7.1 or 10-1-7.2, then Section 10-1-7.1 or 10-1-7.2 shall control.

(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; revised 12-3-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-7.1)

Sec. 10-1-7.1. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 10-1-7.2, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after August 4, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-251).

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not administer its fire department process for original appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and functions exercised by the State.

A municipality that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before August 4, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-251) is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by this Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the municipality's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the Civil Service Commission. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the commission upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by the commission. After being selected from the register of eligibles to fill a vacancy in the affected department, each appointee shall be presented with his or her certificate of appointment on the day on which he or she is sworn in as a classified member of the affected department. Firefighters who were not issued a certificate of appointment when originally appointed shall be provided with a certificate within 10 days after making a written request to the chairperson of the Civil Service Commission. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after August 4, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-251) appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is located, State, or nation. Any examination and testing procedure utilized under subsection (e) of this Section shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State and federal laws. Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other prerequisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district,

(2) any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter, or

(3) any person who turned 35 while serving as a member of the active or reserve components of any of the branches of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard of any state, whose service was characterized as honorable or under honorable, if separated from the military, and is currently under the age of 40.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the municipality or their designees and agents.

No municipality shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Division 1 has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means attaining the minimum score set by the commission. Minimum scores should be set by the commission so as to demonstrate a candidate's ability to perform the essential functions of the job. The minimum score set by the commission shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State and federal laws. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the minimum score set by the commission. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the minimum score set by the commission.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum score for passage and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained a license as a paramedic may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from outside the municipality who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or another municipality may be awarded up to 5 experience preference points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than one point for each complete year of full-time service.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside the municipality the governing body of any fire protection district or any other municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(7.5) Apprentice preferences. A person who has performed fire suppression service for a department as a firefighter apprentice and otherwise meets the qualifications for original appointment as a firefighter specified in this Section may be awarded up to 20 preference points. To qualify for preference points, an applicant shall have completed a minimum of 600 hours of fire suppression work on a regular shift for the affected fire department over a 12-month period. The fire suppression work must be in accordance with Section 10-1-14 of this Division and the terms established by a Joint Apprenticeship Committee included in a collective bargaining agreement agreed between the employer and its certified bargaining agent. An eligible applicant must apply to the Joint Apprenticeship Committee for preference points under this item. The Joint Apprenticeship Committee shall evaluate the merit of the applicant's performance, determine the preference points to be awarded, and certify the amount of points awarded to the commissioners. The commissioners may add the certified preference points to the final grades achieved by the applicant on the other components of the examination.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission may give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (7.5) by adding to the final grade the amount of points designated by the Joint Apprenticeship Committee as defined in item (7.5). The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category, except items (1) and (7.5). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5, except item (7.5). In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories except item (7.5), that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points, except item (7.5), shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points. Apprentice preference points may be added in addition to other preference points awarded by the commission.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. However, apprentice preference credit earned subsequent to the establishment of the final eligibility register may be applied to the applicant's score upon certification by the Joint Apprenticeship Committee to the commission and the rank order of candidates on the final eligibility register shall be adjusted accordingly. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review, including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and paragraphs (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Illinois State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 101-489, eff. 8-23-19; 102-375, eff. 8-13-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-6) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-2.1-6)

Sec. 10-2.1-6. Examination of applicants; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for a position in either the fire or police department of the municipality shall be under 35 years of age, shall be subject to an examination that shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants (unless the council or board of trustees by ordinance limit applicants to electors of the municipality, county, state or nation) and shall be subject to reasonable limitations as to residence, health, habits, and moral character. The municipality may not charge or collect any fee from an applicant who has met all prequalification standards established by the municipality for any such position. With respect to a police department, a veteran shall be allowed to exceed the maximum age provision of this Section by the number of years served on active military duty, but by no more than 10 years of active military duty.

(b) Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire or police service of a municipality (other than a municipality that has more than 1,000,000 inhabitants) cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of Fire or Police Chief.

(c) No person with a record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and paragraphs subsections (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrested for any cause but not convicted on that cause shall be disqualified from taking the examination to qualify for a position in the fire department on grounds of habits or moral character.

(d) The age limitation in subsection (a) does not apply (i) to any person previously employed as a policeman or fireman in a regularly constituted police or fire department of (I) any municipality, regardless of whether the municipality is located in Illinois or in another state, or (II) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, (ii) to any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer fireman for 5 years immediately preceding the time that municipality begins to use full time firemen to provide all or part of its fire protection service, or (iii) to any person who has served as an auxiliary police officer under Section 3.1-30-20 for at least 5 years and is under 40 years of age, (iv) to any person who has served as a deputy under Section 3-6008 of the Counties Code and otherwise meets necessary training requirements, or (v) to any person who has served as a sworn officer as a member of the Illinois State Police.

(e) Applicants who are 20 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of law enforcement studies at an accredited college or university may be considered for appointment to active duty with the police department. An applicant described in this subsection (e) who is appointed to active duty shall not have power of arrest, nor shall the applicant be permitted to carry firearms, until he or she reaches 21 years of age.

(f) Applicants who are 18 years of age and who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques, amounting to a total of 4 high school credits, within the cadet program of a municipality may be considered for appointment to active duty with the fire department of any municipality.

(g) The council or board of trustees may by ordinance provide that persons residing outside the municipality are eligible to take the examination.

(h) The examinations shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that will fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek appointment. No person shall be appointed to the police or fire department if he or she does not possess a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education. A board of fire and police commissioners may, by its rules, require police applicants to have obtained an associate's degree or a bachelor's degree as a prerequisite for employment. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications and health. A board of fire and police commissioners may, by its rules, waive portions of the required examination for police applicants who have previously been full-time sworn officers of a regular police department in any municipal, county, university, or State law enforcement agency, provided they are certified by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board and have been with their respective law enforcement agency within the State for at least 2 years. No person shall be appointed to the police or fire department if he or she has suffered the amputation of any limb unless the applicant's duties will be only clerical or as a radio operator. No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the board of fire and police commissioners of the municipality as provided in this Division 2.1.

The requirement that a police applicant possess an associate's degree under this subsection may be waived if one or more of the following applies: (1) the applicant has served for 24 months of honorable active duty in the United States Armed Forces and has not been discharged dishonorably or under circumstances other than honorable; (2) the applicant has served for 180 days of active duty in the United States Armed Forces in combat duty recognized by the Department of Defense and has not been discharged dishonorably or under circumstances other than honorable; or (3) the applicant has successfully received credit for a minimum of 60 credit hours toward a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university.

The requirement that a police applicant possess a bachelor's degree under this subsection may be waived if one or more of the following applies: (1) the applicant has served for 36 months of honorable active duty in the United States Armed Forces and has not been discharged dishonorably or under circumstances other than honorable or (2) the applicant has served for 180 days of active duty in the United States Armed Forces in combat duty recognized by the Department of Defense and has not been discharged dishonorably or under circumstances other than honorable.

(i) No person who is classified by his local selective service draft board as a conscientious objector, or who has ever been so classified, may be appointed to the police department.

(j) No person shall be appointed to the police or fire department unless he or she is a person of good character and not an habitual drunkard, gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. No person, however, shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of his or her record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and paragraphs subsections (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction on that cause. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought and after a trial as provided in this Division 2.1.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-3-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-6.3)

Sec. 10-2.1-6.3. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 10-2.1-6.4, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after August 4, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-251).

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not administer its fire department process for original appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and functions exercised by the State.

A municipality that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before August 4, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-251) is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by this Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the municipality's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the board of fire and police commissioners. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the board upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by action of the board. After being selected from the register of eligibles to fill a vacancy in the affected department, each appointee shall be presented with his or her certificate of appointment on the day on which he or she is sworn in as a classified member of the affected department. Firefighters who were not issued a certificate of appointment when originally appointed shall be provided with a certificate within 10 days after making a written request to the chairperson of the board of fire and police commissioners. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after August 4, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-251) appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is located, State, or nation. Any examination and testing procedure utilized under subsection (e) of this Section shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State and federal laws. Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other prerequisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that municipality, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district,

(2) any person who has served a municipality as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter, or

(3) any person who turned 35 while serving as a member of the active or reserve components of any of the branches of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard of any state, whose service was characterized as honorable or under honorable, if separated from the military, and is currently under the age of 40.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the municipality or their designees and agents.

No municipality shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means attaining the minimum score set by the commission. Minimum scores should be set by the commission so as to demonstrate a candidate's ability to perform the essential functions of the job. The minimum score set by the commission shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State and federal laws. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the minimum score as set by the commission. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the minimum score set by the commission.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum score for passage and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained a license as a paramedic shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or any combination of those capacities shall be awarded 0.5 point for each year of successful service in one or more of those capacities, up to a maximum of 5 points. Certified Firefighter III and State of Illinois or nationally licensed paramedics shall be awarded one point per year up to a maximum of 5 points. Applicants from outside the municipality who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or another municipality for at least 2 years shall be awarded 5 experience preference points. These additional points presuppose a rating scale totaling 100 points available for the eligibility list. If more or fewer points are used in the rating scale for the eligibility list, the points awarded under this subsection shall be increased or decreased by a factor equal to the total possible points available for the examination divided by 100.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside the municipality the governing body of any fire protection district or any other municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(7.5) Apprentice preferences. A person who has performed fire suppression service for a department as a firefighter apprentice and otherwise meets the qualifications for original appointment as a firefighter specified in this Section is eligible to be awarded up to 20 preference points. To qualify for preference points, an applicant shall have completed a minimum of 600 hours of fire suppression work on a regular shift for the affected fire department over a 12-month period. The fire suppression work must be in accordance with Section 10-2.1-4 of this Division and the terms established by a Joint Apprenticeship Committee included in a collective bargaining agreement agreed between the employer and its certified bargaining agent. An eligible applicant must apply to the Joint Apprenticeship Committee for preference points under this item. The Joint Apprenticeship Committee shall evaluate the merit of the applicant's performance, determine the preference points to be awarded, and certify the amount of points awarded to the commissioners. The commissioners may add the certified preference points to the final grades achieved by the applicant on the other components of the examination.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission may give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission may give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (7.5) by adding to the final grade the amount of points designated by the Joint Apprenticeship Committee as defined in item (7.5). The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category, except items (1) and (7.5). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5, except item (7.5). In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories except item (7.5), that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points, except item (7.5), shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points. Apprentice preference points may be added in addition to other preference points awarded by the commission.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference may be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit may make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim may be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers may be established after the awarding of verified preference points. However, apprentice preference credit earned subsequent to the establishment of the final eligibility register may be applied to the applicant's score upon certification by the Joint Apprenticeship Committee to the commission and the rank order of candidates on the final eligibility register shall be adjusted accordingly. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review, including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and paragraphs (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Illinois State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 101-489, eff. 8-23-19; 102-375, eff. 8-13-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, and 356z.51 and 356z.43 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-393, eff. 1-1-20; 101-461, eff. 1-1-20; 101-625, eff. 1-1-21; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; revised 10-26-21.)

Section 300. The Revised Cities and Villages Act of 1941 is amended by changing Section 21-5.1 as follows:

(65 ILCS 20/21-5.1) (from Ch. 24, par. 21-5.1)

Sec. 21-5.1. Vice Mayor; election; duties; compensation. Mayor - election - duties - compensation.) Following election and qualification of alderpersons at a general election as provided by Section 21-22 of this Act, the City Council shall elect, from among its members, a Vice Mayor, to serve as interim Mayor of Chicago in the event that a vacancy occurs in the office of Mayor or in the event that the Council determines, by 3/5 vote, that the Mayor is under a permanent or protracted disability caused by illness or injury which renders the Mayor unable to serve. The Vice Mayor shall serve as interim Mayor. He will serve until the City Council shall elect one of its members acting Mayor or until the mayoral term expires.

The Vice Mayor shall receive no compensation as such, but shall receive compensation as an alderperson even while serving as interim Mayor. While serving as interim Mayor, the Vice Mayor shall possess all rights and powers and shall perform the duties of Mayor.

(Source: P.A. 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; revised 7-15-21.)

Section 305. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by changing Sections 16.06 and 16.06b as follows:

(70 ILCS 705/16.06) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 37.06)

Sec. 16.06. Eligibility for positions in fire department; disqualifications.

(a) All applicants for a position in the fire department of the fire protection district shall be under 35 years of age and shall be subjected to examination, which shall be public, competitive, and free to all applicants, subject to reasonable limitations as to health, habits, and moral character; provided that the foregoing age limitation shall not apply in the case of any person having previous employment status as a fireman in a regularly constituted fire department of any fire protection district, and further provided that each fireman or fire chief who is a member in good standing in a regularly constituted fire department of any municipality which shall be or shall have subsequently been included within the boundaries of any fire protection district now or hereafter organized shall be given a preference for original appointment in the same class, grade or employment over all other applicants. The examinations shall be practical in their character and shall relate to those matters which will fairly test the persons examined as to their relative capacity to discharge the duties of the positions to which they seek appointment. The examinations shall include tests of physical qualifications and health. No applicant, however, shall be examined concerning his political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the board of fire commissioners.

In any fire protection district that employs full-time firefighters and is subject to a collective bargaining agreement, a person who has not qualified for regular appointment under the provisions of this Section shall not be used as a temporary or permanent substitute for certificated members of a fire district's fire department or for regular appointment as a certificated member of a fire district's fire department unless mutually agreed to by the employee's certified bargaining agent. Such agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining. Fire protection districts covered by the changes made by Public Act 95-490 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that are using non-certificated employees as substitutes immediately prior to June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-490) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly may, by mutual agreement with the certified bargaining agent, continue the existing practice or a modified practice and that agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining.

(b) No person shall be appointed to the fire department unless he or she is a person of good character and not a person who has been convicted of a felony in Illinois or convicted in another jurisdiction for conduct that would be a felony under Illinois law, or convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude. No person, however, shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of his or her record of misdemeanor convictions, except those under Sections 11-1.50, 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 11-30, 11-35, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, and 32-8, subdivisions (a)(1) and (a)(2)(C) of Section 11-14.3, and paragraphs subsections (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-3-21.)

(70 ILCS 705/16.06b)

Sec. 16.06b. Original appointments; full-time fire department.

(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the provisions of Section 16.06c, this Section shall apply to all original appointments to an affected full-time fire department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2 years after August 4, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-251).

Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected department to which this Section applies shall be administered in a no less stringent manner than the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, Fire Protection District Act, fire district ordinances, and rules adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section and any other law, this Section shall control.

A fire protection district that is operating under a court order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time fire department before August 4, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-251) is exempt from the requirements of this Section for the duration of the court order or consent decree.

(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of eligibles established in accordance with the processes required by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the performance standards required by the Section shall be placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an affected fire department.

Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards for the position or if the appointing authority believes an alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles is less than 5 people.

Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future examinations, including an examination held during the time a candidate is already on the fire district's register of eligibles.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the board of fire commissioners, or board of trustees serving in the capacity of a board of fire commissioners. All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the commission upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected department by action of the commission. After being selected from the register of eligibles to fill a vacancy in the affected department, each appointee shall be presented with his or her certificate of appointment on the day on which he or she is sworn in as a classified member of the affected department. Firefighters who were not issued a certificate of appointment when originally appointed shall be provided with a certificate within 10 days after making a written request to the chairperson of the board of fire commissioners, or board of trustees serving in the capacity of a board of fire commissioners. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the fire department.

For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any person who has been prior to, on, or after August 4, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-251) appointed to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that the following persons are not included: part-time firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters, including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or other civilian employees of a fire department or fire protection district who are not routinely expected to perform firefighter duties; and elected officials.

(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles. The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of members of the fire department in order to provide the highest quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants for original appointment to an affected fire department shall be subject to examination and testing which shall be public, competitive, and open to all applicants unless the district shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the district, county or counties in which the district is located, State, or nation. Any examination and testing procedure utilized under subsection (e) of this Section shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State and federal laws. Districts may establish educational, emergency medical service licensure, and other prerequisites for participation in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any fire protection district may charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.

Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual enters the fire service of a district cannot be made more restrictive for that individual during his or her period of service for that district, or be made a condition of promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire Department Promotion Act.

No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter in the regularly constituted fire department of the district, except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not apply to:

(1) any person previously employed as a full-time firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of (i) any municipality or fire protection district located in Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21 of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire protection district;

(2) any person who has served a fire district as a regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time firefighter; or

(3) any person who turned 35 while serving as a member of the active or reserve components of any of the branches of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard of any state, whose service was characterized as honorable or under honorable, if separated from the military, and is currently under the age of 40.

No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible for employment as a firefighter.

No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her political or religious opinions or affiliations. The examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the district or their designees and agents.

No district shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year of actual active employment, which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.

In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be removed from the register.

(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers published in the district, or if no newspaper is published therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general circulation within the district, or (ii) on the fire protection district's Internet website. Additional notice of the examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.

The examination and qualifying standards for employment of firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by the commission. Scores from the examination must be made available to the public.

(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school education shall be placed on a register of eligibles. Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and accuracy of the scores achieved.

(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the essential functions included in the duties they may be called upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected for testing. These physical examinations shall be open, competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test each applicant's physical abilities in the following dimensions:

(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions that may be required in the performance of duties including grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based on standards developed, or approved, by the local appointing authority.

(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights, walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces, and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.

(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive, and complex problem solving during physical exertion in stressful and hazardous environments. The testing environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.

The tests utilized to measure each applicant's capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

Physical ability examinations administered under this Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable regulations of the commission.

(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her passage of the written examination or the passage of the written examination and the physical ability component. Passage of the written examination means attaining the minimum score set by the commission. Minimum scores should be set by the appointing authorities so as to demonstrate a candidate's ability to perform the essential functions of the job. The minimum score set by the commission shall be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State and federal laws. The appointing authority may conduct the physical ability component and any subjective components subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility register.

The examination components for an initial eligibility register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i) the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii) the person's results on any subjective component as described in subsection (d).

In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, an applicant's score on the written examination, before any applicable preference points or subjective points are applied, shall be at or above the minimum score set by the commission. The local appointing authority may prescribe the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility register, but the score shall not be less than the minimum score set by the commission.

The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons whose total score is not less than the minimum score for passage and who have passed the physical ability examination. These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude, subjective component, and preference components of the test administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility register is established and before it expires with the candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to priority of time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.

(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:

(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the military service of the United States for a period of at least one year of active duty and who were honorably discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval service, shall be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department.

(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques or cadet training within a cadet program established under the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee (JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(3) Educational preference. Persons who have successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained a license as a paramedic may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department of an affected department providing emergency medical services.

(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a district who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from outside the district who were employed as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire protection district or municipality for at least 2 years may be awarded up to 5 experience preference points. However, the applicant may not be awarded more than one point for each complete year of full-time service.

Upon request by the commission, the governing body of the district or in the case of applicants from outside the district the governing body of any other fire protection district or any municipality shall certify to the commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full amount of preference points under this subsection if the amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate receiving experience preference points is prevented from receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list below the veteran in rank order based on the totals received if all points under this subsection were to be awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined by lot.

(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal residence is located within the fire department's jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire department.

(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional preference points may be awarded for unique categories based on an applicant's experience or background as identified by the commission.

(7.5) Apprentice preferences. A person who has performed fire suppression service for a department as a firefighter apprentice and otherwise meets the qualifications for original appointment as a firefighter specified in this Section is eligible to be awarded up to 20 preference points. To qualify for preference points, an applicant shall have completed a minimum of 600 hours of fire suppression work on a regular shift for the affected fire department over a 12-month period. The fire suppression work must be in accordance with Section 16.06 of this Act and the terms established by a Joint Apprenticeship Committee included in a collective bargaining agreement agreed between the employer and its certified bargaining agent. An eligible applicant must apply to the Joint Apprenticeship Committee for preference points under this item. The Joint Apprenticeship Committee shall evaluate the merit of the applicant's performance, determine the preference points to be awarded, and certify the amount of points awarded to the commissioners. The commissioners may add the certified preference points to the final grades achieved by the applicant on the other components of the examination.

(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive 5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The commission may give preference for original appointment to persons designated in item (7.5) by adding to the final grade the amount of points designated by the Joint Apprenticeship Committee as defined in item (7.5). The commission shall determine the number of preference points for each category, except (1) and (7.5). The number of preference points for each category shall range from 0 to 5, except item (7.5). In determining the number of preference points, the commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the maximum number of preference points in all categories except item (7.5), that number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The commission shall give preference for original appointment to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding the requisite number of points to the final grade for each recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus attained shall be applied by the commission in determining the final eligibility list and appointment from the eligibility list. The local appointing authority may prescribe the total number of preference points awarded under this Section, but the total number of preference points, except item (7.5), shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30 points. Apprentice preference points may be added in addition to other preference points awarded by the commission.

No person entitled to any preference shall be required to claim the credit before any examination held under the provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility list or register at the request of a person entitled to a credit before any certification or appointments are made from the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding of verified preference points. However, apprentice preference credit earned subsequent to the establishment of the final eligibility register may be applied to the applicant's score upon certification by the Joint Apprenticeship Committee to the commission and the rank order of candidates on the final eligibility register shall be adjusted accordingly. All employment shall be subject to the commission's initial hire background review, including, but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral character, oral examination, and medical and psychological examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been extended.

Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the age requirement before being appointed to a fire department shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for original appointment after the names have been on the list for more than 2 years.

(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire department unless he or she is a person of good character; not a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude. However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to the fire department because of the person's record of misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6, 11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6, 12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1, 31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and paragraphs (1), (6), and (8) of subsection (a) subsections 1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection and after a trial as hereinafter provided.

A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be furnished to the Illinois State Police and to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.

Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Illinois State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.

(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to prevent material impairment of the fire department, the commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force only until regular appointments are made under the provisions of this Section, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in any calendar year.

(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section, commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to charges for official misconduct.

A person who is the knowing recipient of test information in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the examination or discharged from the position to which he or she was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to disciplinary actions.

(Source: P.A. 101-489, eff. 8-23-19; 102-375, eff. 8-13-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-23-21.)

Section 310. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.25o, 2-3.80, 10-17a, 10-21.9, 10-22.3f, 10-22.6, 10-22.39, 10-27.1A, 14-8.02, 18-8.15, 21A-25.5, 22-30, 24-2, 26-1, 26-2a, 26-13, 27-23.7, 27A-5, 29-5, 34-2.1, 34-4.5, 34-18.5, 34-18.8, and 34-21.9, by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 2-3.182, 10-20.73, 10-20.75, 14-17, and 22-90, and by setting forth and renumbering Sections 27-23.15 and 34-18.67 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25o)

Sec. 2-3.25o. Registration and recognition of non-public elementary and secondary schools.

(a) Findings. The General Assembly finds and declares (i) that the Constitution of the State of Illinois provides that a "fundamental goal of the People of the State is the educational development of all persons to the limits of their capacities" and (ii) that the educational development of every school student serves the public purposes of the State. In order to ensure that all Illinois students and teachers have the opportunity to enroll and work in State-approved educational institutions and programs, the State Board of Education shall provide for the voluntary registration and recognition of non-public elementary and secondary schools.

(b) Registration. All non-public elementary and secondary schools in the State of Illinois may voluntarily register with the State Board of Education on an annual basis. Registration shall be completed in conformance with procedures prescribed by the State Board of Education. Information required for registration shall include assurances of compliance (i) with federal and State laws regarding health examination and immunization, attendance, length of term, and nondiscrimination, including assurances that the school will not prohibit hairstyles historically associated with race, ethnicity, or hair texture, including, but not limited to, protective hairstyles such as braids, locks, and twists, and (ii) with applicable fire and health safety requirements.

(c) Recognition. All non-public elementary and secondary schools in the State of Illinois may voluntarily seek the status of "Non-public School Recognition" from the State Board of Education. This status may be obtained by compliance with administrative guidelines and review procedures as prescribed by the State Board of Education. The guidelines and procedures must recognize that some of the aims and the financial bases of non-public schools are different from public schools and will not be identical to those for public schools, nor will they be more burdensome. The guidelines and procedures must also recognize the diversity of non-public schools and shall not impinge upon the noneducational relationships between those schools and their clientele.

(c-5) Prohibition against recognition. A non-public elementary or secondary school may not obtain "Non-public School Recognition" status unless the school requires all certified and non-certified applicants for employment with the school, after July 1, 2007, to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check as a condition of employment to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State.

Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one non-public school, a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one non-public school (as a reading specialist, special education teacher, or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one non-public school, then only one of the non-public schools employing the individual shall request the authorization. Upon receipt of this authorization, the non-public school shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police.

The Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereafter, until expunged, to the president or principal of the non-public school that requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge that school a fee for conducting such check, which fee must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and must not exceed the cost of the inquiry. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse non-public schools for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

A non-public school may not obtain recognition status unless the school also performs a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant for employment, after July 1, 2007, to determine whether the applicant has been adjudicated a sex offender.

Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by a non-public school's president or principal under this Section is confidential and may be disseminated only to the governing body of the non-public school or any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, the non-public school shall notify the applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Sex Offender Database as a sex offender. Any information concerning the records of conviction obtained by the non-public school's president or principal under this Section for a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one non-public school, a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one non-public school (as a reading specialist, special education teacher, or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one non-public school may be shared with another non-public school's principal or president to which the applicant seeks employment. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

No non-public school may obtain recognition status that knowingly employs a person, hired after July 1, 2007, for whom an Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation fingerprint-based criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check has not been initiated or who has been convicted of any offense enumerated in Section 21B-80 of this Code or any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of those offenses. No non-public school may obtain recognition status under this Section that knowingly employs a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

In order to obtain recognition status under this Section, a non-public school must require compliance with the provisions of this subsection (c-5) from all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with the school, including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers, and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with pupils. Any information concerning the records of conviction or identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the non-public school principal or president must be promptly reported to the school's governing body.

Prior to the commencement of any student teaching experience or required internship (which is referred to as student teaching in this Section) in any non-public elementary or secondary school that has obtained or seeks to obtain recognition status under this Section, a student teacher is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the check must be furnished by the student teacher to the chief administrative officer of the non-public school where the student teaching is to be completed. Upon receipt of this authorization and payment, the chief administrative officer of the non-public school shall submit the student teacher's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the chief administrative officer of the non-public school that requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school a fee for conducting the check, which fee must be passed on to the student teacher, must not exceed the cost of the inquiry, and must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The school shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, and of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, for each student teacher. No school that has obtained or seeks to obtain recognition status under this Section may knowingly allow a person to student teach for whom a criminal history records check, a Statewide Sex Offender Database check, and a Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database check have not been completed and reviewed by the chief administrative officer of the non-public school.

A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police must be provided to the student teacher. Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the chief administrative officer of the non-public school is confidential and may be transmitted only to the chief administrative officer of the non-public school or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, or, for clarification purposes, the Illinois State Police or the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

No school that has obtained or seeks to obtain recognition status under this Section may knowingly allow a person to student teach who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code or who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

Any school that has obtained or seeks to obtain recognition status under this Section may not prohibit hairstyles historically associated with race, ethnicity, or hair texture, including, but not limited to, protective hairstyles such as braids, locks, and twists.

(d) Public purposes. The provisions of this Section are in the public interest, for the public benefit, and serve secular public purposes.

(e) Definition. For purposes of this Section, a non-public school means any non-profit, non-home-based, and non-public elementary or secondary school that is in compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-4-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.80) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.80)

Sec. 2-3.80. (a) The General Assembly recognizes that agriculture is the most basic and singularly important industry in the State, that agriculture is of central importance to the welfare and economic stability of the State, and that the maintenance of this vital industry requires a continued source of trained and qualified individuals for employment in agriculture and agribusiness. The General Assembly hereby declares that it is in the best interests of the people of the State of Illinois that a comprehensive education program in agriculture be created and maintained by the State's public school system in order to ensure an adequate supply of trained and skilled individuals and to ensure appropriate representation of racial and ethnic groups in all phases of the industry. It is the intent of the General Assembly that a State program for agricultural education shall be a part of the curriculum of the public school system K through adult, and made readily available to all school districts which may, at their option, include programs in education in agriculture as a part of the curriculum of that district.

(b) The State Board of Education shall adopt such rules and regulations as are necessary to implement the provisions of this Section. The rules and regulations shall not create any new State mandates on school districts as a condition of receiving federal, State, and local funds by those entities. It is in the intent of the General Assembly that, although this Section does not create any new mandates, school districts are strongly advised to follow the guidelines set forth in this Section.

(c) The State Superintendent of Education shall assume responsibility for the administration of the State program adopted under this Section throughout the public school system as well as the articulation of the State program to the requirements and mandates of federally assisted education. There is currently within the State Board of Education an agricultural education unit to assist school districts in the establishment and maintenance of educational programs pursuant to the provisions of this Section. The staffing of the unit shall at all times be comprised of an appropriate number of full-time employees who shall serve as program consultants in agricultural education and shall be available to provide assistance to school districts. At least one consultant shall be responsible for the coordination of the State program, as Head Consultant. At least one consultant shall be responsible for the coordination of the activities of student and agricultural organizations and associations.

(d) A committee of 13 agriculturalists representative of the various and diverse areas of the agricultural industry in Illinois shall be established to at least develop a curriculum and overview the implementation of the Build Illinois through Quality Agricultural Education plans of the Illinois Leadership Council for Agricultural Education and to advise the State Board of Education on vocational agricultural education, including the administration of the agricultural education line item appropriation and agency rulemaking that affects agricultural education educators. The committee shall be composed of the following:

(1) 3 6 agriculturalists representing the Illinois Leadership Council for Agricultural Education;

(2) 3 agriculturalists;

(3) 2 secondary agriculture teachers;

(4) one representative of "Ag In The Classroom";

(5) one community college agriculture teacher;

(6) one adult agriculture educator;

(7) one university agriculture teacher educator; and

(8) one FFA representative.

All members of the committee shall be appointed by the Governor by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. The terms of all members so appointed shall be for 3 years, except that of the members initially appointed, 5 shall be appointed to serve for terms of one year, 4 shall be appointed to serve for terms of 2 years, and 4 shall be appointed to serve for terms of 3 years. All members of the committee shall serve until their successors are appointed and qualified. Subject to a requirement that committee members in office before January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-463) this amendatory Act of 102nd General Assembly may serve the full term to which they were appointed, the appointment of committee members to terms that commence on or after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-463) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall be made in a manner that gives effect at the earliest possible time to the changes that are required by Public Act 102-463 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly in the representative composition of the committee's membership.

Vacancies in terms shall be filled by appointment of the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate for the extent of the unexpired term.

The State Board of Education shall implement a Build Illinois through Quality Agricultural Education plan following receipt of these recommendations, which shall be made available on or before March 31, 1987. Recommendations shall include, but not be limited to, the development of a curriculum and a strategy for the purpose of establishing a source of trained and qualified individuals in agriculture, a strategy for articulating the State program in agricultural education throughout the public school system, and a consumer education outreach strategy regarding the importance of agriculture in Illinois.

The committee of agriculturalists shall serve without compensation.

(e) A school district that offers a secondary agricultural education program that is approved for State and federal funding must ensure that, at a minimum, all of the following are available to its secondary agricultural education students:

(1) An instructional sequence of courses approved by the State Board of Education.

(2) A State and nationally affiliated FFA (Future Farmers of America) chapter that is integral to instruction and is not treated solely as an extracurricular activity.

(3) A mechanism for ensuring the involvement of all secondary agricultural education students in formal, supervised, agricultural-experience activities and programs.

(f) Nothing in this Section may prevent those secondary agricultural education programs that are in operation before January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-855) and that do not have an active State and nationally affiliated FFA chapter from continuing to operate or from continuing to receive funding from the State Board of Education.

(Source: P.A. 102-463, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.182)

Sec. 2-3.182. Annual census of personnel holding school support personnel endorsements.

(a) In this Section:

"School support personnel endorsement" means an endorsement affixed to a Professional Educator License as referenced in subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of Section 21B-25 of this Code.

"Special education joint agreement" means an entity formed pursuant to Section 10-22.31 of this Code.

(b) No later than December 1, 2023 and each December 1st annually thereafter, the State Board of Education must make available on its website the following information for each school district as of October 1st of each year beginning in 2022:

(1) The total number of personnel with a school support personnel endorsement and, for each endorsement area:

(A) those actively employed on a full-time basis by the school district;

(B) those actively employed on a part-time basis by the school district; and

(C) those actively employed by a special education joint agreement providing services to students in the school district.

(2) The total number of students enrolled in the school district and, of that total, the number of students with an individualized education program or a plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973.

(Source: P.A. 102-302, eff. 1-1-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.189)

Sec. 2-3.189 2-3.182. School unused food sharing plan. School districts shall incorporate a food sharing plan for unused food into their local wellness policy under Section 2-3.139. The food sharing plan shall focus on needy students, with the plan being developed and supported jointly by the district's local health department. Participants in the child nutrition programs, the National School Lunch Program and National School Breakfast Program, the Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP), and the Summer Food Service Program (SFSP) shall adhere to the provisions of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act, as well as accompanying guidance from the U.S. Department of Agriculture on the Food Donation Program, to ensure that any leftover food items are properly donated in order to combat potential food insecurity in their communities. For the purpose of this Section, "properly" means in accordance with all federal regulations and State and local health and sanitation codes.

(Source: P.A. 102-359, eff. 8-13-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.190)

Sec. 2-3.190 2-3.182. Anaphylactic policy for school districts.

(a) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the Department of Public Health, shall establish an anaphylactic policy for school districts setting forth guidelines and procedures to be followed both for the prevention of anaphylaxis and during a medical emergency resulting from anaphylaxis. The policy shall be developed after consultation with the advisory committee established pursuant to Section 5 of the Critical Health Problems and Comprehensive Health Education Act. In establishing the policy required under this Section, the State Board shall consider existing requirements and current and best practices for schools regarding allergies and anaphylaxis. The State Board must also consider the voluntary guidelines for managing food allergies in schools issued by the United States Department of Health and Human Services.

(b) The anaphylactic policy established under subsection (a) shall include the following:

(1) A procedure and treatment plan, including emergency protocols and responsibilities for school nurses and other appropriate school personnel, for responding to anaphylaxis.

(2) Requirements for a training course for appropriate school personnel on preventing and responding to anaphylaxis.

(3) A procedure and appropriate guidelines for the development of an individualized emergency health care plan for children with a food or other allergy that could result in anaphylaxis.

(4) A communication plan for intake and dissemination of information provided by this State regarding children with a food or other allergy that could result in anaphylaxis, including a discussion of methods, treatments, and therapies to reduce the risk of allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis.

(5) Strategies for reducing the risk of exposure to anaphylactic causative agents, including food and other allergens.

(6) A communication plan for discussion with children who have developed adequate verbal communication and comprehension skills and with the parents or guardians of all children about foods that are safe and unsafe and about strategies to avoid exposure to unsafe food.

(c) At least once each calendar year, each school district shall send a notification to the parents or guardians of all children under the care of a school to make them aware of the anaphylactic policy. The notification shall include contact information for parents and guardians to engage further with the school to learn more about individualized aspects of the policy.

(d) At least 6 months after August 20, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-413) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the anaphylactic policy established under subsection (a) shall be forwarded by the State Board to the school board of each school district in this State. Each school district shall implement or update, as appropriate, its anaphylactic policy in accordance with those developed by the State Board within 6 months after receiving the anaphylactic policy from the State Board.

(e) The anaphylactic policy established under subsection (a) shall be reviewed and updated, if necessary, at least once every 3 years.

(f) The State Board shall post the anaphylactic policy established under subsection (a) and resources regarding allergies and anaphylaxis on its website.

(g) The State Board may adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-413, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.191)

Sec. 2-3.191 2-3.182. State Education Equity Committee.

(a) The General Assembly finds that this State has an urgent and collective responsibility to achieve educational equity by ensuring that all policies, programs, and practices affirm the strengths that each and every child brings with diverse backgrounds and life experiences and by delivering the comprehensive support, programs, and educational opportunities children need to succeed.

(b) The State Education Equity Committee is created within the State Board of Education to strive toward ensuring equity in education for all children from birth through grade 12.

(c) The Committee shall consist of the State Superintendent of Education or the State Superintendent's designee, who shall serve as chairperson, and one member from each of the following organizations appointed by the State Superintendent:

(1) At least 2 educators who each represent a different statewide professional teachers' organization.

(2) A professional teachers' organization located in a city having a population exceeding 500,000.

(3) A statewide association representing school administrators.

(4) A statewide association representing regional superintendents of schools.

(5) A statewide association representing school board members.

(6) A statewide association representing school principals.

(7) A school district serving a community with a population of 500,000 or more.

(8) A parent-led organization.

(9) A student-led organization.

(10) One community organization that works to foster safe and healthy environments through advocacy for immigrant families and ensuring equitable opportunities for educational advancement and economic development.

(11) An organization that works for economic, educational, and social progress for African Americans and promotes strong sustainable communities through advocacy, collaboration, and innovation.

(12) One statewide organization whose focus is to narrow or close the achievement gap between students of color and their peers.

(13) An organization that advocates for healthier school environments in this State.

(14) One statewide organization that advocates for partnerships among schools, families, and the community, provides access to support, and removes barriers to learning and development, using schools as hubs.

(15) One organization that advocates for the health and safety of Illinois youth and families by providing capacity building services.

(16) An organization dedicated to advocating for public policies to prevent homelessness.

(17) Other appropriate State agencies as determined by the State Superintendent.

Members appointed to the Committee must reflect, as much as possible, the racial, ethnic, and geographic diversity of this State.

(d) Members appointed by the State Superintendent shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for reasonable and necessary expenses, including travel, from funds appropriated to the State Board of Education for that purpose, subject to the rules of the appropriate travel control board.

(e) The Committee shall meet at the call of the chairperson, but shall meet no less than 3 times a year.

(f) The Committee shall recognize that, while progress has been made, much remains to be done to address systemic inequities and ensure each and every child is equipped to reach the child's fullest potential and shall:

(1) guide its work through the principles of equity, equality, collaboration, and community;

(2) focus its work around the overarching goals of student learning, learning conditions, and elevating educators, all underpinned by equity;

(3) identify evidence-based practices or policies around these goals to build on this State's progress of ensuring educational equity for all its students in all aspects of birth through grade 12 education; and

(4) seek input and feedback on identified evidence-based practices or policies from stakeholders, including, but not limited to, parents, students, and educators that reflect the rich diversity of Illinois students.

(g) The Committee shall submit its recommendations to the General Assembly and the State Board of Education no later than January 31, 2022. By no later than December 15, 2023 and each year thereafter, the Committee shall report to the General Assembly and the State Board of Education about the additional progress that has been made to achieve educational equity.

(Source: P.A. 102-458, eff. 8-20-21; revised 1-15-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-17a) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-17a)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-594)

Sec. 10-17a. State, school district, and school report cards.

(1) By October 31, 2013 and October 31 of each subsequent school year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a State report card, school district report cards, and school report cards, and shall by the most economical economic means provide to each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, the report cards for the school district and each of its schools. Because of the impacts of the COVID-19 public health emergency during school year 2020-2021, the State Board of Education shall have until December 31, 2021 to prepare and provide the report cards that would otherwise be due by October 31, 2021. During a school year in which the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, the report cards for the school districts and each of its schools shall be prepared by December 31.

(2) In addition to any information required by federal law, the State Superintendent shall determine the indicators and presentation of the school report card, which must include, at a minimum, the most current data collected and maintained by the State Board of Education related to the following:

(A) school characteristics and student demographics, including average class size, average teaching experience, student racial/ethnic breakdown, and the percentage of students classified as low-income; the percentage of students classified as English learners, the number of students who graduate from a bilingual or English learner program, and the number of students who graduate from, transfer from, or otherwise leave bilingual programs; the percentage of students who have individualized education plans or 504 plans that provide for special education services; the number and percentage of all students who have been assessed for placement in a gifted education or advanced academic program and, of those students: (i) the racial and ethnic breakdown, (ii) the percentage who are classified as low-income, and (iii) the number and percentage of students who received direct instruction from a teacher who holds a gifted education endorsement and, of those students, the percentage who are classified as low-income; the percentage of students scoring at the "exceeds expectations" level on the assessments required under Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code; the percentage of students who annually transferred in or out of the school district; average daily attendance; the per-pupil operating expenditure of the school district; and the per-pupil State average operating expenditure for the district type (elementary, high school, or unit);

(B) curriculum information, including, where applicable, Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate or equivalent courses, dual enrollment courses, foreign language classes, computer science courses, school personnel resources (including Career Technical Education teachers), before and after school programs, extracurricular activities, subjects in which elective classes are offered, health and wellness initiatives (including the average number of days of Physical Education per week per student), approved programs of study, awards received, community partnerships, and special programs such as programming for the gifted and talented, students with disabilities, and work-study students;

(C) student outcomes, including, where applicable, the percentage of students deemed proficient on assessments of State standards, the percentage of students in the eighth grade who pass Algebra, the percentage of students who participated in workplace learning experiences, the percentage of students enrolled in post-secondary institutions (including colleges, universities, community colleges, trade/vocational schools, and training programs leading to career certification within 2 semesters of high school graduation), the percentage of students graduating from high school who are college and career ready, and the percentage of graduates enrolled in community colleges, colleges, and universities who are in one or more courses that the community college, college, or university identifies as a developmental course;

(D) student progress, including, where applicable, the percentage of students in the ninth grade who have earned 5 credits or more without failing more than one core class, a measure of students entering kindergarten ready to learn, a measure of growth, and the percentage of students who enter high school on track for college and career readiness;

(E) the school environment, including, where applicable, high school dropout rate by grade level, the percentage of students with less than 10 absences in a school year, the percentage of teachers with less than 10 absences in a school year for reasons other than professional development, leaves taken pursuant to the federal Family Medical Leave Act of 1993, long-term disability, or parental leaves, the 3-year average of the percentage of teachers returning to the school from the previous year, the number of different principals at the school in the last 6 years, the number of teachers who hold a gifted education endorsement, the process and criteria used by the district to determine whether a student is eligible for participation in a gifted education program or advanced academic program and the manner in which parents and guardians are made aware of the process and criteria, 2 or more indicators from any school climate survey selected or approved by the State and administered pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, with the same or similar indicators included on school report cards for all surveys selected or approved by the State pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, the combined percentage of teachers rated as proficient or excellent in their most recent evaluation, and, beginning with the 2022-2023 school year, data on the number of incidents of violence that occurred on school grounds or during school-related activities and that resulted in an out-of-school suspension, expulsion, or removal to an alternative setting, as reported pursuant to Section 2-3.162;

(F) a school district's and its individual schools' balanced accountability measure, in accordance with Section 2-3.25a of this Code;

(G) the total and per pupil normal cost amount the State contributed to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois in the prior fiscal year for the school's employees, which shall be reported to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois;

(H) for a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code only, State contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago and State contributions for health care for employees of that school district;

(I) a school district's Final Percent of Adequacy, as defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code;

(J) a school district's Local Capacity Target, as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount;

(K) a school district's Real Receipts, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, divided by a school district's Adequacy Target, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount;

(L) a school district's administrative costs;

(M) whether or not the school has participated in the Illinois Youth Survey. In this paragraph (M), "Illinois Youth Survey" means a self-report survey, administered in school settings every 2 years, designed to gather information about health and social indicators, including substance abuse patterns and the attitudes of students in grades 8, 10, and 12; and

(N) whether the school offered its students career and technical education opportunities.

The school report card shall also provide information that allows for comparing the current outcome, progress, and environment data to the State average, to the school data from the past 5 years, and to the outcomes, progress, and environment of similar schools based on the type of school and enrollment of low-income students, special education students, and English learners.

As used in this subsection (2):

"Administrative costs" means costs associated with executive, administrative, or managerial functions within the school district that involve planning, organizing, managing, or directing the school district.

"Advanced academic program" means a course of study to which students are assigned based on advanced cognitive ability or advanced academic achievement compared to local age peers and in which the curriculum is substantially differentiated from the general curriculum to provide appropriate challenge and pace.

"Computer science" means the study of computers and algorithms, including their principles, their hardware and software designs, their implementation, and their impact on society. "Computer science" does not include the study of everyday uses of computers and computer applications, such as keyboarding or accessing the Internet.

"Gifted education" means educational services, including differentiated curricula and instructional methods, designed to meet the needs of gifted children as defined in Article 14A of this Code.

For the purposes of paragraph (A) of this subsection (2), "average daily attendance" means the average of the actual number of attendance days during the previous school year for any enrolled student who is subject to compulsory attendance by Section 26-1 of this Code at each school and charter school.

(3) At the discretion of the State Superintendent, the school district report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section, as well as information relating to the operating expense per pupil and other finances of the school district, and the State report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) and paragraph (N) of subsection (2) of this Section. The school district report card shall include the average daily attendance, as that term is defined in subsection (2) of this Section, of students who have individualized education programs and students who have 504 plans that provide for special education services within the school district.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, in consultation with key education stakeholders, the State Superintendent shall at any time have the discretion to amend or update any and all metrics on the school, district, or State report card.

(5) Annually, no more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the school district and school report cards from the State Superintendent of Education, each school district, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall present such report cards at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, post the report cards on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, make the report cards available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, send the report cards home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card.

(6) Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 101-68, eff. 1-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-294, eff. 1-1-22; 102-539, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-18-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-594)

Sec. 10-17a. State, school district, and school report cards.

(1) By October 31, 2013 and October 31 of each subsequent school year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a State report card, school district report cards, and school report cards, and shall by the most economical economic means provide to each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, the report cards for the school district and each of its schools. Because of the impacts of the COVID-19 public health emergency during school year 2020-2021, the State Board of Education shall have until December 31, 2021 to prepare and provide the report cards that would otherwise be due by October 31, 2021. During a school year in which the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, the report cards for the school districts and each of its schools shall be prepared by December 31.

(2) In addition to any information required by federal law, the State Superintendent shall determine the indicators and presentation of the school report card, which must include, at a minimum, the most current data collected and maintained by the State Board of Education related to the following:

(A) school characteristics and student demographics, including average class size, average teaching experience, student racial/ethnic breakdown, and the percentage of students classified as low-income; the percentage of students classified as English learners, the number of students who graduate from a bilingual or English learner program, and the number of students who graduate from, transfer from, or otherwise leave bilingual programs; the percentage of students who have individualized education plans or 504 plans that provide for special education services; the number and percentage of all students who have been assessed for placement in a gifted education or advanced academic program and, of those students: (i) the racial and ethnic breakdown, (ii) the percentage who are classified as low-income, and (iii) the number and percentage of students who received direct instruction from a teacher who holds a gifted education endorsement and, of those students, the percentage who are classified as low-income; the percentage of students scoring at the "exceeds expectations" level on the assessments required under Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code; the percentage of students who annually transferred in or out of the school district; average daily attendance; the per-pupil operating expenditure of the school district; and the per-pupil State average operating expenditure for the district type (elementary, high school, or unit);

(B) curriculum information, including, where applicable, Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate or equivalent courses, dual enrollment courses, foreign language classes, computer science courses, school personnel resources (including Career Technical Education teachers), before and after school programs, extracurricular activities, subjects in which elective classes are offered, health and wellness initiatives (including the average number of days of Physical Education per week per student), approved programs of study, awards received, community partnerships, and special programs such as programming for the gifted and talented, students with disabilities, and work-study students;

(C) student outcomes, including, where applicable, the percentage of students deemed proficient on assessments of State standards, the percentage of students in the eighth grade who pass Algebra, the percentage of students who participated in workplace learning experiences, the percentage of students enrolled in post-secondary institutions (including colleges, universities, community colleges, trade/vocational schools, and training programs leading to career certification within 2 semesters of high school graduation), the percentage of students graduating from high school who are college and career ready, and the percentage of graduates enrolled in community colleges, colleges, and universities who are in one or more courses that the community college, college, or university identifies as a developmental course;

(D) student progress, including, where applicable, the percentage of students in the ninth grade who have earned 5 credits or more without failing more than one core class, a measure of students entering kindergarten ready to learn, a measure of growth, and the percentage of students who enter high school on track for college and career readiness;

(E) the school environment, including, where applicable, high school dropout rate by grade level, the percentage of students with less than 10 absences in a school year, the percentage of teachers with less than 10 absences in a school year for reasons other than professional development, leaves taken pursuant to the federal Family Medical Leave Act of 1993, long-term disability, or parental leaves, the 3-year average of the percentage of teachers returning to the school from the previous year, the number of different principals at the school in the last 6 years, the number of teachers who hold a gifted education endorsement, the process and criteria used by the district to determine whether a student is eligible for participation in a gifted education program or advanced academic program and the manner in which parents and guardians are made aware of the process and criteria, the number of teachers who are National Board Certified Teachers, disaggregated by race and ethnicity, 2 or more indicators from any school climate survey selected or approved by the State and administered pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, with the same or similar indicators included on school report cards for all surveys selected or approved by the State pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, the combined percentage of teachers rated as proficient or excellent in their most recent evaluation, and, beginning with the 2022-2023 school year, data on the number of incidents of violence that occurred on school grounds or during school-related activities and that resulted in an out-of-school suspension, expulsion, or removal to an alternative setting, as reported pursuant to Section 2-3.162;

(F) a school district's and its individual schools' balanced accountability measure, in accordance with Section 2-3.25a of this Code;

(G) the total and per pupil normal cost amount the State contributed to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois in the prior fiscal year for the school's employees, which shall be reported to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois;

(H) for a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code only, State contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago and State contributions for health care for employees of that school district;

(I) a school district's Final Percent of Adequacy, as defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code;

(J) a school district's Local Capacity Target, as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount;

(K) a school district's Real Receipts, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, divided by a school district's Adequacy Target, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount;

(L) a school district's administrative costs;

(M) whether or not the school has participated in the Illinois Youth Survey. In this paragraph (M), "Illinois Youth Survey" means a self-report survey, administered in school settings every 2 years, designed to gather information about health and social indicators, including substance abuse patterns and the attitudes of students in grades 8, 10, and 12; and

(N) whether the school offered its students career and technical education opportunities.

The school report card shall also provide information that allows for comparing the current outcome, progress, and environment data to the State average, to the school data from the past 5 years, and to the outcomes, progress, and environment of similar schools based on the type of school and enrollment of low-income students, special education students, and English learners.

As used in this subsection (2):

"Administrative costs" means costs associated with executive, administrative, or managerial functions within the school district that involve planning, organizing, managing, or directing the school district.

"Advanced academic program" means a course of study to which students are assigned based on advanced cognitive ability or advanced academic achievement compared to local age peers and in which the curriculum is substantially differentiated from the general curriculum to provide appropriate challenge and pace.

"Computer science" means the study of computers and algorithms, including their principles, their hardware and software designs, their implementation, and their impact on society. "Computer science" does not include the study of everyday uses of computers and computer applications, such as keyboarding or accessing the Internet.

"Gifted education" means educational services, including differentiated curricula and instructional methods, designed to meet the needs of gifted children as defined in Article 14A of this Code.

For the purposes of paragraph (A) of this subsection (2), "average daily attendance" means the average of the actual number of attendance days during the previous school year for any enrolled student who is subject to compulsory attendance by Section 26-1 of this Code at each school and charter school.

(3) At the discretion of the State Superintendent, the school district report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section, as well as information relating to the operating expense per pupil and other finances of the school district, and the State report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) and paragraph (N) of subsection (2) of this Section. The school district report card shall include the average daily attendance, as that term is defined in subsection (2) of this Section, of students who have individualized education programs and students who have 504 plans that provide for special education services within the school district.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, in consultation with key education stakeholders, the State Superintendent shall at any time have the discretion to amend or update any and all metrics on the school, district, or State report card.

(5) Annually, no more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the school district and school report cards from the State Superintendent of Education, each school district, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall present such report cards at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, post the report cards on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, make the report cards available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, send the report cards home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card.

(6) Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 101-68, eff. 1-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-294, eff. 1-1-22; 102-539, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-594, eff. 7-1-22; revised 10-18-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.73)

Sec. 10-20.73. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) A school board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform for the purpose of modesty in clothing or attire that is in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the school board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits a school from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.75)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 10-20.75. Website accessibility guidelines.

(a) As used in this Section, "Internet website or web service" means any third party online curriculum that is made available to enrolled students or the public by a school district through the Internet.

(b) To ensure that the content available on an Internet website or web service of a school district is readily accessible to persons with disabilities, the school district must require that the Internet website or web service comply with Level AA of the World Wide Web Consortium's Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.1 or any revised version of those guidelines.

(Source: P.A. 102-238, eff. 8-1-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.76)

Sec. 10-20.76 10-20.73. Student identification; suicide prevention information. Each school district shall provide contact information for the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline and for the Crisis Text Line on the back of each student identification card issued by the school district. If the school district does not issue student identification cards to its students or to all of its students, the school district must publish this information on its website.

(Source: P.A. 102-134, eff. 7-23-21; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.77)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 10-20.77 10-20.73. Parent-teacher conference and other meetings; caseworker. For any student who is in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services, the liaison appointed under Section 10-20.59 must inform the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services of a parent-teacher conference or any other meeting concerning the student that would otherwise involve a parent and must, at the option of the caseworker, allow the student's caseworker to attend the conference or meeting.

(Source: P.A. 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.78)

Sec. 10-20.78 10-20.73. Student absence; pregnancy. A school board shall adopt written policies related to absences and missed homework or classwork assignments as a result of or related to a student's pregnancy.

(Source: P.A. 102-471, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.79)

Sec. 10-20.79 10-20.73. Computer literacy skills. All school districts shall ensure that students receive developmentally appropriate opportunities to gain computer literacy skills beginning in elementary school.

(Source: P.A. 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.80)

Sec. 10-20.80 10-20.75. School support personnel reporting. No later than December 1, 2022 and each December 1st annually thereafter, each school district must report to the State Board of Education the information with regard to the school district as of October 1st of each year beginning in 2022 as described in subsection (b) of Section 2-3.182 of this Code and must make that information available on its website.

(Source: P.A. 102-302, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.81)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 10-20.81 10-20.75. Identification cards; suicide prevention information. Each school district that serves pupils in any of grades 6 through 12 and that issues an identification card to pupils in any of grades 6 through 12 shall provide contact information for the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline (988), the Crisis Text Line, and either the Safe2Help Illinois helpline or a local suicide prevention hotline or both on the identification card. The contact information shall identify each helpline that may be contacted through text messaging. The contact information shall be included in the school's student handbook and also the student planner if a student planner is custom printed by the school for distribution to pupils in any of grades 6 through 12.

(Source: P.A. 102-416, eff. 7-1-22; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-21.9) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-21.9)

Sec. 10-21.9. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Licensed and nonlicensed applicants for employment with a school district, except school bus driver applicants, are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any disqualifying, enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Illinois State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent, except that those applicants seeking employment as a substitute teacher with a school district may be charged a fee not to exceed the cost of the inquiry. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse school districts and regional superintendents for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the school board or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the school district, the presidents of the appropriate school boards if the check was requested from the Illinois State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Board of Education and a school district as authorized under subsection (b-5), the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment, or for clarification purposes the Illinois State Police or Statewide Sex Offender Database, or both. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Illinois State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Illinois State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Illinois State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database as provided in this Section. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(b-5) If a criminal history records check or check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database is performed by a regional superintendent for an applicant seeking employment as a substitute teacher with a school district, the regional superintendent may disclose to the State Board of Education whether the applicant has been issued a certificate under subsection (b) based on those checks. If the State Board receives information on an applicant under this subsection, then it must indicate in the Educator Licensure Information System for a 90-day period that the applicant has been issued or has not been issued a certificate.

(c) No school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of Section 21B-80. Further, no school board shall knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. As a condition of employment, each school board must consider the status of a person who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(d) No school board shall knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check have not been initiated.

(e) Within 10 days after a superintendent, regional office of education, or entity that provides background checks of license holders to public schools receives information of a pending criminal charge against a license holder for an offense set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code, the superintendent, regional office of education, or entity must notify the State Superintendent of Education of the pending criminal charge.

If permissible by federal or State law, no later than 15 business days after receipt of a record of conviction or of checking the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database or the Statewide Sex Offender Database and finding a registration, the superintendent of the employing school board or the applicable regional superintendent shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any license holder who has been convicted of a crime set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code. Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any license issued pursuant to Article 21B or Section 34-8.1 or 34-83 of the School Code, the State Superintendent of Education may initiate licensure suspension and revocation proceedings as authorized by law. If the receipt of the record of conviction or finding of child abuse is received within 6 months after the initial grant of or renewal of a license, the State Superintendent of Education may rescind the license holder's license.

(e-5) The superintendent of the employing school board shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education and the applicable regional superintendent of schools of any license holder whom he or she has reasonable cause to believe has committed an intentional act of abuse or neglect with the result of making a child an abused child or a neglected child, as defined in Section 3 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and that act resulted in the license holder's dismissal or resignation from the school district. This notification must be submitted within 30 days after the dismissal or resignation and must include the Illinois Educator Identification Number (IEIN) of the license holder and a brief description of the misconduct alleged. The license holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice by the superintendent. All correspondence, documentation, and other information so received by the regional superintendent of schools, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Board of Education, or the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board under this subsection (e-5) is confidential and must not be disclosed to third parties, except (i) as necessary for the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee to investigate and prosecute pursuant to Article 21B of this Code, (ii) pursuant to a court order, (iii) for disclosure to the license holder or his or her representative, or (iv) as otherwise provided in this Article and provided that any such information admitted into evidence in a hearing is exempt from this confidentiality and non-disclosure requirement. Except for an act of willful or wanton misconduct, any superintendent who provides notification as required in this subsection (e-5) shall have immunity from any liability, whether civil or criminal or that otherwise might result by reason of such action.

(f) After January 1, 1990 the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Illinois State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(f-5) Upon request of a school or school district, any information obtained by a school district pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section within the last year must be made available to the requesting school or school district.

(g) Prior to the commencement of any student teaching experience or required internship (which is referred to as student teaching in this Section) in the public schools, a student teacher is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the check must be furnished by the student teacher to the school district where the student teaching is to be completed. Upon receipt of this authorization and payment, the school district shall submit the student teacher's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district a fee for conducting the check, which fee must not exceed the cost of the inquiry and must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The school district shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, and of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, for each student teacher. No school board may knowingly allow a person to student teach for whom a criminal history records check, a Statewide Sex Offender Database check, and a Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database check have not been completed and reviewed by the district.

A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police must be provided to the student teacher. Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the school board is confidential and may only be transmitted to the superintendent of the school district or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, or, for clarification purposes, the Illinois State Police or the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

No school board shall knowingly allow a person to student teach who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of Section 21B-80. Further, no school board shall allow a person to student teach if he or she has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Each school board must consider the status of a person to student teach who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-72, eff. 7-12-19; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-6-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.3f)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.45, 356z.46, 356z.47, and 356z.51 and 356z.43 of the Illinois Insurance Code. Insurance policies shall comply with Section 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-393, eff. 1-1-20; 101-461, eff. 1-1-20; 101-625, eff. 1-1-21; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; revised 10-27-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of pupils; school searches.

(a) To expel pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means, pursuant to subsection (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents have been requested to appear at a meeting of the board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it finds appropriate. If the board acts to expel a pupil, the written expulsion decision shall detail the specific reasons why removing the pupil from the learning environment is in the best interest of the school. The expulsion decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the expulsion. An expelled pupil may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the school bus from riding the school bus, pursuant to subsections (b-15) and (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed 10 school days. If a pupil is suspended due to gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board may suspend the pupil in excess of 10 school days for safety reasons.

Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the parents or guardian of a pupil along with a full statement of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the notice, including the reason for the suspension and the suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardian, the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall review such action of the superintendent or principal, assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review, the parents or guardian of the pupil may appear and discuss the suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds appropriate. If a student is suspended pursuant to this subsection (b), the board shall, in the written suspension decision, detail the specific act of gross disobedience or misconduct resulting in the decision to suspend. The suspension decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the suspension. A pupil who is suspended in excess of 20 school days may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the suspension, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b-5) Among the many possible disciplinary interventions and consequences available to school officials, school exclusions, such as out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, are the most serious. School officials shall limit the number and duration of expulsions and suspensions to the greatest extent practicable, and it is recommended that they use them only for legitimate educational purposes. To ensure that students are not excluded from school unnecessarily, it is recommended that school officials consider forms of non-exclusionary discipline prior to using out-of-school suspensions or expulsions.

(b-10) Unless otherwise required by federal law or this Code, school boards may not institute zero-tolerance policies by which school administrators are required to suspend or expel students for particular behaviors.

(b-15) Out-of-school suspensions of 3 days or less may be used only if the student's continuing presence in school would pose a threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities. For purposes of this subsection (b-15), "threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by the school board or its designee. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of suspensions to the greatest extent practicable.

(b-20) Unless otherwise required by this Code, out-of-school suspensions of longer than 3 days, expulsions, and disciplinary removals to alternative schools may be used only if other appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted and the student's continuing presence in school would either (i) pose a threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community or (ii) substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), "threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community" and "substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by school officials. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), the determination of whether "appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted" shall be made by school officials. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of student exclusions to the greatest extent practicable. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section or the expulsion decision described in subsection (a) of this Section, it shall be documented whether other interventions were attempted or whether it was determined that there were no other appropriate and available interventions.

(b-25) Students who are suspended out-of-school for longer than 4 school days shall be provided appropriate and available support services during the period of their suspension. For purposes of this subsection (b-25), "appropriate and available support services" shall be determined by school authorities. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section, it shall be documented whether such services are to be provided or whether it was determined that there are no such appropriate and available services.

A school district may refer students who are expelled to appropriate and available support services.

A school district shall create a policy to facilitate the re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school, expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting.

(b-30) A school district shall create a policy by which suspended pupils, including those pupils suspended from the school bus who do not have alternate transportation to school, shall have the opportunity to make up work for equivalent academic credit. It shall be the responsibility of a pupil's parent or guardian to notify school officials that a pupil suspended from the school bus does not have alternate transportation to school.

(c) A school board must invite a representative from a local mental health agency to consult with the board at the meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be the cause of a student's expulsion or suspension.

(c-5) School districts shall make reasonable efforts to provide ongoing professional development to teachers, administrators, school board members, school resource officers, and staff on the adverse consequences of school exclusion and justice-system involvement, effective classroom management strategies, culturally responsive discipline, the appropriate and available supportive services for the promotion of student attendance and engagement, and developmentally appropriate disciplinary methods that promote positive and healthy school climates.

(d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis. A student who is determined to have brought one of the following objects to school, any school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be expelled for a period of not less than one year:

(1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, firearm as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The expulsion period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.

(2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner consistent with the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with Article 13A of the School Code.

(d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis, if (i) that student has been determined to have made an explicit threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet website through which the threat was made is a site that was accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or was available to third parties who worked or studied within the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to the safety and security of the threatened individual because of his or her duties or employment status or status as a student inside the school.

(e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as personal effects left in those places and areas by students, without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects left in these places and areas. School authorities may request the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs. If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces evidence that the student has violated or is violating either the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules, such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities.

(f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or expulsion from school and all school activities and a prohibition from being present on school grounds.

(g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any public or private school in this or any other state, the student must complete the entire term of the suspension or expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the school district if there is no threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(h) School officials shall not advise or encourage students to drop out voluntarily due to behavioral or academic difficulties.

(i) A student may not be issued a monetary fine or fee as a disciplinary consequence, though this shall not preclude requiring a student to provide restitution for lost, stolen, or damaged property.

(j) Subsections (a) through (i) of this Section shall apply to elementary and secondary schools, charter schools, special charter districts, and school districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(k) The expulsion of children enrolled in programs funded under Section 1C-2 of this Code is subject to the requirements under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 2-3.71 of this Code.

(l) Beginning with the 2018-2019 school year, an in-school suspension program provided by a school district for any students in kindergarten through grade 12 may focus on promoting non-violent conflict resolution and positive interaction with other students and school personnel. A school district may employ a school social worker or a licensed mental health professional to oversee an in-school suspension program in kindergarten through grade 12.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-539, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of pupils; school searches.

(a) To expel pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means, pursuant to subsection (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents or guardians have been requested to appear at a meeting of the board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it finds appropriate. If the board acts to expel a pupil, the written expulsion decision shall detail the specific reasons why removing the pupil from the learning environment is in the best interest of the school. The expulsion decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the expulsion. An expelled pupil may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the school bus from riding the school bus, pursuant to subsections (b-15) and (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed 10 school days. If a pupil is suspended due to gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board may suspend the pupil in excess of 10 school days for safety reasons.

Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the parents or guardians of a pupil along with a full statement of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the notice, including the reason for the suspension and the suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardians, the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall review such action of the superintendent or principal, assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review, the parents or guardians of the pupil may appear and discuss the suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds appropriate. If a student is suspended pursuant to this subsection (b), the board shall, in the written suspension decision, detail the specific act of gross disobedience or misconduct resulting in the decision to suspend. The suspension decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the suspension. A pupil who is suspended in excess of 20 school days may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the suspension, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b-5) Among the many possible disciplinary interventions and consequences available to school officials, school exclusions, such as out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, are the most serious. School officials shall limit the number and duration of expulsions and suspensions to the greatest extent practicable, and it is recommended that they use them only for legitimate educational purposes. To ensure that students are not excluded from school unnecessarily, it is recommended that school officials consider forms of non-exclusionary discipline prior to using out-of-school suspensions or expulsions.

(b-10) Unless otherwise required by federal law or this Code, school boards may not institute zero-tolerance policies by which school administrators are required to suspend or expel students for particular behaviors.

(b-15) Out-of-school suspensions of 3 days or less may be used only if the student's continuing presence in school would pose a threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities. For purposes of this subsection (b-15), "threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by the school board or its designee. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of suspensions to the greatest extent practicable.

(b-20) Unless otherwise required by this Code, out-of-school suspensions of longer than 3 days, expulsions, and disciplinary removals to alternative schools may be used only if other appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted and the student's continuing presence in school would either (i) pose a threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community or (ii) substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), "threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community" and "substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by school officials. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), the determination of whether "appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted" shall be made by school officials. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of student exclusions to the greatest extent practicable. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section or the expulsion decision described in subsection (a) of this Section, it shall be documented whether other interventions were attempted or whether it was determined that there were no other appropriate and available interventions.

(b-25) Students who are suspended out-of-school for longer than 4 school days shall be provided appropriate and available support services during the period of their suspension. For purposes of this subsection (b-25), "appropriate and available support services" shall be determined by school authorities. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section, it shall be documented whether such services are to be provided or whether it was determined that there are no such appropriate and available services.

A school district may refer students who are expelled to appropriate and available support services.

A school district shall create a policy to facilitate the re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school, expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting.

(b-30) A school district shall create a policy by which suspended pupils, including those pupils suspended from the school bus who do not have alternate transportation to school, shall have the opportunity to make up work for equivalent academic credit. It shall be the responsibility of a pupil's parents or guardians to notify school officials that a pupil suspended from the school bus does not have alternate transportation to school.

(b-35) In all suspension review hearings conducted under subsection (b) or expulsion hearings conducted under subsection (a), a student may disclose any factor to be considered in mitigation, including his or her status as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence, as defined in Article 26A. A representative of the parent's or guardian's choice, or of the student's choice if emancipated, must be permitted to represent the student throughout the proceedings and to address the school board or its appointed hearing officer. With the approval of the student's parent or guardian, or of the student if emancipated, a support person must be permitted to accompany the student to any disciplinary hearings or proceedings. The representative or support person must comply with any rules of the school district's hearing process. If the representative or support person violates the rules or engages in behavior or advocacy that harasses, abuses, or intimidates either party, a witness, or anyone else in attendance at the hearing, the representative or support person may be prohibited from further participation in the hearing or proceeding. A suspension or expulsion proceeding under this subsection (b-35) must be conducted independently from any ongoing criminal investigation or proceeding, and an absence of pending or possible criminal charges, criminal investigations, or proceedings may not be a factor in school disciplinary decisions.

(b-40) During a suspension review hearing conducted under subsection (b) or an expulsion hearing conducted under subsection (a) that involves allegations of sexual violence by the student who is subject to discipline, neither the student nor his or her representative shall directly question nor have direct contact with the alleged victim. The student who is subject to discipline or his or her representative may, at the discretion and direction of the school board or its appointed hearing officer, suggest questions to be posed by the school board or its appointed hearing officer to the alleged victim.

(c) A school board must invite a representative from a local mental health agency to consult with the board at the meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be the cause of a student's expulsion or suspension.

(c-5) School districts shall make reasonable efforts to provide ongoing professional development to teachers, administrators, school board members, school resource officers, and staff on the adverse consequences of school exclusion and justice-system involvement, effective classroom management strategies, culturally responsive discipline, the appropriate and available supportive services for the promotion of student attendance and engagement, and developmentally appropriate disciplinary methods that promote positive and healthy school climates.

(d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis. A student who is determined to have brought one of the following objects to school, any school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be expelled for a period of not less than one year:

(1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, firearm as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The expulsion period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.

(2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner consistent with the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with Article 13A of the School Code.

(d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis, if (i) that student has been determined to have made an explicit threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet website through which the threat was made is a site that was accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or was available to third parties who worked or studied within the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to the safety and security of the threatened individual because of his or her duties or employment status or status as a student inside the school.

(e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as personal effects left in those places and areas by students, without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects left in these places and areas. School authorities may request the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs. If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces evidence that the student has violated or is violating either the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules, such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities.

(f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or expulsion from school and all school activities and a prohibition from being present on school grounds.

(g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any public or private school in this or any other state, the student must complete the entire term of the suspension or expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the school district if there is no threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program. A school district that adopts a policy under this subsection (g) must include a provision allowing for consideration of any mitigating factors, including, but not limited to, a student's status as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence, as defined in Article 26A.

(h) School officials shall not advise or encourage students to drop out voluntarily due to behavioral or academic difficulties.

(i) A student may not be issued a monetary fine or fee as a disciplinary consequence, though this shall not preclude requiring a student to provide restitution for lost, stolen, or damaged property.

(j) Subsections (a) through (i) of this Section shall apply to elementary and secondary schools, charter schools, special charter districts, and school districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(k) The expulsion of children enrolled in programs funded under Section 1C-2 of this Code is subject to the requirements under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 2-3.71 of this Code.

(l) Beginning with the 2018-2019 school year, an in-school suspension program provided by a school district for any students in kindergarten through grade 12 may focus on promoting non-violent conflict resolution and positive interaction with other students and school personnel. A school district may employ a school social worker or a licensed mental health professional to oversee an in-school suspension program in kindergarten through grade 12.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-539, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-23-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.39)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-638)

Sec. 10-22.39. In-service training programs.

(a) To conduct in-service training programs for teachers.

(b) In addition to other topics at in-service training programs, at least once every 2 years, licensed school personnel and administrators who work with pupils in kindergarten through grade 12 shall be trained to identify the warning signs of mental illness and suicidal behavior in youth and shall be taught appropriate intervention and referral techniques. A school district may utilize the Illinois Mental Health First Aid training program, established under the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act and administered by certified instructors trained by a national association recognized as an authority in behavioral health, to provide the training and meet the requirements under this subsection. If licensed school personnel or an administrator obtains mental health first aid training outside of an in-service training program, he or she may present a certificate of successful completion of the training to the school district to satisfy the requirements of this subsection.

(c) School counselors, nurses, teachers and other school personnel who work with pupils may be trained to have a basic knowledge of matters relating to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), including the nature of the disease, its causes and effects, the means of detecting it and preventing its transmission, and the availability of appropriate sources of counseling and referral, and any other information that may be appropriate considering the age and grade level of such pupils. The School Board shall supervise such training. The State Board of Education and the Department of Public Health shall jointly develop standards for such training.

(d) In this subsection (d):

"Domestic violence" means abuse by a family or household member, as "abuse" and "family or household members" are defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Sexual violence" means sexual assault, abuse, or stalking of an adult or minor child proscribed in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-12, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16, including sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are strangers to the victim and sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are known or related by blood or marriage to the victim.

At least once every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils, including, but not limited to, school and school district administrators, teachers, school social workers, school counselors, school psychologists, and school nurses, must be conducted by persons with expertise in domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth and shall include training concerning (i) communicating with and listening to youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth, (ii) connecting youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth to appropriate in-school services and other agencies, programs, and services as needed, and (iii) implementing the school district's policies, procedures, and protocols with regard to such youth, including confidentiality. At a minimum, school personnel must be trained to understand, provide information and referrals, and address issues pertaining to youth who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence.

(e) At least every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils must be conducted by persons with expertise in anaphylactic reactions and management.

(f) At least once every 2 years, a school board shall conduct in-service training on educator ethics, teacher-student conduct, and school employee-student conduct for all personnel.

(Source: P.A. 101-350, eff. 1-1-20; 102-197, eff. 7-30-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-638)

Sec. 10-22.39. In-service training programs.

(a) To conduct in-service training programs for teachers.

(b) In addition to other topics at in-service training programs, at least once every 2 years, licensed school personnel and administrators who work with pupils in kindergarten through grade 12 shall be trained to identify the warning signs of mental illness, trauma, and suicidal behavior in youth and shall be taught appropriate intervention and referral techniques. A school district may utilize the Illinois Mental Health First Aid training program, established under the Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training Act and administered by certified instructors trained by a national association recognized as an authority in behavioral health, to provide the training and meet the requirements under this subsection. If licensed school personnel or an administrator obtains mental health first aid training outside of an in-service training program, he or she may present a certificate of successful completion of the training to the school district to satisfy the requirements of this subsection.

Training regarding the implementation of trauma-informed practices satisfies the requirements of this subsection (b).

A course of instruction as described in this subsection (b) may provide information that is relevant to and within the scope of the duties of licensed school personnel or school administrators. Such information may include, but is not limited to:

(1) the recognition of and care for trauma in students and staff;

(2) the relationship between educator wellness and student learning;

(3) the effect of trauma on student behavior and learning;

(4) the prevalence of trauma among students, including the prevalence of trauma among student populations at higher risk of experiencing trauma;

(5) the effects of implicit or explicit bias on recognizing trauma among various student groups in connection with race, ethnicity, gender identity, sexual orientation, socio-economic status, and other relevant factors; and

(6) effective district practices that are shown to:

(A) prevent and mitigate the negative effect of trauma on student behavior and learning; and

(B) support the emotional wellness of staff.

(c) School counselors, nurses, teachers and other school personnel who work with pupils may be trained to have a basic knowledge of matters relating to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), including the nature of the disease, its causes and effects, the means of detecting it and preventing its transmission, and the availability of appropriate sources of counseling and referral, and any other information that may be appropriate considering the age and grade level of such pupils. The School Board shall supervise such training. The State Board of Education and the Department of Public Health shall jointly develop standards for such training.

(d) In this subsection (d):

"Domestic violence" means abuse by a family or household member, as "abuse" and "family or household members" are defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Sexual violence" means sexual assault, abuse, or stalking of an adult or minor child proscribed in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-12, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16, including sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are strangers to the victim and sexual violence committed by perpetrators who are known or related by blood or marriage to the victim.

At least once every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils, including, but not limited to, school and school district administrators, teachers, school social workers, school counselors, school psychologists, and school nurses, must be conducted by persons with expertise in domestic and sexual violence and the needs of expectant and parenting youth and shall include training concerning (i) communicating with and listening to youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth, (ii) connecting youth victims of domestic or sexual violence and expectant and parenting youth to appropriate in-school services and other agencies, programs, and services as needed, and (iii) implementing the school district's policies, procedures, and protocols with regard to such youth, including confidentiality. At a minimum, school personnel must be trained to understand, provide information and referrals, and address issues pertaining to youth who are parents, expectant parents, or victims of domestic or sexual violence.

(e) At least every 2 years, an in-service training program for school personnel who work with pupils must be conducted by persons with expertise in anaphylactic reactions and management.

(f) At least once every 2 years, a school board shall conduct in-service training on educator ethics, teacher-student conduct, and school employee-student conduct for all personnel.

(Source: P.A. 101-350, eff. 1-1-20; 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-638, eff. 1-1-23; revised 10-15-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-27.1A)

Sec. 10-27.1A. Firearms in schools.

(a) All school officials, including teachers, school counselors, and support staff, shall immediately notify the office of the principal in the event that they observe any person in possession of a firearm on school grounds; provided that taking such immediate action to notify the office of the principal would not immediately endanger the health, safety, or welfare of students who are under the direct supervision of the school official or the school official. If the health, safety, or welfare of students under the direct supervision of the school official or of the school official is immediately endangered, the school official shall notify the office of the principal as soon as the students under his or her supervision and he or she are no longer under immediate danger. A report is not required by this Section when the school official knows that the person in possession of the firearm is a law enforcement official engaged in the conduct of his or her official duties. Any school official acting in good faith who makes such a report under this Section shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred as a result of making the report. The identity of the school official making such report shall not be disclosed except as expressly and specifically authorized by law. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply with this Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent offense is a Class C misdemeanor.

(b) Upon receiving a report from any school official pursuant to this Section, or from any other person, the principal or his or her designee shall immediately notify a local law enforcement agency. If the person found to be in possession of a firearm on school grounds is a student, the principal or his or her designee shall also immediately notify that student's parent or guardian. Any principal or his or her designee acting in good faith who makes such reports under this Section shall have immunity from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of making the reports. Knowingly and willfully failing to comply with this Section is a petty offense. A second or subsequent offense is a Class C misdemeanor. If the person found to be in possession of the firearm on school grounds is a minor, the law enforcement agency shall detain that minor until such time as the agency makes a determination pursuant to clause (a) of subsection (1) of Section 5-401 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as to whether the agency reasonably believes that the minor is delinquent. If the law enforcement agency determines that probable cause exists to believe that the minor committed a violation of item (4) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 while on school grounds, the agency shall detain the minor for processing pursuant to Section 5-407 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(c) On or after January 1, 1997, upon receipt of any written, electronic, or verbal report from any school personnel regarding a verified incident involving a firearm in a school or on school owned or leased property, including any conveyance owned, leased, or used by the school for the transport of students or school personnel, the superintendent or his or her designee shall report all such firearm-related incidents occurring in a school or on school property to the local law enforcement authorities immediately and to the Illinois State Police in a form, manner, and frequency as prescribed by the Illinois State Police.

The State Board of Education shall receive an annual statistical compilation and related data associated with incidents involving firearms in schools from the Illinois State Police. The State Board of Education shall compile this information by school district and make it available to the public.

(d) As used in this Section, the term "firearm" shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

As used in this Section, the term "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school.

As used in this Section, the term "school grounds" includes the real property comprising any school, any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school-related activity, or any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-6-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-8.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-8.02)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-199)

Sec. 14-8.02. Identification, evaluation, and placement of children.

(a) The State Board of Education shall make rules under which local school boards shall determine the eligibility of children to receive special education. Such rules shall ensure that a free appropriate public education be available to all children with disabilities as defined in Section 14-1.02. The State Board of Education shall require local school districts to administer non-discriminatory procedures or tests to English learners coming from homes in which a language other than English is used to determine their eligibility to receive special education. The placement of low English proficiency students in special education programs and facilities shall be made in accordance with the test results reflecting the student's linguistic, cultural and special education needs. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions of "case study", "staff conference", "individualized educational program", and "qualified specialist" appropriate to each category of children with disabilities as defined in this Article. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children from homes in which a language other than English is used, the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions for "qualified bilingual specialists" and "linguistically and culturally appropriate individualized educational programs". For purposes of this Section, as well as Sections 14-8.02a, 14-8.02b, and 14-8.02c of this Code, "parent" means a parent as defined in the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1401(23)).

(b) No child shall be eligible for special education facilities except with a carefully completed case study fully reviewed by professional personnel in a multidisciplinary staff conference and only upon the recommendation of qualified specialists or a qualified bilingual specialist, if available. At the conclusion of the multidisciplinary staff conference, the parent of the child shall be given a copy of the multidisciplinary conference summary report and recommendations, which includes options considered, and be informed of his or her right to obtain an independent educational evaluation if he or she disagrees with the evaluation findings conducted or obtained by the school district. If the school district's evaluation is shown to be inappropriate, the school district shall reimburse the parent for the cost of the independent evaluation. The State Board of Education shall, with advice from the State Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the inclusion of specific independent educational evaluators, prepare a list of suggested independent educational evaluators. The State Board of Education shall include on the list clinical psychologists licensed pursuant to the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. Such psychologists shall not be paid fees in excess of the amount that would be received by a school psychologist for performing the same services. The State Board of Education shall supply school districts with such list and make the list available to parents at their request. School districts shall make the list available to parents at the time they are informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation. However, the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section within 5 days of any written parent request for an independent educational evaluation to show that its evaluation is appropriate. If the final decision is that the evaluation is appropriate, the parent still has a right to an independent educational evaluation, but not at public expense. An independent educational evaluation at public expense must be completed within 30 days of a parent written request unless the school district initiates an impartial due process hearing or the parent or school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30-day time period should be extended. If the due process hearing decision indicates that the parent is entitled to an independent educational evaluation, it must be completed within 30 days of the decision unless the parent or the school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30-day period should be extended. If a parent disagrees with the summary report or recommendations of the multidisciplinary conference or the findings of any educational evaluation which results therefrom, the school district shall not proceed with a placement based upon such evaluation and the child shall remain in his or her regular classroom setting. No child shall be eligible for admission to a special class for children with a mental disability who are educable or for children with a mental disability who are trainable except with a psychological evaluation and recommendation by a school psychologist. Consent shall be obtained from the parent of a child before any evaluation is conducted. If consent is not given by the parent or if the parent disagrees with the findings of the evaluation, then the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section. The school district may evaluate the child if that is the decision resulting from the impartial due process hearing and the decision is not appealed or if the decision is affirmed on appeal. The determination of eligibility shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed within 60 school days from the date of written parental consent. In those instances when written parental consent is obtained with fewer than 60 pupil attendance days left in the school year, the eligibility determination shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed prior to the first day of the following school year. Special education and related services must be provided in accordance with the student's IEP no later than 10 school attendance days after notice is provided to the parents pursuant to Section 300.503 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations and implementing rules adopted by the State Board of Education. The appropriate program pursuant to the individualized educational program of students whose native tongue is a language other than English shall reflect the special education, cultural and linguistic needs. No later than September 1, 1993, the State Board of Education shall establish standards for the development, implementation and monitoring of appropriate bilingual special individualized educational programs. The State Board of Education shall further incorporate appropriate monitoring procedures to verify implementation of these standards. The district shall indicate to the parent and the State Board of Education the nature of the services the child will receive for the regular school term while awaiting waiting placement in the appropriate special education class. At the child's initial IEP meeting and at each annual review meeting, the child's IEP team shall provide the child's parent or guardian with a written notification that informs the parent or guardian that the IEP team is required to consider whether the child requires assistive technology in order to receive free, appropriate public education. The notification must also include a toll-free telephone number and internet address for the State's assistive technology program.

If the child is deaf, hard of hearing, blind, or visually impaired or has an orthopedic impairment or physical disability and he or she might be eligible to receive services from the Illinois School for the Deaf, the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, or the Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Roosevelt, the school district shall notify the parents, in writing, of the existence of these schools and the services they provide and shall make a reasonable effort to inform the parents of the existence of other, local schools that provide similar services and the services that these other schools provide. This notification shall include without limitation information on school services, school admissions criteria, and school contact information.

In the development of the individualized education program for a student who has a disability on the autism spectrum (which includes autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, childhood disintegrative disorder, and Rett Syndrome, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition (DSM-IV, 2000)), the IEP team shall consider all of the following factors:

(1) The verbal and nonverbal communication needs of the child.

(2) The need to develop social interaction skills and proficiencies.

(3) The needs resulting from the child's unusual responses to sensory experiences.

(4) The needs resulting from resistance to environmental change or change in daily routines.

(5) The needs resulting from engagement in repetitive activities and stereotyped movements.

(6) The need for any positive behavioral interventions, strategies, and supports to address any behavioral difficulties resulting from autism spectrum disorder.

(7) Other needs resulting from the child's disability that impact progress in the general curriculum, including social and emotional development. Public Act 95-257 does not create any new entitlement to a service, program, or benefit, but must not affect any entitlement to a service, program, or benefit created by any other law.

If the student may be eligible to participate in the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities authorized under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act upon becoming an adult, the student's individualized education program shall include plans for (i) determining the student's eligibility for those home-based services, (ii) enrolling the student in the program of home-based services, and (iii) developing a plan for the student's most effective use of the home-based services after the student becomes an adult and no longer receives special educational services under this Article. The plans developed under this paragraph shall include specific actions to be taken by specified individuals, agencies, or officials.

(c) In the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind, it shall be presumed that proficiency in Braille reading and writing is essential for the student's satisfactory educational progress. For purposes of this subsection, the State Board of Education shall determine the criteria for a student to be classified as functionally blind. Students who are not currently identified as functionally blind who are also entitled to Braille instruction include: (i) those whose vision loss is so severe that they are unable to read and write at a level comparable to their peers solely through the use of vision, and (ii) those who show evidence of progressive vision loss that may result in functional blindness. Each student who is functionally blind shall be entitled to Braille reading and writing instruction that is sufficient to enable the student to communicate with the same level of proficiency as other students of comparable ability. Instruction should be provided to the extent that the student is physically and cognitively able to use Braille. Braille instruction may be used in combination with other special education services appropriate to the student's educational needs. The assessment of each student who is functionally blind for the purpose of developing the student's individualized education program shall include documentation of the student's strengths and weaknesses in Braille skills. Each person assisting in the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind shall receive information describing the benefits of Braille instruction. The individualized education program for each student who is functionally blind shall specify the appropriate learning medium or media based on the assessment report.

(d) To the maximum extent appropriate, the placement shall provide the child with the opportunity to be educated with children who do not have a disability; provided that children with disabilities who are recommended to be placed into regular education classrooms are provided with supplementary services to assist the children with disabilities to benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register. Subject to the limitation of the preceding sentence, placement in special classes, separate schools or other removal of the child with a disability from the regular educational environment shall occur only when the nature of the severity of the disability is such that education in the regular classes with the use of supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily. The placement of English learners with disabilities shall be in non-restrictive environments which provide for integration with peers who do not have disabilities in bilingual classrooms. Annually, each January, school districts shall report data on students from non-English speaking backgrounds receiving special education and related services in public and private facilities as prescribed in Section 2-3.30. If there is a disagreement between parties involved regarding the special education placement of any child, either in-state or out-of-state, the placement is subject to impartial due process procedures described in Article 10 of the Rules and Regulations to Govern the Administration and Operation of Special Education.

(e) No child who comes from a home in which a language other than English is the principal language used may be assigned to any class or program under this Article until he has been given, in the principal language used by the child and used in his home, tests reasonably related to his cultural environment. All testing and evaluation materials and procedures utilized for evaluation and placement shall not be linguistically, racially or culturally discriminatory.

(f) Nothing in this Article shall be construed to require any child to undergo any physical examination or medical treatment whose parents object thereto on the grounds that such examination or treatment conflicts with his religious beliefs.

(g) School boards or their designee shall provide to the parents of a child prior written notice of any decision (a) proposing to initiate or change, or (b) refusing to initiate or change, the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of the child or the provision of a free appropriate public education to their child, and the reasons therefor. Such written notification shall also inform the parent of the opportunity to present complaints with respect to any matter relating to the educational placement of the student, or the provision of a free appropriate public education and to have an impartial due process hearing on the complaint. The notice shall inform the parents in the parents' native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, of their rights and all procedures available pursuant to this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446); it shall be the responsibility of the State Superintendent to develop uniform notices setting forth the procedures available under this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446) to be used by all school boards. The notice shall also inform the parents of the availability upon request of a list of free or low-cost legal and other relevant services available locally to assist parents in initiating an impartial due process hearing. The State Superintendent shall revise the uniform notices required by this subsection (g) to reflect current law and procedures at least once every 2 years. Any parent who is deaf, or does not normally communicate using spoken English, who participates in a meeting with a representative of a local educational agency for the purposes of developing an individualized educational program shall be entitled to the services of an interpreter. The State Board of Education must adopt rules to establish the criteria, standards, and competencies for a bilingual language interpreter who attends an individualized education program meeting under this subsection to assist a parent who has limited English proficiency.

(g-5) For purposes of this subsection (g-5), "qualified professional" means an individual who holds credentials to evaluate the child in the domain or domains for which an evaluation is sought or an intern working under the direct supervision of a qualified professional, including a master's or doctoral degree candidate.

To ensure that a parent can participate fully and effectively with school personnel in the development of appropriate educational and related services for his or her child, the parent, an independent educational evaluator, or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access to educational facilities, personnel, classrooms, and buildings and to the child as provided in this subsection (g-5). The requirements of this subsection (g-5) apply to any public school facility, building, or program and to any facility, building, or program supported in whole or in part by public funds. Prior to visiting a school, school building, or school facility, the parent, independent educational evaluator, or qualified professional may be required by the school district to inform the building principal or supervisor in writing of the proposed visit, the purpose of the visit, and the approximate duration of the visit. The visitor and the school district shall arrange the visit or visits at times that are mutually agreeable. Visitors shall comply with school safety, security, and visitation policies at all times. School district visitation policies must not conflict with this subsection (g-5). Visitors shall be required to comply with the requirements of applicable privacy laws, including those laws protecting the confidentiality of education records such as the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act and the Illinois School Student Records Act. The visitor shall not disrupt the educational process.

(1) A parent must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of observing his or her child in the child's current educational placement, services, or program or for the purpose of visiting an educational placement or program proposed for the child.

(2) An independent educational evaluator or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of conducting an evaluation of the child, the child's performance, the child's current educational program, placement, services, or environment, or any educational program, placement, services, or environment proposed for the child, including interviews of educational personnel, child observations, assessments, tests or assessments of the child's educational program, services, or placement or of any proposed educational program, services, or placement. If one or more interviews of school personnel are part of the evaluation, the interviews must be conducted at a mutually agreed upon time, date, and place that do not interfere with the school employee's school duties. The school district may limit interviews to personnel having information relevant to the child's current educational services, program, or placement or to a proposed educational service, program, or placement.

(Source: P.A. 101-124, eff. 1-1-20; 102-264, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-199)

Sec. 14-8.02. Identification, evaluation, and placement of children.

(a) The State Board of Education shall make rules under which local school boards shall determine the eligibility of children to receive special education. Such rules shall ensure that a free appropriate public education be available to all children with disabilities as defined in Section 14-1.02. The State Board of Education shall require local school districts to administer non-discriminatory procedures or tests to English learners coming from homes in which a language other than English is used to determine their eligibility to receive special education. The placement of low English proficiency students in special education programs and facilities shall be made in accordance with the test results reflecting the student's linguistic, cultural and special education needs. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions of "case study", "staff conference", "individualized educational program", and "qualified specialist" appropriate to each category of children with disabilities as defined in this Article. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children from homes in which a language other than English is used, the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions for "qualified bilingual specialists" and "linguistically and culturally appropriate individualized educational programs". For purposes of this Section, as well as Sections 14-8.02a, 14-8.02b, and 14-8.02c of this Code, "parent" means a parent as defined in the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1401(23)).

(b) No child shall be eligible for special education facilities except with a carefully completed case study fully reviewed by professional personnel in a multidisciplinary staff conference and only upon the recommendation of qualified specialists or a qualified bilingual specialist, if available. At the conclusion of the multidisciplinary staff conference, the parent of the child and, if the child is in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services shall be given a copy of the multidisciplinary conference summary report and recommendations, which includes options considered, and, in the case of the parent, be informed of his or her right to obtain an independent educational evaluation if he or she disagrees with the evaluation findings conducted or obtained by the school district. If the school district's evaluation is shown to be inappropriate, the school district shall reimburse the parent for the cost of the independent evaluation. The State Board of Education shall, with advice from the State Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the inclusion of specific independent educational evaluators, prepare a list of suggested independent educational evaluators. The State Board of Education shall include on the list clinical psychologists licensed pursuant to the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. Such psychologists shall not be paid fees in excess of the amount that would be received by a school psychologist for performing the same services. The State Board of Education shall supply school districts with such list and make the list available to parents at their request. School districts shall make the list available to parents at the time they are informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation. However, the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section within 5 days of any written parent request for an independent educational evaluation to show that its evaluation is appropriate. If the final decision is that the evaluation is appropriate, the parent still has a right to an independent educational evaluation, but not at public expense. An independent educational evaluation at public expense must be completed within 30 days of a parent written request unless the school district initiates an impartial due process hearing or the parent or school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30-day time period should be extended. If the due process hearing decision indicates that the parent is entitled to an independent educational evaluation, it must be completed within 30 days of the decision unless the parent or the school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30-day period should be extended. If a parent disagrees with the summary report or recommendations of the multidisciplinary conference or the findings of any educational evaluation which results therefrom, the school district shall not proceed with a placement based upon such evaluation and the child shall remain in his or her regular classroom setting. No child shall be eligible for admission to a special class for children with a mental disability who are educable or for children with a mental disability who are trainable except with a psychological evaluation and recommendation by a school psychologist. Consent shall be obtained from the parent of a child before any evaluation is conducted. If consent is not given by the parent or if the parent disagrees with the findings of the evaluation, then the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section. The school district may evaluate the child if that is the decision resulting from the impartial due process hearing and the decision is not appealed or if the decision is affirmed on appeal. The determination of eligibility shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed within 60 school days from the date of written parental consent. In those instances when written parental consent is obtained with fewer than 60 pupil attendance days left in the school year, the eligibility determination shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed prior to the first day of the following school year. Special education and related services must be provided in accordance with the student's IEP no later than 10 school attendance days after notice is provided to the parents pursuant to Section 300.503 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations and implementing rules adopted by the State Board of Education. The appropriate program pursuant to the individualized educational program of students whose native tongue is a language other than English shall reflect the special education, cultural and linguistic needs. No later than September 1, 1993, the State Board of Education shall establish standards for the development, implementation and monitoring of appropriate bilingual special individualized educational programs. The State Board of Education shall further incorporate appropriate monitoring procedures to verify implementation of these standards. The district shall indicate to the parent, the State Board of Education, and, if applicable, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services the nature of the services the child will receive for the regular school term while awaiting waiting placement in the appropriate special education class. At the child's initial IEP meeting and at each annual review meeting, the child's IEP team shall provide the child's parent or guardian and, if applicable, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services with a written notification that informs the parent or guardian or the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services that the IEP team is required to consider whether the child requires assistive technology in order to receive free, appropriate public education. The notification must also include a toll-free telephone number and internet address for the State's assistive technology program.

If the child is deaf, hard of hearing, blind, or visually impaired or has an orthopedic impairment or physical disability and he or she might be eligible to receive services from the Illinois School for the Deaf, the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, or the Illinois Center for Rehabilitation and Education-Roosevelt, the school district shall notify the parents, in writing, of the existence of these schools and the services they provide and shall make a reasonable effort to inform the parents of the existence of other, local schools that provide similar services and the services that these other schools provide. This notification shall include without limitation information on school services, school admissions criteria, and school contact information.

In the development of the individualized education program for a student who has a disability on the autism spectrum (which includes autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, childhood disintegrative disorder, and Rett Syndrome, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition (DSM-IV, 2000)), the IEP team shall consider all of the following factors:

(1) The verbal and nonverbal communication needs of the child.

(2) The need to develop social interaction skills and proficiencies.

(3) The needs resulting from the child's unusual responses to sensory experiences.

(4) The needs resulting from resistance to environmental change or change in daily routines.

(5) The needs resulting from engagement in repetitive activities and stereotyped movements.

(6) The need for any positive behavioral interventions, strategies, and supports to address any behavioral difficulties resulting from autism spectrum disorder.

(7) Other needs resulting from the child's disability that impact progress in the general curriculum, including social and emotional development. Public Act 95-257 does not create any new entitlement to a service, program, or benefit, but must not affect any entitlement to a service, program, or benefit created by any other law.

If the student may be eligible to participate in the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities authorized under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act upon becoming an adult, the student's individualized education program shall include plans for (i) determining the student's eligibility for those home-based services, (ii) enrolling the student in the program of home-based services, and (iii) developing a plan for the student's most effective use of the home-based services after the student becomes an adult and no longer receives special educational services under this Article. The plans developed under this paragraph shall include specific actions to be taken by specified individuals, agencies, or officials.

(c) In the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind, it shall be presumed that proficiency in Braille reading and writing is essential for the student's satisfactory educational progress. For purposes of this subsection, the State Board of Education shall determine the criteria for a student to be classified as functionally blind. Students who are not currently identified as functionally blind who are also entitled to Braille instruction include: (i) those whose vision loss is so severe that they are unable to read and write at a level comparable to their peers solely through the use of vision, and (ii) those who show evidence of progressive vision loss that may result in functional blindness. Each student who is functionally blind shall be entitled to Braille reading and writing instruction that is sufficient to enable the student to communicate with the same level of proficiency as other students of comparable ability. Instruction should be provided to the extent that the student is physically and cognitively able to use Braille. Braille instruction may be used in combination with other special education services appropriate to the student's educational needs. The assessment of each student who is functionally blind for the purpose of developing the student's individualized education program shall include documentation of the student's strengths and weaknesses in Braille skills. Each person assisting in the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind shall receive information describing the benefits of Braille instruction. The individualized education program for each student who is functionally blind shall specify the appropriate learning medium or media based on the assessment report.

(d) To the maximum extent appropriate, the placement shall provide the child with the opportunity to be educated with children who do not have a disability; provided that children with disabilities who are recommended to be placed into regular education classrooms are provided with supplementary services to assist the children with disabilities to benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register. Subject to the limitation of the preceding sentence, placement in special classes, separate schools or other removal of the child with a disability from the regular educational environment shall occur only when the nature of the severity of the disability is such that education in the regular classes with the use of supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily. The placement of English learners with disabilities shall be in non-restrictive environments which provide for integration with peers who do not have disabilities in bilingual classrooms. Annually, each January, school districts shall report data on students from non-English speaking backgrounds receiving special education and related services in public and private facilities as prescribed in Section 2-3.30. If there is a disagreement between parties involved regarding the special education placement of any child, either in-state or out-of-state, the placement is subject to impartial due process procedures described in Article 10 of the Rules and Regulations to Govern the Administration and Operation of Special Education.

(e) No child who comes from a home in which a language other than English is the principal language used may be assigned to any class or program under this Article until he has been given, in the principal language used by the child and used in his home, tests reasonably related to his cultural environment. All testing and evaluation materials and procedures utilized for evaluation and placement shall not be linguistically, racially or culturally discriminatory.

(f) Nothing in this Article shall be construed to require any child to undergo any physical examination or medical treatment whose parents object thereto on the grounds that such examination or treatment conflicts with his religious beliefs.

(g) School boards or their designee shall provide to the parents of a child or, if applicable, the Department of Children and Family Services' Office of Education and Transition Services prior written notice of any decision (a) proposing to initiate or change, or (b) refusing to initiate or change, the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of the child or the provision of a free appropriate public education to their child, and the reasons therefor. For a parent, such written notification shall also inform the parent of the opportunity to present complaints with respect to any matter relating to the educational placement of the student, or the provision of a free appropriate public education and to have an impartial due process hearing on the complaint. The notice shall inform the parents in the parents' native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, of their rights and all procedures available pursuant to this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446); it shall be the responsibility of the State Superintendent to develop uniform notices setting forth the procedures available under this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446) to be used by all school boards. The notice shall also inform the parents of the availability upon request of a list of free or low-cost legal and other relevant services available locally to assist parents in initiating an impartial due process hearing. The State Superintendent shall revise the uniform notices required by this subsection (g) to reflect current law and procedures at least once every 2 years. Any parent who is deaf, or does not normally communicate using spoken English, who participates in a meeting with a representative of a local educational agency for the purposes of developing an individualized educational program shall be entitled to the services of an interpreter. The State Board of Education must adopt rules to establish the criteria, standards, and competencies for a bilingual language interpreter who attends an individualized education program meeting under this subsection to assist a parent who has limited English proficiency.

(g-5) For purposes of this subsection (g-5), "qualified professional" means an individual who holds credentials to evaluate the child in the domain or domains for which an evaluation is sought or an intern working under the direct supervision of a qualified professional, including a master's or doctoral degree candidate.

To ensure that a parent can participate fully and effectively with school personnel in the development of appropriate educational and related services for his or her child, the parent, an independent educational evaluator, or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access to educational facilities, personnel, classrooms, and buildings and to the child as provided in this subsection (g-5). The requirements of this subsection (g-5) apply to any public school facility, building, or program and to any facility, building, or program supported in whole or in part by public funds. Prior to visiting a school, school building, or school facility, the parent, independent educational evaluator, or qualified professional may be required by the school district to inform the building principal or supervisor in writing of the proposed visit, the purpose of the visit, and the approximate duration of the visit. The visitor and the school district shall arrange the visit or visits at times that are mutually agreeable. Visitors shall comply with school safety, security, and visitation policies at all times. School district visitation policies must not conflict with this subsection (g-5). Visitors shall be required to comply with the requirements of applicable privacy laws, including those laws protecting the confidentiality of education records such as the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act and the Illinois School Student Records Act. The visitor shall not disrupt the educational process.

(1) A parent must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of observing his or her child in the child's current educational placement, services, or program or for the purpose of visiting an educational placement or program proposed for the child.

(2) An independent educational evaluator or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of conducting an evaluation of the child, the child's performance, the child's current educational program, placement, services, or environment, or any educational program, placement, services, or environment proposed for the child, including interviews of educational personnel, child observations, assessments, tests or assessments of the child's educational program, services, or placement or of any proposed educational program, services, or placement. If one or more interviews of school personnel are part of the evaluation, the interviews must be conducted at a mutually agreed upon time, date, and place that do not interfere with the school employee's school duties. The school district may limit interviews to personnel having information relevant to the child's current educational services, program, or placement or to a proposed educational service, program, or placement.

(Source: P.A. 101-124, eff. 1-1-20; 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; 102-264, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-17)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2022)

Sec. 14-17. High-Cost Special Education Funding Commission.

(a) The High-Cost Special Education Funding Commission is created for the purpose of making recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly for an alternative funding structure in this State for high-cost special education students that is aligned to the principles of the evidence-based funding formula in Section 18-8.15 in which school districts furthest away from adequacy receive the greatest amount of funding.

(b) The Commission shall consist of all of the following members:

(1) One representative appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, who shall serve as co-chairperson.

(2) One representative appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(3) One senator appointed by the President of the Senate, who shall serve as co-chairperson.

(4) One senator appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(5) The State Superintendent of Education or a designee.

(6) The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget or a designee.

(7) The Chairperson of the Advisory Council on the Education of Children with Disabilities or a designee.

Additionally, within 60 days after July 23, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-150) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the State Superintendent of Education shall appoint all of the following individuals to the Commission:

(A) One representative of a statewide association that represents private special education schools.

(B) One representative of a statewide association that represents special education cooperatives.

(C) One educator from a special education cooperative, recommended by a statewide association that represents teachers.

(D) One educator from a special education cooperative that is not a member district of a special education cooperative, recommended by a different statewide association that represents teachers.

(E) One educator or administrator from a nonpublic special education school.

(F) One representative of a statewide association that represents school administrators.

(G) One representative of a statewide association that represents school business officials.

(H) One representative of a statewide association that represents private special education schools in rural school districts.

(I) One representative from a residential program.

Members appointed to the Commission must reflect the racial, ethnic, and geographic diversity of this State.

(c) Members of the Commission shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for their reasonable and necessary expenses from funds appropriated to the State Board of Education for that purpose.

(d) The State Board of Education shall provide administrative support to the Commission.

(e) To ensure that high-quality services are provided to ensure equitable outcomes for high-cost special education students, the Commission shall do all the following:

(1) Review the current system of funding high-cost special education students in this State.

(2) Review the needs of high-cost special education students in this State and the associated costs to ensure high-quality services are provided to these students.

(3) Review how other states fund high-cost special education students.

(4) If available, review other proposals and best practices for funding high-cost special education students.

(f) On or before November 30, 2021, the Commission shall report its recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly.

(g) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 102-150, eff. 7-23-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-18)

Sec. 14-18 14-17. COVID-19 recovery post-secondary transition recovery eligibility.

(a) If a student with an individualized education program (IEP) reaches the age of 22 during the time in which the student's in-person instruction, services, or activities are suspended for a period of 3 months or more during the school year as a result of the COVID-19 pandemic, the student is eligible for such services up to the end of the regular 2021-2022 school year.

(b) This Section does not apply to any student who is no longer a resident of the school district that was responsible for the student's IEP at the time the student reached the student's 22nd birthday.

(c) The IEP goals in effect when the student reached the student's 22nd birthday shall be resumed unless there is an agreement that the goals should be revised to appropriately meet the student's current transition needs.

(d) If a student was in a private therapeutic day or residential program when the student reached the student's 22nd birthday, the school district is not required to resume that program for the student if the student has aged out of the program or the funding for supporting the student's placement in the facility is no longer available.

(e) Within 30 days after July 28, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-173) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, each school district shall provide notification of the availability of services under this Section to each student covered by this Section by regular mail sent to the last known address of the student or the student's parent or guardian.

(Source: P.A. 102-173, eff. 7-28-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-8.15)

Sec. 18-8.15. Evidence-Based Funding for student success for the 2017-2018 and subsequent school years.

(a) General provisions.

(1) The purpose of this Section is to ensure that, by June 30, 2027 and beyond, this State has a kindergarten through grade 12 public education system with the capacity to ensure the educational development of all persons to the limits of their capacities in accordance with Section 1 of Article X of the Constitution of the State of Illinois. To accomplish that objective, this Section creates a method of funding public education that is evidence-based; is sufficient to ensure every student receives a meaningful opportunity to learn irrespective of race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, gender, or community-income level; and is sustainable and predictable. When fully funded under this Section, every school shall have the resources, based on what the evidence indicates is needed, to:

(A) provide all students with a high quality education that offers the academic, enrichment, social and emotional support, technical, and career-focused programs that will allow them to become competitive workers, responsible parents, productive citizens of this State, and active members of our national democracy;

(B) ensure all students receive the education they need to graduate from high school with the skills required to pursue post-secondary education and training for a rewarding career;

(C) reduce, with a goal of eliminating, the achievement gap between at-risk and non-at-risk students by raising the performance of at-risk students and not by reducing standards; and

(D) ensure this State satisfies its obligation to assume the primary responsibility to fund public education and simultaneously relieve the disproportionate burden placed on local property taxes to fund schools.

(2) The Evidence-Based Funding formula under this Section shall be applied to all Organizational Units in this State. The Evidence-Based Funding formula outlined in this Act is based on the formula outlined in Senate Bill 1 of the 100th General Assembly, as passed by both legislative chambers. As further defined and described in this Section, there are 4 major components of the Evidence-Based Funding model:

(A) First, the model calculates a unique Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit in this State that considers the costs to implement research-based activities, the unit's student demographics, and regional wage differences.

(B) Second, the model calculates each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity, or the amount each Organizational Unit is assumed to contribute toward its Adequacy Target from local resources.

(C) Third, the model calculates how much funding the State currently contributes to the Organizational Unit and adds that to the unit's Local Capacity to determine the unit's overall current adequacy of funding.

(D) Finally, the model's distribution method allocates new State funding to those Organizational Units that are least well-funded, considering both Local Capacity and State funding, in relation to their Adequacy Target.

(3) An Organizational Unit receiving any funding under this Section may apply those funds to any fund so received for which that Organizational Unit is authorized to make expenditures by law.

(4) As used in this Section, the following terms shall have the meanings ascribed in this paragraph (4):

"Adequacy Target" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section.

"Adjusted EAV" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Adjusted Local Capacity Target" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Adjusted Operating Tax Rate" means a tax rate for all Organizational Units, for which the State Superintendent shall calculate and subtract for the Operating Tax Rate a transportation rate based on total expenses for transportation services under this Code, as reported on the most recent Annual Financial Report in Pupil Transportation Services, function 2550 in both the Education and Transportation funds and functions 4110 and 4120 in the Transportation fund, less any corresponding fiscal year State of Illinois scheduled payments excluding net adjustments for prior years for regular, vocational, or special education transportation reimbursement pursuant to Section 29-5 or subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of this Code divided by the Adjusted EAV. If an Organizational Unit's corresponding fiscal year State of Illinois scheduled payments excluding net adjustments for prior years for regular, vocational, or special education transportation reimbursement pursuant to Section 29-5 or subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of this Code exceed the total transportation expenses, as defined in this paragraph, no transportation rate shall be subtracted from the Operating Tax Rate.

"Allocation Rate" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"Alternative School" means a public school that is created and operated by a regional superintendent of schools and approved by the State Board.

"Applicable Tax Rate" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Assessment" means any of those benchmark, progress monitoring, formative, diagnostic, and other assessments, in addition to the State accountability assessment, that assist teachers' needs in understanding the skills and meeting the needs of the students they serve.

"Assistant principal" means a school administrator duly endorsed to be employed as an assistant principal in this State.

"At-risk student" means a student who is at risk of not meeting the Illinois Learning Standards or not graduating from elementary or high school and who demonstrates a need for vocational support or social services beyond that provided by the regular school program. All students included in an Organizational Unit's Low-Income Count, as well as all English learner and disabled students attending the Organizational Unit, shall be considered at-risk students under this Section.

"Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" for fiscal year 2018 means, for an Organizational Unit, the greater of the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 in the immediately preceding school year, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services of 2 or more hours a day as reported to the State Board on December 1 in the immediately preceding school year, or the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services of 2 or more hours a day as reported to the State Board on December 1, for each of the immediately preceding 3 school years. For fiscal year 2019 and each subsequent fiscal year, "Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" means, for an Organizational Unit, the greater of the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 and March 1 in the immediately preceding school year, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services as reported to the State Board on October 1 and March 1 in the immediately preceding school year, or the average number of students (grades K through 12) reported to the State Board as enrolled in the Organizational Unit on October 1 and March 1, plus the pre-kindergarten students who receive special education services as reported to the State Board on October 1 and March 1, for each of the immediately preceding 3 school years. For the purposes of this definition, "enrolled in the Organizational Unit" means the number of students reported to the State Board who are enrolled in schools within the Organizational Unit that the student attends or would attend if not placed or transferred to another school or program to receive needed services. For the purposes of calculating "ASE", all students, grades K through 12, excluding those attending kindergarten for a half day and students attending an alternative education program operated by a regional office of education or intermediate service center, shall be counted as 1.0. All students attending kindergarten for a half day shall be counted as 0.5, unless in 2017 by June 15 or by March 1 in subsequent years, the school district reports to the State Board of Education the intent to implement full-day kindergarten district-wide for all students, then all students attending kindergarten shall be counted as 1.0. Special education pre-kindergarten students shall be counted as 0.5 each. If the State Board does not collect or has not collected both an October 1 and March 1 enrollment count by grade or a December 1 collection of special education pre-kindergarten students as of August 31, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-465), it shall establish such collection for all future years. For any year in which a count by grade level was collected only once, that count shall be used as the single count available for computing a 3-year average ASE. Funding for programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be calculated using the Evidence-Based Funding formula under this Section for the 2019-2020 school year and each subsequent school year until separate adequacy formulas are developed and adopted for each type of program. ASE for a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be determined by the March 1 enrollment for the program. For the 2019-2020 school year, the ASE used in the calculation must be the first-year ASE and, in that year only, the assignment of students served by a regional office of education or intermediate service center shall not result in a reduction of the March enrollment for any school district. For the 2020-2021 school year, the ASE must be the greater of the current-year ASE or the 2-year average ASE. Beginning with the 2021-2022 school year, the ASE must be the greater of the current-year ASE or the 3-year average ASE. School districts shall submit the data for the ASE calculation to the State Board within 45 days of the dates required in this Section for submission of enrollment data in order for it to be included in the ASE calculation. For fiscal year 2018 only, the ASE calculation shall include only enrollment taken on October 1. In recognition of the impact of COVID-19, the definition of "Average Student Enrollment" or "ASE" shall be adjusted for calculations under this Section for fiscal years 2022 through 2024. For fiscal years 2022 through 2024, the enrollment used in the calculation of ASE representing the 2020-2021 school year shall be the greater of the enrollment for the 2020-2021 school year or the 2019-2020 school year.

"Base Funding Guarantee" is defined in paragraph (10) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"Base Funding Minimum" is defined in subsection (e) of this Section.

"Base Tax Year" means the property tax levy year used to calculate the Budget Year allocation of primary State aid.

"Base Tax Year's Extension" means the product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the county clerk in the Base Tax Year multiplied by the limiting rate as calculated by the county clerk and defined in PTELL.

"Bilingual Education Allocation" means the amount of an Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to bilingual education divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the product of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to bilingual education shall include all additional investments in English learner students' adequacy elements.

"Budget Year" means the school year for which primary State aid is calculated and awarded under this Section.

"Central office" means individual administrators and support service personnel charged with managing the instructional programs, business and operations, and security of the Organizational Unit.

"Comparable Wage Index" or "CWI" means a regional cost differentiation metric that measures systemic, regional variations in the salaries of college graduates who are not educators. The CWI utilized for this Section shall, for the first 3 years of Evidence-Based Funding implementation, be the CWI initially developed by the National Center for Education Statistics, as most recently updated by Texas A & M University. In the fourth and subsequent years of Evidence-Based Funding implementation, the State Superintendent shall re-determine the CWI using a similar methodology to that identified in the Texas A & M University study, with adjustments made no less frequently than once every 5 years.

"Computer technology and equipment" means computers servers, notebooks, network equipment, copiers, printers, instructional software, security software, curriculum management courseware, and other similar materials and equipment.

"Computer technology and equipment investment allocation" means the final Adequacy Target amount of an Organizational Unit assigned to Tier 1 or Tier 2 in the prior school year attributable to the additional $285.50 per student computer technology and equipment investment grant divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the result of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit assigned to a Tier 1 or Tier 2 final Adequacy Target attributable to the received computer technology and equipment investment grant shall include all additional investments in computer technology and equipment adequacy elements.

"Core subject" means mathematics; science; reading, English, writing, and language arts; history and social studies; world languages; and subjects taught as Advanced Placement in high schools.

"Core teacher" means a regular classroom teacher in elementary schools and teachers of a core subject in middle and high schools.

"Core Intervention teacher (tutor)" means a licensed teacher providing one-on-one or small group tutoring to students struggling to meet proficiency in core subjects.

"CPPRT" means corporate personal property replacement tax funds paid to an Organizational Unit during the calendar year one year before the calendar year in which a school year begins, pursuant to "An Act in relation to the abolition of ad valorem personal property tax and the replacement of revenues lost thereby, and amending and repealing certain Acts and parts of Acts in connection therewith", certified August 14, 1979, as amended (Public Act 81-1st S.S.-1).

"EAV" means equalized assessed valuation as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section and calculated in accordance with paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"ECI" means the Bureau of Labor Statistics' national employment cost index for civilian workers in educational services in elementary and secondary schools on a cumulative basis for the 12-month calendar year preceding the fiscal year of the Evidence-Based Funding calculation.

"EIS Data" means the employment information system data maintained by the State Board on educators within Organizational Units.

"Employee benefits" means health, dental, and vision insurance offered to employees of an Organizational Unit, the costs associated with the statutorily required payment of the normal cost of the Organizational Unit's teacher pensions, Social Security employer contributions, and Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund employer contributions.

"English learner" or "EL" means a child included in the definition of "English learners" under Section 14C-2 of this Code participating in a program of transitional bilingual education or a transitional program of instruction meeting the requirements and program application procedures of Article 14C of this Code. For the purposes of collecting the number of EL students enrolled, the same collection and calculation methodology as defined above for "ASE" shall apply to English learners, with the exception that EL student enrollment shall include students in grades pre-kindergarten through 12.

"Essential Elements" means those elements, resources, and educational programs that have been identified through academic research as necessary to improve student success, improve academic performance, close achievement gaps, and provide for other per student costs related to the delivery and leadership of the Organizational Unit, as well as the maintenance and operations of the unit, and which are specified in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section.

"Evidence-Based Funding" means State funding provided to an Organizational Unit pursuant to this Section.

"Extended day" means academic and enrichment programs provided to students outside the regular school day before and after school or during non-instructional times during the school day.

"Extension Limitation Ratio" means a numerical ratio in which the numerator is the Base Tax Year's Extension and the denominator is the Preceding Tax Year's Extension.

"Final Percent of Adequacy" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Final Resources" is defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Full-time equivalent" or "FTE" means the full-time equivalency compensation for staffing the relevant position at an Organizational Unit.

"Funding Gap" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (g).

"Hybrid District" means a partial elementary unit district created pursuant to Article 11E of this Code.

"Instructional assistant" means a core or special education, non-licensed employee who assists a teacher in the classroom and provides academic support to students.

"Instructional facilitator" means a qualified teacher or licensed teacher leader who facilitates and coaches continuous improvement in classroom instruction; provides instructional support to teachers in the elements of research-based instruction or demonstrates the alignment of instruction with curriculum standards and assessment tools; develops or coordinates instructional programs or strategies; develops and implements training; chooses standards-based instructional materials; provides teachers with an understanding of current research; serves as a mentor, site coach, curriculum specialist, or lead teacher; or otherwise works with fellow teachers, in collaboration, to use data to improve instructional practice or develop model lessons.

"Instructional materials" means relevant instructional materials for student instruction, including, but not limited to, textbooks, consumable workbooks, laboratory equipment, library books, and other similar materials.

"Laboratory School" means a public school that is created and operated by a public university and approved by the State Board.

"Librarian" means a teacher with an endorsement as a library information specialist or another individual whose primary responsibility is overseeing library resources within an Organizational Unit.

"Limiting rate for Hybrid Districts" means the combined elementary school and high school limiting rates.

"Local Capacity" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Percentage" is defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Ratio" is defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Local Capacity Target" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section.

"Low-Income Count" means, for an Organizational Unit in a fiscal year, the higher of the average number of students for the prior school year or the immediately preceding 3 school years who, as of July 1 of the immediately preceding fiscal year (as determined by the Department of Human Services), are eligible for at least one of the following low-income programs: Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program, Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF), or the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, excluding pupils who are eligible for services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services. Until such time that grade level low-income populations become available, grade level low-income populations shall be determined by applying the low-income percentage to total student enrollments by grade level. The low-income percentage is determined by dividing the Low-Income Count by the Average Student Enrollment. The low-income percentage for programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must be set to the weighted average of the low-income percentages of all of the school districts in the service region. The weighted low-income percentage is the result of multiplying the low-income percentage of each school district served by the regional office of education or intermediate service center by each school district's Average Student Enrollment, summarizing those products and dividing the total by the total Average Student Enrollment for the service region.

"Maintenance and operations" means custodial services, facility and ground maintenance, facility operations, facility security, routine facility repairs, and other similar services and functions.

"Minimum Funding Level" is defined in paragraph (9) of subsection (g) of this Section.

"New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds" means, for any given fiscal year, all State funds appropriated under Section 2-3.170 of this Code.

"New State Funds" means, for a given school year, all State funds appropriated for Evidence-Based Funding in excess of the amount needed to fund the Base Funding Minimum for all Organizational Units in that school year.

"Net State Contribution Target" means, for a given school year, the amount of State funds that would be necessary to fully meet the Adequacy Target of an Operational Unit minus the Preliminary Resources available to each unit.

"Nurse" means an individual licensed as a certified school nurse, in accordance with the rules established for nursing services by the State Board, who is an employee of and is available to provide health care-related services for students of an Organizational Unit.

"Operating Tax Rate" means the rate utilized in the previous year to extend property taxes for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes. For Hybrid Districts, the Operating Tax Rate shall be the combined elementary and high school rates utilized in the previous year to extend property taxes for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes.

"Organizational Unit" means a Laboratory School or any public school district that is recognized as such by the State Board and that contains elementary schools typically serving kindergarten through 5th grades, middle schools typically serving 6th through 8th grades, high schools typically serving 9th through 12th grades, a program established under Section 2-3.66 or 2-3.41, or a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center under Article 13A or 13B. The General Assembly acknowledges that the actual grade levels served by a particular Organizational Unit may vary slightly from what is typical.

"Organizational Unit CWI" is determined by calculating the CWI in the region and original county in which an Organizational Unit's primary administrative office is located as set forth in this paragraph, provided that if the Organizational Unit CWI as calculated in accordance with this paragraph is less than 0.9, the Organizational Unit CWI shall be increased to 0.9. Each county's current CWI value shall be adjusted based on the CWI value of that county's neighboring Illinois counties, to create a "weighted adjusted index value". This shall be calculated by summing the CWI values of all of a county's adjacent Illinois counties and dividing by the number of adjacent Illinois counties, then taking the weighted value of the original county's CWI value and the adjacent Illinois county average. To calculate this weighted value, if the number of adjacent Illinois counties is greater than 2, the original county's CWI value will be weighted at 0.25 and the adjacent Illinois county average will be weighted at 0.75. If the number of adjacent Illinois counties is 2, the original county's CWI value will be weighted at 0.33 and the adjacent Illinois county average will be weighted at 0.66. The greater of the county's current CWI value and its weighted adjusted index value shall be used as the Organizational Unit CWI.

"Preceding Tax Year" means the property tax levy year immediately preceding the Base Tax Year.

"Preceding Tax Year's Extension" means the product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the county clerk in the Preceding Tax Year multiplied by the Operating Tax Rate.

"Preliminary Percent of Adequacy" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Preliminary Resources" is defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (f) of this Section.

"Principal" means a school administrator duly endorsed to be employed as a principal in this State.

"Professional development" means training programs for licensed staff in schools, including, but not limited to, programs that assist in implementing new curriculum programs, provide data focused or academic assessment data training to help staff identify a student's weaknesses and strengths, target interventions, improve instruction, encompass instructional strategies for English learner, gifted, or at-risk students, address inclusivity, cultural sensitivity, or implicit bias, or otherwise provide professional support for licensed staff.

"Prototypical" means 450 special education pre-kindergarten and kindergarten through grade 5 students for an elementary school, 450 grade 6 through 8 students for a middle school, and 600 grade 9 through 12 students for a high school.

"PTELL" means the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

"PTELL EAV" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Pupil support staff" means a nurse, psychologist, social worker, family liaison personnel, or other staff member who provides support to at-risk or struggling students.

"Real Receipts" is defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

"Regionalization Factor" means, for a particular Organizational Unit, the figure derived by dividing the Organizational Unit CWI by the Statewide Weighted CWI.

"School counselor" means a licensed school counselor who provides guidance and counseling support for students within an Organizational Unit.

"School site staff" means the primary school secretary and any additional clerical personnel assigned to a school.

"Special education" means special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code.

"Special Education Allocation" means the amount of an Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to special education divided by the Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target, the product of which shall be multiplied by the amount of new funding received pursuant to this Section. An Organizational Unit's final Adequacy Target attributable to special education shall include all special education investment adequacy elements.

"Specialist teacher" means a teacher who provides instruction in subject areas not included in core subjects, including, but not limited to, art, music, physical education, health, driver education, career-technical education, and such other subject areas as may be mandated by State law or provided by an Organizational Unit.

"Specially Funded Unit" means an Alternative School, safe school, Department of Juvenile Justice school, special education cooperative or entity recognized by the State Board as a special education cooperative, State-approved charter school, or alternative learning opportunities program that received direct funding from the State Board during the 2016-2017 school year through any of the funding sources included within the calculation of the Base Funding Minimum or Glenwood Academy.

"Supplemental Grant Funding" means supplemental general State aid funding received by an Organizational Unit during the 2016-2017 school year pursuant to subsection (H) of Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed).

"State Adequacy Level" is the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Organizational Units.

"State Board" means the State Board of Education.

"State Superintendent" means the State Superintendent of Education.

"Statewide Weighted CWI" means a figure determined by multiplying each Organizational Unit CWI times the ASE for that Organizational Unit creating a weighted value, summing all Organizational Units' weighted values, and dividing by the total ASE of all Organizational Units, thereby creating an average weighted index.

"Student activities" means non-credit producing after-school programs, including, but not limited to, clubs, bands, sports, and other activities authorized by the school board of the Organizational Unit.

"Substitute teacher" means an individual teacher or teaching assistant who is employed by an Organizational Unit and is temporarily serving the Organizational Unit on a per diem or per period-assignment basis to replace another staff member.

"Summer school" means academic and enrichment programs provided to students during the summer months outside of the regular school year.

"Supervisory aide" means a non-licensed staff member who helps in supervising students of an Organizational Unit, but does so outside of the classroom, in situations such as, but not limited to, monitoring hallways and playgrounds, supervising lunchrooms, or supervising students when being transported in buses serving the Organizational Unit.

"Target Ratio" is defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (g).

"Tier 1", "Tier 2", "Tier 3", and "Tier 4" are defined in paragraph (3) of subsection (g).

"Tier 1 Aggregate Funding", "Tier 2 Aggregate Funding", "Tier 3 Aggregate Funding", and "Tier 4 Aggregate Funding" are defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (g).

(b) Adequacy Target calculation.

(1) Each Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target is the sum of the Organizational Unit's cost of providing Essential Elements, as calculated in accordance with this subsection (b), with the salary amounts in the Essential Elements multiplied by a Regionalization Factor calculated pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (b).

(2) The Essential Elements are attributable on a pro rata basis related to defined subgroups of the ASE of each Organizational Unit as specified in this paragraph (2), with investments and FTE positions pro rata funded based on ASE counts in excess of or less than the thresholds set forth in this paragraph (2). The method for calculating attributable pro rata costs and the defined subgroups thereto are as follows:

(A) Core class size investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding required to support that number of FTE core teacher positions as is needed to keep the respective class sizes of the Organizational Unit to the following maximum numbers:

(i) For grades kindergarten through 3, the Organizational Unit shall receive funding required to support one FTE core teacher position for every 15 Low-Income Count students in those grades and one FTE core teacher position for every 20 non-Low-Income Count students in those grades.

(ii) For grades 4 through 12, the Organizational Unit shall receive funding required to support one FTE core teacher position for every 20 Low-Income Count students in those grades and one FTE core teacher position for every 25 non-Low-Income Count students in those grades.

The number of non-Low-Income Count students in a grade shall be determined by subtracting the Low-Income students in that grade from the ASE of the Organizational Unit for that grade.

(B) Specialist teacher investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover that number of FTE specialist teacher positions that correspond to the following percentages:

(i) if the Organizational Unit operates an elementary or middle school, then 20.00% of the number of the Organizational Unit's core teachers, as determined under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (2); and

(ii) if such Organizational Unit operates a high school, then 33.33% of the number of the Organizational Unit's core teachers.

(C) Instructional facilitator investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE instructional facilitator position for every 200 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students of the Organizational Unit.

(D) Core intervention teacher (tutor) investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE teacher position for each prototypical elementary, middle, and high school.

(E) Substitute teacher investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover substitute teacher costs that is equal to 5.70% of the minimum pupil attendance days required under Section 10-19 of this Code for all full-time equivalent core, specialist, and intervention teachers, school nurses, special education teachers and instructional assistants, instructional facilitators, and summer school and extended day teacher positions, as determined under this paragraph (2), at a salary rate of 33.33% of the average salary for grade K through 12 teachers and 33.33% of the average salary of each instructional assistant position.

(F) Core school counselor investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE school counselor for each 450 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE school counselor for each 250 grades 6 through 8 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE school counselor for each 250 grades 9 through 12 ASE high school students.

(G) Nurse investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE nurse for each 750 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students across all grade levels it serves.

(H) Supervisory aide investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE for each 225 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE for each 225 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE for each 200 ASE high school students.

(I) Librarian investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE librarian for each prototypical elementary school, middle school, and high school and one FTE aide or media technician for every 300 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students.

(J) Principal investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE principal position for each prototypical elementary school, plus one FTE principal position for each prototypical middle school, plus one FTE principal position for each prototypical high school.

(K) Assistant principal investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed to cover one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical elementary school, plus one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical middle school, plus one FTE assistant principal position for each prototypical high school.

(L) School site staff investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the funding needed for one FTE position for each 225 ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 5 students, plus one FTE position for each 225 ASE middle school students, plus one FTE position for each 200 ASE high school students.

(M) Gifted investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $40 per kindergarten through grade 12 ASE.

(N) Professional development investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $125 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students for trainers and other professional development-related expenses for supplies and materials.

(O) Instructional material investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $190 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover instructional material costs.

(P) Assessment investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $25 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover assessment costs.

(Q) Computer technology and equipment investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $285.50 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover computer technology and equipment costs. For the 2018-2019 school year and subsequent school years, Organizational Units assigned to Tier 1 and Tier 2 in the prior school year shall receive an additional $285.50 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover computer technology and equipment costs in the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target. The State Board may establish additional requirements for Organizational Unit expenditures of funds received pursuant to this subparagraph (Q), including a requirement that funds received pursuant to this subparagraph (Q) may be used only for serving the technology needs of the district. It is the intent of Public Act 100-465 that all Tier 1 and Tier 2 districts receive the addition to their Adequacy Target in the following year, subject to compliance with the requirements of the State Board.

(R) Student activities investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive the following funding amounts to cover student activities: $100 per kindergarten through grade 5 ASE student in elementary school, plus $200 per ASE student in middle school, plus $675 per ASE student in high school.

(S) Maintenance and operations investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $1,038 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students for day-to-day maintenance and operations expenditures, including salary, supplies, and materials, as well as purchased services, but excluding employee benefits. The proportion of salary for the application of a Regionalization Factor and the calculation of benefits is equal to $352.92.

(T) Central office investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive $742 per student of the combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students to cover central office operations, including administrators and classified personnel charged with managing the instructional programs, business and operations of the school district, and security personnel. The proportion of salary for the application of a Regionalization Factor and the calculation of benefits is equal to $368.48.

(U) Employee benefit investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive 30% of the total of all salary-calculated elements of the Adequacy Target, excluding substitute teachers and student activities investments, to cover benefit costs. For central office and maintenance and operations investments, the benefit calculation shall be based upon the salary proportion of each investment. If at any time the responsibility for funding the employer normal cost of teacher pensions is assigned to school districts, then that amount certified by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois to be paid by the Organizational Unit for the preceding school year shall be added to the benefit investment. For any fiscal year in which a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code is responsible for paying the employer normal cost of teacher pensions, then that amount of its employer normal cost plus the amount for retiree health insurance as certified by the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago to be paid by the school district for the preceding school year that is statutorily required to cover employer normal costs and the amount for retiree health insurance shall be added to the 30% specified in this subparagraph (U). The Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois and the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago shall submit such information as the State Superintendent may require for the calculations set forth in this subparagraph (U).

(V) Additional investments in low-income students. In addition to and not in lieu of all other funding under this paragraph (2), each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover the costs of:

(i) one FTE intervention teacher (tutor) position for every 125 Low-Income Count students;

(ii) one FTE pupil support staff position for every 125 Low-Income Count students;

(iii) one FTE extended day teacher position for every 120 Low-Income Count students; and

(iv) one FTE summer school teacher position for every 120 Low-Income Count students.

(W) Additional investments in English learner students. In addition to and not in lieu of all other funding under this paragraph (2), each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover the costs of:

(i) one FTE intervention teacher (tutor) position for every 125 English learner students;

(ii) one FTE pupil support staff position for every 125 English learner students;

(iii) one FTE extended day teacher position for every 120 English learner students;

(iv) one FTE summer school teacher position for every 120 English learner students; and

(v) one FTE core teacher position for every 100 English learner students.

(X) Special education investments. Each Organizational Unit shall receive funding based on the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 to cover special education as follows:

(i) one FTE teacher position for every 141 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students;

(ii) one FTE instructional assistant for every 141 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students; and

(iii) one FTE psychologist position for every 1,000 combined ASE of pre-kindergarten children with disabilities and all kindergarten through grade 12 students.

(3) For calculating the salaries included within the Essential Elements, the State Superintendent shall annually calculate average salaries to the nearest dollar using the employment information system data maintained by the State Board, limited to public schools only and excluding special education and vocational cooperatives, schools operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, and charter schools, for the following positions:

(A) Teacher for grades K through 8.

(B) Teacher for grades 9 through 12.

(C) Teacher for grades K through 12.

(D) School counselor for grades K through 8.

(E) School counselor for grades 9 through 12.

(F) School counselor for grades K through 12.

(G) Social worker.

(H) Psychologist.

(I) Librarian.

(J) Nurse.

(K) Principal.

(L) Assistant principal.

For the purposes of this paragraph (3), "teacher" includes core teachers, specialist and elective teachers, instructional facilitators, tutors, special education teachers, pupil support staff teachers, English learner teachers, extended day teachers, and summer school teachers. Where specific grade data is not required for the Essential Elements, the average salary for corresponding positions shall apply. For substitute teachers, the average teacher salary for grades K through 12 shall apply.

For calculating the salaries included within the Essential Elements for positions not included within EIS Data, the following salaries shall be used in the first year of implementation of Evidence-Based Funding:

(i) school site staff, $30,000; and

(ii) non-instructional assistant, instructional assistant, library aide, library media tech, or supervisory aide: $25,000.

In the second and subsequent years of implementation of Evidence-Based Funding, the amounts in items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph (3) shall annually increase by the ECI.

The salary amounts for the Essential Elements determined pursuant to subparagraphs (A) through (L), (S) and (T), and (V) through (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be multiplied by a Regionalization Factor.

(c) Local Capacity calculation.

(1) Each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity represents an amount of funding it is assumed to contribute toward its Adequacy Target for purposes of the Evidence-Based Funding formula calculation. "Local Capacity" means either (i) the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target as calculated in accordance with paragraph (2) of this subsection (c) if its Real Receipts are equal to or less than its Local Capacity Target or (ii) the Organizational Unit's Adjusted Local Capacity, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (c) if Real Receipts are more than its Local Capacity Target.

(2) "Local Capacity Target" means, for an Organizational Unit, that dollar amount that is obtained by multiplying its Adequacy Target by its Local Capacity Ratio.

(A) An Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Percentage is the conversion of the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio, as such ratio is determined in accordance with subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (2), into a cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking to determine each Organizational Unit's relative position to all other Organizational Units in this State. The calculation of Local Capacity Percentage is described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (2).

(B) An Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio in a given year is the percentage obtained by dividing its Adjusted EAV or PTELL EAV, whichever is less, by its Adequacy Target, with the resulting ratio further adjusted as follows:

(i) for Organizational Units serving grades kindergarten through 12 and Hybrid Districts, no further adjustments shall be made;

(ii) for Organizational Units serving grades kindergarten through 8, the ratio shall be multiplied by 9/13;

(iii) for Organizational Units serving grades 9 through 12, the Local Capacity Ratio shall be multiplied by 4/13; and

(iv) for an Organizational Unit with a different grade configuration than those specified in items (i) through (iii) of this subparagraph (B), the State Superintendent shall determine a comparable adjustment based on the grades served.

(C) The Local Capacity Percentage is equal to the percentile ranking of the district. Local Capacity Percentage converts each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio to a cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking to determine each Organizational Unit's relative position to all other Organizational Units in this State. The Local Capacity Percentage cumulative distribution resulting in a percentile ranking for each Organizational Unit shall be calculated using the standard normal distribution of the score in relation to the weighted mean and weighted standard deviation and Local Capacity Ratios of all Organizational Units. If the value assigned to any Organizational Unit is in excess of 90%, the value shall be adjusted to 90%. For Laboratory Schools, the Local Capacity Percentage shall be set at 10% in recognition of the absence of EAV and resources from the public university that are allocated to the Laboratory School. For programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center, the Local Capacity Percentage must be set at 10% in recognition of the absence of EAV and resources from school districts that are allocated to the regional office of education or intermediate service center. The weighted mean for the Local Capacity Percentage shall be determined by multiplying each Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio times the ASE for the unit creating a weighted value, summing the weighted values of all Organizational Units, and dividing by the total ASE of all Organizational Units. The weighted standard deviation shall be determined by taking the square root of the weighted variance of all Organizational Units' Local Capacity Ratio, where the variance is calculated by squaring the difference between each unit's Local Capacity Ratio and the weighted mean, then multiplying the variance for each unit times the ASE for the unit to create a weighted variance for each unit, then summing all units' weighted variance and dividing by the total ASE of all units.

(D) For any Organizational Unit, the Organizational Unit's Adjusted Local Capacity Target shall be reduced by either (i) the school board's remaining contribution pursuant to paragraph (ii) of subsection (b-4) of Section 16-158 of the Illinois Pension Code in a given year or (ii) the board of education's remaining contribution pursuant to paragraph (iv) of subsection (b) of Section 17-129 of the Illinois Pension Code absent the employer normal cost portion of the required contribution and amount allowed pursuant to subdivision (3) of Section 17-142.1 of the Illinois Pension Code in a given year. In the preceding sentence, item (i) shall be certified to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois and item (ii) shall be certified to the State Board of Education by the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of the City of Chicago.

(3) If an Organizational Unit's Real Receipts are more than its Local Capacity Target, then its Local Capacity shall equal an Adjusted Local Capacity Target as calculated in accordance with this paragraph (3). The Adjusted Local Capacity Target is calculated as the sum of the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target and its Real Receipts Adjustment. The Real Receipts Adjustment equals the Organizational Unit's Real Receipts less its Local Capacity Target, with the resulting figure multiplied by the Local Capacity Percentage.

As used in this paragraph (3), "Real Percent of Adequacy" means the sum of an Organizational Unit's Real Receipts, CPPRT, and Base Funding Minimum, with the resulting figure divided by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target.

(d) Calculation of Real Receipts, EAV, and Adjusted EAV for purposes of the Local Capacity calculation.

(1) An Organizational Unit's Real Receipts are the product of its Applicable Tax Rate and its Adjusted EAV. An Organizational Unit's Applicable Tax Rate is its Adjusted Operating Tax Rate for property within the Organizational Unit.

(2) The State Superintendent shall calculate the equalized assessed valuation, or EAV, of all taxable property of each Organizational Unit as of September 30 of the previous year in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (d). The State Superintendent shall then determine the Adjusted EAV of each Organizational Unit in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), which Adjusted EAV figure shall be used for the purposes of calculating Local Capacity.

(3) To calculate Real Receipts and EAV, the Department of Revenue shall supply to the State Superintendent the value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property of every Organizational Unit, together with (i) the applicable tax rate used in extending taxes for the funds of the Organizational Unit as of September 30 of the previous year and (ii) the limiting rate for all Organizational Units subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under PTELL.

(A) The Department of Revenue shall add to the equalized assessed value of all taxable property of each Organizational Unit situated entirely or partially within a county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code (i) an amount equal to the total amount by which the homestead exemption allowed under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code for real property situated in that Organizational Unit exceeds the total amount that would have been allowed in that Organizational Unit if the maximum reduction under Section 15-176 was (I) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003 or (II) $5,000 in all counties in tax year 2004 and thereafter and (ii) an amount equal to the aggregate amount for the taxable year of all additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. The county clerk of any county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code shall annually calculate and certify to the Department of Revenue for each Organizational Unit all homestead exemption amounts under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and all amounts of additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. It is the intent of this subparagraph (A) that if the general homestead exemption for a parcel of property is determined under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code rather than Section 15-175, then the calculation of EAV shall not be affected by the difference, if any, between the amount of the general homestead exemption allowed for that parcel of property under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and the amount that would have been allowed had the general homestead exemption for that parcel of property been determined under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code. It is further the intent of this subparagraph (A) that if additional exemptions are allowed under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of less than $30,000, then the calculation of EAV shall not be affected by the difference, if any, because of those additional exemptions.

(B) With respect to any part of an Organizational Unit within a redevelopment project area in respect to which a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, Division 74.4 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, or the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law, Division 74.6 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, no part of the current EAV of real property located in any such project area that is attributable to an increase above the total initial EAV of such property shall be used as part of the EAV of the Organizational Unit, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid, as provided in Section 11-74.4-8 of the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act or in Section 11-74.6-35 of the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law. For the purpose of the EAV of the Organizational Unit, the total initial EAV or the current EAV, whichever is lower, shall be used until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid.

(B-5) The real property equalized assessed valuation for a school district shall be adjusted by subtracting from the real property value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue, for the district an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under Section 18-170 of the Property Tax Code by 3.00% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, by 2.30% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, or by 1.05% for a district maintaining grades 9 through 12 and adjusted by an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under subsection (a) of Section 18-165 of the Property Tax Code by the same percentage rates for district type as specified in this subparagraph (B-5).

(C) For Organizational Units that are Hybrid Districts, the State Superintendent shall use the lesser of the adjusted equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for elementary purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, or the adjusted equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for high school purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code.

(4) An Organizational Unit's Adjusted EAV shall be the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 3 years or its EAV in the immediately preceding year if the EAV in the immediately preceding year has declined by 10% or more compared to the 3-year average. In the event of Organizational Unit reorganization, consolidation, or annexation, the Organizational Unit's Adjusted EAV for the first 3 years after such change shall be as follows: the most current EAV shall be used in the first year, the average of a 2-year EAV or its EAV in the immediately preceding year if the EAV declines by 10% or more compared to the 2-year average for the second year, and a 3-year average EAV or its EAV in the immediately preceding year if the Adjusted EAV declines by 10% or more compared to the 3-year average for the third year. For any school district whose EAV in the immediately preceding year is used in calculations, in the following year, the Adjusted EAV shall be the average of its EAV over the immediately preceding 2 years or the immediately preceding year if that year represents a decline of 10% or more compared to the 2-year average.

"PTELL EAV" means a figure calculated by the State Board for Organizational Units subject to PTELL as described in this paragraph (4) for the purposes of calculating an Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Ratio. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (4), the PTELL EAV of an Organizational Unit shall be equal to the product of the equalized assessed valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) or Evidence-Based Funding under this Section and the Organizational Unit's Extension Limitation Ratio. If an Organizational Unit has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, pursuant to Section 18-190 of the Property Tax Code, affecting the Base Tax Year, the PTELL EAV shall be equal to the product of the equalized assessed valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) or Evidence-Based Funding under this Section multiplied by an amount equal to one plus the percentage increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor for the 12-month calendar year preceding the Base Tax Year, plus the equalized assessed valuation of new property, annexed property, and recovered tax increment value and minus the equalized assessed valuation of disconnected property.

As used in this paragraph (4), "new property" and "recovered tax increment value" shall have the meanings set forth in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

(e) Base Funding Minimum calculation.

(1) For the 2017-2018 school year, the Base Funding Minimum of an Organizational Unit or a Specially Funded Unit shall be the amount of State funds distributed to the Organizational Unit or Specially Funded Unit during the 2016-2017 school year prior to any adjustments and specified appropriation amounts described in this paragraph (1) from the following Sections, as calculated by the State Superintendent: Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed); Section 5 of Article 224 of Public Act 99-524 (equity grants); Section 14-7.02b of this Code (funding for children requiring special education services); Section 14-13.01 of this Code (special education facilities and staffing), except for reimbursement of the cost of transportation pursuant to Section 14-13.01; Section 14C-12 of this Code (English learners); and Section 18-4.3 of this Code (summer school), based on an appropriation level of $13,121,600. For a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code, the Base Funding Minimum also includes (i) the funds allocated to the school district pursuant to Section 1D-1 of this Code attributable to funding programs authorized by the Sections of this Code listed in the preceding sentence and (ii) the difference between (I) the funds allocated to the school district pursuant to Section 1D-1 of this Code attributable to the funding programs authorized by Section 14-7.02 (non-public special education reimbursement), subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 (special education transportation), Section 29-5 (transportation), Section 2-3.80 (agricultural education), Section 2-3.66 (truants' alternative education), Section 2-3.62 (educational service centers), and Section 14-7.03 (special education - orphanage) of this Code and Section 15 of the Childhood Hunger Relief Act (free breakfast program) and (II) the school district's actual expenditures for its non-public special education, special education transportation, transportation programs, agricultural education, truants' alternative education, services that would otherwise be performed by a regional office of education, special education orphanage expenditures, and free breakfast, as most recently calculated and reported pursuant to subsection (f) of Section 1D-1 of this Code. The Base Funding Minimum for Glenwood Academy shall be $625,500. For programs operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center, the Base Funding Minimum must be the total amount of State funds allocated to those programs in the 2018-2019 school year and amounts provided pursuant to Article 34 of Public Act 100-586 and Section 3-16 of this Code. All programs established after June 5, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-10) and administered by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center must have an initial Base Funding Minimum set to an amount equal to the first-year ASE multiplied by the amount of per pupil funding received in the previous school year by the lowest funded similar existing program type. If the enrollment for a program operated by a regional office of education or an intermediate service center is zero, then it may not receive Base Funding Minimum funds for that program in the next fiscal year, and those funds must be distributed to Organizational Units under subsection (g).

(2) For the 2018-2019 and subsequent school years, the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units and Specially Funded Units shall be the sum of (i) the amount of Evidence-Based Funding for the prior school year, (ii) the Base Funding Minimum for the prior school year, and (iii) any amount received by a school district pursuant to Section 7 of Article 97 of Public Act 100-21.

(3) Subject to approval by the General Assembly as provided in this paragraph (3), an Organizational Unit that meets all of the following criteria, as determined by the State Board, shall have District Intervention Money added to its Base Funding Minimum at the time the Base Funding Minimum is calculated by the State Board:

(A) The Organizational Unit is operating under an Independent Authority under Section 2-3.25f-5 of this Code for a minimum of 4 school years or is subject to the control of the State Board pursuant to a court order for a minimum of 4 school years.

(B) The Organizational Unit was designated as a Tier 1 or Tier 2 Organizational Unit in the previous school year under paragraph (3) of subsection (g) of this Section.

(C) The Organizational Unit demonstrates sustainability through a 5-year financial and strategic plan.

(D) The Organizational Unit has made sufficient progress and achieved sufficient stability in the areas of governance, academic growth, and finances.

As part of its determination under this paragraph (3), the State Board may consider the Organizational Unit's summative designation, any accreditations of the Organizational Unit, or the Organizational Unit's financial profile, as calculated by the State Board.

If the State Board determines that an Organizational Unit has met the criteria set forth in this paragraph (3), it must submit a report to the General Assembly, no later than January 2 of the fiscal year in which the State Board makes it determination, on the amount of District Intervention Money to add to the Organizational Unit's Base Funding Minimum. The General Assembly must review the State Board's report and may approve or disapprove, by joint resolution, the addition of District Intervention Money. If the General Assembly fails to act on the report within 40 calendar days from the receipt of the report, the addition of District Intervention Money is deemed approved. If the General Assembly approves the amount of District Intervention Money to be added to the Organizational Unit's Base Funding Minimum, the District Intervention Money must be added to the Base Funding Minimum annually thereafter.

For the first 4 years following the initial year that the State Board determines that an Organizational Unit has met the criteria set forth in this paragraph (3) and has received funding under this Section, the Organizational Unit must annually submit to the State Board, on or before November 30, a progress report regarding its financial and strategic plan under subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (3). The plan shall include the financial data from the past 4 annual financial reports or financial audits that must be presented to the State Board by November 15 of each year and the approved budget financial data for the current year. The plan shall be developed according to the guidelines presented to the Organizational Unit by the State Board. The plan shall further include financial projections for the next 3 fiscal years and include a discussion and financial summary of the Organizational Unit's facility needs. If the Organizational Unit does not demonstrate sufficient progress toward its 5-year plan or if it has failed to file an annual financial report, an annual budget, a financial plan, a deficit reduction plan, or other financial information as required by law, the State Board may establish a Financial Oversight Panel under Article 1H of this Code. However, if the Organizational Unit already has a Financial Oversight Panel, the State Board may extend the duration of the Panel.

(f) Percent of Adequacy and Final Resources calculation.

(1) The Evidence-Based Funding formula establishes a Percent of Adequacy for each Organizational Unit in order to place such units into tiers for the purposes of the funding distribution system described in subsection (g) of this Section. Initially, an Organizational Unit's Preliminary Resources and Preliminary Percent of Adequacy are calculated pursuant to paragraph (2) of this subsection (f). Then, an Organizational Unit's Final Resources and Final Percent of Adequacy are calculated to account for the Organizational Unit's poverty concentration levels pursuant to paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (f).

(2) An Organizational Unit's Preliminary Resources are equal to the sum of its Local Capacity Target, CPPRT, and Base Funding Minimum. An Organizational Unit's Preliminary Percent of Adequacy is the lesser of (i) its Preliminary Resources divided by its Adequacy Target or (ii) 100%.

(3) Except for Specially Funded Units, an Organizational Unit's Final Resources are equal to the sum of its Local Capacity, CPPRT, and Adjusted Base Funding Minimum. The Base Funding Minimum of each Specially Funded Unit shall serve as its Final Resources, except that the Base Funding Minimum for State-approved charter schools shall not include any portion of general State aid allocated in the prior year based on the per capita tuition charge times the charter school enrollment.

(4) An Organizational Unit's Final Percent of Adequacy is its Final Resources divided by its Adequacy Target. An Organizational Unit's Adjusted Base Funding Minimum is equal to its Base Funding Minimum less its Supplemental Grant Funding, with the resulting figure added to the product of its Supplemental Grant Funding and Preliminary Percent of Adequacy.

(g) Evidence-Based Funding formula distribution system.

(1) In each school year under the Evidence-Based Funding formula, each Organizational Unit receives funding equal to the sum of its Base Funding Minimum and the unit's allocation of New State Funds determined pursuant to this subsection (g). To allocate New State Funds, the Evidence-Based Funding formula distribution system first places all Organizational Units into one of 4 tiers in accordance with paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), based on the Organizational Unit's Final Percent of Adequacy. New State Funds are allocated to each of the 4 tiers as follows: Tier 1 Aggregate Funding equals 50% of all New State Funds, Tier 2 Aggregate Funding equals 49% of all New State Funds, Tier 3 Aggregate Funding equals 0.9% of all New State Funds, and Tier 4 Aggregate Funding equals 0.1% of all New State Funds. Each Organizational Unit within Tier 1 or Tier 2 receives an allocation of New State Funds equal to its tier Funding Gap, as defined in the following sentence, multiplied by the tier's Allocation Rate determined pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (g). For Tier 1, an Organizational Unit's Funding Gap equals the tier's Target Ratio, as specified in paragraph (5) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target, with the resulting amount reduced by the Organizational Unit's Final Resources. For Tier 2, an Organizational Unit's Funding Gap equals the tier's Target Ratio, as described in paragraph (5) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the Organizational Unit's Adequacy Target, with the resulting amount reduced by the Organizational Unit's Final Resources and its Tier 1 funding allocation. To determine the Organizational Unit's Funding Gap, the resulting amount is then multiplied by a factor equal to one minus the Organizational Unit's Local Capacity Target percentage. Each Organizational Unit within Tier 3 or Tier 4 receives an allocation of New State Funds equal to the product of its Adequacy Target and the tier's Allocation Rate, as specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection (g).

(2) To ensure equitable distribution of dollars for all Tier 2 Organizational Units, no Tier 2 Organizational Unit shall receive fewer dollars per ASE than any Tier 3 Organizational Unit. Each Tier 2 and Tier 3 Organizational Unit shall have its funding allocation divided by its ASE. Any Tier 2 Organizational Unit with a funding allocation per ASE below the greatest Tier 3 allocation per ASE shall get a funding allocation equal to the greatest Tier 3 funding allocation per ASE multiplied by the Organizational Unit's ASE. Each Tier 2 Organizational Unit's Tier 2 funding allocation shall be multiplied by the percentage calculated by dividing the original Tier 2 Aggregate Funding by the sum of all Tier 2 Organizational Units' Tier 2 funding allocation after adjusting districts' funding below Tier 3 levels.

(3) Organizational Units are placed into one of 4 tiers as follows:

(A) Tier 1 consists of all Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy less than the Tier 1 Target Ratio. The Tier 1 Target Ratio is the ratio level that allows for Tier 1 Aggregate Funding to be distributed, with the Tier 1 Allocation Rate determined pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (g).

(B) Tier 2 consists of all Tier 1 Units and all other Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy of less than 0.90.

(C) Tier 3 consists of all Organizational Units, except for Specially Funded Units, with a Percent of Adequacy of at least 0.90 and less than 1.0.

(D) Tier 4 consists of all Organizational Units with a Percent of Adequacy of at least 1.0.

(4) The Allocation Rates for Tiers 1 through 4 are determined as follows:

(A) The Tier 1 Allocation Rate is 30%.

(B) The Tier 2 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 2 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Funding Gaps for all Tier 2 Organizational Units, unless the result of such equation is higher than 1.0. If the result of such equation is higher than 1.0, then the Tier 2 Allocation Rate is 1.0.

(C) The Tier 3 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 3 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Tier 3 Organizational Units.

(D) The Tier 4 Allocation Rate is the result of the following equation: Tier 4 Aggregate Funding, divided by the sum of the Adequacy Targets of all Tier 4 Organizational Units.

(5) A tier's Target Ratio is determined as follows:

(A) The Tier 1 Target Ratio is the ratio level that allows for Tier 1 Aggregate Funding to be distributed with the Tier 1 Allocation Rate.

(B) The Tier 2 Target Ratio is 0.90.

(C) The Tier 3 Target Ratio is 1.0.

(6) If, at any point, the Tier 1 Target Ratio is greater than 90%, then all Tier 1 funding shall be allocated to Tier 2 and no Tier 1 Organizational Unit's funding may be identified.

(7) In the event that all Tier 2 Organizational Units receive funding at the Tier 2 Target Ratio level, any remaining New State Funds shall be allocated to Tier 3 and Tier 4 Organizational Units.

(8) If any Specially Funded Units, excluding Glenwood Academy, recognized by the State Board do not qualify for direct funding following the implementation of Public Act 100-465 from any of the funding sources included within the definition of Base Funding Minimum, the unqualified portion of the Base Funding Minimum shall be transferred to one or more appropriate Organizational Units as determined by the State Superintendent based on the prior year ASE of the Organizational Units.

(8.5) If a school district withdraws from a special education cooperative, the portion of the Base Funding Minimum that is attributable to the school district may be redistributed to the school district upon withdrawal. The school district and the cooperative must include the amount of the Base Funding Minimum that is to be reapportioned in their withdrawal agreement and notify the State Board of the change with a copy of the agreement upon withdrawal.

(9) The Minimum Funding Level is intended to establish a target for State funding that will keep pace with inflation and continue to advance equity through the Evidence-Based Funding formula. The target for State funding of New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds is $50,000,000 for State fiscal year 2019 and subsequent State fiscal years. The Minimum Funding Level is equal to $350,000,000. In addition to any New State Funds, no more than $50,000,000 New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds may be counted toward the Minimum Funding Level. If the sum of New State Funds and applicable New Property Tax Relief Pool Funds are less than the Minimum Funding Level, than funding for tiers shall be reduced in the following manner:

(A) First, Tier 4 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds until such time as Tier 4 funding is exhausted.

(B) Next, Tier 3 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 4 funding until such time as Tier 3 funding is exhausted.

(C) Next, Tier 2 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding Level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 4 and Tier 3.

(D) Finally, Tier 1 funding shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the Minimum Funding level and New State Funds and the reduction in Tier 2, 3, and 4 funding. In addition, the Allocation Rate for Tier 1 shall be reduced to a percentage equal to the Tier 1 Allocation Rate set by paragraph (4) of this subsection (g), multiplied by the result of New State Funds divided by the Minimum Funding Level.

(9.5) For State fiscal year 2019 and subsequent State fiscal years, if New State Funds exceed $300,000,000, then any amount in excess of $300,000,000 shall be dedicated for purposes of Section 2-3.170 of this Code up to a maximum of $50,000,000.

(10) In the event of a decrease in the amount of the appropriation for this Section in any fiscal year after implementation of this Section, the Organizational Units receiving Tier 1 and Tier 2 funding, as determined under paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), shall be held harmless by establishing a Base Funding Guarantee equal to the per pupil kindergarten through grade 12 funding received in accordance with this Section in the prior fiscal year. Reductions shall be made to the Base Funding Minimum of Organizational Units in Tier 3 and Tier 4 on a per pupil basis equivalent to the total number of the ASE in Tier 3-funded and Tier 4-funded Organizational Units divided by the total reduction in State funding. The Base Funding Minimum as reduced shall continue to be applied to Tier 3 and Tier 4 Organizational Units and adjusted by the relative formula when increases in appropriations for this Section resume. In no event may State funding reductions to Organizational Units in Tier 3 or Tier 4 exceed an amount that would be less than the Base Funding Minimum established in the first year of implementation of this Section. If additional reductions are required, all school districts shall receive a reduction by a per pupil amount equal to the aggregate additional appropriation reduction divided by the total ASE of all Organizational Units.

(11) The State Superintendent shall make minor adjustments to the distribution formula set forth in this subsection (g) to account for the rounding of percentages to the nearest tenth of a percentage and dollar amounts to the nearest whole dollar.

(h) State Superintendent administration of funding and district submission requirements.

(1) The State Superintendent shall, in accordance with appropriations made by the General Assembly, meet the funding obligations created under this Section.

(2) The State Superintendent shall calculate the Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit and Net State Contribution Target for each Organizational Unit under this Section. No Evidence-Based Funding shall be distributed within an Organizational Unit without the approval of the unit's school board.

(3) Annually, the State Superintendent shall calculate and report to each Organizational Unit the unit's aggregate financial adequacy amount, which shall be the sum of the Adequacy Target for each Organizational Unit. The State Superintendent shall calculate and report separately for each Organizational Unit the unit's total State funds allocated for its students with disabilities. The State Superintendent shall calculate and report separately for each Organizational Unit the amount of funding and applicable FTE calculated for each Essential Element of the unit's Adequacy Target.

(4) Annually, the State Superintendent shall calculate and report to each Organizational Unit the amount the unit must expend on special education and bilingual education and computer technology and equipment for Organizational Units assigned to Tier 1 or Tier 2 that received an additional $285.50 per student computer technology and equipment investment grant to their Adequacy Target pursuant to the unit's Base Funding Minimum, Special Education Allocation, Bilingual Education Allocation, and computer technology and equipment investment allocation.

(5) Moneys distributed under this Section shall be calculated on a school year basis, but paid on a fiscal year basis, with payments beginning in August and extending through June. Unless otherwise provided, the moneys appropriated for each fiscal year shall be distributed in 22 equal payments at least 2 times monthly to each Organizational Unit. If moneys appropriated for any fiscal year are distributed other than monthly, the distribution shall be on the same basis for each Organizational Unit.

(6) Any school district that fails, for any given school year, to maintain school as required by law or to maintain a recognized school is not eligible to receive Evidence-Based Funding. In case of non-recognition of one or more attendance centers in a school district otherwise operating recognized schools, the claim of the district shall be reduced in the proportion that the enrollment in the attendance center or centers bears to the enrollment of the school district. "Recognized school" means any public school that meets the standards for recognition by the State Board. A school district or attendance center not having recognition status at the end of a school term is entitled to receive State aid payments due upon a legal claim that was filed while it was recognized.

(7) School district claims filed under this Section are subject to Sections 18-9 and 18-12 of this Code, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(8) Each fiscal year, the State Superintendent shall calculate for each Organizational Unit an amount of its Base Funding Minimum and Evidence-Based Funding that shall be deemed attributable to the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, in a manner that ensures compliance with maintenance of State financial support requirements under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. An Organizational Unit must use such funds only for the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, and must comply with any expenditure verification procedures adopted by the State Board.

(9) All Organizational Units in this State must submit annual spending plans by the end of September of each year to the State Board as part of the annual budget process, which shall describe how each Organizational Unit will utilize the Base Funding Minimum and Evidence-Based Funding it receives from this State under this Section with specific identification of the intended utilization of Low-Income, English learner, and special education resources. Additionally, the annual spending plans of each Organizational Unit shall describe how the Organizational Unit expects to achieve student growth and how the Organizational Unit will achieve State education goals, as defined by the State Board. The State Superintendent may, from time to time, identify additional requisites for Organizational Units to satisfy when compiling the annual spending plans required under this subsection (h). The format and scope of annual spending plans shall be developed by the State Superintendent and the State Board of Education. School districts that serve students under Article 14C of this Code shall continue to submit information as required under Section 14C-12 of this Code.

(10) No later than January 1, 2018, the State Superintendent shall develop a 5-year strategic plan for all Organizational Units to help in planning for adequacy funding under this Section. The State Superintendent shall submit the plan to the Governor and the General Assembly, as provided in Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act. The plan shall include recommendations for:

(A) a framework for collaborative, professional, innovative, and 21st century learning environments using the Evidence-Based Funding model;

(B) ways to prepare and support this State's educators for successful instructional careers;

(C) application and enhancement of the current financial accountability measures, the approved State plan to comply with the federal Every Student Succeeds Act, and the Illinois Balanced Accountability Measures in relation to student growth and elements of the Evidence-Based Funding model; and

(D) implementation of an effective school adequacy funding system based on projected and recommended funding levels from the General Assembly.

(11) On an annual basis, the State Superintendent must recalibrate all of the following per pupil elements of the Adequacy Target and applied to the formulas, based on the study of average expenses and as reported in the most recent annual financial report:

(A) Gifted under subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(B) Instructional materials under subparagraph (O) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(C) Assessment under subparagraph (P) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(D) Student activities under subparagraph (R) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(E) Maintenance and operations under subparagraph (S) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(F) Central office under subparagraph (T) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b).

(i) Professional Review Panel.

(1) A Professional Review Panel is created to study and review topics related to the implementation and effect of Evidence-Based Funding, as assigned by a joint resolution or Public Act of the General Assembly or a motion passed by the State Board of Education. The Panel must provide recommendations to and serve the Governor, the General Assembly, and the State Board. The State Superintendent or his or her designee must serve as a voting member and chairperson of the Panel. The State Superintendent must appoint a vice chairperson from the membership of the Panel. The Panel must advance recommendations based on a three-fifths majority vote of Panel members present and voting. A minority opinion may also accompany any recommendation of the Panel. The Panel shall be appointed by the State Superintendent, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (i) and include the following members:

(A) Two appointees that represent district superintendents, recommended by a statewide organization that represents district superintendents.

(B) Two appointees that represent school boards, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school boards.

(C) Two appointees from districts that represent school business officials, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school business officials.

(D) Two appointees that represent school principals, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school principals.

(E) Two appointees that represent teachers, recommended by a statewide organization that represents teachers.

(F) Two appointees that represent teachers, recommended by another statewide organization that represents teachers.

(G) Two appointees that represent regional superintendents of schools, recommended by organizations that represent regional superintendents.

(H) Two independent experts selected solely by the State Superintendent.

(I) Two independent experts recommended by public universities in this State.

(J) One member recommended by a statewide organization that represents parents.

(K) Two representatives recommended by collective impact organizations that represent major metropolitan areas or geographic areas in Illinois.

(L) One member from a statewide organization focused on research-based education policy to support a school system that prepares all students for college, a career, and democratic citizenship.

(M) One representative from a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code.

The State Superintendent shall ensure that the membership of the Panel includes representatives from school districts and communities reflecting the geographic, socio-economic, racial, and ethnic diversity of this State. The State Superintendent shall additionally ensure that the membership of the Panel includes representatives with expertise in bilingual education and special education. Staff from the State Board shall staff the Panel.

(2) In addition to those Panel members appointed by the State Superintendent, 4 members of the General Assembly shall be appointed as follows: one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, one member of the Senate appointed by the President of the Senate, one member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and one member of the Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate. There shall be one additional member appointed by the Governor. All members appointed by legislative leaders or the Governor shall be non-voting, ex officio members.

(3) The Panel must study topics at the direction of the General Assembly or State Board of Education, as provided under paragraph (1). The Panel may also study the following topics at the direction of the chairperson:

(A) The format and scope of annual spending plans referenced in paragraph (9) of subsection (h) of this Section.

(B) The Comparable Wage Index under this Section.

(C) Maintenance and operations, including capital maintenance and construction costs.

(D) "At-risk student" definition.

(E) Benefits.

(F) Technology.

(G) Local Capacity Target.

(H) Funding for Alternative Schools, Laboratory Schools, safe schools, and alternative learning opportunities programs.

(I) Funding for college and career acceleration strategies.

(J) Special education investments.

(K) Early childhood investments, in collaboration with the Illinois Early Learning Council.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Within 5 years after the implementation of this Section, and every 5 years thereafter, the Panel shall complete an evaluative study of the entire Evidence-Based Funding model, including an assessment of whether or not the formula is achieving State goals. The Panel shall report to the State Board, the General Assembly, and the Governor on the findings of the study.

(6) (Blank).

(7) To ensure that (i) the Adequacy Target calculation under subsection (b) accurately reflects the needs of students living in poverty or attending schools located in areas of high poverty, (ii) racial equity within the Evidence-Based Funding formula is explicitly explored and advanced, and (iii) the funding goals of the formula distribution system established under this Section are sufficient to provide adequate funding for every student and to fully fund every school in this State, the Panel shall review the Essential Elements under paragraph (2) of subsection (b). The Panel shall consider all of the following in its review:

(A) The financial ability of school districts to provide instruction in a foreign language to every student and whether an additional Essential Element should be added to the formula to ensure that every student has access to instruction in a foreign language.

(B) The adult-to-student ratio for each Essential Element in which a ratio is identified. The Panel shall consider whether the ratio accurately reflects the staffing needed to support students living in poverty or who have traumatic backgrounds.

(C) Changes to the Essential Elements that may be required to better promote racial equity and eliminate structural racism within schools.

(D) The impact of investing $350,000,000 in additional funds each year under this Section and an estimate of when the school system will become fully funded under this level of appropriation.

(E) Provide an overview of alternative funding structures that would enable the State to become fully funded at an earlier date.

(F) The potential to increase efficiency and to find cost savings within the school system to expedite the journey to a fully funded system.

(G) The appropriate levels for reenrolling and graduating high-risk high school students who have been previously out of school. These outcomes shall include enrollment, attendance, skill gains, credit gains, graduation or promotion to the next grade level, and the transition to college, training, or employment, with an emphasis on progressively increasing the overall attendance.

(H) The evidence-based or research-based practices that are shown to reduce the gaps and disparities experienced by African American students in academic achievement and educational performance, including practices that have been shown to reduce disparities parities in disciplinary rates, drop-out rates, graduation rates, college matriculation rates, and college completion rates.

On or before December 31, 2021, the Panel shall report to the State Board, the General Assembly, and the Governor on the findings of its review. This paragraph (7) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2022.

(j) References. Beginning July 1, 2017, references in other laws to general State aid funds or calculations under Section 18-8.05 of this Code (now repealed) shall be deemed to be references to evidence-based model formula funds or calculations under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-17, eff. 6-14-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-33, eff. 6-25-21; 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/21A-25.5)

Sec. 21A-25.5. Teaching Induction and Mentoring Advisory Group.

(a) The State Board of Education shall create a Teaching Induction and Mentoring Advisory Group. Members of the Advisory Group must represent the diversity of this State and possess the expertise needed to perform the work required to meet the goals of the programs set forth under Section 21A-20.

(b) The members of the Advisory Group shall be by appointed by the State Superintendent of Education and shall include all of the following members:

(1) Four members representing teachers recommended by a statewide professional teachers' organization.

(2) Four members representing teachers recommended by a different statewide professional teachers' organization.

(3) Two members representing principals recommended by a statewide organization that represents principals.

(4) One member representing district superintendents recommended by a statewide organization that represents district superintendents.

(5) One member representing regional superintendents of schools recommended by a statewide association that represents regional superintendents of schools.

(6) One member representing a State-approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution of higher education recommended by the institution of higher education.

The majority of the membership of the Advisory Group shall consist of practicing teachers.

(c) The Advisory Group is responsible for approving any changes made to the standards established under Section 21A-20.5.

(Source: P.A. 102-521, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-29-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-30)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine injectors; administration of an opioid antagonist; administration of undesignated asthma medication; asthma episode emergency response protocol.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma action plan" means a written plan developed with a pupil's medical provider to help control the pupil's asthma. The goal of an asthma action plan is to reduce or prevent flare-ups and emergency department visits through day-to-day management and to serve as a student-specific document to be referenced in the event of an asthma episode.

"Asthma episode emergency response protocol" means a procedure to provide assistance to a pupil experiencing symptoms of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, or breathing difficulty.

"Epinephrine injector" includes an auto-injector approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the administration of epinephrine and a pre-filled syringe approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and used for the administration of epinephrine that contains a pre-measured dose of epinephrine that is equivalent to the dosages used in an auto-injector.

"Asthma medication" means quick-relief asthma medication, including albuterol or other short-acting bronchodilators, that is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of respiratory distress. "Asthma medication" includes medication delivered through a device, including a metered dose inhaler with a reusable or disposable spacer or a nebulizer with a mouthpiece or mask.

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Respiratory distress" means the perceived or actual presence of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, breathing difficulty, or any other symptoms consistent with asthma. Respiratory distress may be categorized as "mild-to-moderate" or "severe".

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, an opioid overdose, or respiratory distress.

"Undesignated asthma medication" means asthma medication prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school.

"Undesignated epinephrine injector" means an epinephrine injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public, charter, or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine injector is to be administered.

The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan to administer to the student that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan that authorizes the use of an epinephrine injector; (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose; (v) provide undesignated asthma medication to a student for self-administration only or to any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan or asthma action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan to administer to the student that meets the student's prescription on file; (vi) administer undesignated asthma medication that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan or asthma action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan that authorizes the use of asthma medication; and (vii) administer undesignated asthma medication to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel believes in good faith is having respiratory distress.

(c) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol and a prescription for school epinephrine injectors, an opioid antagonist, or undesignated asthma medication, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(c-5) When a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, or administers undesignated asthma medication to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having respiratory distress, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol and a prescription for undesignated epinephrine injectors, an opioid antagonist, or undesignated asthma medication, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine injector, the use of an opioid antagonist, or the use of undesignated asthma medication, regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry an opioid antagonist on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-15) If the requirements of this Section are met, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer undesignated asthma medication to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be experiencing respiratory distress (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, including before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated asthma medication on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors in any secure location that is accessible before, during, and after school where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine injectors in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act may prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of asthma medication in any secure location that is accessible before, during, or after school where a person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, a classroom or the nurse's office. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated asthma medication in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of undesignated asthma medication must be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

(f-3) Whichever entity initiates the process of obtaining undesignated epinephrine injectors and providing training to personnel for carrying and administering undesignated epinephrine injectors shall pay for the costs of the undesignated epinephrine injectors.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine injector, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol and a prescription for the undesignated epinephrine injector of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the health care professional who provided the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of undesignated asthma medication, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the student's parent or guardian or emergency contact, if known, and the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol and a prescription for the undesignated asthma medication of its use. The district or school must follow up with the school nurse, if available, and may, with the consent of the child's parent or guardian, notify the child's health care provider of record, as determined under this Section, of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of undesignated asthma medication, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to respiratory distress, which must meet the requirements of subsection (h-10) of this Section. Training must be completed annually, and the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, may be conducted online or in person.

Training shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis;

(2) how to administer an epinephrine injector; and

(3) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine injector.

Training may also include, but is not limited to:

(A) a review of high-risk areas within a school and its related facilities;

(B) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(C) emergency follow-up procedures, including the importance of calling 9-1-1 or, if 9-1-1 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(D) how to respond to a student with a known allergy, as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy;

(E) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section; and

(F) any policy developed by the State Board of Education under Section 2-3.190 2-3.182.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State Board is not required to create new resource materials. The State Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act and the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose;

(2) information on drug overdose prevention and recognition;

(3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid overdose;

(5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration;

(6) the importance of calling 9-1-1 or, if 9-1-1 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(7) care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist;

(8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a dose of an opioid antagonist; and

(9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

(h-10) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to respiratory distress, including the administration of undesignated asthma medication, may be conducted online or in person. The training must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of respiratory distress and how to distinguish respiratory distress from anaphylaxis;

(2) how to respond to an emergency involving respiratory distress;

(3) asthma medication dosage and administration;

(4) the importance of calling 9-1-1 or, if 9-1-1 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(5) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize respiratory distress and administer asthma medication; and

(6) other criteria as determined in rules adopted under this Section.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the State Board.

If a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school maintains or has an independent contractor providing transportation to students who maintains a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors, then the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must report that information to the State Board of Education upon adoption or change of the policy of the school district, public school, charter school, nonpublic school, or independent contractor, in a manner as prescribed by the State Board. The report must include the number of undesignated epinephrine injectors in supply.

(i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school must report to the State Board of Education, in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid antagonist (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) the location where symptoms developed;

(3) the type of person administering the opioid antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and

(4) any other information required by the State Board.

(i-10) Within 3 days after the administration of undesignated asthma medication by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education, on a form and in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Education, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the asthma medication (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of asthma for the person;

(3) the trigger that precipitated respiratory distress, if identifiable;

(4) the location of where the symptoms developed;

(5) the number of doses administered;

(6) the type of person administering the asthma medication (school nurse, trained personnel, or student);

(7) the outcome of the asthma medication administration; and

(8) any other information required by the State Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of undesignated epinephrine and undesignated asthma medication administration during the preceding academic year. Beginning with the 2017 report, the report shall also contain information on which school districts, public schools, charter schools, and nonpublic schools maintain or have independent contractors providing transportation to students who maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(j-5) Annually, each school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall request an asthma action plan from the parents or guardians of a pupil with asthma. If provided, the asthma action plan must be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school administrator. Copies of the asthma action plan may be distributed to appropriate school staff who interact with the pupil on a regular basis, and, if applicable, may be attached to the pupil's federal Section 504 plan or individualized education program plan.

(j-10) To assist schools with emergency response procedures for asthma, the State Board of Education, in consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management and a statewide organization representing school administrators, shall develop a model asthma episode emergency response protocol before September 1, 2016. Each school district, charter school, and nonpublic school shall adopt an asthma episode emergency response protocol before January 1, 2017 that includes all of the components of the State Board's model protocol.

(j-15) Every 2 years, school personnel who work with pupils shall complete an in-person or online training program on the management of asthma, the prevention of asthma symptoms, and emergency response in the school setting. In consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials for educating school personnel about asthma and emergency response in the school setting.

(j-20) On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(l) Nothing in this Section shall limit the amount of epinephrine injectors that any type of school or student may carry or maintain a supply of.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-413, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-90)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on February 1, 2023)

Sec. 22-90. Whole Child Task Force.

(a) The General Assembly makes all of the following findings:

(1) The COVID-19 pandemic has exposed systemic inequities in American society. Students, educators, and families throughout this State have been deeply affected by the pandemic, and the impact of the pandemic will be felt for years to come. The negative consequences of the pandemic have impacted students and communities differently along the lines of race, income, language, and special needs. However, students in this State faced significant unmet physical health, mental health, and social and emotional needs even prior to the pandemic.

(2) The path to recovery requires a commitment from adults in this State to address our students cultural, physical, emotional, and mental health needs and to provide them with stronger and increased systemic support and intervention.

(3) It is well documented that trauma and toxic stress diminish a child's ability to thrive. Forms of childhood trauma and toxic stress include adverse childhood experiences, systemic racism, poverty, food and housing insecurity, and gender-based violence. The COVID-19 pandemic has exacerbated these issues and brought them into focus.

(4) It is estimated that, overall, approximately 40% of children in this State have experienced at least one adverse childhood experience and approximately 10% have experienced 3 or more adverse childhood experiences. However, the number of adverse childhood experiences is higher for Black and Hispanic children who are growing up in poverty. The COVID-19 pandemic has amplified the number of students who have experienced childhood trauma. Also, the COVID-19 pandemic has highlighted preexisting inequities in school disciplinary practices that disproportionately impact Black and Brown students. Research shows, for example, that girls of color are disproportionately impacted by trauma, adversity, and abuse, and instead of receiving the care and trauma-informed support they may need, many Black girls in particular face disproportionately harsh disciplinary measures.

(5) The cumulative effects of trauma and toxic stress adversely impact the physical health of students, as well as their ability to learn, form relationships, and self-regulate. If left unaddressed, these effects increase a student's risk for depression, alcoholism, anxiety, asthma, smoking, and suicide, all of which are risks that disproportionately affect Black youth and may lead to a host of medical diseases as an adult. Access to infant and early childhood mental health services is critical to ensure the social and emotional well-being of this State's youngest children, particularly those children who have experienced trauma.

(6) Although this State enacted measures through Public Act 100-105 to address the high rate of early care and preschool expulsions of infants, toddlers, and preschoolers and the disproportionately higher rate of expulsion for Black and Hispanic children, a recent study found a wide variation in the awareness, understanding, and compliance with the law by providers of early childhood care. Further work is needed to implement the law, which includes providing training to early childhood care providers to increase their understanding of the law, increasing the availability and access to infant and early childhood mental health services, and building aligned data collection systems to better understand expulsion rates and to allow for accurate reporting as required by the law.

(7) Many educators and schools in this State have embraced and implemented evidenced-based restorative justice and trauma-responsive and culturally relevant practices and interventions. However, the use of these interventions on students is often isolated or is implemented occasionally and only if the school has the appropriate leadership, resources, and partners available to engage seriously in this work. It would be malpractice to deny our students access to these practices and interventions, especially in the aftermath of a once-in-a-century pandemic.

(b) The Whole Child Task Force is created for the purpose of establishing an equitable, inclusive, safe, and supportive environment in all schools for every student in this State. The task force shall have all of the following goals, which means key steps have to be taken to ensure that every child in every school in this State has access to teachers, social workers, school leaders, support personnel, and others who have been trained in evidenced-based interventions and restorative practices:

(1) To create a common definition of a trauma-responsive school, a trauma-responsive district, and a trauma-responsive community.

(2) To outline the training and resources required to create and sustain a system of support for trauma-responsive schools, districts, and communities and to identify this State's role in that work, including recommendations concerning options for redirecting resources from school resource officers to classroom-based support.

(3) To identify or develop a process to conduct an analysis of the organizations that provide training in restorative practices, implicit bias, anti-racism, and trauma-responsive systems, mental health services, and social and emotional services to schools.

(4) To provide recommendations concerning the key data to be collected and reported to ensure that this State has a full and accurate understanding of the progress toward ensuring that all schools, including programs and providers of care to pre-kindergarten children, employ restorative, anti-racist, and trauma-responsive strategies and practices. The data collected must include information relating to the availability of trauma responsive support structures in schools as well as disciplinary practices employed on students in person or through other means, including during remote or blended learning. It should also include information on the use of, and funding for, school resource officers and other similar police personnel in school programs.

(5) To recommend an implementation timeline, including the key roles, responsibilities, and resources to advance this State toward a system in which every school, district, and community is progressing toward becoming trauma-responsive.

(6) To seek input and feedback from stakeholders, including parents, students, and educators, who reflect the diversity of this State.

(7) To recommend legislation, policies, and practices to prevent learning loss in students during periods of suspension and expulsion, including, but not limited to, remote instruction.

(c) Members of the Whole Child Task Force shall be appointed by the State Superintendent of Education. Members of this task force must represent the diversity of this State and possess the expertise needed to perform the work required to meet the goals of the task force set forth under subsection (a). Members of the task force shall include all of the following:

(1) One member of a statewide professional teachers' organization.

(2) One member of another statewide professional teachers' organization.

(3) One member who represents a school district serving a community with a population of 500,000 or more.

(4) One member of a statewide organization representing social workers.

(5) One member of an organization that has specific expertise in trauma-responsive school practices and experience in supporting schools in developing trauma-responsive and restorative practices.

(6) One member of another organization that has specific expertise in trauma-responsive school practices and experience in supporting schools in developing trauma-responsive and restorative practices.

(7) One member of a statewide organization that represents school administrators.

(8) One member of a statewide policy organization that works to build a healthy public education system that prepares all students for a successful college, career, and civic life.

(9) One member of a statewide organization that brings teachers together to identify and address issues critical to student success.

(10) One member of the General Assembly recommended by the President of the Senate.

(11) One member of the General Assembly recommended by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(12) One member of the General Assembly recommended by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(13) One member of the General Assembly recommended by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(14) One member of a civil rights organization that works actively on issues regarding student support.

(15) One administrator from a school district that has actively worked to develop a system of student support that uses a trauma-informed lens.

(16) One educator from a school district that has actively worked to develop a system of student support that uses a trauma-informed lens.

(17) One member of a youth-led organization.

(18) One member of an organization that has demonstrated expertise in restorative practices.

(19) One member of a coalition of mental health and school practitioners who assist schools in developing and implementing trauma-informed and restorative strategies and systems.

(20) One member of an organization whose mission is to promote the safety, health, and economic success of children, youth, and families in this State.

(21) One member who works or has worked as a restorative justice coach or disciplinarian.

(22) One member who works or has worked as a social worker.

(23) One member of the State Board of Education.

(24) One member who represents a statewide principals' organization.

(25) One member who represents a statewide organization of school boards.

(26) One member who has expertise in pre-kindergarten education.

(27) One member who represents a school social worker association.

(28) One member who represents an organization that represents school districts in the south suburbs.

(29) One member who is a licensed clinical psychologist who (A) has a doctor of philosophy in the field of clinical psychology and has an appointment at an independent free-standing children's hospital located in Chicago, (B) serves as associate professor at a medical school located in Chicago, and (C) serves as the clinical director of a coalition of voluntary collaboration of organizations that are committed to applying a trauma lens to their efforts on behalf of families and children in the State.

(30) One member who represents a west suburban school district.

(31) One member from a governmental agency who has expertise in child development and who is responsible for coordinating early childhood mental health programs and services.

(32) One member who has significant expertise in early childhood mental health and childhood trauma.

(33) One member who represents an organization that represents school districts in the collar counties.

(34) (31) One member who represents an organization representing regional offices of education.

(d) The Whole Child Task Force shall meet at the call of the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee, who shall serve as the chairperson. The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and other support to the task force. Members of the task force shall serve without compensation.

(e) The Whole Child Task Force shall submit a report of its findings and recommendations to the General Assembly, the Illinois Legislative Black Caucus, the State Board of Education, and the Governor on or before March 15, 2022. Upon submitting its report, the task force is dissolved.

(f) This Section is repealed on February 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-209, eff. 11-30-21 (See Section 5 of P.A. 102-671 for effective date of P.A. 102-209); 102-635, eff. 11-30-21 (See Section 10 of P.A. 102-671 for effective date of P.A. 102-635); 102-671, eff. 11-30-21; revised 1-5-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-91)

Sec. 22-91 22-90. Modification of athletic or team uniform; nonpublic schools.

(a) A nonpublic school recognized by the State Board of Education must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform for the purpose of modesty in clothing or attire that is in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the school for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits a school from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-92)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 22-92 22-90. Absenteeism and truancy policy.

(a) Each school district, charter school, or alternative school or any school receiving public funds shall develop and communicate to its students and their parent or guardian, on an annual basis, an absenteeism and truancy policy, including at least the following elements:

(1) A definition of a valid cause for absence in accordance with Section 26-2a of this Code.

(2) A description of diagnostic procedures to be used for identifying the causes of unexcused student absenteeism, which shall, at a minimum, include interviews with the student, his or her parent or guardian, and any school officials who may have information about the reasons for the student's attendance problem.

(3) The identification of supportive services to be made available to truant or chronically truant students. These services shall include, but need not be limited to, parent conferences, student counseling, family counseling, and information about existing community services that are available to truant and chronically truant students and relevant to their needs.

(4) Incorporation of the provisions relating to chronic absenteeism in accordance with Section 26-18 of this Code.

(b) The absenteeism and truancy policy must be updated every 2 years and filed with the State Board of Education and the regional superintendent of schools.

(Source: P.A. 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-93)

Sec. 22-93 22-90. School guidance counselor; gift ban.

(a) In this Section:

"Guidance counselor" means a person employed by a school district and working in a high school to offer students advice and assistance in making career or college plans.

"Prohibited source" means any person who is employed by an institution of higher education or is an agent or spouse of or an immediate family member living with a person employed by an institution of higher education.

"Relative" means an individual related to another as father, mother, son, daughter, brother, sister, uncle, aunt, great-aunt, great-uncle, first cousin, nephew, niece, husband, wife, grandfather, grandmother, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, stepfather, stepmother, stepson, stepdaughter, stepbrother, stepsister, half brother, or half sister or the father, mother, grandfather, or grandmother of the individual's spouse or the individual's fiance or fiancee.

(b) A guidance counselor may not intentionally solicit or accept any gift from a prohibited source or solicit or accept a gift that would be in violation of any federal or State statute or rule. A prohibited source may not intentionally offer or make a gift that violates this Section.

(c) The prohibition in subsection (b) does not apply to any of the following:

(1) Opportunities, benefits, and services that are available on the same conditions as for the general public.

(2) Anything for which the guidance counselor pays the market value.

(3) A gift from a relative.

(4) Anything provided by an individual on the basis of a personal friendship, unless the guidance counselor has reason to believe that, under the circumstances, the gift was provided because of the official position or employment of the guidance counselor and not because of the personal friendship. In determining whether a gift is provided on the basis of personal friendship, the guidance counselor must consider the circumstances in which the gift was offered, including any of the following:

(A) The history of the relationship between the individual giving the gift and the guidance counselor, including any previous exchange of gifts between those individuals.

(B) Whether, to the actual knowledge of the guidance counselor, the individual who gave the gift personally paid for the gift or sought a tax deduction or business reimbursement for the gift.

(C) Whether, to the actual knowledge of the guidance counselor, the individual who gave the gift also, at the same time, gave the same or a similar gift to other school district employees.

(5) Bequests, inheritances, or other transfers at death.

(6) Any item or items from any one prohibited source during any calendar year having a cumulative total value of less than $100.

(7) Promotional materials, including, but not limited to, pens, pencils, banners, posters, and pennants.

Each exception listed under this subsection is mutually exclusive and independent of one another.

(d) A guidance counselor is not in violation of this Section if he or she promptly takes reasonable action to return the gift to the prohibited source or donates the gift or an amount equal to its value to an appropriate charity that is exempt from income taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.

A guidance counselor or prohibited source who intentionally violates this Section is guilty of a business offense and is subject to a fine of at least $1,001 and up to $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 102-327, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-2) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Holidays.

(a) Teachers shall not be required to teach on Saturdays, nor, except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, shall teachers or other school employees, other than noncertificated school employees whose presence is necessary because of an emergency or for the continued operation and maintenance of school facilities or property, be required to work on legal school holidays, which are January 1, New Year's Day; the third Monday in January, the Birthday of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.; February 12, the Birthday of President Abraham Lincoln; the first Monday in March (to be known as Casimir Pulaski's birthday); Good Friday; the day designated as Memorial Day by federal law; June 19, Juneteenth National Freedom Day; July 4, Independence Day; the first Monday in September, Labor Day; the second Monday in October, Columbus Day; November 11, Veterans' Day; the Thursday in November commonly called Thanksgiving Day; and December 25, Christmas Day. School boards may grant special holidays whenever in their judgment such action is advisable. No deduction shall be made from the time or compensation of a school employee on account of any legal or special holiday.

(b) A school board or other entity eligible to apply for waivers and modifications under Section 2-3.25g of this Code is authorized to hold school or schedule teachers' institutes, parent-teacher conferences, or staff development on the third Monday in January (the Birthday of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.); February 12 (the Birthday of President Abraham Lincoln); the first Monday in March (known as Casimir Pulaski's birthday); the second Monday in October (Columbus Day); and November 11 (Veterans' Day), provided that:

(1) the person or persons honored by the holiday are recognized through instructional activities conducted on that day or, if the day is not used for student attendance, on the first school day preceding or following that day; and

(2) the entity that chooses to exercise this authority first holds a public hearing about the proposal. The entity shall provide notice preceding the public hearing to both educators and parents. The notice shall set forth the time, date, and place of the hearing, describe the proposal, and indicate that the entity will take testimony from educators and parents about the proposal.

(c) Commemorative holidays, which recognize specified patriotic, civic, cultural or historical persons, activities, or events, are regular school days. Commemorative holidays are: January 17 (the birthday of Muhammad Ali), January 28 (to be known as Christa McAuliffe Day and observed as a commemoration of space exploration), February 15 (the birthday of Susan B. Anthony), March 29 (Viet Nam War Veterans' Day), September 11 (September 11th Day of Remembrance), the school day immediately preceding Veterans' Day (Korean War Veterans' Day), October 1 (Recycling Day), October 7 (Iraq and Afghanistan Veterans Remembrance Day), December 7 (Pearl Harbor Veterans' Day), and any day so appointed by the President or Governor. School boards may establish commemorative holidays whenever in their judgment such action is advisable. School boards shall include instruction relative to commemorated persons, activities, or events on the commemorative holiday or at any other time during the school year and at any point in the curriculum when such instruction may be deemed appropriate. The State Board of Education shall prepare and make available to school boards instructional materials relative to commemorated persons, activities, or events which may be used by school boards in conjunction with any instruction provided pursuant to this paragraph.

(d) City of Chicago School District 299 shall observe March 4 of each year as a commemorative holiday. This holiday shall be known as Mayors' Day which shall be a day to commemorate and be reminded of the past Chief Executive Officers of the City of Chicago, and in particular the late Mayor Richard J. Daley and the late Mayor Harold Washington. If March 4 falls on a Saturday or Sunday, Mayors' Day shall be observed on the following Monday.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary, November 3, 2020 shall be a State holiday known as 2020 General Election Day and shall be observed throughout the State pursuant to this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. All government offices, with the exception of election authorities, shall be closed unless authorized to be used as a location for election day services or as a polling place.

Notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary, November 8, 2022 shall be a State holiday known as 2022 General Election Day and shall be observed throughout the State under Public Act 102-15 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 101-642, eff. 6-16-20; 102-14, eff. 1-1-22; 102-15, eff. 6-17-21; 102-334, eff. 8-9-21; 102-411, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-4-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)

Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age; exemptions. Whoever has custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or (ii) between the ages of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) beginning with the 2014-2015 school year shall cause such child to attend some public school in the district wherein the child resides the entire time it is in session during the regular school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during a required summer school program established under Section 10-22.33B; provided, that the following children shall not be required to attend the public schools:

1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school where children are taught the branches of education taught to children of corresponding age and grade in the public schools, and where the instruction of the child in the branches of education is in the English language;

2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to attend school, such disability being certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, or a Christian Science practitioner residing in this State and listed in the Christian Science Journal; or who is excused for temporary absence for cause by the principal or teacher of the school which the child attends, with absence for cause by illness being required to include the mental or behavioral health of the child for up to 5 days for which the child need not provide a medical note, in which case the child shall be given the opportunity to make up any school work missed during the mental or behavioral health absence and, after the second mental health day used, may be referred to the appropriate school support personnel; the exemptions in this paragraph (2) do not apply to any female who is pregnant or the mother of one or more children, except where a female is unable to attend school due to a complication arising from her pregnancy and the existence of such complication is certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician;

3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed according to the provisions of the law regulating child labor may be excused from attendance at school by the county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of the public school which the child should be attending, on certification of the facts by and the recommendation of the school board of the public school district in which the child resides. In districts having part-time continuation schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at least 8 hours each week;

4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in attendance at confirmation classes;

5. Any child absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the reason that he is unable to attend classes or to participate in any examination, study, or work requirements on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day because of religious reasons, including the observance of a religious holiday or participation in religious instruction, or because the tenets of his religion forbid secular activity on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day. A school board may require the parent or guardian of a child who is to be excused from attending school because of religious reasons to give notice, not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from attending school under this paragraph 5 shall not be required to submit a written excuse for such absence after returning to school. A district superintendent shall develop and distribute to schools appropriate procedures regarding a student's absence for religious reasons, how schools are notified of a student's impending absence for religious reasons, and the requirements of Section 26-2b of this Code;

6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii) is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B of this Code;

7. A child in any of grades 6 through 12 absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the purpose of sounding "Taps" at a military honors funeral held in this State for a deceased veteran. In order to be excused under this paragraph 7, the student shall notify the school's administration at least 2 days prior to the date of the absence and shall provide the school's administration with the date, time, and location of the military honors funeral. The school's administration may waive this 2-day notification requirement if the student did not receive at least 2 days advance notice, but the student shall notify the school's administration as soon as possible of the absence. A student whose absence is excused under this paragraph 7 shall be counted as if the student attended school for purposes of calculating the average daily attendance of students in the school district. A student whose absence is excused under this paragraph 7 must be allowed a reasonable time to make up school work missed during the absence. If the student satisfactorily completes the school work, the day of absence shall be counted as a day of compulsory attendance and he or she may not be penalized for that absence; and

8. Any child absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the reason that his or her parent or legal guardian is an active duty member of the uniformed services and has been called to duty for, is on leave from, or has immediately returned from deployment to a combat zone or combat-support postings. Such a student shall be granted 5 days of excused absences in any school year and, at the discretion of the school board, additional excused absences to visit the student's parent or legal guardian relative to such leave or deployment of the parent or legal guardian. In the case of excused absences pursuant to this paragraph 8, the student and parent or legal guardian shall be responsible for obtaining assignments from the student's teacher prior to any period of excused absence and for ensuring that such assignments are completed by the student prior to his or her return to school from such period of excused absence.

(Source: P.A. 102-266, eff. 1-1-22; 102-321, eff. 1-1-22; 102-406, eff. 8-19-21; revised 9-28-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-2a) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-2a)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 26-2a. A "truant" is defined as a child who is subject to compulsory school attendance and who is absent without valid cause, as defined under this Section, from such attendance for more than 1% but less than 5% of the past 180 school days.

"Valid cause" for absence shall be illness, including the mental or behavioral health of the student, observance of a religious holiday, death in the immediate family, or family emergency and shall include such other situations beyond the control of the student, as determined by the board of education in each district, or such other circumstances which cause reasonable concern to the parent for the mental, emotional, or physical health or safety of the student.

"Chronic or habitual truant" shall be defined as a child who is subject to compulsory school attendance and who is absent without valid cause from such attendance for 5% or more of the previous 180 regular attendance days.

"Truant minor" is defined as a chronic truant to whom supportive services, including prevention, diagnostic, intervention and remedial services, alternative programs and other school and community resources have been provided and have failed to result in the cessation of chronic truancy, or have been offered and refused.

A "dropout" is defined as any child enrolled in grades 9 through 12 whose name has been removed from the district enrollment roster for any reason other than the student's death, extended illness, removal for medical non-compliance, expulsion, aging out, graduation, or completion of a program of studies and who has not transferred to another public or private school and is not known to be home-schooled by his or her parents or guardians or continuing school in another country.

"Religion" for the purposes of this Article, includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-266, eff. 1-1-22; 102-321, eff. 1-1-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 26-2a. A "truant" is defined as a child who is subject to compulsory school attendance and who is absent without valid cause, as defined under this Section, from such attendance for more than 1% but less than 5% of the past 180 school days.

"Valid cause" for absence shall be illness, including the mental or behavioral health of the student, attendance at a verified medical or therapeutic appointment, appointment with a victim services provider, observance of a religious holiday, death in the immediate family, or family emergency and shall include such other situations beyond the control of the student, as determined by the board of education in each district, or such other circumstances which cause reasonable concern to the parent for the mental, emotional, or physical health or safety of the student. For purposes of a student who is an expectant parent, or parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence, "valid cause" for absence includes (i) the fulfillment of a parenting responsibility, including, but not limited to, arranging and providing child care, caring for a sick child, attending prenatal or other medical appointments for the expectant student, and attending medical appointments for a child, and (ii) addressing circumstances resulting from domestic or sexual violence, including, but not limited to, experiencing domestic or sexual violence, recovering from physical or psychological injuries, seeking medical attention, seeking services from a domestic or sexual violence organization, as defined in Article 26A, seeking psychological or other counseling, participating in safety planning, temporarily or permanently relocating, seeking legal assistance or remedies, or taking any other action to increase the safety or health of the student or to protect the student from future domestic or sexual violence. A school district may require a student to verify his or her claim of domestic or sexual violence under Section 26A-45 prior to the district approving a valid cause for an absence of 3 or more consecutive days that is related to domestic or sexual violence.

"Chronic or habitual truant" shall be defined as a child who is subject to compulsory school attendance and who is absent without valid cause from such attendance for 5% or more of the previous 180 regular attendance days.

"Truant minor" is defined as a chronic truant to whom supportive services, including prevention, diagnostic, intervention and remedial services, alternative programs and other school and community resources have been provided and have failed to result in the cessation of chronic truancy, or have been offered and refused.

A "dropout" is defined as any child enrolled in grades 9 through 12 whose name has been removed from the district enrollment roster for any reason other than the student's death, extended illness, removal for medical non-compliance, expulsion, aging out, graduation, or completion of a program of studies and who has not transferred to another public or private school and is not known to be home-schooled by his or her parents or guardians or continuing school in another country.

"Religion" for the purposes of this Article, includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-266, eff. 1-1-22; 102-321, eff. 1-1-22; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; revised 9-23-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-13) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-13)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-157)

Sec. 26-13. Absenteeism and truancy policies. School districts shall adopt policies, consistent with rules adopted by the State Board of Education, which identify the appropriate supportive services and available resources which are provided for truants and chronic truants.

(Source: P.A. 84-1420.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-157)

Sec. 26-13. Absenteeism and truancy policies. School districts shall adopt policies, consistent with rules adopted by the State Board of Education and Section 22-92 22-90, which identify the appropriate supportive services and available resources which are provided for truants and chronic truants.

(Source: P.A. 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.7)

Sec. 27-23.7. Bullying prevention.

(a) The General Assembly finds that a safe and civil school environment is necessary for students to learn and achieve and that bullying causes physical, psychological, and emotional harm to students and interferes with students' ability to learn and participate in school activities. The General Assembly further finds that bullying has been linked to other forms of antisocial behavior, such as vandalism, shoplifting, skipping and dropping out of school, fighting, using drugs and alcohol, sexual harassment, and sexual violence. Because of the negative outcomes associated with bullying in schools, the General Assembly finds that school districts, charter schools, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary and secondary schools should educate students, parents, and school district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school personnel about what behaviors constitute prohibited bullying.

Bullying on the basis of actual or perceived race, color, religion, sex, national origin, ancestry, age, marital status, physical or mental disability, military status, sexual orientation, gender-related identity or expression, unfavorable discharge from military service, association with a person or group with one or more of the aforementioned actual or perceived characteristics, or any other distinguishing characteristic is prohibited in all school districts, charter schools, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary and secondary schools. No student shall be subjected to bullying:

(1) during any school-sponsored education program or activity;

(2) while in school, on school property, on school buses or other school vehicles, at designated school bus stops waiting for the school bus, or at school-sponsored or school-sanctioned events or activities;

(3) through the transmission of information from a school computer, a school computer network, or other similar electronic school equipment; or

(4) through the transmission of information from a computer that is accessed at a nonschool-related location, activity, function, or program or from the use of technology or an electronic device that is not owned, leased, or used by a school district or school if the bullying causes a substantial disruption to the educational process or orderly operation of a school. This item (4) applies only in cases in which a school administrator or teacher receives a report that bullying through this means has occurred and does not require a district or school to staff or monitor any nonschool-related activity, function, or program.

(a-5) Nothing in this Section is intended to infringe upon any right to exercise free expression or the free exercise of religion or religiously based views protected under the First Amendment to the United States Constitution or under Section 3 of Article I of the Illinois Constitution.

(b) In this Section:

"Bullying" includes "cyber-bullying" and means any severe or pervasive physical or verbal act or conduct, including communications made in writing or electronically, directed toward a student or students that has or can be reasonably predicted to have the effect of one or more of the following:

(1) placing the student or students in reasonable fear of harm to the student's or students' person or property;

(2) causing a substantially detrimental effect on the student's or students' physical or mental health;

(3) substantially interfering with the student's or students' academic performance; or

(4) substantially interfering with the student's or students' ability to participate in or benefit from the services, activities, or privileges provided by a school.

Bullying, as defined in this subsection (b), may take various forms, including without limitation one or more of the following: harassment, threats, intimidation, stalking, physical violence, sexual harassment, sexual violence, theft, public humiliation, destruction of property, or retaliation for asserting or alleging an act of bullying. This list is meant to be illustrative and non-exhaustive.

"Cyber-bullying" means bullying through the use of technology or any electronic communication, including without limitation any transfer of signs, signals, writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic system, photoelectronic system, or photooptical system, including without limitation electronic mail, Internet communications, instant messages, or facsimile communications. "Cyber-bullying" includes the creation of a webpage or weblog in which the creator assumes the identity of another person or the knowing impersonation of another person as the author of posted content or messages if the creation or impersonation creates any of the effects enumerated in the definition of bullying in this Section. "Cyber-bullying" also includes the distribution by electronic means of a communication to more than one person or the posting of material on an electronic medium that may be accessed by one or more persons if the distribution or posting creates any of the effects enumerated in the definition of bullying in this Section.

"Policy on bullying" means a bullying prevention policy that meets the following criteria:

(1) Includes the bullying definition provided in this Section.

(2) Includes a statement that bullying is contrary to State law and the policy of the school district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school and is consistent with subsection (a-5) of this Section.

(3) Includes procedures for promptly reporting bullying, including, but not limited to, identifying and providing the school e-mail address (if applicable) and school telephone number for the staff person or persons responsible for receiving such reports and a procedure for anonymous reporting; however, this shall not be construed to permit formal disciplinary action solely on the basis of an anonymous report.

(4) Consistent with federal and State laws and rules governing student privacy rights, includes procedures for promptly informing parents or guardians of all students involved in the alleged incident of bullying and discussing, as appropriate, the availability of social work services, counseling, school psychological services, other interventions, and restorative measures.

(5) Contains procedures for promptly investigating and addressing reports of bullying, including the following:

(A) Making all reasonable efforts to complete the investigation within 10 school days after the date the report of the incident of bullying was received and taking into consideration additional relevant information received during the course of the investigation about the reported incident of bullying.

(B) Involving appropriate school support personnel and other staff persons with knowledge, experience, and training on bullying prevention, as deemed appropriate, in the investigation process.

(C) Notifying the principal or school administrator or his or her designee of the report of the incident of bullying as soon as possible after the report is received.

(D) Consistent with federal and State laws and rules governing student privacy rights, providing parents and guardians of the students who are parties to the investigation information about the investigation and an opportunity to meet with the principal or school administrator or his or her designee to discuss the investigation, the findings of the investigation, and the actions taken to address the reported incident of bullying.

(6) Includes the interventions that can be taken to address bullying, which may include, but are not limited to, school social work services, restorative measures, social-emotional skill building, counseling, school psychological services, and community-based services.

(7) Includes a statement prohibiting reprisal or retaliation against any person who reports an act of bullying and the consequences and appropriate remedial actions for a person who engages in reprisal or retaliation.

(8) Includes consequences and appropriate remedial actions for a person found to have falsely accused another of bullying as a means of retaliation or as a means of bullying.

(9) Is based on the engagement of a range of school stakeholders, including students and parents or guardians.

(10) Is posted on the school district's, charter school's, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school's existing Internet website, is included in the student handbook, and, where applicable, posted where other policies, rules, and standards of conduct are currently posted in the school and provided periodically throughout the school year to students and faculty, and is distributed annually to parents, guardians, students, and school personnel, including new employees when hired.

(11) As part of the process of reviewing and re-evaluating the policy under subsection (d) of this Section, contains a policy evaluation process to assess the outcomes and effectiveness of the policy that includes, but is not limited to, factors such as the frequency of victimization; student, staff, and family observations of safety at a school; identification of areas of a school where bullying occurs; the types of bullying utilized; and bystander intervention or participation. The school district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school may use relevant data and information it already collects for other purposes in the policy evaluation. The information developed as a result of the policy evaluation must be made available on the Internet website of the school district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school. If an Internet website is not available, the information must be provided to school administrators, school board members, school personnel, parents, guardians, and students.

(12) Is consistent with the policies of the school board, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school.

"Restorative measures" means a continuum of school-based alternatives to exclusionary discipline, such as suspensions and expulsions, that: (i) are adapted to the particular needs of the school and community, (ii) contribute to maintaining school safety, (iii) protect the integrity of a positive and productive learning climate, (iv) teach students the personal and interpersonal skills they will need to be successful in school and society, (v) serve to build and restore relationships among students, families, schools, and communities, (vi) reduce the likelihood of future disruption by balancing accountability with an understanding of students' behavioral health needs in order to keep students in school, and (vii) increase student accountability if the incident of bullying is based on religion, race, ethnicity, or any other category that is identified in the Illinois Human Rights Act.

"School personnel" means persons employed by, on contract with, or who volunteer in a school district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school, including without limitation school and school district administrators, teachers, school social workers, school counselors, school psychologists, school nurses, cafeteria workers, custodians, bus drivers, school resource officers, and security guards.

(c) (Blank).

(d) Each school district, charter school, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school shall create, maintain, and implement a policy on bullying, which policy must be filed with the State Board of Education. The policy or implementing procedure shall include a process to investigate whether a reported act of bullying is within the permissible scope of the district's or school's jurisdiction and shall require that the district or school provide the victim with information regarding services that are available within the district and community, such as counseling, support services, and other programs. School personnel available for help with a bully or to make a report about bullying shall be made known to parents or legal guardians, students, and school personnel. Every 2 years, each school district, charter school, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school shall conduct a review and re-evaluation of its policy and make any necessary and appropriate revisions. The policy must be filed with the State Board of Education after being updated. The State Board of Education shall monitor and provide technical support for the implementation of policies created under this subsection (d).

(e) This Section shall not be interpreted to prevent a victim from seeking redress under any other available civil or criminal law.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-241, eff. 8-3-21; revised 10-18-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.15)

Sec. 27-23.15. Computer science.

(a) In this Section, "computer science" means the study of computers and algorithms, including their principles, their hardware and software designs, their implementation, and their impact on society. "Computer science" does not include the study of everyday uses of computers and computer applications, such as keyboarding or accessing the Internet.

(b) Beginning with the 2023-2024 school year, the school board of a school district that maintains any of grades 9 through 12 shall provide an opportunity for every high school student to take at least one computer science course aligned to rigorous learning standards of the State Board of Education.

(Source: P.A. 101-654, eff. 3-8-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.16)

Sec. 27-23.16 27-23.15. Study of the process of naturalization. Every public high school may include in its curriculum a unit of instruction about the process of naturalization by which a foreign citizen or foreign national becomes a U.S. citizen. The course of instruction shall include content from the components of the naturalization test administered by the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services. Each school board shall determine the minimum amount of instructional time under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-472, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-157 and P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3), in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3).

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291), a charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291) or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board of Education.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Section 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code; and

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code; and

(19) (18) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code; .

(20) (19) Section 10-22.25b of this Code; .

(21) (19) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) (20) Section 27-9.1b of this Code; and

(23) (21) Section 34-18.8 of this Code; .

(25) (19) Section 2-3.188 of this Code; and

(26) (20) Section 22-85.5 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the State Board or Commission, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 101-50, eff. 7-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-291, eff. 1-1-20; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-543, eff. 8-23-19; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; revised 12-21-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-157 but before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3), in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3).

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291), a charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291) or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board of Education.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code; and

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code; and

(19) (18) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code; .

(20) (19) Section 10-22.25b of this Code; .

(21) (19) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) (20) Section 27-9.1b of this Code; and

(23) (21) Section 34-18.8 of this Code; .

(25) (19) Section 2-3.188 of this Code; and

(26) (20) Section 22-85.5 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the State Board or Commission, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 101-50, eff. 7-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-291, eff. 1-1-20; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-543, eff. 8-23-19; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; revised 12-21-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3), in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3).

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act. No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291), a charter school's board of directors or other governing body must include at least one parent or guardian of a pupil currently enrolled in the charter school who may be selected through the charter school or a charter network election, appointment by the charter school's board of directors or other governing body, or by the charter school's Parent Teacher Organization or its equivalent.

(c-5) No later than January 1, 2021 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 101-291) or within the first year of his or her first term, every voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 4 hours of professional development leadership training to ensure that each member has sufficient familiarity with the board's or governing body's role and responsibilities, including financial oversight and accountability of the school, evaluating the principal's and school's performance, adherence to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act, and compliance with education and labor law. In each subsequent year of his or her term, a voting member of a charter school's board of directors or other governing body shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of professional development training in these same areas. The training under this subsection may be provided or certified by a statewide charter school membership association or may be provided or certified by other qualified providers approved by the State Board of Education.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs, including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. The contractor shall not be an employee of the charter school or affiliated with the charter school or its authorizer in any way, other than to audit the charter school's finances. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code;

(14) Sections 22-90 and 26-18 of this Code;

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code;

(16) Sections 24-12 and 34-85 of this Code; and

(17) the Seizure Smart School Act;

(18) Section 2-3.64a-10 of this Code; and

(19) (18) Sections 10-20.73 and 34-21.9 of this Code; .

(20) (19) Section 10-22.25b of this Code; .

(21) (19) Section 27-9.1a of this Code;

(22) (20) Section 27-9.1b of this Code; and

(23) (21) Section 34-18.8 of this Code; .

(24) (19) Article 26A of this Code; .

(25) (19) Section 2-3.188 of this Code; and

(26) (20) Section 22-85.5 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the State Board or Commission, then the charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 101-50, eff. 7-1-20; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-291, eff. 1-1-20; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-543, eff. 8-23-19; 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; 102-157, eff. 7-1-22; 102-360, eff. 1-1-22; 102-445, eff. 8-20-21; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; revised 12-21-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/29-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 29-5)

Sec. 29-5. Reimbursement by State for transportation. Any school district, maintaining a school, transporting resident pupils to another school district's vocational program, offered through a joint agreement approved by the State Board of Education, as provided in Section 10-22.22 or transporting its resident pupils to a school which meets the standards for recognition as established by the State Board of Education which provides transportation meeting the standards of safety, comfort, convenience, efficiency and operation prescribed by the State Board of Education for resident pupils in kindergarten or any of grades 1 through 12 who: (a) reside at least 1 1/2 miles as measured by the customary route of travel, from the school attended; or (b) reside in areas where conditions are such that walking constitutes a hazard to the safety of the child when determined under Section 29-3; and (c) are transported to the school attended from pick-up points at the beginning of the school day and back again at the close of the school day or transported to and from their assigned attendance centers during the school day, shall be reimbursed by the State as hereinafter provided in this Section.

The State will pay the prorated allowable cost of transporting eligible pupils less the real equalized assessed valuation as computed under paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15 in a dual school district maintaining secondary grades 9 to 12 inclusive times a qualifying rate of .05%; in elementary school districts maintaining grades K to 8 times a qualifying rate of .06%; and in unit districts maintaining grades K to 12, including partial elementary unit districts formed pursuant to Article 11E, times a qualifying rate of .07%. To be eligible to receive reimbursement in excess of 4/5 of the cost to transport eligible pupils, a school district or partial elementary unit district formed pursuant to Article 11E shall have a Transportation Fund tax rate of at least .12%. The Transportation Fund tax rate for a partial elementary unit district formed pursuant Article 11E shall be the combined elementary and high school rates pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 18-8.15. If a school district or partial elementary unit district formed pursuant to Article 11E does not have a .12% Transportation Fund tax rate, the amount of its claim in excess of 4/5 of the cost of transporting pupils shall be reduced by the sum arrived at by subtracting the Transportation Fund tax rate from .12% and multiplying that amount by the district's real equalized assessed valuation as computed under paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15, provided that in no case shall said reduction result in reimbursement of less than 4/5 of the cost to transport eligible pupils.

The minimum amount to be received by a district is $16 times the number of eligible pupils transported.

When calculating the reimbursement for transportation costs, the State Board of Education may not deduct the number of pupils enrolled in early education programs from the number of pupils eligible for reimbursement if the pupils enrolled in the early education programs are transported at the same time as other eligible pupils.

Any such district transporting resident pupils during the school day to an area vocational school or another school district's vocational program more than 1 1/2 miles from the school attended, as provided in Sections 10-22.20a and 10-22.22, shall be reimbursed by the State for 4/5 of the cost of transporting eligible pupils.

School day means that period of time during which the pupil is required to be in attendance for instructional purposes.

If a pupil is at a location within the school district other than his residence for child care purposes at the time for transportation to school, that location may be considered for purposes of determining the 1 1/2 miles from the school attended.

Claims for reimbursement that include children who attend any school other than a public school shall show the number of such children transported.

Claims for reimbursement under this Section shall not be paid for the transportation of pupils for whom transportation costs are claimed for payment under other Sections of this Act.

The allowable direct cost of transporting pupils for regular, vocational, and special education pupil transportation shall be limited to the sum of the cost of physical examinations required for employment as a school bus driver; the salaries of full-time or part-time drivers and school bus maintenance personnel; employee benefits excluding Illinois municipal retirement payments, social security payments, unemployment insurance payments and workers' compensation insurance premiums; expenditures to independent carriers who operate school buses; payments to other school districts for pupil transportation services; pre-approved contractual expenditures for computerized bus scheduling; expenditures for housing assistance and homeless prevention under Sections 1-17 and 1-18 of the Education for Homeless Children Act that are not in excess of the school district's actual costs for providing transportation services and are not otherwise claimed in another State or federal grant that permits those costs to a parent, a legal guardian, any other person who enrolled a pupil, or a homeless assistance agency that is part of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act's continuum of care for the area in which the district is located; the cost of gasoline, oil, tires, and other supplies necessary for the operation of school buses; the cost of converting buses' gasoline engines to more fuel efficient engines or to engines which use alternative energy sources; the cost of travel to meetings and workshops conducted by the regional superintendent or the State Superintendent of Education pursuant to the standards established by the Secretary of State under Section 6-106 of the Illinois Vehicle Code to improve the driving skills of school bus drivers; the cost of maintenance of school buses including parts and materials used; expenditures for leasing transportation vehicles, except interest and service charges; the cost of insurance and licenses for transportation vehicles; expenditures for the rental of transportation equipment; plus a depreciation allowance of 20% for 5 years for school buses and vehicles approved for transporting pupils to and from school and a depreciation allowance of 10% for 10 years for other transportation equipment so used. Each school year, if a school district has made expenditures to the Regional Transportation Authority or any of its service boards, a mass transit district, or an urban transportation district under an intergovernmental agreement with the district to provide for the transportation of pupils and if the public transit carrier received direct payment for services or passes from a school district within its service area during the 2000-2001 school year, then the allowable direct cost of transporting pupils for regular, vocational, and special education pupil transportation shall also include the expenditures that the district has made to the public transit carrier. In addition to the above allowable costs, school districts shall also claim all transportation supervisory salary costs, including Illinois municipal retirement payments, and all transportation related building and building maintenance costs without limitation.

Special education allowable costs shall also include expenditures for the salaries of attendants or aides for that portion of the time they assist special education pupils while in transit and expenditures for parents and public carriers for transporting special education pupils when pre-approved by the State Superintendent of Education.

Indirect costs shall be included in the reimbursement claim for districts which own and operate their own school buses. Such indirect costs shall include administrative costs, or any costs attributable to transporting pupils from their attendance centers to another school building for instructional purposes. No school district which owns and operates its own school buses may claim reimbursement for indirect costs which exceed 5% of the total allowable direct costs for pupil transportation.

The State Board of Education shall prescribe uniform regulations for determining the above standards and shall prescribe forms of cost accounting and standards of determining reasonable depreciation. Such depreciation shall include the cost of equipping school buses with the safety features required by law or by the rules, regulations and standards promulgated by the State Board of Education, and the Department of Transportation for the safety and construction of school buses provided, however, any equipment cost reimbursed by the Department of Transportation for equipping school buses with such safety equipment shall be deducted from the allowable cost in the computation of reimbursement under this Section in the same percentage as the cost of the equipment is depreciated.

On or before August 15, annually, the chief school administrator for the district shall certify to the State Superintendent of Education the district's claim for reimbursement for the school year ending on June 30 next preceding. The State Superintendent of Education shall check and approve the claims and prepare the vouchers showing the amounts due for district reimbursement claims. Each fiscal year, the State Superintendent of Education shall prepare and transmit the first 3 vouchers to the Comptroller on the 30th day of September, December and March, respectively, and the final voucher, no later than June 20.

If the amount appropriated for transportation reimbursement is insufficient to fund total claims for any fiscal year, the State Board of Education shall reduce each school district's allowable costs and flat grant amount proportionately to make total adjusted claims equal the total amount appropriated.

For purposes of calculating claims for reimbursement under this Section for any school year beginning July 1, 2016, the equalized assessed valuation for a school district or partial elementary unit district formed pursuant to Article 11E used to compute reimbursement shall be the real equalized assessed valuation as computed under paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15.

All reimbursements received from the State shall be deposited into the district's transportation fund or into the fund from which the allowable expenditures were made.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a payment under this Section or under Section 14-7.02, 14-7.02b, or 14-13.01 of this Code may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year or from State aid pursuant to Section 18-8.15 of this Code as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referenced in this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any payments or general State aid to be classified under this paragraph and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to that funding program, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of providing services.

Any school district with a population of not more than 500,000 must deposit all funds received under this Article into the transportation fund and use those funds for the provision of transportation services.

(Source: P.A. 102-539, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-29-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-2.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-2.1)

Sec. 34-2.1. Local school councils; composition; voter eligibility; elections; terms.

(a) Beginning with the first local school council election that occurs after December 3, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-677) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, a local school council shall be established for each attendance center within the school district, including public small schools within the district. Each local school council shall consist of the following 12 voting members: the principal of the attendance center, 2 teachers employed and assigned to perform the majority of their employment duties at the attendance center, 6 parents of students currently enrolled at the attendance center, one employee of the school district employed and assigned to perform the majority of his or her employment duties at the attendance center who is not a teacher, and 2 community residents. Neither the parents nor the community residents who serve as members of the local school council shall be employees of the Board of Education. In each secondary attendance center, the local school council shall consist of 13 voting members through the 2020-2021 school year, the 12 voting members described above and one full-time student member, and 15 voting members beginning with the 2021-2022 school year, the 12 voting members described above and 3 full-time student members, appointed as provided in subsection (m) below. In each attendance center enrolling students in 7th and 8th grade, one full-time student member shall be appointed as provided in subsection (m) of this Section. In the event that the chief executive officer of the Chicago School Reform Board of Trustees determines that a local school council is not carrying out its financial duties effectively, the chief executive officer is authorized to appoint a representative of the business community with experience in finance and management to serve as an advisor to the local school council for the purpose of providing advice and assistance to the local school council on fiscal matters. The advisor shall have access to relevant financial records of the local school council. The advisor may attend executive sessions. The chief executive officer shall issue a written policy defining the circumstances under which a local school council is not carrying out its financial duties effectively.

(b) Within 7 days of January 11, 1991, the Mayor shall appoint the members and officers (a Chairperson who shall be a parent member and a Secretary) of each local school council who shall hold their offices until their successors shall be elected and qualified. Members so appointed shall have all the powers and duties of local school councils as set forth in Public Act 86-1477. The Mayor's appointments shall not require approval by the City Council.

The membership of each local school council shall be encouraged to be reflective of the racial and ethnic composition of the student population of the attendance center served by the local school council.

(c) Beginning with the 1995-1996 school year and in every even-numbered year thereafter, the Board shall set second semester Parent Report Card Pick-up Day for Local School Council elections and may schedule elections at year-round schools for the same dates as the remainder of the school system. Elections shall be conducted as provided herein by the Board of Education in consultation with the local school council at each attendance center.

(c-5) Notwithstanding subsection (c), for the local school council election set for the 2019-2020 school year, the Board may hold the election on the first semester Parent Report Card Pick-up Day of the 2020-2021 school year, making any necessary modifications to the election process or date to comply with guidance from the Department of Public Health and the federal Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The terms of office of all local school council members eligible to serve and seated on or after March 23, 2020 through January 10, 2021 are extended through January 10, 2021, provided that the members continue to meet eligibility requirements for local school council membership.

(d) Beginning with the 1995-96 school year, the following procedures shall apply to the election of local school council members at each attendance center:

(i) The elected members of each local school council shall consist of the 6 parent members and the 2 community resident members.

(ii) Each elected member shall be elected by the eligible voters of that attendance center to serve for a two-year term commencing on July 1 immediately following the election described in subsection (c), except that the terms of members elected to a local school council under subsection (c-5) shall commence on January 11, 2021 and end on July 1, 2022. Eligible voters for each attendance center shall consist of the parents and community residents for that attendance center.

(iii) Each eligible voter shall be entitled to cast one vote for up to a total of 5 candidates, irrespective of whether such candidates are parent or community resident candidates.

(iv) Each parent voter shall be entitled to vote in the local school council election at each attendance center in which he or she has a child currently enrolled. Each community resident voter shall be entitled to vote in the local school council election at each attendance center for which he or she resides in the applicable attendance area or voting district, as the case may be.

(v) Each eligible voter shall be entitled to vote once, but not more than once, in the local school council election at each attendance center at which the voter is eligible to vote.

(vi) The 2 teacher members and the non-teacher employee member of each local school council shall be appointed as provided in subsection (l) below each to serve for a two-year term coinciding with that of the elected parent and community resident members. From March 23, 2020 through January 10, 2021, the chief executive officer or his or her designee may make accommodations to fill the vacancy of a teacher or non-teacher employee member of a local school council.

(vii) At secondary attendance centers and attendance centers enrolling students in 7th and 8th grade, the voting student members shall be appointed as provided in subsection (m) below to serve for a one-year term coinciding with the beginning of the terms of the elected parent and community members of the local school council. For the 2020-2021 school year, the chief executive officer or his or her designee may make accommodations to fill the vacancy of a student member of a local school council.

(e) The Council shall publicize the date and place of the election by posting notices at the attendance center, in public places within the attendance boundaries of the attendance center and by distributing notices to the pupils at the attendance center, and shall utilize such other means as it deems necessary to maximize the involvement of all eligible voters.

(f) Nomination. The Council shall publicize the opening of nominations by posting notices at the attendance center, in public places within the attendance boundaries of the attendance center and by distributing notices to the pupils at the attendance center, and shall utilize such other means as it deems necessary to maximize the involvement of all eligible voters. Not less than 2 weeks before the election date, persons eligible to run for the Council shall submit their name, date of birth, social security number, if available, and some evidence of eligibility to the Council. The Council shall encourage nomination of candidates reflecting the racial/ethnic population of the students at the attendance center. Each person nominated who runs as a candidate shall disclose, in a manner determined by the Board, any economic interest held by such person, by such person's spouse or children, or by each business entity in which such person has an ownership interest, in any contract with the Board, any local school council or any public school in the school district. Each person nominated who runs as a candidate shall also disclose, in a manner determined by the Board, if he or she ever has been convicted of any of the offenses specified in subsection (c) of Section 34-18.5; provided that neither this provision nor any other provision of this Section shall be deemed to require the disclosure of any information that is contained in any law enforcement record or juvenile court record that is confidential or whose accessibility or disclosure is restricted or prohibited under Section 5-901 or 5-905 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Failure to make such disclosure shall render a person ineligible for election or to serve on the local school council. The same disclosure shall be required of persons under consideration for appointment to the Council pursuant to subsections (l) and (m) of this Section.

(f-5) Notwithstanding disclosure, a person who has been convicted of any of the following offenses at any time shall be ineligible for election or appointment to a local school council and ineligible for appointment to a local school council pursuant to subsections (l) and (m) of this Section: (i) those defined in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4, 11-16, 11-17.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16, or subdivision (a)(2) of Section 11-14.3, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or (ii) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses. Notwithstanding disclosure, a person who has been convicted of any of the following offenses within the 10 years previous to the date of nomination or appointment shall be ineligible for election or appointment to a local school council: (i) those defined in Section 401.1, 405.1, or 405.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or (ii) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses.

Immediately upon election or appointment, incoming local school council members shall be required to undergo a criminal background investigation, to be completed prior to the member taking office, in order to identify any criminal convictions under the offenses enumerated in Section 34-18.5. The investigation shall be conducted by the Illinois State Police in the same manner as provided for in Section 34-18.5. However, notwithstanding Section 34-18.5, the social security number shall be provided only if available. If it is determined at any time that a local school council member or member-elect has been convicted of any of the offenses enumerated in this Section or failed to disclose a conviction of any of the offenses enumerated in Section 34-18.5, the general superintendent shall notify the local school council member or member-elect of such determination and the local school council member or member-elect shall be removed from the local school council by the Board, subject to a hearing, convened pursuant to Board rule, prior to removal.

(g) At least one week before the election date, the Council shall publicize, in the manner provided in subsection (e), the names of persons nominated for election.

(h) Voting shall be in person by secret ballot at the attendance center between the hours of 6:00 a.m. and 7:00 p.m.

(i) Candidates receiving the highest number of votes shall be declared elected by the Council. In cases of a tie, the Council shall determine the winner by lottery.

(j) The Council shall certify the results of the election and shall publish the results in the minutes of the Council.

(k) The general superintendent shall resolve any disputes concerning election procedure or results and shall ensure that, except as provided in subsections (e) and (g), no resources of any attendance center shall be used to endorse or promote any candidate.

(l) Beginning with the first local school council election that occurs after December 3, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-677) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, in every even numbered year, the Board shall appoint 2 teacher members to each local school council. These appointments shall be made in the following manner:

(i) The Board shall appoint 2 teachers who are employed and assigned to perform the majority of their employment duties at the attendance center to serve on the local school council of the attendance center for a two-year term coinciding with the terms of the elected parent and community members of that local school council. These appointments shall be made from among those teachers who are nominated in accordance with subsection (f).

(ii) A non-binding, advisory poll to ascertain the preferences of the school staff regarding appointments of teachers to the local school council for that attendance center shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures used to elect parent and community Council representatives. At such poll, each member of the school staff shall be entitled to indicate his or her preference for up to 2 candidates from among those who submitted statements of candidacy as described above. These preferences shall be advisory only and the Board shall maintain absolute discretion to appoint teacher members to local school councils, irrespective of the preferences expressed in any such poll. Prior to the appointment of staff members to local school councils, the Board shall make public the vetting process of staff member candidates. Any staff member seeking candidacy shall be allowed to make an inquiry to the Board to determine if the Board may deny the appointment of the staff member. An inquiry made to the Board shall be made in writing in accordance with Board procedure.

(iii) In the event that a teacher representative is unable to perform his or her employment duties at the school due to illness, disability, leave of absence, disciplinary action, or any other reason, the Board shall declare a temporary vacancy and appoint a replacement teacher representative to serve on the local school council until such time as the teacher member originally appointed pursuant to this subsection (l) resumes service at the attendance center or for the remainder of the term. The replacement teacher representative shall be appointed in the same manner and by the same procedures as teacher representatives are appointed in subdivisions (i) and (ii) of this subsection (l).

(m) Beginning with the 1995-1996 school year through the 2020-2021 school year, the Board shall appoint one student member to each secondary attendance center. Beginning with the 2021-2022 school year and for every school year thereafter, the Board shall appoint 3 student members to the local school council of each secondary attendance center and one student member to the local school council of each attendance center enrolling students in 7th and 8th grade. Students enrolled in grade 6 or above are eligible to be candidates for a local school council. No attendance center enrolling students in 7th and 8th grade may have more than one student member, unless the attendance center enrolls students in grades 7 through 12, in which case the attendance center may have a total of 3 student members on the local school council. The Board may establish criteria for students to be considered eligible to serve as a student member. These appointments shall be made in the following manner:

(i) Appointments shall be made from among those students who submit statements of candidacy to the principal of the attendance center, such statements to be submitted commencing on the first day of the twentieth week of school and continuing for 2 weeks thereafter. The form and manner of such candidacy statements shall be determined by the Board.

(ii) During the twenty-second week of school in every year, the principal of each attendance center shall conduct a binding election to ascertain the preferences of the school students regarding the appointment of students to the local school council for that attendance center. At such election, each student shall be entitled to indicate his or her preference for up to one candidate from among those who submitted statements of candidacy as described above. The Board shall promulgate rules to ensure that these elections are conducted in a fair and equitable manner and maximize the involvement of all school students. In the case of a tie vote, the local school council shall determine the winner by lottery. The preferences expressed in these elections s shall be transmitted by the principal to the Board. These preferences shall be binding on the Board.

(iii) (Blank).

(n) The Board may promulgate such other rules and regulations for election procedures as may be deemed necessary to ensure fair elections.

(o) In the event that a vacancy occurs during a member's term, the Council shall appoint a person eligible to serve on the Council to fill the unexpired term created by the vacancy, except that any teacher or non-teacher staff vacancy shall be filled by the Board after considering the preferences of the school staff as ascertained through a non-binding advisory poll of school staff. In the case of a student vacancy, the vacancy shall be filled by the preferences of an election poll of students.

(p) If less than the specified number of persons is elected within each candidate category, the newly elected local school council shall appoint eligible persons to serve as members of the Council for 2-year terms, as provided in subsection (c-5) of Section 34-2.2 of this Code.

(q) The Board shall promulgate rules regarding conflicts of interest and disclosure of economic interests which shall apply to local school council members and which shall require reports or statements to be filed by Council members at regular intervals with the Secretary of the Board. Failure to comply with such rules or intentionally falsifying such reports shall be grounds for disqualification from local school council membership. A vacancy on the Council for disqualification may be so declared by the Secretary of the Board. Rules regarding conflicts of interest and disclosure of economic interests promulgated by the Board shall apply to local school council members. No less than 45 days prior to the deadline, the general superintendent shall provide notice, by mail, to each local school council member of all requirements and forms for compliance with economic interest statements.

(r) (1) If a parent member of a local school council ceases to have any child enrolled in the attendance center governed by the Local School Council due to the graduation or voluntary transfer of a child or children from the attendance center, the parent's membership on the Local School Council and all voting rights are terminated immediately as of the date of the child's graduation or voluntary transfer. If the child of a parent member of a local school council dies during the member's term in office, the member may continue to serve on the local school council for the balance of his or her term. Further, a local school council member may be removed from the Council by a majority vote of the Council as provided in subsection (c) of Section 34-2.2 if the Council member has missed 3 consecutive regular meetings, not including committee meetings, or 5 regular meetings in a 12-month period, not including committee meetings. If a parent member of a local school council ceases to be eligible to serve on the Council for any other reason, he or she shall be removed by the Board subject to a hearing, convened pursuant to Board rule, prior to removal. A vote to remove a Council member by the local school council shall only be valid if the Council member has been notified personally or by certified mail, mailed to the person's last known address, of the Council's intent to vote on the Council member's removal at least 7 days prior to the vote. The Council member in question shall have the right to explain his or her actions and shall be eligible to vote on the question of his or her removal from the Council. The provisions of this subsection shall be contained within the petitions used to nominate Council candidates.

(2) A person may continue to serve as a community resident member of a local school council as long as he or she resides in the attendance area served by the school and is not employed by the Board nor is a parent of a student enrolled at the school. If a community resident member ceases to be eligible to serve on the Council, he or she shall be removed by the Board subject to a hearing, convened pursuant to Board rule, prior to removal.

(3) A person may continue to serve as a staff member of a local school council as long as he or she is employed and assigned to perform a majority of his or her duties at the school, provided that if the staff representative resigns from employment with the Board or voluntarily transfers to another school, the staff member's membership on the local school council and all voting rights are terminated immediately as of the date of the staff member's resignation or upon the date of the staff member's voluntary transfer to another school. If a staff member of a local school council ceases to be eligible to serve on a local school council for any other reason, that member shall be removed by the Board subject to a hearing, convened pursuant to Board rule, prior to removal.

(s) As used in this Section only, "community resident" means a person, 17 years of age or older, residing within an attendance area served by a school, excluding any person who is a parent of a student enrolled in that school; provided that with respect to any multi-area school, community resident means any person, 17 years of age or older, residing within the voting district established for that school pursuant to Section 34-2.1c, excluding any person who is a parent of a student enrolled in that school. This definition does not apply to any provisions concerning school boards.

(Source: P.A. 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 102-194, eff. 7-30-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-677, eff. 12-3-21; revised 1-9-22.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-4.5)

Sec. 34-4.5. Chronic truants.

(a) Socio-emotional focused attendance intervention. The chief executive officer or the chief executive officer's designee shall implement a socio-emotional focused attendance approach that targets the underlying causes of chronic truancy. For each pupil identified as a chronic truant, as defined in Section 26-2a of this Code, the board may establish an individualized student attendance plan to identify and resolve the underlying cause of the pupil's chronic truancy.

(b) Notices. Prior to the implementation of any truancy intervention services pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section, the principal of the school attended by the pupil or the principal's designee shall notify the pupil's parent or guardian by personal visit, letter, or telephone of each unexcused absence of the pupil. After giving the parent or guardian notice of the tenth unexcused absence of the pupil, the principal or the principal's designee shall send the pupil's parent or guardian a letter, by certified mail, return receipt requested, notifying the parent or guardian that he or she is subjecting himself or herself to truancy intervention services as provided under subsection (d) of this Section.

(c) (Blank).

(d) Truancy intervention services. The chief executive officer or the chief executive officer's designee may require the pupil or the pupil's parent or guardian or both the pupil and the pupil's parent or guardian to do any or all of the following: complete a parenting education program; obtain counseling or other supportive services; and comply with an individualized educational plan or service plan as provided by appropriate school officials. If the parent or guardian of the chronic truant shows that he or she took reasonable steps to ensure attendance of the pupil at school, he or she shall not be required to perform services.

(e) Non-compliance with services. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, if a pupil determined by the chief executive officer or the chief executive officer's designee to be a chronic truant or the parent or guardian of the pupil fails to fully participate in the services offered under subsection (d) of this Section, the chief executive officer or the chief executive officer's designee may refer the matter to the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or any other applicable organization or State agency for socio-emotional based intervention and prevention services. Additionally, if the circumstances regarding a pupil identified as a chronic truant reasonably indicate that the pupil may be subject to abuse or neglect, apart from truancy, the chief executive officer or the chief executive officer's designee must report any findings that support suspected abuse or neglect to the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. A State agency that receives a referral may enter into a data sharing agreement with the school district to share applicable student referral and case data. A State agency that receives a referral from the school district shall implement an intake process that may include a consent form that allows the agency to share information with the school district..

(f) Limitation on applicability. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to a parent or guardian of a pupil not required to attend a public school pursuant to Section 26-1.

(Source: P.A. 102-456, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-6-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.5) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18.5)

Sec. 34-18.5. Criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) Licensed and nonlicensed applicants for employment with the school district are required as a condition of employment to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check to determine if such applicants have been convicted of any disqualifying, enumerated criminal or drug offense in subsection (c) of this Section or have been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State. Authorization for the check shall be furnished by the applicant to the school district, except that if the applicant is a substitute teacher seeking employment in more than one school district, or a teacher seeking concurrent part-time employment positions with more than one school district (as a reading specialist, special education teacher or otherwise), or an educational support personnel employee seeking employment positions with more than one district, any such district may require the applicant to furnish authorization for the check to the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which are located the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee. Upon receipt of this authorization, the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent, as the case may be, shall submit the applicant's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The regional superintendent submitting the requisite information to the Illinois State Police shall promptly notify the school districts in which the applicant is seeking employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee that the check of the applicant has been requested. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the school board for the school district that requested the check, or to the regional superintendent who requested the check. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district or the appropriate regional superintendent a fee for conducting such check, which fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the cost of the inquiry; and the applicant shall not be charged a fee for such check by the school district or by the regional superintendent. Subject to appropriations for these purposes, the State Superintendent of Education shall reimburse the school district and regional superintendent for fees paid to obtain criminal history records checks under this Section.

(a-5) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(a-6) The school district or regional superintendent shall further perform a check of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Community Notification Law, for each applicant. The check of the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database must be conducted by the school district or regional superintendent once for every 5 years that an applicant remains employed by the school district.

(b) Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the board of education or the regional superintendent shall be confidential and may only be transmitted to the general superintendent of the school district or his designee, the appropriate regional superintendent if the check was requested by the board of education for the school district, the presidents of the appropriate board of education or school boards if the check was requested from the Illinois State Police by the regional superintendent, the State Board of Education and the school district as authorized under subsection (b-5), the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board or any other person necessary to the decision of hiring the applicant for employment. A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police shall be provided to the applicant for employment. Upon the check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the school district or regional superintendent shall notify an applicant as to whether or not the applicant has been identified in the Database. If a check of an applicant for employment as a substitute or concurrent part-time teacher or concurrent educational support personnel employee in more than one school district was requested by the regional superintendent, and the Illinois State Police upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and so notifies the regional superintendent and if the regional superintendent upon a check ascertains that the applicant has not been identified in the Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, then the regional superintendent shall issue to the applicant a certificate evidencing that as of the date specified by the Illinois State Police the applicant has not been convicted of any of the enumerated criminal or drug offenses in subsection (c) of this Section or has not been convicted, within 7 years of the application for employment with the school district, of any other felony under the laws of this State or of any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would have been punishable as a felony under the laws of this State and evidencing that as of the date that the regional superintendent conducted a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, the applicant has not been identified in the Database. The school board of any school district may rely on the certificate issued by any regional superintendent to that substitute teacher, concurrent part-time teacher, or concurrent educational support personnel employee or may initiate its own criminal history records check of the applicant through the Illinois State Police and its own check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database as provided in this Section. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(b-5) If a criminal history records check or check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database is performed by a regional superintendent for an applicant seeking employment as a substitute teacher with the school district, the regional superintendent may disclose to the State Board of Education whether the applicant has been issued a certificate under subsection (b) based on those checks. If the State Board receives information on an applicant under this subsection, then it must indicate in the Educator Licensure Information System for a 90-day period that the applicant has been issued or has not been issued a certificate.

(c) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of 21B-80. Further, the board of education shall not knowingly employ a person who has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of any minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. As a condition of employment, the board of education must consider the status of a person who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(d) The board of education shall not knowingly employ a person for whom a criminal history records check and a Statewide Sex Offender Database check have not been initiated.

(e) Within 10 days after the general superintendent of schools, a regional office of education, or an entity that provides background checks of license holders to public schools receives information of a pending criminal charge against a license holder for an offense set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code, the superintendent, regional office of education, or entity must notify the State Superintendent of Education of the pending criminal charge.

No later than 15 business days after receipt of a record of conviction or of checking the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database or the Statewide Sex Offender Database and finding a registration, the general superintendent of schools or the applicable regional superintendent shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any license holder who has been convicted of a crime set forth in Section 21B-80 of this Code. Upon receipt of the record of a conviction of or a finding of child abuse by a holder of any license issued pursuant to Article 21B or Section 34-8.1 or 34-83 of this Code, the State Superintendent of Education may initiate licensure suspension and revocation proceedings as authorized by law. If the receipt of the record of conviction or finding of child abuse is received within 6 months after the initial grant of or renewal of a license, the State Superintendent of Education may rescind the license holder's license.

(e-5) The general superintendent of schools shall, in writing, notify the State Superintendent of Education of any license holder whom he or she has reasonable cause to believe has committed an intentional act of abuse or neglect with the result of making a child an abused child or a neglected child, as defined in Section 3 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and that act resulted in the license holder's dismissal or resignation from the school district and must include the Illinois Educator Identification Number (IEIN) of the license holder and a brief description of the misconduct alleged. This notification must be submitted within 30 days after the dismissal or resignation. The license holder must also be contemporaneously sent a copy of the notice by the superintendent. All correspondence, documentation, and other information so received by the State Superintendent of Education, the State Board of Education, or the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board under this subsection (e-5) is confidential and must not be disclosed to third parties, except (i) as necessary for the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee to investigate and prosecute pursuant to Article 21B of this Code, (ii) pursuant to a court order, (iii) for disclosure to the license holder or his or her representative, or (iv) as otherwise provided in this Article and provided that any such information admitted into evidence in a hearing is exempt from this confidentiality and non-disclosure requirement. Except for an act of willful or wanton misconduct, any superintendent who provides notification as required in this subsection (e-5) shall have immunity from any liability, whether civil or criminal or that otherwise might result by reason of such action.

(f) After March 19, 1990, the provisions of this Section shall apply to all employees of persons or firms holding contracts with any school district including, but not limited to, food service workers, school bus drivers and other transportation employees, who have direct, daily contact with the pupils of any school in such district. For purposes of criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database on employees of persons or firms holding contracts with more than one school district and assigned to more than one school district, the regional superintendent of the educational service region in which the contracting school districts are located may, at the request of any such school district, be responsible for receiving the authorization for a criminal history records check prepared by each such employee and submitting the same to the Illinois State Police and for conducting a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database for each employee. Any information concerning the record of conviction and identification as a sex offender of any such employee obtained by the regional superintendent shall be promptly reported to the president of the appropriate school board or school boards.

(f-5) Upon request of a school or school district, any information obtained by the school district pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section within the last year must be made available to the requesting school or school district.

(g) Prior to the commencement of any student teaching experience or required internship (which is referred to as student teaching in this Section) in the public schools, a student teacher is required to authorize a fingerprint-based criminal history records check. Authorization for and payment of the costs of the check must be furnished by the student teacher to the school district. Upon receipt of this authorization and payment, the school district shall submit the student teacher's name, sex, race, date of birth, social security number, fingerprint images, and other identifiers, as prescribed by the Illinois State Police, to the Illinois State Police. The Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall furnish, pursuant to a fingerprint-based criminal history records check, records of convictions, forever and hereinafter, until expunged, to the president of the board. The Illinois State Police shall charge the school district a fee for conducting the check, which fee must not exceed the cost of the inquiry and must be deposited into the State Police Services Fund. The school district shall further perform a check of the Statewide Sex Offender Database, as authorized by the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, and of the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database, as authorized by the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act, for each student teacher. The board may not knowingly allow a person to student teach for whom a criminal history records check, a Statewide Sex Offender Database check, and a Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database check have not been completed and reviewed by the district.

A copy of the record of convictions obtained from the Illinois State Police must be provided to the student teacher. Any information concerning the record of convictions obtained by the president of the board is confidential and may only be transmitted to the general superintendent of schools or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education, the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, or, for clarification purposes, the Illinois State Police or the Statewide Sex Offender Database or Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database. Any unauthorized release of confidential information may be a violation of Section 7 of the Criminal Identification Act.

The board may not knowingly allow a person to student teach who has been convicted of any offense that would subject him or her to license suspension or revocation pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 21B-80 of this Code, except as provided under subsection (b) of Section 21B-80. Further, the board may not allow a person to student teach if he or she has been found to be the perpetrator of sexual or physical abuse of a minor under 18 years of age pursuant to proceedings under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The board must consider the status of a person to student teach who has been issued an indicated finding of abuse or neglect of a child by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act or by a child welfare agency of another jurisdiction.

(h) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-72, eff. 7-12-19; 101-531, eff. 8-23-19; 101-643, eff. 6-18-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-552, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-18-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.8) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-18.8)

Sec. 34-18.8. HIV training. School counselors, nurses, teachers, school social workers, and other school personnel who work with students shall be trained to have a basic knowledge of matters relating to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), including the nature of the infection, its causes and effects, the means of detecting it and preventing its transmission, the availability of appropriate sources of counseling and referral, and any other medically accurate information that is age and developmentally appropriate for such students. The Board of Education shall supervise such training. The State Board of Education and the Department of Public Health shall jointly develop standards for such training.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-522, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-18-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.67)

Sec. 34-18.67. Student identification; suicide prevention information. The school district shall provide contact information for the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline and for the Crisis Text Line on the back of each student identification card issued by the school district. If the school district does not issue student identification cards to its students or to all of its students, the school district must publish this information on its website.

(Source: P.A. 102-134, eff. 7-23-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.71)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 34-18.71 34-18.67. Parent-teacher conference and other meetings; caseworker. For any student who is in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services, the liaison appointed under Section 34-18.52 must inform the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services of a parent-teacher conference or any other meeting concerning the student that would otherwise involve a parent and must, at the option of the caseworker, allow the student's caseworker to attend the conference or meeting.

(Source: P.A. 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.72)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 34-18.72 34-18.67. Website accessibility guidelines.

(a) As used in this Section, "Internet website or web service" means any third party online curriculum that is made available to enrolled students or the public by the school district through the Internet.

(b) To ensure that the content available on an Internet website or web service of the school district is readily accessible to persons with disabilities, the school district must require that the Internet website or web service comply with Level AA of the World Wide Web Consortium's Web Content Accessibility Guidelines 2.1 or any revised version of those guidelines.

(Source: P.A. 102-238, eff. 8-1-22; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.73)

Sec. 34-18.73 34-18.67. Parental notification of student discipline.

(a) In this Section, "misconduct" means an incident that involves offensive touching, a physical altercation, or the use of violence.

(b) If a student commits an act or acts of misconduct involving offensive touching, a physical altercation, or the use of violence, the student's school shall provide written notification of that misconduct to the parent or guardian of the student.

(c) If a student makes a written statement to a school employee relating to an act or acts of misconduct, whether the student is engaging in the act or acts or is targeted by the act or acts, the school shall provide the written statement to the student's parent or guardian, upon request and in accordance with federal and State laws and rules governing school student records.

(d) If the parent or guardian of a student involved in an act or acts of misconduct, whether the student is engaging in the act or acts or is targeted by the act or acts, requests a synopsis of any statement made by the parent's or guardian's child, the school shall provide any existing records responsive to that request, in accordance with federal and State laws and rules governing school student records.

(e) A school shall make reasonable attempts to provide a copy of any disciplinary report resulting from an investigation into a student's act or acts of misconduct to the parent or guardian of the student receiving disciplinary action, including any and all restorative justice measures, within 2 school days after the completion of the report. The disciplinary report shall include all of the following:

(1) A description of the student's act or acts of misconduct that resulted in disciplinary action. The names and any identifying information of any other student or students involved must be redacted from or not included in the report, in accordance with federal and State student privacy laws and rules.

(2) A description of the disciplinary action, if any, imposed on the parent's or guardian's child, including the duration of the disciplinary action.

(3) The school's justification and rationale for the disciplinary action imposed on the parent's or guardian's child, including reference to the applicable student discipline policies, procedures, or guidelines.

(4) A description of the restorative justice measures, if any, used on the parent's or guardian's child.

(Source: P.A. 102-251, eff. 8-6-21; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.74)

Sec. 34-18.74 34-18.67. School support personnel reporting. No later than December 1, 2022 and each December 1st annually thereafter, the school district must report to the State Board of Education the information with regard to the school district as of October 1st of each year beginning in 2022 as described in subsection (b) of Section 2-3.182 of this Code and must make that information available on its website.

(Source: P.A. 102-302, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.75)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 34-18.75 34-18.67. Identification cards; suicide prevention information. If the school district issues an identification card to pupils in any of grades 6 through 12, the district shall provide contact information for the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline (988), the Crisis Text Line, and either the Safe2Help Illinois helpline or a local suicide prevention hotline or both on the identification card. The contact information shall identify each helpline that may be contacted through text messaging. The contact information shall be included in the school's student handbook and also the student planner if a student planner is custom printed by the school for distribution to pupils in any of grades 6 through 12.

(Source: P.A. 102-416, eff. 7-1-22; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.76)

Sec. 34-18.76 34-18.67. Student absence; pregnancy. The board shall adopt written policies related to absences and missed homework or classwork assignments as a result of or related to a student's pregnancy.

(Source: P.A. 102-471, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-19-21.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-21.9)

Sec. 34-21.9. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits a school from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-20-21.)

Section 315. The Illinois School Student Records Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 6 as follows:

(105 ILCS 10/2) (from Ch. 122, par. 50-2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-199 and 102-466)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act:

(a) "Student" means any person enrolled or previously enrolled in a school.

(b) "School" means any public preschool, day care center, kindergarten, nursery, elementary or secondary educational institution, vocational school, special educational facility or any other elementary or secondary educational agency or institution and any person, agency or institution which maintains school student records from more than one school, but does not include a private or non-public school.

(c) "State Board" means the State Board of Education.

(d) "School Student Record" means any writing or other recorded information concerning a student and by which a student may be individually identified, maintained by a school or at its direction or by an employee of a school, regardless of how or where the information is stored. The following shall not be deemed school student records under this Act: writings or other recorded information maintained by an employee of a school or other person at the direction of a school for his or her exclusive use; provided that all such writings and other recorded information are destroyed not later than the student's graduation or permanent withdrawal from the school; and provided further that no such records or recorded information may be released or disclosed to any person except a person designated by the school as a substitute unless they are first incorporated in a school student record and made subject to all of the provisions of this Act. School student records shall not include information maintained by law enforcement professionals working in the school.

(e) "Student Permanent Record" means the minimum personal information necessary to a school in the education of the student and contained in a school student record. Such information may include the student's name, birth date, address, grades and grade level, parents' names and addresses, attendance records, and such other entries as the State Board may require or authorize.

(f) "Student Temporary Record" means all information contained in a school student record but not contained in the student permanent record. Such information may include family background information, intelligence test scores, aptitude test scores, psychological and personality test results, teacher evaluations, and other information of clear relevance to the education of the student, all subject to regulations of the State Board. The information shall include information provided under Section 8.6 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and information contained in service logs maintained by a local education agency under subsection (d) of Section 14-8.02f of the School Code. In addition, the student temporary record shall include information regarding serious disciplinary infractions that resulted in expulsion, suspension, or the imposition of punishment or sanction. For purposes of this provision, serious disciplinary infractions means: infractions involving drugs, weapons, or bodily harm to another.

(g) "Parent" means a person who is the natural parent of the student or other person who has the primary responsibility for the care and upbringing of the student. All rights and privileges accorded to a parent under this Act shall become exclusively those of the student upon his 18th birthday, graduation from secondary school, marriage or entry into military service, whichever occurs first. Such rights and privileges may also be exercised by the student at any time with respect to the student's permanent school record.

(Source: P.A. 101-515, eff. 8-23-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-199 but before amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act:

(a) "Student" means any person enrolled or previously enrolled in a school.

(b) "School" means any public preschool, day care center, kindergarten, nursery, elementary or secondary educational institution, vocational school, special educational facility or any other elementary or secondary educational agency or institution and any person, agency or institution which maintains school student records from more than one school, but does not include a private or non-public school.

(c) "State Board" means the State Board of Education.

(d) "School Student Record" means any writing or other recorded information concerning a student and by which a student may be individually identified, maintained by a school or at its direction or by an employee of a school, regardless of how or where the information is stored. The following shall not be deemed school student records under this Act: writings or other recorded information maintained by an employee of a school or other person at the direction of a school for his or her exclusive use; provided that all such writings and other recorded information are destroyed not later than the student's graduation or permanent withdrawal from the school; and provided further that no such records or recorded information may be released or disclosed to any person except a person designated by the school as a substitute unless they are first incorporated in a school student record and made subject to all of the provisions of this Act. School student records shall not include information maintained by law enforcement professionals working in the school.

(e) "Student Permanent Record" means the minimum personal information necessary to a school in the education of the student and contained in a school student record. Such information may include the student's name, birth date, address, grades and grade level, parents' names and addresses, attendance records, and such other entries as the State Board may require or authorize.

(f) "Student Temporary Record" means all information contained in a school student record but not contained in the student permanent record. Such information may include family background information, intelligence test scores, aptitude test scores, psychological and personality test results, teacher evaluations, and other information of clear relevance to the education of the student, all subject to regulations of the State Board. The information shall include information provided under Section 8.6 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and information contained in service logs maintained by a local education agency under subsection (d) of Section 14-8.02f of the School Code. In addition, the student temporary record shall include information regarding serious disciplinary infractions that resulted in expulsion, suspension, or the imposition of punishment or sanction. For purposes of this provision, serious disciplinary infractions means: infractions involving drugs, weapons, or bodily harm to another.

(g) "Parent" means a person who is the natural parent of the student or other person who has the primary responsibility for the care and upbringing of the student. All rights and privileges accorded to a parent under this Act shall become exclusively those of the student upon his 18th birthday, graduation from secondary school, marriage or entry into military service, whichever occurs first. Such rights and privileges may also be exercised by the student at any time with respect to the student's permanent school record.

(h) "Department" means the Department of Children and Family Services.

(Source: P.A. 101-515, eff. 8-23-19; 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-466)

Sec. 2. As used in this Act:

(a) "Student" means any person enrolled or previously enrolled in a school.

(b) "School" means any public preschool, day care center, kindergarten, nursery, elementary or secondary educational institution, vocational school, special educational facility or any other elementary or secondary educational agency or institution and any person, agency or institution which maintains school student records from more than one school, but does not include a private or non-public school.

(c) "State Board" means the State Board of Education.

(d) "School Student Record" means any writing or other recorded information concerning a student and by which a student may be individually identified, maintained by a school or at its direction or by an employee of a school, regardless of how or where the information is stored. The following shall not be deemed school student records under this Act: writings or other recorded information maintained by an employee of a school or other person at the direction of a school for his or her exclusive use; provided that all such writings and other recorded information are destroyed not later than the student's graduation or permanent withdrawal from the school; and provided further that no such records or recorded information may be released or disclosed to any person except a person designated by the school as a substitute unless they are first incorporated in a school student record and made subject to all of the provisions of this Act. School student records shall not include information maintained by law enforcement professionals working in the school.

(e) "Student Permanent Record" means the minimum personal information necessary to a school in the education of the student and contained in a school student record. Such information may include the student's name, birth date, address, grades and grade level, parents' names and addresses, attendance records, and such other entries as the State Board may require or authorize.

(f) "Student Temporary Record" means all information contained in a school student record but not contained in the student permanent record. Such information may include family background information, intelligence test scores, aptitude test scores, psychological and personality test results, teacher evaluations, and other information of clear relevance to the education of the student, all subject to regulations of the State Board. The information shall include all of the following:

(1) Information provided under Section 8.6 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and information contained in service logs maintained by a local education agency under subsection (d) of Section 14-8.02f of the School Code.

(2) Information regarding serious disciplinary infractions that resulted in expulsion, suspension, or the imposition of punishment or sanction. For purposes of this provision, serious disciplinary infractions means: infractions involving drugs, weapons, or bodily harm to another.

(3) Information concerning a student's status and related experiences as a parent, expectant parent, or victim of domestic or sexual violence, as defined in Article 26A of the School Code, including a statement of the student or any other documentation, record, or corroborating evidence and the fact that the student has requested or obtained assistance, support, or services related to that status. Enforcement of this paragraph (3) shall follow the procedures provided in Section 26A-40 of the School Code.

(g) "Parent" means a person who is the natural parent of the student or other person who has the primary responsibility for the care and upbringing of the student. All rights and privileges accorded to a parent under this Act shall become exclusively those of the student upon his 18th birthday, graduation from secondary school, marriage or entry into military service, whichever occurs first. Such rights and privileges may also be exercised by the student at any time with respect to the student's permanent school record.

(h) "Department" means the Department of Children and Family Services.

(Source: P.A. 101-515, eff. 8-23-19; 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; 102-466, eff. 7-1-25; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-8-21.)

(105 ILCS 10/6) (from Ch. 122, par. 50-6)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-199)

Sec. 6. (a) No school student records or information contained therein may be released, transferred, disclosed or otherwise disseminated, except as follows:

(1) to a parent or student or person specifically designated as a representative by a parent, as provided in paragraph (a) of Section 5;

(2) to an employee or official of the school or school district or State Board with current demonstrable educational or administrative interest in the student, in furtherance of such interest;

(3) to the official records custodian of another school within Illinois or an official with similar responsibilities of a school outside Illinois, in which the student has enrolled, or intends to enroll, upon the request of such official or student;

(4) to any person for the purpose of research, statistical reporting, or planning, provided that such research, statistical reporting, or planning is permissible under and undertaken in accordance with the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. 1232g);

(5) pursuant to a court order, provided that the parent shall be given prompt written notice upon receipt of such order of the terms of the order, the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released in compliance with such order and an opportunity to inspect and copy the school student records and to challenge their contents pursuant to Section 7;

(6) to any person as specifically required by State or federal law;

(6.5) to juvenile authorities when necessary for the discharge of their official duties who request information prior to adjudication of the student and who certify in writing that the information will not be disclosed to any other party except as provided under law or order of court. For purposes of this Section "juvenile authorities" means: (i) a judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge; (ii) parties to the proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and their attorneys; (iii) probation officers and court appointed advocates for the juvenile authorized by the judge hearing the case; (iv) any individual, public or private agency having custody of the child pursuant to court order; (v) any individual, public or private agency providing education, medical or mental health service to the child when the requested information is needed to determine the appropriate service or treatment for the minor; (vi) any potential placement provider when such release is authorized by the court for the limited purpose of determining the appropriateness of the potential placement; (vii) law enforcement officers and prosecutors; (viii) adult and juvenile prisoner review boards; (ix) authorized military personnel; (x) individuals authorized by court;

(7) subject to regulations of the State Board, in connection with an emergency, to appropriate persons if the knowledge of such information is necessary to protect the health or safety of the student or other persons;

(8) to any person, with the prior specific dated written consent of the parent designating the person to whom the records may be released, provided that at the time any such consent is requested or obtained, the parent shall be advised in writing that he has the right to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5, to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7 and to limit any such consent to designated records or designated portions of the information contained therein;

(9) to a governmental agency, or social service agency contracted by a governmental agency, in furtherance of an investigation of a student's school attendance pursuant to the compulsory student attendance laws of this State, provided that the records are released to the employee or agent designated by the agency;

(10) to those SHOCAP committee members who fall within the meaning of "state and local officials and authorities", as those terms are used within the meaning of the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, for the purposes of identifying serious habitual juvenile offenders and matching those offenders with community resources pursuant to Section 5-145 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but only to the extent that the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act;

(11) to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in furtherance of the requirements of Section 2-3.131, 3-14.29, 10-28, or 34-18.26 of the School Code or Section 10 of the School Breakfast and Lunch Program Act; or

(12) to the State Board or another State government agency or between or among State government agencies in order to evaluate or audit federal and State programs or perform research and planning, but only to the extent that the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. 1232g); or .

(13) under Under an intergovernmental agreement if an elementary school district and a high school district have attendance boundaries that overlap and are parties to an intergovernmental agreement that allows the sharing of student records and information between the districts. However, the sharing of student information is allowed under an intergovernmental agreement only if the intergovernmental agreement meets all of the following requirements:

(A) The sharing of student information must be voluntary and at the discretion of each school district that is a party to the agreement.

(B) The sharing of student information applies only to students who have been enrolled in both districts or would be enrolled in both districts based on district attendance boundaries, and the student's parent or guardian has expressed in writing that the student intends to enroll or has enrolled in the high school district.

(C) The sharing of student information does not exceed the scope of information that is shared among schools in a unit school district. However, the terms of an intergovernmental agreement may place further limitations on the information that is allowed to be shared.

(b) No information may be released pursuant to subparagraph (3) or (6) of paragraph (a) of this Section 6 unless the parent receives prior written notice of the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released, and an opportunity to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5 and to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7. Provided, however, that such notice shall be sufficient if published in a local newspaper of general circulation or other publication directed generally to the parents involved where the proposed release of information is pursuant to subparagraph (6) of paragraph (a) of this Section 6 and relates to more than 25 students.

(c) A record of any release of information pursuant to this Section must be made and kept as a part of the school student record and subject to the access granted by Section 5. Such record of release shall be maintained for the life of the school student records and shall be available only to the parent and the official records custodian. Each record of release shall also include:

(1) the nature and substance of the information released;

(2) the name and signature of the official records custodian releasing such information;

(3) the name of the person requesting such information, the capacity in which such a request has been made, and the purpose of such request;

(4) the date of the release; and

(5) a copy of any consent to such release.

(d) Except for the student and his parents, no person to whom information is released pursuant to this Section and no person specifically designated as a representative by a parent may permit any other person to have access to such information without a prior consent of the parent obtained in accordance with the requirements of subparagraph (8) of paragraph (a) of this Section.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the publication of student directories which list student names, addresses and other identifying information and similar publications which comply with regulations issued by the State Board.

(Source: P.A. 102-557, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-199)

Sec. 6. (a) No school student records or information contained therein may be released, transferred, disclosed or otherwise disseminated, except as follows:

(1) to a parent or student or person specifically designated as a representative by a parent, as provided in paragraph (a) of Section 5;

(2) to an employee or official of the school or school district or State Board with current demonstrable educational or administrative interest in the student, in furtherance of such interest;

(3) to the official records custodian of another school within Illinois or an official with similar responsibilities of a school outside Illinois, in which the student has enrolled, or intends to enroll, upon the request of such official or student;

(4) to any person for the purpose of research, statistical reporting, or planning, provided that such research, statistical reporting, or planning is permissible under and undertaken in accordance with the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. 1232g);

(5) pursuant to a court order, provided that the parent shall be given prompt written notice upon receipt of such order of the terms of the order, the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released in compliance with such order and an opportunity to inspect and copy the school student records and to challenge their contents pursuant to Section 7;

(6) to any person as specifically required by State or federal law;

(6.5) to juvenile authorities when necessary for the discharge of their official duties who request information prior to adjudication of the student and who certify in writing that the information will not be disclosed to any other party except as provided under law or order of court. For purposes of this Section "juvenile authorities" means: (i) a judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge; (ii) parties to the proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and their attorneys; (iii) probation officers and court appointed advocates for the juvenile authorized by the judge hearing the case; (iv) any individual, public or private agency having custody of the child pursuant to court order; (v) any individual, public or private agency providing education, medical or mental health service to the child when the requested information is needed to determine the appropriate service or treatment for the minor; (vi) any potential placement provider when such release is authorized by the court for the limited purpose of determining the appropriateness of the potential placement; (vii) law enforcement officers and prosecutors; (viii) adult and juvenile prisoner review boards; (ix) authorized military personnel; (x) individuals authorized by court;

(7) subject to regulations of the State Board, in connection with an emergency, to appropriate persons if the knowledge of such information is necessary to protect the health or safety of the student or other persons;

(8) to any person, with the prior specific dated written consent of the parent designating the person to whom the records may be released, provided that at the time any such consent is requested or obtained, the parent shall be advised in writing that he has the right to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5, to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7 and to limit any such consent to designated records or designated portions of the information contained therein;

(9) to a governmental agency, or social service agency contracted by a governmental agency, in furtherance of an investigation of a student's school attendance pursuant to the compulsory student attendance laws of this State, provided that the records are released to the employee or agent designated by the agency;

(10) to those SHOCAP committee members who fall within the meaning of "state and local officials and authorities", as those terms are used within the meaning of the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, for the purposes of identifying serious habitual juvenile offenders and matching those offenders with community resources pursuant to Section 5-145 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but only to the extent that the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act;

(11) to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in furtherance of the requirements of Section 2-3.131, 3-14.29, 10-28, or 34-18.26 of the School Code or Section 10 of the School Breakfast and Lunch Program Act;

(12) to the State Board or another State government agency or between or among State government agencies in order to evaluate or audit federal and State programs or perform research and planning, but only to the extent that the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. 1232g); or

(12.5) (13) if the student is in the legal custody of the Department of Children and Family Services, to the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services; or .

(13) under Under an intergovernmental agreement if an elementary school district and a high school district have attendance boundaries that overlap and are parties to an intergovernmental agreement that allows the sharing of student records and information between the districts. However, the sharing of student information is allowed under an intergovernmental agreement only if the intergovernmental agreement meets all of the following requirements:

(A) The sharing of student information must be voluntary and at the discretion of each school district that is a party to the agreement.

(B) The sharing of student information applies only to students who have been enrolled in both districts or would be enrolled in both districts based on district attendance boundaries, and the student's parent or guardian has expressed in writing that the student intends to enroll or has enrolled in the high school district.

(C) The sharing of student information does not exceed the scope of information that is shared among schools in a unit school district. However, the terms of an intergovernmental agreement may place further limitations on the information that is allowed to be shared.

(b) No information may be released pursuant to subparagraph (3) or (6) of paragraph (a) of this Section 6 unless the parent receives prior written notice of the nature and substance of the information proposed to be released, and an opportunity to inspect and copy such records in accordance with Section 5 and to challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7. Provided, however, that such notice shall be sufficient if published in a local newspaper of general circulation or other publication directed generally to the parents involved where the proposed release of information is pursuant to subparagraph (6) of paragraph (a) of this Section 6 and relates to more than 25 students.

(c) A record of any release of information pursuant to this Section must be made and kept as a part of the school student record and subject to the access granted by Section 5. Such record of release shall be maintained for the life of the school student records and shall be available only to the parent and the official records custodian. Each record of release shall also include:

(1) the nature and substance of the information released;

(2) the name and signature of the official records custodian releasing such information;

(3) the name of the person requesting such information, the capacity in which such a request has been made, and the purpose of such request;

(4) the date of the release; and

(5) a copy of any consent to such release.

(d) Except for the student and his or her parents or, if applicable, the Department's Office of Education and Transition Services, no person to whom information is released pursuant to this Section and no person specifically designated as a representative by a parent may permit any other person to have access to such information without a prior consent of the parent obtained in accordance with the requirements of subparagraph (8) of paragraph (a) of this Section.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the publication of student directories which list student names, addresses and other identifying information and similar publications which comply with regulations issued by the State Board.

(Source: P.A. 102-199, eff. 7-1-22; 102-557, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

Section 320. The Higher Education Veterans Service Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(110 ILCS 49/15)

Sec. 15. Survey; coordinator; best practices report; best efforts.

(a) All public colleges and universities shall, within 60 days after the effective date of this Act, conduct a survey of the services and programs that are provided for veterans, active duty military personnel, and their families, at each of their respective campuses. This survey shall enumerate and fully describe the service or program that is available, the number of veterans or active duty personnel using the service or program, an estimated range for potential use within a 5-year and 10-year period, information on the location of the service or program, and how its administrators may be contacted. The survey shall indicate the manner or manners in which a student veteran may avail himself or herself of the program's services. This survey must be made available to all veterans matriculating at the college or university in the form of an orientation-related guidebook.

Each public college and university shall make the survey available on the homepage of all campus Internet links as soon as practical after the completion of the survey. As soon as possible after the completion of the survey, each public college and university shall provide a copy of its survey to the following:

(1) the Board of Higher Education;

(2) the Department of Veterans' Affairs;

(3) the President and Minority Leader of the Senate and the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives; and

(4) the Governor.

(b) Each public college and university shall, at its discretion, (i) appoint, within 6 months after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of this Act), an existing employee or (ii) hire a new employee to serve as a Coordinator of Veterans and Military Personnel Student Services on each campus of the college or university that has an onsite, daily, full-time student headcount above 1,000 students.

The Coordinator of Veterans and Military Personnel Student Services shall be an ombudsperson serving the specific needs of student veterans and military personnel and their families and shall serve as an advocate before the administration of the college or university for the needs of student veterans. The college or university shall enable the Coordinator of Veterans and Military Personnel Student Services to communicate directly with the senior executive administration of the college or university periodically. The college or university shall retain unfettered discretion to determine the organizational management structure of its institution.

In addition to any responsibilities the college or university may assign, the Coordinator of Veterans and Military Personnel Student Services shall make its best efforts to create a centralized source for student veterans and military personnel to learn how to receive all benefit programs and services for which they are eligible.

Each college and university campus that is required to have a Coordinator of Veterans and Military Personnel Student Services shall regularly and conspicuously advertise the office location and phone number of and Internet access to the Coordinator of Veterans and Military Personnel Student Services, along with a brief summary of the manner in which he or she can assist student veterans. The advertisement shall include, but is not necessarily limited to, the following:

(1) advertisements on each campus' Internet home page;

(2) any promotional mailings for student application; and

(3) the website and any social media accounts of the public college or university.

The Coordinator of Veterans and Military Personnel Student Services shall facilitate other campus offices with the promotion of programs and services that are available.

(c) Upon receipt of all of the surveys under subsection (a) of this Section, the Board of Higher Education and the Department of Veterans' Affairs shall conduct a joint review of the surveys. The Department of Veterans' Affairs shall post, on any Internet home page it may operate, a link to each survey as posted on the Internet website for the college or university. The Board of Higher Education shall post, on any Internet home page it may operate, a link to each survey as posted on the Internet website for the college or university or an annual report or document containing survey information for each college or university. Upon receipt of all of the surveys, the Office of the Governor, through its military affairs advisors, shall similarly conduct a review of the surveys. Following its review of the surveys, the Office of the Governor shall submit an evaluation report to each college and university offering suggestions and insight on the conduct of student veteran-related policies and programs.

(d) The Board of Higher Education and the Department of Veterans' Affairs may issue a best practices report to highlight those programs and services that are most beneficial to veterans and active duty military personnel. The report shall contain a fiscal needs assessment in conjunction with any program recommendations.

(e) Each college and university campus that is required to have a Coordinator of Veterans and Military Personnel Student Services under subsection (b) of this Section shall make its best efforts to create academic and social programs and services for veterans and active duty military personnel that will provide reasonable opportunities for academic performance and success.

Each public college and university shall make its best efforts to determine how its online educational curricula can be expanded or altered to serve the needs of student veterans and currently deployed currently-deployed military, including a determination of whether and to what extent the public colleges and universities can share existing technologies to improve the online curricula of peer institutions, provided such efforts are both practically and economically feasible.

(Source: P.A. 102-278, eff. 8-6-21; 102-295, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-18-21.)

Section 325. The Mental Health Early Action on Campus Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(110 ILCS 58/25)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-373 and P.A. 102-416)

Sec. 25. Awareness. To raise mental health awareness on college campuses, each public college or university must do all of the following:

(1) Develop and implement an annual student orientation session aimed at raising awareness about mental health conditions.

(2) Assess courses and seminars available to students through their regular academic experiences and implement mental health awareness curricula if opportunities for integration exist.

(3) Create and feature a page on its website or mobile application with information dedicated solely to the mental health resources available to students at the public college or university and in the surrounding community.

(4) Distribute messages related to mental health resources that encourage help-seeking behavior through the online learning platform of the public college or university during high stress periods of the academic year, including, but not limited to, midterm or final examinations. These stigma-reducing strategies must be based on documented best practices.

(5) Three years after the effective date of this Act, implement an online screening tool to raise awareness and establish a mechanism to link or refer students of the public college or university to services. Screenings and resources must be available year round for students and, at a minimum, must (i) include validated screening tools for depression, an anxiety disorder, an eating disorder, substance use, alcohol-use disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, and bipolar disorder, (ii) provide resources for immediate connection to services, if indicated, including emergency resources, (iii) provide general information about all mental health-related resources available to students of the public college or university, and (iv) function anonymously.

(6) At least once per term and at times of high academic stress, including midterm or final examinations, provide students information regarding online screenings and resources.

(Source: P.A. 101-251, eff. 7-1-20.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-373 and P.A. 102-416)

Sec. 25. Awareness. To raise mental health awareness on college campuses, each public college or university must do all of the following:

(1) Develop and implement an annual student orientation session aimed at raising awareness about mental health conditions.

(2) Assess courses and seminars available to students through their regular academic experiences and implement mental health awareness curricula if opportunities for integration exist.

(3) Create and feature a page on its website or mobile application with information dedicated solely to the mental health resources available to students at the public college or university and in the surrounding community.

(4) Distribute messages related to mental health resources that encourage help-seeking behavior through the online learning platform of the public college or university during high stress periods of the academic year, including, but not limited to, midterm or final examinations. These stigma-reducing strategies must be based on documented best practices.

(5) Three years after the effective date of this Act, implement an online screening tool to raise awareness and establish a mechanism to link or refer students of the public college or university to services. Screenings and resources must be available year round for students and, at a minimum, must (i) include validated screening tools for depression, an anxiety disorder, an eating disorder, substance use, alcohol-use disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, and bipolar disorder, (ii) provide resources for immediate connection to services, if indicated, including emergency resources, (iii) provide general information about all mental health-related resources available to students of the public college or university, and (iv) function anonymously.

(6) At least once per term and at times of high academic stress, including midterm or final examinations, provide students information regarding online screenings and resources.

(7) Provide contact information for the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline (988), for the Crisis Text Line, and a local suicide prevention hotline, and for the mental health counseling center or program of the public college or university on the back of each student identification card issued by the public college or university after July 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-373) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly if the public college or university issues student identification cards. If the public college or university does not issue student identification cards to its students, the public college or university must publish the contact information on its website. The contact information shall identify each helpline that may be contacted through text messaging. The contact information shall be included in the public college's or university's student handbook and also the student planner if a student planner is custom printed by the public college or university for distribution to students.

(Source: P.A. 101-251, eff. 7-1-20; 102-373, eff. 7-1-22; 102-416, eff. 7-1-22; revised 9-21-21.)

Section 330. The University of Illinois Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 120 as follows:

(110 ILCS 305/120)

Sec. 120. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The Board of Trustees must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the Board of Trustees for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the University from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-18-21.)

(110 ILCS 305/122)

Sec. 122 120. Academic major report. The Board of Trustees shall provide to each enrolled student, at the time the student declares or changes his or her academic major or program of study, a report that contains relevant, independent, and accurate data related to the student's major or program of study and to the current occupational outlook associated with that major or program of study. The report shall provide the student with all of the following information:

(1) The estimated cost of his or her education associated with pursuing a degree in that major or program of study.

(2) The average monthly student loan payment over a period of 20 years based on the estimated cost of his or her education under paragraph (1).

(3) The average job placement rate within 12 months after graduation for a graduate who holds a degree in that major or program of study.

(4) The average entry-level wage or salary for an occupation related to that major or program of study.

(5) The average wage or salary 5 years after entry into an occupation under paragraph (4).

(Source: P.A. 102-214, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-18-21.)

(110 ILCS 305/130)

Sec. 130 120. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) The Board of Trustees shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the Board or over which the Board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 10-18-21.)

(110 ILCS 305/135)

Sec. 135 120. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the term, the Board of Trustees must notify an adjunct professor about the status of enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was hired to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-18-21.)

(110 ILCS 305/140)

Sec. 140 120. Family and medical leave coverage. A University employee who has been employed by the University for at least 12 months and who has worked at least 1,000 hours in the previous 12-month period shall be eligible for family and medical leave under the same terms and conditions as leave provided to eligible employees under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993.

(Source: P.A. 102-335, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-21-21.)

(110 ILCS 305/145)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 145 120. Carbon capture, utilization, and storage report.

(a) Subject to appropriation, the Prairie Research Institute at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign, in consultation with an intergovernmental advisory committee, must file a report on the potential for carbon capture, utilization, and storage as a climate mitigation technology throughout Illinois with the Governor and the General Assembly no later than December 31, 2022. The report shall provide an assessment of Illinois subsurface storage resources, a description of existing and selected subsurface storage projects, and best practices for carbon storage. Additionally, the report shall provide recommendations for policy and regulatory needs at the State level based on its findings, and shall, at a minimum, address all the following areas:

(1) carbon capture, utilization, and storage current status and future storage resource potential in the State; . Enhanced Oil Recovery shall remain outside the scope of this study;

(2) procedures, standards, and safeguards for the storage of carbon dioxide;

(3) permitting processes and the coordination with applicable federal law or regulatory commissions, including the Class VI injection well permitting process;

(4) economic impact, job creation, and job retention from carbon capture, utilization, and storage that both protects the environment and supports short-term and long-term economic growth;

(5) development of knowledge capacity of appropriate State agencies and stakeholders;

(6) environmental justice and stakeholder issues related to carbon capture, utilization, and storage throughout the State;

(7) leveraging federal policies and public-private partnerships for research, design, and development to benefit the State;

(8) liability for the storage and monitoring maintenance of the carbon dioxide after the completion of a carbon capture, utilization, and storage project;

(9) acquisition, ownership, and amalgamation of pore space for carbon capture, utilization, and storage;

(10) methodologies to establish any necessary fees, costs, or offsets; and

(11) any risks to health, safety, the environment, and property uses or values.

(b) In developing the report under this Section, the Prairie Research Institute shall form an advisory committee, which shall be composed of all the following members:

(1) the Director of the Environmental Protection Agency, or his or her designee;

(2) the Director of Natural Resources, or his or her designee;

(3) the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or his or her designee;

(4) the Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, or his or her designee;

(5) the Director of Agriculture, or his or her designee;

(6) the Attorney General, or his or her designee;

(7) one member of the Senate, appointed by the President of the Senate;

(8) one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(9) one member of the Senate, appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate; and

(10) one member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(c) No later than 60 days after August 13, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-341) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the advisory committee shall hold its first meeting at the call of the Executive Director of the Prairie Research Institute, at which meeting the members shall select a chairperson from among themselves. After its first meeting, the committee shall meet at the call of the chairperson. Members of the committee shall serve without compensation. The Prairie Research Committee shall provide administrative support to the committee.

(d) The Prairie Research Institute shall also engage with interested stakeholders throughout the State to gain insights into socio-economic perspectives from environmental justice organizations, environmental non-governmental organizations, industry, landowners, farm bureaus, manufacturing, labor unions, and others.

(e) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 102-341, eff. 8-13-21; revised 10-18-21.)

(110 ILCS 305/150)

Sec. 150 120. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, the Board of Trustees shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, graduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the University's retention and matriculation programs.

The Board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) The Board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each of its campuses. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The Board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-18-21.)

(110 ILCS 305/155)

Sec. 155 120. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of the University has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the Board of Trustees must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the Board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 10-18-21.)

Section 335. The University of Illinois Hospital Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 8d as follows:

(110 ILCS 330/8d)

(Text of Section from P.A. 102-4 and 102-671)

Sec. 8d. N95 masks. Pursuant to and in accordance with applicable local, State, and federal policies, guidance and recommendations of public health and infection control authorities, and taking into consideration the limitations on access to N95 masks caused by disruptions in local, State, national, and international supply chains, the University of Illinois Hospital shall provide N95 masks to physicians licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, registered nurses and advanced practice registered nurses licensed under the Nurse Licensing Act, and any other employees or contractual workers who provide direct patient care and who, pursuant to such policies, guidance, and recommendations, are recommended to have such a mask to safely provide such direct patient care within a hospital setting. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose any new duty or obligation on the University of Illinois Hospital or employee that is greater than that imposed under State and federal laws in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

This Section is repealed on July 1, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-671, eff. 11-30-21.)

(Text of Section from P.A. 102-4 and 102-674)

Sec. 8d. N95 masks. Pursuant to and in accordance with applicable local, State, and federal policies, guidance and recommendations of public health and infection control authorities, and taking into consideration the limitations on access to N95 masks caused by disruptions in local, State, national, and international supply chains, the University of Illinois Hospital shall provide N95 masks to physicians licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, registered nurses and advanced practice registered nurses licensed under the Nurse Licensing Act, and any other employees or contractual workers who provide direct patient care and who, pursuant to such policies, guidance, and recommendations, are recommended to have such a mask to safely provide such direct patient care within a hospital setting. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose any new duty or obligation on the University of Illinois Hospital or employee that is greater than that imposed under State and federal laws in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

This Section is repealed on December 31, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-674, eff. 11-30-21.)

(110 ILCS 330/8e)

Sec. 8e 8d. Facility-provided medication upon discharge.

(a) The General Assembly finds that this Section is necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety.

(b) In this Section, "facility-provided medication" has the same meaning as provided under Section 15.10 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(c) When a facility-provided medication is ordered at least 24 hours in advance for surgical procedures and is administered to a patient at the University of Illinois Hospital, any unused portion of the facility-provided medication must be offered to the patient upon discharge when it is required for continuing treatment.

(d) A facility-provided medication shall be labeled consistent with labeling requirements under Section 22 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(e) If the facility-provided medication is used in an operating room or emergency department setting, the prescriber is responsible for counseling the patient on its proper use and administration and the requirement of pharmacist counseling is waived.

(Source: P.A. 102-155, eff. 7-23-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(110 ILCS 330/8f)

Sec. 8f 8d. Surgical smoke plume evacuation.

(a) In this Section:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Surgical smoke plume" means the by-product of the use of energy-based devices on tissue during surgery and containing hazardous materials, including, but not limited to, bioaerosols bio-aeorsols, smoke, gases, tissue and cellular fragments and particulates, and viruses.

"Surgical smoke plume evacuation system" means a dedicated device that is designed to capture, transport, filter, and neutralize surgical smoke plume at the site of origin and before surgical smoke plume can make ocular contact, or contact with the respiratory tract, of an employee.

(b) To protect patients and health care workers from the hazards of surgical smoke plume, the University of Illinois Hospital shall adopt policies to ensure the elimination of surgical smoke plume by use of a surgical smoke plume evacuation system for each procedure that generates surgical smoke plume from the use of energy-based devices, including, but not limited to, electrosurgery and lasers.

(c) The University of Illinois Hospital shall report to the Department within 90 days after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-533) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly that policies under subsection (b) of this Section have been adopted.

(Source: P.A. 102-533, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-9-21.)

Section 340. The Southern Illinois University Management Act is amended by changing Section 6.6 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 100 as follows:

(110 ILCS 520/6.6)

Sec. 6.6. The Illinois Ethanol Research Advisory Board.

(a) There is established the Illinois Ethanol Research Advisory Board (the "Advisory Board").

(b) The Advisory Board shall be composed of 14 members including: the President of Southern Illinois University who shall be Chairman; the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity; the Director of Agriculture; the President of the Illinois Corn Growers Association; the President of the National Corn Growers Association; the President of the Renewable Fuels Association; the Dean of the College of Agricultural, Consumer, and Environmental Science, University of Illinois at Champaign-Urbana; the Dean of the College of Agricultural, Life, and Physical Sciences, Southern Illinois University at Carbondale; , and 6 at-large members appointed by the Governor representing the ethanol industry, growers, suppliers, and universities.

(c) The 6 at-large members shall serve a term of 4 years. The Advisory Board shall meet at least annually or at the call of the Chairman. At any time a majority of the Advisory Board may petition the Chairman for a meeting of the Board. Seven members of the Advisory Board shall constitute a quorum.

(d) The Advisory Board shall:

(1) Review the annual operating plans and budget of the National Corn-to-Ethanol Research Pilot Plant.

(2) Advise on research and development priorities and projects to be carried out at the Corn-to-Ethanol Research Pilot Plant.

(3) Advise on policies and procedures regarding the management and operation of the ethanol research pilot plant. This may include contracts, project selection, and personnel issues.

(4) Develop bylaws.

(5) Submit a final report to the Governor and General Assembly outlining the progress and accomplishments made during the year along with a financial report for the year.

(6) Establish and operate, subject to specific appropriation for the purpose of providing facility operating funds, the National Corn-to-Ethanol Research Center at Southern Illinois University at Edwardsville as a State Biorefining Center of Excellence with the following purposes and goals:

(A) To utilize interdisciplinary, interinstitutional, and industrial collaborations to conduct research.

(B) To provide training and services to the ethanol fuel industry to make projects and training to advance the biofuels industry in the State more affordable for the institutional and industrial bodies, including, but not limited to, Illinois farmer-owned ethanol cooperatives.

(C) To coordinate near-term industry research needs and laboratory services by identifying needs and pursuing federal and other funding sources.

(D) To develop and provide hands-on training to prepare students for the biofuels workforce and train workforce reentrants.

(E) To serve as an independent, third-party source for review, testing, validation standardization, and definition in areas of industry need.

(F) To provide seminars, tours, and informational sessions advocating renewable energy.

(G) To provide consultation services and information for those interested in renewable energy.

(H) To develop demonstration projects by pursuing federal and other funding sources.

(e) The Advisory Board established by this Section is a continuation, as changed by the Section, of the Board established under Section 8a of the Energy Conservation and Coal Development Act and repealed by Public Act 92-736 this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-370, eff. 8-13-21; revised 10-6-21.)

(110 ILCS 520/100)

Sec. 100. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The Board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the Board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the University from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-21-21.)

(110 ILCS 520/102)

Sec. 102 100. Academic major report. The Board shall provide to each enrolled student, at the time the student declares or changes his or her academic major or program of study, a report that contains relevant, independent, and accurate data related to the student's major or program of study and to the current occupational outlook associated with that major or program of study. The report shall provide the student with all of the following information:

(1) The estimated cost of his or her education associated with pursuing a degree in that major or program of study.

(2) The average monthly student loan payment over a period of 20 years based on the estimated cost of his or her education under paragraph (1).

(3) The average job placement rate within 12 months after graduation for a graduate who holds a degree in that major or program of study.

(4) The average entry-level wage or salary for an occupation related to that major or program of study.

(5) The average wage or salary 5 years after entry into an occupation under paragraph (4).

(Source: P.A. 102-214, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-21-21.)

(110 ILCS 520/110)

Sec. 110 100. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) The Board shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the Board or over which the Board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 10-21-21.)

(110 ILCS 520/115)

Sec. 115 100. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the term, the Board must notify an adjunct professor about the status of enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was hired to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-21-21.)

(110 ILCS 520/120)

Sec. 120 100. Family and medical leave coverage. A University employee who has been employed by the University for at least 12 months and who has worked at least 1,000 hours in the previous 12-month period shall be eligible for family and medical leave under the same terms and conditions as leave provided to eligible employees under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993.

(Source: P.A. 102-335, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-21-21.)

(110 ILCS 520/125)

Sec. 125 100. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, the Board shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, graduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the University's retention and matriculation programs.

The Board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) The Board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each of its campuses. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The Board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-21-21.)

(110 ILCS 520/130)

Sec. 130 100. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of the University has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the Board must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the Board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 10-21-21.)

Section 345. The Chicago State University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 5-210 as follows:

(110 ILCS 660/5-210)

Sec. 5-210. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The Board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the Board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the University from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-26-21.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-212)

Sec. 5-212 5-210. Academic major report. The Board shall provide to each enrolled student, at the time the student declares or changes his or her academic major or program of study, a report that contains relevant, independent, and accurate data related to the student's major or program of study and to the current occupational outlook associated with that major or program of study. The report shall provide the student with all of the following information:

(1) The estimated cost of his or her education associated with pursuing a degree in that major or program of study.

(2) The average monthly student loan payment over a period of 20 years based on the estimated cost of his or her education under paragraph (1).

(3) The average job placement rate within 12 months after graduation for a graduate who holds a degree in that major or program of study.

(4) The average entry-level wage or salary for an occupation related to that major or program of study.

(5) The average wage or salary 5 years after entry into an occupation under paragraph (4).

(Source: P.A. 102-214, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-26-21.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-220)

Sec. 5-220 5-210. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) The Board shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the Board or over which the Board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 10-26-21.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-225)

Sec. 5-225 5-210. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the term, the Board must notify an adjunct professor about the status of enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was hired to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-26-21.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-230)

Sec. 5-230 5-210. Family and medical leave coverage. A University employee who has been employed by the University for at least 12 months and who has worked at least 1,000 hours in the previous 12-month period shall be eligible for family and medical leave under the same terms and conditions as leave provided to eligible employees under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993.

(Source: P.A. 102-335, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-26-21.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-235)

Sec. 5-235 5-210. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, the Board shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, graduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the University's retention and matriculation programs.

The Board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) The Board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each of its campuses. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The Board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-26-21.)

(110 ILCS 660/5-240)

Sec. 5-240 5-210. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of the University has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the Board must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the Board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 10-26-21.)

Section 350. The Eastern Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 10-210 as follows:

(110 ILCS 665/10-210)

Sec. 10-210. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The Board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the Board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the University from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-27-21.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-212)

Sec. 10-212 10-210. Academic major report. The Board shall provide to each enrolled student, at the time the student declares or changes his or her academic major or program of study, a report that contains relevant, independent, and accurate data related to the student's major or program of study and to the current occupational outlook associated with that major or program of study. The report shall provide the student with all of the following information:

(1) The estimated cost of his or her education associated with pursuing a degree in that major or program of study.

(2) The average monthly student loan payment over a period of 20 years based on the estimated cost of his or her education under paragraph (1).

(3) The average job placement rate within 12 months after graduation for a graduate who holds a degree in that major or program of study.

(4) The average entry-level wage or salary for an occupation related to that major or program of study.

(5) The average wage or salary 5 years after entry into an occupation under paragraph (4).

(Source: P.A. 102-214, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-16-21.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-220)

Sec. 10-220 10-210. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) The Board shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the Board or over which the Board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 10-27-21.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-225)

Sec. 10-225 10-210. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the term, the Board must notify an adjunct professor about the status of enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was hired to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-27-21.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-230)

Sec. 10-230 10-210. Family and medical leave coverage. A University employee who has been employed by the University for at least 12 months and who has worked at least 1,000 hours in the previous 12-month period shall be eligible for family and medical leave under the same terms and conditions as leave provided to eligible employees under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993.

(Source: P.A. 102-335, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-27-21.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-235)

Sec. 10-235 10-210. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, the Board shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, graduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the University's retention and matriculation programs.

The Board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) The Board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each of its campuses. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The Board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-27-21.)

(110 ILCS 665/10-240)

Sec. 10-240 10-210. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of the University has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the Board must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the Board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 10-27-21.)

Section 355. The Governors State University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 15-210 as follows:

(110 ILCS 670/15-210)

Sec. 15-210. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The Board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the Board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the University from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-29-21.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-212)

Sec. 15-212 15-210. Academic major report. The Board shall provide to each enrolled student, at the time the student declares or changes his or her academic major or program of study, a report that contains relevant, independent, and accurate data related to the student's major or program of study and to the current occupational outlook associated with that major or program of study. The report shall provide the student with all of the following information:

(1) The estimated cost of his or her education associated with pursuing a degree in that major or program of study.

(2) The average monthly student loan payment over a period of 20 years based on the estimated cost of his or her education under paragraph (1).

(3) The average job placement rate within 12 months after graduation for a graduate who holds a degree in that major or program of study.

(4) The average entry-level wage or salary for an occupation related to that major or program of study.

(5) The average wage or salary 5 years after entry into an occupation under paragraph (4).

(Source: P.A. 102-214, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-29-21.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-220)

Sec. 15-220 15-210. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) The Board shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the Board or over which the Board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 10-29-21.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-225)

Sec. 15-225 15-210. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the term, the Board must notify an adjunct professor about the status of enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was hired to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-29-21.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-230)

Sec. 15-230 15-210. Family and medical leave coverage. A University employee who has been employed by the University for at least 12 months and who has worked at least 1,000 hours in the previous 12-month period shall be eligible for family and medical leave under the same terms and conditions as leave provided to eligible employees under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993.

(Source: P.A. 102-335, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-29-21.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-235)

Sec. 15-235 15-210. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, the Board shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, graduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the University's retention and matriculation programs.

The Board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) The Board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each of its campuses. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The Board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-29-21.)

(110 ILCS 670/15-240)

Sec. 15-240 15-210. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of the University has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the Board must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the Board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 10-29-21.)

Section 360. The Illinois State University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 20-215 as follows:

(110 ILCS 675/20-215)

Sec. 20-215. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The Board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the Board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the University from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-217)

Sec. 20-217 20-215. Academic major report. The Board shall provide to each enrolled student, at the time the student declares or changes his or her academic major or program of study, a report that contains relevant, independent, and accurate data related to the student's major or program of study and to the current occupational outlook associated with that major or program of study. The report shall provide the student with all of the following information:

(1) The estimated cost of his or her education associated with pursuing a degree in that major or program of study.

(2) The average monthly student loan payment over a period of 20 years based on the estimated cost of his or her education under paragraph (1).

(3) The average job placement rate within 12 months after graduation for a graduate who holds a degree in that major or program of study.

(4) The average entry-level wage or salary for an occupation related to that major or program of study.

(5) The average wage or salary 5 years after entry into an occupation under paragraph (4).

(Source: P.A. 102-214, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-225)

Sec. 20-225 20-215. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) The Board shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the Board or over which the Board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-230)

Sec. 20-230 20-215. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the term, the Board must notify an adjunct professor about the status of enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was hired to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-235)

Sec. 20-235 20-215. Family and medical leave coverage. A University employee who has been employed by the University for at least 12 months and who has worked at least 1,000 hours in the previous 12-month period shall be eligible for family and medical leave under the same terms and conditions as leave provided to eligible employees under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993.

(Source: P.A. 102-335, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-240)

Sec. 20-240 20-215. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, the Board shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, graduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the University's retention and matriculation programs.

The Board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) The Board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each of its campuses. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The Board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 675/20-245)

Sec. 20-245 20-215. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of the University has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the Board must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the Board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 11-4-21.)

Section 365. The Northeastern Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 25-210 as follows:

(110 ILCS 680/25-210)

Sec. 25-210. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The Board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the Board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the University from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-212)

Sec. 25-212 25-210. Academic major report. The Board shall provide to each enrolled student, at the time the student declares or changes his or her academic major or program of study, a report that contains relevant, independent, and accurate data related to the student's major or program of study and to the current occupational outlook associated with that major or program of study. The report shall provide the student with all of the following information:

(1) The estimated cost of his or her education associated with pursuing a degree in that major or program of study.

(2) The average monthly student loan payment over a period of 20 years based on the estimated cost of his or her education under paragraph (1).

(3) The average job placement rate within 12 months after graduation for a graduate who holds a degree in that major or program of study.

(4) The average entry-level wage or salary for an occupation related to that major or program of study.

(5) The average wage or salary 5 years after entry into an occupation under paragraph (4).

(Source: P.A. 102-214, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-220)

Sec. 25-220 25-210. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) The Board shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the Board or over which the Board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-225)

Sec. 25-225 25-210. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the term, the Board must notify an adjunct professor about the status of enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was hired to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-230)

Sec. 25-230 25-210. Family and medical leave coverage. A University employee who has been employed by the University for at least 12 months and who has worked at least 1,000 hours in the previous 12-month period shall be eligible for family and medical leave under the same terms and conditions as leave provided to eligible employees under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993.

(Source: P.A. 102-335, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-235)

Sec. 25-235 25-210. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, the Board shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, graduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the University's retention and matriculation programs.

The Board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) The Board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each of its campuses. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The Board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 680/25-240)

Sec. 25-240 25-210. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of the University has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the Board must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the Board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 11-4-21.)

Section 370. The Northern Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 30-220 as follows:

(110 ILCS 685/30-220)

Sec. 30-220. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The Board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the Board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the University from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-222)

Sec. 30-222 30-220. Academic major report. The Board shall provide to each enrolled student, at the time the student declares or changes his or her academic major or program of study, a report that contains relevant, independent, and accurate data related to the student's major or program of study and to the current occupational outlook associated with that major or program of study. The report shall provide the student with all of the following information:

(1) The estimated cost of his or her education associated with pursuing a degree in that major or program of study.

(2) The average monthly student loan payment over a period of 20 years based on the estimated cost of his or her education under paragraph (1).

(3) The average job placement rate within 12 months after graduation for a graduate who holds a degree in that major or program of study.

(4) The average entry-level wage or salary for an occupation related to that major or program of study.

(5) The average wage or salary 5 years after entry into an occupation under paragraph (4).

(Source: P.A. 102-214, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-230)

Sec. 30-230 30-220. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) The Board shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the Board or over which the Board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-235)

Sec. 30-235 30-220. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the term, the Board must notify an adjunct professor about the status of enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was hired to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-240)

Sec. 30-240 30-220. Family and medical leave coverage. A University employee who has been employed by the University for at least 12 months and who has worked at least 1,000 hours in the previous 12-month period shall be eligible for family and medical leave under the same terms and conditions as leave provided to eligible employees under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993.

(Source: P.A. 102-335, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-245)

Sec. 30-245 30-220. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, the Board shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, graduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the University's retention and matriculation programs.

The Board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) The Board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each of its campuses. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The Board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-4-21.)

(110 ILCS 685/30-250)

Sec. 30-250 30-220. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of the University has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the Board must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the Board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 11-4-21.)

Section 375. The Western Illinois University Law is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 35-215 as follows:

(110 ILCS 690/35-215)

Sec. 35-215. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) The Board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the Board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the University from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-217)

Sec. 35-217 35-215. Academic major report. The Board shall provide to each enrolled student, at the time the student declares or changes his or her academic major or program of study, a report that contains relevant, independent, and accurate data related to the student's major or program of study and to the current occupational outlook associated with that major or program of study. The report shall provide the student with all of the following information:

(1) The estimated cost of his or her education associated with pursuing a degree in that major or program of study.

(2) The average monthly student loan payment over a period of 20 years based on the estimated cost of his or her education under paragraph (1).

(3) The average job placement rate within 12 months after graduation for a graduate who holds a degree in that major or program of study.

(4) The average entry-level wage or salary for an occupation related to that major or program of study.

(5) The average wage or salary 5 years after entry into an occupation under paragraph (4).

(Source: P.A. 102-214, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-225)

Sec. 35-225 35-215. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) The Board shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the Board or over which the Board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-230)

Sec. 35-230 35-215. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the term, the Board must notify an adjunct professor about the status of enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was hired to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-235)

Sec. 35-235 35-215. Family and medical leave coverage. A University employee who has been employed by the University for at least 12 months and who has worked at least 1,000 hours in the previous 12-month period shall be eligible for family and medical leave under the same terms and conditions as leave provided to eligible employees under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993.

(Source: P.A. 102-335, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-240)

Sec. 35-240 35-215. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, the Board shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, graduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the University's retention and matriculation programs.

The Board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the University. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) The Board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each of its campuses. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The Board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 690/35-245)

Sec. 35-245 35-215. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of the University has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the Board must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the Board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 11-5-21.)

Section 380. The Public Community College Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 3-29.14 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.14)

Sec. 3-29.14. Modification of athletic or team uniform permitted.

(a) A board must allow a student athlete to modify his or her athletic or team uniform due to the observance of modesty in clothing or attire in accordance with the requirements of his or her religion or his or her cultural values or modesty preferences. The modification of the athletic or team uniform may include, but is not limited to, the wearing of a hijab, an undershirt, or leggings. If a student chooses to modify his or her athletic or team uniform, the student is responsible for all costs associated with the modification of the uniform and the student shall not be required to receive prior approval from the board for such modification. However, nothing in this Section prohibits the community college from providing the modification to the student.

(b) At a minimum, any modification of the athletic or team uniform must not interfere with the movement of the student or pose a safety hazard to the student or to other athletes or players. The modification of headgear is permitted if the headgear:

(1) is black, white, the predominant predominate color of the uniform, or the same color for all players on the team;

(2) does not cover any part of the face;

(3) is not dangerous to the player or to the other players;

(4) has no opening or closing elements around the face and neck; and

(5) has no parts extruding from its surface.

(Source: P.A. 102-51, eff. 7-9-21; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.14a)

Sec. 3-29.14a 3-29.14. Availability of menstrual hygiene products.

(a) In this Section, "menstrual hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

(b) Each board shall make menstrual hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of facilities or portions of facilities that (i) are owned or leased by the board or over which the board has care, custody, and control and (ii) are used for student instruction or administrative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-250, eff. 8-5-21; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.16)

Sec. 3-29.16 3-29.14. Adjunct professor; status of class.

(a) At least 30 days before the beginning of a semester or term and again at 14 days before the beginning of the semester or term, a community college must notify an adjunct professor about the status of class enrollment of the class the adjunct professor was assigned to teach.

(b) This Section does not apply if the Governor has declared a disaster due to a public health emergency or a natural disaster pursuant to Section 7 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.

(c) Collective bargaining agreements that are in effect on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-260) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly are exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-260, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.17)

Sec. 3-29.17 3-29.14. Undocumented Student Liaison; Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(a) Beginning with the 2022-2023 academic year, a board shall designate an employee as an Undocumented Student Resource Liaison to be available on campus to provide assistance to undocumented students and mixed status students within the United States in streamlining access to financial aid and academic support to successfully matriculate to degree completion. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall provide assistance to vocational students, undergraduate students, and professional-track students. An employee who is designated as an Undocumented Student Liaison must be knowledgeable about current legislation and policy changes through professional development with the Illinois Dream Fund Commission to provide the wrap-around services to such students. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission shall conduct professional development under this Section. The Illinois Dream Fund Commission's task force on immigration issues and the Undocumented Student Liaison shall ensure that undocumented immigrants and students from mixed status households receive equitable and inclusive access to the community college district's retention and matriculation programs.

The board shall ensure that an Undocumented Student Liaison is available at each campus of the community college district. The Undocumented Student Liaison must be placed in a location that provides direct access for students in collaboration with the retention and matriculation programs of the community college district. The Undocumented Student Liaison shall report directly to senior leadership and shall assist leadership with the review of policies and procedures that directly affect undocumented and mixed status students.

An Undocumented Student Liaison may work on outreach efforts to provide access to resources and support within the grade P-20 education pipeline by supporting summer enrichment programs and pipeline options for students in any of grades 9 through 12.

(b) A board is encouraged to establish an Undocumented Student Resource Center on each campus of the community college district. An A Undocumented Student Resource Center may offer support services, including, but not limited to, State and private financial assistance, academic and career counseling, and retention and matriculation support services, as well as mental health counseling options because the changing immigration climate impacts a student's overall well-being and success.

An Undocumented Student Resource Center may be housed within an existing student service center or academic center, and the new construction of an Undocumented Student Resource Center is not required under this Section.

The board may seek and accept any financial support through institutional advancement, private gifts, or donations to aid in the creation and operation of and the services provided by an Undocumented Student Resource Center.

(Source: P.A. 102-475, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.18)

Sec. 3-29.18 3-29.14. Students with disabilities.

(a) Each community college district shall provide access to higher education for students with disabilities, including, but not limited to, students with intellectual or developmental disabilities. Each community college is encouraged to offer for-credit and non-credit courses as deemed appropriate for the individual student based on the student's abilities, interests, and postsecondary transition goals, with the appropriate individualized supplementary aids and accommodations, including general education courses, career and technical education, vocational training, continuing education certificates, individualized learning paths, and life skills courses for students with disabilities.

(b) Each community college is strongly encouraged to have its disability services coordinator or the coordinator's representative participate either in person or remotely in meetings held by high schools within the community college district to provide information to the student's individualized education program team, including the student and the student's parent or guardian, about the community college and the availability of courses and programs at the community college.

(Source: P.A. 102-516, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-5-21.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-29.19)

Sec. 3-29.19 3-29.14. Personal support worker's attendance in class permitted. If a student of a community college district has a personal support worker through the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act, the board must permit the personal support worker to attend class with the student but is not responsible for providing or paying for the personal support worker. If the personal support worker's attendance in class is solely to provide personal support services to the student, the board may not charge the personal support worker tuition and fees for such attendance.

(Source: P.A. 102-568, eff. 8-23-21; revised 11-5-21.)

Section 385. The Higher Education Student Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 50 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 65.110 as follows:

(110 ILCS 947/50)

Sec. 50. Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Eligible applicant" means a minority student who has graduated from high school or has received a high school equivalency certificate and has maintained a cumulative grade point average of no less than 2.5 on a 4.0 scale, and who by reason thereof is entitled to apply for scholarships to be awarded under this Section.

"Minority student" means a student who is any of the following:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa).

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

"Qualified bilingual minority applicant" means a qualified student who demonstrates proficiency in a language other than English by (i) receiving a State Seal of Biliteracy from the State Board of Education or (ii) receiving a passing score on an educator licensure target language proficiency test.

"Qualified student" means a person (i) who is a resident of this State and a citizen or permanent resident of the United States; (ii) who is a minority student, as defined in this Section; (iii) who, as an eligible applicant, has made a timely application for a minority teaching scholarship under this Section; (iv) who is enrolled on at least a half-time basis at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning; (v) who is enrolled in a course of study leading to teacher licensure, including alternative teacher licensure, or, if the student is already licensed to teach, in a course of study leading to an additional teaching endorsement or a master's degree in an academic field in which he or she is teaching or plans to teach or who has received one or more College and Career Pathway Endorsements pursuant to Section 80 of the Postsecondary and Workforce Readiness Act and commits to enrolling in a course of study leading to teacher licensure, including alternative teacher licensure; (vi) who maintains a grade point average of no less than 2.5 on a 4.0 scale; and (vii) who continues to advance satisfactorily toward the attainment of a degree.

(b) In order to encourage academically talented Illinois minority students to pursue teaching careers at the preschool or elementary or secondary school level and to address and alleviate the teacher shortage crisis in this State described under the provisions of the Transitions in Education Act, each qualified student shall be awarded a minority teacher scholarship to any qualified Illinois institution of higher learning. However, preference may be given to qualified applicants enrolled at or above the junior level.

(c) Each minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be in an amount sufficient to pay the tuition and fees and room and board costs of the qualified Illinois institution of higher learning at which the recipient is enrolled, up to an annual maximum of $5,000; except that in the case of a recipient who does not reside on-campus at the institution at which he or she is enrolled, the amount of the scholarship shall be sufficient to pay tuition and fee expenses and a commuter allowance, up to an annual maximum of $5,000. However, if at least $2,850,000 is appropriated in a given fiscal year for the Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program, then, in each fiscal year thereafter, each scholarship awarded under this Section shall be in an amount sufficient to pay the tuition and fees and room and board costs of the qualified Illinois institution of higher learning at which the recipient is enrolled, up to an annual maximum of $7,500; except that in the case of a recipient who does not reside on-campus at the institution at which he or she is enrolled, the amount of the scholarship shall be sufficient to pay tuition and fee expenses and a commuter allowance, up to an annual maximum of $7,500.

(d) The total amount of minority teacher scholarship assistance awarded by the Commission under this Section to an individual in any given fiscal year, when added to other financial assistance awarded to that individual for that year, shall not exceed the cost of attendance at the institution at which the student is enrolled. If the amount of minority teacher scholarship to be awarded to a qualified student as provided in subsection (c) of this Section exceeds the cost of attendance at the institution at which the student is enrolled, the minority teacher scholarship shall be reduced by an amount equal to the amount by which the combined financial assistance available to the student exceeds the cost of attendance.

(e) The maximum number of academic terms for which a qualified student can receive minority teacher scholarship assistance shall be 8 semesters or 12 quarters.

(f) In any academic year for which an eligible applicant under this Section accepts financial assistance through the Paul Douglas Teacher Scholarship Program, as authorized by Section 551 et seq. of the Higher Education Act of 1965, the applicant shall not be eligible for scholarship assistance awarded under this Section.

(g) All applications for minority teacher scholarships to be awarded under this Section shall be made to the Commission on forms which the Commission shall provide for eligible applicants. The form of applications and the information required to be set forth therein shall be determined by the Commission, and the Commission shall require eligible applicants to submit with their applications such supporting documents or recommendations as the Commission deems necessary.

(h) Subject to a separate appropriation for such purposes, payment of any minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be determined by the Commission. All scholarship funds distributed in accordance with this subsection shall be paid to the institution and used only for payment of the tuition and fee and room and board expenses incurred by the student in connection with his or her attendance at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning. Any minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be applicable to 2 semesters or 3 quarters of enrollment. If a qualified student withdraws from enrollment prior to completion of the first semester or quarter for which the minority teacher scholarship is applicable, the school shall refund to the Commission the full amount of the minority teacher scholarship.

(i) The Commission shall administer the minority teacher scholarship aid program established by this Section and shall make all necessary and proper rules not inconsistent with this Section for its effective implementation.

(j) When an appropriation to the Commission for a given fiscal year is insufficient to provide scholarships to all qualified students, the Commission shall allocate the appropriation in accordance with this subsection. If funds are insufficient to provide all qualified students with a scholarship as authorized by this Section, the Commission shall allocate the available scholarship funds for that fiscal year to qualified students who submit a complete application form on or before a date specified by the Commission based on the following order of priority:

(1) To students who received a scholarship under this Section in the prior academic year and who remain eligible for a minority teacher scholarship under this Section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (k), to students who demonstrate financial need, as determined by the Commission.

(k) Notwithstanding paragraph (2) of subsection (j), at least 35% of the funds appropriated for scholarships awarded under this Section in each fiscal year shall be reserved for qualified male minority applicants, with priority being given to qualified Black male applicants beginning with fiscal year 2023. If the Commission does not receive enough applications from qualified male minorities on or before January 1 of each fiscal year to award 35% of the funds appropriated for these scholarships to qualified male minority applicants, then the Commission may award a portion of the reserved funds to qualified female minority applicants in accordance with subsection (j).

Beginning with fiscal year 2023, if at least $2,850,000 but less than $4,200,000 is appropriated in a given fiscal year for scholarships awarded under this Section, then at least 10% of the funds appropriated shall be reserved for qualified bilingual minority applicants, with priority being given to qualified bilingual minority applicants who are enrolled in an educator preparation program with a concentration in bilingual, bicultural education. Beginning with fiscal year 2023, if at least $4,200,000 is appropriated in a given fiscal year for the Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program, then at least 30% of the funds appropriated shall be reserved for qualified bilingual minority applicants, with priority being given to qualified bilingual minority applicants who are enrolled in an educator preparation program with a concentration in bilingual, bicultural education. Beginning with fiscal year 2023, if at least $2,850,000 is appropriated in a given fiscal year for scholarships awarded under this Section but the Commission does not receive enough applications from qualified bilingual minority applicants on or before January 1 of that fiscal year to award at least 10% of the funds appropriated to qualified bilingual minority applicants, then the Commission may, in its discretion, award a portion of the reserved funds to other qualified students in accordance with subsection (j).

(l) Prior to receiving scholarship assistance for any academic year, each recipient of a minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section shall be required by the Commission to sign an agreement under which the recipient pledges that, within the one-year period following the termination of the program for which the recipient was awarded a minority teacher scholarship, the recipient (i) shall begin teaching for a period of not less than one year for each year of scholarship assistance he or she was awarded under this Section; (ii) shall fulfill this teaching obligation at a nonprofit Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool, elementary school, or secondary school at which no less than 30% of the enrolled students are minority students in the year during which the recipient begins teaching at the school or may instead, if the recipient received a scholarship as a qualified bilingual minority applicant, fulfill this teaching obligation in a program in transitional bilingual education pursuant to Article 14C of the School Code or in a school in which 20 or more English learner students in the same language classification are enrolled; and (iii) shall, upon request by the Commission, provide the Commission with evidence that he or she is fulfilling or has fulfilled the terms of the teaching agreement provided for in this subsection.

(m) If a recipient of a minority teacher scholarship awarded under this Section fails to fulfill the teaching obligation set forth in subsection (l) of this Section, the Commission shall require the recipient to repay the amount of the scholarships received, prorated according to the fraction of the teaching obligation not completed, at a rate of interest equal to 5%, and, if applicable, reasonable collection fees. The Commission is authorized to establish rules relating to its collection activities for repayment of scholarships under this Section. All repayments collected under this Section shall be forwarded to the State Comptroller for deposit into the State's General Revenue Fund.

(n) A recipient of minority teacher scholarship shall not be considered in violation of the agreement entered into pursuant to subsection (l) if the recipient (i) enrolls on a full time basis as a graduate student in a course of study related to the field of teaching at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning; (ii) is serving, not in excess of 3 years, as a member of the armed services of the United States; (iii) is a person with a temporary total disability for a period of time not to exceed 3 years as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (iv) is seeking and unable to find full time employment as a teacher at an Illinois public, private, or parochial preschool or elementary or secondary school that satisfies the criteria set forth in subsection (l) of this Section and is able to provide evidence of that fact; (v) becomes a person with a permanent total disability as established by sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (vi) is taking additional courses, on at least a half-time basis, needed to obtain licensure as a teacher in Illinois; or (vii) is fulfilling teaching requirements associated with other programs administered by the Commission and cannot concurrently fulfill them under this Section in a period of time equal to the length of the teaching obligation.

(o) Scholarship recipients under this Section who withdraw from a program of teacher education but remain enrolled in school to continue their postsecondary studies in another academic discipline shall not be required to commence repayment of their Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship so long as they remain enrolled in school on a full-time basis or if they can document for the Commission special circumstances that warrant extension of repayment.

(p) If the Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program does not expend at least 90% of the amount appropriated for the program in a given fiscal year for 3 consecutive fiscal years and the Commission does not receive enough applications from the groups identified in subsection (k) on or before January 1 in each of those fiscal years to meet the percentage reserved for those groups under subsection (k), then up to 3% of amount appropriated for the program for each of next 3 fiscal years shall be allocated to increasing awareness of the program and for the recruitment of Black male applicants. The Commission shall make a recommendation to the General Assembly by January 1 of the year immediately following the end of that third fiscal year regarding whether the amount allocated to increasing awareness and recruitment should continue.

(q) Each qualified Illinois institution of higher learning that receives funds from the Minority Teachers of Illinois scholarship program shall host an annual information session at the institution about the program for teacher candidates of color in accordance with rules adopted by the Commission. Additionally, the institution shall ensure that each scholarship recipient enrolled at the institution meets with an academic advisor at least once per academic year to facilitate on-time completion of the recipient's educator preparation program.

(r) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 101-654 this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly will first take effect with awards made for the 2022-2023 academic year.

(Source: P.A. 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-465, eff. 1-1-22; revised 9-28-21.)

(110 ILCS 947/65.110)

Sec. 65.110. Post-Master of Social Work School Social Work Professional Educator License scholarship.

(a) Subject to appropriation, beginning with awards for the 2022-2023 academic year, the Commission shall award annually up to 250 Post-Master of Social Work School Social Work Professional Educator License scholarships to a person who:

(1) holds a valid Illinois-licensed clinical social work license or social work license;

(2) has obtained a master's degree in social work from an approved program;

(3) is a United States citizen or eligible noncitizen; and

(4) submits an application to the Commission for such scholarship and agrees to take courses to obtain an Illinois Professional Educator License with an endorsement in School Social Work.

(b) If an appropriation for this Section for a given fiscal year is insufficient to provide scholarships to all qualified applicants, the Commission shall allocate the appropriation in accordance with this subsection (b). If funds are insufficient to provide all qualified applicants with a scholarship as authorized by this Section, the Commission shall allocate the available scholarship funds for that fiscal year to qualified applicants who submit a complete application on or before a date specified by the Commission, based on the following order of priority:

(1) firstly, to students who received a scholarship under this Section in the prior academic year and who remain eligible for a scholarship under this Section;

(2) secondly, to new, qualified applicants who are members of a racial minority, as defined in subsection (c); and

(3) finally, to other new, qualified applicants in accordance with this Section.

(c) Scholarships awarded under this Section shall be issued pursuant to rules adopted by the Commission. In awarding scholarships, the Commission shall give priority to those applicants who are members of a racial minority. Racial minorities are underrepresented as school social workers in elementary and secondary schools in this State, and the General Assembly finds that it is in the interest of this State to provide them with priority consideration for programs that encourage their participation in this field and thereby foster a profession that is more reflective of the diversity of Illinois students and the parents they will serve. A more reflective workforce in school social work allows improved outcomes for students and a better utilization of services. Therefore, the Commission shall give priority to those applicants who are members of a racial minority. In this subsection (c), "racial minority" means a person who is a citizen of the United States or a lawful permanent resident alien of the United States and who is:

(1) Black (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups in Africa);

(2) Hispanic (a person of Spanish or Portuguese culture with origins in Mexico, South or Central America, or the Caribbean Islands, regardless of race);

(3) Asian American (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the Indian Subcontinent, or the Pacific Islands); or

(4) American Indian or Alaskan Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North America).

(d) Each scholarship shall be applied to the payment of tuition and mandatory fees at the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Chicago State University, Eastern Illinois University, Governors State University, Illinois State University, Northeastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, and Western Illinois University. Each scholarship may be applied to pay tuition and mandatory fees required to obtain an Illinois Professional Educator License with an endorsement in School Social Work.

(e) The Commission shall make tuition and fee payments directly to the qualified institution of higher learning that the applicant attends.

(f) Any person who has accepted a scholarship under this Section must, within one year after graduation or termination of enrollment in a Post-Master of Social Work Professional Education License with an endorsement in School Social Work program, begin working as a school social worker at a public or nonpublic not-for-profit preschool, elementary school, or secondary school located in this State for at least 2 of the 5 years immediately following that graduation or termination, excluding, however, from the computation of that 5-year period: (i) any time up to 3 years spent in the military service, whether such service occurs before or after the person graduates; (ii) the time that person is a person with a temporary total disability for a period of time not to exceed 3 years, as established by the sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; and (iii) the time that person is seeking and unable to find full-time employment as a school social worker at a State public or nonpublic not-for-profit preschool, elementary school, or secondary school.

(g) If a recipient of a scholarship under this Section fails to fulfill the work obligation set forth in subsection (f), the Commission shall require the recipient to repay the amount of the scholarships received, prorated according to the fraction of the obligation not completed, at a rate of interest equal to 5%, and, if applicable, reasonable collection fees. The Commission is authorized to establish rules relating to its collection activities for repayment of scholarships under this Section. All repayments collected under this Section shall be forwarded to the State Comptroller for deposit into this State's General Revenue Fund.

A recipient of a scholarship under this Section is not considered to be in violation of the failure to fulfill the work obligation under subsection (f) if the recipient (i) enrolls on a full-time basis as a graduate student in a course of study related to the field of social work at a qualified Illinois institution of higher learning; (ii) is serving, not in excess of 3 years, as a member of the armed services of the United States; (iii) is a person with a temporary total disability for a period of time not to exceed 3 years, as established by the sworn affidavit of a qualified physician; (iv) is seeking and unable to find full-time employment as a school social worker at an Illinois public or nonpublic not-for-profit preschool, elementary school, or secondary school that satisfies the criteria set forth in subsection (f) and is able to provide evidence of that fact; or (v) becomes a person with a permanent total disability, as established by the sworn affidavit of a qualified physician.

(Source: P.A. 102-621, eff. 1-1-22.)

(110 ILCS 947/65.115)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 65.115 65.110. School Social Work Shortage Loan Repayment Program.

(a) To encourage Illinois students to work, and to continue to work, as a school social worker in public school districts in this State, the Commission shall, each year, receive and consider applications for loan repayment assistance under this Section. This program shall be known as the School Social Work Shortage Loan Repayment Program. The Commission shall administer the program and shall adopt all necessary and proper rules to effectively implement the program.

(b) Beginning July 1, 2022, subject to a separate appropriation made for such purposes, the Commission shall award a grant, up to a maximum of $6,500, to each qualified applicant. The Commission may encourage the recipient of a grant under this Section to use the grant award for repayment of the recipient's educational loan. If an appropriation for this program for a given fiscal year is insufficient to provide grants to all qualified applicants, the Commission shall allocate the appropriation in accordance with this subsection. If funds are insufficient to provide all qualified applicants with a grant as authorized by this Section, the Commission shall allocate the available grant funds for that fiscal year to qualified applicants who submit a complete application on or before a date specified by the Commission, based on the following order of priority:

(1) first, to new, qualified applicants who are members of a racial minority as defined in subsection (e); and

(2) second, to other new, qualified applicants in accordance with this Section.

(c) A person is a qualified applicant under this Section if he or she meets all of the following qualifications:

(1) The person is a United States citizen or eligible noncitizen.

(2) The person is a resident of this State.

(3) The person is a borrower with an outstanding balance due on an educational loan related to obtaining a degree in social work.

(4) The person has been employed as a school social worker by a public elementary school or secondary school in this State for at least 12 consecutive months.

(5) The person is currently employed as a school social worker by a public elementary school or secondary school in this State.

(d) An applicant shall submit an application, in a form determined by the Commission, for grant assistance under this Section to the Commission. An applicant is required to submit, with the application, supporting documentation as the Commission may deem necessary.

(e) Racial minorities are underrepresented as school social workers in elementary and secondary schools in Illinois, and the General Assembly finds that it is in the interest of this State to provide them priority consideration for programs that encourage their participation in this field and thereby foster a profession that is more reflective of the diversity of Illinois students and parents they will serve. A more reflective workforce in school social work allows improved outcomes for students and a better utilization of services. Therefore, the Commission shall give priority to those applicants who are members of a racial minority. In this subsection (e), "racial minority" means a person who is a citizen of the United States or a lawful permanent resident alien of the United States and who is:

(1) Black (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups in Africa);

(2) Hispanic (a person of Spanish or Portuguese culture with origins in Mexico, South or Central America, or the Caribbean Islands, regardless of race);

(3) Asian American (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the Indian Subcontinent, or the Pacific Islands); or

(4) American Indian or Alaskan Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North America).

(Source: P.A. 102-622, eff. 7-1-22; revised 11-10-21.)

Section 390. The Know Before You Owe Private Education Loan Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(110 ILCS 983/15)

Sec. 15. Provision of information.

(a) Provision of loan statement to borrowers.

(1) Loan statement. A private educational lender that disburses any funds with respect to a private education loan described in this Section shall send loan statements, to the borrowers of those funds not less than once every 3 months during the time that the borrower is enrolled at an institution of higher education.

(2) Contents of statements for income share agreements. Each statement described in subparagraph (1) with respect to income share agreements, shall:

(A) report the consumer's total amounts financed under each income share agreement;

(B) report the percentage of income payable under each income share agreement;

(C) report the maximum number of monthly payments required to be paid under each income share agreement;

(D) report the maximum amount payable under each income share agreement;

(E) report the maximum duration of each income share agreement;

(F) report the minimum annual income above which payments are required under each income share agreement; and

(G) report the annual percentage rate for each income share agreement at the minimum annual income above which payments are required and at $10,000 income increments thereafter up to the annual income where the maximum number of monthly payments results in the maximum amount payable.

(3) Contents of all other loan statements. Each statement described in subparagraph (1) that does not fall under subparagraph (2) shall:

(A) report the borrower's total remaining debt to the private educational lender, including accrued but unpaid interest and capitalized interest;

(B) report any debt increases since the last statement; and

(C) list the current annual percentage rate for each loan.

(b) Certification of exhaustion of federal student loan funds to private educational lender. Upon the request of a private educational lender, acting in connection with an application initiated by a borrower for a private education loan in accordance with Section 5, the institution of higher education shall within 15 days of receipt of the request provide certification to such private educational lender:

(1) that the borrower who initiated the application for the private education loan, or on whose behalf the application was initiated, is enrolled or is scheduled to enroll at the institution of higher education;

(2) of the borrower's cost of attendance at the institution of higher education as determined under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section;

(3) of the difference between:

(A) the cost of attendance at the institution of higher education; and

(B) the borrower's estimated financial assistance received under the federal Higher Education Act of 1965 and other assistance known to the institution of higher education, as applicable;

(4) that the institution of higher education has received the request for certification and will need additional time to comply with the certification request; and

(5) if applicable, that the institution of higher education is refusing to certify the private education loan.

(c) Certification of exhaustion of federal student loan funds to borrower. With respect to a certification request described under subsection (b), and prior to providing such certification in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) or providing notice of the refusal to provide certification under paragraph (5) of subsection (b), the institution of higher education shall:

(1) determine whether the borrower who initiated the application for the private education loan, or on whose behalf the application was initiated, has applied for and exhausted the federal financial assistance available to such borrower under the federal Higher Education Act of 1965 and inform the borrower accordingly;

(2) provide the borrower whose loan application has prompted the certification request by a private educational lender, as described in paragraph (1) of subsection (b), with the following information and disclosures:

(A) the amount of additional federal student assistance for which the borrower is eligible and the advantages of federal loans under the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, including disclosure of income driven repayment options, fixed interest rates, deferments, flexible repayment options, loan forgiveness programs, additional protections, and the higher student loan limits for dependent borrowers whose parents are not eligible for a Federal Direct PLUS Loan;

(B) the borrower's ability to select a private educational lender of the borrower's choice;

(C) the impact of a proposed private education loan on the borrower's potential eligibility for other financial assistance, including federal financial assistance under the federal Higher Education Act; and

(D) the borrower's right to accept or reject a private education loan within the 30-day period following a private educational lender's approval of a borrower's application and the borrower's 3-day right to cancel period; and

(3) Any institution of higher education that is also acting as a private educational lender shall provide the certification of exhaustion of federal student loan funds described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (c) to the borrower prior to disbursing funds to the borrower. Any institution of higher education that is not eligible for funding under Title IV of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965 is not required to provide this certification to the borrower.

(Source: P.A. 102-583, eff. 8-26-21; revised 11-29-21.)

Section 395. The Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(115 ILCS 5/14) (from Ch. 48, par. 1714)

Sec. 14. Unfair labor practices.

(a) Educational employers, their agents or representatives are prohibited from:

(1) Interfering, restraining or coercing employees in the exercise of the rights guaranteed under this Act.

(2) Dominating or interfering with the formation, existence or administration of any employee organization.

(3) Discriminating in regard to hire or tenure of employment or any term or condition of employment to encourage or discourage membership in any employee organization.

(4) Discharging or otherwise discriminating against an employee because he or she has signed or filed an affidavit, authorization card, petition or complaint or given any information or testimony under this Act.

(5) Refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with an employee representative which is the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate unit, including, but not limited to, the discussing of grievances with the exclusive representative; provided, however, that if an alleged unfair labor practice involves interpretation or application of the terms of a collective bargaining agreement and said agreement contains a grievance and arbitration procedure, the Board may defer the resolution of such dispute to the grievance and arbitration procedure contained in said agreement.

(6) Refusing to reduce a collective bargaining agreement to writing and signing such agreement.

(7) Violating any of the rules and regulations promulgated by the Board regulating the conduct of representation elections.

(8) Refusing to comply with the provisions of a binding arbitration award.

(9) Expending or causing the expenditure of public funds to any external agent, individual, firm, agency, partnership or association in any attempt to influence the outcome of representational elections held pursuant to paragraph (c) of Section 7 of this Act; provided, that nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit an employer's right to be represented on any matter pertaining to unit determinations, unfair labor practice charges or pre-election conferences in any formal or informal proceeding before the Board, or to seek or obtain advice from legal counsel. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prohibit an employer from expending or causing the expenditure of public funds on, or seeking or obtaining services or advice from, any organization, group or association established by, and including educational or public employers, whether or not covered by this Act, the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or the public employment labor relations law of any other state or the federal government, provided that such services or advice are generally available to the membership of the organization, group, or association, and are not offered solely in an attempt to influence the outcome of a particular representational election.

(10) Interfering with, restraining, coercing, deterring or discouraging educational employees or applicants to be educational employees from: (1) becoming members of an employee organization; (2) authorizing representation by an employee organization; or (3) authorizing dues or fee deductions to an employee organization, nor shall the employer intentionally permit outside third parties to use its email or other communications systems to engage in that conduct. An employer's good faith implementation of a policy to block the use of its email or other communication systems for such purposes shall be a defense to an unfair labor practice.

(11) Disclosing to any person or entity information set forth in subsection (d) of Section 3 of this Act that the employer knows or should know will be used to interfere with, restrain, coerce, deter, or discourage any public employee from: (i) becoming or remaining members of a labor organization, (ii) authorizing representation by a labor organization, or (iii) authorizing dues or fee deductions to a labor organization.

(12) Promising, threatening, or taking any action (i) to permanently replace an employee who participates in a lawful strike under Section 13 of this Act, (ii) to discriminate against an employee who is working or has unconditionally offered to return to work for the employer because the employee supported or participated in such as a lawful strike, or (iii) to lock out lockout, suspend, or otherwise withhold from employment employees in order to influence the position of such employees or the representative of such employees in collective bargaining prior to a lawful strike.

(b) Employee organizations, their agents or representatives or educational employees are prohibited from:

(1) Restraining or coercing employees in the exercise of the rights guaranteed under this Act, provided that a labor organization or its agents shall commit an unfair labor practice under this paragraph in duty of fair representation cases only by intentional misconduct in representing employees under this Act.

(2) Restraining or coercing an educational employer in the selection of his representative for the purposes of collective bargaining or the adjustment of grievances.

(3) Refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with an educational employer, if they have been designated in accordance with the provisions of this Act as the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate unit.

(4) Violating any of the rules and regulations promulgated by the Board regulating the conduct of representation elections.

(5) Refusing to reduce a collective bargaining agreement to writing and signing such agreement.

(6) Refusing to comply with the provisions of a binding arbitration award.

(c) The expressing of any views, argument, opinion or the dissemination thereof, whether in written, printed, graphic or visual form, shall not constitute or be evidence of an unfair labor practice under any of the provisions of this Act, if such expression contains no threat of reprisal or force or promise of benefit.

(c-5) The employer shall not discourage public employees or applicants to be public employees from becoming or remaining union members or authorizing dues deductions, and shall not otherwise interfere with the relationship between employees and their exclusive bargaining representative. The employer shall refer all inquiries about union membership to the exclusive bargaining representative, except that the employer may communicate with employees regarding payroll processes and procedures. The employer will establish email policies in an effort to prohibit the use of its email system by outside sources.

(d) The actions of a Financial Oversight Panel created pursuant to Section 1A-8 of the School Code due to a district violating a financial plan shall not constitute or be evidence of an unfair labor practice under any of the provisions of this Act. Such actions include, but are not limited to, reviewing, approving, or rejecting a school district budget or a collective bargaining agreement.

(Source: P.A. 101-620, eff. 12-20-19; 102-588, eff. 8-20-21; 102-596, eff. 8-27-21; revised 11-29-21.)

Section 400. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:

(205 ILCS 305/19) (from Ch. 17, par. 4420)

Sec. 19. Meeting of members.

(1)(a) The annual meeting shall be held each year during the months of January, February or March or such other month as may be approved by the Department. The meeting shall be held at the time, place and in the manner set forth in the bylaws. Any special meetings of the members of the credit union shall be held at the time, place and in the manner set forth in the bylaws. Unless otherwise set forth in this Act, quorum requirements for meetings of members shall be established by a credit union in its bylaws. Notice of all meetings must be given by the secretary of the credit union at least 7 days before the date of such meeting, either by handing a written or printed notice to each member of the credit union, by mailing the notice to the member at his address as listed on the books and records of the credit union, by posting a notice of the meeting in three conspicuous places, including the office of the credit union, by posting the notice of the meeting on the credit union's website, or by disclosing the notice of the meeting in membership newsletters or account statements.

(b) Unless expressly prohibited by the articles of incorporation or bylaws and subject to applicable requirements of this Act, the board of directors may provide by resolution that members may attend, participate in, act in, and vote at any annual meeting or special meeting through the use of a conference telephone or interactive technology, including, but not limited to, electronic transmission, internet usage, or remote communication, by means of which all persons participating in the meeting can communicate with each other. Participation through the use of a conference telephone or interactive technology shall constitute attendance, presence, and representation in person at the annual meeting or special meeting of the person or persons so participating and count towards the quorum required to conduct business at the meeting. The following conditions shall apply to any virtual meeting of the members:

(i) the credit union must internally possess or retain the technological capacity to facilitate virtual meeting attendance, participation, communication, and voting; and

(ii) the members must receive notice of the use of a virtual meeting format and appropriate instructions for joining, participating, and voting during the virtual meeting at least 7 days before the virtual meeting.

(2) On all questions and at all elections, except election of directors, each member has one vote regardless of the number of his shares. There shall be no voting by proxy except on the election of directors, proposals for merger or voluntary dissolution. Members may vote on questions, including, without limitation, the approval of mergers and voluntary dissolutions under this Act, and in elections by secure electronic record if approved by the board of directors. All voting on the election of directors shall be by ballot, but when there is no contest, written or electronic ballots need not be cast. The record date to be used for the purpose of determining which members are entitled to notice of or to vote at any meeting of members, may be fixed in advance by the directors on a date not more than 90 days nor less than 10 days prior to the date of the meeting. If no record date is fixed by the directors, the first day on which notice of the meeting is given, mailed or posted is the record date.

(3) Regardless of the number of shares owned by a society, association, club, partnership, other credit union or corporation, having membership in the credit union, it shall be entitled to only one vote and it may be represented and have its vote cast by its designated agent acting on its behalf pursuant to a resolution adopted by the organization's board of directors or similar governing authority; provided that the credit union shall obtain a certified copy of such resolution before such vote may be cast.

(4) A member may revoke a proxy by delivery to the credit union of a written statement to that effect, by execution of a subsequently dated proxy, by execution of a secure electronic record, or by attendance at a meeting and voting in person.

(5) As used in this Section, "electronic" and "electronic record" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act. As used in this Section, "secured electronic record" means an electronic record that meets the criteria set forth in the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-38, eff. 6-25-21; 102-496, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

Section 405. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is amended by changing Section 6.9 as follows:

(210 ILCS 5/6.9)

Sec. 6.9. Surgical smoke plume evacuation.

(a) In this Section:

"Surgical smoke plume" means the by-product of the use of energy-based devices on tissue during surgery and containing hazardous materials, including, but not limited to, bioaerosols bio-aeorsols, smoke, gases, tissue and cellular fragments and particulates, and viruses.

"Surgical smoke plume evacuation system" means a dedicated device that is designed to capture, transport, filter, and neutralize surgical smoke plume at the site of origin and before surgical smoke plume can make ocular contact, or contact with the respiratory tract, of an employee.

(b) To protect patients and health care workers from the hazards of surgical smoke plume, an ambulatory surgical treatment center licensed under this Act shall adopt policies to ensure the elimination of surgical smoke plume by use of a surgical smoke plume evacuation system for each procedure that generates surgical smoke plume from the use of energy-based devices, including, but not limited to, electrosurgery and lasers.

(c) An ambulatory surgical treatment center licensed under this Act shall report to the Department within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly that policies under subsection (b) of this Section have been adopted.

(Source: P.A. 102-533, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-22-21.)

Section 410. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Section 3.10 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.10)

Sec. 3.10. Scope of services.

(a) "Advanced Life Support (ALS) Services" means an advanced level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and non-emergency medical services that includes basic life support care, cardiac monitoring, cardiac defibrillation, electrocardiography, intravenous therapy, administration of medications, drugs and solutions, use of adjunctive medical devices, trauma care, and other authorized techniques and procedures, as outlined in the provisions of the National EMS Education Standards relating to Advanced Life Support and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

That care shall be initiated as authorized by the EMS Medical Director in a Department approved advanced life support EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or under the verbal direction of an Emergency Communications Registered Nurse.

(b) "Intermediate Life Support (ILS) Services" means an intermediate level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and non-emergency medical services that includes basic life support care plus intravenous cannulation and fluid therapy, invasive airway management, trauma care, and other authorized techniques and procedures, as outlined in the Intermediate Life Support national curriculum of the United States Department of Transportation and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

That care shall be initiated as authorized by the EMS Medical Director in a Department approved intermediate or advanced life support EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or under the verbal direction of an Emergency Communications Registered Nurse.

(c) "Basic Life Support (BLS) Services" means a basic level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and non-emergency medical services that includes medical monitoring, clinical observation, airway management, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), control of shock and bleeding and splinting of fractures, as outlined in the provisions of the National EMS Education Standards relating to Basic Life Support and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

That care shall be initiated, where authorized by the EMS Medical Director in a Department approved EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or under the verbal direction of an Emergency Communications Registered Nurse.

(d) "Emergency Medical Responder Services" means a preliminary level of pre-hospital emergency care that includes cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), monitoring vital signs and control of bleeding, as outlined in the Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) curriculum of the National EMS Education Standards and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

(e) "Pre-hospital care" means those medical services rendered to patients for analytic, resuscitative, stabilizing, or preventive purposes, precedent to and during transportation of such patients to health care facilities.

(f) "Inter-hospital care" means those medical services rendered to patients for analytic, resuscitative, stabilizing, or preventive purposes, during transportation of such patients from one hospital to another hospital.

(f-5) "Critical care transport" means the pre-hospital or inter-hospital transportation of a critically injured or ill patient by a vehicle service provider, including the provision of medically necessary supplies and services, at a level of service beyond the scope of the Paramedic. When medically indicated for a patient, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician physician's assistant, in compliance with subsections (b) and (c) of Section 3.155 of this Act, critical care transport may be provided by:

(1) Department-approved critical care transport providers, not owned or operated by a hospital, utilizing Paramedics with additional training, nurses, or other qualified health professionals; or

(2) Hospitals, when utilizing any vehicle service provider or any hospital-owned or operated vehicle service provider. Nothing in Public Act 96-1469 requires a hospital to use, or to be, a Department-approved critical care transport provider when transporting patients, including those critically injured or ill. Nothing in this Act shall restrict or prohibit a hospital from providing, or arranging for, the medically appropriate transport of any patient, as determined by a physician licensed to practice in all of its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician physician's assistant.

(g) "Non-emergency medical services" means the provision of, and all actions necessary before and after the provision of, Basic Life Support (BLS) Services, Advanced Life Support (ALS) Services, and critical care transport to patients whose conditions do not meet this Act's definition of emergency, before, after, or during transportation of such patients to or from health care facilities visited for the purpose of obtaining medical or health care services which are not emergency in nature, using a vehicle regulated by this Act and personnel licensed under this Act.

(g-5) The Department shall have the authority to promulgate minimum standards for critical care transport providers through rules adopted pursuant to this Act. All critical care transport providers must function within a Department-approved EMS System. Nothing in Department rules shall restrict a hospital's ability to furnish personnel, equipment, and medical supplies to any vehicle service provider, including a critical care transport provider. Minimum critical care transport provider standards shall include, but are not limited to:

(1) Personnel staffing and licensure.

(2) Education, certification, and experience.

(3) Medical equipment and supplies.

(4) Vehicular standards.

(5) Treatment and transport protocols.

(6) Quality assurance and data collection.

(h) The provisions of this Act shall not apply to the use of an ambulance or SEMSV, unless and until emergency or non-emergency medical services are needed during the use of the ambulance or SEMSV.

(Source: P.A. 102-623, eff. 8-27-21; revised 12-1-21.)

Section 415. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 6.28 and by changing Sections 10.10 and 14.5 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/6.28)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2022)

Sec. 6.28. N95 masks. Pursuant to and in accordance with applicable local, State, and federal policies, guidance and recommendations of public health and infection control authorities, and taking into consideration the limitations on access to N95 masks caused by disruptions in local, State, national, and international supply chains, a hospital licensed under this Act shall provide N95 masks to physicians licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, registered nurses and advanced practice registered nurses licensed under the Nurse Practice Licensing Act, and any other employees or contractual workers who provide direct patient care and who, pursuant to such policies, guidance, and recommendations, are recommended to have such a mask to safely provide such direct patient care within a hospital setting. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to impose any new duty or obligation on the hospital or employee that is greater than that imposed under State and federal laws in effect on April 27, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-4) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

This Section is repealed on December 31, 2022.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-674, eff. 11-30-21; revised 12-14-21.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.30)

Sec. 6.30 6.28. Facility-provided medication upon discharge.

(a) The General Assembly finds that this Section is necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety.

(b) In this Section, "facility-provided medication" has the same meaning as provided under Section 15.10 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(c) When a facility-provided medication is ordered at least 24 hours in advance for surgical procedures and is administered to a patient at a hospital licensed under this Act, any unused portion of the facility-provided medication must be offered to the patient upon discharge when it is required for continuing treatment.

(d) A facility-provided medication shall be labeled consistent with labeling requirements under Section 22 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(e) If the facility-provided medication is used in an operating room or emergency department setting, the prescriber is responsible for counseling the patient on its proper use and administration and the requirement of pharmacist counseling is waived.

(Source: P.A. 102-155, eff. 7-23-21; revised 11-10-21.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.31)

Sec. 6.31 6.28. Patient contact policy during pandemics or other public health emergencies. During a pandemic or other public health emergency, a hospital licensed under this Act shall develop and implement a contact policy to encourage patients' ability to engage with family members throughout the duration of the pandemic or other public health emergency, including through the use of phone calls, videos calls, or other electronic mechanisms mechanism.

(Source: P.A. 102-398, eff. 8-16-21; revised 11-10-21.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.32)

Sec. 6.32 6.28. Surgical smoke plume evacuation.

(a) In this Section:

"Surgical smoke plume" means the by-product of the use of energy-based devices on tissue during surgery and containing hazardous materials, including, but not limited to, bioaerosols bio-aeorsols, smoke, gases, tissue and cellular fragments and particulates, and viruses.

"Surgical smoke plume evacuation system" means a dedicated device that is designed to capture, transport, filter, and neutralize surgical smoke plume at the site of origin and before surgical smoke plume can make ocular contact, or contact with the respiratory tract, of an employee.

(b) To protect patients and health care workers from the hazards of surgical smoke plume, a hospital licensed under this Act shall adopt policies to ensure the elimination of surgical smoke plume by use of a surgical smoke plume evacuation system for each procedure that generates surgical smoke plume from the use of energy-based devices, including, but not limited to, electrosurgery and lasers.

(c) A hospital licensed under this Act shall report to the Department within 90 days after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-533) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly that policies under subsection (b) of this Section have been adopted.

(Source: P.A. 102-533, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-10-21.)

(210 ILCS 85/10.10)

Sec. 10.10. Nurse Staffing by Patient Acuity.

(a) Findings. The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(1) The State of Illinois has a substantial interest in promoting quality care and improving the delivery of health care services.

(2) Evidence-based studies have shown that the basic principles of staffing in the acute care setting should be based on the complexity of patients' care needs aligned with available nursing skills to promote quality patient care consistent with professional nursing standards.

(3) Compliance with this Section promotes an organizational climate that values registered nurses' input in meeting the health care needs of hospital patients.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Acuity model" means an assessment tool selected and implemented by a hospital, as recommended by a nursing care committee, that assesses the complexity of patient care needs requiring professional nursing care and skills and aligns patient care needs and nursing skills consistent with professional nursing standards.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Direct patient care" means care provided by a registered professional nurse with direct responsibility to oversee or carry out medical regimens or nursing care for one or more patients.

"Nursing care committee" means a hospital-wide committee or committees of nurses whose functions, in part or in whole, contribute to the development, recommendation, and review of the hospital's nurse staffing plan established pursuant to subsection (d).

"Registered professional nurse" means a person licensed as a Registered Nurse under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Written staffing plan for nursing care services" means a written plan for the assignment of patient care nursing staff based on multiple nurse and patient considerations that yield minimum staffing levels for inpatient care units and the adopted acuity model aligning patient care needs with nursing skills required for quality patient care consistent with professional nursing standards.

(c) Written staffing plan.

(1) Every hospital shall implement a written hospital-wide staffing plan, prepared by a nursing care committee or committees, that provides for minimum direct care professional registered nurse-to-patient staffing needs for each inpatient care unit, including inpatient emergency departments. If the staffing plan prepared by the nursing care committee is not adopted by the hospital, or if substantial changes are proposed to it, the chief nursing officer shall either: (i) provide a written explanation to the committee of the reasons the plan was not adopted; or (ii) provide a written explanation of any substantial changes made to the proposed plan prior to it being adopted by the hospital. The written hospital-wide staffing plan shall include, but need not be limited to, the following considerations:

(A) The complexity of complete care, assessment on patient admission, volume of patient admissions, discharges and transfers, evaluation of the progress of a patient's problems, ongoing physical assessments, planning for a patient's discharge, assessment after a change in patient condition, and assessment of the need for patient referrals.

(B) The complexity of clinical professional nursing judgment needed to design and implement a patient's nursing care plan, the need for specialized equipment and technology, the skill mix of other personnel providing or supporting direct patient care, and involvement in quality improvement activities, professional preparation, and experience.

(C) Patient acuity and the number of patients for whom care is being provided.

(D) The ongoing assessments of a unit's patient acuity levels and nursing staff needed shall be routinely made by the unit nurse manager or his or her designee.

(E) The identification of additional registered nurses available for direct patient care when patients' unexpected needs exceed the planned workload for direct care staff.

(2) In order to provide staffing flexibility to meet patient needs, every hospital shall identify an acuity model for adjusting the staffing plan for each inpatient care unit.

(2.5) Each hospital shall implement the staffing plan and assign nursing personnel to each inpatient care unit, including inpatient emergency departments, in accordance with the staffing plan.

(A) A registered nurse may report to the nursing care committee any variations where the nurse personnel assignment in an inpatient care unit is not in accordance with the adopted staffing plan and may make a written report to the nursing care committee based on the variations.

(B) Shift-to-shift adjustments in staffing levels required by the staffing plan may be made by the appropriate hospital personnel overseeing inpatient care operations. If a registered nurse in an inpatient care unit objects to a shift-to-shift adjustment, the registered nurse may submit a written report to the nursing care committee.

(C) The nursing care committee shall develop a process to examine and respond to written reports submitted under subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph (2.5), including the ability to determine if a specific written report is resolved or should be dismissed.

(3) The written staffing plan shall be posted, either by physical or electronic means, in a conspicuous and accessible location for both patients and direct care staff, as required under the Hospital Report Card Act. A copy of the written staffing plan shall be provided to any member of the general public upon request.

(d) Nursing care committee.

(1) Every hospital shall have a nursing care committee that meets at least 6 times per year. A hospital shall appoint members of a committee whereby at least 55% of the members are registered professional nurses providing direct inpatient care, one of whom shall be selected annually by the direct inpatient care nurses to serve as co-chair of the committee.

(2) (Blank).

(2.5) A nursing care committee shall prepare and recommend to hospital administration the hospital's written hospital-wide staffing plan. If the staffing plan is not adopted by the hospital, the chief nursing officer shall provide a written statement to the committee prior to a staffing plan being adopted by the hospital that: (A) explains the reasons the committee's proposed staffing plan was not adopted; and (B) describes the changes to the committee's proposed staffing or any alternative to the committee's proposed staffing plan.

(3) A nursing care committee's or committees' written staffing plan for the hospital shall be based on the principles from the staffing components set forth in subsection (c). In particular, a committee or committees shall provide input and feedback on the following:

(A) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of minimum staffing levels for inpatient care units.

(B) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of an acuity model to provide staffing flexibility that aligns changing patient acuity with nursing skills required.

(C) Selection, implementation, and evaluation of a written staffing plan incorporating the items described in subdivisions (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this Section.

(D) Review the nurse staffing plans for all inpatient areas; and current acuity tools and measures in use. The nursing care committee's review shall consider:

(i) patient outcomes;

(ii) complaints regarding staffing, including complaints about a delay in direct care nursing or an absence of direct care nursing;

(iii) the number of hours of nursing care provided through an inpatient hospital unit compared with the number of inpatients served by the hospital unit during a 24-hour period;

(iv) the aggregate hours of overtime worked by the nursing staff;

(v) the extent to which actual nurse staffing for each hospital inpatient unit differs from the staffing specified by the staffing plan; and

(vi) any other matter or change to the staffing plan determined by the committee to ensure that the hospital is staffed to meet the health care needs of patients.

(4) A nursing care committee must issue a written report addressing the items described in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of paragraph (3) semi-annually. A written copy of this report shall be made available to direct inpatient care nurses by making available a paper copy of the report, distributing it electronically, or posting it on the hospital's website.

(5) A nursing care committee must issue a written report at least annually to the hospital governing board that addresses items including, but not limited to: the items described in paragraph (3); changes made based on committee recommendations and the impact of such changes; and recommendations for future changes related to nurse staffing.

(e) Nothing in this Section 10.10 shall be construed to limit, alter, or modify any of the terms, conditions, or provisions of a collective bargaining agreement entered into by the hospital.

(f) No hospital may discipline, discharge, or take any other adverse employment action against an employee solely because the employee expresses a concern or complaint regarding an alleged violation of this Section or concerns related to nurse staffing.

(g) Any employee of a hospital may file a complaint with the Department regarding an alleged violation of this Section. The Department must forward notification of the alleged violation to the hospital in question within 10 business days after the complaint is filed. Upon receiving a complaint of a violation of this Section, the Department may take any action authorized under Sections 7 or 9 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-641, eff. 8-27-21; revised 10-6-21.)

(210 ILCS 85/14.5)

Sec. 14.5. Hospital Licensure Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury the Hospital Licensure Fund. The Fund is created for the purpose of providing funding for the administration of the licensure program and patient safety and quality initiatives for hospitals, including, without limitation, the implementation of the Illinois Adverse Health Care Events Reporting Law of 2005.

(b) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) fees collected pursuant to Sections 5 and 7 of this the Hospital Licensing Act;

(2) federal matching funds received by the State as a result of expenditures made by the Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the Fund;

(3) interest earned on moneys deposited in the Fund; and

(4) other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned thereon.

(c) Disbursements from the Fund shall be made only for:

(1) initially, the implementation of the Illinois Adverse Health Care Events Reporting Law of 2005;

(2) subsequently, programs, information, or assistance, including measures to address public complaints, designed to measurably improve quality and patient safety;

(2.5) from fines for violations of Section 10.10, scholarships under the Nursing Education Scholarship Law; and

(3) the reimbursement of moneys collected by the Department through error or mistake.

(d) The uses described in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) shall be developed in conjunction with a statewide organization representing a majority of hospitals.

(Source: P.A. 102-641, eff. 8-27-21; revised 12-1-21.)

Section 420. The Birth Center Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(210 ILCS 170/30)

Sec. 30. Minimum standards. (a) The Department's rules adopted pursuant to Section 60 of this Act shall contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient of a birth center. In adopting rules for birth centers, the Department shall consider:

(1) the Commission for the Accreditation of Birth Centers' Standards for Freestanding Birth Centers;

(2) the American Academy of Pediatrics and American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists Guidelines for Perinatal Care; and

(3) the Regionalized Perinatal Health Care Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-518, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-1-21.)

Section 425. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 131.1, 131.14b, 131.22, 370c, and 370c.1 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 356z.43 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/131.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-578)

Sec. 131.1. Definitions. As used in this Article, the following terms have the respective meanings set forth in this Section unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) An "affiliate" of, or person "affiliated" with, a specific person, is a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.

(a-5) "Acquiring party" means such person by whom or on whose behalf the merger or other acquisition of control referred to in Section 131.4 is to be affected and any person that controls such person or persons.

(a-10) "Associated person" means, with respect to an acquiring party, (1) any beneficial owner of shares of the company to be acquired, owned, directly or indirectly, of record or beneficially by the acquiring party, (2) any affiliate of the acquiring party or beneficial owner, and (3) any other person acting in concert, directly or indirectly, pursuant to any agreement, arrangement, or understanding, whether written or oral, with the acquiring party or beneficial owner, or any of their respective affiliates, in connection with the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control referred to in Section 131.4 of this Code.

(a-15) "Company" has the same meaning as "company" as defined in Section 2 of this Code, except that it does not include agencies, authorities, or instrumentalities of the United States, its possessions and territories, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, or a state or political subdivision of a state.

(b) "Control" (including the terms "controlling", "controlled by" and "under common control with") means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, the holding of shareholders' or policyholders' proxies by contract other than a commercial contract for goods or non-management services, or otherwise, unless the power is solely the result of an official position with or corporate office held by the person. Control is presumed to exist if any person, directly or indirectly, owns, controls, holds with the power to vote, or holds shareholders' proxies representing 10% or more of the voting securities of any other person, or holds or controls sufficient policyholders' proxies to elect the majority of the board of directors of the domestic company. This presumption may be rebutted by a showing made in the manner as the Director may provide by rule. The Director may determine, after furnishing all persons in interest notice and opportunity to be heard and making specific findings of fact to support such determination, that control exists in fact, notwithstanding the absence of a presumption to that effect.

(b-5) "Enterprise risk" means any activity, circumstance, event, or series of events involving one or more affiliates of a company that, if not remedied promptly, is likely to have a material adverse effect upon the financial condition or liquidity of the company or its insurance holding company system as a whole, including, but not limited to, anything that would cause the company's risk-based capital to fall into company action level as set forth in Article IIA of this Code or would cause the company to be in hazardous financial condition as set forth in Article XII 1/2 of this Code.

(b-10) "Exchange Act" means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, together with the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(b-15) "Group-wide supervisor" means the regulatory official authorized to engage in conducting and coordinating group-wide supervision activities who is determined or acknowledged by the Director under Section 131.20d of this Code to have sufficient contacts with an internationally active insurance group.

(c) "Insurance holding company system" means two or more affiliated persons, one or more of which is an insurance company as defined in paragraph (e) of Section 2 of this Code.

(c-5) "Internationally active insurance group" means an insurance holding company system that:

(1) includes an insurer registered under Section 4 of this Code; and

(2) meets the following criteria:

(A) premiums written in at least 3 countries;

(B) the percentage of gross premiums written outside the United States is at least 10% of the insurance holding company system's total gross written premiums; and

(C) based on a 3-year rolling average, the total assets of the insurance holding company system are at least $50,000,000,000 or the total gross written premiums of the insurance holding company system are at least $10,000,000,000.

(d) (Blank).

(d-1) "NAIC" means the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.

(d-5) "Non-operating holding company" is a general business corporation functioning solely for the purpose of forming, owning, acquiring, and managing subsidiary business entities and having no other business operations not related thereto.

(d-10) "Own", "owned," or "owning" means shares (1) with respect to which a person has title or to which a person's nominee, custodian, or other agent has title and which such nominee, custodian, or other agent is holding on behalf of the person or (2) with respect to which a person (A) has purchased or has entered into an unconditional contract, binding on both parties, to purchase the shares, but has not yet received the shares, (B) owns a security convertible into or exchangeable for the shares and has tendered the security for conversion or exchange, (C) has an option to purchase or acquire, or rights or warrants to subscribe to, the shares and has exercised such option, rights, or warrants, or (D) holds a securities futures contract to purchase the shares and has received notice that the position will be physically settled and is irrevocably bound to receive the underlying shares. To the extent that any affiliates of the stockholder or beneficial owner are acting in concert with the stockholder or beneficial owner, the determination of shares owned may include the effect of aggregating the shares owned by the affiliate or affiliates. Whether shares constitute shares owned shall be decided by the Director in his or her reasonable determination.

(e) "Person" means an individual, a corporation, a limited liability company, a partnership, an association, a joint stock company, a trust, an unincorporated organization, any similar entity or any combination of the foregoing acting in concert, but does not include any securities broker performing no more than the usual and customary broker's function or joint venture partnership exclusively engaged in owning, managing, leasing or developing real or tangible personal property other than capital stock.

(e-5) "Policyholders' proxies" are proxies that give the holder the right to vote for the election of the directors and other corporate actions not in the day to day operations of the company.

(f) (Blank).

(f-5) "Securityholder" of a specified person is one who owns any security of such person, including common stock, preferred stock, debt obligations, and any other security convertible into or evidencing the right to acquire any of the foregoing.

(g) "Subsidiary" of a specified person is an affiliate controlled by such person directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries.

(h) "Voting Security" is a security which gives to the holder thereof the right to vote for the election of directors and includes any security convertible into or evidencing a right to acquire a voting security.

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 102-394, eff. 8-16-21; revised 9-22-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-578)

Sec. 131.1. Definitions. As used in this Article, the following terms have the respective meanings set forth in this Section unless the context requires otherwise:

(a) An "affiliate" of, or person "affiliated" with, a specific person, is a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.

(a-5) "Acquiring party" means such person by whom or on whose behalf the merger or other acquisition of control referred to in Section 131.4 is to be affected and any person that controls such person or persons.

(a-10) "Associated person" means, with respect to an acquiring party, (1) any beneficial owner of shares of the company to be acquired, owned, directly or indirectly, of record or beneficially by the acquiring party, (2) any affiliate of the acquiring party or beneficial owner, and (3) any other person acting in concert, directly or indirectly, pursuant to any agreement, arrangement, or understanding, whether written or oral, with the acquiring party or beneficial owner, or any of their respective affiliates, in connection with the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control referred to in Section 131.4 of this Code.

(a-15) "Company" has the same meaning as "company" as defined in Section 2 of this Code, except that it does not include agencies, authorities, or instrumentalities of the United States, its possessions and territories, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, or a state or political subdivision of a state.

(b) "Control" (including the terms "controlling", "controlled by" and "under common control with") means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, the holding of shareholders' or policyholders' proxies by contract other than a commercial contract for goods or non-management services, or otherwise, unless the power is solely the result of an official position with or corporate office held by the person. Control is presumed to exist if any person, directly or indirectly, owns, controls, holds with the power to vote, or holds shareholders' proxies representing 10% or more of the voting securities of any other person, or holds or controls sufficient policyholders' proxies to elect the majority of the board of directors of the domestic company. This presumption may be rebutted by a showing made in the manner as the Director may provide by rule. The Director may determine, after furnishing all persons in interest notice and opportunity to be heard and making specific findings of fact to support such determination, that control exists in fact, notwithstanding the absence of a presumption to that effect.

(b-5) "Enterprise risk" means any activity, circumstance, event, or series of events involving one or more affiliates of a company that, if not remedied promptly, is likely to have a material adverse effect upon the financial condition or liquidity of the company or its insurance holding company system as a whole, including, but not limited to, anything that would cause the company's risk-based capital to fall into company action level as set forth in Article IIA of this Code or would cause the company to be in hazardous financial condition as set forth in Article XII 1/2 of this Code.

(b-10) "Exchange Act" means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, together with the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(b-12) "Group capital calculation instructions" means the group capital calculation instructions as adopted by the NAIC and as amended by the NAIC from time to time in accordance with the procedures adopted by the NAIC.

(b-15) "Group-wide supervisor" means the regulatory official authorized to engage in conducting and coordinating group-wide supervision activities who is determined or acknowledged by the Director under Section 131.20d of this Code to have sufficient contacts with an internationally active insurance group.

(c) "Insurance holding company system" means two or more affiliated persons, one or more of which is an insurance company as defined in paragraph (e) of Section 2 of this Code.

(c-5) "Internationally active insurance group" means an insurance holding company system that:

(1) includes an insurer registered under Section 4 of this Code; and

(2) meets the following criteria:

(A) premiums written in at least 3 countries;

(B) the percentage of gross premiums written outside the United States is at least 10% of the insurance holding company system's total gross written premiums; and

(C) based on a 3-year rolling average, the total assets of the insurance holding company system are at least $50,000,000,000 or the total gross written premiums of the insurance holding company system are at least $10,000,000,000.

(d) (Blank).

(d-1) "NAIC" means the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.

(d-2) "NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework" is a separate NAIC publication which includes a history of the NAIC's development of regulatory liquidity stress testing, the scope criteria applicable for a specific data year, and the liquidity stress test instructions, and reporting templates for a specific data year, such scope criteria, instructions, and reporting template being as adopted by the NAIC and as amended by the NAIC from time to time in accordance with the procedures adopted by the NAIC.

(d-5) "Non-operating holding company" is a general business corporation functioning solely for the purpose of forming, owning, acquiring, and managing subsidiary business entities and having no other business operations not related thereto.

(d-10) "Own", "owned," or "owning" means shares (1) with respect to which a person has title or to which a person's nominee, custodian, or other agent has title and which such nominee, custodian, or other agent is holding on behalf of the person or (2) with respect to which a person (A) has purchased or has entered into an unconditional contract, binding on both parties, to purchase the shares, but has not yet received the shares, (B) owns a security convertible into or exchangeable for the shares and has tendered the security for conversion or exchange, (C) has an option to purchase or acquire, or rights or warrants to subscribe to, the shares and has exercised such option, rights, or warrants, or (D) holds a securities futures contract to purchase the shares and has received notice that the position will be physically settled and is irrevocably bound to receive the underlying shares. To the extent that any affiliates of the stockholder or beneficial owner are acting in concert with the stockholder or beneficial owner, the determination of shares owned may include the effect of aggregating the shares owned by the affiliate or affiliates. Whether shares constitute shares owned shall be decided by the Director in his or her reasonable determination.

(e) "Person" means an individual, a corporation, a limited liability company, a partnership, an association, a joint stock company, a trust, an unincorporated organization, any similar entity or any combination of the foregoing acting in concert, but does not include any securities broker performing no more than the usual and customary broker's function or joint venture partnership exclusively engaged in owning, managing, leasing or developing real or tangible personal property other than capital stock.

(e-5) "Policyholders' proxies" are proxies that give the holder the right to vote for the election of the directors and other corporate actions not in the day to day operations of the company.

(f) (Blank).

(f-3) (f-5) "Scope criteria", as detailed in the NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework, are the designated exposure bases along with minimum magnitudes thereof for the specified data year, used to establish a preliminary list of insurers considered scoped into the NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework for that data year.

(f-5) "Securityholder" of a specified person is one who owns any security of such person, including common stock, preferred stock, debt obligations, and any other security convertible into or evidencing the right to acquire any of the foregoing.

(g) "Subsidiary" of a specified person is an affiliate controlled by such person directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries.

(h) "Voting Security" is a security which gives to the holder thereof the right to vote for the election of directors and includes any security convertible into or evidencing a right to acquire a voting security.

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 102-394, eff. 8-16-21; 102-578, eff. 7-1-22 (See Section 5 of P.A. 102-672 for effective date of P.A. 102-578); revised 12-1-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/131.14b)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-578)

Sec. 131.14b. Enterprise risk filing. The ultimate controlling person of every company subject to registration shall also file an annual enterprise risk report. The report shall, to the best of the ultimate controlling person's knowledge and belief, identify the material risks within the insurance holding company system that could pose enterprise risk to the company. The report shall be filed with the lead state commissioner of the insurance holding company system as determined by the procedures within the Financial Analysis Handbook adopted by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.

(Source: P.A. 98-609, eff. 7-1-14.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-578)

Sec. 131.14b. Enterprise risk filings.

(a) Annual enterprise risk report. The ultimate controlling person of every company subject to registration shall also file an annual enterprise risk report. The report shall, to the best of the ultimate controlling person's knowledge and belief, identify the material risks within the insurance holding company system that could pose enterprise risk to the company. The report shall be filed with the lead state commissioner of the insurance holding company system as determined by the procedures within the Financial Analysis Handbook adopted by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.

(b) Group capital calculation. Except as provided in this subsection, the ultimate controlling person of every insurer subject to registration shall concurrently file with the registration an annual group capital calculation as directed by the lead state commissioner. The report shall be completed in accordance with the NAIC Group Capital Calculation Instructions, which may permit the lead state commissioner to allow a controlling person who is not the ultimate controlling person to file the group capital calculation. The report shall be filed with the lead state commissioner of the insurance holding company system as determined by the commissioner in accordance with the procedures within the Financial Analysis Handbook adopted by the NAIC. Insurance holding company systems described in the following are exempt from filing the group capital calculation:

(1) an insurance holding company system that has only one insurer within its holding company structure, that only writes business and is only licensed in Illinois, and that assumes no business from any other insurer;

(2) an insurance holding company system that is required to perform a group capital calculation specified by the United States Federal Reserve Board; the lead state commissioner shall request the calculation from the Federal Reserve Board under the terms of information sharing agreements in effect; if the Federal Reserve Board cannot share the calculation with the lead state commissioner, the insurance holding company system is not exempt from the group capital calculation filing;

(3) an insurance holding company system whose non-U.S. group-wide supervisor is located within a reciprocal jurisdiction as described in paragraph (C-10) of subsection (1) of Section 173.1 that recognizes the U.S. state regulatory approach to group supervision and group capital; and

(4) an insurance holding company system:

(i) that provides information to the lead state that meets the requirements for accreditation under the NAIC financial standards and accreditation program, either directly or indirectly through the group-wide supervisor, who has determined such information is satisfactory to allow the lead state to comply with the NAIC group supervision approach, as detailed in the NAIC Financial Analysis Handbook; and

(ii) whose non-U.S. group-wide supervisor that is not in a reciprocal jurisdiction recognizes and accepts, as specified by the commissioner in regulation, the group capital calculation as the world-wide group capital assessment for U.S. insurance groups who operate in that jurisdiction.

(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection, a lead state commissioner shall require the group capital calculation for U.S. operations of any non-U.S. based insurance holding company system where, after any necessary consultation with other supervisors or officials, it is deemed appropriate by the lead state commissioner for prudential oversight and solvency monitoring purposes or for ensuring the competitiveness of the insurance marketplace.

(6) Notwithstanding the exemptions from filing the group capital calculation stated in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection, the lead state commissioner has the discretion to exempt the ultimate controlling person from filing the annual group capital calculation or to accept a limited group capital filing or report in accordance with criteria as specified by the Director in regulation.

(c) Liquidity stress test. The ultimate controlling person of every insurer subject to registration and also scoped into the NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework shall file the results of a specific year's liquidity stress test. The filing shall be made to the lead state insurance commissioner of the insurance holding company system as determined by the procedures within the Financial Analysis Handbook adopted by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners:

(1) The NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework includes scope criteria applicable to a specific data year. These scope criteria are reviewed at least annually by the NAIC Financial Stability Task Force or its successor. Any change to the NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework or to the data year for which the scope criteria are to be measured shall be effective on January 1 of the year following the calendar year when such changes are adopted. Insurers meeting at least one threshold of the scope criteria are considered scoped into the NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework for the specified data year unless the lead state insurance commissioner, in consultation with the NAIC Financial Stability Task Force or its successor, determines the insurer should not be scoped into the Framework for that data year. Similarly, insurers that do not trigger at least one threshold of the scope criteria are considered scoped out of the NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework for the specified data year, unless the lead state insurance commissioner, in consultation with the NAIC Financial Stability Task Force or its successor, determines the insurer should be scoped into the Framework for that data year.

The lead state insurance commissioner, in consultation with the Financial Stability Task Force or its successor, shall assess the regulator's wish to avoid having insurers scoped in and out of the NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework on a frequent basis as part of the determination for an insurer.

(2) The performance of, and filing of the results from, a specific year's liquidity stress test shall comply with the NAIC Liquidity Stress Test Framework's instructions and reporting templates for that year and any lead state insurance commissioner determinations, in conjunction with the NAIC Financial Stability Task Force or its successor, provided within the Framework.

(Source: P.A. 102-578, eff. 7-1-22 (See Section 5 of P.A. 102-672 for effective date of P.A. 102-578); revised 12-2-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/131.22)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-578)

Sec. 131.22. Confidential treatment.

(a) Documents, materials, or other information in the possession or control of the Department that are obtained by or disclosed to the Director or any other person in the course of an examination or investigation made pursuant to this Article and all information reported or provided to the Department pursuant to paragraphs (12) and (13) of Section 131.5 and Sections 131.13 through 131.21 shall be confidential by law and privileged, shall not be subject to the Illinois Freedom of Information Act, shall not be subject to subpoena, and shall not be subject to discovery or admissible in evidence in any private civil action. However, the Director is authorized to use the documents, materials, or other information in the furtherance of any regulatory or legal action brought as a part of the Director's official duties. The Director shall not otherwise make the documents, materials, or other information public without the prior written consent of the company to which it pertains unless the Director, after giving the company and its affiliates who would be affected thereby prior written notice and an opportunity to be heard, determines that the interest of policyholders, shareholders, or the public shall be served by the publication thereof, in which event the Director may publish all or any part in such manner as may be deemed appropriate.

(b) Neither the Director nor any person who received documents, materials, or other information while acting under the authority of the Director or with whom such documents, materials, or other information are shared pursuant to this Article shall be permitted or required to testify in any private civil action concerning any confidential documents, materials, or information subject to subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) In order to assist in the performance of the Director's duties, the Director:

(1) may share documents, materials, or other information, including the confidential and privileged documents, materials, or information subject to subsection (a) of this Section, with other state, federal, and international regulatory agencies, with the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries, and with third-party consultants, and with state, federal, and international law enforcement authorities and regulatory agencies, including members of any supervisory college allowed by this Article, provided that the recipient agrees in writing to maintain the confidentiality and privileged status of the document, material, or other information, and has verified in writing the legal authority to maintain confidentiality;

(1.5) notwithstanding paragraph (1) of this subsection (c), may only share confidential and privileged documents, material, or information reported pursuant to Section 131.14b with commissioners of states having statutes or regulations substantially similar to subsection (a) of this Section and who have agreed in writing not to disclose such information; and

(2) may receive documents, materials, or information, including otherwise confidential and privileged documents, materials, or information from the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries and from regulatory and law enforcement officials of other foreign or domestic jurisdictions, and shall maintain as confidential or privileged any document, material, or information received with notice or the understanding that it is confidential or privileged under the laws of the jurisdiction that is the source of the document, material, or information; any such documents, materials, or information, while in the Director's possession, shall not be subject to the Illinois Freedom of Information Act and shall not be subject to subpoena.

(c-5) Written agreements with the NAIC or third-party consultants governing sharing and use of information provided pursuant to this Article consistent with this subsection (c) shall:

(1) specify procedures and protocols regarding the confidentiality and security of information shared with the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants pursuant to this Article, including procedures and protocols for sharing by the NAIC with other state, federal, or international regulators;

(2) specify that ownership of information shared with the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants pursuant to this Article remains with the Director and the NAIC's or third-party consultant's use of the information is subject to the direction of the Director;

(3) require prompt notice to be given to a company whose confidential information in the possession of the NAIC or third-party consultant pursuant to this Article is subject to a request or subpoena for disclosure or production; and

(4) require the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants to consent to intervention by a company in any judicial or administrative action in which the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants may be required to disclose confidential information about the company shared with the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants pursuant to this Article.

(d) The sharing of documents, materials, or information by the Director pursuant to this Article shall not constitute a delegation of regulatory authority or rulemaking, and the Director is solely responsible for the administration, execution, and enforcement of the provisions of this Article.

(e) No waiver of any applicable privilege or claim of confidentiality in the documents, materials, or information shall occur as a result of disclosure to the Director under this Section or as a result of sharing as authorized in subsection (c) of this Section.

(f) Documents, materials, or other information in the possession or control of the NAIC or a third-party consultant pursuant to this Article shall be confidential by law and privileged, shall not be subject to the Illinois Freedom of Information Act, shall not be subject to subpoena, and shall not be subject to discovery or admissible in evidence in any private civil action.

(Source: P.A. 102-394, eff. 8-16-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-578)

Sec. 131.22. Confidential treatment.

(a) Documents, materials, or other information in the possession or control of the Department that are obtained by or disclosed to the Director or any other person in the course of an examination or investigation made pursuant to this Article and all information reported or provided to the Department pursuant to paragraphs (12) and (13) of Section 131.5 and Sections 131.13 through 131.21 are recognized by this State as being proprietary and to contain trade secrets, and shall be confidential by law and privileged, shall not be subject to the Illinois Freedom of Information Act, shall not be subject to subpoena, and shall not be subject to discovery or admissible in evidence in any private civil action. However, the Director is authorized to use the documents, materials, or other information in the furtherance of any regulatory or legal action brought as a part of the Director's official duties. The Director shall not otherwise make the documents, materials, or other information public without the prior written consent of the company to which it pertains unless the Director, after giving the company and its affiliates who would be affected thereby prior written notice and an opportunity to be heard, determines that the interest of policyholders, shareholders, or the public shall be served by the publication thereof, in which event the Director may publish all or any part in such manner as may be deemed appropriate.

(b) Neither the Director nor any person who received documents, materials, or other information while acting under the authority of the Director or with whom such documents, materials, or other information are shared pursuant to this Article shall be permitted or required to testify in any private civil action concerning any confidential documents, materials, or information subject to subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) In order to assist in the performance of the Director's duties, the Director:

(1) may share documents, materials, or other information, including the confidential and privileged documents, materials, or information subject to subsection (a) of this Section, including proprietary and trade secret documents and materials, with other state, federal, and international regulatory agencies, with the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries, and with third-party consultants, and with state, federal, and international law enforcement authorities and regulatory agencies, including members of any supervisory college allowed by this Article, provided that the recipient agrees in writing to maintain the confidentiality and privileged status of the document, material, or other information, and has verified in writing the legal authority to maintain confidentiality;

(1.5) notwithstanding paragraph (1) of this subsection (c), may only share confidential and privileged documents, material, or information reported pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 131.14b with commissioners of states having statutes or regulations substantially similar to subsection (a) of this Section and who have agreed in writing not to disclose such information; and

(2) may receive documents, materials, or information, including otherwise confidential and privileged documents, materials, or information, including proprietary and trade secret information, from the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries and from regulatory and law enforcement officials of other foreign or domestic jurisdictions, and shall maintain as confidential or privileged any document, material, or information received with notice or the understanding that it is confidential or privileged under the laws of the jurisdiction that is the source of the document, material, or information; any such documents, materials, or information, while in the Director's possession, shall not be subject to the Illinois Freedom of Information Act and shall not be subject to subpoena.

(blank).

(c-5) Written agreements with the NAIC or third-party consultants governing sharing and use of information provided pursuant to this Article consistent with subsection (c) shall:

(1) specify procedures and protocols regarding the confidentiality and security of information shared with the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants pursuant to this Article, including procedures and protocols for sharing by the NAIC with other state, federal, or international regulators; the agreement shall provide that the recipient agrees in writing to maintain the confidentiality and privileged status of the documents, materials, or other information and has verified in writing the legal authority to maintain such confidentiality;

(2) specify that ownership of information shared with the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants pursuant to this Article remains with the Director and the NAIC's or third-party consultant's use of the information is subject to the direction of the Director;

(3) require prompt notice to be given to a company whose confidential information in the possession of the NAIC or third-party consultant pursuant to this Article is subject to a request or subpoena for disclosure or production;

(4) require the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants to consent to intervention by a company in any judicial or administrative action in which the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants may be required to disclose confidential information about the company shared with the NAIC and its affiliates and subsidiaries or third-party consultants pursuant to this Article; and

(5) excluding documents, material, or information reported pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 131.14b, prohibit the NAIC or third-party consultant from storing the information shared pursuant to this Code in a permanent database after the underlying analysis is completed.

(d) The sharing of documents, materials, or information by the Director pursuant to this Article shall not constitute a delegation of regulatory authority or rulemaking, and the Director is solely responsible for the administration, execution, and enforcement of the provisions of this Article.

(e) No waiver of any applicable privilege or claim of confidentiality in the documents, materials, or information shall occur as a result of disclosure to the Director under this Section or as a result of sharing as authorized in subsection (c) of this Section.

(f) Documents, materials, or other information in the possession or control of the NAIC or third-party consultant pursuant to this Article shall be confidential by law and privileged, shall not be subject to the Illinois Freedom of Information Act, shall not be subject to subpoena, and shall not be subject to discovery or admissible in evidence in any private civil action.

(Source: P.A. 102-394, eff. 8-16-21; 102-578, eff. 7-1-22 (See Section 5 of P.A. 102-672 for effective date of P.A. 102-578); revised 12-1-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.43)

Sec. 356z.43. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 102-34, eff. 6-25-21. Repealed internally, eff. 1-1-22.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.45)

Sec. 356z.45 356z.43. Coverage for patient care services provided by a pharmacist. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2023 shall provide coverage for health care or patient care services provided by a pharmacist if:

(1) the pharmacist meets the requirements and scope of practice as set forth in Section 43 of the Pharmacy Practice Act;

(2) the health plan provides coverage for the same service provided by a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant;

(3) the pharmacist is included in the health benefit plan's network of participating providers; and

(4) a reimbursement has been successfully negotiated in good faith between the pharmacist and the health plan.

(Source: P.A. 102-103, eff. 1-1-23; revised 10-26-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.46)

Sec. 356z.46 356z.43. Biomarker testing.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Biomarker" means a characteristic that is objectively measured and evaluated as an indicator of normal biological processes, pathogenic processes, or pharmacologic responses to a specific therapeutic intervention. "Biomarker" includes, but is not limited to, gene mutations or protein expression.

"Biomarker testing" means the analysis of a patient's tissue, blood, or fluid biospecimen for the presence of a biomarker. "Biomarker testing" includes, but is not limited to, single-analyte tests, multi-plex panel tests, and partial or whole genome sequencing.

(b) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2022 shall include coverage for biomarker testing as defined in this Section pursuant to criteria established under subsection (d).

(c) Biomarker testing shall be covered and conducted in an efficient manner to provide the most complete range of results to the patient's health care provider without requiring multiple biopsies, biospecimen samples, or other delays or disruptions in patient care.

(d) Biomarker testing must be covered for the purposes of diagnosis, treatment, appropriate management, or ongoing monitoring of an enrollee's disease or condition when the test is supported by medical and scientific evidence, including, but not limited to:

(1) labeled indications for an FDA-approved test or indicated tests for an FDA-approved drug;

(2) federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services National Coverage Determinations;

(3) nationally recognized clinical practice guidelines;

(4) consensus statements;

(5) professional society recommendations;

(6) peer-reviewed literature, biomedical compendia, and other medical literature that meet the criteria of the National Institutes of Health's National Library of Medicine for indexing in Index Medicus, Excerpta Medicus, Medline, and MEDLARS database of Health Services Technology Assessment Research; and

(7) peer-reviewed scientific studies published in or accepted for publication by medical journals that meet nationally recognized requirements for scientific manuscripts and that submit most of their published articles for review by experts who are not part of the editorial staff.

(e) When coverage of biomarker testing for the purpose of diagnosis, treatment, or ongoing monitoring of any medical condition is restricted for use by a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan, the patient and prescribing practitioner shall have access to a clear, readily accessible, and convenient processes to request an exception. The process shall be made readily accessible on the insurer's website.

(Source: P.A. 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-26-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.47)

Sec. 356z.47 356z.43. Coverage for pancreatic cancer screening. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2022 shall provide coverage for medically necessary pancreatic cancer screening.

(Source: P.A. 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-26-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.48)

Sec. 356z.48 356z.43. Colonoscopy coverage.

(a) A group policy of accident and health insurance that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2022 shall provide coverage for a colonoscopy that is a follow-up exam based on an initial screen where the colonoscopy was determined to be medically necessary by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant.

(b) A policy subject to this Section shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided; except that this subsection does not apply to coverage of colonoscopies to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(Source: P.A. 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-26-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.49)

Sec. 356z.49 356z.43. A1C testing.

(a) As used in this Section, "A1C testing" means blood sugar level testing used to diagnose prediabetes, type 1 diabetes, and type 2 diabetes and to monitor management of blood sugar levels.

(b) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-530) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall provide coverage for A1C testing recommended by a health care provider for prediabetes, type 1 diabetes, and type 2 diabetes in accordance with prediabetes and diabetes risk factors identified by the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

(1) Risk factors for prediabetes may include, but are not limited to, being overweight or obese, being aged 35 or older, having an immediate family member with type 2 diabetes, previous diagnosis of gestational diabetes and being African American, Hispanic or Latino American, American Indian, or Alaska Native.

(2) Risk factors for type 1 diabetes may include, but are not limited to, family history of diabetes.

(3) Risk factors for type 2 diabetes may include, but are not limited to, having prediabetes, being overweight or obese, being aged 35 or older, having an immediate family member with type 1 or type 2 diabetes, previous diagnosis of gestational diabetes and being African American, Hispanic or Latino American, American Indian, or Alaska Native.

(Source: P.A. 102-530, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-26-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.50)

Sec. 356z.50 356z.43. Comprehensive cancer testing.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Comprehensive cancer testing" includes, but is not limited to, the following forms of testing:

(1) Targeted cancer gene panels.

(2) Whole-exome genome testing.

(3) Whole-genome sequencing.

(4) RNA sequencing.

(5) Tumor mutation burden.

"Testing of blood or constitutional tissue for cancer predisposition testing" includes, but is not limited to, the following forms of testing:

(1) Targeted cancer gene panels.

(2) Whole-exome genome testing.

(3) Whole-genome sequencing.

(b) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-589) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall provide coverage for medically necessary comprehensive cancer testing and testing of blood or constitutional tissue for cancer predisposition testing as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(Source: P.A. 102-589, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-26-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.51)

Sec. 356z.51 356z.43. Coverage for port-wine stain treatment.

(a) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2022 shall provide coverage for treatment to eliminate or provide maximum feasible treatment of nevus flammeus, also known as port-wine stains, including, but not limited to, port-wine stains caused by Sturge-Weber syndrome. For purposes of this Section, treatment or maximum feasible treatment shall include early intervention treatment, including topical, intralesional, or systemic medical therapy and surgery, and laser treatments approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration in children aged 18 years and younger that are intended to prevent functional impairment related to vision function, oral function, inflammation, bleeding, infection, and other medical complications associated with port-wine stains.

(b) Coverage for treatment required under this Section shall not include treatment solely for cosmetic purposes.

(Source: P.A. 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-26-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)

Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders.

(a)(1) On and after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-579) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly August 16, 2019 Public Act 101-386, every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews group accident and health policies providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or services for illness on an expense-incurred basis shall provide coverage for the medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code.

(2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall be free to select the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act of his or her choice to treat such disorders, and the insurer shall pay the covered charges of such physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act up to the limits of coverage, provided (i) the disorder or condition treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the physician, licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act is authorized to provide said services under the statutes of this State and in accordance with accepted principles of his or her profession.

(3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, licensed marriage and family therapists, licensed speech-language pathologists, and other licensed or certified professionals at programs licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act, those persons who may provide services to individuals shall do so after the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Act has informed the patient of the desirability of the patient conferring with the patient's primary care physician.

(4) "Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition" means a condition or disorder that involves a mental health condition or substance use disorder that falls under any of the diagnostic categories listed in the mental and behavioral disorders chapter of the current edition of the World Health Organization's International Classification of Disease or that is listed in the most recent version of the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. "Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition" includes any mental health condition that occurs during pregnancy or during the postpartum period and includes, but is not limited to, postpartum depression.

(5) Medically necessary treatment and medical necessity determinations shall be interpreted and made in a manner that is consistent with and pursuant to subsections (h) through (t).

(b)(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(2.5) (Blank).

(3) Unless otherwise prohibited by federal law and consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code, the reimbursing insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance, a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace, or a provider of treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall furnish medical records or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is at all times medically necessary. An insurer shall provide a mechanism for the timely review by a provider holding the same license and practicing in the same specialty as the patient's provider, who is unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly selected by the patient (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the patient is unable to act for himself or herself), the patient's provider, and the insurer in the event of a dispute between the insurer and patient's provider regarding the medical necessity of a treatment proposed by a patient's provider. If the reviewing provider determines the treatment to be medically necessary, the insurer shall provide reimbursement for the treatment. Future contractual or employment actions by the insurer regarding the patient's provider may not be based on the provider's participation in this procedure. Nothing prevents the insured from agreeing in writing to continue treatment at his or her expense. When making a determination of the medical necessity for a treatment modality for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions, an insurer must make the determination in a manner that is consistent with the manner used to make that determination with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process. Medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders shall be made in accordance with appropriate patient placement criteria established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine. No additional criteria may be used to make medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders.

(4) A group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024) or an individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024):

(A) shall provide coverage based upon medical necessity for the treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code; provided, however, that in each calendar year coverage shall not be less than the following:

(i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and

(ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-921), 60 visits for outpatient treatment including group and individual outpatient treatment; and

(iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-906), 20 additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that will be in addition to speech therapy provided pursuant to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A); and

(B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of days of inpatient treatment or the number of outpatient visits covered under the plan.

(C) (Blank).

(5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan or an individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace may not count toward the number of outpatient visits required to be covered under this Section an outpatient visit for the purpose of medication management and shall cover the outpatient visits under the same terms and conditions as it covers outpatient visits for the treatment of physical illness.

(5.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after September 9, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-480) shall offer coverage for medically necessary acute treatment services and medically necessary clinical stabilization services. The treating provider shall base all treatment recommendations and the health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders in accordance with the most current edition of the Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine. The treating provider shall base all treatment recommendations and the health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity determinations for medication-assisted treatment in accordance with the most current Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine.

As used in this subsection:

"Acute treatment services" means 24-hour medically supervised addiction treatment that provides evaluation and withdrawal management and may include biopsychosocial assessment, individual and group counseling, psychoeducational groups, and discharge planning.

"Clinical stabilization services" means 24-hour treatment, usually following acute treatment services for substance abuse, which may include intensive education and counseling regarding the nature of addiction and its consequences, relapse prevention, outreach to families and significant others, and aftercare planning for individuals beginning to engage in recovery from addiction.

(6) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may provide or offer coverage required under this Section through a managed care plan.

(6.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024):

(A) shall not impose prior authorization requirements, other than those established under the Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine, on a prescription medication approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration that is prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance use disorders;

(B) shall not impose any step therapy requirements, other than those established under the Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine, before authorizing coverage for a prescription medication approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration that is prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance use disorders;

(C) shall place all prescription medications approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance use disorders on, for brand medications, the lowest tier of the drug formulary developed and maintained by the individual or group health benefit plan that covers brand medications and, for generic medications, the lowest tier of the drug formulary developed and maintained by the individual or group health benefit plan that covers generic medications; and

(D) shall not exclude coverage for a prescription medication approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of substance use disorders and any associated counseling or wraparound services on the grounds that such medications and services were court ordered.

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) With respect to all mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions, coverage for inpatient treatment shall include coverage for treatment in a residential treatment center certified or licensed by the Department of Public Health or the Department of Human Services.

(c) This Section shall not be interpreted to require coverage for speech therapy or other habilitative services for those individuals covered under Section 356z.15 of this Code.

(d) With respect to a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace, the Department and, with respect to medical assistance, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall each enforce the requirements of this Section and Sections 356z.23 and 370c.1 of this Code, the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 18031(j), and any amendments to, and federal guidance or regulations issued under, those Acts, including, but not limited to, final regulations issued under the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 and final regulations applying the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 to Medicaid managed care organizations, the Children's Health Insurance Program, and alternative benefit plans. Specifically, the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall take action:

(1) proactively ensuring compliance by individual and group policies, including by requiring that insurers submit comparative analyses, as set forth in paragraph (6) of subsection (k) of Section 370c.1, demonstrating how they design and apply nonquantitative treatment limitations, both as written and in operation, for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits as compared to how they design and apply nonquantitative treatment limitations, as written and in operation, for medical and surgical benefits;

(2) evaluating all consumer or provider complaints regarding mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition coverage for possible parity violations;

(3) performing parity compliance market conduct examinations or, in the case of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, parity compliance audits of individual and group plans and policies, including, but not limited to, reviews of:

(A) nonquantitative treatment limitations, including, but not limited to, prior authorization requirements, concurrent review, retrospective review, step therapy, network admission standards, reimbursement rates, and geographic restrictions;

(B) denials of authorization, payment, and coverage; and

(C) other specific criteria as may be determined by the Department.

The findings and the conclusions of the parity compliance market conduct examinations and audits shall be made public.

The Director may adopt rules to effectuate any provisions of the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 that relate to the business of insurance.

(e) Availability of plan information.

(1) The criteria for medical necessity determinations made under a group health plan, an individual policy of accident and health insurance, or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with the plan with respect to such benefits) must be made available by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to any current or potential participant, beneficiary, or contracting provider upon request.

(2) The reason for any denial under a group health benefit plan, an individual policy of accident and health insurance, or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such plan or policy) of reimbursement or payment for services with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions benefits in the case of any participant or beneficiary must be made available within a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner and in readily understandable language by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to the participant or beneficiary upon request.

(f) As used in this Section, "group policy of accident and health insurance" and "group health benefit plan" includes (1) State-regulated employer-sponsored group health insurance plans written in Illinois or which purport to provide coverage for a resident of this State; and (2) State employee health plans.

(g) (1) As used in this subsection:

"Benefits", with respect to insurers, means the benefits provided for treatment services for inpatient and outpatient treatment of substance use disorders or conditions at American Society of Addiction Medicine levels of treatment 2.1 (Intensive Outpatient), 2.5 (Partial Hospitalization), 3.1 (Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential), 3.3 (Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Residential), 3.5 (Clinically Managed High-Intensity Residential), and 3.7 (Medically Monitored Intensive Inpatient) and OMT (Opioid Maintenance Therapy) services.

"Benefits", with respect to managed care organizations, means the benefits provided for treatment services for inpatient and outpatient treatment of substance use disorders or conditions at American Society of Addiction Medicine levels of treatment 2.1 (Intensive Outpatient), 2.5 (Partial Hospitalization), 3.5 (Clinically Managed High-Intensity Residential), and 3.7 (Medically Monitored Intensive Inpatient) and OMT (Opioid Maintenance Therapy) services.

"Substance use disorder treatment provider or facility" means a licensed physician, licensed psychologist, licensed psychiatrist, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed, certified, or otherwise State-approved facility or provider of substance use disorder treatment.

(2) A group health insurance policy, an individual health benefit plan, or qualified health plan that is offered through the health insurance marketplace, small employer group health plan, and large employer group health plan that is amended, delivered, issued, executed, or renewed in this State, or approved for issuance or renewal in this State, on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1023) shall comply with the requirements of this Section and Section 370c.1. The services for the treatment and the ongoing assessment of the patient's progress in treatment shall follow the requirements of 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060.

(3) Prior authorization shall not be utilized for the benefits under this subsection. The substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall notify the insurer of the initiation of treatment. For an insurer that is not a managed care organization, the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility notification shall occur for the initiation of treatment of the covered person within 2 business days. For managed care organizations, the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility notification shall occur in accordance with the protocol set forth in the provider agreement for initiation of treatment within 24 hours. If the managed care organization is not capable of accepting the notification in accordance with the contractual protocol during the 24-hour period following admission, the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall have one additional business day to provide the notification to the appropriate managed care organization. Treatment plans shall be developed in accordance with the requirements and timeframes established in 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060. If the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility fails to notify the insurer of the initiation of treatment in accordance with these provisions, the insurer may follow its normal prior authorization processes.

(4) For an insurer that is not a managed care organization, if an insurer determines that benefits are no longer medically necessary, the insurer shall notify the covered person, the covered person's authorized representative, if any, and the covered person's health care provider in writing of the covered person's right to request an external review pursuant to the Health Carrier External Review Act. The notification shall occur within 24 hours following the adverse determination.

Pursuant to the requirements of the Health Carrier External Review Act, the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may request an expedited external review. An expedited external review may not occur if the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility determines that continued treatment is no longer medically necessary. Under this subsection, a request for expedited external review must be initiated within 24 hours following the adverse determination notification by the insurer. Failure to request an expedited external review within 24 hours shall preclude a covered person or a covered person's authorized representative from requesting an expedited external review.

If an expedited external review request meets the criteria of the Health Carrier External Review Act, an independent review organization shall make a final determination of medical necessity within 72 hours. If an independent review organization upholds an adverse determination, an insurer shall remain responsible to provide coverage of benefits through the day following the determination of the independent review organization. A decision to reverse an adverse determination shall comply with the Health Carrier External Review Act.

(5) The substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall provide the insurer with 7 business days' advance notice of the planned discharge of the patient from the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility and notice on the day that the patient is discharged from the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility.

(6) The benefits required by this subsection shall be provided to all covered persons with a diagnosis of substance use disorder or conditions. The presence of additional related or unrelated diagnoses shall not be a basis to reduce or deny the benefits required by this subsection.

(7) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require an insurer to provide coverage for any of the benefits in this subsection.

(h) As used in this Section:

"Generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care" means standards of care and clinical practice that are generally recognized by health care providers practicing in relevant clinical specialties such as psychiatry, psychology, clinical sociology, social work, addiction medicine and counseling, and behavioral health treatment. Valid, evidence-based sources reflecting generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care include peer-reviewed scientific studies and medical literature, recommendations of nonprofit health care provider professional associations and specialty societies, including, but not limited to, patient placement criteria and clinical practice guidelines, recommendations of federal government agencies, and drug labeling approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

"Medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions" means a service or product addressing the specific needs of that patient, for the purpose of screening, preventing, diagnosing, managing, or treating an illness, injury, or condition or its symptoms and comorbidities, including minimizing the progression of an illness, injury, or condition or its symptoms and comorbidities in a manner that is all of the following:

(1) in accordance with the generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care;

(2) clinically appropriate in terms of type, frequency, extent, site, and duration; and

(3) not primarily for the economic benefit of the insurer, purchaser, or for the convenience of the patient, treating physician, or other health care provider.

"Utilization review" means either of the following:

(1) prospectively, retrospectively, or concurrently reviewing and approving, modifying, delaying, or denying, based in whole or in part on medical necessity, requests by health care providers, insureds, or their authorized representatives for coverage of health care services before, retrospectively, or concurrently with the provision of health care services to insureds.

(2) evaluating the medical necessity, appropriateness, level of care, service intensity, efficacy, or efficiency of health care services, benefits, procedures, or settings, under any circumstances, to determine whether a health care service or benefit subject to a medical necessity coverage requirement in an insurance policy is covered as medically necessary for an insured.

"Utilization review criteria" means patient placement criteria or any criteria, standards, protocols, or guidelines used by an insurer to conduct utilization review.

(i)(1) Every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace in this State and Medicaid managed care organizations providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment on or after January 1, 2023 shall, pursuant to subsections (h) through (s), provide coverage for medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions.

(2) An insurer shall not set a specific limit on the duration of benefits or coverage of medically necessary treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions or limit coverage only to alleviation of the insured's current symptoms.

(3) All medical necessity determinations made by the insurer concerning service intensity, level of care placement, continued stay, and transfer or discharge of insureds diagnosed with mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of subsections (k) through (u).

(4) An insurer that authorizes a specific type of treatment by a provider pursuant to this Section shall not rescind or modify the authorization after that provider renders the health care service in good faith and pursuant to this authorization for any reason, including, but not limited to, the insurer's subsequent cancellation or modification of the insured's or policyholder's contract, or the insured's or policyholder's eligibility. Nothing in this Section shall require the insurer to cover a treatment when the authorization was granted based on a material misrepresentation by the insured, the policyholder, or the provider. Nothing in this Section shall require Medicaid managed care organizations to pay for services if the individual was not eligible for Medicaid at the time the service was rendered. Nothing in this Section shall require an insurer to pay for services if the individual was not the insurer's enrollee at the time services were rendered. As used in this paragraph, "material" means a fact or situation that is not merely technical in nature and results in or could result in a substantial change in the situation.

(j) An insurer shall not limit benefits or coverage for medically necessary services on the basis that those services should be or could be covered by a public entitlement program, including, but not limited to, special education or an individualized education program, Medicaid, Medicare, Supplemental Security Income, or Social Security Disability Insurance, and shall not include or enforce a contract term that excludes otherwise covered benefits on the basis that those services should be or could be covered by a public entitlement program. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require an insurer to cover benefits that have been authorized and provided for a covered person by a public entitlement program. Medicaid managed care organizations are not subject to this subsection.

(k) An insurer shall base any medical necessity determination or the utilization review criteria that the insurer, and any entity acting on the insurer's behalf, applies to determine the medical necessity of health care services and benefits for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions on current generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition care. All denials and appeals shall be reviewed by a professional with experience or expertise comparable to the provider requesting the authorization.

(l) For medical necessity determinations relating to level of care placement, continued stay, and transfer or discharge of insureds diagnosed with mental, emotional, and nervous disorders or conditions, an insurer shall apply the patient placement criteria set forth in the most recent version of the treatment criteria developed by an unaffiliated nonprofit professional association for the relevant clinical specialty or, for Medicaid managed care organizations, patient placement criteria determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services that are consistent with generally accepted standards of mental, emotional, nervous or substance use disorder or condition care. Pursuant to subsection (b), in conducting utilization review of all covered services and benefits for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of substance use disorders an insurer shall use the most recent edition of the patient placement criteria established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine.

(m) For medical necessity determinations relating to level of care placement, continued stay, and transfer or discharge that are within the scope of the sources specified in subsection (l), an insurer shall not apply different, additional, conflicting, or more restrictive utilization review criteria than the criteria set forth in those sources. For all level of care placement decisions, the insurer shall authorize placement at the level of care consistent with the assessment of the insured using the relevant patient placement criteria as specified in subsection (l). If that level of placement is not available, the insurer shall authorize the next higher level of care. In the event of disagreement, the insurer shall provide full detail of its assessment using the relevant criteria as specified in subsection (l) to the provider of the service and the patient.

Nothing in this subsection or subsection (l) prohibits an insurer from applying utilization review criteria that were developed in accordance with subsection (k) to health care services and benefits for mental, emotional, and nervous disorders or conditions that are not related to medical necessity determinations for level of care placement, continued stay, and transfer or discharge. If an insurer purchases or licenses utilization review criteria pursuant to this subsection, the insurer shall verify and document before use that the criteria were developed in accordance with subsection (k).

(n) In conducting utilization review that is outside the scope of the criteria as specified in subsection (l) or relates to the advancements in technology or in the types or levels of care that are not addressed in the most recent versions of the sources specified in subsection (l), an insurer shall conduct utilization review in accordance with subsection (k).

(o) This Section does not in any way limit the rights of a patient under the Medical Patient Rights Act.

(p) This Section does not in any way limit early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment benefits as defined under 42 U.S.C. 1396d(r).

(q) To ensure the proper use of the criteria described in subsection (l), every insurer shall do all of the following:

(1) Educate the insurer's staff, including any third parties contracted with the insurer to review claims, conduct utilization reviews, or make medical necessity determinations about the utilization review criteria.

(2) Make the educational program available to other stakeholders, including the insurer's participating or contracted providers and potential participants, beneficiaries, or covered lives. The education program must be provided at least once a year, in-person or digitally, or recordings of the education program must be made available to the aforementioned stakeholders.

(3) Provide, at no cost, the utilization review criteria and any training material or resources to providers and insured patients upon request. For utilization review criteria not concerning level of care placement, continued stay, and transfer or discharge used by the insurer pursuant to subsection (m), the insurer may place the criteria on a secure, password-protected website so long as the access requirements of the website do not unreasonably restrict access to insureds or their providers. No restrictions shall be placed upon the insured's or treating provider's access right to utilization review criteria obtained under this paragraph at any point in time, including before an initial request for authorization.

(4) Track, identify, and analyze how the utilization review criteria are used to certify care, deny care, and support the appeals process.

(5) Conduct interrater reliability testing to ensure consistency in utilization review decision making that covers how medical necessity decisions are made; this assessment shall cover all aspects of utilization review as defined in subsection (h).

(6) Run interrater reliability reports about how the clinical guidelines are used in conjunction with the utilization review process and parity compliance activities.

(7) Achieve interrater reliability pass rates of at least 90% and, if this threshold is not met, immediately provide for the remediation of poor interrater reliability and interrater reliability testing for all new staff before they can conduct utilization review without supervision.

(8) Maintain documentation of interrater reliability testing and the remediation actions taken for those with pass rates lower than 90% and submit to the Department of Insurance or, in the case of Medicaid managed care organizations, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services the testing results and a summary of remedial actions as part of parity compliance reporting set forth in subsection (k) of Section 370c.1.

(r) This Section applies to all health care services and benefits for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions covered by an insurance policy, including prescription drugs.

(s) This Section applies to an insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and conducts utilization review as defined in this Section, including Medicaid managed care organizations, and any entity or contracting provider that performs utilization review or utilization management functions on an insurer's behalf.

(t) If the Director determines that an insurer has violated this Section, the Director may, after appropriate notice and opportunity for hearing, by order, assess a civil penalty between $1,000 and $5,000 for each violation. Moneys collected from penalties shall be deposited into the Parity Advancement Fund established in subsection (i) of Section 370c.1.

(u) An insurer shall not adopt, impose, or enforce terms in its policies or provider agreements, in writing or in operation, that undermine, alter, or conflict with the requirements of this Section.

(v) The provisions of this Section are severable. If any provision of this Section or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-386, eff. 8-16-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-579, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-15-21.)

(215 ILCS 5/370c.1)

Sec. 370c.1. Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition parity.

(a) On and after July 23, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-135) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall ensure prior to policy issuance that:

(1) the financial requirements applicable to such mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are no more restrictive than the predominant financial requirements applied to substantially all hospital and medical benefits covered by the policy and that there are no separate cost-sharing requirements that are applicable only with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; and

(2) the treatment limitations applicable to such mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are no more restrictive than the predominant treatment limitations applied to substantially all hospital and medical benefits covered by the policy and that there are no separate treatment limitations that are applicable only with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits.

(b) The following provisions shall apply concerning aggregate lifetime limits:

(1) In the case of a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State on or after September 9, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-480) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly that provides coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions the following provisions shall apply:

(A) if the policy does not include an aggregate lifetime limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits, then the policy may not impose any aggregate lifetime limit on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(B) if the policy includes an aggregate lifetime limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits (in this subsection referred to as the "applicable lifetime limit"), then the policy shall either:

(i) apply the applicable lifetime limit both to the hospital and medical benefits to which it otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and not distinguish in the application of the limit between the hospital and medical benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(ii) not include any aggregate lifetime limit on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits that is less than the applicable lifetime limit.

(2) In the case of a policy that is not described in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section and that includes no or different aggregate lifetime limits on different categories of hospital and medical benefits, the Director shall establish rules under which subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section is applied to such policy with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits by substituting for the applicable lifetime limit an average aggregate lifetime limit that is computed taking into account the weighted average of the aggregate lifetime limits applicable to such categories.

(c) The following provisions shall apply concerning annual limits:

(1) In the case of a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State on or after September 9, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-480) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly that provides coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions the following provisions shall apply:

(A) if the policy does not include an annual limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits, then the policy may not impose any annual limits on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(B) if the policy includes an annual limit on substantially all hospital and medical benefits (in this subsection referred to as the "applicable annual limit"), then the policy shall either:

(i) apply the applicable annual limit both to the hospital and medical benefits to which it otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and not distinguish in the application of the limit between the hospital and medical benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits; or

(ii) not include any annual limit on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits that is less than the applicable annual limit.

(2) In the case of a policy that is not described in paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section and that includes no or different annual limits on different categories of hospital and medical benefits, the Director shall establish rules under which subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section is applied to such policy with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits by substituting for the applicable annual limit an average annual limit that is computed taking into account the weighted average of the annual limits applicable to such categories.

(d) With respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions, an insurer shall use policies and procedures for the election and placement of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition treatment drugs on their formulary that are no less favorable to the insured as those policies and procedures the insurer uses for the selection and placement of drugs for medical or surgical conditions and shall follow the expedited coverage determination requirements for substance abuse treatment drugs set forth in Section 45.2 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(e) This Section shall be interpreted in a manner consistent with all applicable federal parity regulations including, but not limited to, the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, final regulations issued under the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 and final regulations applying the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 to Medicaid managed care organizations, the Children's Health Insurance Program, and alternative benefit plans.

(f) The provisions of subsections (b) and (c) of this Section shall not be interpreted to allow the use of lifetime or annual limits otherwise prohibited by State or federal law.

(g) As used in this Section:

"Financial requirement" includes deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximums, but does not include an aggregate lifetime limit or an annual limit subject to subsections (b) and (c).

"Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition" means a condition or disorder that involves a mental health condition or substance use disorder that falls under any of the diagnostic categories listed in the mental and behavioral disorders chapter of the current edition of the International Classification of Disease or that is listed in the most recent version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

"Treatment limitation" includes limits on benefits based on the frequency of treatment, number of visits, days of coverage, days in a waiting period, or other similar limits on the scope or duration of treatment. "Treatment limitation" includes both quantitative treatment limitations, which are expressed numerically (such as 50 outpatient visits per year), and nonquantitative treatment limitations, which otherwise limit the scope or duration of treatment. A permanent exclusion of all benefits for a particular condition or disorder shall not be considered a treatment limitation. "Nonquantitative treatment" means those limitations as described under federal regulations (26 CFR 54.9812-1). "Nonquantitative treatment limitations" include, but are not limited to, those limitations described under federal regulations 26 CFR 54.9812-1, 29 CFR 2590.712, and 45 CFR 146.136.

(h) The Department of Insurance shall implement the following education initiatives:

(1) By January 1, 2016, the Department shall develop a plan for a Consumer Education Campaign on parity. The Consumer Education Campaign shall focus its efforts throughout the State and include trainings in the northern, southern, and central regions of the State, as defined by the Department, as well as each of the 5 managed care regions of the State as identified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. Under this Consumer Education Campaign, the Department shall: (1) by January 1, 2017, provide at least one live training in each region on parity for consumers and providers and one webinar training to be posted on the Department website and (2) establish a consumer hotline to assist consumers in navigating the parity process by March 1, 2017. By January 1, 2018 the Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly on the success of the Consumer Education Campaign, which shall indicate whether additional training is necessary or would be recommended.

(2) The Department, in coordination with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, shall convene a working group of health care insurance carriers, mental health advocacy groups, substance abuse patient advocacy groups, and mental health physician groups for the purpose of discussing issues related to the treatment and coverage of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions and compliance with parity obligations under State and federal law. Compliance shall be measured, tracked, and shared during the meetings of the working group. The working group shall meet once before January 1, 2016 and shall meet semiannually thereafter. The Department shall issue an annual report to the General Assembly that includes a list of the health care insurance carriers, mental health advocacy groups, substance abuse patient advocacy groups, and mental health physician groups that participated in the working group meetings, details on the issues and topics covered, and any legislative recommendations developed by the working group.

(3) Not later than January 1 of each year, the Department, in conjunction with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, shall issue a joint report to the General Assembly and provide an educational presentation to the General Assembly. The report and presentation shall:

(A) Cover the methodology the Departments use to check for compliance with the federal Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 18031(j), and any federal regulations or guidance relating to the compliance and oversight of the federal Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 and 42 U.S.C. 18031(j).

(B) Cover the methodology the Departments use to check for compliance with this Section and Sections 356z.23 and 370c of this Code.

(C) Identify market conduct examinations or, in the case of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, audits conducted or completed during the preceding 12-month period regarding compliance with parity in mental, emotional, nervous, and substance use disorder or condition benefits under State and federal laws and summarize the results of such market conduct examinations and audits. This shall include:

(i) the number of market conduct examinations and audits initiated and completed;

(ii) the benefit classifications examined by each market conduct examination and audit;

(iii) the subject matter of each market conduct examination and audit, including quantitative and nonquantitative treatment limitations; and

(iv) a summary of the basis for the final decision rendered in each market conduct examination and audit.

Individually identifiable information shall be excluded from the reports consistent with federal privacy protections.

(D) Detail any educational or corrective actions the Departments have taken to ensure compliance with the federal Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 18031(j), this Section, and Sections 356z.23 and 370c of this Code.

(E) The report must be written in non-technical, readily understandable language and shall be made available to the public by, among such other means as the Departments find appropriate, posting the report on the Departments' websites.

(i) The Parity Advancement Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys from fines and penalties collected from insurers for violations of this Section shall be deposited into the Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund for appropriation by the General Assembly to the Department shall be used for the purpose of providing financial support of the Consumer Education Campaign, parity compliance advocacy, and other initiatives that support parity implementation and enforcement on behalf of consumers.

(j) The Department of Insurance and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall convene and provide technical support to a workgroup of 11 members that shall be comprised of 3 mental health parity experts recommended by an organization advocating on behalf of mental health parity appointed by the President of the Senate; 3 behavioral health providers recommended by an organization that represents behavioral health providers appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives; 2 representing Medicaid managed care organizations recommended by an organization that represents Medicaid managed care plans appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives; 2 representing commercial insurers recommended by an organization that represents insurers appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate; and a representative of an organization that represents Medicaid managed care plans appointed by the Governor.

The workgroup shall provide recommendations to the General Assembly on health plan data reporting requirements that separately break out data on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and data on other medical benefits, including physical health and related health services no later than December 31, 2019. The recommendations to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct. This workgroup shall take into account federal requirements and recommendations on mental health parity reporting for the Medicaid program. This workgroup shall also develop the format and provide any needed definitions for reporting requirements in subsection (k). The research and evaluation of the working group shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) claims denials due to benefit limits, if applicable;

(2) administrative denials for no prior authorization;

(3) denials due to not meeting medical necessity;

(4) denials that went to external review and whether they were upheld or overturned for medical necessity;

(5) out-of-network claims;

(6) emergency care claims;

(7) network directory providers in the outpatient benefits classification who filed no claims in the last 6 months, if applicable;

(8) the impact of existing and pertinent limitations and restrictions related to approved services, licensed providers, reimbursement levels, and reimbursement methodologies within the Division of Mental Health, the Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery programs, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, and, to the extent possible, federal regulations and law; and

(9) when reporting and publishing should begin.

Representatives from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, representatives from the Division of Mental Health, and representatives from the Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery shall provide technical advice to the workgroup.

(k) An insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall submit an annual report, the format and definitions for which will be developed by the workgroup in subsection (j), to the Department, or, with respect to medical assistance, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services starting on or before July 1, 2020 that contains the following information separately for inpatient in-network benefits, inpatient out-of-network benefits, outpatient in-network benefits, outpatient out-of-network benefits, emergency care benefits, and prescription drug benefits in the case of accident and health insurance or qualified health plans, or inpatient, outpatient, emergency care, and prescription drug benefits in the case of medical assistance:

(1) A summary of the plan's pharmacy management processes for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits compared to those for other medical benefits.

(2) A summary of the internal processes of review for experimental benefits and unproven technology for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and those for other medical benefits.

(3) A summary of how the plan's policies and procedures for utilization management for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits compare to those for other medical benefits.

(4) A description of the process used to develop or select the medical necessity criteria for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and the process used to develop or select the medical necessity criteria for medical and surgical benefits.

(5) Identification of all nonquantitative treatment limitations that are applied to both mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits and medical and surgical benefits within each classification of benefits.

(6) The results of an analysis that demonstrates that for the medical necessity criteria described in subparagraph (A) and for each nonquantitative treatment limitation identified in subparagraph (B), as written and in operation, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in applying the medical necessity criteria and each nonquantitative treatment limitation to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits within each classification of benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards, or other factors used in applying the medical necessity criteria and each nonquantitative treatment limitation to medical and surgical benefits within the corresponding classification of benefits; at a minimum, the results of the analysis shall:

(A) identify the factors used to determine that a nonquantitative treatment limitation applies to a benefit, including factors that were considered but rejected;

(B) identify and define the specific evidentiary standards used to define the factors and any other evidence relied upon in designing each nonquantitative treatment limitation;

(C) provide the comparative analyses, including the results of the analyses, performed to determine that the processes and strategies used to design each nonquantitative treatment limitation, as written, for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes and strategies used to design each nonquantitative treatment limitation, as written, for medical and surgical benefits;

(D) provide the comparative analyses, including the results of the analyses, performed to determine that the processes and strategies used to apply each nonquantitative treatment limitation, in operation, for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits are comparable to, and applied no more stringently than, the processes or strategies used to apply each nonquantitative treatment limitation, in operation, for medical and surgical benefits; and

(E) disclose the specific findings and conclusions reached by the insurer that the results of the analyses described in subparagraphs (C) and (D) indicate that the insurer is in compliance with this Section and the Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 and its implementing regulations, which includes 42 CFR Parts 438, 440, and 457 and 45 CFR 146.136 and any other related federal regulations found in the Code of Federal Regulations.

(7) Any other information necessary to clarify data provided in accordance with this Section requested by the Director, including information that may be proprietary or have commercial value, under the requirements of Section 30 of the Viatical Settlements Act of 2009.

(l) An insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall, in advance of the plan year, make available to the Department or, with respect to medical assistance, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and to all plan participants and beneficiaries the information required in subparagraphs (C) through (E) of paragraph (6) of subsection (k). For plan participants and medical assistance beneficiaries, the information required in subparagraphs (C) through (E) of paragraph (6) of subsection (k) shall be made available on a publicly-available website whose web address is prominently displayed in plan and managed care organization informational and marketing materials.

(m) In conjunction with its compliance examination program conducted in accordance with the Illinois State Auditing Act, the Auditor General shall undertake a review of compliance by the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services with Section 370c and this Section. Any findings resulting from the review conducted under this Section shall be included in the applicable State agency's compliance examination report. Each compliance examination report shall be issued in accordance with Section 3-14 of the Illinois State Auditing Act. A copy of each report shall also be delivered to the head of the applicable State agency and posted on the Auditor General's website.

(Source: P.A. 102-135, eff. 7-23-21; 102-579, eff. 8-25-21; revised 10-15-21.)

Section 430. The Network Adequacy and Transparency Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(215 ILCS 124/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Authorized representative" means a person to whom a beneficiary has given express written consent to represent the beneficiary; a person authorized by law to provide substituted consent for a beneficiary; or the beneficiary's treating provider only when the beneficiary or his or her family member is unable to provide consent.

"Beneficiary" means an individual, an enrollee, an insured, a participant, or any other person entitled to reimbursement for covered expenses of or the discounting of provider fees for health care services under a program in which the beneficiary has an incentive to utilize the services of a provider that has entered into an agreement or arrangement with an insurer.

"Department" means the Department of Insurance.

"Director" means the Director of Insurance.

"Family caregiver" means a relative, partner, friend, or neighbor who has a significant relationship with the patient and administers or assists the patient them with activities of daily living, instrumental activities of daily living, or other medical or nursing tasks for the quality and welfare of that patient.

"Insurer" means any entity that offers individual or group accident and health insurance, including, but not limited to, health maintenance organizations, preferred provider organizations, exclusive provider organizations, and other plan structures requiring network participation, excluding the medical assistance program under the Illinois Public Aid Code, the State employees group health insurance program, workers compensation insurance, and pharmacy benefit managers.

"Material change" means a significant reduction in the number of providers available in a network plan, including, but not limited to, a reduction of 10% or more in a specific type of providers, the removal of a major health system that causes a network to be significantly different from the network when the beneficiary purchased the network plan, or any change that would cause the network to no longer satisfy the requirements of this Act or the Department's rules for network adequacy and transparency.

"Network" means the group or groups of preferred providers providing services to a network plan.

"Network plan" means an individual or group policy of accident and health insurance that either requires a covered person to use or creates incentives, including financial incentives, for a covered person to use providers managed, owned, under contract with, or employed by the insurer.

"Ongoing course of treatment" means (1) treatment for a life-threatening condition, which is a disease or condition for which likelihood of death is probable unless the course of the disease or condition is interrupted; (2) treatment for a serious acute condition, defined as a disease or condition requiring complex ongoing care that the covered person is currently receiving, such as chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or post-operative visits; (3) a course of treatment for a health condition that a treating provider attests that discontinuing care by that provider would worsen the condition or interfere with anticipated outcomes; or (4) the third trimester of pregnancy through the post-partum period.

"Preferred provider" means any provider who has entered, either directly or indirectly, into an agreement with an employer or risk-bearing entity relating to health care services that may be rendered to beneficiaries under a network plan.

"Providers" means physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, other health care professionals, hospitals, or other health care institutions that provide health care services.

"Telehealth" has the meaning given to that term in Section 356z.22 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

"Telemedicine" has the meaning given to that term in Section 49.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Tiered network" means a network that identifies and groups some or all types of provider and facilities into specific groups to which different provider reimbursement, covered person cost-sharing or provider access requirements, or any combination thereof, apply for the same services.

"Woman's principal health care provider" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches specializing in obstetrics, gynecology, or family practice.

(Source: P.A. 102-92, eff. 7-9-21; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 435. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356q, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.35, 356z.36, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.43, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.48, 356z.50, 356z.51, 364, 364.01, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 370c.1, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, XXVI, and XXXIIB of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including without limitation the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-371, eff. 1-1-20; 101-393, eff. 1-1-20; 101-452, eff. 1-1-20; 101-461, eff. 1-1-20; 101-625, eff. 1-1-21; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-34, eff. 6-25-21; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-443, eff. 1-1-22; 102-589, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; revised 10-27-21.)

Section 440. The Limited Health Service Organization Act is amended by changing Section 4003 as follows:

(215 ILCS 130/4003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-3)

Sec. 4003. Illinois Insurance Code provisions. Limited health service organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.37, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356q, 356v, 356z.10, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.41, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.43, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1 and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code. For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, limited health service organizations in the following categories are deemed to be domestic companies:

(1) a corporation under the laws of this State; or

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a domestic company under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-393, eff. 1-1-20; 101-625, eff. 1-1-21; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-27-21.)

Section 445. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 136, 139, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.22a, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356q, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.4a, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.30a, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.40, 356z.41, 356z.46, 356z.47, 356z.51, 356z.43, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-393, eff. 1-1-20; 101-625, eff. 1-1-21; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; revised 10-27-21.)

Section 450. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Section 8-406 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/8-406) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 8-406)

Sec. 8-406. Certificate of public convenience and necessity.

(a) No public utility not owning any city or village franchise nor engaged in performing any public service or in furnishing any product or commodity within this State as of July 1, 1921 and not possessing a certificate of public convenience and necessity from the Illinois Commerce Commission, the State Public Utilities Commission, or the Public Utilities Commission, at the time Public Act 84-617 this amendatory Act of 1985 goes into effect (January 1, 1986), shall transact any business in this State until it shall have obtained a certificate from the Commission that public convenience and necessity require the transaction of such business. A certificate of public convenience and necessity requiring the transaction of public utility business in any area of this State shall include authorization to the public utility receiving the certificate of public convenience and necessity to construct such plant, equipment, property, or facility as is provided for under the terms and conditions of its tariff and as is necessary to provide utility service and carry out the transaction of public utility business by the public utility in the designated area.

(b) No public utility shall begin the construction of any new plant, equipment, property, or facility which is not in substitution of any existing plant, equipment, property, or facility, or any extension or alteration thereof or in addition thereto, unless and until it shall have obtained from the Commission a certificate that public convenience and necessity require such construction. Whenever after a hearing the Commission determines that any new construction or the transaction of any business by a public utility will promote the public convenience and is necessary thereto, it shall have the power to issue certificates of public convenience and necessity. The Commission shall determine that proposed construction will promote the public convenience and necessity only if the utility demonstrates: (1) that the proposed construction is necessary to provide adequate, reliable, and efficient service to its customers and is the least-cost means of satisfying the service needs of its customers or that the proposed construction will promote the development of an effectively competitive electricity market that operates efficiently, is equitable to all customers, and is the least cost means of satisfying those objectives; (2) that the utility is capable of efficiently managing and supervising the construction process and has taken sufficient action to ensure adequate and efficient construction and supervision thereof; and (3) that the utility is capable of financing the proposed construction without significant adverse financial consequences for the utility or its customers.

(b-5) As used in this subsection (b-5):

"Qualifying direct current applicant" means an entity that seeks to provide direct current bulk transmission service for the purpose of transporting electric energy in interstate commerce.

"Qualifying direct current project" means a high voltage direct current electric service line that crosses at least one Illinois border, the Illinois portion of which is physically located within the region of the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., or its successor organization, and runs through the counties of Pike, Scott, Greene, Macoupin, Montgomery, Christian, Shelby, Cumberland, and Clark, is capable of transmitting electricity at voltages of 345 kilovolts 345kv or above, and may also include associated interconnected alternating current interconnection facilities in this State that are part of the proposed project and reasonably necessary to connect the project with other portions of the grid.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a qualifying direct current applicant that does not own, control, operate, or manage, within this State, any plant, equipment, or property used or to be used for the transmission of electricity at the time of its application or of the Commission's order may file an application on or before December 31, 2023 with the Commission pursuant to this Section or Section 8-406.1 for, and the Commission may grant, a certificate of public convenience and necessity to construct, operate, and maintain a qualifying direct current project. The qualifying direct current applicant may also include in the application requests for authority under Section 8-503. The Commission shall grant the application for a certificate of public convenience and necessity and requests for authority under Section 8-503 if it finds that the qualifying direct current applicant and the proposed qualifying direct current project satisfy the requirements of this subsection and otherwise satisfy the criteria of this Section or Section 8-406.1 and the criteria of Section 8-503, as applicable to the application and to the extent such criteria are not superseded by the provisions of this subsection. The Commission's order on the application for the certificate of public convenience and necessity shall also include the Commission's findings and determinations on the request or requests for authority pursuant to Section 8-503. Prior to filing its application under either this Section or Section 8-406.1, the qualifying direct current applicant shall conduct 3 public meetings in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section. If the qualifying direct current applicant demonstrates in its application that the proposed qualifying direct current project is designed to deliver electricity to a point or points on the electric transmission grid in either or both the PJM Interconnection, LLC or the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., or their respective successor organizations, the proposed qualifying direct current project shall be deemed to be, and the Commission shall find it to be, for public use. If the qualifying direct current applicant further demonstrates in its application that the proposed transmission project has a capacity of 1,000 megawatts or larger and a voltage level of 345 kilovolts or greater, the proposed transmission project shall be deemed to satisfy, and the Commission shall find that it satisfies, the criteria stated in item (1) of subsection (b) of this Section or in paragraph (1) of subsection (f) of Section 8-406.1, as applicable to the application, without the taking of additional evidence on these criteria. Prior to the transfer of functional control of any transmission assets to a regional transmission organization, a qualifying direct current applicant shall request Commission approval to join a regional transmission organization in an application filed pursuant to this subsection (b-5) or separately pursuant to Section 7-102 of this Act. The Commission may grant permission to a qualifying direct current applicant to join a regional transmission organization if it finds that the membership, and associated transfer of functional control of transmission assets, benefits Illinois customers in light of the attendant costs and is otherwise in the public interest. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) requires a qualifying direct current applicant to join a regional transmission organization. Nothing in this subsection (b-5) requires the owner or operator of a high voltage direct current transmission line that is not a qualifying direct current project to obtain a certificate of public convenience and necessity to the extent it is not otherwise required by this Section 8-406 or any other provision of this Act.

(c) After September 11, 1987 (the effective date of Public Act 85-377) this amendatory Act of 1987, no construction shall commence on any new nuclear power plant to be located within this State, and no certificate of public convenience and necessity or other authorization shall be issued therefor by the Commission, until the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency finds that the United States Government, through its authorized agency, has identified and approved a demonstrable technology or means for the disposal of high level nuclear waste, or until such construction has been specifically approved by a statute enacted by the General Assembly.

As used in this Section, "high level nuclear waste" means those aqueous wastes resulting from the operation of the first cycle of the solvent extraction system or equivalent and the concentrated wastes of the subsequent extraction cycles or equivalent in a facility for reprocessing irradiated reactor fuel and shall include spent fuel assemblies prior to fuel reprocessing.

(d) In making its determination under subsection (b) of this Section, the Commission shall attach primary weight to the cost or cost savings to the customers of the utility. The Commission may consider any or all factors which will or may affect such cost or cost savings, including the public utility's engineering judgment regarding the materials used for construction.

(e) The Commission may issue a temporary certificate which shall remain in force not to exceed one year in cases of emergency, to assure maintenance of adequate service or to serve particular customers, without notice or hearing, pending the determination of an application for a certificate, and may by regulation exempt from the requirements of this Section temporary acts or operations for which the issuance of a certificate will not be required in the public interest.

A public utility shall not be required to obtain but may apply for and obtain a certificate of public convenience and necessity pursuant to this Section with respect to any matter as to which it has received the authorization or order of the Commission under the Electric Supplier Act, and any such authorization or order granted a public utility by the Commission under that Act shall as between public utilities be deemed to be, and shall have except as provided in that Act the same force and effect as, a certificate of public convenience and necessity issued pursuant to this Section.

No electric cooperative shall be made or shall become a party to or shall be entitled to be heard or to otherwise appear or participate in any proceeding initiated under this Section for authorization of power plant construction and as to matters as to which a remedy is available under the Electric Supplier Act.

(f) Such certificates may be altered or modified by the Commission, upon its own motion or upon application by the person or corporation affected. Unless exercised within a period of 2 years from the grant thereof, authority conferred by a certificate of convenience and necessity issued by the Commission shall be null and void.

No certificate of public convenience and necessity shall be construed as granting a monopoly or an exclusive privilege, immunity or franchise.

(g) A public utility that undertakes any of the actions described in items (1) through (3) of this subsection (g) or that has obtained approval pursuant to Section 8-406.1 of this Act shall not be required to comply with the requirements of this Section to the extent such requirements otherwise would apply. For purposes of this Section and Section 8-406.1 of this Act, "high voltage electric service line" means an electric line having a design voltage of 100,000 or more. For purposes of this subsection (g), a public utility may do any of the following:

(1) replace or upgrade any existing high voltage electric service line and related facilities, notwithstanding its length;

(2) relocate any existing high voltage electric service line and related facilities, notwithstanding its length, to accommodate construction or expansion of a roadway or other transportation infrastructure; or

(3) construct a high voltage electric service line and related facilities that is constructed solely to serve a single customer's premises or to provide a generator interconnection to the public utility's transmission system and that will pass under or over the premises owned by the customer or generator to be served or under or over premises for which the customer or generator has secured the necessary right of way.

(h) A public utility seeking to construct a high-voltage electric service line and related facilities (Project) must show that the utility has held a minimum of 2 pre-filing public meetings to receive public comment concerning the Project in each county where the Project is to be located, no earlier than 6 months prior to filing an application for a certificate of public convenience and necessity from the Commission. Notice of the public meeting shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation within the affected county once a week for 3 consecutive weeks, beginning no earlier than one month prior to the first public meeting. If the Project traverses 2 contiguous counties and where in one county the transmission line mileage and number of landowners over whose property the proposed route traverses is one-fifth or less of the transmission line mileage and number of such landowners of the other county, then the utility may combine the 2 pre-filing meetings in the county with the greater transmission line mileage and affected landowners. All other requirements regarding pre-filing meetings shall apply in both counties. Notice of the public meeting, including a description of the Project, must be provided in writing to the clerk of each county where the Project is to be located. A representative of the Commission shall be invited to each pre-filing public meeting.

(i) For applications filed after August 18, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-399) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the Commission shall by registered mail notify each owner of record of land, as identified in the records of the relevant county tax assessor, included in the right-of-way over which the utility seeks in its application to construct a high-voltage electric line of the time and place scheduled for the initial hearing on the public utility's application. The utility shall reimburse the Commission for the cost of the postage and supplies incurred for mailing the notice.

(Source: P.A. 102-609, eff. 8-27-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-21-21.)

Section 455. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 46/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. In this Act:

"Applicant" means an individual enrolling in a training program, seeking employment, whether paid or on a volunteer basis, with a health care employer who has received a bona fide conditional offer of employment.

"Conditional offer of employment" means a bona fide offer of employment by a health care employer to an applicant, which is contingent upon the receipt of a report from the Department of Public Health indicating that the applicant does not have a record of conviction of any of the criminal offenses enumerated in Section 25.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Direct care" means the provision of nursing care or assistance with feeding, dressing, movement, bathing, toileting, or other personal needs, including home services as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act. The entity responsible for inspecting and licensing, certifying, or registering the health care employer may, by administrative rule, prescribe guidelines for interpreting this definition with regard to the health care employers that it licenses.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Disqualifying offenses" means those offenses set forth in Section 25 of this Act.

"Employee" means any individual hired, employed, or retained, whether paid or on a volunteer basis, to which this Act applies.

"Finding" means the Department's determination of whether an allegation is verified and substantiated.

"Fingerprint-based criminal history records check" means a livescan fingerprint-based criminal history records check submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police.

"Health care employer" means:

(1) the owner or licensee of any of the following:

(i) a community living facility, as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;

(ii) a life care facility, as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act;

(iii) a long-term care facility;

(iv) a home health agency, home services agency, or home nursing agency as defined in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act;

(v) a hospice care program or volunteer hospice program, as defined in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;

(vi) a hospital, as defined in the Hospital Licensing Act;

(vii) (blank);

(viii) a nurse agency, as defined in the Nurse Agency Licensing Act;

(ix) a respite care provider, as defined in the Respite Program Act;

(ix-a) an establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;

(x) a supportive living program, as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xi) early childhood intervention programs as described in 59 Ill. Adm. Code 121;

(xii) the University of Illinois Hospital, Chicago;

(xiii) programs funded by the Department on Aging through the Community Care Program;

(xiv) programs certified to participate in the Supportive Living Program authorized pursuant to Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code;

(xv) programs listed by the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act as Freestanding Emergency Centers;

(xvi) locations licensed under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act;

(2) a day training program certified by the Department of Human Services;

(3) a community integrated living arrangement operated by a community mental health and developmental service agency, as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure Licensing and Certification Act;

(4) the State Long Term Care Ombudsman Program, including any regional long term care ombudsman programs under Section 4.04 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, only for the purpose of securing background checks; or

(5) the Department of Corrections or a third-party vendor employing certified nursing assistants working with the Department of Corrections.

"Initiate" means obtaining from a student, applicant, or employee his or her social security number, demographics, a disclosure statement, and an authorization for the Department of Public Health or its designee to request a fingerprint-based criminal history records check; transmitting this information electronically to the Department of Public Health; conducting Internet searches on certain web sites, including without limitation the Illinois Sex Offender Registry, the Department of Corrections' Sex Offender Search Engine, the Department of Corrections' Inmate Search Engine, the Department of Corrections Wanted Fugitives Search Engine, the National Sex Offender Public Registry, and the List of Excluded Individuals and Entities database on the website of the Health and Human Services Office of Inspector General to determine if the applicant has been adjudicated a sex offender, has been a prison inmate, or has committed Medicare or Medicaid fraud, or conducting similar searches as defined by rule; and having the student, applicant, or employee's fingerprints collected and transmitted electronically to the Illinois State Police.

"Livescan vendor" means an entity whose equipment has been certified by the Illinois State Police to collect an individual's demographics and inkless fingerprints and, in a manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police and the Department of Public Health, electronically transmit the fingerprints and required data to the Illinois State Police and a daily file of required data to the Department of Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall negotiate a contract with one or more vendors that effectively demonstrate that the vendor has 2 or more years of experience transmitting fingerprints electronically to the Illinois State Police and that the vendor can successfully transmit the required data in a manner prescribed by the Department of Public Health. Vendor authorization may be further defined by administrative rule.

"Long-term care facility" means a facility licensed by the State or certified under federal law as a long-term care facility, including without limitation facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, a supportive living facility, an assisted living establishment, or a shared housing establishment or registered as a board and care home.

"Resident" means a person, individual, or patient under the direct care of a health care employer or who has been provided goods or services by a health care employer.

(Source: P.A. 101-176, eff. 7-31-19; 102-226, eff. 7-30-21; 102-503, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 460. The Massage Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 57/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 15. Licensure requirements.

(a) Persons engaged in massage for compensation must be licensed by the Department. The Department shall issue a license to an individual who meets all of the following requirements:

(1) The applicant has applied in writing on the prescribed forms and has paid the required fees.

(2) The applicant is at least 18 years of age and of good moral character. In determining good moral character, the Department may take into consideration conviction of any crime under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof that is a felony or a misdemeanor or any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession. Such a conviction shall not operate automatically as a complete bar to a license, except in the case of any conviction for prostitution, rape, or sexual misconduct, or where the applicant is a registered sex offender.

(3) The applicant has successfully completed a massage therapy program approved by the Department that requires a minimum of 500 hours, except applicants applying on or after January 1, 2014 shall meet a minimum requirement of 600 hours, and has passed a competency examination approved by the Department.

(b) Each applicant for licensure as a massage therapist shall have his or her fingerprints submitted to the Illinois State Police in an electronic format that complies with the form and manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history record information as prescribed by the Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now and hereafter filed. The Illinois State Police shall charge applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of Illinois convictions to the Department. The Department may require applicants to pay a separate fingerprinting fee, either to the Department or to a vendor. The Department, in its discretion, may allow an applicant who does not have reasonable access to a designated vendor to provide his or her fingerprints in an alternative manner. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

Section 465. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 7 and 22 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/7) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-7)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 7. Medical Disciplinary Board.

(A) There is hereby created the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Board. The Disciplinary Board shall consist of 11 members, to be appointed by the Governor by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. All members shall be residents of the State, not more than 6 of whom shall be members of the same political party. All members shall be voting members. Five members shall be physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches in Illinois possessing the degree of doctor of medicine. One member shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois possessing the degree of doctor of osteopathy or osteopathic medicine. One member shall be a chiropractic physician licensed to practice in Illinois and possessing the degree of doctor of chiropractic. Four members shall be members of the public, who shall not be engaged in any way, directly or indirectly, as providers of health care.

(B) Members of the Disciplinary Board shall be appointed for terms of 4 years. Upon the expiration of the term of any member, his or her successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years by the Governor by and with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Governor shall fill any vacancy for the remainder of the unexpired term with the advice and consent of the Senate. Upon recommendation of the Board, any member of the Disciplinary Board may be removed by the Governor for misfeasance, malfeasance, or willful neglect of duty, after notice, and a public hearing, unless such notice and hearing shall be expressly waived in writing. Each member shall serve on the Disciplinary Board until their successor is appointed and qualified. No member of the Disciplinary Board shall serve more than 2 consecutive 4 year terms.

In making appointments the Governor shall attempt to insure that the various social and geographic regions of the State of Illinois are properly represented.

In making the designation of persons to act for the several professions represented on the Disciplinary Board, the Governor shall give due consideration to recommendations by members of the respective professions and by organizations therein.

(C) The Disciplinary Board shall annually elect one of its voting members as chairperson and one as vice chairperson. No officer shall be elected more than twice in succession to the same office. Each officer shall serve until their successor has been elected and qualified.

(D) (Blank).

(E) Six voting members of the Disciplinary Board, at least 4 of whom are physicians, shall constitute a quorum. A vacancy in the membership of the Disciplinary Board shall not impair the right of a quorum to exercise all the rights and perform all the duties of the Disciplinary Board. Any action taken by the Disciplinary Board under this Act may be authorized by resolution at any regular or special meeting and each such resolution shall take effect immediately. The Disciplinary Board shall meet at least quarterly.

(F) Each member, and member-officer, of the Disciplinary Board shall receive a per diem stipend as the Secretary shall determine. Each member shall be paid their necessary expenses while engaged in the performance of their duties.

(G) The Secretary shall select a Chief Medical Coordinator and not less than 2 Deputy Medical Coordinators who shall not be members of the Disciplinary Board. Each medical coordinator shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, and the Secretary shall set their rates of compensation. The Secretary shall assign at least one medical coordinator to a region composed of Cook County and such other counties as the Secretary may deem appropriate, and such medical coordinator or coordinators shall locate their office in Chicago. The Secretary shall assign at least one medical coordinator to a region composed of the balance of counties in the State, and such medical coordinator or coordinators shall locate their office in Springfield. The Chief Medical Coordinator shall be the chief enforcement officer of this Act. None of the functions, powers, or duties of the Department with respect to policies regarding enforcement or discipline under this Act, including the adoption of such rules as may be necessary for the administration of this Act, shall be exercised by the Department except upon review of the Disciplinary Board.

The Secretary shall employ, in conformity with the Personnel Code, investigators who are college graduates with at least 2 years of investigative experience or one year of advanced medical education. Upon the written request of the Disciplinary Board, the Secretary shall employ, in conformity with the Personnel Code, such other professional, technical, investigative, and clerical help, either on a full or part-time basis as the Disciplinary Board deems necessary for the proper performance of its duties.

(H) Upon the specific request of the Disciplinary Board, signed by either the chairperson, vice chairperson, or a medical coordinator of the Disciplinary Board, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Illinois State Police, or any other law enforcement agency located in this State shall make available any and all information that they have in their possession regarding a particular case then under investigation by the Disciplinary Board.

(I) Members of the Disciplinary Board shall be immune from suit in any action based upon any disciplinary proceedings or other acts performed in good faith as members of the Disciplinary Board.

(J) The Disciplinary Board may compile and establish a statewide roster of physicians and other medical professionals, including the several medical specialties, of such physicians and medical professionals, who have agreed to serve from time to time as advisors to the medical coordinators. Such advisors shall assist the medical coordinators or the Disciplinary Board in their investigations and participation in complaints against physicians. Such advisors shall serve under contract and shall be reimbursed at a reasonable rate for the services provided, plus reasonable expenses incurred. While serving in this capacity, the advisor, for any act undertaken in good faith and in the conduct of his or her duties under this Section, shall be immune from civil suit.

(K) This Section is inoperative when a majority of the Medical Board is appointed. This Section is repealed January 1, 2023 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 102-20) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-20-21.)

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person issued under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:

(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States of any crime that is a felony.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic from providing services to the agency's participants.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Medical Board.

(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.

(15) A finding by the Medical Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking, or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment, or medicine, or the treating, operating, or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means, or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and willful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempting attempt to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice registered nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(45) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed prescribing psychologist.

(47) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(48) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(49) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed physician assistants resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(50) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a physician assistant.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume his or her practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Medical Board that the person has been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Medical Board's recommendation that the person be permitted to resume his or her practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Medical Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Medical Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to practice under this Act, or any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by the Medical Board and at the expense of the Department. The Medical Board shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing. The Medical Board or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department or the Medical Board any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Medical Board or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee, permit holder, or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Medical Board finds a physician unable to practice following an examination and evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Medical Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or designated by the Medical Board, as a condition for issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Medical Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Medical Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Medical Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Medical Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic physician who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine to a physician:

(1) based solely upon the recommendation of the physician to an eligible patient regarding, or prescription for, or treatment with, an investigational drug, biological product, or device; or

(2) for experimental treatment for Lyme disease or other tick-borne diseases, including, but not limited to, the prescription of or treatment with long-term antibiotics.

(D) The Medical Board shall recommend to the Department civil penalties and any other appropriate discipline in disciplinary cases when the Medical Board finds that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Upon the Medical Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-2-21.)

Section 470. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 4 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 43 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatric physicians, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (1) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (1), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means:

(1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders;

(2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders;

(3) participation in drug and device selection;

(4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows:

(A) in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications;

(B) vaccination of patients 7 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures. Eligible vaccines are those listed on the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Recommended Immunization Schedule, the CDC's Health Information for International Travel, or the U.S. Food and Drug Administration's Vaccines Licensed and Authorized for Use in the United States. As applicable to the State's Medicaid program and other payers, vaccines ordered and administered in accordance with this subsection shall be covered and reimbursed at no less than the rate that the vaccine is reimbursed when ordered and administered by a physician;

(B-5) following the initial administration of long-acting or extended-release form opioid antagonists by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, administration of injections of long-acting or extended-release form opioid antagonists for the treatment of substance use disorder, pursuant to a valid prescription by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions, including, but not limited to, respiratory depression and the performance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures;

(C) administration of injections of alpha-hydroxyprogesterone caproate, pursuant to a valid prescription, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; and

(D) administration of injections of long-term antipsychotic medications pursuant to a valid prescription by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training conducted by an Accreditation Council of Pharmaceutical Education accredited provider, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures.

(5) (blank);

(6) drug regimen review;

(7) drug or drug-related research;

(8) the provision of patient counseling;

(9) the practice of telepharmacy;

(10) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care;

(11) medication therapy management;

(12) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records; and

(13) the assessment and consultation of patients and dispensing of hormonal contraceptives.

A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, podiatric physician, or optometrist, within the limits of his or her license, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (1) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA registration number where required, for controlled substances. The prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness, disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being prescribed. DEA registration numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders. A prescription for medication other than controlled substances shall be valid for up to 15 months from the date issued for the purpose of refills, unless the prescription states otherwise.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, partnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" or "device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronically transmitted prescription" means a prescription that is created, recorded, or stored by electronic means; issued and validated with an electronic signature; and transmitted by electronic means directly from the prescriber to a pharmacy. An electronic prescription is not an image of a physical prescription that is transferred by electronic means from computer to computer, facsimile to facsimile, or facsimile to computer.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse.

"Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician.

"Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.

"Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or licensee's license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(gg) "Email address of record" means the designated email address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(Source: P.A. 101-349, eff. 1-1-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-103, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-26-21.)

(225 ILCS 85/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of this Act shall apply to, or in any manner interfere with:

(a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, dentist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically certified optometrist within the limits of his or her license, or prevent him or her from supplying to his or her bona fide patients such drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him appropriate;

(b) the sale of compressed gases;

(c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies when sold in original and unbroken packages only, if such patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies be properly and adequately labeled as to content and usage and generally considered and accepted as harmless and nonpoisonous when used according to the directions on the label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which, according to the latest editions of the following authoritative pharmaceutical treatises and standards, namely, The United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), the United States Dispensatory, and the Accepted Dental Remedies of the Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American Dental Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, promulgated thereunder now in effect, is designated, described or considered as a narcotic, hypnotic, habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;

(d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original and unbroken packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock medication;

(e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of poisonous substances, in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal use in the arts or industries or for insecticide purposes; provided, they are properly and adequately labeled as to content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity with the provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws and regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating thereto and governing the same, and those which are required under such applicable laws and regulations to be labeled with the word "Poison", are also labeled with the word "Poison" printed thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily obtainable antidote with directions for its administration;

(f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to a physician assistant under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This delegated authority under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 may, but is not required to, include prescription of controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, in accordance with a written supervision agreement;

(g) the delegation of prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a licensed podiatric physician to an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with a written collaborative agreement under Sections 65-35 and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act;

(g-5) the donation or acceptance, or the packaging, repackaging, or labeling, of drugs to the extent permitted under the Illinois Drug Reuse Opportunity Program Act; and

(h) the sale or distribution of dialysate or devices necessary to perform home peritoneal renal dialysis for patients with end-stage renal disease, provided that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the dialysate, comprised of dextrose or icodextrin, or devices are approved or cleared by the federal Food and Drug Administration, as required by federal law;

(2) the dialysate or devices are lawfully held by a manufacturer or the manufacturer's agent, which is properly registered with the Board as a manufacturer, third-party logistics provider, or wholesaler;

(3) the dialysate or devices are held and delivered to the manufacturer or the manufacturer's agent in the original, sealed packaging from the manufacturing facility;

(4) the dialysate or devices are delivered only upon receipt of a physician's prescription by a licensed pharmacy in which the prescription is processed in accordance with provisions set forth in this Act, and the transmittal of an order from the licensed pharmacy to the manufacturer or the manufacturer's agent; and

(5) the manufacturer or the manufacturer's agent delivers the dialysate or devices directly to: (i) a patient with end-stage renal disease, or his or her designee, for the patient's self-administration of the dialysis therapy or (ii) a health care provider or institution for administration or delivery of the dialysis therapy to a patient with end-stage renal disease.

This paragraph (h) does not include any other drugs for peritoneal dialysis, except dialysate, as described in item (1) of this paragraph (h). All records of sales and distribution of dialysate to patients made pursuant to this paragraph (h) must be retained in accordance with Section 18 of this Act. A student pharmacist or licensed pharmacy technician engaged in remote prescription processing under Section 25.10 of this Act at a licensed pharmacy described in item (4) of this paragraph (h) shall be permitted to access an employer pharmacy's database from his or her home or other remote location while under the supervision of a pharmacist for the purpose of performing certain prescription processing functions, provided that the pharmacy establishes controls to protect the privacy and security of confidential records.

(Source: P.A. 101-420, eff. 8-16-19; 102-84, eff. 7-9-21; 102-389, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-8-21.)

(225 ILCS 85/43)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 43. Dispensation of hormonal contraceptives.

(a) The dispensing of hormonal contraceptives to a patient shall be pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the medical director of a local health department, pursuant to the following:

(1) a pharmacist may dispense no more than a 12-month supply of hormonal contraceptives to a patient;

(2) a pharmacist must complete an educational training program accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education and approved by the Department that is related to the patient self-screening risk assessment, patient assessment contraceptive counseling and education, and dispensation of hormonal contraceptives;

(3) a pharmacist shall have the patient complete the self-screening risk assessment tool; the self-screening risk assessment tool is to be based on the most current version of the United States Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use published by the federal Centers for Disease Control and Prevention;

(4) based upon the results of the self-screening risk assessment and the patient assessment, the pharmacist shall use his or her professional and clinical judgment as to when a patient should be referred to the patient's physician or another health care provider;

(5) a pharmacist shall provide, during the patient assessment and consultation, counseling and education about all methods of contraception, including methods not covered under the standing order, and their proper use and effectiveness;

(6) the patient consultation shall take place in a private manner; and

(7) a pharmacist and pharmacy must maintain appropriate records.

(b) The Department may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be interpreted to require a pharmacist to dispense hormonal contraception under a standing order issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the medical director of a local health department.

(Source: P.A. 102-103, eff. 1-1-22.)

(225 ILCS 85/44)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)

Sec. 44 43. Disclosure of pharmacy retail price.

(a) For the purpose of this Section:

"Pharmacy retail price" means the price an individual without prescription drug coverage or not using any other prescription medication benefit or discount would pay at a retail pharmacy, not including a pharmacist dispensing fee.

"Cost-sharing amount" means the amount owed by a policyholder under the terms of his or her health insurance policy or as required by a pharmacy benefit manager as defined in subsection (a) of Section 513b1 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) A pharmacist or his or her authorized employee must disclose to the consumer at the point of sale the current pharmacy retail price for each prescription medication the consumer intends to purchase. If the consumer's cost-sharing amount for a prescription exceeds the current pharmacy retail price, the pharmacist or his or her authorized employee must disclose to the consumer that the pharmacy retail price is less than the patient's cost-sharing amount.

(Source: P.A. 102-400, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-4-21.)

Section 475. The Landscape Architecture Registration Act is amended by changing Section 125 as follows:

(225 ILCS 316/125)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 125. Restoration of suspended or revoked registration.

(a) At any time after the successful completion of a term of probation, suspension, or revocation of a registration under this Act, the Department may restore it to the registrant unless after an investigation and hearing the Department determines that restoration is not in the public interest.

(b) Where circumstances of suspension or revocation so indicate, the Department may require an examination of the registrant prior to restoring his or her registration.

(c) No person whose registration has been revoked as authorized in this Act may apply for restoration of that registration until such time as provided for in the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) A registration that has been suspended or revoked shall be considered nonrenewed for purposes of restoration and a person registration restoring a their registration from suspension or revocation must comply with the requirements for restoration as set forth in Section 50 of this Act and any rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-284, eff. 8-6-21; revised 1-9-22.)

Section 480. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 5-10 as follows:

(225 ILCS 447/5-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 5-10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

"Advertisement" means any public media, including printed or electronic material, that is published or displayed in a phone book, newspaper, magazine, pamphlet, newsletter, website, or other similar type of publication or electronic format that is intended to either attract business or merely provide contact information to the public for an agency or licensee. Advertisement shall not include a licensee's or an agency's letterhead, business cards, or other stationery used in routine business correspondence or customary name, address, and number type listings in a telephone directory.

"Alarm system" means any system, including an electronic access control system, a surveillance video system, a security video system, a burglar alarm system, a fire alarm system, or any other electronic system that activates an audible, visible, remote, or recorded signal that is designed for the protection or detection of intrusion, entry, theft, fire, vandalism, escape, or trespass, or other electronic systems designed for the protection of life by indicating the existence of an emergency situation. "Alarm system" also includes an emergency communication system and a mass notification system.

"Applicant" means a person or business applying for licensure, registration, or authorization under this Act. Any applicant or person who holds himself or herself out as an applicant is considered a licensee or registrant for the purposes of enforcement, investigation, hearings, and the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

"Armed employee" means a licensee or registered person who is employed by an agency licensed or an armed proprietary security force registered under this Act who carries a weapon while engaged in the performance of official duties within the course and scope of his or her employment during the hours and times the employee is scheduled to work or is commuting between his or her home or place of employment.

"Armed proprietary security force" means a security force made up of one or more armed individuals employed by a commercial or industrial operation or by a financial institution as security officers for the protection of persons or property.

"Board" means the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Board.

"Branch office" means a business location removed from the place of business for which an agency license has been issued, including, but not limited to, locations where active employee records that are required to be maintained under this Act are kept, where prospective new employees are processed, or where members of the public are invited in to transact business. A branch office does not include an office or other facility located on the property of an existing client that is utilized solely for the benefit of that client and is not owned or leased by the agency.

"Canine handler" means a person who uses or handles a trained dog to protect persons or property or to conduct investigations.

"Canine handler authorization card" means a card issued by the Department that authorizes the holder to use or handle a trained dog to protect persons or property or to conduct investigations during the performance of his or her duties as specified in this Act.

"Canine trainer" means a person who acts as a dog trainer for the purpose of training dogs to protect persons or property or to conduct investigations.

"Canine trainer authorization card" means a card issued by the Department that authorizes the holder to train a dog to protect persons or property or to conduct investigations during the performance of his or her duties as specified in this Act.

"Canine training facility" means a facility operated by a licensed private detective agency or private security contractor agency wherein dogs are trained for the purposes of protecting persons or property or to conduct investigations.

"Corporation" means an artificial person or legal entity created by or under the authority of the laws of a state, including without limitation a corporation, limited liability company, or any other legal entity.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Emergency communication system" means any system that communicates information about emergencies, including but not limited to fire, terrorist activities, shootings, other dangerous situations, accidents, and natural disasters.

"Employee" means a person who works for a person or agency that has the right to control the details of the work performed and is not dependent upon whether or not federal or state payroll taxes are withheld.

"Fingerprint vendor" means a person that offers, advertises, or provides services to fingerprint individuals, through electronic or other means, for the purpose of providing fingerprint images and associated demographic data to the Illinois State Police for processing fingerprint based criminal history record information inquiries.

"Fingerprint vendor agency" means a person, firm, corporation, or other legal entity that engages in the fingerprint vendor business and employs, in addition to the fingerprint vendor licensee-in-charge, at least one other person in conducting that business.

"Fingerprint vendor licensee-in-charge" means a person who has been designated by a fingerprint vendor agency to be the licensee-in-charge of an agency who is a full-time management employee or owner who assumes sole responsibility for maintaining all records required by this Act and who assumes sole responsibility for assuring the licensed agency's compliance with its responsibilities as stated in this Act. The Department shall adopt rules mandating licensee-in-charge participation in agency affairs.

"Fire alarm system" means any system that is activated by an automatic or manual device in the detection of smoke, heat, or fire that activates an audible, visible, or remote signal requiring a response.

"Firearm control card" means a card issued by the Department that authorizes the holder, who has complied with the training and other requirements of this Act, to carry a weapon during the performance of his or her duties as specified in this Act.

"Firm" means an unincorporated business entity, including but not limited to proprietorships and partnerships.

"Licensee" means a person or business licensed under this Act. Anyone who holds himself or herself out as a licensee or who is accused of unlicensed practice is considered a licensee for purposes of enforcement, investigation, hearings, and the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

"Locksmith" means a person who engages in a business or holds himself out to the public as providing a service that includes, but is not limited to, the servicing, installing, originating first keys, re-coding, repairing, maintaining, manipulating, or bypassing of a mechanical or electronic locking device, access control or video surveillance system at premises, vehicles, safes, vaults, safe deposit boxes, or automatic teller machines.

"Locksmith agency" means a person, firm, corporation, or other legal entity that engages in the locksmith business and employs, in addition to the locksmith licensee-in-charge, at least one other person in conducting such business.

"Locksmith licensee-in-charge" means a person who has been designated by agency to be the licensee-in-charge of an agency, who is a full-time management employee or owner who assumes sole responsibility for maintaining all records required by this Act, and who assumes sole responsibility for assuring the licensed agency's compliance with its responsibilities as stated in this Act. The Department shall adopt rules mandating licensee-in-charge participation in agency affairs.

"Mass notification system" means any system that is used to provide information and instructions to people in a building or other space using voice communications, including visible signals, text, graphics, tactile, or other communication methods.

"Peace officer" or "police officer" means a person who, by virtue of office or public employment, is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for offenses, whether that duty extends to all offenses or is limited to specific offenses. Officers, agents, or employees of the federal government commissioned by federal statute to make arrests for violations of federal laws are considered peace officers.

"Permanent employee registration card" means a card issued by the Department to an individual who has applied to the Department and meets the requirements for employment by a licensed agency under this Act.

"Person" means a natural person.

"Private alarm contractor" means a person who engages in a business that individually or through others undertakes, offers to undertake, purports to have the capacity to undertake, or submits a bid to sell, install, design, monitor, maintain, test, inspect, alter, repair, replace, or service alarm and other security-related systems or parts thereof, including fire alarm systems, at protected premises or premises to be protected or responds to alarm systems at a protected premises on an emergency basis and not as a full-time security officer. "Private alarm contractor" does not include a person, firm, or corporation that manufactures or sells alarm systems only from its place of business and does not sell, install, monitor, maintain, alter, repair, replace, service, or respond to alarm systems at protected premises or premises to be protected.

"Private alarm contractor agency" means a person, corporation, or other entity that engages in the private alarm contracting business and employs, in addition to the private alarm contractor-in-charge, at least one other person in conducting such business.

"Private alarm contractor licensee-in-charge" means a person who has been designated by an agency to be the licensee-in-charge of an agency, who is a full-time management employee or owner who assumes sole responsibility for maintaining all records required by this Act, and who assumes sole responsibility for assuring the licensed agency's compliance with its responsibilities as stated in this Act. The Department shall adopt rules mandating licensee-in-charge participation in agency affairs.

"Private detective" means any person who by any means, including, but not limited to, manual, canine odor detection, or electronic methods, engages in the business of, accepts employment to furnish, or agrees to make or makes investigations for a fee or other consideration to obtain information relating to:

(1) Crimes or wrongs done or threatened against the United States, any state or territory of the United States, or any local government of a state or territory.

(2) The identity, habits, conduct, business occupation, honesty, integrity, credibility, knowledge, trustworthiness, efficiency, loyalty, activity, movements, whereabouts, affiliations, associations, transactions, acts, reputation, or character of any person, firm, or other entity by any means, manual or electronic.

(3) The location, disposition, or recovery of lost or stolen property.

(4) The cause, origin, or responsibility for fires, accidents, or injuries to individuals or real or personal property.

(5) The truth or falsity of any statement or representation.

(6) Securing evidence to be used before any court, board, or investigating body.

(7) The protection of individuals from bodily harm or death (bodyguard functions).

(8) Service of process in criminal and civil proceedings.

"Private detective agency" means a person, firm, corporation, or other legal entity that engages in the private detective business and employs, in addition to the licensee-in-charge, one or more persons in conducting such business.

"Private detective licensee-in-charge" means a person who has been designated by an agency to be the licensee-in-charge of an agency, who is a full-time management employee or owner who assumes sole responsibility for maintaining all records required by this Act, and who assumes sole responsibility for assuring the licensed agency's compliance with its responsibilities as stated in this Act. The Department shall adopt rules mandating licensee-in-charge participation in agency affairs.

"Private security contractor" means a person who engages in the business of providing a private security officer, watchman, patrol, guard dog, canine odor detection, or a similar service by any other title or name on a contractual basis for another person, firm, corporation, or other entity for a fee or other consideration and performing one or more of the following functions:

(1) The prevention or detection of intrusion, entry, theft, vandalism, abuse, fire, or trespass on private or governmental property.

(2) The prevention, observation, or detection of any unauthorized activity on private or governmental property.

(3) The protection of persons authorized to be on the premises of the person, firm, or other entity for which the security contractor contractually provides security services.

(4) The prevention of the misappropriation or concealment of goods, money, bonds, stocks, notes, documents, or papers.

(5) The control, regulation, or direction of the movement of the public for the time specifically required for the protection of property owned or controlled by the client.

(6) The protection of individuals from bodily harm or death (bodyguard functions).

"Private security contractor agency" means a person, firm, corporation, or other legal entity that engages in the private security contractor business and that employs, in addition to the licensee-in-charge, one or more persons in conducting such business.

"Private security contractor licensee-in-charge" means a person who has been designated by an agency to be the licensee-in-charge of an agency, who is a full-time management employee or owner who assumes sole responsibility for maintaining all records required by this Act, and who assumes sole responsibility for assuring the licensed agency's compliance with its responsibilities as stated in this Act. The Department shall adopt rules mandating licensee-in-charge participation in agency affairs.

"Public member" means a person who is not a licensee or related to a licensee, or who is not an employer or employee of a licensee. The term "related to" shall be determined by the rules of the Department.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 102-152, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-26-21.)

Section 485. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002 is amended by changing Section 5-22 as follows:

(225 ILCS 458/5-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 5-22. Criminal history records check.

(a) An application for licensure by examination or restoration shall include the applicant's fingerprints submitted to the Illinois State Police in an electronic format that complies with the form and manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history record information as prescribed by the Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now and hereafter filed. The Illinois State Police shall charge applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of Illinois convictions to the Department. The Department may require applicants to pay a separate fingerprinting fee, either to the Department or to a vendor. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(b) The Secretary may designate a multi-state licensing system to perform the functions described in subsection (a). The Department may require applicants to pay a separate fingerprinting fee, either to the Department or to the multi-state licensing system. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement this subsection.

(c) The Department shall not consider the following criminal history records in connection with an application for licensure:

(1) juvenile adjudications of delinquent minors as defined in Section 5-105 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 subject to the restrictions set forth in Section 5-130 of that Act;

(2) law enforcement records, court records, and conviction records of an individual who was 17 years old at the time of the offense and before January 1, 2014, unless the nature of the offense required the individual to be tried as an adult;

(3) records of arrest not followed by a charge or conviction;

(4) records of arrest in which the charges were dismissed unless related to the practice of the profession; however, applicants shall not be asked to report any arrests, and an arrest not followed by a conviction shall not be the basis of a denial and may be used only to assess an applicant's rehabilitation;

(5) convictions overturned by a higher court; or

(6) convictions or arrests that have been sealed or expunged.

(d) If an applicant makes a false statement of material fact on the application, the false statement may in itself be sufficient grounds to revoke or refuse to issue a license.

(e) An applicant or licensee shall report to the Department, in a manner prescribed by the Department, upon application and within 30 days after the occurrence, if during the term of licensure, (i) any conviction of or plea of guilty or nolo contendere to forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money under false pretenses, larceny, extortion, conspiracy to defraud, or any similar offense or offenses or any conviction of a felony involving moral turpitude, (ii) the entry of an administrative sanction by a government agency in this State or any other jurisdiction that has as an essential element dishonesty or fraud or involves larceny, embezzlement, or obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses, or (iii) a crime that subjects the licensee to compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-20, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 1-4-22.)

Section 490. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 26 and 28 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/26) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-26)

Sec. 26. Wagering.

(a) Any licensee may conduct and supervise the pari-mutuel system of wagering, as defined in Section 3.12 of this Act, on horse races conducted by an Illinois organization licensee or conducted at a racetrack located in another state or country in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 26 of this Act. Subject to the prior consent of the Board, licensees may supplement any pari-mutuel pool in order to guarantee a minimum distribution. Such pari-mutuel method of wagering shall not, under any circumstances if conducted under the provisions of this Act, be held or construed to be unlawful, other statutes of this State to the contrary notwithstanding. Subject to rules for advance wagering promulgated by the Board, any licensee may accept wagers in advance of the day of the race wagered upon occurs.

(b) Except for those gaming activities for which a license is obtained and authorized under the Illinois Lottery Law, the Charitable Games Act, the Raffles and Poker Runs Act, or the Illinois Gambling Act, no other method of betting, pool making, wagering or gambling shall be used or permitted by the licensee. Each licensee may retain, subject to the payment of all applicable taxes and purses, an amount not to exceed 17% of all money wagered under subsection (a) of this Section, except as may otherwise be permitted under this Act.

(b-5) An individual may place a wager under the pari-mutuel system from any licensed location authorized under this Act provided that wager is electronically recorded in the manner described in Section 3.12 of this Act. Any wager made electronically by an individual while physically on the premises of a licensee shall be deemed to have been made at the premises of that licensee.

(c) (Blank).

(c-5) The sum held by any licensee for payment of outstanding pari-mutuel tickets, if unclaimed prior to December 31 of the next year, shall be retained by the licensee for payment of such tickets until that date. Within 10 days thereafter, the balance of such sum remaining unclaimed, less any uncashed supplements contributed by such licensee for the purpose of guaranteeing minimum distributions of any pari-mutuel pool, shall be evenly distributed to the purse account of the organization licensee and the organization licensee, except that the balance of the sum of all outstanding pari-mutuel tickets generated from simulcast wagering and inter-track wagering by an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and borders the Mississippi River or any licensee that derives its license from that organization licensee shall be evenly distributed to the purse account of the organization licensee and the organization licensee.

(d) A pari-mutuel ticket shall be honored until December 31 of the next calendar year, and the licensee shall pay the same and may charge the amount thereof against unpaid money similarly accumulated on account of pari-mutuel tickets not presented for payment.

(e) No licensee shall knowingly permit any minor, other than an employee of such licensee or an owner, trainer, jockey, driver, or employee thereof, to be admitted during a racing program unless accompanied by a parent or guardian, or any minor to be a patron of the pari-mutuel system of wagering conducted or supervised by it. The admission of any unaccompanied minor, other than an employee of the licensee or an owner, trainer, jockey, driver, or employee thereof at a race track is a Class C misdemeanor.

(f) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act, an organization licensee may contract with an entity in another state or country to permit any legal wagering entity in another state or country to accept wagers solely within such other state or country on races conducted by the organization licensee in this State. Beginning January 1, 2000, these wagers shall not be subject to State taxation. Until January 1, 2000, when the out-of-State entity conducts a pari-mutuel pool separate from the organization licensee, a privilege tax equal to 7 1/2% of all monies received by the organization licensee from entities in other states or countries pursuant to such contracts is imposed on the organization licensee, and such privilege tax shall be remitted to the Department of Revenue within 48 hours of receipt of the moneys from the simulcast. When the out-of-State entity conducts a combined pari-mutuel pool with the organization licensee, the tax shall be 10% of all monies received by the organization licensee with 25% of the receipts from this 10% tax to be distributed to the county in which the race was conducted.

An organization licensee may permit one or more of its races to be utilized for pari-mutuel wagering at one or more locations in other states and may transmit audio and visual signals of races the organization licensee conducts to one or more locations outside the State or country and may also permit pari-mutuel pools in other states or countries to be combined with its gross or net wagering pools or with wagering pools established by other states.

(g) A host track may accept interstate simulcast wagers on horse races conducted in other states or countries and shall control the number of signals and types of breeds of racing in its simulcast program, subject to the disapproval of the Board. The Board may prohibit a simulcast program only if it finds that the simulcast program is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing. The host track simulcast program shall include the signal of live racing of all organization licensees. All non-host licensees and advance deposit wagering licensees shall carry the signal of and accept wagers on live racing of all organization licensees. Advance deposit wagering licensees shall not be permitted to accept out-of-state wagers on any Illinois signal provided pursuant to this Section without the approval and consent of the organization licensee providing the signal. For one year after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-968), non-host licensees may carry the host track simulcast program and shall accept wagers on all races included as part of the simulcast program of horse races conducted at race tracks located within North America upon which wagering is permitted. For a period of one year after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-968), on horse races conducted at race tracks located outside of North America, non-host licensees may accept wagers on all races included as part of the simulcast program upon which wagering is permitted. Beginning August 15, 2015 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 98-968), non-host licensees may carry the host track simulcast program and shall accept wagers on all races included as part of the simulcast program upon which wagering is permitted. All organization licensees shall provide their live signal to all advance deposit wagering licensees for a simulcast commission fee not to exceed 6% of the advance deposit wagering licensee's Illinois handle on the organization licensee's signal without prior approval by the Board. The Board may adopt rules under which it may permit simulcast commission fees in excess of 6%. The Board shall adopt rules limiting the interstate commission fees charged to an advance deposit wagering licensee. The Board shall adopt rules regarding advance deposit wagering on interstate simulcast races that shall reflect, among other things, the General Assembly's desire to maximize revenues to the State, horsemen purses, and organization licensees. However, organization licensees providing live signals pursuant to the requirements of this subsection (g) may petition the Board to withhold their live signals from an advance deposit wagering licensee if the organization licensee discovers and the Board finds reputable or credible information that the advance deposit wagering licensee is under investigation by another state or federal governmental agency, the advance deposit wagering licensee's license has been suspended in another state, or the advance deposit wagering licensee's license is in revocation proceedings in another state. The organization licensee's provision of their live signal to an advance deposit wagering licensee under this subsection (g) pertains to wagers placed from within Illinois. Advance deposit wagering licensees may place advance deposit wagering terminals at wagering facilities as a convenience to customers. The advance deposit wagering licensee shall not charge or collect any fee from purses for the placement of the advance deposit wagering terminals. The costs and expenses of the host track and non-host licensees associated with interstate simulcast wagering, other than the interstate commission fee, shall be borne by the host track and all non-host licensees incurring these costs. The interstate commission fee shall not exceed 5% of Illinois handle on the interstate simulcast race or races without prior approval of the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under which it may permit interstate commission fees in excess of 5%. The interstate commission fee and other fees charged by the sending racetrack, including, but not limited to, satellite decoder fees, shall be uniformly applied to the host track and all non-host licensees.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, an organization licensee, with the consent of the horsemen association representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting, may maintain a system whereby advance deposit wagering may take place or an organization licensee, with the consent of the horsemen association representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting, may contract with another person to carry out a system of advance deposit wagering. Such consent may not be unreasonably withheld. Only with respect to an appeal to the Board that consent for an organization licensee that maintains its own advance deposit wagering system is being unreasonably withheld, the Board shall issue a final order within 30 days after initiation of the appeal, and the organization licensee's advance deposit wagering system may remain operational during that 30-day period. The actions of any organization licensee who conducts advance deposit wagering or any person who has a contract with an organization licensee to conduct advance deposit wagering who conducts advance deposit wagering on or after January 1, 2013 and prior to June 7, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-18) taken in reliance on the changes made to this subsection (g) by Public Act 98-18 are hereby validated, provided payment of all applicable pari-mutuel taxes are remitted to the Board. All advance deposit wagers placed from within Illinois must be placed through a Board-approved advance deposit wagering licensee; no other entity may accept an advance deposit wager from a person within Illinois. All advance deposit wagering is subject to any rules adopted by the Board. The Board may adopt rules necessary to regulate advance deposit wagering through the use of emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to regulate advance deposit wagering is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. An advance deposit wagering licensee may retain all moneys as agreed to by contract with an organization licensee. Any moneys retained by the organization licensee from advance deposit wagering, not including moneys retained by the advance deposit wagering licensee, shall be paid 50% to the organization licensee's purse account and 50% to the organization licensee. With the exception of any organization licensee that is owned by a publicly traded company that is incorporated in a state other than Illinois and advance deposit wagering licensees under contract with such organization licensees, organization licensees that maintain advance deposit wagering systems and advance deposit wagering licensees that contract with organization licensees shall provide sufficiently detailed monthly accountings to the horsemen association representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting so that the horsemen association, as an interested party, can confirm the accuracy of the amounts paid to the purse account at the horsemen association's affiliated organization licensee from advance deposit wagering. If more than one breed races at the same race track facility, then the 50% of the moneys to be paid to an organization licensee's purse account shall be allocated among all organization licensees' purse accounts operating at that race track facility proportionately based on the actual number of host days that the Board grants to that breed at that race track facility in the current calendar year. To the extent any fees from advance deposit wagering conducted in Illinois for wagers in Illinois or other states have been placed in escrow or otherwise withheld from wagers pending a determination of the legality of advance deposit wagering, no action shall be brought to declare such wagers or the disbursement of any fees previously escrowed illegal.

(1) Between the hours of 6:30 a.m. and 6:30 p.m. an inter-track wagering licensee other than the host track may supplement the host track simulcast program with additional simulcast races or race programs, provided that between January 1 and the third Friday in February of any year, inclusive, if no live thoroughbred racing is occurring in Illinois during this period, only thoroughbred races may be used for supplemental interstate simulcast purposes. The Board shall withhold approval for a supplemental interstate simulcast only if it finds that the simulcast is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing. A supplemental interstate simulcast may be transmitted from an inter-track wagering licensee to its affiliated non-host licensees. The interstate commission fee for a supplemental interstate simulcast shall be paid by the non-host licensee and its affiliated non-host licensees receiving the simulcast.

(2) Between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m. an inter-track wagering licensee other than the host track may receive supplemental interstate simulcasts only with the consent of the host track, except when the Board finds that the simulcast is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing. Consent granted under this paragraph (2) to any inter-track wagering licensee shall be deemed consent to all non-host licensees. The interstate commission fee for the supplemental interstate simulcast shall be paid by all participating non-host licensees.

(3) Each licensee conducting interstate simulcast wagering may retain, subject to the payment of all applicable taxes and the purses, an amount not to exceed 17% of all money wagered. If any licensee conducts the pari-mutuel system wagering on races conducted at racetracks in another state or country, each such race or race program shall be considered a separate racing day for the purpose of determining the daily handle and computing the privilege tax of that daily handle as provided in subsection (a) of Section 27. Until January 1, 2000, from the sums permitted to be retained pursuant to this subsection, each inter-track wagering location licensee shall pay 1% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered on simulcast wagering to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund, subject to the provisions of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (11) of subsection (h) of Section 26 of this Act.

(4) A licensee who receives an interstate simulcast may combine its gross or net pools with pools at the sending racetracks pursuant to rules established by the Board. All licensees combining their gross pools at a sending racetrack shall adopt the takeout percentages of the sending racetrack. A licensee may also establish a separate pool and takeout structure for wagering purposes on races conducted at race tracks outside of the State of Illinois. The licensee may permit pari-mutuel wagers placed in other states or countries to be combined with its gross or net wagering pools or other wagering pools.

(5) After the payment of the interstate commission fee (except for the interstate commission fee on a supplemental interstate simulcast, which shall be paid by the host track and by each non-host licensee through the host track) and all applicable State and local taxes, except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, the remainder of moneys retained from simulcast wagering pursuant to this subsection (g), and Section 26.2 shall be divided as follows:

(A) For interstate simulcast wagers made at a host track, 50% to the host track and 50% to purses at the host track.

(B) For wagers placed on interstate simulcast races, supplemental simulcasts as defined in subparagraphs (1) and (2), and separately pooled races conducted outside of the State of Illinois made at a non-host licensee, 25% to the host track, 25% to the non-host licensee, and 50% to the purses at the host track.

(6) Notwithstanding any provision in this Act to the contrary, non-host licensees who derive their licenses from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River may receive supplemental interstate simulcast races at all times subject to Board approval, which shall be withheld only upon a finding that a supplemental interstate simulcast is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing.

(7) Effective January 1, 2017, notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, after payment of all applicable State and local taxes and interstate commission fees, non-host licensees who derive their licenses from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall retain 50% of the retention from interstate simulcast wagers and shall pay 50% to purses at the track from which the non-host licensee derives its license.

(7.1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, if no standardbred racing is conducted at a racetrack located in Madison County during any calendar year beginning on or after January 1, 2002, all moneys derived by that racetrack from simulcast wagering and inter-track wagering that (1) are to be used for purses and (2) are generated between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m. during that calendar year shall be paid as follows:

(A) If the licensee that conducts horse racing at that racetrack requests from the Board at least as many racing dates as were conducted in calendar year 2000, 80% shall be paid to its thoroughbred purse account; and

(B) Twenty percent shall be deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund and shall be paid to purses for standardbred races for Illinois conceived and foaled horses conducted at any county fairgrounds. The moneys deposited into the Fund pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited within 2 weeks after the day they were generated, shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any other moneys paid to standardbred purses under this Act, and shall not be commingled with other moneys paid into that Fund. The moneys deposited pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be allocated as provided by the Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board.

(7.2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, if no thoroughbred racing is conducted at a racetrack located in Madison County during any calendar year beginning on or after January 1, 2002, all moneys derived by that racetrack from simulcast wagering and inter-track wagering that (1) are to be used for purses and (2) are generated between the hours of 6:30 a.m. and 6:30 p.m. during that calendar year shall be deposited as follows:

(A) If the licensee that conducts horse racing at that racetrack requests from the Board at least as many racing dates as were conducted in calendar year 2000, 80% shall be deposited into its standardbred purse account; and

(B) Twenty percent shall be deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund. Moneys deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be paid to Illinois conceived and foaled thoroughbred breeders' programs and to thoroughbred purses for races conducted at any county fairgrounds for Illinois conceived and foaled horses at the discretion of the Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board. The moneys deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited within 2 weeks after the day they were generated, shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any other moneys paid to thoroughbred purses under this Act, and shall not be commingled with other moneys deposited into that Fund.

(8) Notwithstanding any provision in this Act to the contrary, an organization licensee from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River and its affiliated non-host licensees shall not be entitled to share in any retention generated on racing, inter-track wagering, or simulcast wagering at any other Illinois wagering facility.

(8.1) Notwithstanding any provisions in this Act to the contrary, if 2 organization licensees are conducting standardbred race meetings concurrently between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m., after payment of all applicable State and local taxes and interstate commission fees, the remainder of the amount retained from simulcast wagering otherwise attributable to the host track and to host track purses shall be split daily between the 2 organization licensees and the purses at the tracks of the 2 organization licensees, respectively, based on each organization licensee's share of the total live handle for that day, provided that this provision shall not apply to any non-host licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River.

(9) (Blank).

(10) (Blank).

(11) (Blank).

(12) The Board shall have authority to compel all host tracks to receive the simulcast of any or all races conducted at the Springfield or DuQuoin State fairgrounds and include all such races as part of their simulcast programs.

(13) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, in the event that the total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at all wagering facilities in any calendar year is less than 75% of the total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at all such wagering facilities for calendar year 1994, then each wagering facility that has an annual total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races that is less than 75% of the total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at such wagering facility for calendar year 1994, shall be permitted to receive, from any amount otherwise payable to the purse account at the race track with which the wagering facility is affiliated in the succeeding calendar year, an amount equal to 2% of the differential in total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at the wagering facility between that calendar year in question and 1994 provided, however, that a wagering facility shall not be entitled to any such payment until the Board certifies in writing to the wagering facility the amount to which the wagering facility is entitled and a schedule for payment of the amount to the wagering facility, based on: (i) the racing dates awarded to the race track affiliated with the wagering facility during the succeeding year; (ii) the sums available or anticipated to be available in the purse account of the race track affiliated with the wagering facility for purses during the succeeding year; and (iii) the need to ensure reasonable purse levels during the payment period. The Board's certification shall be provided no later than January 31 of the succeeding year. In the event a wagering facility entitled to a payment under this paragraph (13) is affiliated with a race track that maintains purse accounts for both standardbred and thoroughbred racing, the amount to be paid to the wagering facility shall be divided between each purse account pro rata, based on the amount of Illinois handle on Illinois standardbred and thoroughbred racing respectively at the wagering facility during the previous calendar year. Annually, the General Assembly shall appropriate sufficient funds from the General Revenue Fund to the Department of Agriculture for payment into the thoroughbred and standardbred horse racing purse accounts at Illinois pari-mutuel tracks. The amount paid to each purse account shall be the amount certified by the Illinois Racing Board in January to be transferred from each account to each eligible racing facility in accordance with the provisions of this Section. Beginning in the calendar year in which an organization licensee that is eligible to receive payment under this paragraph (13) begins to receive funds from gaming pursuant to an organization gaming license issued under the Illinois Gambling Act, the amount of the payment due to all wagering facilities licensed under that organization licensee under this paragraph (13) shall be the amount certified by the Board in January of that year. An organization licensee and its related wagering facilities shall no longer be able to receive payments under this paragraph (13) beginning in the year subsequent to the first year in which the organization licensee begins to receive funds from gaming pursuant to an organization gaming license issued under the Illinois Gambling Act.

(h) The Board may approve and license the conduct of inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering by inter-track wagering licensees and inter-track wagering location licensees subject to the following terms and conditions:

(1) Any person licensed to conduct a race meeting (i) at a track where 60 or more days of racing were conducted during the immediately preceding calendar year or where over the 5 immediately preceding calendar years an average of 30 or more days of racing were conducted annually may be issued an inter-track wagering license; (ii) at a track located in a county that is bounded by the Mississippi River, which has a population of less than 150,000 according to the 1990 decennial census, and an average of at least 60 days of racing per year between 1985 and 1993 may be issued an inter-track wagering license; (iii) at a track awarded standardbred racing dates; or (iv) at a track located in Madison County that conducted at least 100 days of live racing during the immediately preceding calendar year may be issued an inter-track wagering license, unless a lesser schedule of live racing is the result of (A) weather, unsafe track conditions, or other acts of God; (B) an agreement between the organization licensee and the associations representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting; or (C) a finding by the Board of extraordinary circumstances and that it was in the best interest of the public and the sport to conduct fewer than 100 days of live racing. Any such person having operating control of the racing facility may receive inter-track wagering location licenses. An eligible race track located in a county that has a population of more than 230,000 and that is bounded by the Mississippi River may establish up to 9 inter-track wagering locations, an eligible race track located in Stickney Township in Cook County may establish up to 16 inter-track wagering locations, and an eligible race track located in Palatine Township in Cook County may establish up to 18 inter-track wagering locations. An eligible racetrack conducting standardbred racing may have up to 16 inter-track wagering locations. An application for said license shall be filed with the Board prior to such dates as may be fixed by the Board. With an application for an inter-track wagering location license there shall be delivered to the Board a certified check or bank draft payable to the order of the Board for an amount equal to $500. The application shall be on forms prescribed and furnished by the Board. The application shall comply with all other rules, regulations and conditions imposed by the Board in connection therewith.

(2) The Board shall examine the applications with respect to their conformity with this Act and the rules and regulations imposed by the Board. If found to be in compliance with the Act and rules and regulations of the Board, the Board may then issue a license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering to such applicant. All such applications shall be acted upon by the Board at a meeting to be held on such date as may be fixed by the Board.

(3) In granting licenses to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering, the Board shall give due consideration to the best interests of the public, of horse racing, and of maximizing revenue to the State.

(4) Prior to the issuance of a license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering, the applicant shall file with the Board a bond payable to the State of Illinois in the sum of $50,000, executed by the applicant and a surety company or companies authorized to do business in this State, and conditioned upon (i) the payment by the licensee of all taxes due under Section 27 or 27.1 and any other monies due and payable under this Act, and (ii) distribution by the licensee, upon presentation of the winning ticket or tickets, of all sums payable to the patrons of pari-mutuel pools.

(5) Each license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall specify the person to whom it is issued, the dates on which such wagering is permitted, and the track or location where the wagering is to be conducted.

(6) All wagering under such license is subject to this Act and to the rules and regulations from time to time prescribed by the Board, and every such license issued by the Board shall contain a recital to that effect.

(7) An inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee may accept wagers at the track or location where it is licensed, or as otherwise provided under this Act.

(8) Inter-track wagering or simulcast wagering shall not be conducted at any track less than 4 miles from a track at which a racing meeting is in progress.

(8.1) Inter-track wagering location licensees who derive their licenses from a particular organization licensee shall conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering only at locations that are within 160 miles of that race track where the particular organization licensee is licensed to conduct racing. However, inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall not be conducted by those licensees at any location within 5 miles of any race track at which a horse race meeting has been licensed in the current year, unless the person having operating control of such race track has given its written consent to such inter-track wagering location licensees, which consent must be filed with the Board at or prior to the time application is made. In the case of any inter-track wagering location licensee initially licensed after December 31, 2013, inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall not be conducted by those inter-track wagering location licensees that are located outside the City of Chicago at any location within 8 miles of any race track at which a horse race meeting has been licensed in the current year, unless the person having operating control of such race track has given its written consent to such inter-track wagering location licensees, which consent must be filed with the Board at or prior to the time application is made.

(8.2) Inter-track wagering or simulcast wagering shall not be conducted by an inter-track wagering location licensee at any location within 100 feet of an existing church, an existing elementary or secondary public school, or an existing elementary or secondary private school registered with or recognized by the State Board of Education. The distance of 100 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services, education programs, or conducting inter-track wagering by an inter-track wagering location licensee, and not to property boundaries. However, inter-track wagering or simulcast wagering may be conducted at a site within 100 feet of a church or school if such church or school has been erected or established after the Board issues the original inter-track wagering location license at the site in question. Inter-track wagering location licensees may conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering only in areas that are zoned for commercial or manufacturing purposes or in areas for which a special use has been approved by the local zoning authority. However, no license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall be granted by the Board with respect to any inter-track wagering location within the jurisdiction of any local zoning authority which has, by ordinance or by resolution, prohibited the establishment of an inter-track wagering location within its jurisdiction. However, inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering may be conducted at a site if such ordinance or resolution is enacted after the Board licenses the original inter-track wagering location licensee for the site in question.

(9) (Blank).

(10) An inter-track wagering licensee or an inter-track wagering location licensee may retain, subject to the payment of the privilege taxes and the purses, an amount not to exceed 17% of all money wagered. Each program of racing conducted by each inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee shall be considered a separate racing day for the purpose of determining the daily handle and computing the privilege tax or pari-mutuel tax on such daily handle as provided in Section 27.

(10.1) Except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, inter-track wagering location licensees shall pay 1% of the pari-mutuel handle at each location to the municipality in which such location is situated and 1% of the pari-mutuel handle at each location to the county in which such location is situated. In the event that an inter-track wagering location licensee is situated in an unincorporated area of a county, such licensee shall pay 2% of the pari-mutuel handle from such location to such county. Inter-track wagering location licensees must pay the handle percentage required under this paragraph to the municipality and county no later than the 20th of the month following the month such handle was generated.

(10.2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, with respect to inter-track wagering at a race track located in a county that has a population of more than 230,000 and that is bounded by the Mississippi River ("the first race track"), or at a facility operated by an inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from the organization licensee that operates the first race track, on races conducted at the first race track or on races conducted at another Illinois race track and simultaneously televised to the first race track or to a facility operated by an inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from the organization licensee that operates the first race track, those moneys shall be allocated as follows:

(A) That portion of all moneys wagered on standardbred racing that is required under this Act to be paid to purses shall be paid to purses for standardbred races.

(B) That portion of all moneys wagered on thoroughbred racing that is required under this Act to be paid to purses shall be paid to purses for thoroughbred races.

(11) (A) After payment of the privilege or pari-mutuel tax, any other applicable taxes, and the costs and expenses in connection with the gathering, transmission, and dissemination of all data necessary to the conduct of inter-track wagering, the remainder of the monies retained under either Section 26 or Section 26.2 of this Act by the inter-track wagering licensee on inter-track wagering shall be allocated with 50% to be split between the 2 participating licensees and 50% to purses, except that an inter-track wagering licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with the Illinois organization licensee that provides the race or races, and an inter-track wagering licensee that accepts wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee that conducts a race meet in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with that organization licensee.

(B) From the sums permitted to be retained pursuant to this Act each inter-track wagering location licensee shall pay (i) the privilege or pari-mutuel tax to the State; (ii) 4.75% of the pari-mutuel handle on inter-track wagering at such location on races as purses, except that an inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall retain all purse moneys for its own purse account consistent with distribution set forth in this subsection (h), and inter-track wagering location licensees that accept wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall distribute all purse moneys to purses at the operating host track; (iii) until January 1, 2000, except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, 1% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered on inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering at each inter-track wagering location licensee facility to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund, provided that, to the extent the total amount collected and distributed to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund under this subsection (h) during any calendar year exceeds the amount collected and distributed to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund during calendar year 1994, that excess amount shall be redistributed (I) to all inter-track wagering location licensees, based on each licensee's pro rata share of the total handle from inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering for all inter-track wagering location licensees during the calendar year in which this provision is applicable; then (II) the amounts redistributed to each inter-track wagering location licensee as described in subpart (I) shall be further redistributed as provided in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subsection (g) of this Section 26 provided first, that the shares of those amounts, which are to be redistributed to the host track or to purses at the host track under subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subsection (g) of this Section 26 shall be redistributed based on each host track's pro rata share of the total inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering handle at all host tracks during the calendar year in question, and second, that any amounts redistributed as described in part (I) to an inter-track wagering location licensee that accepts wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee that conducts a race meet in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall be further redistributed, effective January 1, 2017, as provided in paragraph (7) of subsection (g) of this Section 26, with the portion of that further redistribution allocated to purses at that organization licensee to be divided between standardbred purses and thoroughbred purses based on the amounts otherwise allocated to purses at that organization licensee during the calendar year in question; and (iv) 8% of the pari-mutuel handle on inter-track wagering wagered at such location to satisfy all costs and expenses of conducting its wagering. The remainder of the monies retained by the inter-track wagering location licensee shall be allocated 40% to the location licensee and 60% to the organization licensee which provides the Illinois races to the location, except that an inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with the organization licensee that provides the race or races and an inter-track wagering location licensee that accepts wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee that conducts a race meet in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with the organization licensee. Notwithstanding the provisions of clauses (ii) and (iv) of this paragraph, in the case of the additional inter-track wagering location licenses authorized under paragraph (1) of this subsection (h) by Public Act 87-110, those licensees shall pay the following amounts as purses: during the first 12 months the licensee is in operation, 5.25% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered at the location on races; during the second 12 months, 5.25%; during the third 12 months, 5.75%; during the fourth 12 months, 6.25%; and during the fifth 12 months and thereafter, 6.75%. The following amounts shall be retained by the licensee to satisfy all costs and expenses of conducting its wagering: during the first 12 months the licensee is in operation, 8.25% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered at the location; during the second 12 months, 8.25%; during the third 12 months, 7.75%; during the fourth 12 months, 7.25%; and during the fifth 12 months and thereafter, 6.75%. For additional inter-track wagering location licensees authorized under Public Act 89-16, purses for the first 12 months the licensee is in operation shall be 5.75% of the pari-mutuel wagered at the location, purses for the second 12 months the licensee is in operation shall be 6.25%, and purses thereafter shall be 6.75%. For additional inter-track location licensees authorized under Public Act 89-16, the licensee shall be allowed to retain to satisfy all costs and expenses: 7.75% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered at the location during its first 12 months of operation, 7.25% during its second 12 months of operation, and 6.75% thereafter.

(C) There is hereby created the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund which shall remain in existence until December 31, 1999. Moneys remaining in the Fund after December 31, 1999 shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund. Until January 1, 2000, all monies paid into the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund pursuant to this paragraph (11) by inter-track wagering location licensees located in park districts of 500,000 population or less, or in a municipality that is not included within any park district but is included within a conservation district and is the county seat of a county that (i) is contiguous to the state of Indiana and (ii) has a 1990 population of 88,257 according to the United States Bureau of the Census, and operating on May 1, 1994 shall be allocated by appropriation as follows:

Two-sevenths to the Department of Agriculture. Fifty percent of this two-sevenths shall be used to promote the Illinois horse racing and breeding industry, and shall be distributed by the Department of Agriculture upon the advice of a 9-member committee appointed by the Governor consisting of the following members: the Director of Agriculture, who shall serve as chairman; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting thoroughbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting standardbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; a representative of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders and Owners Foundation, recommended by that Foundation; a representative of the Illinois Standardbred Owners and Breeders Association, recommended by that Association; a representative of the Horsemen's Benevolent and Protective Association or any successor organization thereto established in Illinois comprised of the largest number of owners and trainers, recommended by that Association or that successor organization; and a representative of the Illinois Harness Horsemen's Association, recommended by that Association. Committee members shall serve for terms of 2 years, commencing January 1 of each even-numbered year. If a representative of any of the above-named entities has not been recommended by January 1 of any even-numbered year, the Governor shall appoint a committee member to fill that position. Committee members shall receive no compensation for their services as members but shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the performance of their official duties. The remaining 50% of this two-sevenths shall be distributed to county fairs for premiums and rehabilitation as set forth in the Agricultural Fair Act;

Four-sevenths to park districts or municipalities that do not have a park district of 500,000 population or less for museum purposes (if an inter-track wagering location licensee is located in such a park district) or to conservation districts for museum purposes (if an inter-track wagering location licensee is located in a municipality that is not included within any park district but is included within a conservation district and is the county seat of a county that (i) is contiguous to the state of Indiana and (ii) has a 1990 population of 88,257 according to the United States Bureau of the Census, except that if the conservation district does not maintain a museum, the monies shall be allocated equally between the county and the municipality in which the inter-track wagering location licensee is located for general purposes) or to a municipal recreation board for park purposes (if an inter-track wagering location licensee is located in a municipality that is not included within any park district and park maintenance is the function of the municipal recreation board and the municipality has a 1990 population of 9,302 according to the United States Bureau of the Census); provided that the monies are distributed to each park district or conservation district or municipality that does not have a park district in an amount equal to four-sevenths of the amount collected by each inter-track wagering location licensee within the park district or conservation district or municipality for the Fund. Monies that were paid into the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund before August 9, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-110) by an inter-track wagering location licensee located in a municipality that is not included within any park district but is included within a conservation district as provided in this paragraph shall, as soon as practicable after August 9, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-110), be allocated and paid to that conservation district as provided in this paragraph. Any park district or municipality not maintaining a museum may deposit the monies in the corporate fund of the park district or municipality where the inter-track wagering location is located, to be used for general purposes; and

One-seventh to the Agricultural Premium Fund to be used for distribution to agricultural home economics extension councils in accordance with "An Act in relation to additional support and finances for the Agricultural and Home Economic Extension Councils in the several counties of this State and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 24, 1967.

Until January 1, 2000, all other monies paid into the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund pursuant to this paragraph (11) shall be allocated by appropriation as follows:

Two-sevenths to the Department of Agriculture. Fifty percent of this two-sevenths shall be used to promote the Illinois horse racing and breeding industry, and shall be distributed by the Department of Agriculture upon the advice of a 9-member committee appointed by the Governor consisting of the following members: the Director of Agriculture, who shall serve as chairman; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting thoroughbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting standardbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; a representative of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders and Owners Foundation, recommended by that Foundation; a representative of the Illinois Standardbred Owners and Breeders Association, recommended by that Association; a representative of the Horsemen's Benevolent and Protective Association or any successor organization thereto established in Illinois comprised of the largest number of owners and trainers, recommended by that Association or that successor organization; and a representative of the Illinois Harness Horsemen's Association, recommended by that Association. Committee members shall serve for terms of 2 years, commencing January 1 of each even-numbered year. If a representative of any of the above-named entities has not been recommended by January 1 of any even-numbered year, the Governor shall appoint a committee member to fill that position. Committee members shall receive no compensation for their services as members but shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the performance of their official duties. The remaining 50% of this two-sevenths shall be distributed to county fairs for premiums and rehabilitation as set forth in the Agricultural Fair Act;

Four-sevenths to museums and aquariums located in park districts of over 500,000 population; provided that the monies are distributed in accordance with the previous year's distribution of the maintenance tax for such museums and aquariums as provided in Section 2 of the Park District Aquarium and Museum Act; and

One-seventh to the Agricultural Premium Fund to be used for distribution to agricultural home economics extension councils in accordance with "An Act in relation to additional support and finances for the Agricultural and Home Economic Extension Councils in the several counties of this State and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 24, 1967. This subparagraph (C) shall be inoperative and of no force and effect on and after January 1, 2000.

(D) Except as provided in paragraph (11) of this subsection (h), with respect to purse allocation from inter-track wagering, the monies so retained shall be divided as follows:

(i) If the inter-track wagering licensee, except an inter-track wagering licensee that derives its license from an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and bounded by the Mississippi River, is not conducting its own race meeting during the same dates, then the entire purse allocation shall be to purses at the track where the races wagered on are being conducted.

(ii) If the inter-track wagering licensee, except an inter-track wagering licensee that derives its license from an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and bounded by the Mississippi River, is also conducting its own race meeting during the same dates, then the purse allocation shall be as follows: 50% to purses at the track where the races wagered on are being conducted; 50% to purses at the track where the inter-track wagering licensee is accepting such wagers.

(iii) If the inter-track wagering is being conducted by an inter-track wagering location licensee, except an inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and bounded by the Mississippi River, the entire purse allocation for Illinois races shall be to purses at the track where the race meeting being wagered on is being held.

(12) The Board shall have all powers necessary and proper to fully supervise and control the conduct of inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering by inter-track wagering licensees and inter-track wagering location licensees, including, but not limited to, the following:

(A) The Board is vested with power to promulgate reasonable rules and regulations for the purpose of administering the conduct of this wagering and to prescribe reasonable rules, regulations and conditions under which such wagering shall be held and conducted. Such rules and regulations are to provide for the prevention of practices detrimental to the public interest and for the best interests of said wagering and to impose penalties for violations thereof.

(B) The Board, and any person or persons to whom it delegates this power, is vested with the power to enter the facilities of any licensee to determine whether there has been compliance with the provisions of this Act and the rules and regulations relating to the conduct of such wagering.

(C) The Board, and any person or persons to whom it delegates this power, may eject or exclude from any licensee's facilities, any person whose conduct or reputation is such that his presence on such premises may, in the opinion of the Board, call into the question the honesty and integrity of, or interfere with the orderly conduct of such wagering; provided, however, that no person shall be excluded or ejected from such premises solely on the grounds of race, color, creed, national origin, ancestry, or sex.

(D) (Blank).

(E) The Board is vested with the power to appoint delegates to execute any of the powers granted to it under this Section for the purpose of administering this wagering and any rules and regulations promulgated in accordance with this Act.

(F) The Board shall name and appoint a State director of this wagering who shall be a representative of the Board and whose duty it shall be to supervise the conduct of inter-track wagering as may be provided for by the rules and regulations of the Board; such rules and regulation shall specify the method of appointment and the Director's powers, authority and duties.

(G) The Board is vested with the power to impose civil penalties of up to $5,000 against individuals and up to $10,000 against licensees for each violation of any provision of this Act relating to the conduct of this wagering, any rules adopted by the Board, any order of the Board or any other action which in the Board's discretion, is a detriment or impediment to such wagering.

(13) The Department of Agriculture may enter into agreements with licensees authorizing such licensees to conduct inter-track wagering on races to be held at the licensed race meetings conducted by the Department of Agriculture. Such agreement shall specify the races of the Department of Agriculture's licensed race meeting upon which the licensees will conduct wagering. In the event that a licensee conducts inter-track pari-mutuel wagering on races from the Illinois State Fair or DuQuoin State Fair which are in addition to the licensee's previously approved racing program, those races shall be considered a separate racing day for the purpose of determining the daily handle and computing the privilege or pari-mutuel tax on that daily handle as provided in Sections 27 and 27.1. Such agreements shall be approved by the Board before such wagering may be conducted. In determining whether to grant approval, the Board shall give due consideration to the best interests of the public and of horse racing. The provisions of paragraphs (1), (8), (8.1), and (8.2) of subsection (h) of this Section which are not specified in this paragraph (13) shall not apply to licensed race meetings conducted by the Department of Agriculture at the Illinois State Fair in Sangamon County or the DuQuoin State Fair in Perry County, or to any wagering conducted on those race meetings.

(14) An inter-track wagering location license authorized by the Board in 2016 that is owned and operated by a race track in Rock Island County shall be transferred to a commonly owned race track in Cook County on August 12, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-757). The licensee shall retain its status in relation to purse distribution under paragraph (11) of this subsection (h) following the transfer to the new entity. The pari-mutuel tax credit under Section 32.1 shall not be applied toward any pari-mutuel tax obligation of the inter-track wagering location licensee of the license that is transferred under this paragraph (14).

(i) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act, the conduct of wagering at wagering facilities is authorized on all days, except as limited by subsection (b) of Section 19 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 101-52, eff. 7-12-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-109, eff. 7-19-19; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-2-21.)

(230 ILCS 5/28) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-28)

Sec. 28. Except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, moneys collected shall be distributed according to the provisions of this Section 28.

(a) Thirty per cent of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes shall be paid into the Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Fund in the State treasury Treasury until such Fund is repealed, and thereafter shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury Treasury.

(b) In addition, 4.5% of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes shall be paid into the State treasury into the Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Fund until such Fund is repealed, and thereafter shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury Treasury.

(c) Fifty per cent of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes under the provisions of this Act shall be paid into the Agricultural Premium Fund.

(d) Seven per cent of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes shall be paid into the Fair and Exposition Fund in the State treasury; provided, however, that when all bonds issued prior to July 1, 1984 by the Metropolitan Fair and Exposition Authority shall have been paid or payment shall have been provided for upon a refunding of those bonds, thereafter 1/12 of $1,665,662 of such monies shall be paid each month into the Build Illinois Fund, and the remainder into the Fair and Exposition Fund. All excess monies shall be allocated to the Department of Agriculture for distribution to county fairs for premiums and rehabilitation as set forth in the Agricultural Fair Act.

(e) The monies provided for in Section 30 shall be paid into the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund.

(f) The monies provided for in Section 31 shall be paid into the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund.

(g) Until January 1, 2000, that part representing 1/2 of the total breakage in Thoroughbred, Harness, Appaloosa, Arabian, and Quarter Horse racing in the State shall be paid into the Illinois Race Track Improvement Fund as established in Section 32.

(h) All other monies received by the Board under this Act shall be paid into the Horse Racing Fund.

(i) The salaries of the Board members, secretary, stewards, directors of mutuels, veterinarians, representatives, accountants, clerks, stenographers, inspectors and other employees of the Board, and all expenses of the Board incident to the administration of this Act, including, but not limited to, all expenses and salaries incident to the taking of saliva and urine samples in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Board shall be paid out of the Agricultural Premium Fund.

(j) The Agricultural Premium Fund shall also be used:

(1) for the expenses of operating the Illinois State Fair and the DuQuoin State Fair, including the payment of prize money or premiums;

(2) for the distribution to county fairs, vocational agriculture section fairs, agricultural societies, and agricultural extension clubs in accordance with the Agricultural Fair Act, as amended;

(3) for payment of prize monies and premiums awarded and for expenses incurred in connection with the International Livestock Exposition and the Mid-Continent Livestock Exposition held in Illinois, which premiums, and awards must be approved, and paid by the Illinois Department of Agriculture;

(4) for personal service of county agricultural advisors and county home advisors;

(5) for distribution to agricultural home economic extension councils in accordance with "An Act in relation to additional support and finance for the Agricultural and Home Economic Extension Councils in the several counties in this State and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 24, 1967, as amended;

(6) for research on equine disease, including a development center therefor;

(7) for training scholarships for study on equine diseases to students at the University of Illinois College of Veterinary Medicine;

(8) for the rehabilitation, repair and maintenance of the Illinois and DuQuoin State Fair Grounds and the structures and facilities thereon and the construction of permanent improvements on such Fair Grounds, including such structures, facilities and property located on such State Fair Grounds which are under the custody and control of the Department of Agriculture;

(9) (blank);

(10) for the expenses of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Sections 605-620, 605-625, and 605-630 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law;

(11) for remodeling, expanding, and reconstructing facilities destroyed by fire of any Fair and Exposition Authority in counties with a population of 1,000,000 or more inhabitants;

(12) for the purpose of assisting in the care and general rehabilitation of veterans with disabilities of any war and their surviving spouses and orphans;

(13) for expenses of the Illinois State Police for duties performed under this Act;

(14) for the Department of Agriculture for soil surveys and soil and water conservation purposes;

(15) for the Department of Agriculture for grants to the City of Chicago for conducting the Chicagofest;

(16) for the State Comptroller for grants and operating expenses authorized by the Illinois Global Partnership Act.

(k) To the extent that monies paid by the Board to the Agricultural Premium Fund are in the opinion of the Governor in excess of the amount necessary for the purposes herein stated, the Governor shall notify the Comptroller and the State Treasurer of such fact, who, upon receipt of such notification, shall transfer such excess monies from the Agricultural Premium Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

Section 495. The Illinois Gambling Act is amended by changing Sections 6 and 18 as follows:

(230 ILCS 10/6) (from Ch. 120, par. 2406)

Sec. 6. Application for owners license.

(a) A qualified person may apply to the Board for an owners license to conduct a gambling operation as provided in this Act. The application shall be made on forms provided by the Board and shall contain such information as the Board prescribes, including, but not limited to, the identity of the riverboat on which such gambling operation is to be conducted, if applicable, and the exact location where such riverboat or casino will be located, a certification that the riverboat will be registered under this Act at all times during which gambling operations are conducted on board, detailed information regarding the ownership and management of the applicant, and detailed personal information regarding the applicant. Any application for an owners license to be re-issued on or after June 1, 2003 shall also include the applicant's license bid in a form prescribed by the Board. Information provided on the application shall be used as a basis for a thorough background investigation which the Board shall conduct with respect to each applicant. An incomplete application shall be cause for denial of a license by the Board.

(a-5) In addition to any other information required under this Section, each application for an owners license must include the following information:

(1) The history and success of the applicant and each person and entity disclosed under subsection (c) of this Section in developing tourism facilities ancillary to gaming, if applicable.

(2) The likelihood that granting a license to the applicant will lead to the creation of quality, living wage jobs and permanent, full-time jobs for residents of the State and residents of the unit of local government that is designated as the home dock of the proposed facility where gambling is to be conducted by the applicant.

(3) The projected number of jobs that would be created if the license is granted and the projected number of new employees at the proposed facility where gambling is to be conducted by the applicant.

(4) The record, if any, of the applicant and its developer in meeting commitments to local agencies, community-based organizations, and employees at other locations where the applicant or its developer has performed similar functions as they would perform if the applicant were granted a license.

(5) Identification of adverse effects that might be caused by the proposed facility where gambling is to be conducted by the applicant, including the costs of meeting increased demand for public health care, child care, public transportation, affordable housing, and social services, and a plan to mitigate those adverse effects.

(6) The record, if any, of the applicant and its developer regarding compliance with:

(A) federal, state, and local discrimination, wage and hour, disability, and occupational and environmental health and safety laws; and

(B) state and local labor relations and employment laws.

(7) The applicant's record, if any, in dealing with its employees and their representatives at other locations.

(8) A plan concerning the utilization of minority-owned and women-owned businesses and concerning the hiring of minorities and women.

(9) Evidence the applicant used its best efforts to reach a goal of 25% ownership representation by minority persons and 5% ownership representation by women.

(10) Evidence the applicant has entered into a fully executed project labor agreement with the applicable local building trades council. For any pending application before the Board on June 10, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-13) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the applicant shall submit evidence complying with this paragraph within 30 days after June 10, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-13) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. The Board shall not award any pending applications until the applicant has submitted this information.

(b) Applicants shall submit with their application all documents, resolutions, and letters of support from the governing body that represents the municipality or county wherein the licensee will be located.

(c) Each applicant shall disclose the identity of every person or entity having a greater than 1% direct or indirect pecuniary interest in the gambling operation with respect to which the license is sought. If the disclosed entity is a trust, the application shall disclose the names and addresses of all beneficiaries; if a corporation, the names and addresses of all stockholders and directors; if a partnership, the names and addresses of all partners, both general and limited.

(d) An application shall be filed and considered in accordance with the rules of the Board. Each application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of $250,000. In addition, a nonrefundable fee of $50,000 shall be paid at the time of filing to defray the costs associated with the background investigation conducted by the Board. If the costs of the investigation exceed $50,000, the applicant shall pay the additional amount to the Board within 7 days after requested by the Board. If the costs of the investigation are less than $50,000, the applicant shall receive a refund of the remaining amount. All information, records, interviews, reports, statements, memoranda, or other data supplied to or used by the Board in the course of its review or investigation of an application for a license or a renewal under this Act shall be privileged and , strictly confidential and shall be used only for the purpose of evaluating an applicant for a license or a renewal. Such information, records, interviews, reports, statements, memoranda, or other data shall not be admissible as evidence, nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency or person, except for any action deemed necessary by the Board. The application fee shall be deposited into the State Gaming Fund.

(e) The Board shall charge each applicant a fee set by the Illinois State Police to defray the costs associated with the search and classification of fingerprints obtained by the Board with respect to the applicant's application. These fees shall be paid into the State Police Services Fund. In order to expedite the application process, the Board may establish rules allowing applicants to acquire criminal background checks and financial integrity reviews as part of the initial application process from a list of vendors approved by the Board.

(f) The licensed owner shall be the person primarily responsible for the boat or casino itself. Only one gambling operation may be authorized by the Board on any riverboat or in any casino. The applicant must identify the riverboat or premises it intends to use and certify that the riverboat or premises: (1) has the authorized capacity required in this Act; (2) is accessible to persons with disabilities; and (3) is fully registered and licensed in accordance with any applicable laws.

(g) A person who knowingly makes a false statement on an application is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; 102-13, eff. 6-10-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(230 ILCS 10/18) (from Ch. 120, par. 2418)

Sec. 18. Prohibited activities; penalty Activities - Penalty.

(a) A person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for doing any of the following:

(1) Conducting gambling where wagering is used or to be used without a license issued by the Board.

(2) Conducting gambling where wagering is permitted other than in the manner specified by Section 11.

(b) A person is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor for doing any of the following:

(1) permitting a person under 21 years to make a wager; or

(2) violating paragraph (12) of subsection (a) of Section 11 of this Act.

(c) A person wagering or accepting a wager at any location outside the riverboat, casino, or organization gaming facility in violation of paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 28-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 is subject to the penalties provided in that Section.

(d) A person commits a Class 4 felony and, in addition, shall be barred for life from gambling operations under the jurisdiction of the Board, if the person does any of the following:

(1) Offers, promises, or gives anything of value or benefit to a person who is connected with a riverboat or casino owner or organization gaming licensee, including, but not limited to, an officer or employee of a licensed owner, organization gaming licensee, or holder of an occupational license pursuant to an agreement or arrangement or with the intent that the promise or thing of value or benefit will influence the actions of the person to whom the offer, promise, or gift was made in order to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a gambling game, or to influence official action of a member of the Board.

(2) Solicits or knowingly accepts or receives a promise of anything of value or benefit while the person is connected with a riverboat, casino, or organization gaming facility, including, but not limited to, an officer or employee of a licensed owner or organization gaming licensee, or the holder of an occupational license, pursuant to an understanding or arrangement or with the intent that the promise or thing of value or benefit will influence the actions of the person to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a gambling game, or to influence official action of a member of the Board.

(3) Uses or possesses with the intent to use a device to assist:

(i) In projecting the outcome of the game.

(ii) In keeping track of the cards played.

(iii) In analyzing the probability of the occurrence of an event relating to the gambling game.

(iv) In analyzing the strategy for playing or betting to be used in the game except as permitted by the Board.

(4) Cheats at a gambling game.

(5) Manufactures, sells, or distributes any cards, chips, dice, game or device which is intended to be used to violate any provision of this Act.

(6) Alters or misrepresents the outcome of a gambling game on which wagers have been made after the outcome is made sure but before it is revealed to the players.

(7) Places a bet after acquiring knowledge, not available to all players, of the outcome of the gambling game which is the subject of the bet or to aid a person in acquiring the knowledge for the purpose of placing a bet contingent on that outcome.

(8) Claims, collects, or takes, or attempts to claim, collect, or take, money or anything of value in or from the gambling games, with intent to defraud, without having made a wager contingent on winning a gambling game, or claims, collects, or takes an amount of money or thing of value of greater value than the amount won.

(9) Uses counterfeit chips or tokens in a gambling game.

(10) Possesses any key or device designed for the purpose of opening, entering, or affecting the operation of a gambling game, drop box, or an electronic or mechanical device connected with the gambling game or for removing coins, tokens, chips or other contents of a gambling game. This paragraph (10) does not apply to a gambling licensee or employee of a gambling licensee acting in furtherance of the employee's employment.

(e) The possession of more than one of the devices described in subsection (d), paragraphs (3), (5), and or (10) of subsection (d) permits a rebuttable presumption that the possessor intended to use the devices for cheating.

(f) A person under the age of 21 who, except as authorized under paragraph (10) of Section 11, enters upon a riverboat or in a casino or organization gaming facility commits a petty offense and is subject to a fine of not less than $100 or more than $250 for a first offense and of not less than $200 or more than $500 for a second or subsequent offense.

An action to prosecute any crime occurring on a riverboat shall be tried in the county of the dock at which the riverboat is based. An action to prosecute any crime occurring in a casino or organization gaming facility shall be tried in the county in which the casino or organization gaming facility is located.

(Source: P.A. 101-31, eff. 6-28-19; revised 12-2-21.)

Section 500. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 3-12 and 6-5 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 6-37 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/3-12)

Sec. 3-12. Powers and duties of State Commission.

(a) The State Commission shall have the following powers, functions, and duties:

(1) To receive applications and to issue licenses to manufacturers, foreign importers, importing distributors, distributors, non-resident dealers, on premise consumption retailers, off premise sale retailers, special event retailer licensees, special use permit licenses, auction liquor licenses, brew pubs, caterer retailers, non-beverage users, railroads, including owners and lessees of sleeping, dining and cafe cars, airplanes, boats, brokers, and wine maker's premises licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act, and to suspend or revoke such licenses upon the State Commission's determination, upon notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation. Except in the case of an action taken pursuant to a violation of Section 6-3, 6-5, or 6-9, any action by the State Commission to suspend or revoke a licensee's license may be limited to the license for the specific premises where the violation occurred. An action for a violation of this Act shall be commenced by the State Commission within 2 years after the date the State Commission becomes aware of the violation.

In lieu of suspending or revoking a license, the commission may impose a fine, upon the State Commission's determination and notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation.

For the purpose of this paragraph (1), when determining multiple violations for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21, a second or subsequent violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 shall only be considered if it was committed within 5 years after the date when a prior violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 was committed.

The fine imposed under this paragraph may not exceed $500 for each violation. Each day that the activity, which gave rise to the original fine, continues is a separate violation. The maximum fine that may be levied against any licensee, for the period of the license, shall not exceed $20,000. The maximum penalty that may be imposed on a licensee for selling a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it or serving from a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it shall be the destruction of that bottle of alcoholic liquor for the first 10 bottles so sold or served from by the licensee. For the eleventh bottle of alcoholic liquor and for each third bottle thereafter sold or served from by the licensee with a foreign object in it, the maximum penalty that may be imposed on the licensee is the destruction of the bottle of alcoholic liquor and a fine of up to $50.

Any notice issued by the State Commission to a licensee for a violation of this Act or any notice with respect to settlement or offer in compromise shall include the field report, photographs, and any other supporting documentation necessary to reasonably inform the licensee of the nature and extent of the violation or the conduct alleged to have occurred. The failure to include such required documentation shall result in the dismissal of the action.

(2) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary to carry on its functions and duties to the end that the health, safety and welfare of the People of the State of Illinois shall be protected and temperance in the consumption of alcoholic liquors shall be fostered and promoted and to distribute copies of such rules and regulations to all licensees affected thereby.

(3) To call upon other administrative departments of the State, county and municipal governments, county and city police departments and upon prosecuting officers for such information and assistance as it deems necessary in the performance of its duties.

(4) To recommend to local commissioners rules and regulations, not inconsistent with the law, for the distribution and sale of alcoholic liquors throughout the State.

(5) To inspect, or cause to be inspected, any premises in this State where alcoholic liquors are manufactured, distributed, warehoused, or sold. Nothing in this Act authorizes an agent of the State Commission to inspect private areas within the premises without reasonable suspicion or a warrant during an inspection. "Private areas" include, but are not limited to, safes, personal property, and closed desks.

(5.1) Upon receipt of a complaint or upon having knowledge that any person is engaged in business as a manufacturer, importing distributor, distributor, or retailer without a license or valid license, to conduct an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation, the State Commission is satisfied that the alleged conduct occurred or is occurring, it may issue a cease and desist notice as provided in this Act, impose civil penalties as provided in this Act, notify the local liquor authority, or file a complaint with the State's Attorney's Office of the county where the incident occurred or the Attorney General.

(5.2) Upon receipt of a complaint or upon having knowledge that any person is shipping alcoholic liquor into this State from a point outside of this State if the shipment is in violation of this Act, to conduct an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation, the State Commission is satisfied that the alleged conduct occurred or is occurring, it may issue a cease and desist notice as provided in this Act, impose civil penalties as provided in this Act, notify the foreign jurisdiction, or file a complaint with the State's Attorney's Office of the county where the incident occurred or the Attorney General.

(5.3) To receive complaints from licensees, local officials, law enforcement agencies, organizations, and persons stating that any licensee has been or is violating any provision of this Act or the rules and regulations issued pursuant to this Act. Such complaints shall be in writing, signed and sworn to by the person making the complaint, and shall state with specificity the facts in relation to the alleged violation. If the State Commission has reasonable grounds to believe that the complaint substantially alleges a violation of this Act or rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this Act, it shall conduct an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation, the State Commission is satisfied that the alleged violation did occur, it shall proceed with disciplinary action against the licensee as provided in this Act.

(5.4) To make arrests and issue notices of civil violations where necessary for the enforcement of this Act.

(5.5) To investigate any and all unlicensed activity.

(5.6) To impose civil penalties or fines to any person who, without holding a valid license, engages in conduct that requires a license pursuant to this Act, in an amount not to exceed $20,000 for each offense as determined by the State Commission. A civil penalty shall be assessed by the State Commission after a hearing is held in accordance with the provisions set forth in this Act regarding the provision of a hearing for the revocation or suspension of a license.

(6) To hear and determine appeals from orders of a local commission in accordance with the provisions of this Act, as hereinafter set forth. Hearings under this subsection shall be held in Springfield or Chicago, at whichever location is the more convenient for the majority of persons who are parties to the hearing.

(7) The State Commission shall establish uniform systems of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, and for this purpose the State Commission may classify all retail licensees having more than 4 employees and establish a uniform system of accounts for each class and prescribe the manner in which such accounts shall be kept. The State Commission may also prescribe the forms of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, including, but not limited to, accounts of earnings and expenses and any distribution, payment, or other distribution of earnings or assets, and any other forms, records, and memoranda which in the judgment of the commission may be necessary or appropriate to carry out any of the provisions of this Act, including, but not limited to, such forms, records, and memoranda as will readily and accurately disclose at all times the beneficial ownership of such retail licensed business. The accounts, forms, records, and memoranda shall be available at all reasonable times for inspection by authorized representatives of the State Commission or by any local liquor control commissioner or his or her authorized representative. The commission may, from time to time, alter, amend, or repeal, in whole or in part, any uniform system of accounts, or the form and manner of keeping accounts.

(8) In the conduct of any hearing authorized to be held by the State Commission, to appoint, at the commission's discretion, hearing officers to conduct hearings involving complex issues or issues that will require a protracted period of time to resolve, to examine, or cause to be examined, under oath, any licensee, and to examine or cause to be examined the books and records of such licensee; to hear testimony and take proof material for its information in the discharge of its duties hereunder; to administer or cause to be administered oaths; for any such purpose to issue subpoena or subpoenas to require the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, which shall be effective in any part of this State, and to adopt rules to implement its powers under this paragraph (8).

Any circuit court may, by order duly entered, require the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant books subpoenaed by the State Commission and the court may compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt.

(9) To investigate the administration of laws in relation to alcoholic liquors in this and other states and any foreign countries, and to recommend from time to time to the Governor and through him or her to the legislature of this State, such amendments to this Act, if any, as it may think desirable and as will serve to further the general broad purposes contained in Section 1-2 hereof.

(10) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary for the control, sale, or disposition of alcoholic liquor damaged as a result of an accident, wreck, flood, fire, or other similar occurrence.

(11) To develop industry educational programs related to responsible serving and selling, particularly in the areas of overserving consumers and illegal underage purchasing and consumption of alcoholic beverages.

(11.1) To license persons providing education and training to alcohol beverage sellers and servers for mandatory and non-mandatory training under the Beverage Alcohol Sellers and Servers Education and Training (BASSET) programs and to develop and administer a public awareness program in Illinois to reduce or eliminate the illegal purchase and consumption of alcoholic beverage products by persons under the age of 21. Application for a license shall be made on forms provided by the State Commission.

(12) To develop and maintain a repository of license and regulatory information.

(13) (Blank).

(14) On or before April 30, 2008 and every 2 years thereafter, the State Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of Public Act 95-634 on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State. As part of its report, the State Commission shall provide all of the following information:

(A) The amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated.

(B) The amount of licensing fees received.

(C) The number of cases of wine shipped from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

(D) The number of alcohol compliance operations conducted.

(E) The number of winery shipper's licenses issued.

(F) The number of each of the following: reported violations; cease and desist notices issued by the Commission; notices of violations issued by the Commission and to the Department of Revenue; and notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials, including, without limitation, the Illinois Attorney General and the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(15) As a means to reduce the underage consumption of alcoholic liquors, the State Commission shall conduct alcohol compliance operations to investigate whether businesses that are soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside or outside of this State directly to residents of this State are licensed by this State or are selling or attempting to sell wine to persons under 21 years of age in violation of this Act.

(16) The State Commission shall, in addition to notifying any appropriate law enforcement agency, submit notices of complaints or violations of Sections 6-29 and 6-29.1 by persons who do not hold a winery shipper's license under this Act to the Illinois Attorney General and to the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(17)(A) A person licensed to make wine under the laws of another state who has a winery shipper's license under this Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine or a person who has a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license under this Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine may make application to the Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 5,000 gallons of the exemption holder's wine to retail licensees per year and to sell cider, mead, or both cider and mead to brewers, class 1 brewers, class 2 brewers, and class 3 brewers that, pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act, sell beer, cider, mead, or any combination thereof to non-licensees at their breweries.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, such person shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of production and sales for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its wine; and (5) that it will comply with the liquor and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) The State Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if such person: (1) is in compliance with State revenue and liquor laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that produces directly or indirectly more than 25,000 gallons of wine per annum, 930,000 gallons of beer per annum, or 50,000 gallons of spirits per annum; (3) will not annually produce for sale more than 25,000 gallons of wine, 930,000 gallons of beer, or 50,000 gallons of spirits; and (4) will not annually sell more than 5,000 gallons of its wine to retail licensees.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the State Commission its production of wine in the previous 12 months and its anticipated production and sales for the next 12 months. The State Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or liquor law of Illinois, exceeded production of 25,000 gallons of wine, 930,000 gallons of beer, or 50,000 gallons of spirits in any calendar year, or become part of an affiliated group producing more than 25,000 gallons of wine, 930,000 gallons of beer, or 50,000 gallons of spirits.

(E) Except in hearings for violations of this Act or Public Act 95-634 or a bona fide investigation by duly sworn law enforcement officials, the State Commission, or its agents, the State Commission shall maintain the production and sales information of a self-distribution exemption holder as confidential and shall not release such information to any person.

(F) The State Commission shall issue regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Section and this Act.

(G) Nothing in this paragraph (17) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois distributor.

(H) It is the intent of this paragraph (17) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that, in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to create an exception for smaller makers of wine as their wines are frequently adjusted in varietals, mixes, vintages, and taste to find and create market niches sometimes too small for distributor or importing distributor business strategies. Limited self-distribution rights will afford and allow smaller makers of wine access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(18)(A) A class 1 brewer licensee, who must also be either a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer and annually manufacture less than 930,000 gallons of beer, may make application to the State Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 232,500 gallons per year of the exemption holder's beer to retail licensees and to brewers, class 1 brewers, and class 2 brewers that, pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act, sell beer, cider,, mead, or any combination thereof to non-licensees at their breweries.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, the class 1 brewer licensee shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of beer manufactured and sold for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its beer; and (5) that it will comply with the alcoholic beverage and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) Any application submitted shall be posted on the State Commission's website at least 45 days prior to action by the State Commission. The State Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if the class 1 brewer licensee: (1) is in compliance with the State, revenue, and alcoholic beverage laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that manufactures, directly or indirectly, more than 930,000 gallons of beer per annum, 25,000 gallons of wine per annum, or 50,000 gallons of spirits per annum; (3) shall not annually manufacture for sale more than 930,000 gallons of beer, 25,000 gallons of wine, or 50,000 gallons of spirits; (4) shall not annually sell more than 232,500 gallons of its beer to retail licensees and class 3 brewers and to brewers, class 1 brewers, and class 2 brewers that, pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act, sell beer, cider, mead, or any combination thereof to non-licensees at their breweries; and (5) has relinquished any brew pub license held by the licensee, including any ownership interest it held in the licensed brew pub.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the State Commission its manufacture of beer during the previous 12 months and its anticipated manufacture and sales of beer for the next 12 months. The State Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or alcoholic beverage law of Illinois, exceeded the manufacture of 930,000 gallons of beer, 25,000 gallons of wine, or 50,000 gallons of spirits in any calendar year or became part of an affiliated group manufacturing more than 930,000 gallons of beer, 25,000 gallons of wine, or 50,000 gallons of spirits.

(E) The State Commission shall issue rules and regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Act.

(F) Nothing in this paragraph (18) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois importing distributor or a distributor. If a self-distribution exemption holder enters into a distribution agreement and has assigned distribution rights to an importing distributor or distributor, then the self-distribution exemption holder's distribution rights in the assigned territories shall cease in a reasonable time not to exceed 60 days.

(G) It is the intent of this paragraph (18) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to create an exception for smaller manufacturers in order to afford and allow such smaller manufacturers of beer access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(19)(A) A class 1 craft distiller licensee or a non-resident dealer who manufactures less than 50,000 gallons of distilled spirits per year may make application to the State Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 5,000 gallons of the exemption holder's spirits to retail licensees per year.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, the class 1 craft distiller licensee or non-resident dealer shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of spirits manufactured and sold for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its spirits; and (5) that it will comply with the alcoholic beverage and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) Any application submitted shall be posted on the State Commission's website at least 45 days prior to action by the State Commission. The State Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if the applicant: (1) is in compliance with State revenue and alcoholic beverage laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that produces more than 50,000 gallons of spirits per annum, 930,000 gallons of beer per annum, or 25,000 gallons of wine per annum; (3) does not annually manufacture for sale more than 50,000 gallons of spirits, 930,000 gallons of beer, or 25,000 gallons of wine; and (4) does not annually sell more than 5,000 gallons of its spirits to retail licensees.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the State Commission its manufacture of spirits during the previous 12 months and its anticipated manufacture and sales of spirits for the next 12 months. The State Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or alcoholic beverage law of Illinois, exceeded the manufacture of 50,000 gallons of spirits, 930,000 gallons of beer, or 25,000 gallons of wine in any calendar year, or has become part of an affiliated group manufacturing more than 50,000 gallons of spirits, 930,000 gallons of beer, or 25,000 gallons of wine.

(E) The State Commission shall adopt rules governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Act.

(F) Nothing in this paragraph (19) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois importing distributor or a distributor.

(G) It is the intent of this paragraph (19) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to create an exception for smaller manufacturers in order to afford and allow such smaller manufacturers of spirits access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(20)(A) A class 3 brewer licensee who must manufacture less than 465,000 gallons of beer in the aggregate and not more than 155,000 gallons at any single brewery premises may make application to the State Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 6,200 gallons of beer from each in-state or out-of-state class 3 brewery premises, which shall not exceed 18,600 gallons annually in the aggregate, that is manufactured at a wholly owned class 3 brewer's in-state or out-of-state licensed premises to retail licensees and class 3 brewers and to brewers, class 1 brewers, class 2 brewers that, pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-4, sell beer, cider, or both beer and cider to non-licensees at their licensed breweries.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, the class 3 brewer licensee shall state:

(1) the date it was established;

(2) its volume of beer manufactured and sold for each year since its establishment;

(3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships;

(4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its beer; and

(5) that it will comply with the alcoholic beverage and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) Any application submitted shall be posted on the State Commission's website at least 45 days before action by the State Commission. The State Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if the class 3 brewer licensee: (1) is in compliance with the State, revenue, and alcoholic beverage laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that manufacturers, directly or indirectly, more than 465,000 gallons of beer per annum; , (3) shall not annually manufacture for sale more than 465,000 gallons of beer or more than 155,000 gallons at any single brewery premises; and (4) shall not annually sell more than 6,200 gallons of beer from each in-state or out-of-state class 3 brewery premises, and shall not exceed 18,600 gallons annually in the aggregate, to retail licensees and class 3 brewers and to brewers, class 1 brewers, and class 2 brewers that, pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act, sell beer, cider, or both beer and cider to non-licensees at their breweries.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the State Commission its manufacture of beer during the previous 12 months and its anticipated manufacture and sales of beer for the next 12 months. The State Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or alcoholic beverage law of Illinois, exceeded the manufacture of 465,000 gallons of beer in any calendar year or became part of an affiliated group manufacturing more than 465,000 gallons of beer, or exceeded the sale to retail licensees, brewers, class 1 brewers, class 2 brewers, and class 3 brewers of 6,200 gallons per brewery location or 18,600 gallons in the aggregate.

(E) The State Commission may adopt rules governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Act.

(F) Nothing in this paragraph shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois importing distributor or a distributor. If a self-distribution exemption holder enters into a distribution agreement and has assigned distribution rights to an importing distributor or distributor, then the self-distribution exemption holder's distribution rights in the assigned territories shall cease in a reasonable time not to exceed 60 days.

(G) It is the intent of this paragraph to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to create an exception for smaller manufacturers in order to afford and allow such smaller manufacturers of beer access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(b) On or before April 30, 1999, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of Public Act 90-739 on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping alcoholic liquor from outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following information:

(i) the amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated as a result of Public Act 90-739;

(ii) the amount of licensing fees received as a result of Public Act 90-739;

(iii) the number of reported violations, the number of cease and desist notices issued by the Commission, the number of notices of violations issued to the Department of Revenue, and the number of notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials.

(Source: P.A. 101-37, eff. 7-3-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-482, eff. 8-23-19; 102-442, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-13-21.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-5) (from Ch. 43, par. 122)

Sec. 6-5. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, it is unlawful for any person having a retailer's license or any officer, associate, member, representative or agent of such licensee to accept, receive or borrow money, or anything else of value, or accept or receive credit (other than merchandising credit in the ordinary course of business for a period not to exceed 30 days) directly or indirectly from any manufacturer, importing distributor or distributor of alcoholic liquor, or from any person connected with or in any way representing, or from any member of the family of, such manufacturer, importing distributor, distributor or wholesaler, or from any stockholders in any corporation engaged in manufacturing, distributing or wholesaling of such liquor, or from any officer, manager, agent or representative of said manufacturer. Except as provided below, it is unlawful for any manufacturer or distributor or importing distributor to give or lend money or anything of value, or otherwise loan or extend credit (except such merchandising credit) directly or indirectly to any retail licensee or to the manager, representative, agent, officer or director of such licensee. A manufacturer, distributor or importing distributor may furnish free advertising, posters, signs, brochures, hand-outs, or other promotional devices or materials to any unit of government owning or operating any auditorium, exhibition hall, recreation facility or other similar facility holding a retailer's license, provided that the primary purpose of such promotional devices or materials is to promote public events being held at such facility. A unit of government owning or operating such a facility holding a retailer's license may accept such promotional devices or materials designed primarily to promote public events held at the facility. No retail licensee delinquent beyond the 30 day period specified in this Section shall solicit, accept or receive credit, purchase or acquire alcoholic liquors, directly or indirectly from any other licensee, and no manufacturer, distributor or importing distributor shall knowingly grant or extend credit, sell, furnish or supply alcoholic liquors to any such delinquent retail licensee; provided that the purchase price of all beer sold to a retail licensee shall be paid by the retail licensee in cash on or before delivery of the beer, and unless the purchase price payable by a retail licensee for beer sold to him in returnable bottles shall expressly include a charge for the bottles and cases, the retail licensee shall, on or before delivery of such beer, pay the seller in cash a deposit in an amount not less than the deposit required to be paid by the distributor to the brewer; but where the brewer sells direct to the retailer, the deposit shall be an amount no less than that required by the brewer from his own distributors; and provided further, that in no instance shall this deposit be less than 50 cents for each case of beer in pint or smaller bottles and 60 cents for each case of beer in quart or half-gallon bottles; and provided further, that the purchase price of all beer sold to an importing distributor or distributor shall be paid by such importing distributor or distributor in cash on or before the 15th day (Sundays and holidays excepted) after delivery of such beer to such purchaser; and unless the purchase price payable by such importing distributor or distributor for beer sold in returnable bottles and cases shall expressly include a charge for the bottles and cases, such importing distributor or distributor shall, on or before the 15th day (Sundays and holidays excepted) after delivery of such beer to such purchaser, pay the seller in cash a required amount as a deposit to assure the return of such bottles and cases. Nothing herein contained shall prohibit any licensee from crediting or refunding to a purchaser the actual amount of money paid for bottles, cases, kegs or barrels returned by the purchaser to the seller or paid by the purchaser as a deposit on bottles, cases, kegs or barrels, when such containers or packages are returned to the seller. Nothing herein contained shall prohibit any manufacturer, importing distributor or distributor from extending usual and customary credit for alcoholic liquor sold to customers or purchasers who live in or maintain places of business outside of this State when such alcoholic liquor is actually transported and delivered to such points outside of this State.

A manufacturer, distributor, or importing distributor may furnish free social media advertising to a retail licensee if the social media advertisement does not contain the retail price of any alcoholic liquor and the social media advertisement complies with any applicable rules or regulations issued by the Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau of the United States Department of the Treasury. A manufacturer, distributor, or importing distributor may list the names of one or more unaffiliated retailers in the advertisement of alcoholic liquor through social media. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a retailer from communicating with a manufacturer, distributor, or importing distributor on social media or sharing media on the social media of a manufacturer, distributor, or importing distributor. A retailer may request free social media advertising from a manufacturer, distributor, or importing distributor. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a manufacturer, distributor, or importing distributor from sharing, reposting, or otherwise forwarding a social media post by a retail licensee, so long as the sharing, reposting, or forwarding of the social media post does not contain the retail price of any alcoholic liquor. No manufacturer, distributor, or importing distributor shall pay or reimburse a retailer, directly or indirectly, for any social media advertising services, except as specifically permitted in this Act. No retailer shall accept any payment or reimbursement, directly or indirectly, for any social media advertising services offered by a manufacturer, distributor, or importing distributor, except as specifically permitted in this Act. For the purposes of this Section, "social media" means a service, platform, or site where users communicate with one another and share media, such as pictures, videos, music, and blogs, with other users free of charge.

No right of action shall exist for the collection of any claim based upon credit extended to a distributor, importing distributor or retail licensee contrary to the provisions of this Section.

Every manufacturer, importing distributor and distributor shall submit or cause to be submitted, to the State Commission, in triplicate, not later than Thursday of each calendar week, a verified written list of the names and respective addresses of each retail licensee purchasing spirits or wine from such manufacturer, importing distributor or distributor who, on the first business day of that calendar week, was delinquent beyond the above mentioned permissible merchandising credit period of 30 days; or, if such is the fact, a verified written statement that no retail licensee purchasing spirits or wine was then delinquent beyond such permissible merchandising credit period of 30 days.

Every manufacturer, importing distributor and distributor shall submit or cause to be submitted, to the State Commission, in triplicate, a verified written list of the names and respective addresses of each previously reported delinquent retail licensee who has cured such delinquency by payment, which list shall be submitted not later than the close of the second full business day following the day such delinquency was so cured.

The written list of delinquent retail licensees shall be developed, administered, and maintained only by the State Commission. The State Commission shall notify each retail licensee that it has been placed on the delinquency list. Determinations of delinquency or nondelinquency shall be made only by the State Commission.

Such written verified reports required to be submitted by this Section shall be posted by the State Commission in each of its offices in places available for public inspection not later than the day following receipt thereof by the State Commission. The reports so posted shall constitute notice to every manufacturer, importing distributor and distributor of the information contained therein. Actual notice to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors of the information contained in any such posted reports, however received, shall also constitute notice of such information.

The 30-day 30 day merchandising credit period allowed by this Section shall commence with the day immediately following the date of invoice and shall include all successive days including Sundays and holidays to and including the 30th successive day.

In addition to other methods allowed by law, payment by check or credit card during the period for which merchandising credit may be extended under the provisions of this Section shall be considered payment. All checks received in payment for alcoholic liquor shall be promptly deposited for collection. A post dated check or a check dishonored on presentation for payment shall not be deemed payment.

A credit card payment in dispute by a retailer shall not be deemed payment, and the debt uncured for merchandising credit shall be reported as delinquent. Nothing in this Section shall prevent a distributor, self-distributing manufacturer, or importing distributor from assessing a usual and customary transaction fee representative of the actual finance charges incurred for processing a credit card payment. This transaction fee shall be disclosed on the invoice. It shall be considered unlawful for a distributor, importing distributor, or self-distributing manufacturer to waive finance charges for retailers.

A retail licensee shall not be deemed to be delinquent in payment for any alleged sale to him of alcoholic liquor when there exists a bona fide dispute between such retailer and a manufacturer, importing distributor or distributor with respect to the amount of indebtedness existing because of such alleged sale. A retail licensee shall not be deemed to be delinquent under this provision and 11 Ill. Adm. Code 100.90 until 30 days after the date on which the region in which the retail licensee is located enters Phase 4 of the Governor's Restore Illinois Plan as issued on May 5, 2020.

A delinquent retail licensee who engages in the retail liquor business at 2 or more locations shall be deemed to be delinquent with respect to each such location.

The license of any person who violates any provision of this Section shall be subject to suspension or revocation in the manner provided by this Act.

If any part or provision of this Article or the application thereof to any person or circumstances shall be adjudged invalid by a court of competent jurisdiction, such judgment shall be confined by its operation to the controversy in which it was mentioned and shall not affect or invalidate the remainder of this Article or the application thereof to any other person or circumstance and to this and the provisions of this Article are declared severable.

(Source: P.A. 101-631, eff. 6-2-20; 102-8, eff. 6-2-21; 102-442, eff. 1-1-22; revised 9-21-21.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-37)

Sec. 6-37. (Repealed).

(Source: P.A. 102-8, eff. 6-2-21. Repealed internally, eff. 7-11-21.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-37.5)

Sec. 6-37.5 6-37. Transfer of wine or spirits by a retail licensee with multiple licenses.

(a) No original package of wine or spirits may be transferred from one retail licensee to any other retail licensee without prior permission from the State Commission; however, if the same retailer owns more than one licensed retail location, an off-premise retailer may transfer up to 3% of its average monthly purchases by volume and an on-premise retailer may transfer up to 5% of its average monthly purchases by volume of original package of wine or spirits from one or more of such retailer's licensed locations to another of that retailer's licensed locations each month without prior permission from the State Commission, subject to the following conditions:

(1) notice is provided to the distributor responsible for the geographic area of the brand, size, and quantity of the wine or spirits to be transferred within the geographic area; and

(2) the transfer is made by common carrier, a licensed distributor's or importing distributor's vehicle, or a vehicle owned and operated by the licensee.

(b) All transfers must be properly documented on a form provided by the State Commission that includes the following information:

(1) the license number of the retail licensee's location from which the transfer is to be made and the license number of the retail licensee's location to which the transfer is to be made;

(2) the brand, size, and quantity of the wine or spirits to be transferred; and

(3) the date the transfer is made.

(c) A retail licensee location that transfers or receives an original package of wine or spirits as authorized by this Section shall not be deemed to be engaged in business as a wholesaler or distributor based upon the transfer authorized by this Section.

(d) A transfer authorized by this Section shall not be deemed a sale.

(e) A retailer that is delinquent in payment pursuant to Section 6-5 shall be prohibited from transferring wine or spirits to a commonly owned retailer pursuant to this Section until the indebtedness is cured.

(f) As used in this Section:

"Average monthly purchases" is calculated using a 12-month rolling average of the total volume purchased over the 12 most recent months previous to the month in which the transfer is made and dividing that total by 12.

"Month" means a calendar month.

(Source: P.A. 102-442, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-10-21.)

Section 505. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-2, 5-4.2, 5-5, 5-5f, 5-16.8, 5-30.1, 9A-11, 10-1, and 12-4.35 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5-5.12d, 5-41, and 12-4.54 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-2)

Sec. 5-2. Classes of persons eligible. Medical assistance under this Article shall be available to any of the following classes of persons in respect to whom a plan for coverage has been submitted to the Governor by the Illinois Department and approved by him. If changes made in this Section 5-2 require federal approval, they shall not take effect until such approval has been received:

1. Recipients of basic maintenance grants under Articles III and IV.

2. Beginning January 1, 2014, persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Article III, excluding any eligibility requirements that are inconsistent with any federal law or federal regulation, as interpreted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, but who fail to qualify thereunder on the basis of need, and who have insufficient income and resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care, including, but not limited to, the following:

(a) All persons otherwise eligible for basic maintenance under Article III but who fail to qualify under that Article on the basis of need and who meet either of the following requirements:

(i) their income, as determined by the Illinois Department in accordance with any federal requirements, is equal to or less than 100% of the federal poverty level; or

(ii) their income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care, is equal to or less than 100% of the federal poverty level.

(b) (Blank).

3. (Blank).

4. Persons not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs who fall sick, are injured, or die, not having sufficient money, property or other resources to meet the costs of necessary medical care or funeral and burial expenses.

5.(a) Beginning January 1, 2020, individuals during pregnancy and during the 12-month period beginning on the last day of the pregnancy, together with their infants, whose income is at or below 200% of the federal poverty level. Until September 30, 2019, or sooner if the maintenance of effort requirements under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act are eliminated or may be waived before then, individuals during pregnancy and during the 12-month period beginning on the last day of the pregnancy, whose countable monthly income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care as specified in administrative rule, is equal to or less than the Medical Assistance-No Grant(C) (MANG(C)) Income Standard in effect on April 1, 2013 as set forth in administrative rule.

(b) The plan for coverage shall provide ambulatory prenatal care to pregnant individuals during a presumptive eligibility period and establish an income eligibility standard that is equal to 200% of the federal poverty level, provided that costs incurred for medical care are not taken into account in determining such income eligibility.

(c) The Illinois Department may conduct a demonstration in at least one county that will provide medical assistance to pregnant individuals together with their infants and children up to one year of age, where the income eligibility standard is set up to 185% of the nonfarm income official poverty line, as defined by the federal Office of Management and Budget. The Illinois Department shall seek and obtain necessary authorization provided under federal law to implement such a demonstration. Such demonstration may establish resource standards that are not more restrictive than those established under Article IV of this Code.

6. (a) Subject to federal approval, children younger than age 19 when countable income is at or below 313% of the federal poverty level, as determined by the Department and in accordance with all applicable federal requirements. The Department is authorized to adopt emergency rules to implement the changes made to this paragraph by Public Act 102-43 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. Until September 30, 2019, or sooner if the maintenance of effort requirements under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act are eliminated or may be waived before then, children younger than age 19 whose countable monthly income, after the deduction of costs incurred for medical care and for other types of remedial care as specified in administrative rule, is equal to or less than the Medical Assistance-No Grant(C) (MANG(C)) Income Standard in effect on April 1, 2013 as set forth in administrative rule.

(b) Children and youth who are under temporary custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services or who receive financial assistance in support of an adoption or guardianship placement from the Department of Children and Family Services.

7. (Blank).

8. As required under federal law, persons who are eligible for Transitional Medical Assistance as a result of an increase in earnings or child or spousal support received. The plan for coverage for this class of persons shall:

(a) extend the medical assistance coverage to the extent required by federal law; and

(b) offer persons who have initially received 6 months of the coverage provided in paragraph (a) above, the option of receiving an additional 6 months of coverage, subject to the following:

(i) such coverage shall be pursuant to provisions of the federal Social Security Act;

(ii) such coverage shall include all services covered under Illinois' State Medicaid Plan;

(iii) no premium shall be charged for such coverage; and

(iv) such coverage shall be suspended in the event of a person's failure without good cause to file in a timely fashion reports required for this coverage under the Social Security Act and coverage shall be reinstated upon the filing of such reports if the person remains otherwise eligible.

9. Persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or with AIDS-related conditions with respect to whom there has been a determination that but for home or community-based services such individuals would require the level of care provided in an inpatient hospital, skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility the cost of which is reimbursed under this Article. Assistance shall be provided to such persons to the maximum extent permitted under Title XIX of the Federal Social Security Act.

10. Participants in the long-term care insurance partnership program established under the Illinois Long-Term Care Partnership Program Act who meet the qualifications for protection of resources described in Section 15 of that Act.

11. Persons with disabilities who are employed and eligible for Medicaid, pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xv) of the Social Security Act, and, subject to federal approval, persons with a medically improved disability who are employed and eligible for Medicaid pursuant to Section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(xvi) of the Social Security Act, as provided by the Illinois Department by rule. In establishing eligibility standards under this paragraph 11, the Department shall, subject to federal approval:

(a) set the income eligibility standard at not lower than 350% of the federal poverty level;

(b) exempt retirement accounts that the person cannot access without penalty before the age of 59 1/2, and medical savings accounts established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 220;

(c) allow non-exempt assets up to $25,000 as to those assets accumulated during periods of eligibility under this paragraph 11; and

(d) continue to apply subparagraphs (b) and (c) in determining the eligibility of the person under this Article even if the person loses eligibility under this paragraph 11.

12. Subject to federal approval, persons who are eligible for medical assistance coverage under applicable provisions of the federal Social Security Act and the federal Breast and Cervical Cancer Prevention and Treatment Act of 2000. Those eligible persons are defined to include, but not be limited to, the following persons:

(1) persons who have been screened for breast or cervical cancer under the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Breast and Cervical Cancer Program established under Title XV of the federal Public Health Service Act in accordance with the requirements of Section 1504 of that Act as administered by the Illinois Department of Public Health; and

(2) persons whose screenings under the above program were funded in whole or in part by funds appropriated to the Illinois Department of Public Health for breast or cervical cancer screening.

"Medical assistance" under this paragraph 12 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The Department must request federal approval of the coverage under this paragraph 12 within 30 days after July 3, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-47).

In addition to the persons who are eligible for medical assistance pursuant to subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph 12, and to be paid from funds appropriated to the Department for its medical programs, any uninsured person as defined by the Department in rules residing in Illinois who is younger than 65 years of age, who has been screened for breast and cervical cancer in accordance with standards and procedures adopted by the Department of Public Health for screening, and who is referred to the Department by the Department of Public Health as being in need of treatment for breast or cervical cancer is eligible for medical assistance benefits that are consistent with the benefits provided to those persons described in subparagraphs (1) and (2). Medical assistance coverage for the persons who are eligible under the preceding sentence is not dependent on federal approval, but federal moneys may be used to pay for services provided under that coverage upon federal approval.

13. Subject to appropriation and to federal approval, persons living with HIV/AIDS who are not otherwise eligible under this Article and who qualify for services covered under Section 5-5.04 as provided by the Illinois Department by rule.

14. Subject to the availability of funds for this purpose, the Department may provide coverage under this Article to persons who reside in Illinois who are not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs and who meet the income guidelines of paragraph 2(a) of this Section and (i) have an application for asylum pending before the federal Department of Homeland Security or on appeal before a court of competent jurisdiction and are represented either by counsel or by an advocate accredited by the federal Department of Homeland Security and employed by a not-for-profit organization in regard to that application or appeal, or (ii) are receiving services through a federally funded torture treatment center. Medical coverage under this paragraph 14 may be provided for up to 24 continuous months from the initial eligibility date so long as an individual continues to satisfy the criteria of this paragraph 14. If an individual has an appeal pending regarding an application for asylum before the Department of Homeland Security, eligibility under this paragraph 14 may be extended until a final decision is rendered on the appeal. The Department may adopt rules governing the implementation of this paragraph 14.

15. Family Care Eligibility.

(a) On and after July 1, 2012, a parent or other caretaker relative who is 19 years of age or older when countable income is at or below 133% of the federal poverty level. A person may not spend down to become eligible under this paragraph 15.

(b) Eligibility shall be reviewed annually.

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Following termination of an individual's coverage under this paragraph 15, the individual must be determined eligible before the person can be re-enrolled.

16. Subject to appropriation, uninsured persons who are not otherwise eligible under this Section who have been certified and referred by the Department of Public Health as having been screened and found to need diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment, for prostate or testicular cancer. For the purposes of this paragraph 16, uninsured persons are those who do not have creditable coverage, as defined under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, or have otherwise exhausted any insurance benefits they may have had, for prostate or testicular cancer diagnostic evaluation or treatment, or both diagnostic evaluation and treatment. To be eligible, a person must furnish a Social Security number. A person's assets are exempt from consideration in determining eligibility under this paragraph 16. Such persons shall be eligible for medical assistance under this paragraph 16 for so long as they need treatment for the cancer. A person shall be considered to need treatment if, in the opinion of the person's treating physician, the person requires therapy directed toward cure or palliation of prostate or testicular cancer, including recurrent metastatic cancer that is a known or presumed complication of prostate or testicular cancer and complications resulting from the treatment modalities themselves. Persons who require only routine monitoring services are not considered to need treatment. "Medical assistance" under this paragraph 16 shall be identical to the benefits provided under the State's approved plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Department (i) does not have a claim against the estate of a deceased recipient of services under this paragraph 16 and (ii) does not have a lien against any homestead property or other legal or equitable real property interest owned by a recipient of services under this paragraph 16.

17. Persons who, pursuant to a waiver approved by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, are eligible for medical assistance under Title XIX or XXI of the federal Social Security Act. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and consistent with the terms of the approved waiver, the Illinois Department, may by rule:

(a) Limit the geographic areas in which the waiver program operates.

(b) Determine the scope, quantity, duration, and quality, and the rate and method of reimbursement, of the medical services to be provided, which may differ from those for other classes of persons eligible for assistance under this Article.

(c) Restrict the persons' freedom in choice of providers.

18. Beginning January 1, 2014, persons aged 19 or older, but younger than 65, who are not otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Section 5-2, who qualify for medical assistance pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII) and applicable federal regulations, and who have income at or below 133% of the federal poverty level plus 5% for the applicable family size as determined pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1396a(e)(14) and applicable federal regulations. Persons eligible for medical assistance under this paragraph 18 shall receive coverage for the Health Benefits Service Package as that term is defined in subsection (m) of Section 5-1.1 of this Code. If Illinois' federal medical assistance percentage (FMAP) is reduced below 90% for persons eligible for medical assistance under this paragraph 18, eligibility under this paragraph 18 shall cease no later than the end of the third month following the month in which the reduction in FMAP takes effect.

19. Beginning January 1, 2014, as required under 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(i)(IX), persons older than age 18 and younger than age 26 who are not otherwise eligible for medical assistance under paragraphs (1) through (17) of this Section who (i) were in foster care under the responsibility of the State on the date of attaining age 18 or on the date of attaining age 21 when a court has continued wardship for good cause as provided in Section 2-31 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and (ii) received medical assistance under the Illinois Title XIX State Plan or waiver of such plan while in foster care.

20. Beginning January 1, 2018, persons who are foreign-born victims of human trafficking, torture, or other serious crimes as defined in Section 2-19 of this Code and their derivative family members if such persons: (i) reside in Illinois; (ii) are not eligible under any of the preceding paragraphs; (iii) meet the income guidelines of subparagraph (a) of paragraph 2; and (iv) meet the nonfinancial eligibility requirements of Sections 16-2, 16-3, and 16-5 of this Code. The Department may extend medical assistance for persons who are foreign-born victims of human trafficking, torture, or other serious crimes whose medical assistance would be terminated pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 16-5 if the Department determines that the person, during the year of initial eligibility (1) experienced a health crisis, (2) has been unable, after reasonable attempts, to obtain necessary information from a third party, or (3) has other extenuating circumstances that prevented the person from completing his or her application for status. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement the provisions of this paragraph.

21. Persons who are not otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Section who may qualify for medical assistance pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXIII) and 42 U.S.C. 1396(ss) for the duration of any federal or State declared emergency due to COVID-19. Medical assistance to persons eligible for medical assistance solely pursuant to this paragraph 21 shall be limited to any in vitro diagnostic product (and the administration of such product) described in 42 U.S.C. 1396d(a)(3)(B) on or after March 18, 2020, any visit described in 42 U.S.C. 1396o(a)(2)(G), or any other medical assistance that may be federally authorized for this class of persons. The Department may also cover treatment of COVID-19 for this class of persons, or any similar category of uninsured individuals, to the extent authorized under a federally approved 1115 Waiver or other federal authority. Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, due to the nature of the COVID-19 public health emergency, the Department may cover and provide the medical assistance described in this paragraph 21 to noncitizens who would otherwise meet the eligibility requirements for the class of persons described in this paragraph 21 for the duration of the State emergency period.

In implementing the provisions of Public Act 96-20, the Department is authorized to adopt only those rules necessary, including emergency rules. Nothing in Public Act 96-20 permits the Department to adopt rules or issue a decision that expands eligibility for the FamilyCare Program to a person whose income exceeds 185% of the Federal Poverty Level as determined from time to time by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, unless the Department is provided with express statutory authority.

The eligibility of any such person for medical assistance under this Article is not affected by the payment of any grant under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act or any distributions or items of income described under subparagraph (X) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

The Department shall by rule establish the amounts of assets to be disregarded in determining eligibility for medical assistance, which shall at a minimum equal the amounts to be disregarded under the Federal Supplemental Security Income Program. The amount of assets of a single person to be disregarded shall not be less than $2,000, and the amount of assets of a married couple to be disregarded shall not be less than $3,000.

To the extent permitted under federal law, any person found guilty of a second violation of Article VIIIA shall be ineligible for medical assistance under this Article, as provided in Section 8A-8.

The eligibility of any person for medical assistance under this Article shall not be affected by the receipt by the person of donations or benefits from fundraisers held for the person in cases of serious illness, as long as neither the person nor members of the person's family have actual control over the donations or benefits or the disbursement of the donations or benefits.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, if the United States Supreme Court holds Title II, Subtitle A, Section 2001(a) of Public Law 111-148 to be unconstitutional, or if a holding of Public Law 111-148 makes Medicaid eligibility allowed under Section 2001(a) inoperable, the State or a unit of local government shall be prohibited from enrolling individuals in the Medical Assistance Program as the result of federal approval of a State Medicaid waiver on or after June 14, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-687), and any individuals enrolled in the Medical Assistance Program pursuant to eligibility permitted as a result of such a State Medicaid waiver shall become immediately ineligible.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, if an Act of Congress that becomes a Public Law eliminates Section 2001(a) of Public Law 111-148, the State or a unit of local government shall be prohibited from enrolling individuals in the Medical Assistance Program as the result of federal approval of a State Medicaid waiver on or after June 14, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-687), and any individuals enrolled in the Medical Assistance Program pursuant to eligibility permitted as a result of such a State Medicaid waiver shall become immediately ineligible.

Effective October 1, 2013, the determination of eligibility of persons who qualify under paragraphs 5, 6, 8, 15, 17, and 18 of this Section shall comply with the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 1396a(e)(14) and applicable federal regulations.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and the Illinois health insurance marketplace shall work cooperatively to assist persons who would otherwise lose health benefits as a result of changes made under Public Act 98-104 to transition to other health insurance coverage.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-649, eff. 7-7-20; 102-43, eff. 7-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; revised 11-18-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-4.2)

Sec. 5-4.2. Ambulance services payments.

(a) For ambulance services provided to a recipient of aid under this Article on or after January 1, 1993, the Illinois Department shall reimburse ambulance service providers at rates calculated in accordance with this Section. It is the intent of the General Assembly to provide adequate reimbursement for ambulance services so as to ensure adequate access to services for recipients of aid under this Article and to provide appropriate incentives to ambulance service providers to provide services in an efficient and cost-effective manner. Thus, it is the intent of the General Assembly that the Illinois Department implement a reimbursement system for ambulance services that, to the extent practicable and subject to the availability of funds appropriated by the General Assembly for this purpose, is consistent with the payment principles of Medicare. To ensure uniformity between the payment principles of Medicare and Medicaid, the Illinois Department shall follow, to the extent necessary and practicable and subject to the availability of funds appropriated by the General Assembly for this purpose, the statutes, laws, regulations, policies, procedures, principles, definitions, guidelines, and manuals used to determine the amounts paid to ambulance service providers under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare).

(b) For ambulance services provided to a recipient of aid under this Article on or after January 1, 1996, the Illinois Department shall reimburse ambulance service providers based upon the actual distance traveled if a natural disaster, weather conditions, road repairs, or traffic congestion necessitates the use of a route other than the most direct route.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "ambulance services" includes medical transportation services provided by means of an ambulance, medi-car, service car, or taxi.

(c-1) For purposes of this Section, "ground ambulance service" means medical transportation services that are described as ground ambulance services by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and provided in a vehicle that is licensed as an ambulance by the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(c-2) For purposes of this Section, "ground ambulance service provider" means a vehicle service provider as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act that operates licensed ambulances for the purpose of providing emergency ambulance services, or non-emergency ambulance services, or both. For purposes of this Section, this includes both ambulance providers and ambulance suppliers as described by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(c-3) For purposes of this Section, "medi-car" means transportation services provided to a patient who is confined to a wheelchair and requires the use of a hydraulic or electric lift or ramp and wheelchair lockdown when the patient's condition does not require medical observation, medical supervision, medical equipment, the administration of medications, or the administration of oxygen.

(c-4) For purposes of this Section, "service car" means transportation services provided to a patient by a passenger vehicle where that patient does not require the specialized modes described in subsection (c-1) or (c-3).

(d) This Section does not prohibit separate billing by ambulance service providers for oxygen furnished while providing advanced life support services.

(e) Beginning with services rendered on or after July 1, 2008, all providers of non-emergency medi-car and service car transportation must certify that the driver and employee attendant, as applicable, have completed a safety program approved by the Department to protect both the patient and the driver, prior to transporting a patient. The provider must maintain this certification in its records. The provider shall produce such documentation upon demand by the Department or its representative. Failure to produce documentation of such training shall result in recovery of any payments made by the Department for services rendered by a non-certified driver or employee attendant. Medi-car and service car providers must maintain legible documentation in their records of the driver and, as applicable, employee attendant that actually transported the patient. Providers must recertify all drivers and employee attendants every 3 years. If they meet the established training components set forth by the Department, providers of non-emergency medi-car and service car transportation that are either directly or through an affiliated company licensed by the Department of Public Health shall be approved by the Department to have in-house safety programs for training their own staff.

Notwithstanding the requirements above, any public transportation provider of medi-car and service car transportation that receives federal funding under 49 U.S.C. 5307 and 5311 need not certify its drivers and employee attendants under this Section, since safety training is already federally mandated.

(f) With respect to any policy or program administered by the Department or its agent regarding approval of non-emergency medical transportation by ground ambulance service providers, including, but not limited to, the Non-Emergency Transportation Services Prior Approval Program (NETSPAP), the Department shall establish by rule a process by which ground ambulance service providers of non-emergency medical transportation may appeal any decision by the Department or its agent for which no denial was received prior to the time of transport that either (i) denies a request for approval for payment of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service or (ii) grants a request for approval of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service at a level of service that entitles the ground ambulance service provider to a lower level of compensation from the Department than the ground ambulance service provider would have received as compensation for the level of service requested. The rule shall be filed by December 15, 2012 and shall provide that, for any decision rendered by the Department or its agent on or after the date the rule takes effect, the ground ambulance service provider shall have 60 days from the date the decision is received to file an appeal. The rule established by the Department shall be, insofar as is practical, consistent with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Director's decision on an appeal under this Section shall be a final administrative decision subject to review under the Administrative Review Law.

(f-5) Beginning 90 days after July 20, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-842), (i) no denial of a request for approval for payment of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service, and (ii) no approval of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service at a level of service that entitles the ground ambulance service provider to a lower level of compensation from the Department than would have been received at the level of service submitted by the ground ambulance service provider, may be issued by the Department or its agent unless the Department has submitted the criteria for determining the appropriateness of the transport for first notice publication in the Illinois Register pursuant to Section 5-40 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(f-7) For non-emergency ground ambulance claims properly denied under Department policy at the time the claim is filed due to failure to submit a valid Medical Certification for Non-Emergency Ambulance on and after December 15, 2012 and prior to January 1, 2021, the Department shall allot $2,000,000 to a pool to reimburse such claims if the provider proves medical necessity for the service by other means. Providers must submit any such denied claims for which they seek compensation to the Department no later than December 31, 2021 along with documentation of medical necessity. No later than May 31, 2022, the Department shall determine for which claims medical necessity was established. Such claims for which medical necessity was established shall be paid at the rate in effect at the time of the service, provided the $2,000,000 is sufficient to pay at those rates. If the pool is not sufficient, claims shall be paid at a uniform percentage of the applicable rate such that the pool of $2,000,000 is exhausted. The appeal process described in subsection (f) shall not be applicable to the Department's determinations made in accordance with this subsection.

(g) Whenever a patient covered by a medical assistance program under this Code or by another medical program administered by the Department, including a patient covered under the State's Medicaid managed care program, is being transported from a facility and requires non-emergency transportation including ground ambulance, medi-car, or service car transportation, a Physician Certification Statement as described in this Section shall be required for each patient. Facilities shall develop procedures for a licensed medical professional to provide a written and signed Physician Certification Statement. The Physician Certification Statement shall specify the level of transportation services needed and complete a medical certification establishing the criteria for approval of non-emergency ambulance transportation, as published by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, that is met by the patient. This certification shall be completed prior to ordering the transportation service and prior to patient discharge. The Physician Certification Statement is not required prior to transport if a delay in transport can be expected to negatively affect the patient outcome. If the ground ambulance provider, medi-car provider, or service car provider is unable to obtain the required Physician Certification Statement within 10 calendar days following the date of the service, the ground ambulance provider, medi-car provider, or service car provider must document its attempt to obtain the requested certification and may then submit the claim for payment. Acceptable documentation includes a signed return receipt from the U.S. Postal Service, facsimile receipt, email receipt, or other similar service that evidences that the ground ambulance provider, medi-car provider, or service car provider attempted to obtain the required Physician Certification Statement.

The medical certification specifying the level and type of non-emergency transportation needed shall be in the form of the Physician Certification Statement on a standardized form prescribed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. Within 75 days after July 27, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-646), the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop a standardized form of the Physician Certification Statement specifying the level and type of transportation services needed in consultation with the Department of Public Health, Medicaid managed care organizations, a statewide association representing ambulance providers, a statewide association representing hospitals, 3 statewide associations representing nursing homes, and other stakeholders. The Physician Certification Statement shall include, but is not limited to, the criteria necessary to demonstrate medical necessity for the level of transport needed as required by (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and (ii) the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services as outlined in the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services' Medicare Benefit Policy Manual, Pub. 100-02, Chap. 10, Sec. 10.2.1, et seq. The use of the Physician Certification Statement shall satisfy the obligations of hospitals under Section 6.22 of the Hospital Licensing Act and nursing homes under Section 2-217 of the Nursing Home Care Act. Implementation and acceptance of the Physician Certification Statement shall take place no later than 90 days after the issuance of the Physician Certification Statement by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

Pursuant to subsection (E) of Section 12-4.25 of this Code, the Department is entitled to recover overpayments paid to a provider or vendor, including, but not limited to, from the discharging physician, the discharging facility, and the ground ambulance service provider, in instances where a non-emergency ground ambulance service is rendered as the result of improper or false certification.

Beginning October 1, 2018, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall collect data from Medicaid managed care organizations and transportation brokers, including the Department's NETSPAP broker, regarding denials and appeals related to the missing or incomplete Physician Certification Statement forms and overall compliance with this subsection. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall publish quarterly results on its website within 15 days following the end of each quarter.

(h) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(i) On and after July 1, 2018, the Department shall increase the base rate of reimbursement for both base charges and mileage charges for ground ambulance service providers for medical transportation services provided by means of a ground ambulance to a level not lower than 112% of the base rate in effect as of June 30, 2018.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-649, eff. 7-7-20; 102-364, eff. 1-1-22; 102-650, eff. 8-27-21; revised 11-8-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant individuals, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; (16.5) services performed by a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and acting within the scope of his or her license, including, but not limited to, chiropractic manipulative treatment; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, reproductive health care that is otherwise legal in Illinois shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, all tobacco cessation medications approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and all individual and group tobacco cessation counseling services and telephone-based counseling services and tobacco cessation medications provided through the Illinois Tobacco Quitline shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article. The Department shall comply with all federal requirements necessary to obtain federal financial participation, as specified in 42 CFR 433.15(b)(7), for telephone-based counseling services provided through the Illinois Tobacco Quitline, including, but not limited to: (i) entering into a memorandum of understanding or interagency agreement with the Department of Public Health, as administrator of the Illinois Tobacco Quitline; and (ii) developing a cost allocation plan for Medicaid-allowable Illinois Tobacco Quitline services in accordance with 45 CFR 95.507. The Department shall submit the memorandum of understanding or interagency agreement, the cost allocation plan, and all other necessary documentation to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for review and approval. Coverage under this paragraph shall be contingent upon federal approval.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

On and after July 1, 2018, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall provide dental services to any adult who is otherwise eligible for assistance under the medical assistance program. As used in this paragraph, "dental services" means diagnostic, preventative, restorative, or corrective procedures, including procedures and services for the prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease, provided by an individual who is licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery or who is under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession.

On and after July 1, 2018, targeted dental services, as set forth in Exhibit D of the Consent Decree entered by the United States District Court for the Northern District of Illinois, Eastern Division, in the matter of Memisovski v. Maram, Case No. 92 C 1982, that are provided to adults under the medical assistance program shall be established at no less than the rates set forth in the "New Rate" column in Exhibit D of the Consent Decree for targeted dental services that are provided to persons under the age of 18 under the medical assistance program.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

On and after January 1, 2022, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall administer and regulate a school-based dental program that allows for the out-of-office delivery of preventative dental services in a school setting to children under 19 years of age. The Department shall establish, by rule, guidelines for participation by providers and set requirements for follow-up referral care based on the requirements established in the Dental Office Reference Manual published by the Department that establishes the requirements for dentists participating in the All Kids Dental School Program. Every effort shall be made by the Department when developing the program requirements to consider the different geographic differences of both urban and rural areas of the State for initial treatment and necessary follow-up care. No provider shall be charged a fee by any unit of local government to participate in the school-based dental program administered by the Department. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit or preempt a home rule unit's or school district's authority to establish, change, or administer a school-based dental program in addition to, or independent of, the school-based dental program administered by the Department.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for individuals 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for individuals 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for individuals 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the individual's health care provider for individuals under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening and MRI of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue or when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(E) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(F) A diagnostic mammogram when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

The Department shall not impose a deductible, coinsurance, copayment, or any other cost-sharing requirement on the coverage provided under this paragraph; except that this sentence does not apply to coverage of diagnostic mammograms to the extent such coverage would disqualify a high-deductible health plan from eligibility for a health savings account pursuant to Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223).

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool.

For purposes of this Section:

"Diagnostic mammogram" means a mammogram obtained using diagnostic mammography.

"Diagnostic mammography" means a method of screening that is designed to evaluate an abnormality in a breast, including an abnormality seen or suspected on a screening mammogram or a subjective or objective abnormality otherwise detected in the breast.

"Low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography and includes breast tomosynthesis.

"Breast tomosynthesis" means a radiologic procedure that involves the acquisition of projection images over the stationary breast to produce cross-sectional digital three-dimensional images of the breast.

If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage for breast tomosynthesis outlined in this paragraph, then the requirement that an insurer cover breast tomosynthesis is inoperative other than any such coverage authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for breast tomosynthesis set forth in this paragraph.

On and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that all networks of care for adult clients of the Department include access to at least one breast imaging Center of Imaging Excellence as certified by the American College of Radiology.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards for mammography.

On and after January 1, 2017, providers participating in a breast cancer treatment quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for breast cancer treatment at a rate that is no lower than 95% of the Medicare program's rates for the data elements included in the breast cancer treatment quality program.

The Department shall convene an expert panel, including representatives of hospitals, free-standing breast cancer treatment centers, breast cancer quality organizations, and doctors, including breast surgeons, reconstructive breast surgeons, oncologists, and primary care providers to establish quality standards for breast cancer treatment.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities. By January 1, 2016, the Department shall report to the General Assembly on the status of the provision set forth in this paragraph.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind individuals who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. The Department shall work with experts in breast cancer outreach and patient navigation to optimize these reminders and shall establish a methodology for evaluating their effectiveness and modifying the methodology based on the evaluation.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. On or after July 1, 2016, the pilot program shall be expanded to include one site in western Illinois, one site in southern Illinois, one site in central Illinois, and 4 sites within metropolitan Chicago. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

The Department shall require all networks of care to develop a means either internally or by contract with experts in navigation and community outreach to navigate cancer patients to comprehensive care in a timely fashion. The Department shall require all networks of care to include access for patients diagnosed with cancer to at least one academic commission on cancer-accredited cancer program as an in-network covered benefit.

On or after July 1, 2022, individuals who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article shall receive coverage for perinatal depression screenings for the 12-month period beginning on the last day of their pregnancy. Medical assistance coverage under this paragraph shall be conditioned on the use of a screening instrument approved by the Department.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant individual who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of having a substance use disorder as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, referral to a local substance use disorder treatment program licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant individuals under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under any program providing case management services for addicted individuals, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted individuals in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of the recipient's substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after September 16, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1439), the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall, by July 1, 2016, test the viability of the new system and implement any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms in order to allow for the direct acceptance and payment of nursing home claims.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963), establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and MC/DD facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 120 calendar days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, new admissions with associated admission documents shall be submitted through the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including, but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department. Notwithstanding any provision of Section 5-5f to the contrary, the Department may, by rule, exempt certain replacement wheelchair parts from prior approval and, for wheelchairs, wheelchair parts, wheelchair accessories, and related seating and positioning items, determine the wholesale price by methods other than actual acquisition costs.

The Department shall require, by rule, all providers of durable medical equipment to be accredited by an accreditation organization approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and recognized by the Department in order to bill the Department for providing durable medical equipment to recipients. No later than 15 months after the effective date of the rule adopted pursuant to this paragraph, all providers must meet the accreditation requirement.

In order to promote environmental responsibility, meet the needs of recipients and enrollees, and achieve significant cost savings, the Department, or a managed care organization under contract with the Department, may provide recipients or managed care enrollees who have a prescription or Certificate of Medical Necessity access to refurbished durable medical equipment under this Section (excluding prosthetic and orthotic devices as defined in the Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act and complex rehabilitation technology products and associated services) through the State's assistive technology program's reutilization program, using staff with the Assistive Technology Professional (ATP) Certification if the refurbished durable medical equipment: (i) is available; (ii) is less expensive, including shipping costs, than new durable medical equipment of the same type; (iii) is able to withstand at least 3 years of use; (iv) is cleaned, disinfected, sterilized, and safe in accordance with federal Food and Drug Administration regulations and guidance governing the reprocessing of medical devices in health care settings; and (v) equally meets the needs of the recipient or enrollee. The reutilization program shall confirm that the recipient or enrollee is not already in receipt of the same or similar equipment from another service provider, and that the refurbished durable medical equipment equally meets the needs of the recipient or enrollee. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit recipient or enrollee choice to obtain new durable medical equipment or place any additional prior authorization conditions on enrollees of managed care organizations.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost-effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA approved forms of medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be covered under both fee for service and managed care medical assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject to any (1) utilization control, other than those established under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient placement criteria, (2) prior authorization mandate, or (3) lifetime restriction limit mandate.

On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees or hospital fees related to the dispensing, distribution, and administration of the opioid antagonist, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

Upon federal approval, the Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for all drugs that are approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration and that are recommended by the federal Public Health Service or the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for pre-exposure prophylaxis and related pre-exposure prophylaxis services, including, but not limited to, HIV and sexually transmitted infection screening, treatment for sexually transmitted infections, medical monitoring, assorted labs, and counseling to reduce the likelihood of HIV infection among individuals who are not infected with HIV but who are at high risk of HIV infection.

A federally qualified health center, as defined in Section 1905(l)(2)(B) of the federal Social Security Act, shall be reimbursed by the Department in accordance with the federally qualified health center's encounter rate for services provided to medical assistance recipients that are performed by a dental hygienist, as defined under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, working under the general supervision of a dentist and employed by a federally qualified health center.

Within 90 days after October 8, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-665) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Department shall seek federal approval of a State Plan amendment to expand coverage for family planning services that includes presumptive eligibility to individuals whose income is at or below 208% of the federal poverty level. Coverage under this Section shall be effective beginning no later than December 1, 2022.

Subject to approval by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of a Title XIX State Plan amendment electing the Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) as a State Medicaid option, as provided for by Subtitle I (commencing with Section 4801) of Title IV of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (Public Law 105-33) and Part 460 (commencing with Section 460.2) of Subchapter E of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations, PACE program services shall become a covered benefit of the medical assistance program, subject to criteria established in accordance with all applicable laws.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, community-based pediatric palliative care from a trained interdisciplinary team shall be covered under the medical assistance program as provided in Section 15 of the Pediatric Palliative Care Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-209, eff. 8-5-19; 101-580, eff. 1-1-20; 102-43, Article 30, Section 30-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 35, Section 35-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 55, Section 55-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-95, eff. 1-1-22; 102-123, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-598, eff. 1-1-22; 102-655, eff. 1-1-22; 102-665, eff. 10-8-21; revised 11-18-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.12d)

Sec. 5-5.12d. Coverage for patient care services for hormonal contraceptives provided by a pharmacist.

(a) Subject to approval by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the medical assistance program, including both the fee-for-service and managed care medical assistance programs established under this Article, shall cover patient care services provided by a pharmacist for hormonal contraceptives assessment and consultation.

(b) The Department shall establish a fee schedule for patient care services provided by a pharmacist for hormonal contraceptives assessment and consultation.

(c) The rate of reimbursement for patient care services provided by a pharmacist for hormonal contraceptives assessment and consultation shall be at 85% of the fee schedule for physician services by the medical assistance program.

(d) A pharmacist must be enrolled in the medical assistance program as an ordering and referring provider prior to providing hormonal contraceptives assessment and consultation that is submitted by a pharmacy or pharmacist provider for reimbursement pursuant to this Section.

(e) The Department shall apply for any necessary federal waivers or approvals to implement this Section by January 1, 2022.

(f) This Section does not restrict or prohibit any services currently provided by pharmacists as authorized by law, including, but not limited to, pharmacist services provided under this Code or authorized under the Illinois Title XIX State Plan.

(g) The Department shall submit to the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules administrative rules for this Section as soon as practicable but no later than 6 months after federal approval is received.

(Source: P.A. 102-103, eff. 1-1-22.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.12e)

Sec. 5-5.12e 5-5.12d. Managed care organization prior authorization of health care services.

(a) As used in this Section, "health care service" has the meaning given to that term in the Prior Authorization Reform Act.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, all managed care organizations shall comply with the requirements of the Prior Authorization Reform Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-409, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-10-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5f)

Sec. 5-5f. Elimination and limitations of medical assistance services. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on and after July 1, 2012:

(a) The following service shall no longer be a covered service available under this Code: group psychotherapy for residents of any facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(b) The Department shall place the following limitations on services: (i) the Department shall limit adult eyeglasses to one pair every 2 years; however, the limitation does not apply to an individual who needs different eyeglasses following a surgical procedure such as cataract surgery; (ii) the Department shall set an annual limit of a maximum of 20 visits for each of the following services: adult speech, hearing, and language therapy services, adult occupational therapy services, and physical therapy services; on or after October 1, 2014, the annual maximum limit of 20 visits shall expire but the Department may require prior approval for all individuals for speech, hearing, and language therapy services, occupational therapy services, and physical therapy services; (iii) the Department shall limit adult podiatry services to individuals with diabetes; on or after October 1, 2014, podiatry services shall not be limited to individuals with diabetes; (iv) the Department shall pay for caesarean sections at the normal vaginal delivery rate unless a caesarean section was medically necessary; (v) the Department shall limit adult dental services to emergencies; beginning July 1, 2013, the Department shall ensure that the following conditions are recognized as emergencies: (A) dental services necessary for an individual in order for the individual to be cleared for a medical procedure, such as a transplant; (B) extractions and dentures necessary for a diabetic to receive proper nutrition; (C) extractions and dentures necessary as a result of cancer treatment; and (D) dental services necessary for the health of a pregnant woman prior to delivery of her baby; on or after July 1, 2014, adult dental services shall no longer be limited to emergencies, and dental services necessary for the health of a pregnant woman prior to delivery of her baby shall continue to be covered; and (vi) effective July 1, 2012 through June 30, 2021, the Department shall place limitations and require concurrent review on every inpatient detoxification stay to prevent repeat admissions to any hospital for detoxification within 60 days of a previous inpatient detoxification stay. The Department shall convene a workgroup of hospitals, substance abuse providers, care coordination entities, managed care plans, and other stakeholders to develop recommendations for quality standards, diversion to other settings, and admission criteria for patients who need inpatient detoxification, which shall be published on the Department's website no later than September 1, 2013.

(c) The Department shall require prior approval of the following services: wheelchair repairs costing more than $750, coronary artery bypass graft, and bariatric surgery consistent with Medicare standards concerning patient responsibility. Wheelchair repair prior approval requests shall be adjudicated within one business day of receipt of complete supporting documentation. Providers may not break wheelchair repairs into separate claims for purposes of staying under the $750 threshold for requiring prior approval. The wholesale price of manual and power wheelchairs, durable medical equipment and supplies, and complex rehabilitation technology products and services shall be defined as actual acquisition cost including all discounts.

(d) The Department shall establish benchmarks for hospitals to measure and align payments to reduce potentially preventable hospital readmissions, inpatient complications, and unnecessary emergency room visits. In doing so, the Department shall consider items, including, but not limited to, historic and current acuity of care and historic and current trends in readmission. The Department shall publish provider-specific historical readmission data and anticipated potentially preventable targets 60 days prior to the start of the program. In the instance of readmissions, the Department shall adopt policies and rates of reimbursement for services and other payments provided under this Code to ensure that, by June 30, 2013, expenditures to hospitals are reduced by, at a minimum, $40,000,000.

(e) The Department shall establish utilization controls for the hospice program such that it shall not pay for other care services when an individual is in hospice.

(f) For home health services, the Department shall require Medicare certification of providers participating in the program and implement the Medicare face-to-face encounter rule. The Department shall require providers to implement auditable electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology.

(g) For the Home Services Program operated by the Department of Human Services and the Community Care Program operated by the Department on Aging, the Department of Human Services, in cooperation with the Department on Aging, shall implement an electronic service verification based on global positioning systems or other cost-effective technology.

(h) Effective with inpatient hospital admissions on or after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce the payment for a claim that indicates the occurrence of a provider-preventable condition during the admission as specified by the Department in rules. The Department shall not pay for services related to an other provider-preventable condition.

As used in this subsection (h):

"Provider-preventable condition" means a health care acquired condition as defined under the federal Medicaid regulation found at 42 CFR 447.26 or an other provider-preventable condition.

"Other provider-preventable condition" means a wrong surgical or other invasive procedure performed on a patient, a surgical or other invasive procedure performed on the wrong body part, or a surgical procedure or other invasive procedure performed on the wrong patient.

(i) The Department shall implement cost savings initiatives for advanced imaging services, cardiac imaging services, pain management services, and back surgery. Such initiatives shall be designed to achieve annual costs savings.

(j) The Department shall ensure that beneficiaries with a diagnosis of epilepsy or seizure disorder in Department records will not require prior approval for anticonvulsants.

(Source: P.A. 101-209, eff. 8-5-19; 102-43, Article 5, Section 5-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 30, Section 30-5, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 80, Section 80-5, eff. 7-6-21; revised 7-15-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356q, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.32, 356z.33, 356z.34, 356z.35, 356z.46, 356z.47, and 356z.51 and 356z.43 of the Illinois Insurance Code, (ii) be subject to the provisions of Sections 356z.19, 356z.43, 356z.44, 356z.49, 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, and (iii) be subject to the provisions of subsection (d-5) of Section 10 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act.

The Department, by rule, shall adopt a model similar to the requirements of Section 356z.39 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

To ensure full access to the benefits set forth in this Section, on and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that provider and hospital reimbursement for post-mastectomy care benefits required under this Section are no lower than the Medicare reimbursement rate.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-218, eff. 1-1-20; 101-281, eff. 1-1-20; 101-371, eff. 1-1-20; 101-574, eff. 1-1-20; 101-649, eff. 7-7-20; 102-30, eff. 1-1-22; 102-144, eff. 1-1-22; 102-203, eff. 1-1-22; 102-306, eff. 1-1-22; 102-530, eff. 1-1-22; 102-642, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-27-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.1)

Sec. 5-30.1. Managed care protections.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Managed care organization" or "MCO" means any entity which contracts with the Department to provide services where payment for medical services is made on a capitated basis.

"Emergency services" include:

(1) emergency services, as defined by Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act;

(2) emergency medical screening examinations, as defined by Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act;

(3) post-stabilization medical services, as defined by Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act; and

(4) emergency medical conditions, as defined by Section 10 of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(b) As provided by Section 5-16.12, managed care organizations are subject to the provisions of the Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.

(c) An MCO shall pay any provider of emergency services that does not have in effect a contract with the contracted Medicaid MCO. The default rate of reimbursement shall be the rate paid under Illinois Medicaid fee-for-service program methodology, including all policy adjusters, including but not limited to Medicaid High Volume Adjustments, Medicaid Percentage Adjustments, Outpatient High Volume Adjustments, and all outlier add-on adjustments to the extent such adjustments are incorporated in the development of the applicable MCO capitated rates.

(d) An MCO shall pay for all post-stabilization services as a covered service in any of the following situations:

(1) the MCO authorized such services;

(2) such services were administered to maintain the enrollee's stabilized condition within one hour after a request to the MCO for authorization of further post-stabilization services;

(3) the MCO did not respond to a request to authorize such services within one hour;

(4) the MCO could not be contacted; or

(5) the MCO and the treating provider, if the treating provider is a non-affiliated provider, could not reach an agreement concerning the enrollee's care and an affiliated provider was unavailable for a consultation, in which case the MCO must pay for such services rendered by the treating non-affiliated provider until an affiliated provider was reached and either concurred with the treating non-affiliated provider's plan of care or assumed responsibility for the enrollee's care. Such payment shall be made at the default rate of reimbursement paid under Illinois Medicaid fee-for-service program methodology, including all policy adjusters, including but not limited to Medicaid High Volume Adjustments, Medicaid Percentage Adjustments, Outpatient High Volume Adjustments and all outlier add-on adjustments to the extent that such adjustments are incorporated in the development of the applicable MCO capitated rates.

(e) The following requirements apply to MCOs in determining payment for all emergency services:

(1) MCOs shall not impose any requirements for prior approval of emergency services.

(2) The MCO shall cover emergency services provided to enrollees who are temporarily away from their residence and outside the contracting area to the extent that the enrollees would be entitled to the emergency services if they still were within the contracting area.

(3) The MCO shall have no obligation to cover medical services provided on an emergency basis that are not covered services under the contract.

(4) The MCO shall not condition coverage for emergency services on the treating provider notifying the MCO of the enrollee's screening and treatment within 10 days after presentation for emergency services.

(5) The determination of the attending emergency physician, or the provider actually treating the enrollee, of whether an enrollee is sufficiently stabilized for discharge or transfer to another facility, shall be binding on the MCO. The MCO shall cover emergency services for all enrollees whether the emergency services are provided by an affiliated or non-affiliated provider.

(6) The MCO's financial responsibility for post-stabilization care services it has not pre-approved ends when:

(A) a plan physician with privileges at the treating hospital assumes responsibility for the enrollee's care;

(B) a plan physician assumes responsibility for the enrollee's care through transfer;

(C) a contracting entity representative and the treating physician reach an agreement concerning the enrollee's care; or

(D) the enrollee is discharged.

(f) Network adequacy and transparency.

(1) The Department shall:

(A) ensure that an adequate provider network is in place, taking into consideration health professional shortage areas and medically underserved areas;

(B) publicly release an explanation of its process for analyzing network adequacy;

(C) periodically ensure that an MCO continues to have an adequate network in place;

(D) require MCOs, including Medicaid Managed Care Entities as defined in Section 5-30.2, to meet provider directory requirements under Section 5-30.3; and

(E) require MCOs to ensure that any Medicaid-certified provider under contract with an MCO and previously submitted on a roster on the date of service is paid for any medically necessary, Medicaid-covered, and authorized service rendered to any of the MCO's enrollees, regardless of inclusion on the MCO's published and publicly available directory of available providers; and .

(F) (E) require MCOs, including Medicaid Managed Care Entities as defined in Section 5-30.2, to meet each of the requirements under subsection (d-5) of Section 10 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act; with necessary exceptions to the MCO's network to ensure that admission and treatment with a provider or at a treatment facility in accordance with the network adequacy standards in paragraph (3) of subsection (d-5) of Section 10 of the Network Adequacy and Transparency Act is limited to providers or facilities that are Medicaid certified.

(2) Each MCO shall confirm its receipt of information submitted specific to physician or dentist additions or physician or dentist deletions from the MCO's provider network within 3 days after receiving all required information from contracted physicians or dentists, and electronic physician and dental directories must be updated consistent with current rules as published by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services or its successor agency.

(g) Timely payment of claims.

(1) The MCO shall pay a claim within 30 days of receiving a claim that contains all the essential information needed to adjudicate the claim.

(2) The MCO shall notify the billing party of its inability to adjudicate a claim within 30 days of receiving that claim.

(3) The MCO shall pay a penalty that is at least equal to the timely payment interest penalty imposed under Section 368a of the Illinois Insurance Code for any claims not timely paid.

(A) When an MCO is required to pay a timely payment interest penalty to a provider, the MCO must calculate and pay the timely payment interest penalty that is due to the provider within 30 days after the payment of the claim. In no event shall a provider be required to request or apply for payment of any owed timely payment interest penalties.

(B) Such payments shall be reported separately from the claim payment for services rendered to the MCO's enrollee and clearly identified as interest payments.

(4)(A) The Department shall require MCOs to expedite payments to providers identified on the Department's expedited provider list, determined in accordance with 89 Ill. Adm. Code 140.71(b), on a schedule at least as frequently as the providers are paid under the Department's fee-for-service expedited provider schedule.

(B) Compliance with the expedited provider requirement may be satisfied by an MCO through the use of a Periodic Interim Payment (PIP) program that has been mutually agreed to and documented between the MCO and the provider, if the PIP program ensures that any expedited provider receives regular and periodic payments based on prior period payment experience from that MCO. Total payments under the PIP program may be reconciled against future PIP payments on a schedule mutually agreed to between the MCO and the provider.

(C) The Department shall share at least monthly its expedited provider list and the frequency with which it pays providers on the expedited list.

(g-5) Recognizing that the rapid transformation of the Illinois Medicaid program may have unintended operational challenges for both payers and providers:

(1) in no instance shall a medically necessary covered service rendered in good faith, based upon eligibility information documented by the provider, be denied coverage or diminished in payment amount if the eligibility or coverage information available at the time the service was rendered is later found to be inaccurate in the assignment of coverage responsibility between MCOs or the fee-for-service system, except for instances when an individual is deemed to have not been eligible for coverage under the Illinois Medicaid program; and

(2) the Department shall, by December 31, 2016, adopt rules establishing policies that shall be included in the Medicaid managed care policy and procedures manual addressing payment resolutions in situations in which a provider renders services based upon information obtained after verifying a patient's eligibility and coverage plan through either the Department's current enrollment system or a system operated by the coverage plan identified by the patient presenting for services:

(A) such medically necessary covered services shall be considered rendered in good faith;

(B) such policies and procedures shall be developed in consultation with industry representatives of the Medicaid managed care health plans and representatives of provider associations representing the majority of providers within the identified provider industry; and

(C) such rules shall be published for a review and comment period of no less than 30 days on the Department's website with final rules remaining available on the Department's website.

The rules on payment resolutions shall include, but not be limited to:

(A) the extension of the timely filing period;

(B) retroactive prior authorizations; and

(C) guaranteed minimum payment rate of no less than the current, as of the date of service, fee-for-service rate, plus all applicable add-ons, when the resulting service relationship is out of network.

The rules shall be applicable for both MCO coverage and fee-for-service coverage.

If the fee-for-service system is ultimately determined to have been responsible for coverage on the date of service, the Department shall provide for an extended period for claims submission outside the standard timely filing requirements.

(g-6) MCO Performance Metrics Report.

(1) The Department shall publish, on at least a quarterly basis, each MCO's operational performance, including, but not limited to, the following categories of metrics:

(A) claims payment, including timeliness and accuracy;

(B) prior authorizations;

(C) grievance and appeals;

(D) utilization statistics;

(E) provider disputes;

(F) provider credentialing; and

(G) member and provider customer service.

(2) The Department shall ensure that the metrics report is accessible to providers online by January 1, 2017.

(3) The metrics shall be developed in consultation with industry representatives of the Medicaid managed care health plans and representatives of associations representing the majority of providers within the identified industry.

(4) Metrics shall be defined and incorporated into the applicable Managed Care Policy Manual issued by the Department.

(g-7) MCO claims processing and performance analysis. In order to monitor MCO payments to hospital providers, pursuant to Public Act 100-580 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Department shall post an analysis of MCO claims processing and payment performance on its website every 6 months. Such analysis shall include a review and evaluation of a representative sample of hospital claims that are rejected and denied for clean and unclean claims and the top 5 reasons for such actions and timeliness of claims adjudication, which identifies the percentage of claims adjudicated within 30, 60, 90, and over 90 days, and the dollar amounts associated with those claims.

(g-8) Dispute resolution process. The Department shall maintain a provider complaint portal through which a provider can submit to the Department unresolved disputes with an MCO. An unresolved dispute means an MCO's decision that denies in whole or in part a claim for reimbursement to a provider for health care services rendered by the provider to an enrollee of the MCO with which the provider disagrees. Disputes shall not be submitted to the portal until the provider has availed itself of the MCO's internal dispute resolution process. Disputes that are submitted to the MCO internal dispute resolution process may be submitted to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services' complaint portal no sooner than 30 days after submitting to the MCO's internal process and not later than 30 days after the unsatisfactory resolution of the internal MCO process or 60 days after submitting the dispute to the MCO internal process. Multiple claim disputes involving the same MCO may be submitted in one complaint, regardless of whether the claims are for different enrollees, when the specific reason for non-payment of the claims involves a common question of fact or policy. Within 10 business days of receipt of a complaint, the Department shall present such disputes to the appropriate MCO, which shall then have 30 days to issue its written proposal to resolve the dispute. The Department may grant one 30-day extension of this time frame to one of the parties to resolve the dispute. If the dispute remains unresolved at the end of this time frame or the provider is not satisfied with the MCO's written proposal to resolve the dispute, the provider may, within 30 days, request the Department to review the dispute and make a final determination. Within 30 days of the request for Department review of the dispute, both the provider and the MCO shall present all relevant information to the Department for resolution and make individuals with knowledge of the issues available to the Department for further inquiry if needed. Within 30 days of receiving the relevant information on the dispute, or the lapse of the period for submitting such information, the Department shall issue a written decision on the dispute based on contractual terms between the provider and the MCO, contractual terms between the MCO and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and applicable Medicaid policy. The decision of the Department shall be final. By January 1, 2020, the Department shall establish by rule further details of this dispute resolution process. Disputes between MCOs and providers presented to the Department for resolution are not contested cases, as defined in Section 1-30 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, conferring any right to an administrative hearing.

(g-9)(1) The Department shall publish annually on its website a report on the calculation of each managed care organization's medical loss ratio showing the following:

(A) Premium revenue, with appropriate adjustments.

(B) Benefit expense, setting forth the aggregate amount spent for the following:

(i) Direct paid claims.

(ii) Subcapitation payments.

(iii) Other claim payments.

(iv) Direct reserves.

(v) Gross recoveries.

(vi) Expenses for activities that improve health care quality as allowed by the Department.

(2) The medical loss ratio shall be calculated consistent with federal law and regulation following a claims runout period determined by the Department.

(g-10)(1) "Liability effective date" means the date on which an MCO becomes responsible for payment for medically necessary and covered services rendered by a provider to one of its enrollees in accordance with the contract terms between the MCO and the provider. The liability effective date shall be the later of:

(A) The execution date of a network participation contract agreement.

(B) The date the provider or its representative submits to the MCO the complete and accurate standardized roster form for the provider in the format approved by the Department.

(C) The provider effective date contained within the Department's provider enrollment subsystem within the Illinois Medicaid Program Advanced Cloud Technology (IMPACT) System.

(2) The standardized roster form may be submitted to the MCO at the same time that the provider submits an enrollment application to the Department through IMPACT.

(3) By October 1, 2019, the Department shall require all MCOs to update their provider directory with information for new practitioners of existing contracted providers within 30 days of receipt of a complete and accurate standardized roster template in the format approved by the Department provided that the provider is effective in the Department's provider enrollment subsystem within the IMPACT system. Such provider directory shall be readily accessible for purposes of selecting an approved health care provider and comply with all other federal and State requirements.

(g-11) The Department shall work with relevant stakeholders on the development of operational guidelines to enhance and improve operational performance of Illinois' Medicaid managed care program, including, but not limited to, improving provider billing practices, reducing claim rejections and inappropriate payment denials, and standardizing processes, procedures, definitions, and response timelines, with the goal of reducing provider and MCO administrative burdens and conflict. The Department shall include a report on the progress of these program improvements and other topics in its Fiscal Year 2020 annual report to the General Assembly.

(g-12) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if the Department or an MCO requires submission of a claim for payment in a non-electronic format, a provider shall always be afforded a period of no less than 90 business days, as a correction period, following any notification of rejection by either the Department or the MCO to correct errors or omissions in the original submission.

Under no circumstances, either by an MCO or under the State's fee-for-service system, shall a provider be denied payment for failure to comply with any timely submission requirements under this Code or under any existing contract, unless the non-electronic format claim submission occurs after the initial 180 days following the latest date of service on the claim, or after the 90 business days correction period following notification to the provider of rejection or denial of payment.

(h) The Department shall not expand mandatory MCO enrollment into new counties beyond those counties already designated by the Department as of June 1, 2014 for the individuals whose eligibility for medical assistance is not the seniors or people with disabilities population until the Department provides an opportunity for accountable care entities and MCOs to participate in such newly designated counties.

(i) The requirements of this Section apply to contracts with accountable care entities and MCOs entered into, amended, or renewed after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651).

(j) Health care information released to managed care organizations. A health care provider shall release to a Medicaid managed care organization, upon request, and subject to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 and any other law applicable to the release of health information, the health care information of the MCO's enrollee, if the enrollee has completed and signed a general release form that grants to the health care provider permission to release the recipient's health care information to the recipient's insurance carrier.

(k) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, managed care organizations, a statewide organization representing hospitals, and a statewide organization representing safety-net hospitals shall explore ways to support billing departments in safety-net hospitals.

(l) The requirements of this Section added by Public Act 102-4 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall apply to services provided on or after the first day of the month that begins 60 days after April 27, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-4) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 101-209, eff. 8-5-19; 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-43, eff. 7-6-21; 102-144, eff. 1-1-22; 102-454, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-5-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-41)

Sec. 5-41. Inpatient hospitalization for opioid-related overdose or withdrawal patients. Due to the disproportionately high opioid-related fatality rates among African Americans in under-resourced communities in Illinois, the lack of community resources, the comorbidities experienced by these patients, and the high rate of hospital inpatient recidivism associated with this population when improperly treated, the Department shall ensure that patients, whether enrolled under the Medical Assistance Fee For Service program or enrolled with a Medicaid Managed Care Organization, experiencing opioid-related overdose or withdrawal are admitted on an inpatient status and the provider shall be reimbursed accordingly, when deemed medically necessary, as determined by either the patient's primary care physician, or the physician or other practitioner responsible for the patient's care at the hospital to which the patient presents, using criteria established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine. If it is determined by the physician or other practitioner responsible for the patient's care at the hospital to which the patient presents, that a patient does not meet medical necessity criteria for the admission, then the patient may be treated via observation and the provider shall seek reimbursement accordingly. Nothing in this Section shall diminish the requirements of a provider to document medical necessity in the patient's record.

(Source: P.A. 102-43, eff. 7-6-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-44)

Sec. 5-44 5-41. Screening, Brief Intervention, and Referral to Treatment. As used in this Section, "SBIRT" means a comprehensive, integrated, public health approach to the delivery of early intervention and treatment services for persons who are at risk of developing substance use disorders or have substance use disorders including, but not limited to, an addiction to alcohol, opioids, tobacco, or cannabis. SBIRT services include all of the following:

(1) Screening to quickly assess the severity of substance use and to identify the appropriate level of treatment.

(2) Brief intervention focused on increasing insight and awareness regarding substance use and motivation toward behavioral change.

(3) Referral to treatment provided to those identified as needing more extensive treatment with access to specialty care.

SBIRT services may include, but are not limited to, the following settings and programs: primary care centers, hospital emergency rooms, hospital in-patient units, trauma centers, community behavioral health programs, and other community settings that provide opportunities for early intervention with at-risk substance users before more severe consequences occur.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop and seek federal approval of a SBIRT benefit for which qualified providers shall be reimbursed under the medical assistance program.

In conjunction with the Department of Human Services' Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may develop a methodology and reimbursement rate for SBIRT services provided by qualified providers in approved settings.

For opioid specific SBIRT services provided in a hospital emergency department, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop a bundled reimbursement methodology and rate for a package of opioid treatment services, which include initiation of medication for the treatment of opioid use disorder in the emergency department setting, including assessment, referral to ongoing care, and arranging access to supportive services when necessary. This package of opioid related services shall be billed on a separate claim and shall be reimbursed outside of the Enhanced Ambulatory Patient Grouping system.

(Source: P.A. 102-598, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-18-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/9A-11) (from Ch. 23, par. 9A-11)

Sec. 9A-11. Child care.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes that families with children need child care in order to work. Child care is expensive and families with low incomes, including those who are transitioning from welfare to work, often struggle to pay the costs of day care. The General Assembly understands the importance of helping low-income working families become and remain self-sufficient. The General Assembly also believes that it is the responsibility of families to share in the costs of child care. It is also the preference of the General Assembly that all working poor families should be treated equally, regardless of their welfare status.

(b) To the extent resources permit, the Illinois Department shall provide child care services to parents or other relatives as defined by rule who are working or participating in employment or Department approved education or training programs. At a minimum, the Illinois Department shall cover the following categories of families:

(1) recipients of TANF under Article IV participating in work and training activities as specified in the personal plan for employment and self-sufficiency;

(2) families transitioning from TANF to work;

(3) families at risk of becoming recipients of TANF;

(4) families with special needs as defined by rule;

(5) working families with very low incomes as defined by rule;

(6) families that are not recipients of TANF and that need child care assistance to participate in education and training activities; and

(7) families with children under the age of 5 who have an open intact family services case with the Department of Children and Family Services. Any family that receives child care assistance in accordance with this paragraph shall remain eligible for child care assistance 6 months after the child's intact family services case is closed, regardless of whether the child's parents or other relatives as defined by rule are working or participating in Department approved employment or education or training programs. The Department of Human Services, in consultation with the Department of Children and Family Services, shall adopt rules to protect the privacy of families who are the subject of an open intact family services case when such families enroll in child care services. Additional rules shall be adopted to offer children who have an open intact family services case the opportunity to receive an Early Intervention screening and other services that their families may be eligible for as provided by the Department of Human Services.

The Department shall specify by rule the conditions of eligibility, the application process, and the types, amounts, and duration of services. Eligibility for child care benefits and the amount of child care provided may vary based on family size, income, and other factors as specified by rule.

The Department shall update the Child Care Assistance Program Eligibility Calculator posted on its website to include a question on whether a family is applying for child care assistance for the first time or is applying for a redetermination of eligibility.

A family's eligibility for child care services shall be redetermined no sooner than 12 months following the initial determination or most recent redetermination. During the 12-month periods, the family shall remain eligible for child care services regardless of (i) a change in family income, unless family income exceeds 85% of State median income, or (ii) a temporary change in the ongoing status of the parents or other relatives, as defined by rule, as working or attending a job training or educational program.

In determining income eligibility for child care benefits, the Department annually, at the beginning of each fiscal year, shall establish, by rule, one income threshold for each family size, in relation to percentage of State median income for a family of that size, that makes families with incomes below the specified threshold eligible for assistance and families with incomes above the specified threshold ineligible for assistance. Through and including fiscal year 2007, the specified threshold must be no less than 50% of the then-current State median income for each family size. Beginning in fiscal year 2008, the specified threshold must be no less than 185% of the then-current federal poverty level for each family size. Notwithstanding any other provision of law or administrative rule to the contrary, beginning in fiscal year 2019, the specified threshold for working families with very low incomes as defined by rule must be no less than 185% of the then-current federal poverty level for each family size. Notwithstanding any other provision of law or administrative rule to the contrary, beginning in State fiscal year 2022, the specified income threshold shall be no less than 200% of the then-current federal poverty level for each family size.

In determining eligibility for assistance, the Department shall not give preference to any category of recipients or give preference to individuals based on their receipt of benefits under this Code.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as conferring entitlement status to eligible families.

The Illinois Department is authorized to lower income eligibility ceilings, raise parent co-payments, create waiting lists, or take such other actions during a fiscal year as are necessary to ensure that child care benefits paid under this Article do not exceed the amounts appropriated for those child care benefits. These changes may be accomplished by emergency rule under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that the limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24-month period shall not apply.

The Illinois Department may contract with other State agencies or child care organizations for the administration of child care services.

(c) Payment shall be made for child care that otherwise meets the requirements of this Section and applicable standards of State and local law and regulation, including any requirements the Illinois Department promulgates by rule in addition to the licensure requirements promulgated by the Department of Children and Family Services and Fire Prevention and Safety requirements promulgated by the Office of the State Fire Marshal, and is provided in any of the following:

(1) a child care center which is licensed or exempt from licensure pursuant to Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969;

(2) a licensed child care home or home exempt from licensing;

(3) a licensed group child care home;

(4) other types of child care, including child care provided by relatives or persons living in the same home as the child, as determined by the Illinois Department by rule.

(c-5) Solely for the purposes of coverage under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, child and day care home providers, including licensed and license exempt, participating in the Department's child care assistance program shall be considered to be public employees and the State of Illinois shall be considered to be their employer as of January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320), but not before. The State shall engage in collective bargaining with an exclusive representative of child and day care home providers participating in the child care assistance program concerning their terms and conditions of employment that are within the State's control. Nothing in this subsection shall be understood to limit the right of families receiving services defined in this Section to select child and day care home providers or supervise them within the limits of this Section. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of child and day care home providers for any purposes not specifically provided in Public Act 94-320, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

In according child and day care home providers and their selected representative rights under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, the State intends that the State action exemption to application of federal and State antitrust laws be fully available to the extent that their activities are authorized by Public Act 94-320.

(d) The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, a co-payment scale that provides for cost sharing by families that receive child care services, including parents whose only income is from assistance under this Code. The co-payment shall be based on family income and family size and may be based on other factors as appropriate. Co-payments may be waived for families whose incomes are at or below the federal poverty level.

(d-5) The Illinois Department, in consultation with its Child Care and Development Advisory Council, shall develop a plan to revise the child care assistance program's co-payment scale. The plan shall be completed no later than February 1, 2008, and shall include:

(1) findings as to the percentage of income that the average American family spends on child care and the relative amounts that low-income families and the average American family spend on other necessities of life;

(2) recommendations for revising the child care co-payment scale to assure that families receiving child care services from the Department are paying no more than they can reasonably afford;

(3) recommendations for revising the child care co-payment scale to provide at-risk children with complete access to Preschool for All and Head Start; and

(4) recommendations for changes in child care program policies that affect the affordability of child care.

(e) (Blank).

(f) The Illinois Department shall, by rule, set rates to be paid for the various types of child care. Child care may be provided through one of the following methods:

(1) arranging the child care through eligible providers by use of purchase of service contracts or vouchers;

(2) arranging with other agencies and community volunteer groups for non-reimbursed child care;

(3) (blank); or

(4) adopting such other arrangements as the Department determines appropriate.

(f-1) Within 30 days after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587), the Department of Human Services shall establish rates for child care providers that are no less than the rates in effect on January 1, 2018 increased by 4.26%.

(f-5) (Blank).

(g) Families eligible for assistance under this Section shall be given the following options:

(1) receiving a child care certificate issued by the Department or a subcontractor of the Department that may be used by the parents as payment for child care and development services only; or

(2) if space is available, enrolling the child with a child care provider that has a purchase of service contract with the Department or a subcontractor of the Department for the provision of child care and development services. The Department may identify particular priority populations for whom they may request special consideration by a provider with purchase of service contracts, provided that the providers shall be permitted to maintain a balance of clients in terms of household incomes and families and children with special needs, as defined by rule.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-657, eff. 3-23-21; 102-491, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-8-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/10-1) (from Ch. 23, par. 10-1)

Sec. 10-1. Declaration of public policy; persons eligible for child support enforcement services; fees for non-applicants and non-recipients. Declaration of Public Policy - Persons Eligible for Child Support Enforcement Services - Fees for Non-Applicants and Non-Recipients.) It is the intent of this Code that the financial aid and social welfare services herein provided supplement rather than supplant the primary and continuing obligation of the family unit for self-support to the fullest extent permitted by the resources available to it. This primary and continuing obligation applies whether the family unit of parents and children or of husband and wife remains intact and resides in a common household or whether the unit has been broken by absence of one or more members of the unit. The obligation of the family unit is particularly applicable when a member is in necessitous circumstances and lacks the means of a livelihood compatible with health and well-being.

It is the purpose of this Article to provide for locating an absent parent or spouse, for determining his financial circumstances, and for enforcing his legal obligation of support, if he is able to furnish support, in whole or in part. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall give priority to establishing, enforcing, and collecting the current support obligation, and then to past due support owed to the family unit, except with respect to collections effected through the intercept programs provided for in this Article. The establishment or enforcement actions provided in this Article do not require a previous court order for custody/allocation of parental responsibilities.

The child support enforcement services provided hereunder shall be furnished dependents of an absent parent or spouse who are applicants for or recipients of financial aid under this Code. It is not, however, a condition of eligibility for financial aid that there be no responsible relatives who are reasonably able to provide support. Nor, except as provided in Sections 4-1.7 and 10-8, shall the existence of such relatives or their payment of support contributions disqualify a needy person for financial aid.

By accepting financial aid under this Code, a spouse or a parent or other person having physical or legal custody of a child shall be deemed to have made assignment to the Illinois Department for aid under Articles III, IV, V, and VII or to a local governmental unit for aid under Article VI of any and all rights, title, and interest in any support obligation, including statutory interest thereon, up to the amount of financial aid provided. The rights to support assigned to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or local governmental unit shall constitute an obligation owed the State or local governmental unit by the person who is responsible for providing the support, and shall be collectible under all applicable processes.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall also furnish the child support enforcement services established under this Article in behalf of persons who are not applicants for or recipients of financial aid under this Code in accordance with the requirements of Title IV, Part D of the Social Security Act. The Department may establish a schedule of reasonable fees, to be paid for the services provided and may deduct a collection fee, not to exceed 10% of the amount collected, from such collection. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall cause to be published and distributed publications reasonably calculated to inform the public that individuals who are not recipients of or applicants for public aid under this Code are eligible for the child support enforcement services under this Article X. Such publications shall set forth an explanation, in plain language, that the child support enforcement services program is independent of any public aid program under the Code and that the receiving of child support enforcement services in no way implies that the person receiving such services is receiving public aid.

(Source: P.A. 102-541, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-24-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.35)

Sec. 12-4.35. Medical services for certain noncitizens.

(a) Notwithstanding Section 1-11 of this Code or Section 20(a) of the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide medical services to noncitizens who have not yet attained 19 years of age and who are not eligible for medical assistance under Article V of this Code or under the Children's Health Insurance Program created by the Children's Health Insurance Program Act due to their not meeting the otherwise applicable provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code or Section 20(a) of the Children's Health Insurance Program Act. The medical services available, standards for eligibility, and other conditions of participation under this Section shall be established by rule by the Department; however, any such rule shall be at least as restrictive as the rules for medical assistance under Article V of this Code or the Children's Health Insurance Program created by the Children's Health Insurance Program Act.

(a-5) Notwithstanding Section 1-11 of this Code, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide medical assistance in accordance with Article V of this Code to noncitizens over the age of 65 years of age who are not eligible for medical assistance under Article V of this Code due to their not meeting the otherwise applicable provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, whose income is at or below 100% of the federal poverty level after deducting the costs of medical or other remedial care, and who would otherwise meet the eligibility requirements in Section 5-2 of this Code. The medical services available, standards for eligibility, and other conditions of participation under this Section shall be established by rule by the Department; however, any such rule shall be at least as restrictive as the rules for medical assistance under Article V of this Code.

(a-6) By May 30, 2022, notwithstanding Section 1-11 of this Code, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide medical services to noncitizens 55 years of age through 64 years of age who (i) are not eligible for medical assistance under Article V of this Code due to their not meeting the otherwise applicable provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code and (ii) have income at or below 133% of the federal poverty level plus 5% for the applicable family size as determined under applicable federal law and regulations. Persons eligible for medical services under Public Act 102-16 this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall receive benefits identical to the benefits provided under the Health Benefits Service Package as that term is defined in subsection (m) of Section 5-1.1 of this Code.

(a-10) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11, the Department shall cover immunosuppressive drugs and related services associated with post-kidney transplant management, excluding long-term care costs, for noncitizens who: (i) are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits; (ii) meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3; and (iii) would meet the financial eligibility requirements of Section 5-2.

(b) The Department is authorized to take any action that would not otherwise be prohibited by applicable law, including, without limitation, cessation or limitation of enrollment, reduction of available medical services, and changing standards for eligibility, that is deemed necessary by the Department during a State fiscal year to assure that payments under this Section do not exceed available funds.

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-43, Article 25, Section 25-15, eff. 7-6-21; 102-43, Article 45, Section 45-5, eff. 7-6-21; revised 7-15-21.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.54)

Sec. 12-4.54. SNAP, WIC; diapers, menstrual hygiene products. If the United States Department of Agriculture's Food and Nutrition Service creates and makes available to the states a waiver permitting recipients of benefits provided under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program or the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children to use their benefits to purchase diapers or menstrual hygiene products such as tampons, sanitary napkins, and feminine wipes, then the Department of Human Services shall apply for the waiver. If the United States Department of Agriculture approves the Department of Human Services' waiver application, then the Department of Human Services shall adopt rules and make other changes as necessary to implement the approved waiver.

(Source: P.A. 102-248, eff. 1-1-22.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.55)

Sec. 12-4.55 12-4.54. Community-based long-term services; application for federal funding. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall apply for all available federal funding to promote community inclusion and integration for persons with disabilities, regardless of age, and older adults so that those persons have the option to transition out of institutions and receive long-term care services and supports in the settings of their choice.

(Source: P.A. 102-536, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-10-21.)

Section 510. The Housing Authorities Act is amended by changing Sections 17 and 25 as follows:

(310 ILCS 10/17) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 17)

Sec. 17. Definitions. The following terms, wherever used or referred to in this Act shall have the following respective meanings, unless in any case a different meaning clearly appears from the context:

(a) "Authority" or "housing authority" shall mean a municipal corporation organized in accordance with the provisions of this Act for the purposes, with the powers and subject to the restrictions herein set forth.

(b) "Area" or "area of operation" shall mean: (1) in the case of an authority which is created hereunder for a city, village, or incorporated town, the area within the territorial boundaries of said city, village, or incorporated town, and so long as no county housing authority has jurisdiction therein, the area within three miles from such territorial boundaries, except any part of such area located within the territorial boundaries of any other city, village, or incorporated town; and (2) in the case of a county shall include all of the county except the area of any city, village or incorporated town located therein in which there is an Authority. When an authority is created for a county subsequent to the creation of an authority for a city, village or incorporated town within the same county, the area of operation of the authority for such city, village or incorporated town shall thereafter be limited to the territory of such city, village or incorporated town, but the authority for such city, village or incorporated town may continue to operate any project developed in whole or in part in an area previously a part of its area of operation, or may contract with the county housing authority with respect to the sale, lease, development or administration of such project. When an authority is created for a city, village or incorporated town subsequent to the creation of a county housing authority which previously included such city, village or incorporated town within its area of operation, such county housing authority shall have no power to create any additional project within the city, village or incorporated town, but any existing project in the city, village or incorporated town currently owned and operated by the county housing authority shall remain in the ownership, operation, custody and control of the county housing authority.

(b-5) "Criminal history record" means a record of arrest, complaint, indictment, or any disposition arising therefrom.

(b-6) "Criminal history report" means any written, oral, or other communication of information that includes criminal history record information about a natural person that is produced by a law enforcement agency, a court, a consumer reporting agency, or a housing screening agency or business.

(c) "Presiding officer" shall mean the presiding officer of the board of a county, or the mayor or president of a city, village or incorporated town, as the case may be, for which an Authority is created hereunder.

(d) "Commissioner" shall mean one of the members of an Authority appointed in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

(e) "Government" shall include the State and Federal governments and the governments of any subdivisions, agency or instrumentality, corporate or otherwise, of either of them.

(f) "Department" shall mean the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(g) "Project" shall include all lands, buildings, and improvements, acquired, owned, leased, managed or operated by a housing authority, and all buildings and improvements constructed, reconstructed or repaired by a housing authority, designed to provide housing accommodations and facilities appurtenant thereto (including community facilities and stores) which are planned as a unit, whether or not acquired or constructed at one time even though all or a portion of the buildings are not contiguous or adjacent to one another; and the planning of buildings and improvements, the acquisition of property, the demolition of existing structures, the clearing of land, the construction, reconstruction, and repair of buildings or improvements and all other work in connection therewith. As provided in Sections 8.14 to 8.18, inclusive, "project" also means, for Housing Authorities for municipalities of less than 500,000 population and for counties, the conservation of urban areas in accordance with an approved conservation plan. "Project" shall also include:

(1) acquisition of:

(i) a slum or blighted area or a deteriorated or deteriorating area which is predominantly residential in character, or

(ii) any other deteriorated or deteriorating area which is to be developed or redeveloped for predominantly residential uses, or

(iii) platted urban or suburban land which is predominantly open and which because of obsolete platting, diversity of ownership, deterioration of structures or of site improvements, or otherwise substantially impairs or arrests the sound growth of the community and which is to be developed for predominantly residential uses, or

(iv) open unplatted urban or suburban land necessary for sound community growth which is to be developed for predominantly residential uses, or

(v) any other area where parcels of land remain undeveloped because of improper platting, delinquent taxes or special assessments, scattered or uncertain ownerships, clouds on title, artificial values due to excessive utility costs, or any other impediments to the use of such area for predominantly residential uses;

(2) installation, construction, or reconstruction of streets, utilities, and other site improvements essential to the preparation of sites for uses in accordance with the development or redevelopment plan; and

(3) making the land available for development or redevelopment by private enterprise or public agencies (including sale, initial leasing, or retention by the local public agency itself).

If, in any city, village, or incorporated town, there exists a land clearance commission created under the Blighted Areas Redevelopment Act of 1947 (repealed) prior to August 20, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-510) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly having the same area of operation as a housing authority created in and for any such municipality, such housing authority shall have no power to acquire land of the character described in subparagraph (iii), (iv), or (v) of paragraph (1) 1 of the definition of "project" for the purpose of development or redevelopment by private enterprise.

(h) "Community facilities" shall include lands, buildings, and equipment for recreation or social assembly, for education, health or welfare activities and other necessary utilities primarily for use and benefit of the occupants of housing accommodations to be constructed, reconstructed, repaired or operated hereunder.

(i) "Real property" shall include lands, lands under water, structures, and any and all easements, franchises and incorporeal hereditaments and estates, and rights, legal and equitable, including terms for years and liens by way of judgment, mortgage or otherwise.

(j) The term "governing body" shall include the city council of any city, the president and board of trustees of any village or incorporated town, the council of any city or village, and the county board of any county.

(k) The phrase "individual, association, corporation or organization" shall include any individual, private corporation, limited or general partnership, limited liability company, insurance company, housing corporation, neighborhood redevelopment corporation, non-profit corporation, incorporated or unincorporated group or association, educational institution, hospital, or charitable organization, and any mutual ownership or cooperative organization.

(l) "Conservation area", for the purpose of the exercise of the powers granted in Sections 8.14 to 8.18, inclusive, for housing authorities for municipalities of less than 500,000 population and for counties, means an area of not less than 2 acres in which the structures in 50% or more of the area are residential having an average age of 35 years or more. Such an area by reason of dilapidation, obsolescence, deterioration or illegal use of individual structures, overcrowding of structures and community facilities, conversion of residential units into non-residential use, deleterious land use or layout, decline of physical maintenance, lack of community planning, or any combination of these factors may become a slum and blighted area.

(m) "Conservation plan" means the comprehensive program for the physical development and replanning of a "Conservation Area" as defined in paragraph (l) embodying the steps required to prevent such Conservation Area from becoming a slum and blighted area.

(n) "Fair use value" means the fair cash market value of real property when employed for the use contemplated by a "Conservation Plan" in municipalities of less than 500,000 population and in counties.

(o) "Community facilities" means, in relation to a "Conservation Plan", those physical plants which implement, support and facilitate the activities, services and interests of education, recreation, shopping, health, welfare, religion and general culture.

(p) "Loan agreement" means any agreement pursuant to which an Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of its revenue bonds issued with respect to a multifamily rental housing project or other funds of the Authority to any person upon terms providing for loan repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the revenue bonds of the Authority issued with respect to the multifamily rental housing project, and providing for maintenance, insurance, and other matters as may be deemed desirable by the Authority.

(q) "Multifamily rental housing" means any rental project designed for mixed-income or low-income occupancy.

(Source: P.A. 101-659, eff. 3-23-21; 102-510, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(310 ILCS 10/25) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 25)

Sec. 25. Rentals and tenant selection. In the operation or management of housing projects an Authority shall at all times observe the following duties with respect to rentals and tenant selection:

(a) It shall not accept any person as a tenant in any dwelling in a housing project if the persons who would occupy the dwelling have an aggregate annual income which equals or exceeds the amount which the Authority determines (which determination shall be conclusive) to be necessary in order to enable such persons to secure safe, sanitary and uncongested dwelling accommodations within the area of operation of the Authority and to provide an adequate standard of living for themselves.

(b) It may rent or lease the dwelling accommodations therein only at rentals within the financial reach of persons who lack the amount of income which it determines (pursuant to (a) of this Section) to be necessary in order to obtain safe, sanitary and uncongested dwelling accommodations within the area of operation of the Authority and to provide an adequate standard of living.

(c) It may rent or lease to a tenant a dwelling consisting of the number of rooms (but no greater number) which it deems necessary to provide safe and sanitary accommodations to the proposed occupants thereof, without overcrowding.

(d) It shall not change the residency preference of any prospective tenant once the application has been accepted by the authority.

(e) If an Authority desires a criminal history records check of all 50 states or a 50-state confirmation of a conviction record, the Authority shall submit the fingerprints of the relevant applicant, tenant, or other household member to the Illinois State Police in a manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Illinois State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Illinois State Police shall furnish pursuant to positive identification, records of conviction to the Authority. An Authority that requests a criminal history report of an applicant or other household member shall inform the applicant at the time of the request that the applicant or other household member may provide additional mitigating information for consideration with the application for housing.

(e-5) Criminal history record assessment. The Authority shall use the following process when evaluating the criminal history report of an applicant or other household member to determine whether to rent or lease to the applicant:

(1) Unless required by federal law, the Authority shall not consider the following information when determining whether to rent or lease to an applicant for housing:

(A) an arrest or detention;

(B) criminal charges or indictments, and the nature of any disposition arising therefrom, that do not result in a conviction;

(C) a conviction that has been vacated, ordered, expunged, sealed, or impounded by a court;

(D) matters under the jurisdiction of the Illinois Juvenile Court;

(E) the amount of time since the applicant or other household member completed his or her sentence in prison or jail or was released from prison or jail; or

(F) convictions occurring more than 180 days prior to the date the applicant submitted his or her application for housing.

(2) The Authority shall create a system for the independent review of criminal history reports:

(A) the reviewer shall examine the applicant's or other household member's criminal history report and report only those records not prohibited under paragraph (1) to the person or persons making the decision about whether to offer housing to the applicant; and

(B) the reviewer shall not participate in any final decisions on an applicant's application for housing.

(3) The Authority may deny an applicant's application for housing because of the applicant's or another household member's criminal history record, only if the Authority:

(A) determines that the denial is required under federal law; or

(B) determines that there is a direct relationship between the applicant or the other household member's criminal history record and a risk to the health, safety, and peaceful enjoyment of fellow tenants. The mere existence of a criminal history record does not demonstrate such a risk.

(f) It may, if a tenant has created or maintained a threat constituting a serious and clear danger to the health or safety of other tenants or Authority employees, after 3 days' written notice of termination and without a hearing, file suit against any such tenant for recovery of possession of the premises. The tenant shall be given the opportunity to contest the termination in the court proceedings. A serious and clear danger to the health or safety of other tenants or Authority employees shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following activities of the tenant or of any other person on the premises with the consent of the tenant:

(1) Physical assault or the threat of physical assault.

(2) Illegal use of a firearm or other weapon or the threat to use in an illegal manner a firearm or other weapon.

(3) Possession of a controlled substance by the tenant or any other person on the premises with the consent of the tenant if the tenant knew or should have known of the possession by the other person of a controlled substance, unless the controlled substance was obtained directly from or pursuant to a valid prescription.

(4) Streetgang membership as defined in the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

The management of low-rent public housing projects financed and developed under the U.S. Housing Act of 1937 shall be in accordance with that Act.

Nothing contained in this Section or any other Section of this Act shall be construed as limiting the power of an Authority to vest in a bondholder or trustee the right, in the event of a default by the Authority, to take possession and operate a housing project or cause the appointment of a receiver thereof, free from all restrictions imposed by this Section or any other Section of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-659, eff. 3-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

Section 515. The Adult Protective Services Act is amended by changing Section 3.5 as follows:

(320 ILCS 20/3.5)

Sec. 3.5. Other responsibilities. The Department shall also be responsible for the following activities, contingent upon adequate funding; implementation shall be expanded to adults with disabilities upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, except those responsibilities under subsection (a), which shall be undertaken as soon as practicable:

(a) promotion of a wide range of endeavors for the purpose of preventing abuse, abandonment, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect, including, but not limited to, promotion of public and professional education to increase awareness of abuse, abandonment, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect; to increase reports; to establish access to and use of the Registry established under Section 7.5; and to improve response by various legal, financial, social, and health systems;

(b) coordination of efforts with other agencies, councils, and like entities, to include but not be limited to, the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, the Office of the Attorney General, the Illinois State Police, the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, the State Triad, the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, the Departments of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, and Human Services, the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the Family Violence Coordinating Council, the Illinois Violence Prevention Authority, and other entities which may impact awareness of, and response to, abuse, abandonment, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect;

(c) collection and analysis of data;

(d) monitoring of the performance of regional administrative agencies and adult protective services agencies;

(e) promotion of prevention activities;

(f) establishing and coordinating an aggressive training program on the unique nature of adult abuse cases with other agencies, councils, and like entities, to include but not be limited to the Office of the Attorney General, the Illinois State Police, the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, the State Triad, the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, the State Departments of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, and Human Services, the Family Violence Coordinating Council, the Illinois Violence Prevention Authority, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act, and other entities that may impact awareness of and response to abuse, abandonment, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect;

(g) solicitation of financial institutions for the purpose of making information available to the general public warning of financial exploitation of adults and related financial fraud or abuse, including such information and warnings available through signage or other written materials provided by the Department on the premises of such financial institutions, provided that the manner of displaying or distributing such information is subject to the sole discretion of each financial institution;

(g-1) developing by joint rulemaking with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation minimum training standards which shall be used by financial institutions for their current and new employees with direct customer contact; the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall retain sole visitation and enforcement authority under this subsection (g-1); the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall provide bi-annual reports to the Department setting forth aggregate statistics on the training programs required under this subsection (g-1); and

(h) coordinating efforts with utility and electric companies to send notices in utility bills to explain to persons 60 years of age or older their rights regarding telemarketing and home repair fraud.

(Source: P.A. 102-244, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

Section 520. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 7.8 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 2053)

Sec. 3. As used in this Act unless the context otherwise requires:

"Adult resident" means any person between 18 and 22 years of age who resides in any facility licensed by the Department under the Child Care Act of 1969. For purposes of this Act, the criteria set forth in the definitions of "abused child" and "neglected child" shall be used in determining whether an adult resident is abused or neglected.

"Agency" means a child care facility licensed under Section 2.05 or Section 2.06 of the Child Care Act of 1969 and includes a transitional living program that accepts children and adult residents for placement who are in the guardianship of the Department.

"Blatant disregard" means an incident where the real, significant, and imminent risk of harm would be so obvious to a reasonable parent or caretaker that it is unlikely that a reasonable parent or caretaker would have exposed the child to the danger without exercising precautionary measures to protect the child from harm. With respect to a person working at an agency in his or her professional capacity with a child or adult resident, "blatant disregard" includes a failure by the person to perform job responsibilities intended to protect the child's or adult resident's health, physical well-being, or welfare, and, when viewed in light of the surrounding circumstances, evidence exists that would cause a reasonable person to believe that the child was neglected. With respect to an agency, "blatant disregard" includes a failure to implement practices that ensure the health, physical well-being, or welfare of the children and adult residents residing in the facility.

"Child" means any person under the age of 18 years, unless legally emancipated by reason of marriage or entry into a branch of the United States armed services.

"Department" means Department of Children and Family Services.

"Local law enforcement agency" means the police of a city, town, village or other incorporated area or the sheriff of an unincorporated area or any sworn officer of the Illinois Department of State Police.

"Abused child" means a child whose parent or immediate family member, or any person responsible for the child's welfare, or any individual residing in the same home as the child, or a paramour of the child's parent:

(a) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be inflicted upon such child physical injury, by other than accidental means, which causes death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(b) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to such child by other than accidental means which would be likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any bodily function;

(c) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense against such child, as such sex offenses are defined in the Criminal Code of 2012 or in the Wrongs to Children Act, and extending those definitions of sex offenses to include children under 18 years of age;

(d) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of torture upon such child;

(e) inflicts excessive corporal punishment or, in the case of a person working for an agency who is prohibited from using corporal punishment, inflicts corporal punishment upon a child or adult resident with whom the person is working in his or her professional capacity;

(f) commits or allows to be committed the offense of female genital mutilation, as defined in Section 12-34 of the Criminal Code of 2012, against the child;

(g) causes to be sold, transferred, distributed, or given to such child under 18 years of age, a controlled substance as defined in Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act in violation of Article IV of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or in violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, except for controlled substances that are prescribed in accordance with Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act and are dispensed to such child in a manner that substantially complies with the prescription;

(h) commits or allows to be committed the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons as defined in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 against the child; or

(i) commits the offense of grooming, as defined in Section 11-25 of the Criminal Code of 2012, against the child.

A child shall not be considered abused for the sole reason that the child has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.

"Neglected child" means any child who is not receiving the proper or necessary nourishment or medically indicated treatment including food or care not provided solely on the basis of the present or anticipated mental or physical impairment as determined by a physician acting alone or in consultation with other physicians or otherwise is not receiving the proper or necessary support or medical or other remedial care recognized under State law as necessary for a child's well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being, including adequate food, clothing and shelter; or who is subjected to an environment which is injurious insofar as (i) the child's environment creates a likelihood of harm to the child's health, physical well-being, or welfare and (ii) the likely harm to the child is the result of a blatant disregard of parent, caretaker, person responsible for the child's welfare, or agency responsibilities; or who is abandoned by his or her parents or other person responsible for the child's welfare without a proper plan of care; or who has been provided with interim crisis intervention services under Section 3-5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and whose parent, guardian, or custodian refuses to permit the child to return home and no other living arrangement agreeable to the parent, guardian, or custodian can be made, and the parent, guardian, or custodian has not made any other appropriate living arrangement for the child; or who is a newborn infant whose blood, urine, or meconium contains any amount of a controlled substance as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a metabolite thereof, with the exception of a controlled substance or metabolite thereof whose presence in the newborn infant is the result of medical treatment administered to the mother or the newborn infant. A child shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible for his or her welfare has left the child in the care of an adult relative for any period of time. A child shall not be considered neglected for the sole reason that the child has been relinquished in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act. A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the sole reason that such child's parent or other person responsible for his or her welfare depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care as provided under Section 4 of this Act. A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of The School Code, as amended.

"Child Protective Service Unit" means certain specialized State employees of the Department assigned by the Director to perform the duties and responsibilities as provided under Section 7.2 of this Act.

"Near fatality" means an act that, as certified by a physician, places the child in serious or critical condition, including acts of great bodily harm inflicted upon children under 13 years of age, and as otherwise defined by Department rule.

"Great bodily harm" includes bodily injury which creates a high probability of death, or which causes serious permanent disfigurement, or which causes a permanent or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ, or other serious bodily harm.

"Person responsible for the child's welfare" means the child's parent; guardian; foster parent; relative caregiver; any person responsible for the child's welfare in a public or private residential agency or institution; any person responsible for the child's welfare within a public or private profit or not for profit child care facility; or any other person responsible for the child's welfare at the time of the alleged abuse or neglect, including any person who commits or allows to be committed, against the child, the offense of involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons for forced labor or services, as provided in Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, including, but not limited to, the custodian of the minor, or any person who came to know the child through an official capacity or position of trust, including, but not limited to, health care professionals, educational personnel, recreational supervisors, members of the clergy, and volunteers or support personnel in any setting where children may be subject to abuse or neglect.

"Temporary protective custody" means custody within a hospital or other medical facility or a place previously designated for such custody by the Department, subject to review by the Court, including a licensed foster home, group home, or other institution; but such place shall not be a jail or other place for the detention of criminal or juvenile offenders.

"An unfounded report" means any report made under this Act for which it is determined after an investigation that no credible evidence of abuse or neglect exists.

"An indicated report" means a report made under this Act if an investigation determines that credible evidence of the alleged abuse or neglect exists.

"An undetermined report" means any report made under this Act in which it was not possible to initiate or complete an investigation on the basis of information provided to the Department.

"Subject of report" means any child reported to the central register of child abuse and neglect established under Section 7.7 of this Act as an alleged victim of child abuse or neglect and the parent or guardian of the alleged victim or other person responsible for the alleged victim's welfare who is named in the report or added to the report as an alleged perpetrator of child abuse or neglect.

"Perpetrator" means a person who, as a result of investigation, has been determined by the Department to have caused child abuse or neglect.

"Member of the clergy" means a clergyman or practitioner of any religious denomination accredited by the religious body to which he or she belongs.

(Source: P.A. 102-567, eff. 1-1-22; 102-676, eff. 12-3-21; revised 1-15-22.)

(325 ILCS 5/7.8)

Sec. 7.8. Upon receiving an oral or written report of suspected child abuse or neglect, the Department shall immediately notify, either orally or electronically, the Child Protective Service Unit of a previous report concerning a subject of the present report or other pertinent information. In addition, upon satisfactory identification procedures, to be established by Department regulation, any person authorized to have access to records under Section 11.1 relating to child abuse and neglect may request and shall be immediately provided the information requested in accordance with this Act. However, no information shall be released unless it prominently states the report is "indicated", and only information from "indicated" reports shall be released, except that:

(1) Information concerning pending reports may be released pursuant to Sections 7.14 and 7.22 of this Act to the attorney or guardian ad litem appointed under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and to any person authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (11) of subsection (a) of Section 11.1.

(2) State's Attorneys are authorized to receive unfounded reports:

(A) for prosecution purposes related to the transmission of false reports of child abuse or neglect in violation of subsection (a), paragraph (7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(B) for the purposes of screening and prosecuting a petition filed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging abuse or neglect relating to the same child, a sibling of the child, the same perpetrator, or a child or perpetrator in the same household as the child for whom the petition is being filed.

(3) The parties to the proceedings filed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 are entitled to receive copies of unfounded reports regarding the same child, a sibling of the child, the same perpetrator, or a child or perpetrator in the same household as the child for purposes of hearings under Sections 2-10 and 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Attorneys and guardians ad litem appointed under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall receive the reports set forth in Section 7.14 of this Act in conformance with paragraph (19) of subsection (a) of Section 11.1 and Section 7.14 of this Act.

(5) The Department of Public Health shall receive information from unfounded reports involving children alleged to have been abused or neglected while hospitalized, including while hospitalized in freestanding psychiatric hospitals licensed by the Department of Public Health, as necessary for the Department of Public Health to conduct its licensing investigation.

(6) The Department is authorized and required to release information from unfounded reports, upon request by a person who has access to the unfounded report as provided in this Act, as necessary in its determination to protect children and adult residents who are in child care facilities licensed by the Department under the Child Care Act of 1969. The names and other identifying data and the dates and the circumstances of any persons requesting or receiving information from the central register shall be entered in the register record.

(Source: P.A. 101-43, eff. 1-1-20; 102-532, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-24-21.)

Section 525. The Early Intervention Services System Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(325 ILCS 20/11) (from Ch. 23, par. 4161)

Sec. 11. Individualized Family Service Plans.

(a) Each eligible infant or toddler and that infant's or toddler's family shall receive:

(1) timely, comprehensive, multidisciplinary assessment of the unique strengths and needs of each eligible infant and toddler, and assessment of the concerns and priorities of the families to appropriately assist them in meeting their needs and identify supports and services to meet those needs; and

(2) a written Individualized Family Service Plan developed by a multidisciplinary team which includes the parent or guardian. The individualized family service plan shall be based on the multidisciplinary team's assessment of the resources, priorities, and concerns of the family and its identification of the supports and services necessary to enhance the family's capacity to meet the developmental needs of the infant or toddler, and shall include the identification of services appropriate to meet those needs, including the frequency, intensity, and method of delivering services. During and as part of the initial development of the individualized family services plan, and any periodic reviews of the plan, the multidisciplinary team may seek consultation from the lead agency's designated experts, if any, to help determine appropriate services and the frequency and intensity of those services. All services in the individualized family services plan must be justified by the multidisciplinary assessment of the unique strengths and needs of the infant or toddler and must be appropriate to meet those needs. At the periodic reviews, the team shall determine whether modification or revision of the outcomes or services is necessary.

(b) The Individualized Family Service Plan shall be evaluated once a year and the family shall be provided a review of the Plan at 6-month 6 month intervals or more often where appropriate based on infant or toddler and family needs. The lead agency shall create a quality review process regarding Individualized Family Service Plan development and changes thereto, to monitor and help ensure assure that resources are being used to provide appropriate early intervention services.

(c) The initial evaluation and initial assessment and initial Plan meeting must be held within 45 days after the initial contact with the early intervention services system. The 45-day timeline does not apply for any period when the child or parent is unavailable to complete the initial evaluation, the initial assessments of the child and family, or the initial Plan meeting, due to exceptional family circumstances that are documented in the child's early intervention records, or when the parent has not provided consent for the initial evaluation or the initial assessment of the child despite documented, repeated attempts to obtain parental consent. As soon as exceptional family circumstances no longer exist or parental consent has been obtained, the initial evaluation, the initial assessment, and the initial Plan meeting must be completed as soon as possible. With parental consent, early intervention services may commence before the completion of the comprehensive assessment and development of the Plan.

(d) Parents must be informed that early intervention services shall be provided to each eligible infant and toddler, to the maximum extent appropriate, in the natural environment, which may include the home or other community settings. Parents must also be informed of the availability of early intervention services provided through telehealth services. Parents shall make the final decision to accept or decline early intervention services, including whether accepted services are delivered in person or via telehealth services. A decision to decline such services shall not be a basis for administrative determination of parental fitness, or other findings or sanctions against the parents. Parameters of the Plan shall be set forth in rules.

(e) The regional intake offices shall explain to each family, orally and in writing, all of the following:

(1) That the early intervention program will pay for all early intervention services set forth in the individualized family service plan that are not covered or paid under the family's public or private insurance plan or policy and not eligible for payment through any other third party payor.

(2) That services will not be delayed due to any rules or restrictions under the family's insurance plan or policy.

(3) That the family may request, with appropriate documentation supporting the request, a determination of an exemption from private insurance use under Section 13.25.

(4) That responsibility for co-payments or co-insurance under a family's private insurance plan or policy will be transferred to the lead agency's central billing office.

(5) That families will be responsible for payments of family fees, which will be based on a sliding scale according to the State's definition of ability to pay which is comparing household size and income to the sliding scale and considering out-of-pocket medical or disaster expenses, and that these fees are payable to the central billing office. Families who fail to provide income information shall be charged the maximum amount on the sliding scale.

(f) The individualized family service plan must state whether the family has private insurance coverage and, if the family has such coverage, must have attached to it a copy of the family's insurance identification card or otherwise include all of the following information:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the insurance carrier.

(2) The contract number and policy number of the insurance plan.

(3) The name, address, and social security number of the primary insured.

(4) The beginning date of the insurance benefit year.

(g) A copy of the individualized family service plan must be provided to each enrolled provider who is providing early intervention services to the child who is the subject of that plan.

(h) Children receiving services under this Act shall receive a smooth and effective transition by their third birthday consistent with federal regulations adopted pursuant to Sections 1431 through 1444 of Title 20 of the United States Code. Beginning January 1, 2022, children who receive early intervention services prior to their third birthday and are found eligible for an individualized education program under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, 20 U.S.C. 1414(d)(1)(A), and under Section 14-8.02 of the School Code and whose birthday falls between May 1 and August 31 may continue to receive early intervention services until the beginning of the school year following their third birthday in order to minimize gaps in services, ensure better continuity of care, and align practices for the enrollment of preschool children with special needs to the enrollment practices of typically developing preschool children.

(Source: P.A. 101-654, eff. 3-8-21; 102-104, eff. 7-22-21; 102-209, eff. 11-30-21 (See Section 5 of P.A. 102-671 for effective date of P.A. 102-209); revised 12-1-21.)

Section 530. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 1a, 5, and 6.4 as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/1a) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-1a)

Sec. 1a. Definitions.

(a) In this Act:

"Advanced practice registered nurse" has the meaning provided in Section 50-10 of the Nurse Practice Act.

"Ambulance provider" means an individual or entity that owns and operates a business or service using ambulances or emergency medical services vehicles to transport emergency patients.

"Approved pediatric health care facility" means a health care facility, other than a hospital, with a sexual assault treatment plan approved by the Department to provide medical forensic services to pediatric sexual assault survivors who present with a complaint of sexual assault within a minimum of the last 7 days or who have disclosed past sexual assault by a specific individual and were in the care of that individual within a minimum of the last 7 days.

"Areawide sexual assault treatment plan" means a plan, developed by hospitals or by hospitals and approved pediatric health care facilities in a community or area to be served, which provides for medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors that shall be made available by each of the participating hospitals and approved pediatric health care facilities.

"Board-certified child abuse pediatrician" means a physician certified by the American Board of Pediatrics in child abuse pediatrics.

"Board-eligible child abuse pediatrician" means a physician who has completed the requirements set forth by the American Board of Pediatrics to take the examination for certification in child abuse pediatrics.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Emergency contraception" means medication as approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that can significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within 72 hours after sexual assault.

"Follow-up healthcare" means healthcare services related to a sexual assault, including laboratory services and pharmacy services, rendered within 90 days of the initial visit for medical forensic services.

"Health care professional" means a physician, a physician assistant, a sexual assault forensic examiner, an advanced practice registered nurse, a registered professional nurse, a licensed practical nurse, or a sexual assault nurse examiner.

"Hospital" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, any outpatient center included in the hospital's sexual assault treatment plan where hospital employees provide medical forensic services, and an out-of-state hospital that has consented to the jurisdiction of the Department under Section 2.06.

"Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit" means a prepackaged set of materials and forms to be used for the collection of evidence relating to sexual assault. The standardized evidence collection kit for the State of Illinois shall be the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit.

"Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction where an alleged sexual assault or sexual abuse occurred.

"Licensed practical nurse" has the meaning provided in Section 50-10 of the Nurse Practice Act.

"Medical forensic services" means health care delivered to patients within or under the care and supervision of personnel working in a designated emergency department of a hospital or an approved pediatric health care facility. "Medical forensic services" includes, but is not limited to, taking a medical history, performing photo documentation, performing a physical and anogenital examination, assessing the patient for evidence collection, collecting evidence in accordance with a statewide sexual assault evidence collection program administered by the Illinois State Police using the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit, if appropriate, assessing the patient for drug-facilitated or alcohol-facilitated sexual assault, providing an evaluation of and care for sexually transmitted infection and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), pregnancy risk evaluation and care, and discharge and follow-up healthcare planning.

"Pediatric health care facility" means a clinic or physician's office that provides medical services to pediatric patients.

"Pediatric sexual assault survivor" means a person under the age of 13 who presents for medical forensic services in relation to injuries or trauma resulting from a sexual assault.

"Photo documentation" means digital photographs or colposcope videos stored and backed up securely in the original file format.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

"Physician assistant" has the meaning provided in Section 4 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

"Prepubescent sexual assault survivor" means a female who is under the age of 18 years and has not had a first menstrual cycle or a male who is under the age of 18 years and has not started to develop secondary sex characteristics who presents for medical forensic services in relation to injuries or trauma resulting from a sexual assault.

"Qualified medical provider" means a board-certified child abuse pediatrician, board-eligible child abuse pediatrician, a sexual assault forensic examiner, or a sexual assault nurse examiner who has access to photo documentation tools, and who participates in peer review.

"Registered Professional Nurse" has the meaning provided in Section 50-10 of the Nurse Practice Act.

"Sexual assault" means:

(1) an act of sexual conduct; as used in this paragraph, "sexual conduct" has the meaning provided under Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(2) any act of sexual penetration; as used in this paragraph, "sexual penetration" has the meaning provided under Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 and includes, without limitation, acts prohibited under Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Sexual assault forensic examiner" means a physician or physician assistant who has completed training that meets or is substantially similar to the Sexual Assault Nurse Examiner Education Guidelines established by the International Association of Forensic Nurses.

"Sexual assault nurse examiner" means an advanced practice registered nurse or registered professional nurse who has completed a sexual assault nurse examiner training program that meets the Sexual Assault Nurse Examiner Education Guidelines established by the International Association of Forensic Nurses.

"Sexual assault services voucher" means a document generated by a hospital or approved pediatric health care facility at the time the sexual assault survivor receives outpatient medical forensic services that may be used to seek payment for any ambulance services, medical forensic services, laboratory services, pharmacy services, and follow-up healthcare provided as a result of the sexual assault.

"Sexual assault survivor" means a person who presents for medical forensic services in relation to injuries or trauma resulting from a sexual assault.

"Sexual assault transfer plan" means a written plan developed by a hospital and approved by the Department, which describes the hospital's procedures for transferring sexual assault survivors to another hospital, and an approved pediatric health care facility, if applicable, in order to receive medical forensic services.

"Sexual assault treatment plan" means a written plan that describes the procedures and protocols for providing medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors who present themselves for such services, either directly or through transfer from a hospital or an approved pediatric health care facility.

"Transfer hospital" means a hospital with a sexual assault transfer plan approved by the Department.

"Transfer services" means the appropriate medical screening examination and necessary stabilizing treatment prior to the transfer of a sexual assault survivor to a hospital or an approved pediatric health care facility that provides medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors pursuant to a sexual assault treatment plan or areawide sexual assault treatment plan.

"Treatment hospital" means a hospital with a sexual assault treatment plan approved by the Department to provide medical forensic services to all sexual assault survivors who present with a complaint of sexual assault within a minimum of the last 7 days or who have disclosed past sexual assault by a specific individual and were in the care of that individual within a minimum of the last 7 days.

"Treatment hospital with approved pediatric transfer" means a hospital with a treatment plan approved by the Department to provide medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors 13 years old or older who present with a complaint of sexual assault within a minimum of the last 7 days or who have disclosed past sexual assault by a specific individual and were in the care of that individual within a minimum of the last 7 days.

(b) This Section is effective on and after January 1, 2024 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-634, eff. 6-5-20; 102-22, eff. 6-25-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-674, eff. 11-30-21; revised 12-16-21.)

(410 ILCS 70/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)

Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for medical forensic services provided to sexual assault survivors by hospitals and approved pediatric health care facilities.

(a) Every hospital and approved pediatric health care facility providing medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors under this Act shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide, with the consent of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant, the services set forth in subsection (a-5).

Beginning January 1, 2023, a qualified medical provider must provide the services set forth in subsection (a-5).

(a-5) A treatment hospital, a treatment hospital with approved pediatric transfer, or an approved pediatric health care facility shall provide the following services in accordance with subsection (a):

(1) Appropriate medical forensic services without delay, in a private, age-appropriate or developmentally-appropriate space, required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of a sexual assault survivor and which may be used as evidence in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the sexual assault, in a proceeding under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or in an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

Records of medical forensic services, including results of examinations and tests, the Illinois State Police Medical Forensic Documentation Forms, the Illinois State Police Patient Discharge Materials, and the Illinois State Police Patient Consent: Collect and Test Evidence or Collect and Hold Evidence Form, shall be maintained by the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility as part of the patient's electronic medical record.

Records of medical forensic services of sexual assault survivors under the age of 18 shall be retained by the hospital for a period of 60 years after the sexual assault survivor reaches the age of 18. Records of medical forensic services of sexual assault survivors 18 years of age or older shall be retained by the hospital for a period of 20 years after the date the record was created.

Records of medical forensic services may only be disseminated in accordance with Section 6.5 of this Act and other State and federal law.

(1.5) An offer to complete the Illinois Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit for any sexual assault survivor who presents within a minimum of the last 7 days of the assault or who has disclosed past sexual assault by a specific individual and was in the care of that individual within a minimum of the last 7 days.

(A) Appropriate oral and written information concerning evidence-based guidelines for the appropriateness of evidence collection depending on the sexual development of the sexual assault survivor, the type of sexual assault, and the timing of the sexual assault shall be provided to the sexual assault survivor. Evidence collection is encouraged for prepubescent sexual assault survivors who present to a hospital or approved pediatric health care facility with a complaint of sexual assault within a minimum of 96 hours after the sexual assault.

Before January 1, 2023, the information required under this subparagraph shall be provided in person by the health care professional providing medical forensic services directly to the sexual assault survivor.

On and after January 1, 2023, the information required under this subparagraph shall be provided in person by the qualified medical provider providing medical forensic services directly to the sexual assault survivor.

The written information provided shall be the information created in accordance with Section 10 of this Act.

(B) Following the discussion regarding the evidence-based guidelines for evidence collection in accordance with subparagraph (A), evidence collection must be completed at the sexual assault survivor's request. A sexual assault nurse examiner conducting an examination using the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit may do so without the presence or participation of a physician.

(2) Appropriate oral and written information concerning the possibility of infection, sexually transmitted infection, including an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from sexual assault, and pregnancy resulting from sexual assault.

(3) Appropriate oral and written information concerning accepted medical procedures, laboratory tests, medication, and possible contraindications of such medication available for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease resulting from sexual assault.

(3.5) After a medical evidentiary or physical examination, access to a shower at no cost, unless showering facilities are unavailable.

(4) An amount of medication, including HIV prophylaxis, for treatment at the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by the attending physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant in accordance with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines and consistent with the hospital's or approved pediatric health care facility's current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors.

(5) Photo documentation of the sexual assault survivor's injuries, anatomy involved in the assault, or other visible evidence on the sexual assault survivor's body to supplement the medical forensic history and written documentation of physical findings and evidence beginning July 1, 2019. Photo documentation does not replace written documentation of the injury.

(6) Written and oral instructions indicating the need for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of sexually transmitted infection.

(7) Referral by hospital or approved pediatric health care facility personnel for appropriate counseling.

(8) Medical advocacy services provided by a rape crisis counselor whose communications are protected under Section 8-802.1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, if there is a memorandum of understanding between the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility and a rape crisis center. With the consent of the sexual assault survivor, a rape crisis counselor shall remain in the exam room during the medical forensic examination.

(9) Written information regarding services provided by a Children's Advocacy Center and rape crisis center, if applicable.

(10) A treatment hospital, a treatment hospital with approved pediatric transfer, an out-of-state hospital as defined in Section 5.4, or an approved pediatric health care facility shall comply with the rules relating to the collection and tracking of sexual assault evidence adopted by the Illinois State Police under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act.

(11) Written information regarding the Illinois State Police sexual assault evidence tracking system.

(a-7) By January 1, 2023, every hospital with a treatment plan approved by the Department shall employ or contract with a qualified medical provider to initiate medical forensic services to a sexual assault survivor within 90 minutes of the patient presenting to the treatment hospital or treatment hospital with approved pediatric transfer. The provision of medical forensic services by a qualified medical provider shall not delay the provision of life-saving medical care.

(b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks medical forensic services or follow-up healthcare under this Act shall be provided such services without the consent of any parent, guardian, custodian, surrogate, or agent. If a sexual assault survivor is unable to consent to medical forensic services, the services may be provided under the Consent by Minors to Health Care Services Medical Procedures Act, the Health Care Surrogate Act, or other applicable State and federal laws.

(b-5) Every hospital or approved pediatric health care facility providing medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors shall issue a voucher to any sexual assault survivor who is eligible to receive one in accordance with Section 5.2 of this Act. The hospital shall make a copy of the voucher and place it in the medical record of the sexual assault survivor. The hospital shall provide a copy of the voucher to the sexual assault survivor after discharge upon request.

(c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility.

(d) This Section is effective on and after January 1, 2024 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-377, eff. 8-16-19; 101-634, eff. 6-5-20; 102-22, eff. 6-25-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-674, eff. 11-30-21; revised 12-16-21.)

(410 ILCS 70/6.4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-6.4)

Sec. 6.4. Sexual assault evidence collection program.

(a) There is created a statewide sexual assault evidence collection program to facilitate the prosecution of persons accused of sexual assault. This program shall be administered by the Illinois State Police. The program shall consist of the following: (1) distribution of sexual assault evidence collection kits which have been approved by the Illinois State Police to hospitals and approved pediatric health care facilities that request them, or arranging for such distribution by the manufacturer of the kits, (2) collection of the kits from hospitals and approved pediatric health care facilities after the kits have been used to collect evidence, (3) analysis of the collected evidence and conducting of laboratory tests, (4) maintaining the chain of custody and safekeeping of the evidence for use in a legal proceeding, and (5) the comparison of the collected evidence with the genetic marker grouping analysis information maintained by the Illinois State Police under Section 5-4-3 of the Unified Code of Corrections and with the information contained in the Federal Bureau of Investigation's National DNA database; provided the amount and quality of genetic marker grouping results obtained from the evidence in the sexual assault case meets the requirements of both the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) policies. The standardized evidence collection kit for the State of Illinois shall be the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Kit and shall include a written consent form authorizing law enforcement to test the sexual assault evidence and to provide law enforcement with details of the sexual assault.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) The Illinois State Police shall administer a program to train hospital and approved pediatric health care facility personnel participating in the sexual assault evidence collection program, in the correct use and application of the sexual assault evidence collection kits. The Department shall cooperate with the Illinois State Police in this program as it pertains to medical aspects of the evidence collection.

(c) (Blank).

(d) This Section is effective on and after January 1, 2024 2022.

(Source: P.A. 101-634, eff. 6-5-20; 102-22, eff. 6-25-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-674, eff. 11-30-21; revised 12-16-21.)

Section 535. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act is amended by changing Sections 100 and 145 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/100)

Sec. 100. Cultivation center agent identification card.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall:

(1) verify the information contained in an application or renewal for a cultivation center identification card submitted under this Act, and approve or deny an application or renewal, within 30 days of receiving a completed application or renewal application and all supporting documentation required by rule;

(2) issue a cultivation center agent identification card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of approving the application or renewal;

(3) enter the registry identification number of the cultivation center where the agent works; and

(4) allow for an electronic application process, and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted.

(b) A cultivation center agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when on the property of a cultivation center and during the transportation of medical cannabis to a registered dispensary organization.

(c) The cultivation center agent identification cards shall contain the following:

(1) the name of the cardholder;

(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of cultivation center agent identification cards;

(3) a random 10-digit 10 digit alphanumeric identification number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4 letters; that is unique to the holder; and

(4) a photograph of the cardholder.

(d) The cultivation center agent identification cards shall be immediately returned to the cultivation center upon termination of employment.

(e) Any card lost by a cultivation center agent shall be reported to the Illinois State Police and the Department of Agriculture immediately upon discovery of the loss.

(f) An applicant shall be denied a cultivation center agent identification card if he or she has been convicted of an excluded offense.

(g) An agent applicant may begin employment at a cultivation center while the agent applicant's identification card application is pending. Upon approval, the Department shall issue the agent's identification card to the agent. If denied, the cultivation center and the agent applicant shall be notified and the agent applicant must cease all activity at the cultivation center immediately.

(Source: P.A. 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(410 ILCS 130/145)

Sec. 145. Confidentiality.

(a) The following information received and records kept by the Department of Public Health, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, Department of Agriculture, or Illinois State Police for purposes of administering this Act are subject to all applicable federal privacy laws, confidential, and exempt from the Freedom of Information Act, and not subject to disclosure to any individual or public or private entity, except as necessary for authorized employees of those authorized agencies to perform official duties under this Act and the following information received and records kept by Department of Public Health, Department of Agriculture, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and Illinois State Police, excluding any existing or non-existing Illinois or national criminal history record information as defined in subsection (d), may be disclosed to each other upon request:

(1) Applications and renewals, their contents, and supporting information submitted by qualifying patients and designated caregivers, including information regarding their designated caregivers and certifying health care professionals.

(2) Applications and renewals, their contents, and supporting information submitted by or on behalf of cultivation centers and dispensing organizations in compliance with this Act, including their physical addresses. This does not preclude the release of ownership information of cannabis business establishment licenses.

(3) The individual names and other information identifying persons to whom the Department of Public Health has issued registry identification cards.

(4) Any dispensing information required to be kept under Section 135, Section 150, or Department of Public Health, Department of Agriculture, or Department of Financial and Professional Regulation rules shall identify cardholders and registered cultivation centers by their registry identification numbers and medical cannabis dispensing organizations by their registration number and not contain names or other personally identifying information.

(5) All medical records provided to the Department of Public Health in connection with an application for a registry card.

(b) Nothing in this Section precludes the following:

(1) Department of Agriculture, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or Public Health employees may notify law enforcement about falsified or fraudulent information submitted to the Departments if the employee who suspects that falsified or fraudulent information has been submitted conferred with his or her supervisor and both agree that circumstances exist that warrant reporting.

(2) If the employee conferred with his or her supervisor and both agree that circumstances exist that warrant reporting, Department of Public Health employees may notify the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation if there is reasonable cause to believe a certifying health care professional:

(A) issued a written certification without a bona fide health care professional-patient relationship under this Act;

(B) issued a written certification to a person who was not under the certifying health care professional's care for the debilitating medical condition; or

(C) failed to abide by the acceptable and prevailing standard of care when evaluating a patient's medical condition.

(3) The Department of Public Health, Department of Agriculture, and Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may notify State or local law enforcement about apparent criminal violations of this Act if the employee who suspects the offense has conferred with his or her supervisor and both agree that circumstances exist that warrant reporting.

(4) Medical cannabis cultivation center agents and medical cannabis dispensing organizations may notify the Department of Public Health, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or Department of Agriculture of a suspected violation or attempted violation of this Act or the rules issued under it.

(5) Each Department may verify registry identification cards under Section 150.

(6) The submission of the report to the General Assembly under Section 160.

(b-5) Each Department responsible for licensure under this Act shall publish on the Department's website a list of the ownership information of cannabis business establishment licensees under the Department's jurisdiction. The list shall include, but shall not be limited to, the name of the person or entity holding each cannabis business establishment license and the address at which the entity is operating under this Act. This list shall be published and updated monthly.

(c) Except for any ownership information released pursuant to subsection (b-5) or as otherwise authorized or required by law, it is a Class B misdemeanor with a $1,000 fine for any person, including an employee or official of the Department of Public Health, Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or Department of Agriculture or another State agency or local government, to breach the confidentiality of information obtained under this Act.

(d) The Department of Public Health, the Department of Agriculture, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall not share or disclose any existing or non-existing Illinois or national criminal history record information. For the purposes of this Section, "any existing or non-existing Illinois or national criminal history record information" means any Illinois or national criminal history record information, including but not limited to the lack of or non-existence of these records.

(Source: P.A. 101-363, eff. 8-9-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

Section 540. The Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 1-10, 15-25, 15-30, 15-40, 15-135, 20-30, 25-30, 25-35, 30-30, 35-25, 35-30, 40-25, 40-30, and 55-30 as follows:

(410 ILCS 705/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license issued by the Department of Agriculture that permits a person to act as a cultivation center under this Act and any administrative rule made in furtherance of this Act.

"Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that permits a person to act as a dispensing organization under this Act and any administrative rule made in furtherance of this Act.

"Advertise" means to engage in promotional activities including, but not limited to: newspaper, radio, Internet and electronic media, and television advertising; the distribution of fliers and circulars; billboard advertising; and the display of window and interior signs. "Advertise" does not mean exterior signage displaying only the name of the licensed cannabis business establishment.

"Application points" means the number of points a Dispensary Applicant receives on an application for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"BLS Region" means a region in Illinois used by the United States Bureau of Labor Statistics to gather and categorize certain employment and wage data. The 17 such regions in Illinois are: Bloomington, Cape Girardeau, Carbondale-Marion, Champaign-Urbana, Chicago-Naperville-Elgin, Danville, Davenport-Moline-Rock Island, Decatur, Kankakee, Peoria, Rockford, St. Louis, Springfield, Northwest Illinois nonmetropolitan area, West Central Illinois nonmetropolitan area, East Central Illinois nonmetropolitan area, and South Illinois nonmetropolitan area.

"By lot" means a randomized method of choosing between 2 or more Eligible Tied Applicants or 2 or more Qualifying Applicants.

"Cannabis" means marijuana, hashish, and other substances that are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis sativa and including derivatives or subspecies, such as indica, of all strains of cannabis, whether growing or not; the seeds thereof, the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds, or resin, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) and all other naturally produced cannabinol derivatives, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction; however, "cannabis" does not include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the mature stalks (except the resin extracted from it), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed of the plant that is incapable of germination. "Cannabis" does not include industrial hemp as defined and authorized under the Industrial Hemp Act. "Cannabis" also means cannabis flower, concentrate, and cannabis-infused products.

"Cannabis business establishment" means a cultivation center, craft grower, processing organization, infuser organization, dispensing organization, or transporting organization.

"Cannabis concentrate" means a product derived from cannabis that is produced by extracting cannabinoids, including tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), from the plant through the use of propylene glycol, glycerin, butter, olive oil, or other typical cooking fats; water, ice, or dry ice; or butane, propane, CO₂, ethanol, or isopropanol and with the intended use of smoking or making a cannabis-infused product. The use of any other solvent is expressly prohibited unless and until it is approved by the Department of Agriculture.

"Cannabis container" means a sealed or resealable, traceable, container, or package used for the purpose of containment of cannabis or cannabis-infused product during transportation.

"Cannabis flower" means marijuana, hashish, and other substances that are identified as including any parts of the plant Cannabis sativa and including derivatives or subspecies, such as indica, of all strains of cannabis; including raw kief, leaves, and buds, but not resin that has been extracted from any part of such plant; nor any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, or resin.

"Cannabis-infused product" means a beverage, food, oil, ointment, tincture, topical formulation, or another product containing cannabis or cannabis concentrate that is not intended to be smoked.

"Cannabis paraphernalia" means equipment, products, or materials intended to be used for planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, ingesting, or otherwise introducing cannabis into the human body.

"Cannabis plant monitoring system" or "plant monitoring system" means a system that includes, but is not limited to, testing and data collection established and maintained by the cultivation center, craft grower, or processing organization and that is available to the Department of Revenue, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Illinois State Police for the purposes of documenting each cannabis plant and monitoring plant development throughout the life cycle of a cannabis plant cultivated for the intended use by a customer from seed planting to final packaging.

"Cannabis testing facility" means an entity registered by the Department of Agriculture to test cannabis for potency and contaminants.

"Clone" means a plant section from a female cannabis plant not yet rootbound, growing in a water solution or other propagation matrix, that is capable of developing into a new plant.

"Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant" means a person who is 21 years of age or older, licensed by the Department of Agriculture, and is employed or contracted by an Illinois community college to provide student instruction using cannabis plants at an Illinois Community College.

"Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant.

"Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a contingent license awarded to applicants for an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License that reserves the right to an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License if the applicant meets certain conditions described in this Act, but does not entitle the recipient to begin purchasing or selling cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

"Conditional Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license awarded to top-scoring applicants for an Adult Use Cultivation Center License that reserves the right to an Adult Use Cultivation Center License if the applicant meets certain conditions as determined by the Department of Agriculture by rule, but does not entitle the recipient to begin growing, processing, or selling cannabis or cannabis-infused products.

"Craft grower" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to cultivate, dry, cure, and package cannabis and perform other necessary activities to make cannabis available for sale at a dispensing organization or use at a processing organization. A craft grower may contain up to 5,000 square feet of canopy space on its premises for plants in the flowering state. The Department of Agriculture may authorize an increase or decrease of flowering stage cultivation space in increments of 3,000 square feet by rule based on market need, craft grower capacity, and the licensee's history of compliance or noncompliance, with a maximum space of 14,000 square feet for cultivating plants in the flowering stage, which must be cultivated in all stages of growth in an enclosed and secure area. A craft grower may share premises with a processing organization or a dispensing organization, or both, provided each licensee stores currency and cannabis or cannabis-infused products in a separate secured vault to which the other licensee does not have access or all licensees sharing a vault share more than 50% of the same ownership.

"Craft grower agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or other agent of a craft grower who is 21 years of age or older.

"Craft Grower Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a craft grower agent.

"Cultivation center" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to cultivate, process, transport (unless otherwise limited by this Act), and perform other necessary activities to provide cannabis and cannabis-infused products to cannabis business establishments.

"Cultivation center agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or other agent of a cultivation center who is 21 years of age or older.

"Cultivation Center Agent Identification Card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a cultivation center agent.

"Currency" means currency and coin of the United States.

"Dispensary" means a facility operated by a dispensing organization at which activities licensed by this Act may occur.

"Dispensary Applicant" means the Proposed Dispensing Organization Name as stated on an application for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"Dispensing organization" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation to acquire cannabis from a cultivation center, craft grower, processing organization, or another dispensary for the purpose of selling or dispensing cannabis, cannabis-infused products, cannabis seeds, paraphernalia, or related supplies under this Act to purchasers or to qualified registered medical cannabis patients and caregivers. As used in this Act, "dispensing organization" includes a registered medical cannabis organization as defined in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act or its successor Act that has obtained an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

"Dispensing organization agent" means a principal officer, employee, or agent of a dispensing organization who is 21 years of age or older.

"Dispensing organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation that identifies a person as a dispensing organization agent.

"Disproportionately Impacted Area" means a census tract or comparable geographic area that satisfies the following criteria as determined by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, that:

(1) meets at least one of the following criteria:

(A) the area has a poverty rate of at least 20% according to the latest federal decennial census; or

(B) 75% or more of the children in the area participate in the federal free lunch program according to reported statistics from the State Board of Education; or

(C) at least 20% of the households in the area receive assistance under the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program; or

(D) the area has an average unemployment rate, as determined by the Illinois Department of Employment Security, that is more than 120% of the national unemployment average, as determined by the United States Department of Labor, for a period of at least 2 consecutive calendar years preceding the date of the application; and

(2) has high rates of arrest, conviction, and incarceration related to the sale, possession, use, cultivation, manufacture, or transport of cannabis.

"Early Approval Adult Use Cultivation Center License" means a license that permits a medical cannabis cultivation center licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin cultivating, infusing, packaging, transporting (unless otherwise provided in this Act), processing, and selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to cannabis business establishments for resale to purchasers as permitted by this Act as of January 1, 2020.

"Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License" means a license that permits a medical cannabis dispensing organization licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to purchasers as permitted by this Act as of January 1, 2020.

"Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization at a secondary site" means a license that permits a medical cannabis dispensing organization licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act as of the effective date of this Act to begin selling cannabis or cannabis-infused product to purchasers as permitted by this Act on January 1, 2020 at a different dispensary location from its existing registered medical dispensary location.

"Eligible Tied Applicant" means a Tied Applicant that is eligible to participate in the process by which a remaining available license is distributed by lot pursuant to a Tied Applicant Lottery.

"Enclosed, locked facility" means a room, greenhouse, building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by cannabis business establishment agents working for the licensed cannabis business establishment or acting pursuant to this Act to cultivate, process, store, or distribute cannabis.

"Enclosed, locked space" means a closet, room, greenhouse, building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other security devices that permit access only by authorized individuals under this Act. "Enclosed, locked space" may include:

(1) a space within a residential building that (i) is the primary residence of the individual cultivating 5 or fewer cannabis plants that are more than 5 inches tall and (ii) includes sleeping quarters and indoor plumbing. The space must only be accessible by a key or code that is different from any key or code that can be used to access the residential building from the exterior; or

(2) a structure, such as a shed or greenhouse, that lies on the same plot of land as a residential building that (i) includes sleeping quarters and indoor plumbing and (ii) is used as a primary residence by the person cultivating 5 or fewer cannabis plants that are more than 5 inches tall, such as a shed or greenhouse. The structure must remain locked when it is unoccupied by people.

"Financial institution" has the same meaning as "financial organization" as defined in Section 1501 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, and also includes the holding companies, subsidiaries, and affiliates of such financial organizations.

"Flowering stage" means the stage of cultivation where and when a cannabis plant is cultivated to produce plant material for cannabis products. This includes mature plants as follows:

(1) if greater than 2 stigmas are visible at each internode of the plant; or

(2) if the cannabis plant is in an area that has been intentionally deprived of light for a period of time intended to produce flower buds and induce maturation, from the moment the light deprivation began through the remainder of the marijuana plant growth cycle.

"Individual" means a natural person.

"Infuser organization" or "infuser" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to directly incorporate cannabis or cannabis concentrate into a product formulation to produce a cannabis-infused product.

"Kief" means the resinous crystal-like trichomes that are found on cannabis and that are accumulated, resulting in a higher concentration of cannabinoids, untreated by heat or pressure, or extracted using a solvent.

"Labor peace agreement" means an agreement between a cannabis business establishment and any labor organization recognized under the National Labor Relations Act, referred to in this Act as a bona fide labor organization, that prohibits labor organizations and members from engaging in picketing, work stoppages, boycotts, and any other economic interference with the cannabis business establishment. This agreement means that the cannabis business establishment has agreed not to disrupt efforts by the bona fide labor organization to communicate with, and attempt to organize and represent, the cannabis business establishment's employees. The agreement shall provide a bona fide labor organization access at reasonable times to areas in which the cannabis business establishment's employees work, for the purpose of meeting with employees to discuss their right to representation, employment rights under State law, and terms and conditions of employment. This type of agreement shall not mandate a particular method of election or certification of the bona fide labor organization.

"Limited access area" means a room or other area under the control of a cannabis dispensing organization licensed under this Act and upon the licensed premises where cannabis sales occur with access limited to purchasers, dispensing organization owners and other dispensing organization agents, or service professionals conducting business with the dispensing organization, or, if sales to registered qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants licensed pursuant to the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act are also permitted at the dispensary, registered qualifying patients, caregivers, provisional patients, and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program participants.

"Member of an impacted family" means an individual who has a parent, legal guardian, child, spouse, or dependent, or was a dependent of an individual who, prior to the effective date of this Act, was arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act.

"Mother plant" means a cannabis plant that is cultivated or maintained for the purpose of generating clones, and that will not be used to produce plant material for sale to an infuser or dispensing organization.

"Ordinary public view" means within the sight line with normal visual range of a person, unassisted by visual aids, from a public street or sidewalk adjacent to real property, or from within an adjacent property.

"Ownership and control" means ownership of at least 51% of the business, including corporate stock if a corporation, and control over the management and day-to-day operations of the business and an interest in the capital, assets, and profits and losses of the business proportionate to percentage of ownership.

"Person" means a natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, public or private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, executor, trustee, guardian, or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Possession limit" means the amount of cannabis under Section 10-10 that may be possessed at any one time by a person 21 years of age or older or who is a registered qualifying medical cannabis patient or caregiver under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

"Principal officer" includes a cannabis business establishment applicant or licensed cannabis business establishment's board member, owner with more than 1% interest of the total cannabis business establishment or more than 5% interest of the total cannabis business establishment of a publicly traded company, president, vice president, secretary, treasurer, partner, officer, member, manager member, or person with a profit sharing, financial interest, or revenue sharing arrangement. The definition includes a person with authority to control the cannabis business establishment, a person who assumes responsibility for the debts of the cannabis business establishment and who is further defined in this Act.

"Primary residence" means a dwelling where a person usually stays or stays more often than other locations. It may be determined by, without limitation, presence, tax filings; address on an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card; or voter registration. No person may have more than one primary residence.

"Processing organization" or "processor" means a facility operated by an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to either extract constituent chemicals or compounds to produce cannabis concentrate or incorporate cannabis or cannabis concentrate into a product formulation to produce a cannabis product.

"Processing organization agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a processing organization.

"Processing organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a processing organization agent.

"Purchaser" means a person 21 years of age or older who acquires cannabis for a valuable consideration. "Purchaser" does not include a cardholder under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

"Qualifying Applicant" means an applicant that submitted an application pursuant to Section 15-30 that received at least 85% of 250 application points available under Section 15-30 as the applicant's final score and meets the definition of "Social Equity Applicant" as set forth under this Section.

"Qualifying Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant" means an applicant that submitted an application pursuant to Section 15-30 that received at least 85% of 250 application points available under Section 15-30 as the applicant's final score and meets the criteria of either paragraph (1) or (2) of the definition of "Social Equity Applicant" as set forth under this Section.

"Qualified Social Equity Applicant" means a Social Equity Applicant who has been awarded a conditional license under this Act to operate a cannabis business establishment.

"Resided" means an individual's primary residence was located within the relevant geographic area as established by 2 of the following:

(1) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(2) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(3) school records;

(4) a voter registration card;

(5) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(6) a paycheck stub;

(7) a utility bill;

(8) tax records; or

(9) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule.

"Smoking" means the inhalation of smoke caused by the combustion of cannabis.

"Social Equity Applicant" means an applicant that is an Illinois resident that meets one of the following criteria:

(1) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who have resided for at least 5 of the preceding 10 years in a Disproportionately Impacted Area;

(2) an applicant with at least 51% ownership and control by one or more individuals who:

(i) have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act; or

(ii) is a member of an impacted family;

(3) for applicants with a minimum of 10 full-time employees, an applicant with at least 51% of current employees who:

(i) currently reside in a Disproportionately Impacted Area; or

(ii) have been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any offense that is eligible for expungement under this Act or member of an impacted family.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to preempt or limit the duties of any employer under the Job Opportunities for Qualified Applicants Act. Nothing in this Act shall permit an employer to require an employee to disclose sealed or expunged offenses, unless otherwise required by law.

"Tied Applicant" means an application submitted by a Dispensary Applicant pursuant to Section 15-30 that received the same number of application points under Section 15-30 as the Dispensary Applicant's final score as one or more top-scoring applications in the same BLS Region and would have been awarded a license but for the one or more other top-scoring applications that received the same number of application points. Each application for which a Dispensary Applicant was required to pay a required application fee for the application period ending January 2, 2020 shall be considered an application of a separate Tied Applicant.

"Tied Applicant Lottery" means the process established under 68 Ill. Adm. Code 1291.50 for awarding Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses pursuant to Sections 15-25 and 15-30 among Eligible Tied Applicants.

"Tincture" means a cannabis-infused solution, typically comprised of alcohol, glycerin, or vegetable oils, derived either directly from the cannabis plant or from a processed cannabis extract. A tincture is not an alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934. A tincture shall include a calibrated dropper or other similar device capable of accurately measuring servings.

"Transporting organization" or "transporter" means an organization or business that is licensed by the Department of Agriculture to transport cannabis or cannabis-infused product on behalf of a cannabis business establishment or a community college licensed under the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program.

"Transporting organization agent" means a principal officer, board member, employee, or agent of a transporting organization.

"Transporting organization agent identification card" means a document issued by the Department of Agriculture that identifies a person as a transporting organization agent.

"Unit of local government" means any county, city, village, or incorporated town.

"Vegetative stage" means the stage of cultivation in which a cannabis plant is propagated to produce additional cannabis plants or reach a sufficient size for production. This includes seedlings, clones, mothers, and other immature cannabis plants as follows:

(1) if the cannabis plant is in an area that has not been intentionally deprived of light for a period of time intended to produce flower buds and induce maturation, it has no more than 2 stigmas visible at each internode of the cannabis plant; or

(2) any cannabis plant that is cultivated solely for the purpose of propagating clones and is never used to produce cannabis.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-25)

Sec. 15-25. Awarding of Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses prior to January 1, 2021.

(a) The Department shall issue up to 75 Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses before May 1, 2020.

(b) The Department shall make the application for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License available no later than October 1, 2019 and shall accept applications no later than January 1, 2020.

(c) To ensure the geographic dispersion of Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holders, the following number of licenses shall be awarded in each BLS Region as determined by each region's percentage of the State's population:

(1) Bloomington: 1

(2) Cape Girardeau: 1

(3) Carbondale-Marion: 1

(4) Champaign-Urbana: 1

(5) Chicago-Naperville-Elgin: 47

(6) Danville: 1

(7) Davenport-Moline-Rock Island: 1

(8) Decatur: 1

(9) Kankakee: 1

(10) Peoria: 3

(11) Rockford: 2

(12) St. Louis: 4

(13) Springfield: 1

(14) Northwest Illinois nonmetropolitan: 3

(15) West Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 3

(16) East Central Illinois nonmetropolitan: 2

(17) South Illinois nonmetropolitan: 2

(d) An applicant seeking issuance of a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License shall submit an application on forms provided by the Department. An applicant must meet the following requirements:

(1) Payment of a nonrefundable application fee of $5,000 for each license for which the applicant is applying, which shall be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund;

(2) Certification that the applicant will comply with the requirements contained in this Act;

(3) The legal name of the proposed dispensing organization;

(4) A statement that the dispensing organization agrees to respond to the Department's supplemental requests for information;

(5) From each principal officer, a statement indicating whether that person:

(A) has previously held or currently holds an ownership interest in a cannabis business establishment in Illinois; or

(B) has held an ownership interest in a dispensing organization or its equivalent in another state or territory of the United States that had the dispensing organization registration or license suspended, revoked, placed on probationary status, or subjected to other disciplinary action;

(6) Disclosure of whether any principal officer has ever filed for bankruptcy or defaulted on spousal support or child support obligation;

(7) A resume for each principal officer, including whether that person has an academic degree, certification, or relevant experience with a cannabis business establishment or in a related industry;

(8) A description of the training and education that will be provided to dispensing organization agents;

(9) A copy of the proposed operating bylaws;

(10) A copy of the proposed business plan that complies with the requirements in this Act, including, at a minimum, the following:

(A) A description of services to be offered; and

(B) A description of the process of dispensing cannabis;

(11) A copy of the proposed security plan that complies with the requirements in this Article, including:

(A) The process or controls that will be implemented to monitor the dispensary, secure the premises, agents, and currency, and prevent the diversion, theft, or loss of cannabis; and

(B) The process to ensure that access to the restricted access areas is restricted to, registered agents, service professionals, transporting organization agents, Department inspectors, and security personnel;

(12) A proposed inventory control plan that complies with this Section;

(13) A proposed floor plan, a square footage estimate, and a description of proposed security devices, including, without limitation, cameras, motion detectors, servers, video storage capabilities, and alarm service providers;

(14) The name, address, social security number, and date of birth of each principal officer and board member of the dispensing organization; each of those individuals shall be at least 21 years of age;

(15) Evidence of the applicant's status as a Social Equity Applicant, if applicable, and whether a Social Equity Applicant plans to apply for a loan or grant issued by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity;

(16) The address, telephone number, and email address of the applicant's principal place of business, if applicable. A post office box is not permitted;

(17) Written summaries of any information regarding instances in which a business or not-for-profit that a prospective board member previously managed or served on were fined or censured, or any instances in which a business or not-for-profit that a prospective board member previously managed or served on had its registration suspended or revoked in any administrative or judicial proceeding;

(18) A plan for community engagement;

(19) Procedures to ensure accurate recordkeeping and security measures that are in accordance with this Article and Department rules;

(20) The estimated volume of cannabis it plans to store at the dispensary;

(21) A description of the features that will provide accessibility to purchasers as required by the Americans with Disabilities Act;

(22) A detailed description of air treatment systems that will be installed to reduce odors;

(23) A reasonable assurance that the issuance of a license will not have a detrimental impact on the community in which the applicant wishes to locate;

(24) The dated signature of each principal officer;

(25) A description of the enclosed, locked facility where cannabis will be stored by the dispensing organization;

(26) Signed statements from each dispensing organization agent stating that he or she will not divert cannabis;

(27) The number of licenses it is applying for in each BLS Region;

(28) A diversity plan that includes a narrative of at least 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity;

(29) A contract with a private security contractor agency that is licensed under Section 10-5 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 in order for the dispensary to have adequate security at its facility; and

(30) Other information deemed necessary by the Illinois Cannabis Regulation Oversight Officer to conduct the disparity and availability study referenced in subsection (e) of Section 5-45.

(e) An applicant who receives a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License under this Section has 180 days from the date of award to identify a physical location for the dispensing organization retail storefront. The applicant shall provide evidence that the location is not within 1,500 feet of an existing dispensing organization, unless the applicant is a Social Equity Applicant or Social Equity Justice Involved Applicant located or seeking to locate within 1,500 feet of a dispensing organization licensed under Section 15-15 or Section 15-20. If an applicant is unable to find a suitable physical address in the opinion of the Department within 180 days of the issuance of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department may extend the period for finding a physical address another 180 days if the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder demonstrates concrete attempts to secure a location and a hardship. If the Department denies the extension or the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder is unable to find a location or become operational within 360 days of being awarded a conditional license, the Department shall rescind the conditional license and award it to the next highest scoring applicant in the BLS Region for which the license was assigned, provided the applicant receiving the license: (i) confirms a continued interest in operating a dispensing organization; (ii) can provide evidence that the applicant continues to meet all requirements for holding a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License set forth in this Act; and (iii) has not otherwise become ineligible to be awarded a dispensing organization license. If the new awardee is unable to accept the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department shall award the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License to the next highest scoring applicant in the same manner. The new awardee shall be subject to the same required deadlines as provided in this subsection.

(e-5) If, within 180 days of being awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a dispensing organization is unable to find a location within the BLS Region in which it was awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License because no jurisdiction within the BLS Region allows for the operation of an Adult Use Dispensing Organization, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may authorize the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License holder to transfer its license to a BLS Region specified by the Department.

(f) A dispensing organization that is awarded a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License pursuant to the criteria in Section 15-30 shall not purchase, possess, sell, or dispense cannabis or cannabis-infused products until the person has received an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License issued by the Department pursuant to Section 15-36 of this Act.

(g) The Department shall conduct a background check of the prospective organization agents in order to carry out this Article. The Illinois State Police shall charge the applicant a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. Each person applying as a dispensing organization agent shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Illinois State Police for the purpose of obtaining a State and federal criminal records check. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter, to the extent allowed by law, filed in the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Identification criminal history records databases. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, following positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-30)

Sec. 15-30. Selection criteria for conditional licenses awarded under Section 15-25.

(a) Applicants for a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License must submit all required information, including the information required in Section 15-25, to the Department. Failure by an applicant to submit all required information may result in the application being disqualified.

(b) If the Department receives an application that fails to provide the required elements contained in this Section, the Department shall issue a deficiency notice to the applicant. The applicant shall have 10 calendar days from the date of the deficiency notice to resubmit the incomplete information. Applications that are still incomplete after this opportunity to cure will not be scored and will be disqualified.

(c) The Department will award up to 250 points to complete applications based on the sufficiency of the applicant's responses to required information. Applicants will be awarded points based on a determination that the application satisfactorily includes the following elements:

(1) Suitability of Employee Training Plan (15 points). The plan includes an employee training plan that demonstrates that employees will understand the rules and laws to be followed by dispensary employees, have knowledge of any security measures and operating procedures of the dispensary, and are able to advise purchasers on how to safely consume cannabis and use individual products offered by the dispensary.

(2) Security and Recordkeeping (65 points).

(A) The security plan accounts for the prevention of the theft or diversion of cannabis. The security plan demonstrates safety procedures for dispensing organization agents and purchasers, and safe delivery and storage of cannabis and currency. It demonstrates compliance with all security requirements in this Act and rules.

(B) A plan for recordkeeping, tracking, and monitoring inventory, quality control, and other policies and procedures that will promote standard recordkeeping and discourage unlawful activity. This plan includes the applicant's strategy to communicate with the Department and the Illinois State Police on the destruction and disposal of cannabis. The plan must also demonstrate compliance with this Act and rules.

(C) The security plan shall also detail which private security contractor licensed under Section 10-5 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 the dispensary will contract with in order to provide adequate security at its facility.

(3) Applicant's Business Plan, Financials, Operating and Floor Plan (65 points).

(A) The business plan shall describe, at a minimum, how the dispensing organization will be managed on a long-term basis. This shall include a description of the dispensing organization's point-of-sale system, purchases and denials of sale, confidentiality, and products and services to be offered. It will demonstrate compliance with this Act and rules.

(B) The operating plan shall include, at a minimum, best practices for day-to-day dispensary operation and staffing. The operating plan may also include information about employment practices, including information about the percentage of full-time employees who will be provided a living wage.

(C) The proposed floor plan is suitable for public access, the layout promotes safe dispensing of cannabis, is compliant with the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Environmental Barriers Act, and facilitates safe product handling and storage.

(4) Knowledge and Experience (30 points).

(A) The applicant's principal officers must demonstrate experience and qualifications in business management or experience with the cannabis industry. This includes ensuring optimal safety and accuracy in the dispensing and sale of cannabis.

(B) The applicant's principal officers must demonstrate knowledge of various cannabis product strains or varieties and describe the types and quantities of products planned to be sold. This includes confirmation of whether the dispensing organization plans to sell cannabis paraphernalia or edibles.

(C) Knowledge and experience may be demonstrated through experience in other comparable industries that reflect on the applicant's ability to operate a cannabis business establishment.

(5) Status as a Social Equity Applicant (50 points). The applicant meets the qualifications for a Social Equity Applicant as set forth in this Act.

(6) Labor and employment practices (5 points). : The applicant may describe plans to provide a safe, healthy, and economically beneficial working environment for its agents, including, but not limited to, codes of conduct, health care benefits, educational benefits, retirement benefits, living wage standards, and entering a labor peace agreement with employees.

(7) Environmental Plan (5 points). : The applicant may demonstrate an environmental plan of action to minimize the carbon footprint, environmental impact, and resource needs for the dispensary, which may include, without limitation, recycling cannabis product packaging.

(8) Illinois owner (5 points). : The applicant is 51% or more owned and controlled by an Illinois resident, who can prove residency in each of the past 5 years with tax records or 2 of the following:

(A) a signed lease agreement that includes the applicant's name;

(B) a property deed that includes the applicant's name;

(C) school records;

(D) a voter registration card;

(E) an Illinois driver's license, an Illinois Identification Card, or an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card;

(F) a paycheck stub;

(G) a utility bill; or

(H) any other proof of residency or other information necessary to establish residence as provided by rule.

(9) Status as veteran (5 points). : The applicant is 51% or more controlled and owned by an individual or individuals who meet the qualifications of a veteran as defined by Section 45-57 of the Illinois Procurement Code.

(10) A diversity plan (5 points). The plan : that includes a narrative of not more than 2,500 words that establishes a goal of diversity in ownership, management, employment, and contracting to ensure that diverse participants and groups are afforded equality of opportunity.

(d) The Department may also award up to 2 bonus points for a plan to engage with the community. The applicant may demonstrate a desire to engage with its community by participating in one or more of, but not limited to, the following actions: (i) establishment of an incubator program designed to increase participation in the cannabis industry by persons who would qualify as Social Equity Applicants; (ii) providing financial assistance to substance abuse treatment centers; (iii) educating children and teens about the potential harms of cannabis use; or (iv) other measures demonstrating a commitment to the applicant's community. Bonus points will only be awarded if the Department receives applications that receive an equal score for a particular region.

(e) The Department may verify information contained in each application and accompanying documentation to assess the applicant's veracity and fitness to operate a dispensing organization.

(f) The Department may, in its discretion, refuse to issue an authorization to any applicant:

(1) Who is unqualified to perform the duties required of the applicant;

(2) Who fails to disclose or states falsely any information called for in the application;

(3) Who has been found guilty of a violation of this Act, who has had any disciplinary order entered against it by the Department, who has entered into a disciplinary or nondisciplinary agreement with the Department, or whose medical cannabis dispensing organization, medical cannabis cultivation organization, or Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License at a secondary site, or Early Approval Cultivation Center License was suspended, restricted, revoked, or denied for just cause, or the applicant's cannabis business establishment license was suspended, restricted, revoked, or denied in any other state; or

(4) Who has engaged in a pattern or practice of unfair or illegal practices, methods, or activities in the conduct of owning a cannabis business establishment or other business.

(g) The Department shall deny the license if any principal officer, board member, or person having a financial or voting interest of 5% or greater in the licensee is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(h) The Department shall verify an applicant's compliance with the requirements of this Article and rules before issuing a dispensing organization license.

(i) Should the applicant be awarded a license, the information and plans provided in the application, including any plans submitted for bonus points, shall become a condition of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses and any Adult Use Dispensing Organization License issued to the holder of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, except as otherwise provided by this Act or rule. Dispensing organizations have a duty to disclose any material changes to the application. The Department shall review all material changes disclosed by the dispensing organization, and may re-evaluate its prior decision regarding the awarding of a license, including, but not limited to, suspending or permanently revoking a license. Failure to comply with the conditions or requirements in the application may subject the dispensing organization to discipline, up to and including suspension or permanent revocation of its authorization or license by the Department.

(j) If an applicant has not begun operating as a dispensing organization within one year of the issuance of the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, the Department may permanently revoke the Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License and award it to the next highest scoring applicant in the BLS Region if a suitable applicant indicates a continued interest in the license or begin a new selection process to award a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License.

(k) The Department shall deny an application if granting that application would result in a single person or entity having a direct or indirect financial interest in more than 10 Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses, or Adult Use Dispensing Organization Licenses. Any entity that is awarded a license that results in a single person or entity having a direct or indirect financial interest in more than 10 licenses shall forfeit the most recently issued license and suffer a penalty to be determined by the Department, unless the entity declines the license at the time it is awarded.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-40)

Sec. 15-40. Dispensing organization agent identification card; agent training.

(a) The Department shall:

(1) verify the information contained in an application or renewal for a dispensing organization agent identification card submitted under this Article, and approve or deny an application or renewal, within 30 days of receiving a completed application or renewal application and all supporting documentation required by rule;

(2) issue a dispensing organization agent identification card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of approving the application or renewal;

(3) enter the registry identification number of the dispensing organization where the agent works;

(4) within one year from the effective date of this Act, allow for an electronic application process and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted; and

(5) collect a $100 nonrefundable fee from the applicant to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund.

(b) A dispensing organization agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when in the dispensary.

(c) The dispensing organization agent identification cards shall contain the following:

(1) the name of the cardholder;

(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of the dispensing organization agent identification cards;

(3) a random 10-digit alphanumeric identification number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4 letters that is unique to the cardholder; and

(4) a photograph of the cardholder.

(d) The dispensing organization agent identification cards shall be immediately returned to the dispensing organization upon termination of employment.

(e) The Department shall not issue an agent identification card if the applicant is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(f) Any card lost by a dispensing organization agent shall be reported to the Illinois State Police and the Department immediately upon discovery of the loss.

(g) An applicant shall be denied a dispensing organization agent identification card renewal if he or she fails to complete the training provided for in this Section.

(h) A dispensing organization agent shall only be required to hold one card for the same employer regardless of what type of dispensing organization license the employer holds.

(i) Cannabis retail sales training requirements.

(1) Within 90 days of September 1, 2019, or 90 days of employment, whichever is later, all owners, managers, employees, and agents involved in the handling or sale of cannabis or cannabis-infused product employed by an adult use dispensing organization or medical cannabis dispensing organization as defined in Section 10 of the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act shall attend and successfully complete a Responsible Vendor Program.

(2) Each owner, manager, employee, and agent of an adult use dispensing organization or medical cannabis dispensing organization shall successfully complete the program annually.

(3) Responsible Vendor Program Training modules shall include at least 2 hours of instruction time approved by the Department including:

(i) Health and safety concerns of cannabis use, including the responsible use of cannabis, its physical effects, onset of physiological effects, recognizing signs of impairment, and appropriate responses in the event of overconsumption.

(ii) Training on laws and regulations on driving while under the influence and operating a watercraft or snowmobile while under the influence.

(iii) Sales to minors prohibition. Training shall cover all relevant Illinois laws and rules.

(iv) Quantity limitations on sales to purchasers. Training shall cover all relevant Illinois laws and rules.

(v) Acceptable forms of identification. Training shall include:

(I) How to check identification; and

(II) Common mistakes made in verification;

(vi) Safe storage of cannabis;

(vii) Compliance with all inventory tracking system regulations;

(viii) Waste handling, management, and disposal;

(ix) Health and safety standards;

(x) Maintenance of records;

(xi) Security and surveillance requirements;

(xii) Permitting inspections by State and local licensing and enforcement authorities;

(xiii) Privacy issues;

(xiv) Packaging and labeling requirement for sales to purchasers; and

(xv) Other areas as determined by rule.

(j) Blank.

(k) Upon the successful completion of the Responsible Vendor Program, the provider shall deliver proof of completion either through mail or electronic communication to the dispensing organization, which shall retain a copy of the certificate.

(l) The license of a dispensing organization or medical cannabis dispensing organization whose owners, managers, employees, or agents fail to comply with this Section may be suspended or permanently revoked under Section 15-145 or may face other disciplinary action.

(m) The regulation of dispensing organization and medical cannabis dispensing employer and employee training is an exclusive function of the State, and regulation by a unit of local government, including a home rule unit, is prohibited. This subsection (m) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(n) Persons seeking Department approval to offer the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) may apply for such approval between August 1 and August 15 of each odd-numbered year in a manner prescribed by the Department.

(o) Persons seeking Department approval to offer the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) shall submit a nonrefundable application fee of $2,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund or a fee as may be set by rule. Any changes made to the training module shall be approved by the Department.

(p) The Department shall not unreasonably deny approval of a training module that meets all the requirements of paragraph (3) of subsection (i). A denial of approval shall include a detailed description of the reasons for the denial.

(q) Any person approved to provide the training required by paragraph (3) of subsection (i) shall submit an application for re-approval between August 1 and August 15 of each odd-numbered year and include a nonrefundable application fee of $2,000 to be deposited into the Cannabis Regulation Fund or a fee as may be set by rule.

(r) All persons applying to become or renewing their registrations to be agents, including agents-in-charge and principal officers, shall disclose any disciplinary action taken against them that may have occurred in Illinois, another state, or another country in relation to their employment at a cannabis business establishment or at any cannabis cultivation center, processor, infuser, dispensary, or other cannabis business establishment.

(s) An agent applicant may begin employment at a dispensing organization while the agent applicant's identification card application is pending. Upon approval, the Department shall issue the agent's identification card to the agent. If denied, the dispensing organization and the agent applicant shall be notified and the agent applicant must cease all activity at the dispensing organization immediately.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/15-135)

Sec. 15-135. Investigations.

(a) Dispensing organizations are subject to random and unannounced dispensary inspections and cannabis testing by the Department, the Illinois State Police, local law enforcement, or as provided by rule.

(b) The Department and its authorized representatives may enter any place, including a vehicle, in which cannabis is held, stored, dispensed, sold, produced, delivered, transported, manufactured, or disposed of and inspect, in a reasonable manner, the place and all pertinent equipment, containers and labeling, and all things including records, files, financial data, sales data, shipping data, pricing data, personnel data, research, papers, processes, controls, and facility, and inventory any stock of cannabis and obtain samples of any cannabis or cannabis-infused product, any labels or containers for cannabis, or paraphernalia.

(c) The Department may conduct an investigation of an applicant, application, dispensing organization, principal officer, dispensary agent, third party vendor, or any other party associated with a dispensing organization for an alleged violation of this Act or rules or to determine qualifications to be granted a registration by the Department.

(d) The Department may require an applicant or holder of any license issued pursuant to this Article to produce documents, records, or any other material pertinent to the investigation of an application or alleged violations of this Act or rules. Failure to provide the required material may be grounds for denial or discipline.

(e) Every person charged with preparation, obtaining, or keeping records, logs, reports, or other documents in connection with this Act and rules and every person in charge, or having custody, of those documents shall, upon request by the Department, make the documents immediately available for inspection and copying by the Department, the Department's authorized representative, or others authorized by law to review the documents.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/20-30)

Sec. 20-30. Cultivation center requirements; prohibitions.

(a) The operating documents of a cultivation center shall include procedures for the oversight of the cultivation center, a cannabis plant monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate recordkeeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) A cultivation center shall implement a security plan reviewed by the Illinois State Police that includes, but is not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion detection systems, personnel identification systems, 24-hour surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the cultivation center facility and accessibility to authorized law enforcement, the Department of Public Health where processing takes place, and the Department of Agriculture in real time.

(c) All cultivation of cannabis by a cultivation center must take place in an enclosed, locked facility at the physical address provided to the Department of Agriculture during the licensing process. The cultivation center location shall only be accessed by the agents working for the cultivation center, the Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections, the Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, local and State law enforcement or other emergency personnel, contractors working on jobs unrelated to cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring, transporting organization agents as provided in this Act, individuals in a mentoring or educational program approved by the State, or other individuals as provided by rule.

(d) A cultivation center may not sell or distribute any cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any person other than a dispensing organization, craft grower, infuser organization, transporter, or as otherwise authorized by rule.

(e) A cultivation center may not either directly or indirectly discriminate in price between different dispensing organizations, craft growers, or infuser organizations that are purchasing a like grade, strain, brand, and quality of cannabis or cannabis-infused product. Nothing in this subsection (e) prevents a cultivation center from pricing cannabis differently based on differences in the cost of manufacturing or processing, the quantities sold, such as volume discounts, or the way the products are delivered.

(f) All cannabis harvested by a cultivation center and intended for distribution to a dispensing organization must be entered into a data collection system, packaged and labeled under Section 55-21, and placed into a cannabis container for transport. All cannabis harvested by a cultivation center and intended for distribution to a craft grower or infuser organization must be packaged in a labeled cannabis container and entered into a data collection system before transport.

(g) Cultivation centers are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, local safety or health inspectors, the Illinois State Police, or as provided by rule.

(h) A cultivation center agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone or in person, or by written or electronic communication.

(i) A cultivation center shall comply with all State and any applicable federal rules and regulations regarding the use of pesticides on cannabis plants.

(j) No person or entity shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, of more than 3 cultivation centers licensed under this Article. Further, no person or entity that is employed by, an agent of, has a contract to receive payment in any form from a cultivation center, is a principal officer of a cultivation center, or entity controlled by or affiliated with a principal officer of a cultivation shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, in a cultivation that would result in the person or entity owning or controlling in combination with any cultivation center, principal officer of a cultivation center, or entity controlled or affiliated with a principal officer of a cultivation center by which he, she, or it is employed, is an agent of, or participates in the management of, more than 3 cultivation center licenses.

(k) A cultivation center may not contain more than 210,000 square feet of canopy space for plants in the flowering stage for cultivation of adult use cannabis as provided in this Act.

(l) A cultivation center may process cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products.

(m) Beginning July 1, 2020, a cultivation center shall not transport cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a craft grower, dispensing organization, infuser organization, or laboratory licensed under this Act, unless it has obtained a transporting organization license.

(n) It is unlawful for any person having a cultivation center license or any officer, associate, member, representative, or agent of such licensee to offer or deliver money, or anything else of value, directly or indirectly to any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, or to any person connected with or in any way representing, or to any member of the family of, such person holding an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, or to any stockholders in any corporation engaged in the retail sale of cannabis, or to any officer, manager, agent, or representative of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act to obtain preferential placement within the dispensing organization, including, without limitation, on shelves and in display cases where purchasers can view products, or on the dispensing organization's website.

(o) A cultivation center must comply with any other requirements or prohibitions set by administrative rule of the Department of Agriculture.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/25-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2026)

Sec. 25-30. Inspection rights.

(a) A licensee's enclosed, locked facilities are subject to random inspections by the Department, the Illinois State Police, or as provided by rule.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to give the Department, the Illinois State Police, or any other entity identified by rule under subsection (a) a right of inspection or access to any location on the licensee's premises beyond the facilities licensed under this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-21-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/25-35)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2026)

Sec. 25-35. Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program faculty participant agent identification card.

(a) The Department shall:

(1) establish by rule the information required in an initial application or renewal application for an agent identification card submitted under this Article and the nonrefundable fee to accompany the initial application or renewal application;

(2) verify the information contained in an initial application or renewal application for an agent identification card submitted under this Article, and approve or deny an application within 30 days of receiving a completed initial application or renewal application and all supporting documentation required by rule;

(3) issue an agent identification card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of approving the initial application or renewal application;

(4) enter the license number of the community college where the agent works; and

(5) allow for an electronic initial application and renewal application process, and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted. Each Department may by rule require prospective agents to file their applications by electronic means and to provide notices to the agents by electronic means.

(b) An agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when in the enclosed, locked facility, or facilities for which he or she is an agent.

(c) The agent identification cards shall contain the following:

(1) the name of the cardholder;

(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of the identification card;

(3) a random 10-digit alphanumeric identification number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4 letters that is unique to the holder;

(4) a photograph of the cardholder; and

(5) the legal name of the community college employing the agent.

(d) An agent identification card shall be immediately returned to the community college of the agent upon termination of his or her employment.

(e) Any agent identification card lost shall be reported to the Illinois State Police and the Department of Agriculture immediately upon discovery of the loss.

(f) An agent applicant may begin employment at a Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program while the agent applicant's identification card application is pending. Upon approval, the Department shall issue the agent's identification card to the agent. If denied, the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program and the agent applicant shall be notified and the agent applicant must cease all activity at the Community College Cannabis Vocational Training Pilot Program immediately.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-21-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/30-30)

Sec. 30-30. Craft grower requirements; prohibitions.

(a) The operating documents of a craft grower shall include procedures for the oversight of the craft grower, a cannabis plant monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate recordkeeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) A craft grower shall implement a security plan reviewed by the Illinois State Police that includes, but is not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion detection systems, personnel identification systems, and a 24-hour surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the craft grower facility and that is accessible to authorized law enforcement and the Department of Agriculture in real time.

(c) All cultivation of cannabis by a craft grower must take place in an enclosed, locked facility at the physical address provided to the Department of Agriculture during the licensing process. The craft grower location shall only be accessed by the agents working for the craft grower, the Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections, the Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, State and local law enforcement or other emergency personnel, contractors working on jobs unrelated to cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring, transporting organization agents as provided in this Act, or participants in the incubator program, individuals in a mentoring or educational program approved by the State, or other individuals as provided by rule. However, if a craft grower shares a premises with an infuser or dispensing organization, agents from those other licensees may access the craft grower portion of the premises if that is the location of common bathrooms, lunchrooms, locker rooms, or other areas of the building where work or cultivation of cannabis is not performed. At no time may an infuser or dispensing organization agent perform work at a craft grower without being a registered agent of the craft grower.

(d) A craft grower may not sell or distribute any cannabis to any person other than a cultivation center, a craft grower, an infuser organization, a dispensing organization, or as otherwise authorized by rule.

(e) A craft grower may not be located in an area zoned for residential use.

(f) A craft grower may not either directly or indirectly discriminate in price between different cannabis business establishments that are purchasing a like grade, strain, brand, and quality of cannabis or cannabis-infused product. Nothing in this subsection (f) prevents a craft grower from pricing cannabis differently based on differences in the cost of manufacturing or processing, the quantities sold, such as volume discounts, or the way the products are delivered.

(g) All cannabis harvested by a craft grower and intended for distribution to a dispensing organization must be entered into a data collection system, packaged and labeled under Section 55-21, and, if distribution is to a dispensing organization that does not share a premises with the dispensing organization receiving the cannabis, placed into a cannabis container for transport. All cannabis harvested by a craft grower and intended for distribution to a cultivation center, to an infuser organization, or to a craft grower with which it does not share a premises, must be packaged in a labeled cannabis container and entered into a data collection system before transport.

(h) Craft growers are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture, local safety or health inspectors, the Illinois State Police, or as provided by rule.

(i) A craft grower agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone, in person, or written or electronic communication.

(j) A craft grower shall comply with all State and any applicable federal rules and regulations regarding the use of pesticides.

(k) A craft grower or craft grower agent shall not transport cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any other cannabis business establishment without a transport organization license unless:

(i) If the craft grower is located in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis is within 2,000 feet of the property line of the craft grower;

(ii) If the craft grower is located in a county with a population of more than 700,000 but fewer than 3,000,000, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis is within 2 miles of the craft grower; or

(iii) If the craft grower is located in a county with a population of fewer than 700,000, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis is within 15 miles of the craft grower.

(l) A craft grower may enter into a contract with a transporting organization to transport cannabis to a cultivation center, a craft grower, an infuser organization, a dispensing organization, or a laboratory.

(m) No person or entity shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, of more than 3 craft grower licenses. Further, no person or entity that is employed by, an agent of, or has a contract to receive payment from or participate in the management of a craft grower, is a principal officer of a craft grower, or entity controlled by or affiliated with a principal officer of a craft grower shall hold any legal, equitable, ownership, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly, in a craft grower license that would result in the person or entity owning or controlling in combination with any craft grower, principal officer of a craft grower, or entity controlled or affiliated with a principal officer of a craft grower by which he, she, or it is employed, is an agent of, or participates in the management of more than 3 craft grower licenses.

(n) It is unlawful for any person having a craft grower license or any officer, associate, member, representative, or agent of the licensee to offer or deliver money, or anything else of value, directly or indirectly, to any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, or to any person connected with or in any way representing, or to any member of the family of, the person holding an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, or to any stockholders in any corporation engaged in the retail sale of cannabis, or to any officer, manager, agent, or representative of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act to obtain preferential placement within the dispensing organization, including, without limitation, on shelves and in display cases where purchasers can view products, or on the dispensing organization's website.

(o) A craft grower shall not be located within 1,500 feet of another craft grower or a cultivation center.

(p) A craft grower may process cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products.

(q) A craft grower must comply with any other requirements or prohibitions set by administrative rule of the Department of Agriculture.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-21-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/35-25)

Sec. 35-25. Infuser organization requirements; prohibitions.

(a) The operating documents of an infuser shall include procedures for the oversight of the infuser, an inventory monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate recordkeeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) An infuser shall implement a security plan reviewed by the Illinois State Police that includes, but is not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion detection systems, personnel identification systems, and a 24-hour surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the infuser facility and that is accessible to authorized law enforcement, the Department of Public Health, and the Department of Agriculture in real time.

(c) All processing of cannabis by an infuser must take place in an enclosed, locked facility at the physical address provided to the Department of Agriculture during the licensing process. The infuser location shall only be accessed by the agents working for the infuser, the Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections, the Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, State and local law enforcement or other emergency personnel, contractors working on jobs unrelated to cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or performing electrical wiring, transporting organization agents as provided in this Act, participants in the incubator program, individuals in a mentoring or educational program approved by the State, local safety or health inspectors, or other individuals as provided by rule. However, if an infuser shares a premises with a craft grower or dispensing organization, agents from these other licensees may access the infuser portion of the premises if that is the location of common bathrooms, lunchrooms, locker rooms, or other areas of the building where processing of cannabis is not performed. At no time may a craft grower or dispensing organization agent perform work at an infuser without being a registered agent of the infuser.

(d) An infuser may not sell or distribute any cannabis to any person other than a dispensing organization, or as otherwise authorized by rule.

(e) An infuser may not either directly or indirectly discriminate in price between different cannabis business establishments that are purchasing a like grade, strain, brand, and quality of cannabis or cannabis-infused product. Nothing in this subsection (e) prevents an infuser from pricing cannabis differently based on differences in the cost of manufacturing or processing, the quantities sold, such volume discounts, or the way the products are delivered.

(f) All cannabis infused by an infuser and intended for distribution to a dispensing organization must be entered into a data collection system, packaged and labeled under Section 55-21, and, if distribution is to a dispensing organization that does not share a premises with the infuser, placed into a cannabis container for transport. All cannabis produced by an infuser and intended for distribution to a cultivation center, infuser organization, or craft grower with which it does not share a premises, must be packaged in a labeled cannabis container and entered into a data collection system before transport.

(g) Infusers are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, the Illinois State Police, local law enforcement, or as provided by rule.

(h) An infuser agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone, in person, or by written or electronic communication.

(i) An infuser organization may not be located in an area zoned for residential use.

(j) An infuser or infuser agent shall not transport cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any other cannabis business establishment without a transport organization license unless:

(i) If the infuser is located in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis or cannabis-infused product is within 2,000 feet of the property line of the infuser;

(ii) If the infuser is located in a county with a population of more than 700,000 but fewer than 3,000,000, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis or cannabis-infused product is within 2 miles of the infuser; or

(iii) If the infuser is located in a county with a population of fewer than 700,000, the cannabis business establishment receiving the cannabis or cannabis-infused product is within 15 miles of the infuser.

(k) An infuser may enter into a contract with a transporting organization to transport cannabis to a dispensing organization or a laboratory.

(l) An infuser organization may share premises with a craft grower or a dispensing organization, or both, provided each licensee stores currency and cannabis or cannabis-infused products in a separate secured vault to which the other licensee does not have access or all licensees sharing a vault share more than 50% of the same ownership.

(m) It is unlawful for any person or entity having an infuser organization license or any officer, associate, member, representative or agent of such licensee to offer or deliver money, or anything else of value, directly or indirectly to any person having an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, or to any person connected with or in any way representing, or to any member of the family of, such person holding an Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act, or to any stockholders in any corporation engaged the retail sales of cannabis, or to any officer, manager, agent, or representative of the Early Approval Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, a Conditional Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act to obtain preferential placement within the dispensing organization, including, without limitation, on shelves and in display cases where purchasers can view products, or on the dispensing organization's website.

(n) At no time shall an infuser organization or an infuser agent perform the extraction of cannabis concentrate from cannabis flower.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/35-30)

Sec. 35-30. Infuser agent identification card.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall:

(1) establish by rule the information required in an initial application or renewal application for an agent identification card submitted under this Act and the nonrefundable fee to accompany the initial application or renewal application;

(2) verify the information contained in an initial application or renewal application for an agent identification card submitted under this Act, and approve or deny an application within 30 days of receiving a completed initial application or renewal application and all supporting documentation required by rule;

(3) issue an agent identification card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of approving the initial application or renewal application;

(4) enter the license number of the infuser where the agent works; and

(5) allow for an electronic initial application and renewal application process, and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted. The Department of Agriculture may by rule require prospective agents to file their applications by electronic means and provide notices to the agents by electronic means.

(b) An agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when on the property of a cannabis business establishment including the cannabis business establishment for which he or she is an agent.

(c) The agent identification cards shall contain the following:

(1) the name of the cardholder;

(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of the identification card;

(3) a random 10-digit alphanumeric identification number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4 letters that is unique to the holder;

(4) a photograph of the cardholder; and

(5) the legal name of the infuser organization employing the agent.

(d) An agent identification card shall be immediately returned to the infuser organization of the agent upon termination of his or her employment.

(e) Any agent identification card lost by a transporting agent shall be reported to the Illinois State Police and the Department of Agriculture immediately upon discovery of the loss.

(f) An agent applicant may begin employment at an infuser organization while the agent applicant's identification card application is pending. Upon approval, the Department shall issue the agent's identification card to the agent. If denied, the infuser organization and the agent applicant shall be notified and the agent applicant must cease all activity at the infuser organization immediately.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-25)

Sec. 40-25. Transporting organization requirements; prohibitions.

(a) The operating documents of a transporting organization shall include procedures for the oversight of the transporter, an inventory monitoring system including a physical inventory recorded weekly, accurate recordkeeping, and a staffing plan.

(b) A transporting organization may not transport cannabis or cannabis-infused products to any person other than a cultivation center, a craft grower, an infuser organization, a dispensing organization, a testing facility, or as otherwise authorized by rule.

(c) All cannabis transported by a transporting organization must be entered into a data collection system and placed into a cannabis container for transport.

(d) Transporters are subject to random inspections by the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, the Illinois State Police, or as provided by rule.

(e) A transporting organization agent shall notify local law enforcement, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or theft. Notification shall be made by phone, in person, or by written or electronic communication.

(f) No person under the age of 21 years shall be in a commercial vehicle or trailer transporting cannabis goods.

(g) No person or individual who is not a transporting organization agent shall be in a vehicle while transporting cannabis goods.

(h) Transporters may not use commercial motor vehicles with a weight rating of over 10,001 pounds.

(i) It is unlawful for any person to offer or deliver money, or anything else of value, directly or indirectly, to any of the following persons to obtain preferential placement within the dispensing organization, including, without limitation, on shelves and in display cases where purchasers can view products, or on the dispensing organization's website:

(1) a person having a transporting organization license, or any officer, associate, member, representative, or agent of the licensee;

(2) a person having an Early Applicant Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act;

(3) a person connected with or in any way representing, or a member of the family of, a person holding an Early Applicant Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act; or

(4) a stockholder, officer, manager, agent, or representative of a corporation engaged in the retail sale of cannabis, an Early Applicant Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, an Adult Use Dispensing Organization License, or a medical cannabis dispensing organization license issued under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

(j) A transporting organization agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when on the property of a cannabis business establishment and during the transporting of cannabis when acting under his or her duties as a transportation organization agent. During these times, the transporting organization agent must also provide the identification card upon request of any law enforcement officer engaged in his or her official duties.

(k) A copy of the transporting organization's registration and a manifest for the delivery shall be present in any vehicle transporting cannabis.

(l) Cannabis shall be transported so it is not visible or recognizable from outside the vehicle.

(m) A vehicle transporting cannabis must not bear any markings to indicate the vehicle contains cannabis or bear the name or logo of the cannabis business establishment.

(n) Cannabis must be transported in an enclosed, locked storage compartment that is secured or affixed to the vehicle.

(o) The Department of Agriculture may, by rule, impose any other requirements or prohibitions on the transportation of cannabis.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/40-30)

Sec. 40-30. Transporting agent identification card.

(a) The Department of Agriculture shall:

(1) establish by rule the information required in an initial application or renewal application for an agent identification card submitted under this Act and the nonrefundable fee to accompany the initial application or renewal application;

(2) verify the information contained in an initial application or renewal application for an agent identification card submitted under this Act and approve or deny an application within 30 days of receiving a completed initial application or renewal application and all supporting documentation required by rule;

(3) issue an agent identification card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of approving the initial application or renewal application;

(4) enter the license number of the transporting organization where the agent works; and

(5) allow for an electronic initial application and renewal application process, and provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that an application has been submitted. The Department of Agriculture may by rule require prospective agents to file their applications by electronic means and provide notices to the agents by electronic means.

(b) An agent must keep his or her identification card visible at all times when on the property of a cannabis business establishment, including the cannabis business establishment for which he or she is an agent.

(c) The agent identification cards shall contain the following:

(1) the name of the cardholder;

(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of the identification card;

(3) a random 10-digit alphanumeric identification number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4 letters that is unique to the holder;

(4) a photograph of the cardholder; and

(5) the legal name of the transporting organization employing the agent.

(d) An agent identification card shall be immediately returned to the transporting organization of the agent upon termination of his or her employment.

(e) Any agent identification card lost by a transporting agent shall be reported to the Illinois State Police and the Department of Agriculture immediately upon discovery of the loss.

(f) An application for an agent identification card shall be denied if the applicant is delinquent in filing any required tax returns or paying any amounts owed to the State of Illinois.

(g) An agent applicant may begin employment at a transporting organization while the agent applicant's identification card application is pending. Upon approval, the Department shall issue the agent's identification card to the agent. If denied, the transporting organization and the agent applicant shall be notified and the agent applicant must cease all activity at the transporting organization immediately.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(410 ILCS 705/55-30)

Sec. 55-30. Confidentiality.

(a) Information provided by the cannabis business establishment licensees or applicants to the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or other agency shall be limited to information necessary for the purposes of administering this Act. The information is subject to the provisions and limitations contained in the Freedom of Information Act and may be disclosed in accordance with Section 55-65.

(b) The following information received and records kept by the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for purposes of administering this Article are subject to all applicable federal privacy laws, are confidential and exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, except as provided in this Act, and not subject to disclosure to any individual or public or private entity, except to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Public Health, and the Illinois State Police as necessary to perform official duties under this Article and to the Attorney General as necessary to enforce the provisions of this Act. The following information received and kept by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture may be disclosed to the Department of Public Health, the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Revenue, the Illinois State Police, or the Attorney General upon proper request:

(1) Applications and renewals, their contents, and supporting information submitted by or on behalf of dispensing organizations, cannabis business establishments, or Community College Cannabis Vocational Program licensees, in compliance with this Article, including their physical addresses; however, this does not preclude the release of ownership information about cannabis business establishment licenses, or information submitted with an application required to be disclosed pursuant to subsection (f);

(2) Any plans, procedures, policies, or other records relating to cannabis business establishment security; and

(3) Information otherwise exempt from disclosure by State or federal law.

Illinois or national criminal history record information, or the nonexistence or lack of such information, may not be disclosed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture, except as necessary to the Attorney General to enforce this Act.

(c) The name and address of a dispensing organization licensed under this Act shall be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act. The name and cannabis business establishment address of the person or entity holding each cannabis business establishment license shall be subject to disclosure.

(d) All information collected by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture in the course of an examination, inspection, or investigation of a licensee or applicant, including, but not limited to, any complaint against a licensee or applicant filed with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture and information collected to investigate any such complaint, shall be maintained for the confidential use of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture and shall not be disclosed, except as otherwise provided in this Act. A formal complaint against a licensee by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture or any disciplinary order issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Department of Agriculture against a licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as otherwise provided by law. Complaints from consumers or members of the general public received regarding a specific, named licensee or complaints regarding conduct by unlicensed entities shall be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(e) The Department of Agriculture, the Illinois State Police, and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall not share or disclose any Illinois or national criminal history record information, or the nonexistence or lack of such information, to any person or entity not expressly authorized by this Act.

(f) Each Department responsible for licensure under this Act shall publish on the Department's website a list of the ownership information of cannabis business establishment licensees under the Department's jurisdiction. The list shall include, but is not limited to: the name of the person or entity holding each cannabis business establishment license; and the address at which the entity is operating under this Act. This list shall be published and updated monthly.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-98, eff. 7-15-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

Section 545. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 3.330, 17.12, 21, 22.15, 22.59, and 39 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/3.330) (was 415 ILCS 5/3.32)

Sec. 3.330. Pollution control facility.

(a) "Pollution control facility" is any waste storage site, sanitary landfill, waste disposal site, waste transfer station, waste treatment facility, or waste incinerator. This includes sewers, sewage treatment plants, and any other facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act.

The following are not pollution control facilities:

(1) (blank);

(2) waste storage sites regulated under 40 CFR, Part 761.42;

(3) sites or facilities used by any person conducting a waste storage, waste treatment, waste disposal, waste transfer or waste incineration operation, or a combination thereof, for wastes generated by such person's own activities, when such wastes are stored, treated, disposed of, transferred or incinerated within the site or facility owned, controlled or operated by such person, or when such wastes are transported within or between sites or facilities owned, controlled or operated by such person;

(4) sites or facilities at which the State is performing removal or remedial action pursuant to Section 22.2 or 55.3;

(5) abandoned quarries used solely for the disposal of concrete, earth materials, gravel, or aggregate debris resulting from road construction activities conducted by a unit of government or construction activities due to the construction and installation of underground pipes, lines, conduit or wires off of the premises of a public utility company which are conducted by a public utility;

(6) sites or facilities used by any person to specifically conduct a landscape composting operation;

(7) regional facilities as defined in the Central Midwest Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact;

(8) the portion of a site or facility where coal combustion wastes are stored or disposed of in accordance with subdivision (r)(2) or (r)(3) of Section 21;

(9) the portion of a site or facility used for the collection, storage or processing of waste tires as defined in Title XIV;

(10) the portion of a site or facility used for treatment of petroleum contaminated materials by application onto or incorporation into the soil surface and any portion of that site or facility used for storage of petroleum contaminated materials before treatment. Only those categories of petroleum listed in Section 57.9(a)(3) are exempt under this subdivision (10);

(11) the portion of a site or facility where used oil is collected or stored prior to shipment to a recycling or energy recovery facility, provided that the used oil is generated by households or commercial establishments, and the site or facility is a recycling center or a business where oil or gasoline is sold at retail;

(11.5) processing sites or facilities that receive only on-specification used oil, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 739, originating from used oil collectors for processing that is managed under 35 Ill. Adm. Admin. Code 739 to produce products for sale to off-site petroleum facilities, if these processing sites or facilities are: (i) located within a home rule unit of local government with a population of at least 30,000 according to the 2000 federal census, that home rule unit of local government has been designated as an Urban Round II Empowerment Zone by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, and that home rule unit of local government has enacted an ordinance approving the location of the site or facility and provided funding for the site or facility; and (ii) in compliance with all applicable zoning requirements;

(12) the portion of a site or facility utilizing coal combustion waste for stabilization and treatment of only waste generated on that site or facility when used in connection with response actions pursuant to the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, or the Illinois Environmental Protection Act or as authorized by the Agency;

(13) the portion of a site or facility regulated under Section 22.38 of this Act;

(14) the portion of a site or facility, located within a unit of local government that has enacted local zoning requirements, used to accept, separate, and process uncontaminated broken concrete, with or without protruding metal bars, provided that the uncontaminated broken concrete and metal bars are not speculatively accumulated, are at the site or facility no longer than one year after their acceptance, and are returned to the economic mainstream in the form of raw materials or products;

(15) the portion of a site or facility located in a county with a population over 3,000,000 that has obtained local siting approval under Section 39.2 of this Act for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and that is used for a non-hazardous waste transfer station;

(16) a site or facility that temporarily holds in transit for 10 days or less, non-putrescible solid waste in original containers, no larger in capacity than 500 gallons, provided that such waste is further transferred to a recycling, disposal, treatment, or storage facility on a non-contiguous site and provided such site or facility complies with the applicable 10-day transfer requirements of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 and United States Department of Transportation hazardous material requirements. For purposes of this Section only, "non-putrescible solid waste" means waste other than municipal garbage that does not rot or become putrid, including, but not limited to, paints, solvent, filters, and absorbents;

(17) the portion of a site or facility located in a county with a population greater than 3,000,000 that has obtained local siting approval, under Section 39.2 of this Act, for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and that is used for wood combustion facilities for energy recovery that accept and burn only wood material, as included in a fuel specification approved by the Agency;

(18) a transfer station used exclusively for landscape waste, including a transfer station where landscape waste is ground to reduce its volume, where the landscape waste is held no longer than 24 hours from the time it was received;

(19) the portion of a site or facility that (i) is used for the composting of food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste, including, but not limited to, corrugated paper or cardboard, and (ii) meets all of the following requirements:

(A) There must not be more than a total of 30,000 cubic yards of livestock waste in raw form or in the process of being composted at the site or facility at any one time.

(B) All food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must, by the end of each operating day, be processed and placed into an enclosed vessel in which air flow and temperature are controlled, or all of the following additional requirements must be met:

(i) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must include a setback of at least 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well.

(ii) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or floodproofed.

(iii) Except in municipalities with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants, the portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located at least one-eighth of a mile from the nearest residence, other than a residence located on the same property as the site or facility.

(iv) The portion of the site or facility used for the composting operation must be located at least one-eighth of a mile from the property line of all of the following areas:

(I) Facilities that primarily serve to house or treat people that are immunocompromised or immunosuppressed, such as cancer or AIDS patients; people with asthma, cystic fibrosis, or bioaerosol allergies; or children under the age of one year.

(II) Primary and secondary schools and adjacent areas that the schools use for recreation.

(III) Any facility for child care licensed under Section 3 of the Child Care Act of 1969; preschools; and adjacent areas that the facilities or preschools use for recreation.

(v) By the end of each operating day, all food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must be (i) processed into windrows or other piles and (ii) covered in a manner that prevents scavenging by birds and animals and that prevents other nuisances.

(C) Food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, paper waste, and compost must not be placed within 5 feet of the water table.

(D) The site or facility must meet all of the requirements of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1271 et seq.).

(E) The site or facility must not (i) restrict the flow of a 100-year flood, (ii) result in washout of food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue, uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste from a 100-year flood, or (iii) reduce the temporary water storage capacity of the 100-year floodplain, unless measures are undertaken to provide alternative storage capacity, such as by providing lagoons, holding tanks, or drainage around structures at the facility.

(F) The site or facility must not be located in any area where it may pose a threat of harm or destruction to the features for which:

(i) an irreplaceable historic or archaeological site has been listed under the National Historic Preservation Act (16 U.S.C. 470 et seq.) or the Illinois Historic Preservation Act;

(ii) a natural landmark has been designated by the National Park Service or the Illinois State Historic Preservation Office; or

(iii) a natural area has been designated as a Dedicated Illinois Nature Preserve under the Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act.

(G) The site or facility must not be located in an area where it may jeopardize the continued existence of any designated endangered species, result in the destruction or adverse modification of the critical habitat for such species, or cause or contribute to the taking of any endangered or threatened species of plant, fish, or wildlife listed under the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.) or the Illinois Endangered Species Protection Act;

(20) the portion of a site or facility that is located entirely within a home rule unit having a population of no less than 120,000 and no more than 135,000, according to the 2000 federal census, and that meets all of the following requirements:

(i) the portion of the site or facility is used exclusively to perform testing of a thermochemical conversion technology using only woody biomass, collected as landscape waste within the boundaries of the home rule unit, as the hydrocarbon feedstock for the production of synthetic gas in accordance with Section 39.9 of this Act;

(ii) the portion of the site or facility is in compliance with all applicable zoning requirements; and

(iii) a complete application for a demonstration permit at the portion of the site or facility has been submitted to the Agency in accordance with Section 39.9 of this Act within one year after July 27, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1314);

(21) the portion of a site or facility used to perform limited testing of a gasification conversion technology in accordance with Section 39.8 of this Act and for which a complete permit application has been submitted to the Agency prior to one year from April 9, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-887);

(22) the portion of a site or facility that is used to incinerate only pharmaceuticals from residential sources that are collected and transported by law enforcement agencies under Section 17.9A of this Act;

(23) the portion of a site or facility:

(A) that is used exclusively for the transfer of commingled landscape waste and food scrap held at the site or facility for no longer than 24 hours after their receipt;

(B) that is located entirely within a home rule unit having a population of (i) not less than 100,000 and not more than 115,000 according to the 2010 federal census, (ii) not less than 5,000 and not more than 10,000 according to the 2010 federal census, or (iii) not less than 25,000 and not more than 30,000 according to the 2010 federal census or that is located in the unincorporated area of a county having a population of not less than 700,000 and not more than 705,000 according to the 2010 federal census;

(C) that is permitted, by the Agency, prior to January 1, 2002, for the transfer of landscape waste if located in a home rule unit or that is permitted prior to January 1, 2008 if located in an unincorporated area of a county; and

(D) for which a permit application is submitted to the Agency to modify an existing permit for the transfer of landscape waste to also include, on a demonstration basis not to exceed 24 months each time a permit is issued, the transfer of commingled landscape waste and food scrap or for which a permit application is submitted to the Agency within 6 months of August 11, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-94) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly;

(24) the portion of a municipal solid waste landfill unit:

(A) that is located in a county having a population of not less than 55,000 and not more than 60,000 according to the 2010 federal census;

(B) that is owned by that county;

(C) that is permitted, by the Agency, prior to July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-12); and

(D) for which a permit application is submitted to the Agency within 6 months after July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-12) for the disposal of non-hazardous special waste; and

(25) the portion of a site or facility used during a mass animal mortality event, as defined in the Animal Mortality Act, where such waste is collected, stored, processed, disposed, or incinerated under a mass animal mortality event plan issued by the Department of Agriculture.

(b) A new pollution control facility is:

(1) a pollution control facility initially permitted for development or construction after July 1, 1981; or

(2) the area of expansion beyond the boundary of a currently permitted pollution control facility; or

(3) a permitted pollution control facility requesting approval to store, dispose of, transfer or incinerate, for the first time, any special or hazardous waste.

(Source: P.A. 102-216, eff. 1-1-22; 102-310, eff. 8-6-21; revised 9-22-21.)

(415 ILCS 5/17.12)

Sec. 17.12. Lead service line replacement and notification.

(a) The purpose of this Act is to: (1) require the owners and operators of community water supplies to develop, implement, and maintain a comprehensive water service line material inventory and a comprehensive lead service line replacement plan, provide notice to occupants of potentially affected buildings before any construction or repair work on water mains or lead service lines, and request access to potentially affected buildings before replacing lead service lines; and (2) prohibit partial lead service line replacements, except as authorized within this Section.

(b) The General Assembly finds and declares that:

(1) There is no safe level of exposure to heavy metal lead, as found by the United States Environmental Protection Agency and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

(2) Lead service lines can convey this harmful substance to the drinking water supply.

(3) According to the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency's 2018 Service Line Material Inventory, the State of Illinois is estimated to have over 680,000 lead-based service lines still in operation.

(4) The true number of lead service lines is not fully known because Illinois lacks an adequate inventory of lead service lines.

(5) For the general health, safety and welfare of its residents, all lead service lines in Illinois should be disconnected from the drinking water supply, and the State's drinking water supply.

(c) In this Section:

"Advisory Board" means the Lead Service Line Replacement Advisory Board created under subsection (x).

"Community water supply" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3.145 of this Act.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Emergency repair" means any unscheduled water main, water service, or water valve repair or replacement that results from failure or accident.

"Fund" means the Lead Service Line Replacement Fund created under subsection (bb).

"Lead service line" means a service line made of lead or service line connected to a lead pigtail, lead gooseneck, or other lead fitting.

"Material inventory" means a water service line material inventory developed by a community water supply under this Act.

"Non-community Noncommunity water supply" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act.

"NSF/ANSI Standard" means a water treatment standard developed by NSF International.

"Partial lead service line replacement" means replacement of only a portion of a lead service line.

"Potentially affected building" means any building that is provided water service through a service line that is either a lead service line or a suspected lead service line.

"Public water supply" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 3.365 of this Act.

"Service line" means the piping, tubing, and necessary appurtenances acting as a conduit from the water main or source of potable water supply to the building plumbing at the first shut-off valve or 18 inches inside the building, whichever is shorter.

"Suspected lead service line" means a service line that a community water supply finds more likely than not to be made of lead after completing the requirements under paragraphs (2) through (5) of subsection (h).

"Small system" means a community water supply that regularly serves water to 3,300 or fewer persons.

(d) An owner or operator of a community water supply shall:

(1) develop an initial material inventory by April 15, 2022 and electronically submit by April 15, 2023 an updated material inventory electronically to the Agency; and

(2) deliver a complete material inventory to the Agency no later than April 15, 2024, or such time as required by federal law, whichever is sooner. The complete inventory shall report the composition of all service lines in the community water supply's distribution system.

(e) The Agency shall review and approve the final material inventory submitted to it under subsection (d).

(f) If a community water supply does not submit a complete inventory to the Agency by April 15, 2024 under paragraph (2) of subsection (d), the community water supply may apply for an extension to the Agency no less than 3 months prior to the due date. The Agency shall develop criteria for granting material inventory extensions. When considering requests for extension, the Agency shall, at a minimum, consider:

(1) the number of service connections in a water supply; and

(2) the number of service lines of an unknown material composition.

(g) A material inventory prepared for a community water supply under subsection (d) shall identify:

(1) the total number of service lines connected to the community water supply's distribution system;

(2) the materials of construction of each service line connected to the community water supply's distribution system;

(3) the number of suspected lead service lines that were newly identified in the material inventory for the community water supply after the community water supply last submitted a service line inventory to the Agency; and

(4) the number of suspected or known lead service lines that were replaced after the community water supply last submitted a service line inventory to the Agency, and the material of the service line that replaced each lead service line.

When identifying the materials of construction under paragraph (2) of this subsection, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall to the best of the owner's or operator's ability identify the type of construction material used on the customer's side of the curb box, meter, or other line of demarcation and the community water supply's side of the curb box, meter, or other line of demarcation.

(h) In completing a material inventory under subsection (d), the owner or operator of a community water supply shall:

(1) prioritize inspections of high-risk areas identified by the community water supply and inspections of high-risk facilities, such as preschools, day care centers, day care homes, group day care homes, parks, playgrounds, hospitals, and clinics, and confirm service line materials in those areas and at those facilities;

(2) review historical documentation, such as construction logs or cards, as-built drawings, purchase orders, and subdivision plans, to determine service line material construction;

(3) when conducting distribution system maintenance, visually inspect service lines and document materials of construction;

(4) identify any time period when the service lines being connected to its distribution system were primarily lead service lines, if such a time period is known or suspected; and

(5) discuss service line repair and installation with its employees, contractors, plumbers, other workers who worked on service lines connected to its distribution system, or all of the above.

(i) The owner or operator of each community water supply shall maintain records of persons who refuse to grant access to the interior of a building for purposes of identifying the materials of construction of a service line. If a community water supply has been denied access on the property or to the interior of a building for that reason, then the community water supply shall attempt to identify the service line as a suspected lead service line, unless documentation is provided showing otherwise.

(j) If a community water supply identifies a lead service line connected to a building, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall attempt to notify the owner of the building and all occupants of the building of the existence of the lead service line within 15 days after identifying the lead service line, or as soon as is reasonably possible thereafter. Individual written notice shall be given according to the provisions of subsection (jj).

(k) An owner or operator of a community water supply has no duty to include in the material inventory required under subsection (d) information about service lines that are physically disconnected from a water main in its distribution system.

(l) The owner or operator of each community water supply shall post on its website a copy of the most recently submitted material inventory or alternatively may request that the Agency post a copy of that material inventory on the Agency's website.

(m) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require service lines to be unearthed for the sole purpose of inventorying.

(n) When an owner or operator of a community water supply awards a contract under this Section, the owner or operator shall make a good faith effort to use contractors and vendors owned by minority persons, women, and persons with a disability, as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, for not less than 20% of the total contracts, provided that:

(1) contracts representing at least 11% of the total projects shall be awarded to minority-owned businesses, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act;

(2) contracts representing at least 7% of the total projects shall be awarded to women-owned businesses, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act; and

(3) contracts representing at least 2% of the total projects shall be awarded to businesses owned by persons with a disability.

Owners or operators of a community water supply are encouraged to divide projects, whenever economically feasible, into contracts of smaller size that ensure small business contractors or vendors shall have the ability to qualify in the applicable bidding process, when determining the ability to deliver on a given contract based on scope and size, as a responsible and responsive bidder.

When a contractor or vendor submits a bid or letter of intent in response to a request for proposal or other bid submission, the contractor or vendor shall include with its responsive documents a utilization plan that shall address how compliance with applicable good faith requirements set forth in this subsection shall be addressed.

Under this subsection, "good faith effort" means a community water supply has taken all necessary steps to comply with the goals of this subsection by complying with the following:

(1) Soliciting through reasonable and available means the interest of a business, as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, that have the capability to perform the work of the contract. The community water supply must solicit this interest within sufficient time to allow certified businesses to respond.

(2) Providing interested certified businesses with adequate information about the plans, specifications, and requirements of the contract, including addenda, in a timely manner to assist them in responding to the solicitation.

(3) Meeting in good faith with interested certified businesses that have submitted bids.

(4) Effectively using the services of the State, minority or women community organizations, minority or women contractor groups, local, State, and federal minority or women business assistance offices, and other organizations to provide assistance in the recruitment and placement of certified businesses.

(5) Making efforts to use appropriate forums for purposes of advertising subcontracting opportunities suitable for certified businesses.

The diversity goals defined in this subsection can be met through direct award to diverse contractors and through the use of diverse subcontractors and diverse vendors to contracts.

(o) An owner or operator of a community water supply shall collect data necessary to ensure compliance with subsection (n) no less than semi-annually and shall include progress toward compliance of subsection (n) in the owner or operator's report required under subsection (t-5). The report must include data on vendor and employee diversity, including data on the owner's or operator's implementation of subsection (n).

(p) Every owner or operator of a community water supply that has known or suspected lead service lines shall:

(1) create a plan to:

(A) replace each lead service line connected to its distribution system; and

(B) replace each galvanized service line connected to its distribution system, if the galvanized service line is or was connected downstream to lead piping; and

(2) electronically submit, by April 15, 2024 its initial lead service line replacement plan to the Agency;

(3) electronically submit by April 15 of each year after 2024 until April 15, 2027 an updated lead service line replacement plan to the Agency for review; the updated replacement plan shall account for changes in the number of lead service lines or unknown service lines in the material inventory described in subsection (d);

(4) electronically submit by April 15, 2027 a complete and final replacement plan to the Agency for approval; the complete and final replacement plan shall account for all known and suspected lead service lines documented in the final material inventory described under paragraph (3) of subsection (d); and

(5) post on its website a copy of the plan most recently submitted to the Agency or may request that the Agency post a copy of that plan on the Agency's website.

(q) Each plan required under paragraph (1) of subsection (p) shall include the following:

(1) the name and identification number of the community water supply;

(2) the total number of service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply;

(3) the total number of suspected lead service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply;

(4) the total number of known lead service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply;

(5) the total number of lead service lines connected to the distribution system of the community water supply that have been replaced each year beginning in 2020;

(6) a proposed lead service line replacement schedule that includes one-year, 5-year, 10-year, 15-year, 20-year, 25-year, and 30-year goals;

(7) an analysis of costs and financing options for replacing the lead service lines connected to the community water supply's distribution system, which shall include, but shall not be limited to:

(A) a detailed accounting of costs associated with replacing lead service lines and galvanized lines that are or were connected downstream to lead piping;

(B) measures to address affordability and prevent service shut-offs for customers or ratepayers; and

(C) consideration of different scenarios for structuring payments between the utility and its customers over time; and

(8) a plan for prioritizing high-risk facilities, such as preschools, day care centers, day care homes, group day care homes, parks, playgrounds, hospitals, and clinics, as well as high-risk areas identified by the community water supply;

(9) a map of the areas where lead service lines are expected to be found and the sequence with which those areas will be inventoried and lead service lines replaced;

(10) measures for how the community water supply will inform the public of the plan and provide opportunity for public comment; and

(11) measures to encourage diversity in hiring in the workforce required to implement the plan as identified under subsection (n).

(r) The Agency shall review final plans submitted to it under subsection (p). The Agency shall approve a final plan if the final plan includes all of the elements set forth under subsection (q) and the Agency determines that:

(1) the proposed lead service line replacement schedule set forth in the plan aligns with the timeline requirements set forth under subsection (v);

(2) the plan prioritizes the replacement of lead service lines that provide water service to high-risk facilities, such as preschools, day care centers, day care homes, group day care homes, parks, playgrounds, hospitals, and clinics, and high-risk areas identified by the community water supply;

(3) the plan includes analysis of cost and financing options; and

(4) the plan provides documentation of public review.

(s) An owner or operator of a community water supply has no duty to include in the plans required under subsection (p) information about service lines that are physically disconnected from a water main in its distribution system.

(t) If a community water supply does not deliver a complete plan to the Agency by April 15, 2027, the community water supply may apply to the Agency for an extension no less than 3 months prior to the due date. The Agency shall develop criteria for granting plan extensions. When considering requests for extension, the Agency shall, at a minimum, consider:

(1) the number of service connections in a water supply; and

(2) the number of service lines of an unknown material composition.

(t-5) After the Agency has approved the final replacement plan described in subsection (p), the owner or operator of a community water supply shall submit a report detailing progress toward plan goals to the Agency for its review. The report shall be submitted annually for the first 10 years, and every 3 years thereafter until all lead service lines have been replaced. Reports under this subsection shall be published in the same manner described in subsection (l). The report shall include at least the following information as it pertains to the preceding reporting period:

(1) The number of lead service lines replaced and the average cost of lead service line replacement.

(2) Progress toward meeting hiring requirements as described in subsection (n) and subsection (o).

(3) The percent of customers electing a waiver offered, as described in subsections (ii) and (jj), among those customers receiving a request or notification to perform a lead service line replacement.

(4) The method or methods used by the community water supply to finance lead service line replacement.

(u) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in order to provide for costs associated with lead service line remediation and replacement, the corporate authorities of a municipality may, by ordinance or resolution by the corporate authorities, exercise authority provided in Section 27-5 et seq. of the Property Tax Code and Sections 8-3-1, 8-11-1, 8-11-5, 8-11-6, 9-1-1 et seq., 9-3-1 et seq., 9-4-1 et seq., 11-131-1, and 11-150-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code. Taxes levied for this purpose shall be in addition to taxes for general purposes authorized under Section 8-3-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code and shall be included in the taxing district's aggregate extension for the purposes of Division 5 of Article 18 of the Property Tax Code.

(v) Every owner or operator of a community water supply shall replace all known lead service lines, subject to the requirements of subsection (ff), according to the following replacement rates and timelines to be calculated from the date of submission of the final replacement plan to the Agency:

(1) A community water supply reporting 1,200 or fewer lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 7% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 15 years for completion.

(2) A community water supply reporting more than 1,200 but fewer than 5,000 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 6% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 17 years for completion.

(3) A community water supply reporting more than 4,999 but fewer than 10,000 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 5% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 20 years for completion.

(4) A community water supply reporting more than 9,999 but fewer than 99,999 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 3% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 34 years for completion.

(5) A community water supply reporting more than 99,999 lead service lines in its final inventory and replacement plan shall replace all lead service lines, at an annual rate of no less than 2% of the amount described in the final inventory, with a timeline of up to 50 years for completion.

(w) A community water supply may apply to the Agency for an extension to the replacement timelines described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of subsection (v). The Agency shall develop criteria for granting replacement timeline extensions. When considering requests for timeline extensions, the Agency shall, at a minimum, consider:

(1) the number of service connections in a water supply; and

(2) unusual circumstances creating hardship for a community.

The Agency may grant one extension of additional time equal to not more than 20% of the original replacement timeline, except in situations of extreme hardship in which the Agency may consider a second additional extension equal to not more than 10% of the original replacement timeline.

Replacement rates and timelines shall be calculated from the date of submission of the final plan to the Agency.

(x) The Lead Service Line Replacement Advisory Board is created within the Agency. The Advisory Board shall convene within 120 days after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

The Advisory Board shall consist of at least 28 voting members, as follows:

(1) the Director of the Agency, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chairperson;

(2) the Director of Revenue, or his or her designee;

(3) the Director of Public Health, or his or her designee;

(4) fifteen members appointed by the Agency as follows:

(A) one member representing a statewide organization of municipalities as authorized by Section 1-8-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code;

(B) two members who are mayors representing municipalities located in any county south of the southernmost county represented by one of the 10 largest municipalities in Illinois by population, or their respective designees;

(C) two members who are representatives from public health advocacy groups;

(D) two members who are representatives from publicly-owned water utilities;

(E) one member who is a representative from a public utility as defined under Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act that provides water service in the State of Illinois;

(F) one member who is a research professional employed at an Illinois academic institution and specializing in water infrastructure research;

(G) two members who are representatives from nonprofit civic organizations;

(H) one member who is a representative from a statewide organization representing environmental organizations;

(I) two members who are representatives from organized labor; and

(J) one member representing an environmental justice organization; and

(5) ten members who are the mayors of the 10 largest municipalities in Illinois by population, or their respective designees.

No less than 10 of the 28 voting members shall be persons of color, and no less than 3 shall represent communities defined or self-identified as environmental justice communities.

Advisory Board members shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties from funds appropriated for that purpose. The Agency shall provide administrative support to the Advisory Board.

The Advisory Board shall meet no less than once every 6 months.

(y) The Advisory Board shall have, at a minimum, the following duties:

(1) advising the Agency on best practices in lead service line replacement;

(2) reviewing the progress of community water supplies toward lead service line replacement goals;

(3) advising the Agency on other matters related to the administration of the provisions of this Section;

(4) advising the Agency on the integration of existing lead service line replacement plans with any statewide plan; and

(5) providing technical support and practical expertise in general.

(z) Within 18 months after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Advisory Board shall deliver a report of its recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly concerning opportunities for dedicated, long-term revenue options for funding lead service line replacement. In submitting recommendations, the Advisory Board shall consider, at a minimum, the following:

(1) the sufficiency of various revenue sources to adequately fund replacement of all lead service lines in Illinois;

(2) the financial burden, if any, on households falling below 150% of the federal poverty limit;

(3) revenue options that guarantee low-income households are protected from rate increases;

(4) an assessment of the ability of community water supplies to assess and collect revenue;

(5) variations in financial resources among individual households within a service area; and

(6) the protection of low-income households from rate increases.

(aa) Within 10 years after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, the Advisory Board shall prepare and deliver a report to the Governor and General Assembly concerning the status of all lead service line replacement within the State.

(bb) The Lead Service Line Replacement Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury to be used by the Agency for the purposes provided under this Section. The Fund shall be used exclusively to finance and administer programs and activities specified under this Section and listed under this subsection.

The objective of the Fund is to finance activities associated with identifying and replacing lead service lines, build Agency capacity to oversee the provisions of this Section, and provide related assistance for the activities listed under this subsection.

The Agency shall be responsible for the administration of the Fund and shall allocate moneys on the basis of priorities established by the Agency through administrative rule. On July 1, 2022 and on July 1 of each year thereafter, the Agency shall determine the available amount of resources in the Fund that can be allocated to the activities identified under this Section and shall allocate the moneys accordingly.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Lead Service Line Replacement Fund is not subject to sweeps, administrative charge-backs, or any other fiscal maneuver that would in any way transfer any amounts from the Lead Service Line Replacement Fund into any other fund of the State.

(cc) Within one year after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-613) this amendatory Act of the 102 General Assembly, the Agency shall design rules for a program for the purpose of administering lead service line replacement funds. The rules must, at minimum, contain:

(1) the process by which community water supplies may apply for funding; and

(2) the criteria for determining unit of local government eligibility and prioritization for funding, including the prevalence of low-income households, as measured by median household income, the prevalence of lead service lines, and the prevalence of water samples that demonstrate elevated levels of lead.

(dd) Funding under subsection (cc) shall be available for costs directly attributable to the planning, design, or construction directly related to the replacement of lead service lines and restoration of property.

Funding shall not be used for the general operating expenses of a municipality or community water supply.

(ee) An owner or operator of any community water supply receiving grant funding under subsection (cc) shall bear the entire expense of full lead service line replacement for all lead service lines in the scope of the grant.

(ff) When replacing a lead service line, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall replace the service line in its entirety, including, but not limited to, any portion of the service line (i) running on private property and (ii) within the building's plumbing at the first shut-off valve. Partial lead service line replacements are expressly prohibited. Exceptions shall be made under the following circumstances:

(1) In the event of an emergency repair that affects a lead service line or a suspected lead service line, a community water supply must contact the building owner to begin the process of replacing the entire service line. If the building owner is not able to be contacted or the building owner or occupant refuses to grant access and permission to replace the entire service line at the time of the emergency repair, then the community water supply may perform a partial lead service line replacement. Where an emergency repair on a service line constructed of lead or galvanized steel pipe results in a partial service line replacement, the water supply responsible for commencing the repair shall perform the following:

(A) Notify the building's owner or operator and the resident or residents served by the lead service line in writing that a repair has been completed. The notification shall include, at a minimum:

(i) a warning that the work may result in sediment, possibly containing lead, in the buildings water supply system;

(ii) information concerning practices for preventing the consumption of any lead in drinking water, including a recommendation to flush water distribution pipe during and after the completion of the repair or replacement work and to clean faucet aerator screens; and

(iii) information regarding the dangers of lead to young children and pregnant women.

(B) Provide filters for at least one fixture supplying potable water for consumption. The filter must be certified by an accredited third-party certification body to NSF/ANSI 53 and NSF/ANSI 42 for the reduction of lead and particulate. The filter must be provided until such time that the remaining portions of the service line have been replaced with a material approved by the Department or a waiver has been issued under subsection (ii).

(C) Replace the remaining portion of the lead service line within 30 days of the repair, or 120 days in the event of weather or other circumstances beyond reasonable control that prohibits construction. If a complete lead service line replacement cannot be made within the required period, the community water supply responsible for commencing the repair shall notify the Department in writing, at a minimum, of the following within 24 hours of the repair:

(i) an explanation of why it is not feasible to replace the remaining portion of the lead service line within the allotted time; and

(ii) a timeline for when the remaining portion of the lead service line will be replaced.

(D) If complete repair of a lead service line cannot be completed due to denial by the property owner, the community water supply commencing the repair shall request the affected property owner to sign a waiver developed by the Department. If a property owner of a nonresidential building or residence operating as rental properties denies a complete lead service line replacement, the property owner shall be responsible for installing and maintaining point-of-use filters certified by an accredited third-party certification body to NSF/ANSI 53 and NSF/ANSI 42 for the reduction of lead and particulate at all fixtures intended to supply water for the purposes of drinking, food preparation, or making baby formula. The filters shall continue to be supplied by the property owner until such time that the property owner has affected the remaining portions of the lead service line to be replaced.

(E) Document any remaining lead service line, including a portion on the private side of the property, in the community water supply's distribution system materials inventory required under subsection (d).

For the purposes of this paragraph (1), written notice shall be provided in the method and according to the provisions of subsection (jj).

(2) Lead service lines that are physically disconnected from the distribution system are exempt from this subsection.

(gg) Except as provided in subsection (hh), on and after January 1, 2022, when the owner or operator of a community water supply replaces a water main, the community water supply shall identify all lead service lines connected to the water main and shall replace the lead service lines by:

(1) identifying the material or materials of each lead service line connected to the water main, including, but not limited to, any portion of the service line (i) running on private property and (ii) within the building plumbing at the first shut-off valve or 18 inches inside the building, whichever is shorter;

(2) in conjunction with replacement of the water main, replacing any and all portions of each lead service line connected to the water main that are composed of lead; and

(3) if a property owner or customer refuses to grant access to the property, following prescribed notice provisions as outlined in subsection (ff).

If an owner of a potentially affected building intends to replace a portion of a lead service line or a galvanized service line and the galvanized service line is or was connected downstream to lead piping, then the owner of the potentially affected building shall provide the owner or operator of the community water supply with notice at least 45 days before commencing the work. In the case of an emergency repair, the owner of the potentially affected building must provide filters for each kitchen area that are certified by an accredited third-party certification body to NSF/ANSI 53 and NSF/ANSI 42 for the reduction of lead and particulate. If the owner of the potentially affected building notifies the owner or operator of the community water supply that replacement of a portion of the lead service line after the emergency repair is completed, then the owner or operator of the community water supply shall replace the remainder of the lead service line within 30 days after completion of the emergency repair. A community water supply may take up to 120 days if necessary due to weather conditions. If a replacement takes longer than 30 days, filters provided by the owner of the potentially affected building must be replaced in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations. Partial lead service line replacements by the owners of potentially affected buildings are otherwise prohibited.

(hh) For municipalities with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants, the requirements of subsection (gg) shall commence on January 1, 2023.

(ii) At least 45 days before conducting planned lead service line replacement, the owner or operator of a community water supply shall, by mail, attempt to contact the owner of the potentially affected building serviced by the lead service line to request access to the building and permission to replace the lead service line in accordance with the lead service line replacement plan. If the owner of the potentially affected building does not respond to the request within 15 days after the request is sent, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall attempt to post the request on the entrance of the potentially affected building.

If the owner or operator of a community water supply is unable to obtain approval to access and replace a lead service line, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall request that the owner of the potentially affected building sign a waiver. The waiver shall be developed by the Department and should be made available in the owner's language. If the owner of the potentially affected building refuses to sign the waiver or fails to respond to the community water supply after the community water supply has complied with this subsection, then the community water supply shall notify the Department in writing within 15 working days.

(jj) When replacing a lead service line or repairing or replacing water mains with lead service lines or partial lead service lines attached to them, the owner or operator of a community water supply shall provide the owner of each potentially affected building that is serviced by the affected lead service lines or partial lead service lines, as well as the occupants of those buildings, with an individual written notice. The notice shall be delivered by mail or posted at the primary entranceway of the building. The notice may, in addition, be electronically mailed. Written notice shall include, at a minimum, the following:

(1) a warning that the work may result in sediment, possibly containing lead from the service line, in the building's water;

(2) information concerning the best practices for preventing exposure to or risk of consumption of lead in drinking water, including a recommendation to flush water lines during and after the completion of the repair or replacement work and to clean faucet aerator screens; and

(3) information regarding the dangers of lead exposure to young children and pregnant women.

When the individual written notice described in the first paragraph of this subsection is required as a result of planned work other than the repair or replacement of a water meter, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall provide the notice not less than 14 days before work begins. When the individual written notice described in the first paragraph of this subsection is required as a result of emergency repairs other than the repair or replacement of a water meter, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall provide the notice at the time the work is initiated. When the individual written notice described in the first paragraph of this subsection is required as a result of the repair or replacement of a water meter, the owner or operator of the community water supply shall provide the notice at the time the work is initiated.

The notifications required under this subsection must contain the following statement in the Spanish, Polish, Chinese, Tagalog, Arabic, Korean, German, Urdu, and Gujarati: "This notice contains important information about your water service and may affect your rights. We encourage you to have this notice translated in full into a language you understand and before you make any decisions that may be required under this notice."

An owner or operator of a community water supply that is required under this subsection to provide an individual written notice to the owner and occupant of a potentially affected building that is a multi-dwelling building may satisfy that requirement and the requirements of this subsection regarding notification to non-English speaking customers by posting the required notice on the primary entranceway of the building and at the location where the occupant's mail is delivered as reasonably as possible.

When this subsection would require the owner or operator of a community water supply to provide an individual written notice to the entire community served by the community water supply or would require the owner or operator of a community water supply to provide individual written notices as a result of emergency repairs or when the community water supply that is required to comply with this subsection is a small system, the owner or operator of the community water supply may provide the required notice through local media outlets, social media, or other similar means in lieu of providing the individual written notices otherwise required under this subsection.

No notifications are required under this subsection for work performed on water mains that are used to transmit treated water between community water supplies and properties that have no service connections.

(kk) No community water supply that sells water to any wholesale or retail consecutive community water supply may pass on any costs associated with compliance with this Section to consecutive systems.

(ll) To the extent allowed by law, when a community water supply replaces or installs a lead service line in a public right-of-way or enters into an agreement with a private contractor for replacement or installation of a lead service line, the community water supply shall be held harmless for all damage to property when replacing or installing the lead service line. If dangers are encountered that prevent the replacement of the lead service line, the community water supply shall notify the Department within 15 working days of why the replacement of the lead service line could not be accomplished.

(mm) The Agency may propose to the Board, and the Board may adopt, any rules necessary to implement and administer this Section. The Department may adopt rules necessary to address lead service lines attached to non-community noncommunity water supplies.

(nn) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, no requirement in this Section shall be construed as being less stringent than existing applicable federal requirements.

(oo) All lead service line replacements financed in whole or in part with funds obtained under this Section shall be considered public works for purposes of the Prevailing Wage Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-613, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-1-21.)

(415 ILCS 5/21) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1021)

Sec. 21. Prohibited acts. No person shall:

(a) Cause or allow the open dumping of any waste.

(b) Abandon, dump, or deposit any waste upon the public highways or other public property, except in a sanitary landfill approved by the Agency pursuant to regulations adopted by the Board.

(c) Abandon any vehicle in violation of the "Abandoned Vehicles Amendment to the Illinois Vehicle Code", as enacted by the 76th General Assembly.

(d) Conduct any waste-storage, waste-treatment, or waste-disposal operation:

(1) without a permit granted by the Agency or in violation of any conditions imposed by such permit, including periodic reports and full access to adequate records and the inspection of facilities, as may be necessary to assure compliance with this Act and with regulations and standards adopted thereunder; provided, however, that, except for municipal solid waste landfill units that receive waste on or after October 9, 1993, and CCR surface impoundments, no permit shall be required for (i) any person conducting a waste-storage, waste-treatment, or waste-disposal operation for wastes generated by such person's own activities which are stored, treated, or disposed within the site where such wastes are generated, (ii) until one year after the effective date of rules adopted by the Board under subsection (n) of Section 22.38, a facility located in a county with a population over 700,000 as of January 1, 2000, operated and located in accordance with Section 22.38 of this Act, and used exclusively for the transfer, storage, or treatment of general construction or demolition debris, provided that the facility was receiving construction or demolition debris on August 24, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-611), or (iii) any person conducting a waste transfer, storage, treatment, or disposal operation, including, but not limited to, a waste transfer or waste composting operation, under a mass animal mortality event plan created by the Department of Agriculture;

(2) in violation of any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under this Act;

(3) which receives waste after August 31, 1988, does not have a permit issued by the Agency, and is (i) a landfill used exclusively for the disposal of waste generated at the site, (ii) a surface impoundment receiving special waste not listed in an NPDES permit, (iii) a waste pile in which the total volume of waste is greater than 100 cubic yards or the waste is stored for over one year, or (iv) a land treatment facility receiving special waste generated at the site; without giving notice of the operation to the Agency by January 1, 1989, or 30 days after the date on which the operation commences, whichever is later, and every 3 years thereafter. The form for such notification shall be specified by the Agency, and shall be limited to information regarding: the name and address of the location of the operation; the type of operation; the types and amounts of waste stored, treated or disposed of on an annual basis; the remaining capacity of the operation; and the remaining expected life of the operation.

Item (3) of this subsection (d) shall not apply to any person engaged in agricultural activity who is disposing of a substance that constitutes solid waste, if the substance was acquired for use by that person on his own property, and the substance is disposed of on his own property in accordance with regulations or standards adopted by the Board.

This subsection (d) shall not apply to hazardous waste.

(e) Dispose, treat, store or abandon any waste, or transport any waste into this State for disposal, treatment, storage or abandonment, except at a site or facility which meets the requirements of this Act and of regulations and standards thereunder.

(f) Conduct any hazardous waste-storage, hazardous waste-treatment or hazardous waste-disposal operation:

(1) without a RCRA permit for the site issued by the Agency under subsection (d) of Section 39 of this Act, or in violation of any condition imposed by such permit, including periodic reports and full access to adequate records and the inspection of facilities, as may be necessary to assure compliance with this Act and with regulations and standards adopted thereunder; or

(2) in violation of any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under this Act; or

(3) in violation of any RCRA permit filing requirement established under standards adopted by the Board under this Act; or

(4) in violation of any order adopted by the Board under this Act.

Notwithstanding the above, no RCRA permit shall be required under this subsection or subsection (d) of Section 39 of this Act for any person engaged in agricultural activity who is disposing of a substance which has been identified as a hazardous waste, and which has been designated by Board regulations as being subject to this exception, if the substance was acquired for use by that person on his own property and the substance is disposed of on his own property in accordance with regulations or standards adopted by the Board.

(g) Conduct any hazardous waste-transportation operation:

(1) without registering with and obtaining a special waste hauling permit from the Agency in accordance with the regulations adopted by the Board under this Act; or

(2) in violation of any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under this Act.

(h) Conduct any hazardous waste-recycling or hazardous waste-reclamation or hazardous waste-reuse operation in violation of any regulations, standards or permit requirements adopted by the Board under this Act.

(i) Conduct any process or engage in any act which produces hazardous waste in violation of any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under subsections (a) and (c) of Section 22.4 of this Act.

(j) Conduct any special waste-transportation operation in violation of any regulations, standards or permit requirements adopted by the Board under this Act. However, sludge from a water or sewage treatment plant owned and operated by a unit of local government which (1) is subject to a sludge management plan approved by the Agency or a permit granted by the Agency, and (2) has been tested and determined not to be a hazardous waste as required by applicable State and federal laws and regulations, may be transported in this State without a special waste hauling permit, and the preparation and carrying of a manifest shall not be required for such sludge under the rules of the Pollution Control Board. The unit of local government which operates the treatment plant producing such sludge shall file an annual report with the Agency identifying the volume of such sludge transported during the reporting period, the hauler of the sludge, and the disposal sites to which it was transported. This subsection (j) shall not apply to hazardous waste.

(k) Fail or refuse to pay any fee imposed under this Act.

(l) Locate a hazardous waste disposal site above an active or inactive shaft or tunneled mine or within 2 miles of an active fault in the earth's crust. In counties of population less than 225,000 no hazardous waste disposal site shall be located (1) within 1 1/2 miles of the corporate limits as defined on June 30, 1978, of any municipality without the approval of the governing body of the municipality in an official action; or (2) within 1000 feet of an existing private well or the existing source of a public water supply measured from the boundary of the actual active permitted site and excluding existing private wells on the property of the permit applicant. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to publicly owned sewage works or the disposal or utilization of sludge from publicly owned sewage works.

(m) Transfer interest in any land which has been used as a hazardous waste disposal site without written notification to the Agency of the transfer and to the transferee of the conditions imposed by the Agency upon its use under subsection (g) of Section 39.

(n) Use any land which has been used as a hazardous waste disposal site except in compliance with conditions imposed by the Agency under subsection (g) of Section 39.

(o) Conduct a sanitary landfill operation which is required to have a permit under subsection (d) of this Section, in a manner which results in any of the following conditions:

(1) refuse in standing or flowing waters;

(2) leachate flows entering waters of the State;

(3) leachate flows exiting the landfill confines (as determined by the boundaries established for the landfill by a permit issued by the Agency);

(4) open burning of refuse in violation of Section 9 of this Act;

(5) uncovered refuse remaining from any previous operating day or at the conclusion of any operating day, unless authorized by permit;

(6) failure to provide final cover within time limits established by Board regulations;

(7) acceptance of wastes without necessary permits;

(8) scavenging as defined by Board regulations;

(9) deposition of refuse in any unpermitted portion of the landfill;

(10) acceptance of a special waste without a required manifest;

(11) failure to submit reports required by permits or Board regulations;

(12) failure to collect and contain litter from the site by the end of each operating day;

(13) failure to submit any cost estimate for the site or any performance bond or other security for the site as required by this Act or Board rules.

The prohibitions specified in this subsection (o) shall be enforceable by the Agency either by administrative citation under Section 31.1 of this Act or as otherwise provided by this Act. The specific prohibitions in this subsection do not limit the power of the Board to establish regulations or standards applicable to sanitary landfills.

(p) In violation of subdivision (a) of this Section, cause or allow the open dumping of any waste in a manner which results in any of the following occurrences at the dump site:

(1) litter;

(2) scavenging;

(3) open burning;

(4) deposition of waste in standing or flowing waters;

(5) proliferation of disease vectors;

(6) standing or flowing liquid discharge from the dump site;

(7) deposition of:

(i) general construction or demolition debris as defined in Section 3.160(a) of this Act; or

(ii) clean construction or demolition debris as defined in Section 3.160(b) of this Act.

The prohibitions specified in this subsection (p) shall be enforceable by the Agency either by administrative citation under Section 31.1 of this Act or as otherwise provided by this Act. The specific prohibitions in this subsection do not limit the power of the Board to establish regulations or standards applicable to open dumping.

(q) Conduct a landscape waste composting operation without an Agency permit, provided, however, that no permit shall be required for any person:

(1) conducting a landscape waste composting operation for landscape wastes generated by such person's own activities which are stored, treated, or disposed of within the site where such wastes are generated; or

(1.5) conducting a landscape waste composting operation that (i) has no more than 25 cubic yards of landscape waste, composting additives, composting material, or end-product compost on-site at any one time and (ii) is not engaging in commercial activity; or

(2) applying landscape waste or composted landscape waste at agronomic rates; or

(2.5) operating a landscape waste composting facility at a site having 10 or more occupied non-farm residences within 1/2 mile of its boundaries, if the facility meets all of the following criteria:

(A) the composting facility is operated by the farmer on property on which the composting material is utilized, and the composting facility constitutes no more than 2% of the site's total acreage;

(A-5) any composting additives that the composting facility accepts and uses at the facility are necessary to provide proper conditions for composting and do not exceed 10% of the total composting material at the facility at any one time;

(B) the property on which the composting facility is located, and any associated property on which the compost is used, is principally and diligently devoted to the production of agricultural crops and is not owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by any waste hauler or generator of nonagricultural compost materials, and the operator of the composting facility is not an employee, partner, shareholder, or in any way connected with or controlled by any such waste hauler or generator;

(C) all compost generated by the composting facility is applied at agronomic rates and used as mulch, fertilizer, or soil conditioner on land actually farmed by the person operating the composting facility, and the finished compost is not stored at the composting site for a period longer than 18 months prior to its application as mulch, fertilizer, or soil conditioner;

(D) no fee is charged for the acceptance of materials to be composted at the facility; and

(E) the owner or operator, by January 1, 2014 (or the January 1 following commencement of operation, whichever is later) and January 1 of each year thereafter, registers the site with the Agency, (ii) reports to the Agency on the volume of composting material received and used at the site; (iii) certifies to the Agency that the site complies with the requirements set forth in subparagraphs (A), (A-5), (B), (C), and (D) of this paragraph (2.5); and (iv) certifies to the Agency that all composting material was placed more than 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well, was placed outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or on a part of the site that is floodproofed, was placed at least 1/4 mile from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility) or a lesser distance from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility) if the municipality in which the facility is located has by ordinance approved a lesser distance than 1/4 mile, and was placed more than 5 feet above the water table; any ordinance approving a residential setback of less than 1/4 mile that is used to meet the requirements of this subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2.5) of this subsection must specifically reference this paragraph; or

(3) operating a landscape waste composting facility on a farm, if the facility meets all of the following criteria:

(A) the composting facility is operated by the farmer on property on which the composting material is utilized, and the composting facility constitutes no more than 2% of the property's total acreage, except that the Board may allow a higher percentage for individual sites where the owner or operator has demonstrated to the Board that the site's soil characteristics or crop needs require a higher rate;

(A-1) the composting facility accepts from other agricultural operations for composting with landscape waste no materials other than uncontaminated and source-separated (i) crop residue and other agricultural plant residue generated from the production and harvesting of crops and other customary farm practices, including, but not limited to, stalks, leaves, seed pods, husks, bagasse, and roots and (ii) plant-derived animal bedding, such as straw or sawdust, that is free of manure and was not made from painted or treated wood;

(A-2) any composting additives that the composting facility accepts and uses at the facility are necessary to provide proper conditions for composting and do not exceed 10% of the total composting material at the facility at any one time;

(B) the property on which the composting facility is located, and any associated property on which the compost is used, is principally and diligently devoted to the production of agricultural crops and is not owned, leased or otherwise controlled by any waste hauler or generator of nonagricultural compost materials, and the operator of the composting facility is not an employee, partner, shareholder, or in any way connected with or controlled by any such waste hauler or generator;

(C) all compost generated by the composting facility is applied at agronomic rates and used as mulch, fertilizer or soil conditioner on land actually farmed by the person operating the composting facility, and the finished compost is not stored at the composting site for a period longer than 18 months prior to its application as mulch, fertilizer, or soil conditioner;

(D) the owner or operator, by January 1 of each year, (i) registers the site with the Agency, (ii) reports to the Agency on the volume of composting material received and used at the site, (iii) certifies to the Agency that the site complies with the requirements set forth in subparagraphs (A), (A-1), (A-2), (B), and (C) of this paragraph (q)(3), and (iv) certifies to the Agency that all composting material:

(I) was placed more than 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well;

(II) was placed outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or on a part of the site that is floodproofed;

(III) was placed either (aa) at least 1/4 mile from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility) and there are not more than 10 occupied non-farm residences within 1/2 mile of the boundaries of the site on the date of application or (bb) a lesser distance from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility) provided that the municipality or county in which the facility is located has by ordinance approved a lesser distance than 1/4 mile and there are not more than 10 occupied non-farm residences within 1/2 mile of the boundaries of the site on the date of application; and

(IV) was placed more than 5 feet above the water table.

Any ordinance approving a residential setback of less than 1/4 mile that is used to meet the requirements of this subparagraph (D) must specifically reference this subparagraph.

For the purposes of this subsection (q), "agronomic rates" means the application of not more than 20 tons per acre per year, except that the Board may allow a higher rate for individual sites where the owner or operator has demonstrated to the Board that the site's soil characteristics or crop needs require a higher rate.

(r) Cause or allow the storage or disposal of coal combustion waste unless:

(1) such waste is stored or disposed of at a site or facility for which a permit has been obtained or is not otherwise required under subsection (d) of this Section; or

(2) such waste is stored or disposed of as a part of the design and reclamation of a site or facility which is an abandoned mine site in accordance with the Abandoned Mined Lands and Water Reclamation Act; or

(3) such waste is stored or disposed of at a site or facility which is operating under NPDES and Subtitle D permits issued by the Agency pursuant to regulations adopted by the Board for mine-related water pollution and permits issued pursuant to the federal Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (P.L. 95-87) or the rules and regulations thereunder or any law or rule or regulation adopted by the State of Illinois pursuant thereto, and the owner or operator of the facility agrees to accept the waste; and either:

(i) such waste is stored or disposed of in accordance with requirements applicable to refuse disposal under regulations adopted by the Board for mine-related water pollution and pursuant to NPDES and Subtitle D permits issued by the Agency under such regulations; or

(ii) the owner or operator of the facility demonstrates all of the following to the Agency, and the facility is operated in accordance with the demonstration as approved by the Agency: (1) the disposal area will be covered in a manner that will support continuous vegetation, (2) the facility will be adequately protected from wind and water erosion, (3) the pH will be maintained so as to prevent excessive leaching of metal ions, and (4) adequate containment or other measures will be provided to protect surface water and groundwater from contamination at levels prohibited by this Act, the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act, or regulations adopted pursuant thereto.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Title, the disposal of coal combustion waste pursuant to item (2) or (3) of this subdivision (r) shall be exempt from the other provisions of this Title V, and notwithstanding the provisions of Title X of this Act, the Agency is authorized to grant experimental permits which include provision for the disposal of wastes from the combustion of coal and other materials pursuant to items (2) and (3) of this subdivision (r).

(s) After April 1, 1989, offer for transportation, transport, deliver, receive or accept special waste for which a manifest is required, unless the manifest indicates that the fee required under Section 22.8 of this Act has been paid.

(t) Cause or allow a lateral expansion of a municipal solid waste landfill unit on or after October 9, 1993, without a permit modification, granted by the Agency, that authorizes the lateral expansion.

(u) Conduct any vegetable by-product treatment, storage, disposal or transportation operation in violation of any regulation, standards or permit requirements adopted by the Board under this Act. However, no permit shall be required under this Title V for the land application of vegetable by-products conducted pursuant to Agency permit issued under Title III of this Act to the generator of the vegetable by-products. In addition, vegetable by-products may be transported in this State without a special waste hauling permit, and without the preparation and carrying of a manifest.

(v) (Blank).

(w) Conduct any generation, transportation, or recycling of construction or demolition debris, clean or general, or uncontaminated soil generated during construction, remodeling, repair, and demolition of utilities, structures, and roads that is not commingled with any waste, without the maintenance of documentation identifying the hauler, generator, place of origin of the debris or soil, the weight or volume of the debris or soil, and the location, owner, and operator of the facility where the debris or soil was transferred, disposed, recycled, or treated. This documentation must be maintained by the generator, transporter, or recycler for 3 years. This subsection (w) shall not apply to (1) a permitted pollution control facility that transfers or accepts construction or demolition debris, clean or general, or uncontaminated soil for final disposal, recycling, or treatment, (2) a public utility (as that term is defined in the Public Utilities Act) or a municipal utility, (3) the Illinois Department of Transportation, or (4) a municipality or a county highway department, with the exception of any municipality or county highway department located within a county having a population of over 3,000,000 inhabitants or located in a county that is contiguous to a county having a population of over 3,000,000 inhabitants; but it shall apply to an entity that contracts with a public utility, a municipal utility, the Illinois Department of Transportation, or a municipality or a county highway department. The terms "generation" and "recycling", as used in this subsection, do not apply to clean construction or demolition debris when (i) used as fill material below grade outside of a setback zone if covered by sufficient uncontaminated soil to support vegetation within 30 days of the completion of filling or if covered by a road or structure, (ii) solely broken concrete without protruding metal bars is used for erosion control, or (iii) milled asphalt or crushed concrete is used as aggregate in construction of the shoulder of a roadway. The terms "generation" and "recycling", as used in this subsection, do not apply to uncontaminated soil that is not commingled with any waste when (i) used as fill material below grade or contoured to grade, or (ii) used at the site of generation.

(Source: P.A. 101-171, eff. 7-30-19; 102-216, eff. 1-1-22; 102-310, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.15) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1022.15)

Sec. 22.15. Solid Waste Management Fund; fees.

(a) There is hereby created within the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Solid Waste Management Fund, to be constituted from the fees collected by the State pursuant to this Section, from repayments of loans made from the Fund for solid waste projects, from registration fees collected pursuant to the Consumer Electronics Recycling Act, and from amounts transferred into the Fund pursuant to Public Act 100-433. Moneys received by either the Agency or the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in repayment of loans made pursuant to the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(b) The Agency shall assess and collect a fee in the amount set forth herein from the owner or operator of each sanitary landfill permitted or required to be permitted by the Agency to dispose of solid waste if the sanitary landfill is located off the site where such waste was produced and if such sanitary landfill is owned, controlled, and operated by a person other than the generator of such waste. The Agency shall deposit all fees collected into the Solid Waste Management Fund. If a site is contiguous to one or more landfills owned or operated by the same person, the volumes permanently disposed of by each landfill shall be combined for purposes of determining the fee under this subsection. Beginning on July 1, 2018, and on the first day of each month thereafter during fiscal years 2019 through 2022, the State Comptroller shall direct and State Treasurer shall transfer an amount equal to 1/12 of $5,000,000 per fiscal year from the Solid Waste Management Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(1) If more than 150,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall either pay a fee of 95 cents per cubic yard or, alternatively, the owner or operator may weigh the quantity of the solid waste permanently disposed of with a device for which certification has been obtained under the Weights and Measures Act and pay a fee of $2.00 per ton of solid waste permanently disposed of. In no case shall the fee collected or paid by the owner or operator under this paragraph exceed $1.55 per cubic yard or $3.27 per ton.

(2) If more than 100,000 cubic yards but not more than 150,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $52,630.

(3) If more than 50,000 cubic yards but not more than 100,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $23,790.

(4) If more than 10,000 cubic yards but not more than 50,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $7,260.

(5) If not more than 10,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $1050.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Agency shall establish rules relating to the collection of the fees authorized by this Section. Such rules shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) necessary records identifying the quantities of solid waste received or disposed;

(2) the form and submission of reports to accompany the payment of fees to the Agency;

(3) the time and manner of payment of fees to the Agency, which payments shall not be more often than quarterly; and

(4) procedures setting forth criteria establishing when an owner or operator may measure by weight or volume during any given quarter or other fee payment period.

(e) Pursuant to appropriation, all monies in the Solid Waste Management Fund shall be used by the Agency for the purposes set forth in this Section and in the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act, including for the costs of fee collection and administration, and for the administration of (1) the Consumer Electronics Recycling Act and (2) until January 1, 2020, the Electronic Products Recycling and Reuse Act.

(f) The Agency is authorized to enter into such agreements and to promulgate such rules as are necessary to carry out its duties under this Section and the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act.

(g) On the first day of January, April, July, and October of each year, beginning on July 1, 1996, the State Comptroller and Treasurer shall transfer $500,000 from the Solid Waste Management Fund to the Hazardous Waste Fund. Moneys transferred under this subsection (g) shall be used only for the purposes set forth in item (1) of subsection (d) of Section 22.2.

(h) The Agency is authorized to provide financial assistance to units of local government for the performance of inspecting, investigating and enforcement activities pursuant to Section 4(r) at nonhazardous solid waste disposal sites.

(i) The Agency is authorized to conduct household waste collection and disposal programs.

(j) A unit of local government, as defined in the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, in which a solid waste disposal facility is located may establish a fee, tax, or surcharge with regard to the permanent disposal of solid waste. All fees, taxes, and surcharges collected under this subsection shall be utilized for solid waste management purposes, including long-term monitoring and maintenance of landfills, planning, implementation, inspection, enforcement and other activities consistent with the Solid Waste Management Act and the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, or for any other environment-related purpose, including, but not limited to, an environment-related public works project, but not for the construction of a new pollution control facility other than a household hazardous waste facility. However, the total fee, tax or surcharge imposed by all units of local government under this subsection (j) upon the solid waste disposal facility shall not exceed:

(1) 60¢ per cubic yard if more than 150,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year, unless the owner or operator weighs the quantity of the solid waste received with a device for which certification has been obtained under the Weights and Measures Act, in which case the fee shall not exceed $1.27 per ton of solid waste permanently disposed of.

(2) $33,350 if more than 100,000 cubic yards, but not more than 150,000 cubic yards, of non-hazardous waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

(3) $15,500 if more than 50,000 cubic yards, but not more than 100,000 cubic yards, of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

(4) $4,650 if more than 10,000 cubic yards, but not more than 50,000 cubic yards, of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

(5) $650 if not more than 10,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

The corporate authorities of the unit of local government may use proceeds from the fee, tax, or surcharge to reimburse a highway commissioner whose road district lies wholly or partially within the corporate limits of the unit of local government for expenses incurred in the removal of nonhazardous, nonfluid municipal waste that has been dumped on public property in violation of a State law or local ordinance.

For the disposal of solid waste from general construction or demolition debris recovery facilities as defined in subsection (a-1) of Section 3.160, the total fee, tax, or surcharge imposed by all units of local government under this subsection (j) upon the solid waste disposal facility shall not exceed 50% of the applicable amount set forth above. A unit of local government, as defined in the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, in which a general construction or demolition debris recovery facility is located may establish a fee, tax, or surcharge on the general construction or demolition debris recovery facility with regard to the permanent disposal of solid waste by the general construction or demolition debris recovery facility at a solid waste disposal facility, provided that such fee, tax, or surcharge shall not exceed 50% of the applicable amount set forth above, based on the total amount of solid waste transported from the general construction or demolition debris recovery facility for disposal at solid waste disposal facilities, and the unit of local government and fee shall be subject to all other requirements of this subsection (j).

A county or Municipal Joint Action Agency that imposes a fee, tax, or surcharge under this subsection may use the proceeds thereof to reimburse a municipality that lies wholly or partially within its boundaries for expenses incurred in the removal of nonhazardous, nonfluid municipal waste that has been dumped on public property in violation of a State law or local ordinance.

If the fees are to be used to conduct a local sanitary landfill inspection or enforcement program, the unit of local government must enter into a written delegation agreement with the Agency pursuant to subsection (r) of Section 4. The unit of local government and the Agency shall enter into such a written delegation agreement within 60 days after the establishment of such fees. At least annually, the Agency shall conduct an audit of the expenditures made by units of local government from the funds granted by the Agency to the units of local government for purposes of local sanitary landfill inspection and enforcement programs, to ensure that the funds have been expended for the prescribed purposes under the grant.

The fees, taxes or surcharges collected under this subsection (j) shall be placed by the unit of local government in a separate fund, and the interest received on the moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. The monies in the fund may be accumulated over a period of years to be expended in accordance with this subsection.

A unit of local government, as defined in the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, shall prepare and post on its website, in April of each year, a report that details spending plans for monies collected in accordance with this subsection. The report will at a minimum include the following:

(1) The total monies collected pursuant to this subsection.

(2) The most current balance of monies collected pursuant to this subsection.

(3) An itemized accounting of all monies expended for the previous year pursuant to this subsection.

(4) An estimation of monies to be collected for the following 3 years pursuant to this subsection.

(5) A narrative detailing the general direction and scope of future expenditures for one, 2 and 3 years.

The exemptions granted under Sections 22.16 and 22.16a, and under subsection (k) of this Section, shall be applicable to any fee, tax or surcharge imposed under this subsection (j); except that the fee, tax or surcharge authorized to be imposed under this subsection (j) may be made applicable by a unit of local government to the permanent disposal of solid waste after December 31, 1986, under any contract lawfully executed before June 1, 1986 under which more than 150,000 cubic yards (or 50,000 tons) of solid waste is to be permanently disposed of, even though the waste is exempt from the fee imposed by the State under subsection (b) of this Section pursuant to an exemption granted under Section 22.16.

(k) In accordance with the findings and purposes of the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act, beginning January 1, 1989 the fee under subsection (b) and the fee, tax or surcharge under subsection (j) shall not apply to:

(1) waste which is hazardous waste;

(2) waste which is pollution control waste;

(3) waste from recycling, reclamation or reuse processes which have been approved by the Agency as being designed to remove any contaminant from wastes so as to render such wastes reusable, provided that the process renders at least 50% of the waste reusable; the exemption set forth in this paragraph (3) of this subsection (k) shall not apply to general construction or demolition debris recovery facilities as defined in subsection (a-1) of Section 3.160;

(4) non-hazardous solid waste that is received at a sanitary landfill and composted or recycled through a process permitted by the Agency; or

(5) any landfill which is permitted by the Agency to receive only demolition or construction debris or landscape waste.

(Source: P.A. 101-10, eff. 6-5-19; 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-310, eff. 8-6-21; 102-444, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-28-21.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.59)

Sec. 22.59. CCR surface impoundments.

(a) The General Assembly finds that:

(1) the State of Illinois has a long-standing policy to restore, protect, and enhance the environment, including the purity of the air, land, and waters, including groundwaters, of this State;

(2) a clean environment is essential to the growth and well-being of this State;

(3) CCR generated by the electric generating industry has caused groundwater contamination and other forms of pollution at active and inactive plants throughout this State;

(4) environmental laws should be supplemented to ensure consistent, responsible regulation of all existing CCR surface impoundments; and

(5) meaningful participation of State residents, especially vulnerable populations who may be affected by regulatory actions, is critical to ensure that environmental justice considerations are incorporated in the development of, decision-making related to, and implementation of environmental laws and rulemaking that protects and improves the well-being of communities in this State that bear disproportionate burdens imposed by environmental pollution.

Therefore, the purpose of this Section is to promote a healthful environment, including clean water, air, and land, meaningful public involvement, and the responsible disposal and storage of coal combustion residuals, so as to protect public health and to prevent pollution of the environment of this State.

The provisions of this Section shall be liberally construed to carry out the purposes of this Section.

(b) No person shall:

(1) cause or allow the discharge of any contaminants from a CCR surface impoundment into the environment so as to cause, directly or indirectly, a violation of this Section or any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under this Section, either alone or in combination with contaminants from other sources;

(2) construct, install, modify, operate, or close any CCR surface impoundment without a permit granted by the Agency, or so as to violate any conditions imposed by such permit, any provision of this Section or any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under this Section;

(3) cause or allow, directly or indirectly, the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, or placing of any CCR upon the land in a place and manner so as to cause or tend to cause a violation of this Section or any regulations or standards adopted by the Board under this Section; or

(4) construct, install, modify, or close a CCR surface impoundment in accordance with a permit issued under this Act without certifying to the Agency that all contractors, subcontractors, and installers utilized to construct, install, modify, or close a CCR surface impoundment are participants in:

(A) a training program that is approved by and registered with the United States Department of Labor's Employment and Training Administration and that includes instruction in erosion control and environmental remediation; and

(B) a training program that is approved by and registered with the United States Department of Labor's Employment and Training Administration and that includes instruction in the operation of heavy equipment and excavation.

Nothing in this paragraph (4) shall be construed to require providers of construction-related professional services to participate in a training program approved by and registered with the United States Department of Labor's Employment and Training Administration.

In this paragraph (4), "construction-related professional services" includes, but is not limited to, those services within the scope of: (i) the practice of architecture as regulated under the Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989; (ii) professional engineering as defined in Section 4 of the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989; (iii) the practice of a structural engineer as defined in Section 4 of the Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989; or (iv) land surveying under the Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989.

(c) (Blank).

(d) Before commencing closure of a CCR surface impoundment, in accordance with Board rules, the owner of a CCR surface impoundment must submit to the Agency for approval a closure alternatives analysis that analyzes all closure methods being considered and that otherwise satisfies all closure requirements adopted by the Board under this Act. Complete removal of CCR, as specified by the Board's rules, from the CCR surface impoundment must be considered and analyzed. Section 3.405 does not apply to the Board's rules specifying complete removal of CCR. The selected closure method must ensure compliance with regulations adopted by the Board pursuant to this Section.

(e) Owners or operators of CCR surface impoundments who have submitted a closure plan to the Agency before May 1, 2019, and who have completed closure prior to 24 months after July 30, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-171) shall not be required to obtain a construction permit for the surface impoundment closure under this Section.

(f) Except for the State, its agencies and institutions, a unit of local government, or not-for-profit electric cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, any person who owns or operates a CCR surface impoundment in this State shall post with the Agency a performance bond or other security for the purpose of: (i) ensuring closure of the CCR surface impoundment and post-closure care in accordance with this Act and its rules; and (ii) ensuring remediation of releases from the CCR surface impoundment. The only acceptable forms of financial assurance are: a trust fund, a surety bond guaranteeing payment, a surety bond guaranteeing performance, or an irrevocable letter of credit.

(1) The cost estimate for the post-closure care of a CCR surface impoundment shall be calculated using a 30-year post-closure care period or such longer period as may be approved by the Agency under Board or federal rules.

(2) The Agency is authorized to enter into such contracts and agreements as it may deem necessary to carry out the purposes of this Section. Neither the State, nor the Director, nor any State employee shall be liable for any damages or injuries arising out of or resulting from any action taken under this Section.

(3) The Agency shall have the authority to approve or disapprove any performance bond or other security posted under this subsection. Any person whose performance bond or other security is disapproved by the Agency may contest the disapproval as a permit denial appeal pursuant to Section 40.

(g) The Board shall adopt rules establishing construction permit requirements, operating permit requirements, design standards, reporting, financial assurance, and closure and post-closure care requirements for CCR surface impoundments. Not later than 8 months after July 30, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-171) the Agency shall propose, and not later than one year after receipt of the Agency's proposal the Board shall adopt, rules under this Section. The Board shall not be deemed in noncompliance with the rulemaking deadline due to delays in adopting rules as a result of the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules oversight process. The rules must, at a minimum:

(1) be at least as protective and comprehensive as the federal regulations or amendments thereto promulgated by the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency in Subpart D of 40 CFR 257 governing CCR surface impoundments;

(2) specify the minimum contents of CCR surface impoundment construction and operating permit applications, including the closure alternatives analysis required under subsection (d);

(3) specify which types of permits include requirements for closure, post-closure, remediation and all other requirements applicable to CCR surface impoundments;

(4) specify when permit applications for existing CCR surface impoundments must be submitted, taking into consideration whether the CCR surface impoundment must close under the RCRA;

(5) specify standards for review and approval by the Agency of CCR surface impoundment permit applications;

(6) specify meaningful public participation procedures for the issuance of CCR surface impoundment construction and operating permits, including, but not limited to, public notice of the submission of permit applications, an opportunity for the submission of public comments, an opportunity for a public hearing prior to permit issuance, and a summary and response of the comments prepared by the Agency;

(7) prescribe the type and amount of the performance bonds or other securities required under subsection (f), and the conditions under which the State is entitled to collect moneys from such performance bonds or other securities;

(8) specify a procedure to identify areas of environmental justice concern in relation to CCR surface impoundments;

(9) specify a method to prioritize CCR surface impoundments required to close under RCRA if not otherwise specified by the United States Environmental Protection Agency, so that the CCR surface impoundments with the highest risk to public health and the environment, and areas of environmental justice concern are given first priority;

(10) define when complete removal of CCR is achieved and specify the standards for responsible removal of CCR from CCR surface impoundments, including, but not limited to, dust controls and the protection of adjacent surface water and groundwater; and

(11) describe the process and standards for identifying a specific alternative source of groundwater pollution when the owner or operator of the CCR surface impoundment believes that groundwater contamination on the site is not from the CCR surface impoundment.

(h) Any owner of a CCR surface impoundment that generates CCR and sells or otherwise provides coal combustion byproducts pursuant to Section 3.135 shall, every 12 months, post on its publicly available website a report specifying the volume or weight of CCR, in cubic yards or tons, that it sold or provided during the past 12 months.

(i) The owner of a CCR surface impoundment shall post all closure plans, permit applications, and supporting documentation, as well as any Agency approval of the plans or applications on its publicly available website.

(j) The owner or operator of a CCR surface impoundment shall pay the following fees:

(1) An initial fee to the Agency within 6 months after July 30, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-171) of:

$50,000 for each closed CCR surface impoundment; and

$75,000 for each CCR surface impoundment that have not completed closure.

(2) Annual fees to the Agency, beginning on July 1, 2020, of:

$25,000 for each CCR surface impoundment that has not completed closure; and

$15,000 for each CCR surface impoundment that has completed closure, but has not completed post-closure care.

(k) All fees collected by the Agency under subsection (j) shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund.

(l) The Coal Combustion Residual Surface Impoundment Financial Assurance Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Any moneys forfeited to the State of Illinois from any performance bond or other security required under this Section shall be placed in the Coal Combustion Residual Surface Impoundment Financial Assurance Fund and shall, upon approval by the Governor and the Director, be used by the Agency for the purposes for which such performance bond or other security was issued. The Coal Combustion Residual Surface Impoundment Financial Assurance Fund is not subject to the provisions of subsection (c) of Section 5 of the State Finance Act.

(m) The provisions of this Section shall apply, without limitation, to all existing CCR surface impoundments and any CCR surface impoundments constructed after July 30, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-171), except to the extent prohibited by the Illinois or United States Constitutions.

(Source: P.A. 101-171, eff. 7-30-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-137, eff. 7-23-21; 102-309, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(415 ILCS 5/39) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1039)

Sec. 39. Issuance of permits; procedures.

(a) When the Board has by regulation required a permit for the construction, installation, or operation of any type of facility, equipment, vehicle, vessel, or aircraft, the applicant shall apply to the Agency for such permit and it shall be the duty of the Agency to issue such a permit upon proof by the applicant that the facility, equipment, vehicle, vessel, or aircraft will not cause a violation of this Act or of regulations hereunder. The Agency shall adopt such procedures as are necessary to carry out its duties under this Section. In making its determinations on permit applications under this Section the Agency may consider prior adjudications of noncompliance with this Act by the applicant that involved a release of a contaminant into the environment. In granting permits, the Agency may impose reasonable conditions specifically related to the applicant's past compliance history with this Act as necessary to correct, detect, or prevent noncompliance. The Agency may impose such other conditions as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act, and as are not inconsistent with the regulations promulgated by the Board hereunder. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, a bond or other security shall not be required as a condition for the issuance of a permit. If the Agency denies any permit under this Section, the Agency shall transmit to the applicant within the time limitations of this Section specific, detailed statements as to the reasons the permit application was denied. Such statements shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(i) the Sections of this Act which may be violated if the permit were granted;

(ii) the provision of the regulations, promulgated under this Act, which may be violated if the permit were granted;

(iii) the specific type of information, if any, which the Agency deems the applicant did not provide the Agency; and

(iv) a statement of specific reasons why the Act and the regulations might not be met if the permit were granted.

If there is no final action by the Agency within 90 days after the filing of the application for permit, the applicant may deem the permit issued; except that this time period shall be extended to 180 days when (1) notice and opportunity for public hearing are required by State or federal law or regulation, (2) the application which was filed is for any permit to develop a landfill subject to issuance pursuant to this subsection, or (3) the application that was filed is for a MSWLF unit required to issue public notice under subsection (p) of Section 39. The 90-day and 180-day time periods for the Agency to take final action do not apply to NPDES permit applications under subsection (b) of this Section, to RCRA permit applications under subsection (d) of this Section, to UIC permit applications under subsection (e) of this Section, or to CCR surface impoundment applications under subsection (y) of this Section.

The Agency shall publish notice of all final permit determinations for development permits for MSWLF units and for significant permit modifications for lateral expansions for existing MSWLF units one time in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the unit is or is proposed to be located.

After January 1, 1994 and until July 1, 1998, operating permits issued under this Section by the Agency for sources of air pollution permitted to emit less than 25 tons per year of any combination of regulated air pollutants, as defined in Section 39.5 of this Act, shall be required to be renewed only upon written request by the Agency consistent with applicable provisions of this Act and regulations promulgated hereunder. Such operating permits shall expire 180 days after the date of such a request. The Board shall revise its regulations for the existing State air pollution operating permit program consistent with this provision by January 1, 1994.

After June 30, 1998, operating permits issued under this Section by the Agency for sources of air pollution that are not subject to Section 39.5 of this Act and are not required to have a federally enforceable State operating permit shall be required to be renewed only upon written request by the Agency consistent with applicable provisions of this Act and its rules. Such operating permits shall expire 180 days after the date of such a request. Before July 1, 1998, the Board shall revise its rules for the existing State air pollution operating permit program consistent with this paragraph and shall adopt rules that require a source to demonstrate that it qualifies for a permit under this paragraph.

(b) The Agency may issue NPDES permits exclusively under this subsection for the discharge of contaminants from point sources into navigable waters, all as defined in the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, within the jurisdiction of the State, or into any well.

All NPDES permits shall contain those terms and conditions, including, but not limited to, schedules of compliance, which may be required to accomplish the purposes and provisions of this Act.

The Agency may issue general NPDES permits for discharges from categories of point sources which are subject to the same permit limitations and conditions. Such general permits may be issued without individual applications and shall conform to regulations promulgated under Section 402 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The Agency may include, among such conditions, effluent limitations and other requirements established under this Act, Board regulations, the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, and regulations pursuant thereto, and schedules for achieving compliance therewith at the earliest reasonable date.

The Agency shall adopt filing requirements and procedures which are necessary and appropriate for the issuance of NPDES permits, and which are consistent with the Act or regulations adopted by the Board, and with the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

The Agency, subject to any conditions which may be prescribed by Board regulations, may issue NPDES permits to allow discharges beyond deadlines established by this Act or by regulations of the Board without the requirement of a variance, subject to the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as now or hereafter amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

(c) Except for those facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act, no permit for the development or construction of a new pollution control facility may be granted by the Agency unless the applicant submits proof to the Agency that the location of the facility has been approved by the county board of the county if in an unincorporated area, or the governing body of the municipality when in an incorporated area, in which the facility is to be located in accordance with Section 39.2 of this Act. For purposes of this subsection (c), and for purposes of Section 39.2 of this Act, the appropriate county board or governing body of the municipality shall be the county board of the county or the governing body of the municipality in which the facility is to be located as of the date when the application for siting approval is filed.

In the event that siting approval granted pursuant to Section 39.2 has been transferred to a subsequent owner or operator, that subsequent owner or operator may apply to the Agency for, and the Agency may grant, a development or construction permit for the facility for which local siting approval was granted. Upon application to the Agency for a development or construction permit by that subsequent owner or operator, the permit applicant shall cause written notice of the permit application to be served upon the appropriate county board or governing body of the municipality that granted siting approval for that facility and upon any party to the siting proceeding pursuant to which siting approval was granted. In that event, the Agency shall conduct an evaluation of the subsequent owner or operator's prior experience in waste management operations in the manner conducted under subsection (i) of Section 39 of this Act.

Beginning August 20, 1993, if the pollution control facility consists of a hazardous or solid waste disposal facility for which the proposed site is located in an unincorporated area of a county with a population of less than 100,000 and includes all or a portion of a parcel of land that was, on April 1, 1993, adjacent to a municipality having a population of less than 5,000, then the local siting review required under this subsection (c) in conjunction with any permit applied for after that date shall be performed by the governing body of that adjacent municipality rather than the county board of the county in which the proposed site is located; and for the purposes of that local siting review, any references in this Act to the county board shall be deemed to mean the governing body of that adjacent municipality; provided, however, that the provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to any proposed site which was, on April 1, 1993, owned in whole or in part by another municipality.

In the case of a pollution control facility for which a development permit was issued before November 12, 1981, if an operating permit has not been issued by the Agency prior to August 31, 1989 for any portion of the facility, then the Agency may not issue or renew any development permit nor issue an original operating permit for any portion of such facility unless the applicant has submitted proof to the Agency that the location of the facility has been approved by the appropriate county board or municipal governing body pursuant to Section 39.2 of this Act.

After January 1, 1994, if a solid waste disposal facility, any portion for which an operating permit has been issued by the Agency, has not accepted waste disposal for 5 or more consecutive calendar years, before that facility may accept any new or additional waste for disposal, the owner and operator must obtain a new operating permit under this Act for that facility unless the owner and operator have applied to the Agency for a permit authorizing the temporary suspension of waste acceptance. The Agency may not issue a new operation permit under this Act for the facility unless the applicant has submitted proof to the Agency that the location of the facility has been approved or re-approved by the appropriate county board or municipal governing body under Section 39.2 of this Act after the facility ceased accepting waste.

Except for those facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act, and except for new pollution control facilities governed by Section 39.2, and except for fossil fuel mining facilities, the granting of a permit under this Act shall not relieve the applicant from meeting and securing all necessary zoning approvals from the unit of government having zoning jurisdiction over the proposed facility.

Before beginning construction on any new sewage treatment plant or sludge drying site to be owned or operated by a sanitary district organized under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act for which a new permit (rather than the renewal or amendment of an existing permit) is required, such sanitary district shall hold a public hearing within the municipality within which the proposed facility is to be located, or within the nearest community if the proposed facility is to be located within an unincorporated area, at which information concerning the proposed facility shall be made available to the public, and members of the public shall be given the opportunity to express their views concerning the proposed facility.

The Agency may issue a permit for a municipal waste transfer station without requiring approval pursuant to Section 39.2 provided that the following demonstration is made:

(1) the municipal waste transfer station was in existence on or before January 1, 1979 and was in continuous operation from January 1, 1979 to January 1, 1993;

(2) the operator submitted a permit application to the Agency to develop and operate the municipal waste transfer station during April of 1994;

(3) the operator can demonstrate that the county board of the county, if the municipal waste transfer station is in an unincorporated area, or the governing body of the municipality, if the station is in an incorporated area, does not object to resumption of the operation of the station; and

(4) the site has local zoning approval.

(d) The Agency may issue RCRA permits exclusively under this subsection to persons owning or operating a facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste as defined under this Act. Subsection (y) of this Section, rather than this subsection (d), shall apply to permits issued for CCR surface impoundments.

All RCRA permits shall contain those terms and conditions, including, but not limited to, schedules of compliance, which may be required to accomplish the purposes and provisions of this Act. The Agency may include among such conditions standards and other requirements established under this Act, Board regulations, the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580), as amended, and regulations pursuant thereto, and may include schedules for achieving compliance therewith as soon as possible. The Agency shall require that a performance bond or other security be provided as a condition for the issuance of a RCRA permit.

In the case of a permit to operate a hazardous waste or PCB incinerator as defined in subsection (k) of Section 44, the Agency shall require, as a condition of the permit, that the operator of the facility perform such analyses of the waste to be incinerated as may be necessary and appropriate to ensure the safe operation of the incinerator.

The Agency shall adopt filing requirements and procedures which are necessary and appropriate for the issuance of RCRA permits, and which are consistent with the Act or regulations adopted by the Board, and with the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (P.L. 94-580), as amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

The applicant shall make available to the public for inspection all documents submitted by the applicant to the Agency in furtherance of an application, with the exception of trade secrets, at the office of the county board or governing body of the municipality. Such documents may be copied upon payment of the actual cost of reproduction during regular business hours of the local office. The Agency shall issue a written statement concurrent with its grant or denial of the permit explaining the basis for its decision.

(e) The Agency may issue UIC permits exclusively under this subsection to persons owning or operating a facility for the underground injection of contaminants as defined under this Act.

All UIC permits shall contain those terms and conditions, including, but not limited to, schedules of compliance, which may be required to accomplish the purposes and provisions of this Act. The Agency may include among such conditions standards and other requirements established under this Act, Board regulations, the Safe Drinking Water Act (P.L. 93-523), as amended, and regulations pursuant thereto, and may include schedules for achieving compliance therewith. The Agency shall require that a performance bond or other security be provided as a condition for the issuance of a UIC permit.

The Agency shall adopt filing requirements and procedures which are necessary and appropriate for the issuance of UIC permits, and which are consistent with the Act or regulations adopted by the Board, and with the Safe Drinking Water Act (P.L. 93-523), as amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

The applicant shall make available to the public for inspection, all documents submitted by the applicant to the Agency in furtherance of an application, with the exception of trade secrets, at the office of the county board or governing body of the municipality. Such documents may be copied upon payment of the actual cost of reproduction during regular business hours of the local office. The Agency shall issue a written statement concurrent with its grant or denial of the permit explaining the basis for its decision.

(f) In making any determination pursuant to Section 9.1 of this Act:

(1) The Agency shall have authority to make the determination of any question required to be determined by the Clean Air Act, as now or hereafter amended, this Act, or the regulations of the Board, including the determination of the Lowest Achievable Emission Rate, Maximum Achievable Control Technology, or Best Available Control Technology, consistent with the Board's regulations, if any.

(2) The Agency shall adopt requirements as necessary to implement public participation procedures, including, but not limited to, public notice, comment, and an opportunity for hearing, which must accompany the processing of applications for PSD permits. The Agency shall briefly describe and respond to all significant comments on the draft permit raised during the public comment period or during any hearing. The Agency may group related comments together and provide one unified response for each issue raised.

(3) Any complete permit application submitted to the Agency under this subsection for a PSD permit shall be granted or denied by the Agency not later than one year after the filing of such completed application.

(4) The Agency shall, after conferring with the applicant, give written notice to the applicant of its proposed decision on the application, including the terms and conditions of the permit to be issued and the facts, conduct, or other basis upon which the Agency will rely to support its proposed action.

(g) The Agency shall include as conditions upon all permits issued for hazardous waste disposal sites such restrictions upon the future use of such sites as are reasonably necessary to protect public health and the environment, including permanent prohibition of the use of such sites for purposes which may create an unreasonable risk of injury to human health or to the environment. After administrative and judicial challenges to such restrictions have been exhausted, the Agency shall file such restrictions of record in the Office of the Recorder of the county in which the hazardous waste disposal site is located.

(h) A hazardous waste stream may not be deposited in a permitted hazardous waste site unless specific authorization is obtained from the Agency by the generator and disposal site owner and operator for the deposit of that specific hazardous waste stream. The Agency may grant specific authorization for disposal of hazardous waste streams only after the generator has reasonably demonstrated that, considering technological feasibility and economic reasonableness, the hazardous waste cannot be reasonably recycled for reuse, nor incinerated or chemically, physically, or biologically treated so as to neutralize the hazardous waste and render it nonhazardous. In granting authorization under this Section, the Agency may impose such conditions as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of the Act and are consistent with this Act and regulations promulgated by the Board hereunder. If the Agency refuses to grant authorization under this Section, the applicant may appeal as if the Agency refused to grant a permit, pursuant to the provisions of subsection (a) of Section 40 of this Act. For purposes of this subsection (h), the term "generator" has the meaning given in Section 3.205 of this Act, unless: (1) the hazardous waste is treated, incinerated, or partially recycled for reuse prior to disposal, in which case the last person who treats, incinerates, or partially recycles the hazardous waste prior to disposal is the generator; or (2) the hazardous waste is from a response action, in which case the person performing the response action is the generator. This subsection (h) does not apply to any hazardous waste that is restricted from land disposal under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.

(i) Before issuing any RCRA permit, any permit for a waste storage site, sanitary landfill, waste disposal site, waste transfer station, waste treatment facility, waste incinerator, or any waste-transportation operation, any permit or interim authorization for a clean construction or demolition debris fill operation, or any permit required under subsection (d-5) of Section 55, the Agency shall conduct an evaluation of the prospective owner's or operator's prior experience in waste management operations, clean construction or demolition debris fill operations, and tire storage site management. The Agency may deny such a permit, or deny or revoke interim authorization, if the prospective owner or operator or any employee or officer of the prospective owner or operator has a history of:

(1) repeated violations of federal, State, or local laws, regulations, standards, or ordinances in the operation of waste management facilities or sites, clean construction or demolition debris fill operation facilities or sites, or tire storage sites; or

(2) conviction in this or another State of any crime which is a felony under the laws of this State, or conviction of a felony in a federal court; or conviction in this or another state or federal court of any of the following crimes: forgery, official misconduct, bribery, perjury, or knowingly submitting false information under any environmental law, regulation, or permit term or condition; or

(3) proof of gross carelessness or incompetence in handling, storing, processing, transporting, or disposing of waste, clean construction or demolition debris, or used or waste tires, or proof of gross carelessness or incompetence in using clean construction or demolition debris as fill.

(i-5) Before issuing any permit or approving any interim authorization for a clean construction or demolition debris fill operation in which any ownership interest is transferred between January 1, 2005, and the effective date of the prohibition set forth in Section 22.52 of this Act, the Agency shall conduct an evaluation of the operation if any previous activities at the site or facility may have caused or allowed contamination of the site. It shall be the responsibility of the owner or operator seeking the permit or interim authorization to provide to the Agency all of the information necessary for the Agency to conduct its evaluation. The Agency may deny a permit or interim authorization if previous activities at the site may have caused or allowed contamination at the site, unless such contamination is authorized under any permit issued by the Agency.

(j) The issuance under this Act of a permit to engage in the surface mining of any resources other than fossil fuels shall not relieve the permittee from its duty to comply with any applicable local law regulating the commencement, location, or operation of surface mining facilities.

(k) A development permit issued under subsection (a) of Section 39 for any facility or site which is required to have a permit under subsection (d) of Section 21 shall expire at the end of 2 calendar years from the date upon which it was issued, unless within that period the applicant has taken action to develop the facility or the site. In the event that review of the conditions of the development permit is sought pursuant to Section 40 or 41, or permittee is prevented from commencing development of the facility or site by any other litigation beyond the permittee's control, such two-year period shall be deemed to begin on the date upon which such review process or litigation is concluded.

(l) No permit shall be issued by the Agency under this Act for construction or operation of any facility or site located within the boundaries of any setback zone established pursuant to this Act, where such construction or operation is prohibited.

(m) The Agency may issue permits to persons owning or operating a facility for composting landscape waste. In granting such permits, the Agency may impose such conditions as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of this Act, and as are not inconsistent with applicable regulations promulgated by the Board. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, a bond or other security shall not be required as a condition for the issuance of a permit. If the Agency denies any permit pursuant to this subsection, the Agency shall transmit to the applicant within the time limitations of this subsection specific, detailed statements as to the reasons the permit application was denied. Such statements shall include but not be limited to the following:

(1) the Sections of this Act that may be violated if the permit were granted;

(2) the specific regulations promulgated pursuant to this Act that may be violated if the permit were granted;

(3) the specific information, if any, the Agency deems the applicant did not provide in its application to the Agency; and

(4) a statement of specific reasons why the Act and the regulations might be violated if the permit were granted.

If no final action is taken by the Agency within 90 days after the filing of the application for permit, the applicant may deem the permit issued. Any applicant for a permit may waive the 90-day limitation by filing a written statement with the Agency.

The Agency shall issue permits for such facilities upon receipt of an application that includes a legal description of the site, a topographic map of the site drawn to the scale of 200 feet to the inch or larger, a description of the operation, including the area served, an estimate of the volume of materials to be processed, and documentation that:

(1) the facility includes a setback of at least 200 feet from the nearest potable water supply well;

(2) the facility is located outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or the site will be floodproofed;

(3) the facility is located so as to minimize incompatibility with the character of the surrounding area, including at least a 200 foot setback from any residence, and in the case of a facility that is developed or the permitted composting area of which is expanded after November 17, 1991, the composting area is located at least 1/8 mile from the nearest residence (other than a residence located on the same property as the facility);

(4) the design of the facility will prevent any compost material from being placed within 5 feet of the water table, will adequately control runoff from the site, and will collect and manage any leachate that is generated on the site;

(5) the operation of the facility will include appropriate dust and odor control measures, limitations on operating hours, appropriate noise control measures for shredding, chipping and similar equipment, management procedures for composting, containment and disposal of non-compostable wastes, procedures to be used for terminating operations at the site, and recordkeeping sufficient to document the amount of materials received, composted, and otherwise disposed of; and

(6) the operation will be conducted in accordance with any applicable rules adopted by the Board.

The Agency shall issue renewable permits of not longer than 10 years in duration for the composting of landscape wastes, as defined in Section 3.155 of this Act, based on the above requirements.

The operator of any facility permitted under this subsection (m) must submit a written annual statement to the Agency on or before April 1 of each year that includes an estimate of the amount of material, in tons, received for composting.

(n) The Agency shall issue permits jointly with the Department of Transportation for the dredging or deposit of material in Lake Michigan in accordance with Section 18 of the Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act.

(o) (Blank).)

(p) (1) Any person submitting an application for a permit for a new MSWLF unit or for a lateral expansion under subsection (t) of Section 21 of this Act for an existing MSWLF unit that has not received and is not subject to local siting approval under Section 39.2 of this Act shall publish notice of the application in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the MSWLF unit is or is proposed to be located. The notice must be published at least 15 days before submission of the permit application to the Agency. The notice shall state the name and address of the applicant, the location of the MSWLF unit or proposed MSWLF unit, the nature and size of the MSWLF unit or proposed MSWLF unit, the nature of the activity proposed, the probable life of the proposed activity, the date the permit application will be submitted, and a statement that persons may file written comments with the Agency concerning the permit application within 30 days after the filing of the permit application unless the time period to submit comments is extended by the Agency.

When a permit applicant submits information to the Agency to supplement a permit application being reviewed by the Agency, the applicant shall not be required to reissue the notice under this subsection.

(2) The Agency shall accept written comments concerning the permit application that are postmarked no later than 30 days after the filing of the permit application, unless the time period to accept comments is extended by the Agency.

(3) Each applicant for a permit described in part (1) of this subsection shall file a copy of the permit application with the county board or governing body of the municipality in which the MSWLF unit is or is proposed to be located at the same time the application is submitted to the Agency. The permit application filed with the county board or governing body of the municipality shall include all documents submitted to or to be submitted to the Agency, except trade secrets as determined under Section 7.1 of this Act. The permit application and other documents on file with the county board or governing body of the municipality shall be made available for public inspection during regular business hours at the office of the county board or the governing body of the municipality and may be copied upon payment of the actual cost of reproduction.

(q) Within 6 months after July 12, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-95), the Agency, in consultation with the regulated community, shall develop a web portal to be posted on its website for the purpose of enhancing review and promoting timely issuance of permits required by this Act. At a minimum, the Agency shall make the following information available on the web portal:

(1) Checklists and guidance relating to the completion of permit applications, developed pursuant to subsection (s) of this Section, which may include, but are not limited to, existing instructions for completing the applications and examples of complete applications. As the Agency develops new checklists and develops guidance, it shall supplement the web portal with those materials.

(2) Within 2 years after July 12, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-95), permit application forms or portions of permit applications that can be completed and saved electronically, and submitted to the Agency electronically with digital signatures.

(3) Within 2 years after July 12, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-95), an online tracking system where an applicant may review the status of its pending application, including the name and contact information of the permit analyst assigned to the application. Until the online tracking system has been developed, the Agency shall post on its website semi-annual permitting efficiency tracking reports that include statistics on the timeframes for Agency action on the following types of permits received after July 12, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-95): air construction permits, new NPDES permits and associated water construction permits, and modifications of major NPDES permits and associated water construction permits. The reports must be posted by February 1 and August 1 each year and shall include:

(A) the number of applications received for each type of permit, the number of applications on which the Agency has taken action, and the number of applications still pending; and

(B) for those applications where the Agency has not taken action in accordance with the timeframes set forth in this Act, the date the application was received and the reasons for any delays, which may include, but shall not be limited to, (i) the application being inadequate or incomplete, (ii) scientific or technical disagreements with the applicant, USEPA, or other local, state, or federal agencies involved in the permitting approval process, (iii) public opposition to the permit, or (iv) Agency staffing shortages. To the extent practicable, the tracking report shall provide approximate dates when cause for delay was identified by the Agency, when the Agency informed the applicant of the problem leading to the delay, and when the applicant remedied the reason for the delay.

(r) Upon the request of the applicant, the Agency shall notify the applicant of the permit analyst assigned to the application upon its receipt.

(s) The Agency is authorized to prepare and distribute guidance documents relating to its administration of this Section and procedural rules implementing this Section. Guidance documents prepared under this subsection shall not be considered rules and shall not be subject to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Such guidance shall not be binding on any party.

(t) Except as otherwise prohibited by federal law or regulation, any person submitting an application for a permit may include with the application suggested permit language for Agency consideration. The Agency is not obligated to use the suggested language or any portion thereof in its permitting decision. If requested by the permit applicant, the Agency shall meet with the applicant to discuss the suggested language.

(u) If requested by the permit applicant, the Agency shall provide the permit applicant with a copy of the draft permit prior to any public review period.

(v) If requested by the permit applicant, the Agency shall provide the permit applicant with a copy of the final permit prior to its issuance.

(w) An air pollution permit shall not be required due to emissions of greenhouse gases, as specified by Section 9.15 of this Act.

(x) If, before the expiration of a State operating permit that is issued pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section and contains federally enforceable conditions limiting the potential to emit of the source to a level below the major source threshold for that source so as to exclude the source from the Clean Air Act Permit Program, the Agency receives a complete application for the renewal of that permit, then all of the terms and conditions of the permit shall remain in effect until final administrative action has been taken on the application for the renewal of the permit.

(y) The Agency may issue permits exclusively under this subsection to persons owning or operating a CCR surface impoundment subject to Section 22.59.

(z) If a mass animal mortality event is declared by the Department of Agriculture in accordance with the Animal Mortality Act:

(1) the owner or operator responsible for the disposal of dead animals is exempted from the following:

(i) obtaining a permit for the construction, installation, or operation of any type of facility or equipment issued in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section;

(ii) obtaining a permit for open burning in accordance with the rules adopted by the Board; and

(iii) registering the disposal of dead animals as an eligible small source with the Agency in accordance with Section 9.14 of this Act;

(2) as applicable, the owner or operator responsible for the disposal of dead animals is required to obtain the following permits:

(i) an NPDES permit in accordance with subsection (b) of this Section;

(ii) a PSD permit or an NA NSR permit in accordance with Section 9.1 of this Act;

(iii) a lifetime State operating permit or a federally enforceable State operating permit, in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section; or

(iv) a CAAPP permit, in accordance with Section 39.5 of this Act.

All CCR surface impoundment permits shall contain those terms and conditions, including, but not limited to, schedules of compliance, which may be required to accomplish the purposes and provisions of this Act, Board regulations, the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act and regulations pursuant thereto, and the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act and regulations pursuant thereto, and may include schedules for achieving compliance therewith as soon as possible.

The Board shall adopt filing requirements and procedures that are necessary and appropriate for the issuance of CCR surface impoundment permits and that are consistent with this Act or regulations adopted by the Board, and with the RCRA, as amended, and regulations pursuant thereto.

The applicant shall make available to the public for inspection all documents submitted by the applicant to the Agency in furtherance of an application, with the exception of trade secrets, on its public internet website as well as at the office of the county board or governing body of the municipality where CCR from the CCR surface impoundment will be permanently disposed. Such documents may be copied upon payment of the actual cost of reproduction during regular business hours of the local office.

The Agency shall issue a written statement concurrent with its grant or denial of the permit explaining the basis for its decision.

(Source: P.A. 101-171, eff. 7-30-19; 102-216, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-1-21.)

Section 550. The Electric Vehicle Rebate Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(415 ILCS 120/15)

Sec. 15. Rulemaking. The Agency shall promulgate rules as necessary and dedicate sufficient resources to implement Section 27 of this Act. Such rules shall be consistent with applicable provisions of the Clean Air Act and any regulations promulgated pursuant thereto. The Secretary of State may promulgate rules to implement Section 35 of this Act. Agency

(Source: P.A. 102-444, eff. 8-20-21; 102-662, eff. 9-15-21; revised 10-14-21.)

Section 555. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is amended by changing Sections 1.1, 3, 3.1, 4, 5, 6, 8, 8.3, 9.5, 10, 11, and 13.2 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:

(1) convicted of an offense involving the use or possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or methamphetamine within the past year; or

(2) determined by the Illinois State Police to be addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal guidelines.

"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and authority of a physician or other person authorized to prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled substance is used in the prescribed manner.

"Adjudicated as a person with a mental disability" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that the person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) presents a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs or is adjudicated a person with a disability as defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;

(3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b;

(6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act;

(8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(10) is subject to involuntary admission as an inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(11) is subject to involuntary admission as an outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; or

(13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

"Clear and present danger" means a person who:

(1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself, herself, or another person as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or

(2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, school administrator, or law enforcement official.

"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Illinois State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signaling signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to exclude a gun show held in conjunction with competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body in which the sale or transfer of firearms is authorized under subparagraph (5) of paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

Unless otherwise expressly stated, "gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mental health facility" means any licensed private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by the State or a political subdivision thereof which provides provide treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental illness.

"National governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

"Patient" means:

(1) a person who is admitted as an inpatient or resident of a public or private mental health facility for mental health treatment under Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code as an informal admission, a voluntary admission, a minor admission, an emergency admission, or an involuntary admission, unless the treatment was solely for an alcohol abuse disorder; or

(2) a person who voluntarily or involuntarily receives mental health treatment as an out-patient or is otherwise provided services by a public or private mental health facility, and who poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person with a disability which is attributable to any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities. The disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability. This disability results, in the professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity:

(i) self-care;

(ii) receptive and expressive language;

(iii) learning;

(iv) mobility; or

(v) self-direction.

"Person with an intellectual disability" means a person with a significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18 years.

"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Protective order" means any orders of protection issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, stalking no contact orders issued under the Stalking No Contact Order Act, civil no contact orders issued under the Civil No Contact Order Act, and firearms restraining orders issued under the Firearms Restraining Order Act.

"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.

"School administrator" means the person required to report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-6-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-237)

Sec. 3. (a) Except as provided in Section 3a, no person may knowingly transfer, or cause to be transferred, any firearm, firearm ammunition, stun gun, or taser to any person within this State unless the transferee with whom he deals displays either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card which has previously been issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police under the provisions of this Act; or (2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm which has previously been issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. In addition, all firearm, stun gun, and taser transfers by federally licensed firearm dealers are subject to Section 3.1.

(a-5) Any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm while that person is on the grounds of a gun show must, before selling or transferring the firearm, request the Illinois State Police to conduct a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1.

(a-10) Notwithstanding item (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm or firearms to any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer shall, before selling or transferring the firearms, contact the Illinois State Police with the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number to determine the validity of the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card. This subsection shall not be effective until January 1, 2014. The Illinois State Police may adopt rules concerning the implementation of this subsection. The Illinois State Police shall provide the seller or transferor an approval number if the purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is valid. Approvals issued by the Illinois State Police Department for the purchase of a firearm pursuant to this subsection are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

(a-15) The provisions of subsection (a-10) of this Section do not apply to:

(1) transfers that occur at the place of business of a federally licensed firearm dealer, if the federally licensed firearm dealer conducts a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1 of this Act and follows all other applicable federal, State, and local laws as if he or she were the seller or transferor of the firearm, although the dealer is not required to accept the firearm into his or her inventory. The purchaser or transferee may be required by the federally licensed firearm dealer to pay a fee not to exceed $10 per firearm, which the dealer may retain as compensation for performing the functions required under this paragraph, plus the applicable fees authorized by Section 3.1;

(2) transfers as a bona fide gift to the transferor's husband, wife, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, nephew, niece, uncle, aunt, grandfather, grandmother, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, or daughter-in-law;

(3) transfers by persons acting pursuant to operation of law or a court order;

(4) transfers on the grounds of a gun show under subsection (a-5) of this Section;

(5) the delivery of a firearm by its owner to a gunsmith for service or repair, the return of the firearm to its owner by the gunsmith, or the delivery of a firearm by a gunsmith to a federally licensed firearms dealer for service or repair and the return of the firearm to the gunsmith;

(6) temporary transfers that occur while in the home of the unlicensed transferee, if the unlicensed transferee is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms and the unlicensed transferee reasonably believes that possession of the firearm is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to the unlicensed transferee;

(7) transfers to a law enforcement or corrections agency or a law enforcement or corrections officer acting within the course and scope of his or her official duties;

(8) transfers of firearms that have been rendered permanently inoperable to a nonprofit historical society, museum, or institutional collection; and

(9) transfers to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of this Act.

(a-20) The Illinois State Police shall develop an Internet-based system for individuals to determine the validity of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card prior to the sale or transfer of a firearm. The Illinois State Police Department shall have the Internet-based system completed and available for use by July 1, 2015. The Illinois State Police Department shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(b) Any person within this State who transfers or causes to be transferred any firearm, stun gun, or taser shall keep a record of such transfer for a period of 10 years from the date of transfer. Such record shall contain the date of the transfer; the description, serial number or other information identifying the firearm, stun gun, or taser if no serial number is available; and, if the transfer was completed within this State, the transferee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number and any approval number or documentation provided by the Illinois State Police pursuant to subsection (a-10) of this Section; if the transfer was not completed within this State, the record shall contain the name and address of the transferee. On or after January 1, 2006, the record shall contain the date of application for transfer of the firearm. On demand of a peace officer such transferor shall produce for inspection such record of transfer. If the transfer or sale took place at a gun show, the record shall include the unique identification number. Failure to record the unique identification number or approval number is a petty offense. For transfers of a firearm, stun gun, or taser made on or after January 18, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1178) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, failure by the private seller to maintain the transfer records in accordance with this Section is a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense. A transferee shall not be criminally liable under this Section provided that he or she provides the Illinois State Police with the transfer records in accordance with procedures established by the Illinois State Police Department. The Illinois State Police Department shall establish, by rule, a standard form on its website.

(b-5) Any resident may purchase ammunition from a person within or outside of Illinois if shipment is by United States mail or by a private express carrier authorized by federal law to ship ammunition. Any resident purchasing ammunition within or outside the State of Illinois must provide the seller with a copy of his or her valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card or valid concealed carry license and either his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois State Identification Card prior to the shipment of the ammunition. The ammunition may be shipped only to an address on either of those 2 documents.

(c) The provisions of this Section regarding the transfer of firearm ammunition shall not apply to those persons specified in paragraph (b) of Section 2 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-237)

Sec. 3. (a) Except as provided in Section 3a, no person may knowingly transfer, or cause to be transferred, any firearm, firearm ammunition, stun gun, or taser to any person within this State unless the transferee with whom he deals displays either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card which has previously been issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police under the provisions of this Act; or (2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm which has previously been issued in his or her name by the Illinois State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. In addition, all firearm, stun gun, and taser transfers by federally licensed firearm dealers are subject to Section 3.1.

(a-5) Any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm while that person is on the grounds of a gun show must, before selling or transferring the firearm, request the Illinois State Police to conduct a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1.

(a-10) Notwithstanding item (2) of subsection (a) of this Section, any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm or firearms to any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer shall, before selling or transferring the firearms, contact a federal firearm license dealer under paragraph (1) of subsection (a-15) of this Section to conduct the transfer or the Illinois State Police with the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number to determine the validity of the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under State and federal law, including the National Instant Criminal Background Check System. This subsection shall not be effective until January 1, 2024. Until that date the transferor shall contact the Illinois State Police with the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number to determine the validity of the card. The Illinois State Police may adopt rules concerning the implementation of this subsection. The Illinois State Police shall provide the seller or transferor an approval number if the purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is valid. Approvals issued by the Illinois State Police Department for the purchase of a firearm pursuant to this subsection are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

(a-15) The provisions of subsection (a-10) of this Section do not apply to:

(1) transfers that occur at the place of business of a federally licensed firearm dealer, if the federally licensed firearm dealer conducts a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1 of this Act and follows all other applicable federal, State, and local laws as if he or she were the seller or transferor of the firearm, although the dealer is not required to accept the firearm into his or her inventory. The purchaser or transferee may be required by the federally licensed firearm dealer to pay a fee not to exceed $25 per firearm, which the dealer may retain as compensation for performing the functions required under this paragraph, plus the applicable fees authorized by Section 3.1;

(2) transfers as a bona fide gift to the transferor's husband, wife, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, nephew, niece, uncle, aunt, grandfather, grandmother, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, or daughter-in-law;

(3) transfers by persons acting pursuant to operation of law or a court order;

(4) transfers on the grounds of a gun show under subsection (a-5) of this Section;

(5) the delivery of a firearm by its owner to a gunsmith for service or repair, the return of the firearm to its owner by the gunsmith, or the delivery of a firearm by a gunsmith to a federally licensed firearms dealer for service or repair and the return of the firearm to the gunsmith;

(6) temporary transfers that occur while in the home of the unlicensed transferee, if the unlicensed transferee is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms and the unlicensed transferee reasonably believes that possession of the firearm is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to the unlicensed transferee;

(7) transfers to a law enforcement or corrections agency or a law enforcement or corrections officer acting within the course and scope of his or her official duties;

(8) transfers of firearms that have been rendered permanently inoperable to a nonprofit historical society, museum, or institutional collection; and

(9) transfers to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of this Act.

(a-20) The Illinois State Police shall develop an Internet-based system for individuals to determine the validity of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card prior to the sale or transfer of a firearm. The Illinois State Police Department shall have the Internet-based system updated and available for use by January 1, 2024. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system; but no rule shall allow the Illinois State Police to retain records in contravention of State and federal law.

(a-25) On or before January 1, 2022, the Illinois State Police shall develop an Internet-based system upon which the serial numbers of firearms that have been reported stolen are available for public access for individuals to ensure any firearms are not reported stolen prior to the sale or transfer of a firearm under this Section. The Illinois State Police shall have the Internet-based system completed and available for use by July 1, 2022. The Illinois State Police Department shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(b) Any person within this State who transfers or causes to be transferred any firearm, stun gun, or taser shall keep a record of such transfer for a period of 10 years from the date of transfer. Any person within this State who receives any firearm, stun gun, or taser pursuant to subsection (a-10) shall provide a record of the transfer within 10 days of the transfer to a federally licensed firearm dealer and shall not be required to maintain a transfer record. The federally licensed firearm dealer shall maintain the transfer record for 20 years from the date of receipt. A federally licensed firearm dealer may charge a fee not to exceed $25 to retain the record. The record shall be provided and maintained in either an electronic or paper format. The federally licensed firearm dealer shall not be liable for the accuracy of any information in the transfer record submitted pursuant to this Section. Such records shall contain the date of the transfer; the description, serial number or other information identifying the firearm, stun gun, or taser if no serial number is available; and, if the transfer was completed within this State, the transferee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number and any approval number or documentation provided by the Illinois State Police pursuant to subsection (a-10) of this Section; if the transfer was not completed within this State, the record shall contain the name and address of the transferee. On or after January 1, 2006, the record shall contain the date of application for transfer of the firearm. On demand of a peace officer such transferor shall produce for inspection such record of transfer. For any transfer pursuant to subsection (a-10) of this Section, on the demand of a peace officer, such transferee shall identify the federally licensed firearm dealer maintaining the transfer record. If the transfer or sale took place at a gun show, the record shall include the unique identification number. Failure to record the unique identification number or approval number is a petty offense. For transfers of a firearm, stun gun, or taser made on or after January 18, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1178) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, failure by the private seller to maintain the transfer records in accordance with this Section, or failure by a transferee pursuant to subsection a-10 of this Section to identify the federally licensed firearm dealer maintaining the transfer record, is a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent offense occurring within 10 years of the first offense and the second offense was committed after conviction of the first offense. Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of any violation of subsection (a-5), the court may grant supervision pursuant to and consistent with the limitations of Section 5-6-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections. A transferee or transferor shall not be criminally liable under this Section provided that he or she provides the Illinois State Police with the transfer records in accordance with procedures established by the Illinois State Police Department. The Illinois State Police Department shall establish, by rule, a standard form on its website.

(b-5) Any resident may purchase ammunition from a person within or outside of Illinois if shipment is by United States mail or by a private express carrier authorized by federal law to ship ammunition. Any resident purchasing ammunition within or outside the State of Illinois must provide the seller with a copy of his or her valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card or valid concealed carry license and either his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois State Identification Card prior to the shipment of the ammunition. The ammunition may be shipped only to an address on either of those 2 documents.

(c) The provisions of this Section regarding the transfer of firearm ammunition shall not apply to those persons specified in paragraph (b) of Section 2 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-24; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3.1)

Sec. 3.1. Firearm Transfer Inquiry Program.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall provide a dial up telephone system or utilize other existing technology which shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm, stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Act. The Illinois State Police may utilize existing technology which allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. Fees collected by the Illinois State Police shall be deposited in the State Police Firearm Services Fund and used to provide the service.

(b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the Illinois State Police shall immediately approve, or, within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and tasers, notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Illinois State Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its criminal history record information files and those of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a person from obtaining or require revocation of a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(b-5) By January 1, 2023, the Illinois State Police shall by rule provide a process for the automatic renewal of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person at the time of an inquiry in subsection (b). Persons eligible for this process must have a set of fingerprints on file with their applications application under either subsection (a-25) of Section 4 or the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, federal law, or this Act, the Illinois State Police shall:

(1) assign a unique identification number to the transfer; and

(2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor with the number.

(d) Approvals issued by the Illinois State Police for the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

(e) (1) The Illinois State Police must act as the Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(2) The Illinois State Police and the Department of Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal Background Check System in the State. The Illinois State Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System Index, Denied Persons Files.

(3) The Illinois State Police shall provide notice of the disqualification of a person under subsection (b) of this Section or the revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 or Section 8.2 of this Act, and the reason for the disqualification or revocation, to all law enforcement agencies with jurisdiction to assist with the seizure of the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-4)

Sec. 4. Application for Firearm Owner's Identification Cards.

(a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card must:

(1) Submit an application as made available by the Illinois State Police; and

(2) Submit evidence to the Illinois State Police that:

(i) This subparagraph (i) applies through the 180th day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition and that he or she has never been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the Department stating that he or she is not an individual prohibited from having a Card;

(i-5) This subparagraph (i-5) applies on and after the 181st day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has never been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent and is an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or has the written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition, provided, however, that such parent or legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files an affidavit with the Illinois State Police Department as prescribed by the Illinois State Police Department stating that he or she is not an individual prohibited from having a Card or the active duty member of the United States Armed Forces under 21 years of age annually submits proof to the Illinois State Police, in a manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police Department;

(ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;

(iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental health facility within the past 5 years or, if he or she has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago submit the certification required under subsection (u) of Section 8 of this Act;

(v) He or she is not a person with an intellectual disability;

(vi) He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a firearm;

(viii) He or she has not been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this clause (ix) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Section;

(x) (Blank);

(xi) He or she is not an alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(xiv) He or she is a resident of the State of Illinois;

(xv) He or she has not been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability;

(xvi) He or she has not been involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility; and

(xvii) He or she is not a person with a developmental disability; and

(3) Upon request by the Illinois State Police, sign a release on a form prescribed by the Illinois State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and requesting the disclosure to the Illinois State Police of limited mental health institution admission information from another state, the District of Columbia, any other territory of the United States, or a foreign nation concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a mental health institution and disqualified because of that status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be requested. The information received shall be destroyed within one year of receipt.

(a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Illinois State Police either his or her Illinois driver's license number or Illinois Identification Card number, except as provided in subsection (a-10).

(a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, who is employed as a law enforcement officer, an armed security officer in Illinois, or by the United States Military permanently assigned in Illinois and who is not an Illinois resident, shall furnish to the Illinois State Police his or her driver's license number or state identification card number from his or her state of residence. The Illinois State Police may adopt rules to enforce the provisions of this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) If an applicant applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card moves from the residence address named in the application, he or she shall immediately notify in a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police of that change of address.

(a-20) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall furnish to the Illinois State Police his or her photograph. An applicant who is 21 years of age or older seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement must furnish with the application an approved copy of United States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form 4029. In lieu of a photograph, an applicant regardless of age seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement shall submit fingerprints on a form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police Department with his or her application.

(a-25) Beginning January 1, 2023, each applicant for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card may include a full set of his or her fingerprints in electronic format to the Illinois State Police, unless the applicant has previously provided a full set of his or her fingerprints to the Illinois State Police under this Act or the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

The fingerprints must be transmitted through a live scan fingerprint vendor licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases, including all available State and local criminal history record information files.

The Illinois State Police shall charge applicants a one-time fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the State and national criminal history record check.

(a-26) The Illinois State Police shall research, explore, and report to the General Assembly by January 1, 2022 on the feasibility of permitting voluntarily submitted fingerprints obtained for purposes other than Firearm Owner's Identification Card enforcement that are contained in the Illinois State Police database for purposes of this Act.

(b) Each application form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.".

(c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4, paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.

(Source: P.A. 101-80, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-5)

Sec. 5. Application and renewal.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall either approve or deny all applications within 30 days from the date they are received, except as provided in subsections (b) and (c), and every applicant found qualified under Section 8 of this Act by the Illinois State Police Department shall be entitled to a Firearm Owner's Identification Card upon the payment of a $10 fee and applicable processing fees. The processing fees shall be limited to charges by the State Treasurer for using the electronic online payment system. Any applicant who is an active duty member of the Armed Forces of the United States, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the Reserve Forces of the United States is exempt from the application fee. $5 of each fee derived from the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card or renewals, thereof, shall be deposited in the State Police Firearm Services Fund and $5 into the State Police Revocation Enforcement Fund.

(b) Renewal applications shall be approved or denied within 60 business days, provided the applicant submitted his or her renewal application prior to the expiration of his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If a renewal application has been submitted prior to the expiration date of the applicant's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall remain valid while the Illinois State Police Department processes the application, unless the person is subject to or becomes subject to revocation under this Act. The cost for a renewal application shall be $10, and may include applicable processing fees, which shall be limited to charges by the State Treasurer for using the electronic online payment system, which shall be deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(c) If the Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a licensee under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act expires during the term of the licensee's concealed carry license, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card and the license remain valid and the licensee does not have to renew his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card during the duration of the concealed carry license. Unless the Illinois State Police has reason to believe the licensee is no longer eligible for the card, the Illinois State Police may automatically renew the licensee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card and send a renewed Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the licensee.

(d) The Illinois State Police may adopt rules concerning the use of voluntarily submitted fingerprints, as allowed by State and federal law.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/6) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-6)

Sec. 6. Contents of Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(a) A Firearm Owner's Identification Card, issued by the Illinois State Police at such places as the Director of the Illinois State Police shall specify, shall contain the applicant's name, residence, date of birth, sex, physical description, recent photograph, except as provided in subsection (c-5), and signature. Each Firearm Owner's Identification Card must have the Firearm Owner's Identification Card number boldly and conspicuously displayed on the face of the card. Each Firearm Owner's Identification Card must have printed on it the following: "CAUTION - This card does not permit bearer to UNLAWFULLY carry or use firearms." Before December 1, 2002, the Department of State Police may use a person's digital photograph and signature from his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois Identification Card, if available. On and after December 1, 2002, the Illinois State Police (formerly the Department of State Police) Department shall use a person's digital photograph and signature from his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois Identification Card, if available. The Illinois State Police Department shall decline to use a person's digital photograph or signature if the digital photograph or signature is the result of or associated with fraudulent or erroneous data, unless otherwise provided by law.

(b) A person applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall consent to the Illinois State Police using the applicant's digital driver's license or Illinois Identification Card photograph, if available, and signature on the applicant's Firearm Owner's Identification Card. The Secretary of State shall allow the Illinois State Police access to the photograph and signature for the purpose of identifying the applicant and issuing to the applicant a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(c) The Secretary of State shall conduct a study to determine the cost and feasibility of creating a method of adding an identifiable code, background, or other means on the driver's license or Illinois Identification Card to show that an individual is not disqualified from owning or possessing a firearm under State or federal law. The Secretary shall report the findings of this study August 17, 2002 (12 months after the effective date of Public Act 92-442) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

(c-5) If a person qualifies for a photograph exemption, in lieu of a photograph, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall contain a copy of the card holder's fingerprints. Each Firearm Owner's Identification Card described in this subsection (c-5) must have printed on it the following: "This card is only valid for firearm purchases through a federally licensed firearms dealer when presented with photographic identification, as prescribed by 18 U.S.C. 922(t)(1)(C)."

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)

Sec. 8. Grounds for denial and revocation. The Illinois State Police has authority to deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act only if the Illinois State Police Department finds that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:

(a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent;

(b) This subsection (b) applies through the 180th day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. A person under 21 years of age who does not have the written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(b-5) This subsection (b-5) applies on and after the 181st day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. A person under 21 years of age who is not an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces and does not have the written consent of his or her parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(d) A person addicted to narcotics;

(e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health facility within the past 5 years or a person who has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago who has not received the certification required under subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government or a Department of Corrections employee authorized to possess firearms who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer or employee did not act in a manner threatening to the officer or employee, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and the officer or employee seeks mental health treatment;

(f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any other person or persons, or the community;

(g) A person who has an intellectual disability;

(h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;

(i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;

(i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(j) (Blank);

(k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant or person who has been previously issued a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued to the person under this Act;

(m) (Blank);

(n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or by federal law;

(o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(q) A person who is not a resident of the State of Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section 4;

(r) A person who has been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability;

(s) A person who has been found to have a developmental disability;

(t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility; or

(u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of this Section or item (iv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of this Act because he or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, after the 5-year period has lapsed, unless he or she has received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the certification and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the certification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been restored through administrative or judicial action under Section 10 or 11 of this Act.

Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Illinois State Police shall provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with Section 9.5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-80, eff. 7-12-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-645, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-14-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/8.3)

Sec. 8.3. Suspension of Firearm Owner's Identification Card. The Illinois State Police may suspend the Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card is subject to revocation and seizure under this Act for the duration of the disqualification if the disqualification is not a permanent grounds for revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act. The Illinois State Police may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/9.5)

Sec. 9.5. Revocation of Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(a) A person who receives a revocation notice under Section 9 of this Act shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the revocation:

(1) surrender his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the local law enforcement agency where the person resides or to the Illinois State Police; and

(2) complete a Firearm Disposition Record on a form prescribed by the Illinois State Police and place his or her firearms in the location or with the person reported in the Firearm Disposition Record. The form shall require the person to disclose:

(A) the make, model, and serial number of each firearm owned by or under the custody and control of the revoked person;

(B) the location where each firearm will be maintained during the prohibited term;

(C) if any firearm will be transferred to the custody of another person, the name, address and Firearm Owner's Identification Card number of the transferee; and

(D) to whom his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card was surrendered.

Once completed, the person shall retain a copy and provide a copy of the Firearm Disposition Record to the Illinois State Police.

(b) Upon confirming through the portal created under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked by the Illinois State Police, surrendered cards shall be destroyed by the law enforcement agency receiving the cards. If a card has not been revoked, the card shall be returned to the cardholder. Illinois

(b-5) If a court orders the surrender of a Firearms Owner's Identification Card and accepts receipt of the Card, the court shall destroy the Card and direct the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been surrendered to comply with paragraph (2) of subsection (a).

(b-10) If the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked has either lost or destroyed the Card, the person must still comply with paragraph (2) of subsection (a).

(b-15) A notation shall be made in the portal created under Section 2605-304 of the Illinois Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois that the revoked Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been destroyed.

(c) If the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked fails to comply with the requirements of this Section, the sheriff or law enforcement agency where the person resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to search for and seize the Firearm Owner's Identification Card and firearms in the possession or under the custody or control of the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked.

(d) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(e) The observation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card in the possession of a person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked constitutes a sufficient basis for the arrest of that person for violation of this Section.

(f) Within 30 days after July 9, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-63) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the Illinois State Police shall provide written notice of the requirements of this Section to persons whose Firearm Owner's Identification Cards have been revoked, suspended, or expired and who have failed to surrender their cards to the Illinois State Police Department.

(g) A person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked and who received notice under subsection (f) shall comply with the requirements of this Section within 48 hours of receiving notice.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-10)

Sec. 10. Appeals; hearing; relief from firearm prohibitions.

(a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied or whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may (1) file a record challenge with the Director regarding the record upon which the decision to deny or revoke the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was based under subsection (a-5); or (2) appeal to the Director of the Illinois State Police through December 31, 2022, or beginning January 1, 2023, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board for a hearing seeking relief from such denial or revocation unless the denial or revocation was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence for a hearing seeking relief from such denial or revocation.

(a-5) There is created a Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board to consider any appeal under subsection (a) beginning January 1, 2023, other than an appeal directed to the circuit court and except when the applicant is challenging the record upon which the decision to deny or revoke was based as provided in subsection (a-10).

(0.05) In furtherance of the policy of this Act that the Board shall exercise its powers and duties in an independent manner, subject to the provisions of this Act but free from the direction, control, or influence of any other agency or department of State government. All expenses and liabilities incurred by the Board in the performance of its responsibilities hereunder shall be paid from funds which shall be appropriated to the Board by the General Assembly for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Board.

(1) The Board shall consist of 7 members appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, with 3 members residing within the First Judicial District and one member residing within each of the 4 remaining Judicial Districts. No more than 4 members shall be members of the same political party. The Governor shall designate one member as the chairperson. The Board shall consist of:

(A) one member with at least 5 years of service as a federal or State judge;

(B) one member with at least 5 years of experience serving as an attorney with the United States Department of Justice, or as a State's Attorney or Assistant State's Attorney;

(C) one member with at least 5 years of experience serving as a State or federal public defender or assistant public defender;

(D) three members with at least 5 years of experience as a federal, State, or local law enforcement agent or as an employee with investigative experience or duties related to criminal justice under the United States Department of Justice, Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Homeland Security, Federal Bureau of Investigation, or a State or local law enforcement agency; and

(E) one member with at least 5 years of experience as a licensed physician or clinical psychologist with expertise in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness.

(2) The terms of the members initially appointed after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-237) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall be as follows: one of the initial members shall be appointed for a term of one year, 3 shall be appointed for terms of 2 years, and 3 shall be appointed for terms of 4 years. Thereafter, members shall hold office for 4 years, with terms expiring on the second Monday in January immediately following the expiration of their terms and every 4 years thereafter. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies in the office of member shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment, for the remainder of the unexpired term. The Governor may remove a member for incompetence, neglect of duty, malfeasance, or inability to serve. Members shall receive compensation in an amount equal to the compensation of members of the Executive Ethics Commission and may be reimbursed, from funds appropriated for such a purpose, for reasonable expenses actually incurred in the performance of their Board duties. The Illinois State Police shall designate an employee to serve as Executive Director of the Board and provide logistical and administrative assistance to the Board.

(3) The Board shall meet at least quarterly each year and at the call of the chairperson as often as necessary to consider appeals of decisions made with respect to applications for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act. If necessary to ensure the participation of a member, the Board shall allow a member to participate in a Board meeting by electronic communication. Any member participating electronically shall be deemed present for purposes of establishing a quorum and voting.

(4) The Board shall adopt rules for the review of appeals and the conduct of hearings. The Board shall maintain a record of its decisions and all materials considered in making its decisions. All Board decisions and voting records shall be kept confidential and all materials considered by the Board shall be exempt from inspection except upon order of a court.

(5) In considering an appeal, the Board shall review the materials received concerning the denial or revocation by the Illinois State Police. By a vote of at least 4 members, the Board may request additional information from the Illinois State Police or the applicant or the testimony of the Illinois State Police or the applicant. The Board may require that the applicant submit electronic fingerprints to the Illinois State Police for an updated background check if the Board determines it lacks sufficient information to determine eligibility. The Board may consider information submitted by the Illinois State Police, a law enforcement agency, or the applicant. The Board shall review each denial or revocation and determine by a majority of members whether an applicant should be granted relief under subsection (c).

(6) The Board shall by order issue summary decisions. The Board shall issue a decision within 45 days of receiving all completed appeal documents from the Illinois State Police and the applicant. However, the Board need not issue a decision within 45 days if:

(A) the Board requests information from the applicant, including, but not limited to, electronic fingerprints to be submitted to the Illinois State Police, in accordance with paragraph (5) of this subsection, in which case the Board shall make a decision within 30 days of receipt of the required information from the applicant;

(B) the applicant agrees, in writing, to allow the Board additional time to consider an appeal; or

(C) the Board notifies the applicant and the Illinois State Police that the Board needs an additional 30 days to issue a decision. The Board may only issue 2 extensions under this subparagraph (C). The Board's notification to the applicant and the Illinois State Police shall include an explanation for the extension.

(7) If the Board determines that the applicant is eligible for relief under subsection (c), the Board shall notify the applicant and the Illinois State Police that relief has been granted and the Illinois State Police shall issue the Card.

(8) Meetings of the Board shall not be subject to the Open Meetings Act and records of the Board shall not be subject to the Freedom of Information Act.

(9) The Board shall report monthly to the Governor and the General Assembly on the number of appeals received and provide details of the circumstances in which the Board has determined to deny Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under this subsection (a-5). The report shall not contain any identifying information about the applicants.

(a-10) Whenever an applicant or cardholder is not seeking relief from a firearms prohibition under subsection (c) but rather does not believe the applicant is appropriately denied or revoked and is challenging the record upon which the decision to deny or revoke the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was based, or whenever the Illinois State Police fails to act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, the applicant shall file such challenge with the Director. The Director shall render a decision within 60 business days of receipt of all information supporting the challenge. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules for the review of a record challenge.

(b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to the petition and present evidence. At the hearing, the court shall determine whether substantial justice has been done. Should the court determine that substantial justice has not been done, the court shall issue an order directing the Illinois State Police to issue a Card. However, the court shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under federal law.

(c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board the Illinois or petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition and the Board or court may grant such relief if it is established by the applicant to the court's or the Board's satisfaction that:

(0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney has been served with a written copy of the petition at least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;

(1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;

(2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction, where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;

(3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest; and

(4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal law.

(c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government or a Department of Corrections employee authorized to possess firearms who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board the Illinois requesting relief if the officer or employee did not act in a manner threatening to the officer or employee, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and as a result of his or her work is referred by the employer for or voluntarily seeks mental health evaluation or treatment by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or qualified examiner, and:

(A) the officer or employee has not received treatment involuntarily at a mental health facility, regardless of the length of admission; or has not been voluntarily admitted to a mental health facility for more than 30 days and not for more than one incident within the past 5 years; and

(B) the officer or employee has not left the mental institution against medical advice.

(2) The Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board the Illinois shall grant expedited relief to active law enforcement officers and employees described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination by the Board that the officer's or employee's possession of a firearm does not present a threat to themselves, others, or public safety. The Board shall act on the request for relief within 30 business days of receipt of:

(A) a notarized statement from the officer or employee in the form prescribed by the Board detailing the circumstances that led to the hospitalization;

(B) all documentation regarding the admission, evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the officer;

(C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of the person completed after the time of discharge; and

(D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by the Board from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist that the provisions set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) have been met, the person successfully completed treatment, and their professional opinion regarding the person's ability to possess firearms.

(3) Officers and employees eligible for the expedited relief in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of proof on eligibility and must provide all information required. The Board may not consider granting expedited relief until the proof and information is received.

(4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and "qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as provided in Chapter I of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(c-10) (1) An applicant, who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act based upon a determination of a developmental disability or an intellectual disability may apply to the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board the Illinois requesting relief.

(2) The Board shall act on the request for relief within 60 business days of receipt of written certification, in the form prescribed by the Board, from a physician or clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, that the aggrieved party's developmental disability or intellectual disability condition is determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified to be mild. If a fact-finding conference is scheduled to obtain additional information concerning the circumstances of the denial or revocation, the 60 business days the Director has to act shall be tolled until the completion of the fact-finding conference.

(3) The Board may grant relief if the aggrieved party's developmental disability or intellectual disability is mild as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner and it is established by the applicant to the Board's satisfaction that:

(A) granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest; and

(B) granting relief would not be contrary to federal law.

(4) The Board may not grant relief if the condition is determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner to be moderate, severe, or profound.

(5) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 99-29 apply to requests for relief pending on or before July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-29), except that the 60-day period for the Director to act on requests pending before the effective date shall begin on July 10, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-29). All appeals as provided in subsection (a-5), pending on January 1, 2023, shall be considered by the Board.

(d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court shall notify the Illinois State Police.

(e) The court shall review the denial of an application or the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants relief, the court shall notify the Illinois State Police that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18 U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred under the laws of this State or who was determined to be subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Illinois State Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Board shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this determination, the Board shall receive evidence concerning (i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv) changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct, modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the Illinois State Police makes available to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United States Attorney General that the basis for the record being made available no longer applies. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-645, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-15-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/11) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-11)

Sec. 11. Judicial review of final administrative decisions.

(a) All final administrative decisions of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board under this Act, except final administrative decisions of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board the Illinois to deny a person's application for relief under subsection (f) of Section 10 of this Act, shall be subject to judicial review under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and all amendments and modifications thereof, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(b) Any final administrative decision by the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board the Illinois to deny a person's application for relief under subsection (f) of Section 10 of this Act is subject to de novo judicial review by the circuit court, and any party may offer evidence that is otherwise proper and admissible without regard to whether that evidence is part of the administrative record.

(c) The Firearm Owner's Identification Card Review Board the Illinois shall submit a report to the General Assembly on March 1 of each year, beginning March 1, 1991, listing all final decisions by a court of this State upholding, reversing, or reversing in part any administrative decision made by the Illinois State Police.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-2-21.)

(430 ILCS 65/13.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-13.2)

Sec. 13.2. Renewal; name, photograph, or address change; replacement card. The Illinois State Police shall, 180 days prior to the expiration of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, forward by first class mail or by other means provided in Section 7.5 to each person whose card is to expire a notification of the expiration of the card and instructions for renewal. It is the obligation of the holder of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card to notify the Illinois State Police of any address change since the issuance of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card. The Illinois State Police may update the applicant and card holder's holders address based upon records in the Secretary of State Driver's License or Illinois identification card records of applicants who do not have driver's licenses. Any person whose legal name has changed from the name on the card that he or she has been previously issued must apply for a corrected card within 30 calendar days after the change. The cost for an updated or corrected card shall be $5. The cost for replacement of a card which has been lost, destroyed, or stolen shall be $5 if the loss, destruction, or theft of the card is reported to the Illinois State Police. The fees collected under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

Section 560. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 20, 30, 50, 55, and 70 as follows:

(430 ILCS 66/10)

Sec. 10. Issuance of licenses to carry a concealed firearm.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall issue a license to carry a concealed firearm under this Act to an applicant who:

(1) meets the qualifications of Section 25 of this Act;

(2) has provided the application and documentation required in Section 30 of this Act;

(3) has submitted the requisite fees; and

(4) does not pose a danger to himself, herself, or others, or a threat to public safety as determined by the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board in accordance with Section 20.

(b) The Illinois State Police shall issue a renewal, corrected, or duplicate license as provided in this Act.

(c) A license shall be valid throughout the State for a period of 5 years from the date of issuance. A license shall permit the licensee to:

(1) carry a loaded or unloaded concealed firearm, fully concealed or partially concealed, on or about his or her person; and

(2) keep or carry a loaded or unloaded concealed firearm on or about his or her person within a vehicle.

(d) The Illinois State Police shall make applications for a license available no later than 180 days after July 9, 2013 (the effective date of this Act). The Illinois State Police shall establish rules for the availability and submission of applications in accordance with this Act.

(e) An application for a license submitted to the Illinois State Police that contains all the information and materials required by this Act, including the requisite fee, shall be deemed completed. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, no later than 90 days after receipt of a completed application, the Illinois State Police shall issue or deny the applicant a license. The Illinois State Police shall notify the applicant for a concealed carry license, electronically, to confirm if all the required information and materials have been received. If an applicant for a concealed carry license submits his or her application electronically, the Illinois State Police shall notify the applicant electronically if his or her application is missing information or materials.

(f) The Illinois State Police shall deny the applicant a license if the applicant fails to meet the requirements under this Act or the Illinois State Police receives a determination from the Board that the applicant is ineligible for a license. The Illinois State Police must notify the applicant stating the grounds for the denial. The notice of denial must inform the applicant of his or her right to an appeal through administrative and judicial review.

(g) A licensee shall possess a license at all times the licensee carries a concealed firearm except:

(1) when the licensee is carrying or possessing a concealed firearm on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission;

(2) when the person is authorized to carry a firearm under Section 24-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, except subsection (a-5) of that Section; or

(3) when the handgun is broken down in a non-functioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a case.

(h) If an officer of a law enforcement agency initiates an investigative stop, including, but not limited to, a traffic stop, of a licensee or a non-resident carrying a concealed firearm under subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act, upon the request of the officer the licensee or non-resident shall disclose to the officer that he or she is in possession of a concealed firearm under this Act, or present the license upon the request of the officer if he or she is a licensee or present upon the request of the officer evidence under paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act that he or she is a non-resident qualified to carry under that subsection. The disclosure requirement under this subsection (h) is satisfied if the licensee presents his or her license to the officer or the non-resident presents to the officer evidence under paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act that he or she is qualified to carry under that subsection. Upon the request of the officer, the licensee or non-resident shall also identify the location of the concealed firearm and permit the officer to safely secure the firearm for the duration of the investigative stop. During a traffic stop, any passenger within the vehicle who is a licensee or a non-resident carrying under subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act must comply with the requirements of this subsection (h).

(h-1) If a licensee carrying a firearm or a non-resident carrying a firearm in a vehicle under subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act is contacted by a law enforcement officer or emergency services personnel, the law enforcement officer or emergency services personnel may secure the firearm or direct that it be secured during the duration of the contact if the law enforcement officer or emergency services personnel determines that it is necessary for the safety of any person present, including the law enforcement officer or emergency services personnel. The licensee or nonresident shall submit to the order to secure the firearm. When the law enforcement officer or emergency services personnel have determined that the licensee or non-resident is not a threat to the safety of any person present, including the law enforcement officer or emergency services personnel, and if the licensee or non-resident is physically and mentally capable of possessing the firearm, the law enforcement officer or emergency services personnel shall return the firearm to the licensee or non-resident before releasing him or her from the scene and breaking contact. If the licensee or non-resident is transported for treatment to another location, the firearm shall be turned over to any peace officer. The peace officer shall provide a receipt which includes the make, model, caliber, and serial number of the firearm.

(i) The Illinois State Police shall maintain a database of license applicants and licensees. The database shall be available to all federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies, State's Attorneys, the Attorney General, and authorized court personnel. Within 180 days after July 9, 2013 (the effective date of this Act), the database shall be searchable and provide all information included in the application, including the applicant's previous addresses within the 10 years prior to the license application and any information related to violations of this Act. No law enforcement agency, State's Attorney, Attorney General, or member or staff of the judiciary shall provide any information to a requester who is not entitled to it by law.

(j) No later than 10 days after receipt of a completed application, the Illinois State Police shall enter the relevant information about the applicant into the database under subsection (i) of this Section which is accessible by law enforcement agencies.

(k) The Illinois State Police shall continuously monitor relevant State and federal databases for firearms prohibitors and correlate those records with concealed carry license holders to ensure compliance with this Act, or State and federal law. The Illinois State Police may adopt rules to implement this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(430 ILCS 66/20)

Sec. 20. Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board.

(a) There is hereby created within the Illinois State Police a Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board to consider any objection to an applicant's eligibility to obtain a license under this Act submitted by a law enforcement agency or the Illinois State Police under Section 15 of this Act. The Board shall consist of 7 commissioners to be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, with 3 commissioners residing within the First Judicial District and one commissioner residing within each of the 4 remaining Judicial Districts. No more than 4 commissioners shall be members of the same political party. The Governor shall designate one commissioner as the Chairperson. The Board shall consist of:

(1) one commissioner with at least 5 years of service as a federal judge;

(2) 2 commissioners with at least 5 years of experience serving as an attorney with the United States Department of Justice;

(3) 3 commissioners with at least 5 years of experience as a federal agent or employee with investigative experience or duties related to criminal justice under the United States Department of Justice, Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Homeland Security, or Federal Bureau of Investigation; and

(4) one member with at least 5 years of experience as a licensed physician or clinical psychologist with expertise in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness.

(b) The initial terms of the commissioners shall end on January 12, 2015. Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, the term of office of each commissioner of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board is abolished on January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-237) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly. The terms of the commissioners appointed on or after January 1, 2022 (the effective date of Public Act 102-237) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly shall be as follows: one of the initial members shall be appointed for a term of one year, 3 shall be appointed for terms of 2 years, and 3 shall be appointed for terms of 4 years. Thereafter, the commissioners shall hold office for 4 years, with terms expiring on the second Monday in January of the fourth year. Commissioners may be reappointed. Vacancies in the office of commissioner shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment, for the remainder of the unexpired term. The Governor may remove a commissioner for incompetence, neglect of duty, malfeasance, or inability to serve. Commissioners shall receive compensation in an amount equal to the compensation of members of the Executive Ethics Commission and may be reimbursed for reasonable expenses actually incurred in the performance of their Board duties, from funds appropriated for that purpose.

(c) The Board shall meet at the call of the chairperson as often as necessary to consider objections to applications for a license under this Act. If necessary to ensure the participation of a commissioner, the Board shall allow a commissioner to participate in a Board meeting by electronic communication. Any commissioner participating electronically shall be deemed present for purposes of establishing a quorum and voting.

(d) The Board shall adopt rules for the review of objections and the conduct of hearings. The Board shall maintain a record of its decisions and all materials considered in making its decisions. All Board decisions and voting records shall be kept confidential and all materials considered by the Board shall be exempt from inspection except upon order of a court.

(e) In considering an objection of a law enforcement agency or the Illinois State Police, the Board shall review the materials received with the objection from the law enforcement agency or the Illinois State Police. By a vote of at least 4 commissioners, the Board may request additional information from the law enforcement agency, Illinois State Police, or the applicant, or the testimony of the law enforcement agency, Illinois State Police, or the applicant. The Board may require that the applicant submit electronic fingerprints to the Illinois State Police for an updated background check where the Board determines it lacks sufficient information to determine eligibility. The Board may only consider information submitted by the Illinois State Police, a law enforcement agency, or the applicant. The Board shall review each objection and determine by a majority of commissioners whether an applicant is eligible for a license.

(f) The Board shall issue a decision within 30 days of receipt of the objection from the Illinois State Police. However, the Board need not issue a decision within 30 days if:

(1) the Board requests information from the applicant, including but not limited to electronic fingerprints to be submitted to the Illinois State Police, in accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, in which case the Board shall make a decision within 30 days of receipt of the required information from the applicant;

(2) the applicant agrees, in writing, to allow the Board additional time to consider an objection; or

(3) the Board notifies the applicant and the Illinois State Police that the Board needs an additional 30 days to issue a decision.

(g) If the Board determines by a preponderance of the evidence that the applicant poses a danger to himself or herself or others, or is a threat to public safety, then the Board shall affirm the objection of the law enforcement agency or the Illinois State Police and shall notify the Illinois State Police that the applicant is ineligible for a license. If the Board does not determine by a preponderance of the evidence that the applicant poses a danger to himself or herself or others, or is a threat to public safety, then the Board shall notify the Illinois State Police that the applicant is eligible for a license.

(h) Meetings of the Board shall not be subject to the Open Meetings Act and records of the Board shall not be subject to the Freedom of Information Act.

(i) The Board shall report monthly to the Governor and the General Assembly on the number of objections received and provide details of the circumstances in which the Board has determined to deny licensure based on law enforcement or Illinois State Police objections under Section 15 of this Act. The report shall not contain any identifying information about the applicants.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(430 ILCS 66/30)

Sec. 30. Contents of license application.

(a) The license application shall be in writing, under penalty of perjury, on a standard form adopted by the Illinois State Police and shall be accompanied by the documentation required in this Section and the applicable fee. Each application form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012."

(b) The application shall contain the following:

(1) the applicant's name, current address, date and year of birth, place of birth, height, weight, hair color, eye color, maiden name or any other name the applicant has used or identified with, and any address where the applicant resided for more than 30 days within the 10 years preceding the date of the license application;

(2) the applicant's valid driver's license number or valid state identification card number;

(3) a waiver of the applicant's privacy and confidentiality rights and privileges under all federal and state laws, including those limiting access to juvenile court, criminal justice, psychological, or psychiatric records or records relating to any institutionalization of the applicant, and an affirmative request that a person having custody of any of these records provide it or information concerning it to the Illinois State Police. The waiver only applies to records sought in connection with determining whether the applicant qualifies for a license to carry a concealed firearm under this Act, or whether the applicant remains in compliance with the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act;

(4) an affirmation that the applicant possesses a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and card number if possessed or notice the applicant is applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card in conjunction with the license application;

(5) an affirmation that the applicant has not been convicted or found guilty of:

(A) a felony;

(B) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of physical force or violence to any person within the 5 years preceding the date of the application; or

(C) 2 or more violations related to driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the license application; and

(6) whether the applicant has failed a drug test for a drug for which the applicant did not have a prescription, within the previous year, and if so, the provider of the test, the specific substance involved, and the date of the test;

(7) written consent for the Illinois State Police to review and use the applicant's Illinois digital driver's license or Illinois identification card photograph and signature;

(8) unless submitted under subsection (a-25) of Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, a full set of fingerprints submitted to the Illinois State Police in electronic format, provided the Illinois State Police may accept an application submitted without a set of fingerprints, in which case the Illinois State Police shall be granted 30 days in addition to the 90 days provided under subsection (e) of Section 10 of this Act to issue or deny a license;

(9) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size specified by the Illinois State Police taken within the 30 days preceding the date of the license application; and

(10) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence of compliance with the training requirements under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(430 ILCS 66/50)

Sec. 50. License renewal.

(a) This subsection (a) applies through the 180th day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. The Illinois State Police shall, 180 days prior to the expiration of a concealed carry license, notify each person whose license is to expire a notification of the expiration of the license and instructions for renewal. Applications for renewal of a license shall be made to the Illinois State Police. A license shall be renewed for a period of 5 years upon receipt of a completed renewal application, completion of 3 hours of training required under Section 75 of this Act, payment of the applicable renewal fee, and completion of an investigation under Section 35 of this Act. The renewal application shall contain the information required in Section 30 of this Act, except that the applicant need not resubmit a full set of fingerprints.

(b) This subsection (b) applies on and after the 181st day following July 12, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-80) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. Applications for renewal of a license shall be made to the Illinois State Police. A license shall be renewed for a period of 5 years from the date of expiration on the applicant's current license upon the receipt of a completed renewal application, completion of 3 hours of training required under Section 75 of this Act, payment of the applicable renewal fee, and completion of an investigation under Section 35 of this Act. The renewal application shall contain the information required in Section 30 of this Act, except that the applicant need not resubmit a full set of fingerprints.

(Source: P.A. 101-80, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(430 ILCS 66/55)

Sec. 55. Change of address or name; lost, destroyed, or stolen licenses.

(a) A licensee shall notify the Illinois State Police within 30 days of moving or changing residence or any change of name. The licensee shall submit the requisite fee and the Illinois State Police may require a notarized statement that the licensee has changed his or her residence or his or her name, including the prior and current address or name and the date the applicant moved or changed his or her name.

(b) A licensee shall notify the Illinois State Police within 10 days of discovering that a license has been lost, destroyed, or stolen. A lost, destroyed, or stolen license is invalid. To request a replacement license, the licensee shall submit:

(1) a written or electronic acknowledgment that the licensee no longer possesses the license, and that it was lost, destroyed, or stolen;

(2) if applicable, a copy of a police report stating that the license was stolen; and

(3) the requisite fee.

(c) A violation of this Section is a petty offense with a fine of $150 which shall be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(430 ILCS 66/70)

Sec. 70. Violations.

(a) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found to be ineligible for a license under this Act or the licensee no longer meets the eligibility requirements of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(b) A license shall be suspended if an order of protection, including an emergency order of protection, plenary order of protection, or interim order of protection under Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, or if a firearms restraining order, including an emergency firearms restraining order, under the Firearms Restraining Order Act, is issued against a licensee for the duration of the order, or if the Illinois State Police is made aware of a similar order issued against the licensee in any other jurisdiction. If an order of protection is issued against a licensee, the licensee shall surrender the license, as applicable, to the court at the time the order is entered or to the law enforcement agency or entity serving process at the time the licensee is served the order. The court, law enforcement agency, or entity responsible for serving the order of protection shall notify the Illinois State Police within 7 days and transmit the license to the Illinois State Police.

(c) A license is invalid upon expiration of the license, unless the licensee has submitted an application to renew the license, and the applicant is otherwise eligible to possess a license under this Act.

(d) A licensee shall not carry a concealed firearm while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or combination of compounds, or any combination thereof, under the standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

A licensee in violation of this subsection (d) shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first or second violation and a Class 4 felony for a third violation. The Illinois State Police may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for a third violation.

(e) Except as otherwise provided, a licensee in violation of this Act shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor. The Illinois State Police may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for 3 or more violations of Section 65 of this Act. Any person convicted of a violation under this Section shall pay a $150 fee to be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund, plus any applicable court costs or fees.

(f) A licensee convicted or found guilty of a violation of this Act who has a valid license and is otherwise eligible to carry a concealed firearm shall only be subject to the penalties under this Section and shall not be subject to the penalties under Section 21-6, paragraph (4), (8), or (10) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1, or subparagraph (A-5) or (B-5) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, nothing in this subsection prohibits the licensee from being subjected to penalties for violations other than those specified in this Act.

(g) A licensee whose license is revoked, suspended, or denied shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the revocation, suspension, or denial, surrender his or her concealed carry license to the local law enforcement agency where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency shall provide the licensee a receipt and transmit the concealed carry license to the Illinois State Police. If the licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or denied fails to comply with the requirements of this subsection, the law enforcement agency where the person resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to search for and seize the concealed carry license in the possession and under the custody or control of the licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or denied. The observation of a concealed carry license in the possession of a person whose license has been revoked, suspended, or denied constitutes a sufficient basis for the arrest of that person for violation of this subsection. A violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor.

(h) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (h-5), a license issued or renewed under this Act shall be revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found ineligible for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the licensee no longer possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the Firearm Owner's Identification Card is expired or suspended rather than denied or revoked, the license may be suspended for a period of up to one year to allow the licensee to reinstate his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card. The Illinois State Police shall adopt rules to enforce this subsection. A licensee whose license is revoked under this subsection (h) shall surrender his or her concealed carry license as provided for in subsection (g) of this Section.

This subsection shall not apply to a person who has filed an application with the Illinois State Police for renewal of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and who is not otherwise ineligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(h-5) If the Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a licensee under this Act expires during the term of the license issued under this Act, the license and the Firearm Owner's Identification Card remain valid, and the Illinois State Police may automatically renew the licensee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card as provided in subsection (c) of Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(i) A certified firearms instructor who knowingly provides or offers to provide a false certification that an applicant has completed firearms training as required under this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person guilty of a violation of this subsection (i) is not eligible for court supervision. The Illinois State Police shall permanently revoke the firearms instructor certification of a person convicted under this subsection (i).

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

Section 565. The Firearms Restraining Order Act is amended by changing Sections 35 and 40 as follows:

(430 ILCS 67/35)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-345)

Sec. 35. Ex parte orders and emergency hearings.

(a) A petitioner may request an emergency firearms restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading alleging that the respondent poses an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm. The petition shall also describe the type and location of any firearm or firearms presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by the respondent.

(b) If the respondent is alleged to pose an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include that the petitioner intends to petition the court for an emergency firearms restraining order, and, if the petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling resources, if appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners, the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what efforts were made.

(c) Every person who files a petition for an emergency firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) An emergency firearms restraining order shall be issued on an ex parte basis, that is, without notice to the respondent.

(e) An emergency hearing held on an ex parte basis shall be held the same day that the petition is filed or the next day that the court is in session.

(f) If a circuit or associate judge finds probable cause to believe that the respondent poses an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, the circuit or associate judge shall issue an emergency order.

(f-5) If the court issues an emergency firearms restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the respondent possesses firearms, issue a search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's firearms. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence and other places where the court finds there is probable cause to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms.

(g) An emergency firearms restraining order shall require:

(1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving additional firearms for the duration of the order under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and

(2) the respondent to comply with Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and subsection (g) of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act Illinois.

(h) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (h-5) of this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license cannot be returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or use the firearms for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency.

(h-5) On or before January 1, 2022, a respondent whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm to a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm if the person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the respondent's firearms must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent or to anyone residing in the same residence as the respondent.

(h-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms surrendered under this Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the firearm returned to him or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the firearm, the firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:

(1) the firearm is removed from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm; and

(2) the firearm is not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.

The person petitioning for the return of his or her firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm in a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm.

(i) In accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, the court shall schedule a full hearing as soon as possible, but no longer than 14 days from the issuance of an ex parte firearms restraining order, to determine if a 6-month firearms restraining order shall be issued. The court may extend an ex parte order as needed, but not to exceed 14 days, to effectuate service of the order or if necessary to continue protection. The court may extend the order for a greater length of time by mutual agreement of the parties.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-345)

Sec. 35. Ex parte orders and emergency hearings.

(a) A petitioner may request an emergency firearms restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading alleging that the respondent poses an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The petition shall also describe the type and location of any firearm or firearms, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by the respondent.

(b) If the respondent is alleged to pose an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include that the petitioner intends to petition the court for an emergency firearms restraining order, and, if the petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling resources, if appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners, the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what efforts were made.

(c) Every person who files a petition for an emergency firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) An emergency firearms restraining order shall be issued on an ex parte basis, that is, without notice to the respondent.

(e) An emergency hearing held on an ex parte basis shall be held the same day that the petition is filed or the next day that the court is in session.

(f) If a circuit or associate judge finds probable cause to believe that the respondent poses an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, the circuit or associate judge shall issue an emergency order.

(f-5) If the court issues an emergency firearms restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the respondent possesses firearms, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, issue a search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence and other places where the court finds there is probable cause to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. A return of the search warrant shall be filed by the law enforcement agency within 4 days thereafter, setting forth the time, date, and location that the search warrant was executed and what items, if any, were seized.

(g) An emergency firearms restraining order shall require:

(1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving additional firearms, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, or removing firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for the duration of the order under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and

(2) the respondent to comply with Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and subsection (g) of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act Illinois, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm.

(h) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (h-5) of this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license cannot be returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, ammunition, or firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for training purposes, or use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency.

(h-5) On or before January 1, 2022, a respondent whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm if the person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she shall not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to the respondent or to anyone residing in the same residence as the respondent.

(h-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm surrendered under this Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm returned to him or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:

(1) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm are removed from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm; and

(2) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm are not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.

The person petitioning for the return of his or her firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm.

(i) In accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, the court shall schedule a full hearing as soon as possible, but no longer than 14 days from the issuance of an ex parte firearms restraining order, to determine if a 6-month firearms restraining order shall be issued. The court may extend an ex parte order as needed, but not to exceed 14 days, to effectuate service of the order or if necessary to continue protection. The court may extend the order for a greater length of time by mutual agreement of the parties.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-345, eff. 6-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-9-21.)

(430 ILCS 67/40)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-237)

Sec. 40. Six-month orders.

(a) A petitioner may request a 6-month firearms restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading alleging that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another in the near future by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm. The petition shall also describe the number, types, and locations of any firearms presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by the respondent.

(b) If the respondent is alleged to pose a significant danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include that the petitioner intends to petition the court for a 6-month firearms restraining order, and, if the petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling resources, if appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners, the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what efforts were made.

(c) Every person who files a petition for a 6-month firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) Upon receipt of a petition for a 6-month firearms restraining order, the court shall order a hearing within 30 days.

(e) In determining whether to issue a firearms restraining order under this Section, the court shall consider evidence including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) The unlawful and reckless use, display, or brandishing of a firearm by the respondent.

(2) The history of use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force by the respondent against another person.

(3) Any prior arrest of the respondent for a felony offense.

(4) Evidence of the abuse of controlled substances or alcohol by the respondent.

(5) A recent threat of violence or act of violence by the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or another.

(6) A violation of an emergency order of protection issued under Section 217 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or Section 112A-17 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or of an order of protection issued under Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or Section 112A-14 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(7) A pattern of violent acts or violent threats, including, but not limited to, threats of violence or acts of violence by the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or another.

(f) At the hearing, the petitioner shall have the burden of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, that the respondent poses a significant danger of personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm.

(g) If the court finds that there is clear and convincing evidence to issue a firearms restraining order, the court shall issue a firearms restraining order that shall be in effect for 6 months subject to renewal under Section 45 of this Act or termination under that Section.

(g-5) If the court issues a 6-month firearms restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the respondent possesses firearms, issue a search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's firearms. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence and other places where the court finds there is probable cause to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms.

(h) A 6-month firearms restraining order shall require:

(1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving additional firearms for the duration of the order under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and

(2) the respondent to comply with Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and subsection (g) of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. Illinois

(i) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (i-5) of this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or use the firearms for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency.

(i-5) A respondent whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm to a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm if the person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the respondent's firearms must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent or to anyone residing in the same residence as the respondent.

(i-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms surrendered under this Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the firearm returned to him or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the firearm, the firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:

(1) the firearm is removed from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm; and

(2) the firearm is not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.

The person petitioning for the return of his or her firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm in a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm.

(j) If the court does not issue a firearms restraining order at the hearing, the court shall dissolve any emergency firearms restraining order then in effect.

(k) When the court issues a firearms restraining order under this Section, the court shall inform the respondent that he or she is entitled to one hearing during the period of the order to request a termination of the order, under Section 45 of this Act, and shall provide the respondent with a form to request a hearing.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-3-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-345)

Sec. 40. Six-month orders.

(a) A petitioner may request a 6-month firearms restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading alleging that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another in the near future by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The petition shall also describe the number, types, and locations of any firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by the respondent.

(b) If the respondent is alleged to pose a significant danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include that the petitioner intends to petition the court for a 6-month firearms restraining order, and, if the petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling resources, if appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners, the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what efforts were made.

(c) Every person who files a petition for a 6-month firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) Upon receipt of a petition for a 6-month firearms restraining order, the court shall order a hearing within 30 days.

(e) In determining whether to issue a firearms restraining order under this Section, the court shall consider evidence including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) The unlawful and reckless use, display, or brandishing of a firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm by the respondent.

(2) The history of use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force by the respondent against another person.

(3) Any prior arrest of the respondent for a felony offense.

(4) Evidence of the abuse of controlled substances or alcohol by the respondent.

(5) A recent threat of violence or act of violence by the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or another.

(6) A violation of an emergency order of protection issued under Section 217 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or Section 112A-17 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or of an order of protection issued under Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or Section 112A-14 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(7) A pattern of violent acts or violent threats, including, but not limited to, threats of violence or acts of violence by the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or another.

(f) At the hearing, the petitioner shall have the burden of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, that the respondent poses a significant danger of personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm.

(g) If the court finds that there is clear and convincing evidence to issue a firearms restraining order, the court shall issue a firearms restraining order that shall be in effect for 6 months subject to renewal under Section 45 of this Act or termination under that Section.

(g-5) If the court issues a 6-month firearms restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the respondent possesses firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, issue a search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence and other places where the court finds there is probable cause to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. A return of the search warrant shall be filed by the law enforcement agency within 4 days thereafter, setting forth the time, date, and location that the search warrant was executed and what items, if any, were seized.

(h) A 6-month firearms restraining order shall require:

(1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving additional firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for the duration of the order under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and

(2) the respondent to comply with Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act and subsection (g) of Section 70 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm. Illinois, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm

(i) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (i-5) of this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for training purposes, or use the firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency.

(i-5) A respondent whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm if the person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the respondent's firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she shall not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to the respondent or to anyone residing in the same residence as the respondent.

(i-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm surrendered under this Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm returned to him or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm, the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:

(1) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm are removed from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm; and

(2) the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm are not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.

The person petitioning for the return of his or her firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm in a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm, ammunition, and firearm parts that could be assembled to make an operable firearm.

(j) If the court does not issue a firearms restraining order at the hearing, the court shall dissolve any emergency firearms restraining order then in effect.

(k) When the court issues a firearms restraining order under this Section, the court shall inform the respondent that he or she is entitled to one hearing during the period of the order to request a termination of the order, under Section 45 of this Act, and shall provide the respondent with a form to request a hearing.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-345, eff. 6-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-3-21.)

Section 570. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Section 3.3 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/3.3) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.3)

Sec. 3.3. Trapping license required. Before any person shall trap any of the mammals protected by this Act, for which an open trapping season has been established, he shall first procure a trapping license from the Department to do so. No traps shall be placed in the field, set or unset, prior to the opening day of the trapping season.

Traps used in the taking of such mammals shall be marked or tagged with metal tags or inscribed in lettering giving the name and address of the owner or the customer identification number issued by the Department, and absence of such mark or tag shall be prima facie evidence that such trap or traps are illegally used and the trap or traps shall be confiscated and disposed of as directed by the Department.

Before any person 18 years of age or older shall trap, attempt to trap, or sell the green hides of any mammal of the species defined as fur-bearing mammals by Section 2.2 for which an open season is established under this Act, he shall first have procured a State Habitat Stamp.

Beginning January 1, 2016, no trapping license shall be issued to any person born on or after January 1, 1998 unless he or she presents to the authorized issuer of the license evidence that he or she has a certificate of competency provided for in this Section.

The Department of Natural Resources shall authorize personnel of the Department, or volunteer instructors, found by the Department to be competent, to provide instruction in courses on trapping techniques and ethical trapping behavior as needed throughout the State, which courses shall be at least 8 hours in length. Persons so authorized shall provide instruction in such courses to individuals at no charge, and shall issue to individuals successfully completing such courses certificates of competency in basic trapping techniques. The Department shall cooperate in establishing such courses with any reputable association or organization which has as one of its objectives the promotion of the ethical use of legal fur harvesting devices and techniques. The Department shall furnish information on the requirements of the trapper education program to be distributed free of charge to applicants for trapping licenses by the persons appointed and authorized to issue licenses.

The owners residing on, or bona fide tenants of farm lands, and their children actually residing on such lands, shall have the right to trap mammals protected by this Act, for which an open trapping season has been established, upon such lands, without procuring licenses, provided that such mammals are taken during the periods of time and with such devices as are permitted by this Act.

Any person on active duty in the Armed Forces or any person with a disability who is a resident of Illinois, may trap any of the species protected by Section 2.2, during such times, with such devices, and by such methods as are permitted by this Act, without procuring a trapping license. For the purposes of this Section, a person is considered a person with a disability if he or she has a Type 1 or Type 4, Class 2 disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois Identification Card Act indicating that the person thereon named has a Type 1 or Type 4, Class 2 disability shall be adequate documentation of such a disability.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-524, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-29-21.)

Section 575. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 3-117.1, 3-699.14, 5-102, 5-402.1, 6-106.1, 6-107.5, 6-206, 6-508, 11-212, 11-907, 11-1201.1, 13-108, 13-109.1, 15-102, 15-305, 16-103, and 16-105 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/3-117.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-117.1)

Sec. 3-117.1. When junking certificates or salvage certificates must be obtained.

(a) Except as provided in Chapter 4 and Section 3-117.3 of this Code, a person who possesses a junk vehicle shall within 15 days cause the certificate of title, salvage certificate, certificate of purchase, or a similarly acceptable out-of-state document of ownership to be surrendered to the Secretary of State along with an application for a junking certificate, except as provided in Section 3-117.2, whereupon the Secretary of State shall issue to such a person a junking certificate, which shall authorize the holder thereof to possess, transport, or, by an endorsement, transfer ownership in such junked vehicle, and a certificate of title shall not again be issued for such vehicle. The owner of a junk vehicle is not required to surrender the certificate of title under this subsection if (i) there is no lienholder on the certificate of title or (ii) the owner of the junk vehicle has a valid lien release from the lienholder releasing all interest in the vehicle and the owner applying for the junk certificate matches the current record on the certificate of title file for the vehicle.

A licensee who possesses a junk vehicle and a Certificate of Title, Salvage Certificate, Certificate of Purchase, or a similarly acceptable out-of-state document of ownership for such junk vehicle, may transport the junk vehicle to another licensee prior to applying for or obtaining a junking certificate, by executing a uniform invoice. The licensee transferor shall furnish a copy of the uniform invoice to the licensee transferee at the time of transfer. In any case, the licensee transferor shall apply for a junking certificate in conformance with Section 3-117.1 of this Chapter. The following information shall be contained on a uniform invoice:

(1) The business name, address, and dealer license number of the person disposing of the vehicle, junk vehicle, or vehicle cowl;

(2) The name and address of the person acquiring the vehicle, junk vehicle, or vehicle cowl, and, if that person is a dealer, the Illinois or out-of-state dealer license number of that dealer;

(3) The date of the disposition of the vehicle, junk vehicle, or vehicle cowl;

(4) The year, make, model, color, and description of each vehicle, junk vehicle, or vehicle cowl disposed of by such person;

(5) The manufacturer's vehicle identification number, Secretary of State identification number, or Illinois State Police number, for each vehicle, junk vehicle, or vehicle cowl part disposed of by such person;

(6) The printed name and legible signature of the person or agent disposing of the vehicle, junk vehicle, or vehicle cowl; and

(7) The printed name and legible signature of the person accepting delivery of the vehicle, junk vehicle, or vehicle cowl.

The Secretary of State may certify a junking manifest in a form prescribed by the Secretary of State that reflects those vehicles for which junking certificates have been applied or issued. A junking manifest may be issued to any person and it shall constitute evidence of ownership for the vehicle listed upon it. A junking manifest may be transferred only to a person licensed under Section 5-301 of this Code as a scrap processor. A junking manifest will allow the transportation of those vehicles to a scrap processor prior to receiving the junk certificate from the Secretary of State.

(b) An application for a salvage certificate shall be submitted to the Secretary of State in any of the following situations:

(1) When an insurance company makes a payment of damages on a total loss claim for a vehicle, the insurance company shall be deemed to be the owner of such vehicle and the vehicle shall be considered to be salvage except that ownership of (i) a vehicle that has incurred only hail damage that does not affect the operational safety of the vehicle or (ii) any vehicle 9 model years of age or older may, by agreement between the registered owner and the insurance company, be retained by the registered owner of such vehicle. The insurance company shall promptly deliver or mail within 20 days the certificate of title along with proper application and fee to the Secretary of State, and a salvage certificate shall be issued in the name of the insurance company. Notwithstanding the foregoing, an insurer making payment of damages on a total loss claim for the theft of a vehicle shall not be required to apply for a salvage certificate unless the vehicle is recovered and has incurred damage that initially would have caused the vehicle to be declared a total loss by the insurer.

(1.1) When a vehicle of a self-insured company is to be sold in the State of Illinois and has sustained damaged by collision, fire, theft, rust corrosion, or other means so that the self-insured company determines the vehicle to be a total loss, or if the cost of repairing the damage, including labor, would be greater than 70% of its fair market value without that damage, the vehicle shall be considered salvage. The self-insured company shall promptly deliver the certificate of title along with proper application and fee to the Secretary of State, and a salvage certificate shall be issued in the name of the self-insured company. A self-insured company making payment of damages on a total loss claim for the theft of a vehicle may exchange the salvage certificate for a certificate of title if the vehicle is recovered without damage. In such a situation, the self-insured shall fill out and sign a form prescribed by the Secretary of State which contains an affirmation under penalty of perjury that the vehicle was recovered without damage and the Secretary of State may, by rule, require photographs to be submitted.

(2) When a vehicle the ownership of which has been transferred to any person through a certificate of purchase from acquisition of the vehicle at an auction, other dispositions as set forth in Sections 4-208 and 4-209 of this Code, or a lien arising under Section 18a-501 of this Code shall be deemed salvage or junk at the option of the purchaser. The person acquiring such vehicle in such manner shall promptly deliver or mail, within 20 days after the acquisition of the vehicle, the certificate of purchase, the proper application and fee, and, if the vehicle is an abandoned mobile home under the Abandoned Mobile Home Act, a certification from a local law enforcement agency that the vehicle was purchased or acquired at a public sale under the Abandoned Mobile Home Act to the Secretary of State and a salvage certificate or junking certificate shall be issued in the name of that person. The salvage certificate or junking certificate issued by the Secretary of State under this Section shall be free of any lien that existed against the vehicle prior to the time the vehicle was acquired by the applicant under this Code.

(3) A vehicle which has been repossessed by a lienholder shall be considered to be salvage only when the repossessed vehicle, on the date of repossession by the lienholder, has sustained damage by collision, fire, theft, rust corrosion, or other means so that the cost of repairing such damage, including labor, would be greater than 50% of its fair market value without such damage. If the lienholder determines that such vehicle is damaged in excess of 50% of such fair market value, the lienholder shall, before sale, transfer, or assignment of the vehicle, make application for a salvage certificate, and shall submit with such application the proper fee and evidence of possession. If the facts required to be shown in subsection (f) of Section 3-114 are satisfied, the Secretary of State shall issue a salvage certificate in the name of the lienholder making the application. In any case wherein the vehicle repossessed is not damaged in excess of 50% of its fair market value, the lienholder shall comply with the requirements of subsections (f), (f-5), and (f-10) of Section 3-114, except that the affidavit of repossession made by or on behalf of the lienholder shall also contain an affirmation under penalty of perjury that the vehicle on the date of sale is not damaged in excess of 50% of its fair market value. If the facts required to be shown in subsection (f) of Section 3-114 are satisfied, the Secretary of State shall issue a certificate of title as set forth in Section 3-116 of this Code. The Secretary of State may by rule or regulation require photographs to be submitted.

(4) A vehicle which is a part of a fleet of more than 5 commercial vehicles registered in this State or any other state or registered proportionately among several states shall be considered to be salvage when such vehicle has sustained damage by collision, fire, theft, rust, corrosion or similar means so that the cost of repairing such damage, including labor, would be greater than 50% of the fair market value of the vehicle without such damage. If the owner of a fleet vehicle desires to sell, transfer, or assign his interest in such vehicle to a person within this State other than an insurance company licensed to do business within this State, and the owner determines that such vehicle, at the time of the proposed sale, transfer or assignment is damaged in excess of 50% of its fair market value, the owner shall, before such sale, transfer or assignment, make application for a salvage certificate. The application shall contain with it evidence of possession of the vehicle. If the fleet vehicle at the time of its sale, transfer, or assignment is not damaged in excess of 50% of its fair market value, the owner shall so state in a written affirmation on a form prescribed by the Secretary of State by rule or regulation. The Secretary of State may by rule or regulation require photographs to be submitted. Upon sale, transfer or assignment of the fleet vehicle the owner shall mail the affirmation to the Secretary of State.

(5) A vehicle that has been submerged in water to the point that rising water has reached over the door sill and has entered the passenger or trunk compartment is a "flood vehicle". A flood vehicle shall be considered to be salvage only if the vehicle has sustained damage so that the cost of repairing the damage, including labor, would be greater than 50% of the fair market value of the vehicle without that damage. The salvage certificate issued under this Section shall indicate the word "flood", and the word "flood" shall be conspicuously entered on subsequent titles for the vehicle. A person who possesses or acquires a flood vehicle that is not damaged in excess of 50% of its fair market value shall make application for title in accordance with Section 3-116 of this Code, designating the vehicle as "flood" in a manner prescribed by the Secretary of State. The certificate of title issued shall indicate the word "flood", and the word "flood" shall be conspicuously entered on subsequent titles for the vehicle.

(6) When any licensed rebuilder, repairer, new or used vehicle dealer, or remittance agent has submitted an application for title to a vehicle (other than an application for title to a rebuilt vehicle) that he or she knows or reasonably should have known to have sustained damages in excess of 50% of the vehicle's fair market value without that damage; provided, however, that any application for a salvage certificate for a vehicle recovered from theft and acquired from an insurance company shall be made as required by paragraph (1) of this subsection (b).

(c) Any person who without authority acquires, sells, exchanges, gives away, transfers or destroys or offers to acquire, sell, exchange, give away, transfer or destroy the certificate of title to any vehicle which is a junk or salvage vehicle shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(d) Except as provided under subsection (a), any person who knowingly fails to surrender to the Secretary of State a certificate of title, salvage certificate, certificate of purchase or a similarly acceptable out-of-state document of ownership as required under the provisions of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a subsequent offense; except that a person licensed under this Code who violates paragraph (5) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined not less than $1,000 nor more than $5,000 for a first offense and is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(e) Any vehicle which is salvage or junk may not be driven or operated on roads and highways within this State. A violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor. A salvage vehicle displaying valid special plates issued under Section 3-601(b) of this Code, which is being driven to or from an inspection conducted under Section 3-308 of this Code, is exempt from the provisions of this subsection. A salvage vehicle for which a short term permit has been issued under Section 3-307 of this Code is exempt from the provisions of this subsection for the duration of the permit.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-319, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-22-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.14)

Sec. 3-699.14. Universal special license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue Universal special license plates to residents of Illinois on behalf of organizations that have been authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. Authorized organizations shall be designated by amendment to this Section. When applying for a Universal special license plate the applicant shall inform the Secretary of the name of the authorized organization from which the applicant will obtain a decal to place on the plate. The Secretary shall make a record of that organization and that organization shall remain affiliated with that plate until the plate is surrendered, revoked, or otherwise cancelled. The authorized organization may charge a fee to offset the cost of producing and distributing the decal, but that fee shall be retained by the authorized organization and shall be separate and distinct from any registration fees charged by the Secretary. No decal, sticker, or other material may be affixed to a Universal special license plate other than a decal authorized by the General Assembly in this Section or a registration renewal sticker. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, including motorcycles and autocycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure under Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the Universal special license plate shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Universal special license plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The design shall allow for the application of a decal to the plate. Organizations authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates shall comply with rules adopted by the Secretary governing the requirements for and approval of Universal special license plate decals. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow Universal special license plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary of State must make a version of the special registration plates authorized under this Section in a form appropriate for motorcycles and autocycles.

(c) When authorizing a Universal special license plate, the General Assembly shall set forth whether an additional fee is to be charged for the plate and, if a fee is to be charged, the amount of the fee and how the fee is to be distributed. When necessary, the authorizing language shall create a special fund in the State treasury into which fees may be deposited for an authorized Universal special license plate. Additional fees may only be charged if the fee is to be paid over to a State agency or to a charitable entity that is in compliance with the registration and reporting requirements of the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act. Any charitable entity receiving fees for the sale of Universal special license plates shall annually provide the Secretary of State a letter of compliance issued by the Attorney General verifying that the entity is in compliance with the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(d) Upon original issuance and for each registration renewal period, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if applicable, the Secretary shall collect any additional fees, if required, for issuance of Universal special license plates. The fees shall be collected on behalf of the organization designated by the applicant when applying for the plate. All fees collected shall be transferred to the State agency on whose behalf the fees were collected, or paid into the special fund designated in the law authorizing the organization to issue decals for Universal special license plates. All money in the designated fund shall be distributed by the Secretary subject to appropriation by the General Assembly.

(e) The following organizations may issue decals for Universal special license plates with the original and renewal fees and fee distribution as follows:

(1) The Illinois Department of Natural Resources.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(2) Illinois Veterans' Homes.

(A) Original issuance: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(B) Renewal: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(3) The Illinois Department of Human Services for volunteerism decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(4) The Illinois Department of Public Health.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(5) Horsemen's Council of Illinois.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(6) K9s for Veterans, NFP.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(7) The International Association of Machinists and Aerospace Workers.

(A) Original issuance: $35; with $20 to the Guide Dogs of America Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 going to the Guide Dogs of America Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(8) Local Lodge 701 of the International Association of Machinists and Aerospace Workers.

(A) Original issuance: $35; with $10 to the Guide Dogs of America Fund, $10 to the Mechanics Training Fund, and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $30; with $13 to the Guide Dogs of America Fund, $15 to the Mechanics Training Fund, and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(9) Illinois Department of Human Services.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(10) The Illinois Department of Human Services for developmental disabilities awareness decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(11) The Illinois Department of Human Services for pediatric cancer awareness decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(12) The Department of Veterans' Affairs for Fold of Honor decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Folds of Honor Foundation Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Folds of Honor Foundation Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(13) (12) The Illinois chapters of the Experimental Aircraft Association for aviation enthusiast decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Experimental Aircraft Association Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Experimental Aircraft Association Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(14) (12) The Illinois Department of Human Services for Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(15) (12) The Illinois Department of Public Health for health care worker decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund, and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(f) The following funds are created as special funds in the State treasury:

(1) The Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund. All money in the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Department of Natural Resources to fund roadside monarch and other pollinator habitat development, enhancement, and restoration projects in this State.

(2) The Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund. All money in the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to the Prostate Cancer Foundation of Chicago.

(3) The Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund. All money in the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund shall be paid as grants to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois.

(4) The Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund. All money in the Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to K9s for Veterans, NFP for support, education, and awareness of veterans with post-traumatic stress disorder.

(5) The Guide Dogs of America Fund. All money in the Guide Dogs of America Fund shall be paid as grants to the International Guiding Eyes, Inc., doing business as Guide Dogs of America.

(6) The Mechanics Training Fund. All money in the Mechanics Training Fund shall be paid as grants to the Mechanics Local 701 Training Fund.

(7) The Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund. All money in the Theresa Tracy Trot - Illinois CancerCare Foundation Fund shall be paid to the Illinois CancerCare Foundation for the purpose of furthering pancreatic cancer research.

(8) The Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund. All money in the Developmental Disabilities Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to the Illinois Department of Human Services to fund legal aid groups to assist with guardianship fees for private citizens willing to become guardians for individuals with developmental disabilities but who are unable to pay the legal fees associated with becoming a guardian.

(9) The Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund. All money in the Pediatric Cancer Awareness Fund shall be paid as grants to the Cancer Center at Illinois for pediatric cancer treatment and research.

(10) The Folds of Honor Foundation Fund. All money in the Folds of Honor Foundation Fund shall be paid as grants to the Folds of Honor Foundation to aid in providing educational scholarships to military families.

(11) (10) The Experimental Aircraft Association Fund. All money in the Experimental Aircraft Association Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants to promote recreational aviation.

(12) (10) The Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund. All money in the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities Fund shall be paid as grants to benefit the Child Abuse Council of the Quad Cities.

(13) (10) The Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund. All money in the Illinois Health Care Workers Benefit Fund shall be paid as grants to the Trinity Health Foundation for the benefit of health care workers, doctors, nurses, and others who work in the health care industry in this State.

(Source: P.A. 101-248, eff. 1-1-20; 101-256, eff. 1-1-20; 101-276, eff. 8-9-19; 101-282, eff. 1-1-20; 101-372, eff. 1-1-20; 102-383, eff. 1-1-22; 102-422, eff. 8-20-21; 102-423, eff. 8-20-21; 102-515, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-22-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-102) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-102)

Sec. 5-102. Used vehicle dealers must be licensed.

(a) No person, other than a licensed new vehicle dealer, shall engage in the business of selling or dealing in, on consignment or otherwise, 5 or more used vehicles of any make during the year (except house trailers as authorized by paragraph (j) of this Section and rebuilt salvage vehicles sold by their rebuilders to persons licensed under this Chapter), or act as an intermediary, agent or broker for any licensed dealer or vehicle purchaser (other than as a salesperson) or represent or advertise that he is so engaged or intends to so engage in such business unless licensed to do so by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this Section.

(b) An application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be filed with the Secretary of State, duly verified by oath, in such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe and shall contain:

1. The name and type of business organization established and additional places of business, if any, in this State.

2. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association, a trust, or any similar form of business organization, the names and residence address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee, or manager.

3. A statement that the applicant has been approved for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act by the Department of Revenue. However, this requirement does not apply to a dealer who is already licensed hereunder with the Secretary of State, and who is merely applying for a renewal of his license. As evidence of this fact, the application shall be accompanied by a certification from the Department of Revenue showing that the Department has approved the applicant for registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

4. A statement that the applicant has complied with the appropriate liability insurance requirement. A Certificate of Insurance in a solvent company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois shall be included with each application covering each location at which he proposes to act as a used vehicle dealer. The policy must provide liability coverage in the minimum amounts of $100,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to, or death of, two or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property. Such policy shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The expiration of the insurance policy shall not terminate the liability under the policy arising during the period for which the policy was filed. Trailer and mobile home dealers are exempt from this requirement.

If the permitted user has a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, then the permitted user's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the dealer's insurer shall be the secondary insurer. If the permitted user does not have a liability insurance policy that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, or does not have any insurance at all, then the dealer's insurer shall be the primary insurer and the permitted user's insurer shall be the secondary insurer.

When a permitted user is "test driving" a used vehicle dealer's automobile, the used vehicle dealer's insurance shall be primary and the permitted user's insurance shall be secondary.

As used in this paragraph 4, a "permitted user" is a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer or an employee of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer which the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle. The term "permitted user" also includes a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer for loaner purposes while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

As used in this paragraph 4, "test driving" occurs when a permitted user who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer or an employee of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by a used vehicle dealer that the person is considering to purchase or lease, in order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or condition of the vehicle.

As used in this paragraph 4, "loaner purposes" means when a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer while the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.

5. An application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be accompanied by the following license fees:

(A) $1,000 for applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; however, if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Of the money received by the Secretary of State as license fees under this subparagraph (A) for the 2004 licensing year and thereafter, 95% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(B) Except for dealers selling 25 or fewer automobiles or as provided in subsection (h) of Section 5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's established place of business, and $50 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains; but if the application is made after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for the applicant's established place of business plus $25 for each additional place of business, if any, to which the application pertains. For a license renewal application, the fee shall be based on the amount of automobiles sold in the past year according to the following formula:

(1) $0 for dealers selling 25 or less automobiles;

(2) $150 for dealers selling more than 25 but less than 200 automobiles;

(3) $300 for dealers selling 200 or more automobiles but less than 300 automobiles; and

(4) $500 for dealers selling 300 or more automobiles.

License fees shall be returnable only in the event that the application is denied by the Secretary of State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.

6. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager, or other principals in the business have not committed in the past 3 years any one violation as determined in any civil, criminal, or administrative proceedings of any one of the following Acts:

(A) The Anti-Theft Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(B) The Certificate of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(C) The Offenses against Registration and Certificates of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(D) The Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and Rebuilders Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(E) Section 21-2 of the Illinois Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to Vehicles; or

(F) The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

7. A statement that the applicant's officers, directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager, or other principals in the business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more violations, as determined in any civil, or criminal, or administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the following Acts:

(A) The Consumer Finance Act;

(B) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;

(C) The Retail Installment Sales Act;

(D) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales Act;

(E) The Interest Act;

(F) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;

(G) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure; or

(H) The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

7.5. A statement that, within 10 years of application, each officer, director, shareholder having a 10% or greater ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer, director, trustee, manager, or other principal in the business of the applicant has not committed, as determined in any civil, criminal, or administrative proceeding, in any calendar year one or more forcible felonies under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a violation of either or both Article 16 or 17 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or a violation of either or both Article 16 or 17 of the Criminal Code of 2012, Article 29B of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar out-of-state offense. For the purposes of this paragraph, "forcible felony" has the meaning provided in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

8. A bond or Certificate of Deposit in the amount of $50,000 for each location at which the applicant intends to act as a used vehicle dealer. The bond shall be for the term of the license, or its renewal, for which application is made, and shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The bond shall run to the People of the State of Illinois, with surety by a bonding or insurance company authorized to do business in this State. It shall be conditioned upon the proper transmittal of all title and registration fees and taxes (excluding taxes under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act) accepted by the applicant as a used vehicle dealer.

9. Such other information concerning the business of the applicant as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe.

10. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter 1 through Chapter 5 of this Code.

11. A copy of the certification from the prelicensing education program.

12. The full name, address, and contact information of each of the dealer's agents or legal representatives who is an Illinois resident and liable for the performance of the dealership.

(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any information contained in any application for a used vehicle dealer's license shall be amended within 30 days after the occurrence of each change on such form as the Secretary of State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an amendatory fee of $2.

(d) Anything in this Chapter to the contrary notwithstanding, no person shall be licensed as a used vehicle dealer unless such person maintains an established place of business as defined in this Chapter.

(e) The Secretary of State shall, within a reasonable time after receipt, examine an application submitted to him under this Section. Unless the Secretary makes a determination that the application submitted to him does not conform to this Section or that grounds exist for a denial of the application under Section 5-501 of this Chapter, he must grant the applicant an original used vehicle dealer's license in writing for his established place of business and a supplemental license in writing for each additional place of business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation which shall include the following:

1. The name of the person licensed;

2. If a corporation, the name and address of its officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated association or any similar form of business organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director, trustee, or manager;

3. In case of an original license, the established place of business of the licensee;

4. In the case of a supplemental license, the established place of business of the licensee and the additional place of business to which such supplemental license pertains;

5. The full name, address, and contact information of each of the dealer's agents or legal representatives who is an Illinois resident and liable for the performance of the dealership.

(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State shall be kept posted, conspicuously, in the established place of business of the licensee and in each additional place of business, if any, maintained by such licensee.

(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) of this Section, all used vehicle dealer's licenses granted under this Section expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled under Section 5-501 of this Chapter.

(h) A used vehicle dealer's license may be renewed upon application and payment of the fee required herein, and submission of proof of coverage by an approved bond under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" or proof that applicant is not subject to such bonding requirements, as in the case of an original license, but in case an application for the renewal of an effective license is made during the month of December, the effective license shall remain in force until the application for renewal is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.

(i) All persons licensed as a used vehicle dealer are required to furnish each purchaser of a motor vehicle:

1. A certificate of title properly assigned to the purchaser;

2. A statement verified under oath that all identifying numbers on the vehicle agree with those on the certificate of title;

3. A bill of sale properly executed on behalf of such person;

4. A copy of the Uniform Invoice-transaction reporting return referred to in Section 5-402 of this Chapter;

5. In the case of a rebuilt vehicle, a copy of the Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status; and

6. In the case of a vehicle for which the warranty has been reinstated, a copy of the warranty.

(j) A real estate broker holding a valid certificate of registration issued pursuant to "The Real Estate Brokers and Salesmen License Act" may engage in the business of selling or dealing in house trailers not his own without being licensed as a used vehicle dealer under this Section; however such broker shall maintain a record of the transaction including the following:

(1) the name and address of the buyer and seller,

(2) the date of sale,

(3) a description of the mobile home, including the vehicle identification number, make, model, and year, and

(4) the Illinois certificate of title number.

The foregoing records shall be available for inspection by any officer of the Secretary of State's Office at any reasonable hour.

(k) Except at the time of sale or repossession of the vehicle, no person licensed as a used vehicle dealer may issue any other person a newly created key to a vehicle unless the used vehicle dealer makes a color photocopy or electronic scan of the driver's license or State identification card of the person requesting or obtaining the newly created key. The used vehicle dealer must retain the photocopy or scan for 30 days.

A used vehicle dealer who violates this subsection (k) is guilty of a petty offense. Violation of this subsection (k) is not cause to suspend, revoke, cancel, or deny renewal of the used vehicle dealer's license.

(l) Used vehicle dealers licensed under this Section shall provide the Secretary of State a register for the sale at auction of each salvage or junk certificate vehicle. Each register shall include the following information:

1. The year, make, model, style, and color of the vehicle;

2. The vehicle's manufacturer's identification number or, if applicable, the Secretary of State or Illinois State Police identification number;

3. The date of acquisition of the vehicle;

4. The name and address of the person from whom the vehicle was acquired;

5. The name and address of the person to whom any vehicle was disposed, the person's Illinois license number or if the person is an out-of-state salvage vehicle buyer, the license number from the state or jurisdiction where the buyer is licensed; and

6. The purchase price of the vehicle.

The register shall be submitted to the Secretary of State via written or electronic means within 10 calendar days from the date of the auction.

(m) If a licensee under this Section voluntarily surrenders a license to the Illinois Secretary of State Police or a representative of the Secretary of State Vehicle Services Department due to the licensee's inability to adhere to recordkeeping provisions, or the inability to properly issue certificates of title or registrations under this Code, or the Secretary revokes a license under this Section, then the licensee and the licensee's agent, designee, or legal representative, if applicable, may not be named on a new application for a licensee under this Section or under this Chapter, nor is the licensee or the licensee's agent, designee, or legal representative permitted to work for another licensee under this Chapter in a recordkeeping, management, or financial position or as an employee who handles certificate of title and registration documents and applications.

(Source: P.A. 101-505, eff. 1-1-20; 102-154, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-402.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-402.1)

Sec. 5-402.1. Use of Secretary of State Uniform Invoice for Essential Parts.

(a) Except for scrap processors, every person licensed or required to be licensed under Section 5-101, 5-101.1, 5-102, 5-102.8, or 5-301 of this Code shall issue, in a form the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe, a Uniform Invoice, which may also act as a bill of sale, with respect to each transaction in which he disposes of an essential part other than quarter panels and transmissions of vehicles of the first division. Such Invoice shall be made out at the time of the disposition of the essential part. If the licensee disposes of several essential parts in the same transaction, the licensee may issue one Uniform Invoice covering all essential parts disposed of in that transaction.

(b) The following information shall be contained on the Uniform Invoice:

(1) the business name, address, and dealer license number of the person disposing of the essential part;

(2) the name and address of the person acquiring the essential part, and if that person is a dealer, the Illinois or out-of-state dealer license number of that dealer;

(3) the date of the disposition of the essential part;

(4) the year, make, model, color, and description of each essential part disposed of by the person;

(5) the manufacturer's vehicle identification number, Secretary of State identification number, or Illinois State Police identification number, for each essential part disposed of by the person;

(6) the printed name and legible signature of the person or agent disposing of the essential part; and

(7) if the person is a dealer the printed name and legible signature of the dealer or his agent or employee accepting delivery of the essential part.

(c) Except for scrap processors, and except as set forth in subsection (d) of this Section, whenever a person licensed or required to be licensed by Section 5-101, 5-101.1, 5-102, or 5-301 accepts delivery of an essential part, other than quarter panels and transmissions of vehicles of the first division, that person shall, at the time of the acceptance or delivery, comply with the following procedures:

(1) Before acquiring or accepting delivery of any essential part, the licensee or his authorized agent or employee shall inspect the part to determine whether the vehicle identification number, Secretary of State identification number, Illinois State Police identification number, or identification plate or sticker attached to or stamped on any part being acquired or delivered has been removed, falsified, altered, defaced, destroyed, or tampered with. If the licensee or his agent or employee determines that the vehicle identification number, Secretary of State identification number, Illinois State Police identification number, identification plate or identification sticker containing an identification number, or Federal Certificate label of an essential part has been removed, falsified, altered, defaced, destroyed, or tampered with, the licensee or agent shall not accept or receive that part.

If that part was physically acquired by or delivered to a licensee or his agent or employee while that licensee, agent, or employee was outside this State, that licensee or agent or employee shall not bring that essential part into this State or cause it to be brought into this State.

(2) If the person disposing of or delivering the essential part to the licensee is a licensed in-state or out-of-state dealer, the licensee or his agent or employee, after inspecting the essential part as required by paragraph (1) of this subsection (c), shall examine the Uniform Invoice, or bill of sale, as the case may be, to ensure that it contains all the information required to be provided by persons disposing of essential parts as set forth in subsection (b) of this Section. If the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale does not contain all the information required to be listed by subsection (b) of this Section, the dealer disposing of or delivering such part or his agent or employee shall record such additional information or other needed modifications on the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale or, if needed, an attachment thereto. The dealer or his agent or employee delivering the essential part shall initial all additions or modifications to the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale and legibly print his name at the bottom of each document containing his initials. If the transaction involves a bill of sale rather than a Uniform Invoice, the licensee or his agent or employee accepting delivery of or acquiring the essential part shall affix his printed name and legible signature on the space on the bill of sale provided for his signature or, if no space is provided, on the back of the bill of sale. If the dealer or his agent or employee disposing of or delivering the essential part cannot or does not provide all the information required by subsection (b) of this Section, the licensee or his agent or employee shall not accept or receive any essential part for which that required information is not provided. If such essential part for which the information required is not fully provided was physically acquired while the licensee or his agent or employee was outside this State, the licensee or his agent or employee shall not bring that essential part into this State or cause it to be brought into this State.

(3) If the person disposing of the essential part is not a licensed dealer, the licensee or his agent or employee shall, after inspecting the essential part as required by paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section verify the identity of the person disposing of the essential part by examining 2 sources of identification, one of which shall be either a driver's license or state identification card. The licensee or his agent or employee shall then prepare a Uniform Invoice listing all the information required to be provided by subsection (b) of this Section. In the space on the Uniform Invoice provided for the dealer license number of the person disposing of the part, the licensee or his agent or employee shall list the numbers taken from the documents of identification provided by the person disposing of the part. The person disposing of the part shall affix his printed name and legible signature on the space on the Uniform Invoice provided for the person disposing of the essential part and the licensee or his agent or employee acquiring the part shall affix his printed name and legible signature on the space provided on the Uniform Invoice for the person acquiring the essential part. If the person disposing of the essential part cannot or does not provide all the information required to be provided by this paragraph, or does not present 2 satisfactory forms of identification, the licensee or his agent or employee shall not acquire that essential part.

(d) If an essential part other than quarter panels and transmissions of vehicles of the first division was delivered by a licensed commercial delivery service delivering such part on behalf of a licensed dealer, the person required to comply with subsection (c) of this Section may conduct the inspection of that part required by paragraph (1) of subsection (c) and examination of the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale required by paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section immediately after the acceptance of the part.

(1) If the inspection of the essential part pursuant to paragraph (1) of subsection (c) reveals that the vehicle identification number, Secretary of State identification number, Illinois State Police identification number, identification plate or sticker containing an identification number, or Federal Certificate label of an essential part has been removed, falsified, altered, defaced, destroyed, or tampered with, the licensee or his agent shall immediately record such fact on the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale, assign the part an inventory or stock number, place such inventory or stock number on both the essential part and the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale, and record the date of the inspection of the part on the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale. The licensee shall, within 7 days of such inspection, return such part to the dealer from whom it was acquired.

(2) If the examination of the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale pursuant to paragraph (2) of subsection (c) reveals that any of the information required to be listed by subsection (b) of this Section is missing, the licensee or person required to be licensed shall immediately assign a stock or inventory number to such part, place such stock or inventory number on both the essential part and the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale, and record the date of examination on the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale. The licensee or person required to be licensed shall acquire the information missing from the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale within 7 days of the examination of such Uniform Invoice or bill of sale. Such information may be received by telephone conversation with the dealer from whom the part was acquired. If the dealer provides the missing information the licensee shall record such information on the Uniform Invoice or bill of sale along with the name of the person providing the information. If the dealer does not provide the required information within the aforementioned 7-day 7 day period, the licensee shall return the part to that dealer.

(e) Except for scrap processors, all persons licensed or required to be licensed who acquire or dispose of essential parts other than quarter panels and transmissions of vehicles of the first division shall retain a copy of the Uniform Invoice required to be made by subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section for a period of 3 years.

(f) Except for scrap processors, any person licensed or required to be licensed under Section Sections 5-101, 5-102, or 5-301 who knowingly fails to record on a Uniform Invoice any of the information or entries required to be recorded by subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, or who knowingly places false entries or other misleading information on such Uniform Invoice, or who knowingly fails to retain for 3 years a copy of a Uniform Invoice reflecting transactions required to be recorded by subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, or who knowingly acquires or disposes of essential parts without receiving, issuing, or executing a Uniform Invoice reflecting that transaction as required by subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, or who brings or causes to be brought into this State essential parts for which the information required to be recorded on a Uniform Invoice is not recorded as prohibited by subsection (c) of this Section, or who knowingly fails to comply with the provisions of this Section in any other manner shall be guilty of a Class 2 felony. Each violation shall constitute a separate and distinct offense and a separate count may be brought in the same indictment or information for each essential part for which a record was not kept as required by this Section or for which the person failed to comply with other provisions of this Section.

(g) The records required to be kept by this Section may be examined by a person or persons making a lawful inspection of the licensee's premises pursuant to Section 5-403.

(h) The records required to be kept by this Section shall be retained by the licensee at his principal place of business for a period of 3 years.

(i) The requirements of this Section shall not apply to the disposition of an essential part other than a cowl which has been damaged or altered to a state in which it can no longer be returned to a usable condition and which is being sold or transferred to a scrap processor or for delivery to a scrap processor.

(Source: P.A. 101-505, eff. 1-1-20; 102-318, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-21-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106.1)

Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of the application and screening process under this Section to insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary of State from their prospective or current employer and submit the completed application to the prospective or current employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as required by the Illinois State Police to conduct fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or submitting proof of successful completion of the annual refresher course. Individuals who on July 1, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 88-612) possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been previously issued by the appropriate Regional School Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all related application and fingerprinting fees as established by rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Illinois State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing services under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the Secretary of State in administering this Section. All applicants must:

1. be 21 years of age or older;

2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately prior to the date of application, or have not had his or her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

4. successfully pass a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in the operation of school buses in accordance with rules promulgated by the Secretary of State;

6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a licensed physician, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant within 90 days of the date of application according to standards promulgated by the Secretary of State;

7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact in any application for permit;

8. have completed an initial classroom course, including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual refresher course; such courses and the agency or organization conducting such courses shall be approved by the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the permit until such course is completed;

9. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of application that may endanger the life or safety of any of the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit period;

10. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the date of application;

11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1, 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.1A, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-9.4-1, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.3, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act;

12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any person;

14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease;

15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the applicant to the Secretary of State; and

16. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit within the last 20 years: (i) an offense defined in subsection (c) of Section 4, subsection (b) of Section 5, and subsection (a) of Section 8 of the Cannabis Control Act; or (ii) any offenses in any other state or against the laws of the United States that, if committed or attempted in this State, would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses.

(b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a suitable photograph of the holder.

(d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Illinois State Police that are required for the criminal background investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed including the successful completion of an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through the Illinois State Police and the submission of necessary fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for criminal history information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the certification to the Secretary of State at the time of submitting the school bus driver permit application.

(e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving certification from the employer that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed, and upon successful completion of all training and examination requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation based upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Illinois State Police. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation.

(f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or subsequent violation.

(g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.

(1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit when he or she receives notice that the permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of this Section.

(3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or otherwise invalidated.

(4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder failed to perform the inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-816 of this Code.

(7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has submitted to a test required by that Section which disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set forth in 49 CFR 40.87.

The Secretary of State shall notify the State Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing school board that fails to remove the offending school bus driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who violates a provision of this Section is subject to the penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.

All valid school bus driver permits issued under this Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.

(h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State shall not characterize the permit as invalid.

(i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this Section:

"Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard.

(k) A private carrier employer of a school bus driver permit holder, having satisfied the employer requirements of this Section, shall be held to a standard of ordinary care for intentional acts committed in the course of employment by the bus driver permit holder. This subsection (k) shall in no way limit the liability of the private carrier employer for violation of any provision of this Section or for the negligent hiring or retention of a school bus driver permit holder.

(Source: P.A. 101-458, eff. 1-1-20; 102-168, eff. 7-27-21; 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-107.5)

Sec. 6-107.5. Adult Driver Education Course.

(a) The Secretary shall establish by rule the curriculum and designate the materials to be used in an adult driver education course. The course shall be at least 6 hours in length and shall include instruction on traffic laws; highway signs, signals, and markings that regulate, warn, or direct traffic; issues commonly associated with motor vehicle accidents including poor decision-making, risk taking, impaired driving, distraction, speed, failure to use a safety belt, driving at night, failure to yield the right-of-way, texting while driving, using wireless communication devices, and alcohol and drug awareness; and instruction on law enforcement procedures during traffic stops, including actions that a motorist should take during a traffic stop and appropriate interactions with law enforcement officers. The curriculum shall not require the operation of a motor vehicle.

(b) The Secretary shall certify course providers. The requirements to be a certified course provider, the process for applying for certification, and the procedure for decertifying a course provider shall be established by rule.

(b-5) In order to qualify for certification as an adult driver education course provider, each applicant must authorize an investigation that includes a fingerprint-based background check to determine if the applicant has ever been convicted of a criminal offense and, if so, the disposition of any conviction. This authorization shall indicate the scope of the inquiry and the agencies that may be contacted. Upon receiving this authorization, the Secretary of State may request and receive information and assistance from any federal, State, or local governmental agency as part of the authorized investigation. Each applicant shall submit his or her fingerprints to the Illinois State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases. The Illinois State Police shall charge applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the State and national criminal history record check. The Illinois State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of Illinois criminal convictions to the Secretary and shall forward the national criminal history record information to the Secretary. Applicants shall pay any other fingerprint-related fees. Unless otherwise prohibited by law, the information derived from the investigation, including the source of the information and any conclusions or recommendations derived from the information by the Secretary of State, shall be provided to the applicant upon request to the Secretary of State prior to any final action by the Secretary of State on the application. Any criminal conviction information obtained by the Secretary of State shall be confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Office of the Secretary of State, except as required by this subsection (b-5), and may not be transmitted to anyone within the Office of the Secretary of State except as needed for the purpose of evaluating the applicant. At any administrative hearing held under Section 2-118 of this Code relating to the denial, cancellation, suspension, or revocation of certification of an adult driver education course provider, the Secretary of State may utilize at that hearing any criminal history, criminal conviction, and disposition information obtained under this subsection (b-5). The information obtained from the investigation may be maintained by the Secretary of State or any agency to which the information was transmitted. Only information and standards which bear a reasonable and rational relation to the performance of providing adult driver education shall be used by the Secretary of State. Any employee of the Secretary of State who gives or causes to be given away any confidential information concerning any criminal convictions or disposition of criminal convictions of an applicant shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless release of the information is authorized by this Section.

(c) The Secretary may permit a course provider to offer the course online, if the Secretary is satisfied the course provider has established adequate procedures for verifying:

(1) the identity of the person taking the course online; and

(2) the person completes the entire course.

(d) The Secretary shall establish a method of electronic verification of a student's successful completion of the course.

(e) The fee charged by the course provider must bear a reasonable relationship to the cost of the course. The Secretary shall post on the Secretary of State's website a list of approved course providers, the fees charged by the providers, and contact information for each provider.

(f) In addition to any other fee charged by the course provider, the course provider shall collect a fee of $5 from each student to offset the costs incurred by the Secretary in administering this program. The $5 shall be submitted to the Secretary within 14 days of the day on which it was collected. All such fees received by the Secretary shall be deposited in the Secretary of State Driver Services Administration Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-455, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206)

Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke license or permit; right to a hearing.

(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other sufficient evidence that the person:

1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon conviction;

2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 12-month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle caused or contributed to an accident resulting in injury requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State under the provisions of this subsection shall start no later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which violation is related to the accident, or shall start not more than one year after the date of the accident, whichever date occurs later;

5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a driver's license, identification card, or permit;

6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or offenses in another state, including the authorization contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;

7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the examination;

8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under the provisions of Section 6-103;

9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact or has used false information or identification in any application for a license, identification card, or permit;

10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to fraudulently use any license, identification card, or permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or suspended unless the operation was authorized by a monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to drive, or restricted driving permit issued under this Code;

12. Has submitted to any portion of the application process for another person or has obtained the services of another person to submit to any portion of the application process for the purpose of obtaining a license, identification card, or permit for some other person;

13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this State when the person's driver's license or permit was invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;

14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301, 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Code, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B of the Illinois Identification Card Act;

15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to criminal trespass to vehicles if the person exercised actual physical control over the vehicle during the commission of the offense, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;

17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section 11-501.1;

18. (Blank);

19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b) of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's license;

20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104 relating to classification of driver's license;

21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the suspension shall be for one year;

23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code for a second or subsequent time within one year of a similar violation;

24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the United States at a military installation in Illinois or in another state of or for a traffic-related offense that is the same as or similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or 6-206 of this Code;

25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used by another in the application process in order to obtain or attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or permit;

26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has possessed an altered license, identification card, or permit;

27. (Blank);

28. Has been convicted for a first time of the illegal possession, while operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year. Any defendant found guilty of this offense while operating a motor vehicle shall have an entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State;

29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that were committed while the person was operating or in actual physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the manufacture, sale or delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;

30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of this subsection, in which case the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;

31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by Section 11-501.6 of this Code or Section 5-16c of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or has submitted to a test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;

32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3 years;

33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles committed within any 24-month period. No revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the date of last conviction;

37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the person was an occupant of a motor vehicle at the time of the violation;

39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code;

40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-908 of this Code;

41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;

42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and the person was an occupant of a motor vehicle at the time of the violation, in which case the suspension shall be for a period of 3 months;

44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest and has been convicted of an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles after having previously had his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this Section;

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code: (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for another person;

46. Has committed a violation of subsection (j) of Section 3-413 of this Code;

47. Has committed a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-502.1 of this Code;

48. Has submitted a falsified or altered medical examiner's certificate to the Secretary of State or provided false information to obtain a medical examiner's certificate;

49. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 11-1002 or 11-1002.5 that resulted in a Type A injury to another, in which case the driving privileges of the person shall be suspended for 12 months; or

50. Has committed a violation of subsection (b-5) of Section 12-610.2 that resulted in great bodily harm, permanent disability, or disfigurement, in which case the driving privileges of the person shall be suspended for 12 months.; or 50

For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26, and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license, any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license, a probationary driver's license, or a temporary driver's license.

(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6-month limitation prescribed shall not apply.

(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the last known address of the person.

2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a permit issued prior to the effective date of the suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit shall also state the number of offenses committed while operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section. If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the remainder of the suspension period.

The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of operating a commercial motor vehicle.

Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving privileges revoked without further rights.

3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor, rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's employment-related duties, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself, or a family member of the petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to transport himself or herself or a family member of the petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an accredited educational institution, or to allow the petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or persons with disabilities who do not hold driving privileges and are living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare. The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is reasonably available and that the petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare.

(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended 2 or more times due to any combination of:

(i) a single conviction of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or

(ii) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;

arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(B-5) If a person's license or permit is revoked or suspended due to a conviction for a violation of subparagraph (C) or (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.

(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees.

(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for employment purposes, then the prohibition against operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device does not apply to the operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by that person's employer when used solely for employment purposes. For any person who, within a 5-year period, is convicted of a second or subsequent offense under Section 11-501 of this Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance or similar out-of-state offense, this employment exemption does not apply until either a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had his or her driving privileges revoked or a one-year period has elapsed during which that person had a restricted driving permit which required the use of an ignition interlock device on every motor vehicle owned or operated by that person.

(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a restricted driving permit for a period deemed appropriate, except that all permits shall expire no later than 2 years from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit issued under this Section shall be subject to cancellation, revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the applicant to participate in a designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program. The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not successfully complete the program.

(F) A person subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code may make application for a restricted driving permit at a hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code after the expiration of 5 years from the effective date of the most recent revocation or after 5 years from the date of release from a period of imprisonment resulting from a conviction of the most recent offense, whichever is later, provided the person, in addition to all other requirements of the Secretary, shows by clear and convincing evidence:

(i) a minimum of 3 years of uninterrupted abstinence from alcohol and the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis under the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound under the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; and

(ii) the successful completion of any rehabilitative treatment and involvement in any ongoing rehabilitative activity that may be recommended by a properly licensed service provider according to an assessment of the person's alcohol or drug use under Section 11-501.01 of this Code.

In determining whether an applicant is eligible for a restricted driving permit under this subparagraph (F), the Secretary may consider any relevant evidence, including, but not limited to, testimony, affidavits, records, and the results of regular alcohol or drug tests. Persons subject to the provisions of paragraph 4 of subsection (b) of Section 6-208 of this Code and who have been convicted of more than one violation of paragraph (3), paragraph (4), or paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of this Code shall not be eligible to apply for a restricted driving permit under this subparagraph (F).

A restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) shall provide that the holder may only operate motor vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device as required under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 6-205 of this Code and subparagraph (A) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of this Section. The Secretary may revoke a restricted driving permit or amend the conditions of a restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) if the holder operates a vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock device, or for any other reason authorized under this Code.

A restricted driving permit issued under this subparagraph (F) shall be revoked, and the holder barred from applying for or being issued a restricted driving permit in the future, if the holder is convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar offense in another state.

(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the actual time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made available to the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon request.

(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of the notice.

(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the provisions of this Section, require the applicant to participate in a driver remedial education course and be retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.

(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the Driver License Compact.

(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any provisions of this Code.

(f) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-90, eff. 7-1-20; 101-470, eff. 7-1-20; 101-623, eff. 7-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-28-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-508) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-508)

Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL); qualification (CDL) - qualification standards.

(a) Testing.

(1) General. No person shall be issued an original or renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State or is applying for a non-domiciled CDL under Sections 6-509 and 6-510 of this Code. The Secretary shall cause to be administered such tests as the Secretary deems necessary to meet the requirements of 49 CFR C.F.R. Part 383, subparts F, G, H, and J.

(1.5) Effective July 1, 2014, no person shall be issued an original CDL or an upgraded CDL that requires a skills test unless that person has held a CLP, for a minimum of 14 calendar days, for the classification of vehicle and endorsement, if any, for which the person is seeking a CDL.

(2) Third party testing. The Secretary of State may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 CFR C.F.R. 383.75 and 49 CFR C.F.R. 384.228 and 384.229, to administer the skills test or tests specified by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration pursuant to the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 and any appropriate federal rule.

(3)(i) Effective February 7, 2020, unless the person is exempted by 49 CFR 380.603, no person shall be issued an original (first time issuance) CDL, an upgraded CDL or a school bus (S), passenger (P), or hazardous Materials (H) endorsement unless the person has successfully completed entry-level driver training (ELDT) taught by a training provider listed on the federal Training Provider Registry.

(ii) Persons who obtain a CLP before February 7, 2020 are not required to complete ELDT if the person obtains a CDL before the CLP or renewed CLP expires.

(iii) Except for persons seeking the H endorsement, persons must complete the theory and behind-the-wheel (range and public road) portions of ELDT within one year of completing the first portion.

(iv) The Secretary shall adopt rules to implement this subsection.

(b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive the skills test specified in this Section for a driver applicant for a commercial driver license who meets the requirements of 49 CFR C.F.R. 383.77. The Secretary of State shall waive the skills tests specified in this Section for a driver applicant who has military commercial motor vehicle experience, subject to the requirements of 49 CFR C.F.R. 383.77.

(b-1) No person shall be issued a CDL unless the person certifies to the Secretary one of the following types of driving operations in which he or she will be engaged:

(1) non-excepted interstate;

(2) non-excepted intrastate;

(3) excepted interstate; or

(4) excepted intrastate.

(b-2) (Blank).

(c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL shall not be issued to a person while the person is subject to a disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or unless otherwise permitted by this Code, while the person's driver's license is suspended, revoked, or cancelled in any state, or any territory or province of Canada; nor may a CLP or CDL be issued to a person who has a CLP or CDL issued by any other state, or foreign jurisdiction, nor may a CDL be issued to a person who has an Illinois CLP unless the person first surrenders all of these licenses or permits. However, a person may hold an Illinois CLP and an Illinois CDL providing the CLP is necessary to train or practice for an endorsement or vehicle classification not present on the current CDL. No CDL shall be issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet the requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be met with the aid of a hearing aid.

(c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code. The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only to a person meeting the following requirements:

(1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to the Illinois State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Illinois State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Illinois State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases;

(2) the person has passed a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation, charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a review of the driver applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

(3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use; and

(4) the person has not been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.

The Illinois State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and may not exceed the actual cost of the records check.

(c-2) The Secretary shall issue a CDL with a school bus endorsement to allow a person to drive a school bus as defined in this Section. The CDL shall be issued according to the requirements outlined in 49 CFR C.F.R. 383. A person may not operate a school bus as defined in this Section without a school bus endorsement. The Secretary of State may adopt rules consistent with Federal guidelines to implement this subsection (c-2).

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-185, eff. 1-1-20; 102-168, eff. 7-27-21; 102-299, eff. 8-6-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-212)

Sec. 11-212. Traffic and pedestrian stop statistical study.

(a) Whenever a State or local law enforcement officer issues a uniform traffic citation or warning citation for an alleged violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, he or she shall record at least the following:

(1) the name, address, gender, and the officer's subjective determination of the race of the person stopped; the person's race shall be selected from the following list: American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or White;

(2) the alleged traffic violation that led to the stop of the motorist;

(3) the make and year of the vehicle stopped;

(4) the date and time of the stop, beginning when the vehicle was stopped and ending when the driver is free to leave or taken into physical custody;

(5) the location of the traffic stop;

(5.5) whether or not a consent search contemporaneous to the stop was requested of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether consent was given or denied;

(6) whether or not a search contemporaneous to the stop was conducted of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether it was with consent or by other means;

(6.2) whether or not a police dog performed a sniff of the vehicle; and, if so, whether or not the dog alerted to the presence of contraband; and, if so, whether or not an officer searched the vehicle; and, if so, whether or not contraband was discovered; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband;

(6.5) whether or not contraband was found during a search; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband seized; and

(7) the name and badge number of the issuing officer.

(b) Whenever a State or local law enforcement officer stops a motorist for an alleged violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code and does not issue a uniform traffic citation or warning citation for an alleged violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code, he or she shall complete a uniform stop card, which includes field contact cards, or any other existing form currently used by law enforcement containing information required pursuant to this Act, that records at least the following:

(1) the name, address, gender, and the officer's subjective determination of the race of the person stopped; the person's race shall be selected from the following list: American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or White;

(2) the reason that led to the stop of the motorist;

(3) the make and year of the vehicle stopped;

(4) the date and time of the stop, beginning when the vehicle was stopped and ending when the driver is free to leave or taken into physical custody;

(5) the location of the traffic stop;

(5.5) whether or not a consent search contemporaneous to the stop was requested of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether consent was given or denied;

(6) whether or not a search contemporaneous to the stop was conducted of the vehicle, driver, passenger, or passengers; and, if so, whether it was with consent or by other means;

(6.2) whether or not a police dog performed a sniff of the vehicle; and, if so, whether or not the dog alerted to the presence of contraband; and, if so, whether or not an officer searched the vehicle; and, if so, whether or not contraband was discovered; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband;

(6.5) whether or not contraband was found during a search; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband seized; and

(7) the name and badge number of the issuing officer.

(b-5) For purposes of this subsection (b-5), "detention" means all frisks, searches, summons, and arrests. Whenever a law enforcement officer subjects a pedestrian to detention in a public place, he or she shall complete a uniform pedestrian stop card, which includes any existing form currently used by law enforcement containing all the information required under this Section, that records at least the following:

(1) the gender, and the officer's subjective determination of the race of the person stopped; the person's race shall be selected from the following list: American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or White;

(2) all the alleged reasons that led to the stop of the person;

(3) the date and time of the stop;

(4) the location of the stop;

(5) whether or not a protective pat down or frisk was conducted of the person; and, if so, all the alleged reasons that led to the protective pat down or frisk, and whether it was with consent or by other means;

(6) whether or not contraband was found during the protective pat down or frisk; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband seized;

(7) whether or not a search beyond a protective pat down or frisk was conducted of the person or his or her effects; and, if so, all the alleged reasons that led to the search, and whether it was with consent or by other means;

(8) whether or not contraband was found during the search beyond a protective pat down or frisk; and, if so, the type and amount of contraband seized;

(9) the disposition of the stop, such as a warning, a ticket, a summons, or an arrest;

(10) if a summons or ticket was issued, or an arrest made, a record of the violations, offenses, or crimes alleged or charged; and

(11) the name and badge number of the officer who conducted the detention.

This subsection (b-5) does not apply to searches or inspections for compliance authorized under the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the Wildlife Code, the Herptiles-Herps Act, or searches or inspections during routine security screenings at facilities or events.

(c) The Illinois Department of Transportation shall provide a standardized law enforcement data compilation form on its website.

(d) Every law enforcement agency shall, by March 1 with regard to data collected during July through December of the previous calendar year and by August 1 with regard to data collected during January through June of the current calendar year, compile the data described in subsections (a), (b), and (b-5) on the standardized law enforcement data compilation form provided by the Illinois Department of Transportation and transmit the data to the Department.

(e) The Illinois Department of Transportation shall analyze the data provided by law enforcement agencies required by this Section and submit a report of the previous year's findings to the Governor, the General Assembly, the Racial Profiling Prevention and Data Oversight Board, and each law enforcement agency no later than July 1 of each year. The Illinois Department of Transportation may contract with an outside entity for the analysis of the data provided. In analyzing the data collected under this Section, the analyzing entity shall scrutinize the data for evidence of statistically significant aberrations. The following list, which is illustrative, and not exclusive, contains examples of areas in which statistically significant aberrations may be found:

(1) The percentage of minority drivers, passengers, or pedestrians being stopped in a given area is substantially higher than the proportion of the overall population in or traveling through the area that the minority constitutes.

(2) A substantial number of false stops including stops not resulting in the issuance of a traffic ticket or the making of an arrest.

(3) A disparity between the proportion of citations issued to minorities and proportion of minorities in the population.

(4) A disparity among the officers of the same law enforcement agency with regard to the number of minority drivers, passengers, or pedestrians being stopped in a given area.

(5) A disparity between the frequency of searches performed on minority drivers or pedestrians and the frequency of searches performed on non-minority drivers or pedestrians.

(f) Any law enforcement officer identification information and driver or pedestrian identification information that is compiled by any law enforcement agency or the Illinois Department of Transportation pursuant to this Act for the purposes of fulfilling the requirements of this Section shall be confidential and exempt from public inspection and copying, as provided under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act, and the information shall not be transmitted to anyone except as needed to comply with this Section. This Section shall not exempt those materials that, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, were available under the Freedom of Information Act. This subsection (f) shall not preclude law enforcement agencies from reviewing data to perform internal reviews.

(g) Funding to implement this Section shall come from federal highway safety funds available to Illinois, as directed by the Governor.

(h) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority, in consultation with law enforcement agencies, officials, and organizations, including Illinois chiefs of police, the Illinois State Police, the Illinois Sheriffs Association, and the Chicago Police Department, and community groups and other experts, shall undertake a study to determine the best use of technology to collect, compile, and analyze the traffic stop statistical study data required by this Section. The Department shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly by March 1, 2022.

(h-1) The Traffic and Pedestrian Stop Data Use and Collection Task Force is hereby created.

(1) The Task Force shall undertake a study to determine the best use of technology to collect, compile, and analyze the traffic stop statistical study data required by this Section.

(2) The Task Force shall be an independent Task Force under the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for administrative purposes, and shall consist of the following members:

(A) 2 academics or researchers who have studied issues related to traffic or pedestrian stop data collection and have education or expertise in statistics;

(B) one professor from an Illinois university who specializes in policing and racial equity;

(C) one representative from the Illinois State Police;

(D) one representative from the Chicago Police Department;

(E) one representative from the Illinois Chiefs of Police;

(F) one representative from the Illinois Sheriffs Association;

(G) one representative from the Chicago Fraternal Order of Police;

(H) one representative from the Illinois Fraternal Order of Police;

(I) the Executive Director of the American Civil Liberties Union of Illinois, or his or her designee; and

(J) 5 representatives from different community organizations who specialize in civil or human rights, policing, or criminal justice reform work, and that represent a range of minority interests or different parts of the State.

(3) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority may consult, contract, work in conjunction with, and obtain any information from any individual, agency, association, or research institution deemed appropriate by the Authority.

(4) The Task Force shall report its findings and recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly by March 1, 2022 and every 3 years after.

(h-5) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "American Indian or Alaska Native" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment.

(2) "Asian" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam.

(2.5) "Badge" means an officer's department issued identification number associated with his or her position as a police officer with that department.

(3) "Black or African American" means a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa.

(4) "Hispanic or Latino" means a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race.

(5) "Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands.

(6) "White" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Europe, the Middle East, or North Africa.

(i) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 101-24, eff. 6-21-19; 102-465, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-21-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-907) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-907)

Sec. 11-907. Operation of vehicles and streetcars on approach of authorized emergency vehicles.

(a) Upon the immediate approach of an authorized emergency vehicle making use of audible and visual signals meeting the requirements of this Code or a police vehicle properly and lawfully making use of an audible or visual signal:

(1) the driver of every other vehicle shall yield the right-of-way and shall immediately drive to a position parallel to, and as close as possible to, the right-hand edge or curb of the highway clear of any intersection and shall, if necessary to permit the safe passage of the emergency vehicle, stop and remain in such position until the authorized emergency vehicle has passed, unless otherwise directed by a police officer; and

(2) the operator of every streetcar shall immediately stop such car clear of any intersection and keep it in such position until the authorized emergency vehicle has passed, unless otherwise directed by a police officer.

(b) This Section shall not operate to relieve the driver of an authorized emergency vehicle from the duty to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons using the highway.

(c) Upon approaching a stationary authorized emergency vehicle, when the authorized emergency vehicle is giving a signal by displaying alternately flashing red, red and white, blue, or red and blue lights or amber or yellow warning lights, a person who drives an approaching vehicle shall:

(1) proceeding with due caution, yield the right-of-way by making a lane change into a lane not adjacent to that of the authorized emergency vehicle, if possible with due regard to safety and traffic conditions, if on a highway having at least 4 lanes with not less than 2 lanes proceeding in the same direction as the approaching vehicle; or

(2) if changing lanes would be impossible or unsafe, proceeding with due caution, reduce the speed of the vehicle, maintaining a safe speed for road conditions and leaving a safe distance until safely past the stationary emergency vehicles.

The visual signal specified under this subsection (c) given by an authorized emergency vehicle is an indication to drivers of approaching vehicles that a hazardous condition is present when circumstances are not immediately clear. Drivers of vehicles approaching a stationary emergency vehicle in any lane shall heed the warning of the signal, reduce the speed of the vehicle, proceed with due caution, maintain a safe speed for road conditions, be prepared to stop, and leave a safe distance until safely passed the stationary emergency vehicle.

As used in this subsection (c), "authorized emergency vehicle" includes any vehicle authorized by law to be equipped with oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights under Section 12-215 of this Code, while the owner or operator of the vehicle is engaged in his or her official duties.

(d) A person who violates subsection (c) of this Section commits a business offense punishable by a fine of not less than $250 or more than $10,000 for a first violation, and a fine of not less than $750 or more than $10,000 for a second or subsequent violation. It is a factor in aggravation if the person committed the offense while in violation of Section 11-501, 12-610.1, or 12-610.2 of this Code. Imposition of the penalties authorized by this subsection (d) for a violation of subsection (c) of this Section that results in the death of another person does not preclude imposition of appropriate additional civil or criminal penalties. A person who violates subsection (c) and the violation results in damage to another vehicle commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person who violates subsection (c) and the violation results in the injury or death of another person commits a Class 4 felony.

(e) If a violation of subsection (c) of this Section results in damage to the property of another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a fixed period of not less than 90 days and not more than one year.

(f) If a violation of subsection (c) of this Section results in injury to another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for a fixed period of not less than 180 days and not more than 2 years.

(g) If a violation of subsection (c) of this Section results in the death of another person, in addition to any other penalty imposed, the person's driving privileges shall be suspended for 2 years.

(h) The Secretary of State shall, upon receiving a record of a judgment entered against a person under subsection (c) of this Section:

(1) suspend the person's driving privileges for the mandatory period; or

(2) extend the period of an existing suspension by the appropriate mandatory period.

(i) The Scott's Law Fund shall be a special fund in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation by the General Assembly and approval by the Director, the Director of the State Police shall use all moneys in the Scott's Law Fund in the Department's discretion to fund the production of materials to educate drivers on approaching stationary authorized emergency vehicles, to hire off-duty Department of State Police for enforcement of this Section, and for other law enforcement purposes the Director deems necessary in these efforts.

(j) For violations of this Section issued by a county or municipal police officer, the assessment shall be deposited into the county's or municipality's Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund. The county shall use the moneys in its Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to hire off-duty county police officers to monitor construction or maintenance zones in that county on highways other than interstate highways. The county, in its discretion, may also use a portion of the moneys in its Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to purchase equipment for county law enforcement and fund the production of materials to educate drivers on construction zone safe driving habits and approaching stationary authorized emergency vehicles.

(k) In addition to other penalties imposed by this Section, the court may order a person convicted of a violation of subsection (c) to perform community service as determined by the court.

(Source: P.A. 101-173, eff. 1-1-20; 102-336, eff. 1-1-22; 102-338, eff. 1-1-22; revised 9-21-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1201.1)

Sec. 11-1201.1. Automated railroad crossing enforcement system.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, an automated railroad grade crossing enforcement system is a system in a municipality or county operated by a governmental agency that produces a recorded image of a motor vehicle's violation of a provision of this Code or local ordinance and is designed to obtain a clear recorded image of the vehicle and vehicle's license plate. The recorded image must also display the time, date, and location of the violation.

As used in this Section, "recorded images" means images recorded by an automated railroad grade crossing enforcement system on:

(1) 2 or more photographs;

(2) 2 or more microphotographs;

(3) 2 or more electronic images; or

(4) a video recording showing the motor vehicle and, on at least one image or portion of the recording, clearly identifying the registration plate or digital registration plate number of the motor vehicle.

(b) The Illinois Commerce Commission may, in cooperation with a local law enforcement agency, establish in any county or municipality an automated railroad grade crossing enforcement system at any railroad grade crossing equipped with a crossing gate designated by local authorities. Local authorities desiring the establishment of an automated railroad crossing enforcement system must initiate the process by enacting a local ordinance requesting the creation of such a system. After the ordinance has been enacted, and before any additional steps toward the establishment of the system are undertaken, the local authorities and the Commission must agree to a plan for obtaining, from any combination of federal, State, and local funding sources, the moneys required for the purchase and installation of any necessary equipment.

(b-1) (Blank).)

(c) For each violation of Section 11-1201 of this Code or a local ordinance recorded by an automated railroad grade crossing enforcement system, the county or municipality having jurisdiction shall issue a written notice of the violation to the registered owner of the vehicle as the alleged violator. The notice shall be delivered to the registered owner of the vehicle, by mail, no later than 90 days after the violation.

The notice shall include:

(1) the name and address of the registered owner of the vehicle;

(2) the registration number of the motor vehicle involved in the violation;

(3) the violation charged;

(4) the location where the violation occurred;

(5) the date and time of the violation;

(6) a copy of the recorded images;

(7) the amount of the civil penalty imposed and the date by which the civil penalty should be paid;

(8) a statement that recorded images are evidence of a violation of a railroad grade crossing;

(9) a warning that failure to pay the civil penalty or to contest liability in a timely manner is an admission of liability; and

(10) a statement that the person may elect to proceed by:

(A) paying the fine; or

(B) challenging the charge in court, by mail, or by administrative hearing.

(d) (Blank).

(d-1) (Blank).)

(d-2) (Blank).)

(e) Based on inspection of recorded images produced by an automated railroad grade crossing enforcement system, a notice alleging that the violation occurred shall be evidence of the facts contained in the notice and admissible in any proceeding alleging a violation under this Section.

(e-1) Recorded images made by an automated railroad grade crossing enforcement system are confidential and shall be made available only to the alleged violator and governmental and law enforcement agencies for purposes of adjudicating a violation of this Section, for statistical purposes, or for other governmental purposes. Any recorded image evidencing a violation of this Section, however, may be admissible in any proceeding resulting from the issuance of the citation.

(e-2) The court or hearing officer may consider the following in the defense of a violation:

(1) that the motor vehicle or registration plates or digital registration plates of the motor vehicle were stolen before the violation occurred and not under the control of or in the possession of the owner at the time of the violation;

(2) that the driver of the motor vehicle received a Uniform Traffic Citation from a police officer at the time of the violation for the same offense;

(3) any other evidence or issues provided by municipal or county ordinance.

(e-3) To demonstrate that the motor vehicle or the registration plates or digital registration plates were stolen before the violation occurred and were not under the control or possession of the owner at the time of the violation, the owner must submit proof that a report concerning the stolen motor vehicle or registration plates was filed with a law enforcement agency in a timely manner.

(f) Rail crossings equipped with an automatic railroad grade crossing enforcement system shall be posted with a sign visible to approaching traffic stating that the railroad grade crossing is being monitored, that citations will be issued, and the amount of the fine for violation.

(g) The compensation paid for an automated railroad grade crossing enforcement system must be based on the value of the equipment or the services provided and may not be based on the number of citations issued or the revenue generated by the system.

(h) (Blank).)

(i) If any part or parts of this Section are held by a court of competent jurisdiction to be unconstitutional, the unconstitutionality shall not affect the validity of the remaining parts of this Section. The General Assembly hereby declares that it would have passed the remaining parts of this Section if it had known that the other part or parts of this Section would be declared unconstitutional.

(j) Penalty. A civil fine of $250 shall be imposed for a first violation of this Section, and a civil fine of $500 shall be imposed for a second or subsequent violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-395, eff. 8-16-19; 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; revised 11-24-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/13-108) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 13-108)

Sec. 13-108. Hearing on complaint against official testing station or official portable emissions testing company; suspension or revocation of permit. If it appears to the Department, either through its own investigation or upon charges verified under oath, that any of the provisions of this Chapter or the rules and regulations of the Department, are being violated, the Department, shall, after notice to the person, firm, or corporation charged with such violation, conduct a hearing. At least 10 days prior to the date of such hearing the Department shall cause to be served upon the person, firm, or corporation charged with such violation, a copy of such charge or charges by registered mail or by the personal service thereof, together with a notice specifying the time and place of such hearing. At the time and place specified in such notice, the person, firm, or corporation charged with such violation shall be given an opportunity to appear in person or by counsel and to be heard by the Secretary of Transportation or an officer or employee of the Department designated in writing by him to conduct such hearing. If it appears from the hearing that such person, firm, or corporation is guilty of the charge preferred against the person, firm, or corporation him or it, the Secretary of Transportation may order the permit suspended or revoked, and the bond forfeited. Any such revocation or suspension shall not be a bar to subsequent arrest and prosecution for violation of this Chapter.

(Source: P.A. 102-566, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-24-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/13-109.1)

Sec. 13-109.1. Annual emission inspection tests; standards; penalties; funds.

(a) For each diesel powered vehicle that (i) is registered for a gross weight of more than 16,000 pounds, (ii) is registered within an affected area, and (iii) is a 2 year or older model year, an annual emission inspection test shall be conducted at an official testing station or by an official portable emissions testing company certified by the Illinois Department of Transportation to perform diesel emission inspections pursuant to the standards set forth in subsection (b) of this Section. This annual emission inspection test may be conducted in conjunction with a semi-annual safety test.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) Diesel emission inspections conducted under this Chapter 13 shall be conducted in accordance with the Society of Automotive Engineers Recommended Practice J1667 "Snap-Acceleration Smoke Test Procedure for Heavy-Duty Diesel Powered Vehicles" and the cutpoint standards set forth in the United States Environmental Protection Agency guidance document "Guidance to States on Smoke Opacity Cutpoints to be used with the SAE J1667 In-Use Smoke Test Procedure". Those procedures and standards, as now in effect, are made a part of this Code, in the same manner as though they were set out in full in this Code.

Notwithstanding the above cutpoint standards, for motor vehicles that are model years 1973 and older, until December 31, 2002, the level of peak smoke opacity shall not exceed 70 percent. Beginning January 1, 2003, for motor vehicles that are model years 1973 and older, the level of peak smoke opacity shall not exceed 55 percent.

(c) If the annual emission inspection under subsection (a) reveals that the vehicle is not in compliance with the diesel emission standards set forth in subsection (b) of this Section, the operator of the official testing station or official portable emissions testing company shall issue a warning notice requiring correction of the violation. The correction shall be made and the vehicle submitted to an emissions retest at an official testing station or official portable emissions testing company certified by the Department to perform diesel emission inspections within 30 days from the issuance of the warning notice requiring correction of the violation.

If, within 30 days from the issuance of the warning notice, the vehicle is not in compliance with the diesel emission standards set forth in subsection (b) as determined by an emissions retest at an official testing station or through an official portable emissions testing company, the certified emissions testing operator or the Department shall place the vehicle out-of-service in accordance with the rules promulgated by the Department. Operating a vehicle that has been placed out-of-service under this subsection (c) is a petty offense punishable by a $1,000 fine. The vehicle must pass a diesel emission inspection at an official testing station before it is again placed in service. The Secretary of State, Illinois State Police, and other law enforcement officers shall enforce this Section. No emergency vehicle, as defined in Section 1-105, may be placed out-of-service pursuant to this Section.

The Department, an official testing station, or an official portable emissions testing company may issue a certificate of waiver subsequent to a reinspection of a vehicle that failed the emissions inspection. Certificate of waiver shall be issued upon determination that documented proof demonstrates that emissions repair costs for the noncompliant vehicle of at least $3,000 have been spent in an effort to achieve compliance with the emission standards set forth in subsection (b). The Department of Transportation shall adopt rules for the implementation of this subsection including standards of documented proof as well as the criteria by which a waiver shall be granted.

(c-5) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-566, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-12-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-102) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-102)

Sec. 15-102. Width of vehicles.

(a) On Class III and non-designated State and local highways, the total outside width of any vehicle or load thereon shall not exceed 8 feet 6 inches.

(b) Except during those times when, due to insufficient light or unfavorable atmospheric conditions, persons and vehicles on the highway are not clearly discernible at a distance of 1000 feet, the following vehicles may exceed the 8 feet 6 inch limitation during the period from a half hour before sunrise to a half hour after sunset:

(1) Loads of hay, straw or other similar farm products provided that the load is not more than 12 feet wide.

(2) Implements of husbandry being transported on another vehicle and the transporting vehicle while loaded.

The following requirements apply to the transportation on another vehicle of an implement of husbandry wider than 8 feet 6 inches on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or other highways in the system of State highways:

(A) The driver of a vehicle transporting an implement of husbandry that exceeds 8 feet 6 inches in width shall obey all traffic laws and shall check the roadways prior to making a movement in order to ensure that adequate clearance is available for the movement. It is prima facie evidence that the driver of a vehicle transporting an implement of husbandry has failed to check the roadway prior to making a movement if the vehicle is involved in a collision with a bridge, overpass, fixed structure, or properly placed traffic control device or if the vehicle blocks traffic due to its inability to proceed because of a bridge, overpass, fixed structure, or properly placed traffic control device.

(B) Flags shall be displayed so as to wave freely at the extremities of overwidth objects and at the extreme ends of all protrusions, projections, and overhangs. All flags shall be clean, bright red flags with no advertising, wording, emblem, or insignia inscribed upon them and at least 18 inches square.

(C) "OVERSIZE LOAD" signs are mandatory on the front and rear of all vehicles with loads over 10 feet wide. These signs must have 12-inch high black letters with a 2-inch stroke on a yellow sign that is 7 feet wide by 18 inches high.

(D) One civilian escort vehicle is required for a load that exceeds 14 feet 6 inches in width and 2 civilian escort vehicles are required for a load that exceeds 16 feet in width on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or other highways in the system of State highways.

(E) The requirements for a civilian escort vehicle and driver are as follows:

(1) The civilian escort vehicle shall be a vehicle not exceeding a gross vehicle weight rating of 26,000 pounds that is designed to afford clear and unobstructed vision to both front and rear.

(2) The escort vehicle driver must be properly licensed to operate the vehicle.

(3) While in use, the escort vehicle must be equipped with illuminated rotating, oscillating, or flashing amber lights or flashing amber strobe lights mounted on top that are of sufficient intensity to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

(4) "OVERSIZE LOAD" signs are mandatory on all escort vehicles. The sign on an escort vehicle shall have 8-inch high black letters on a yellow sign that is 5 feet wide by 12 inches high.

(5) When only one escort vehicle is required and it is operating on a two-lane highway, the escort vehicle shall travel approximately 300 feet ahead of the load. The rotating, oscillating, or flashing lights or flashing amber strobe lights and an "OVERSIZE LOAD" sign shall be displayed on the escort vehicle and shall be visible from the front. When only one escort vehicle is required and it is operating on a multilane divided highway, the escort vehicle shall travel approximately 300 feet behind the load and the sign and lights shall be visible from the rear.

(6) When 2 escort vehicles are required, one escort shall travel approximately 300 feet ahead of the load and the second escort shall travel approximately 300 feet behind the load. The rotating, oscillating, or flashing lights or flashing amber strobe lights and an "OVERSIZE LOAD" sign shall be displayed on the escort vehicles and shall be visible from the front on the lead escort and from the rear on the trailing escort.

(7) When traveling within the corporate limits of a municipality, the escort vehicle shall maintain a reasonable and proper distance from the oversize load, consistent with existing traffic conditions.

(8) A separate escort shall be provided for each load hauled.

(9) The driver of an escort vehicle shall obey all traffic laws.

(10) The escort vehicle must be in safe operational condition.

(11) The driver of the escort vehicle must be in radio contact with the driver of the vehicle carrying the oversize load.

(F) A transport vehicle while under load of more than 8 feet 6 inches in width must be equipped with an illuminated rotating, oscillating, or flashing amber light or lights or a flashing amber strobe light or lights mounted on the top of the cab that are of sufficient intensity to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight. If the load on the transport vehicle blocks the visibility of the amber lighting from the rear of the vehicle, the vehicle must also be equipped with an illuminated rotating, oscillating, or flashing amber light or lights or a flashing amber strobe light or lights mounted on the rear of the load that are of sufficient intensity to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

(G) When a flashing amber light is required on the transport vehicle under load and it is operating on a two-lane highway, the transport vehicle shall display to the rear at least one rotating, oscillating, or flashing light or a flashing amber strobe light and an "OVERSIZE LOAD" sign. When a flashing amber light is required on the transport vehicle under load and it is operating on a multilane divided highway, the sign and light shall be visible from the rear.

(H) Maximum speed shall be 45 miles per hour on all such moves or 5 miles per hour above the posted minimum speed limit, whichever is greater, but the vehicle shall not at any time exceed the posted maximum speed limit.

(3) Portable buildings designed and used for agricultural and livestock raising operations that are not more than 14 feet wide and with not more than a one-foot 1 foot overhang along the left side of the hauling vehicle. However, the buildings shall not be transported more than 10 miles and not on any route that is part of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways.

All buildings when being transported shall display at least 2 red cloth flags, not less than 12 inches square, mounted as high as practicable on the left and right side of the building.

An Illinois State Police escort shall be required if it is necessary for this load to use part of the left lane when crossing any 2-laned 2 laned State highway bridge.

(c) Vehicles propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires operated wholly within the corporate limits of a municipality are also exempt from the width limitation.

(d) (Blank).

(d-1) A recreational vehicle, as defined in Section 1-169, may exceed 8 feet 6 inches in width if:

(1) the excess width is attributable to appurtenances that extend 6 inches or less beyond either side of the body of the vehicle; and

(2) the roadway on which the vehicle is traveling has marked lanes for vehicular traffic that are at least 11 feet in width.

As used in this subsection (d-1) and in subsection (d-2), the term appurtenance includes (i) a retracted awning and its support hardware and (ii) any appendage that is intended to be an integral part of a recreational vehicle.

(d-2) A recreational vehicle that exceeds 8 feet 6 inches in width as provided in subsection (d-1) may travel any roadway of the State if the vehicle is being operated between a roadway permitted under subsection (d-1) and:

(1) the location where the recreational vehicle is garaged;

(2) the destination of the recreational vehicle; or

(3) a facility for food, fuel, repair, services, or rest.

(e) A vehicle and load traveling upon the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or any other highway in the system of State highways that has been designated as a Class I or Class II highway by the Department, or any street or highway designated by local authorities, may have a total outside width of 8 feet 6 inches, provided that certain safety devices that the Department determines as necessary for the safe and efficient operation of motor vehicles shall not be included in the calculation of width.

Section 5-35 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act relating to procedures for rulemaking shall not apply to the designation of highways under this paragraph (e).

(f) Mirrors required by Section 12-502 of this Code may project up to 14 inches beyond each side of a bus and up to 6 inches beyond each side of any other vehicle, and that projection shall not be deemed a violation of the width restrictions of this Section.

(g) Any person who is convicted of violating this Section is subject to the penalty as provided in paragraph (b) of Section 15-113.

(h) Safety devices identified by the Department in accordance with Section 12-812 shall not be deemed a violation of the width restrictions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-441, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-22-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-305) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-305)

Sec. 15-305. Fees for legal weight but overdimension vehicles, combinations, and loads ;oads, other than house trailer combinations. Fees for special permits to move overdimension vehicles, combinations, and loads, other than house trailer combinations, shall be paid by the applicant to the Department at the following rates:

Permits issued under this Section shall be for a vehicle, or vehicle combination and load not exceeding legal weights, ; and, in the case of the limited continuous operation, shall be for the same vehicle, vehicle combination, or like load.

Escort requirements shall be as prescribed in the Department's rules and regulations. Fees for the Illinois State Police vehicle escort, when required, shall be in addition to the permit fees.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-24-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/16-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 16-103)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 16-103. Arrest outside county where violation committed.

Whenever a defendant is arrested upon a warrant charging a violation of this Act in a county other than that in which such warrant was issued, the arresting officer, immediately upon the request of the defendant, shall take such defendant before a circuit judge or associate circuit judge in the county in which the arrest was made who shall admit the defendant to bail for his appearance before the court named in the warrant. On taking such bail, the circuit judge or associate circuit judge shall certify such fact on the warrant and deliver the warrant and undertaking of bail or other security, or the drivers license of such defendant if deposited, under the law relating to such licenses, in lieu of such security, to the officer having charge of the defendant. Such officer shall then immediately discharge the defendant from arrest and without delay deliver such warrant and such undertaking of bail, or other security or drivers license to the court before which the defendant is required to appear.

(Source: P.A. 77-1280.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 16-103. Arrest outside county where violation committed.

Whenever a defendant is arrested upon a warrant charging a violation of this Act in a county other than that in which such warrant was issued, the arresting officer, immediately upon the request of the defendant, shall take such defendant before a circuit judge or associate circuit judge in the county in which the arrest was made who shall admit the defendant to pretrial release for his appearance before the court named in the warrant. On setting the conditions of pretrial release, the circuit judge or associate circuit judge shall certify such fact on the warrant and deliver the warrant and conditions of pretrial release, or the drivers license of such defendant if deposited, under the law relating to such licenses, in lieu of such security, to the officer having charge of the defendant. Such officer shall then immediately discharge the defendant from arrest and without delay deliver such warrant and such acknowledgment by the defendant of his or her receiving the conditions of pretrial release or drivers license to the court before which the defendant is required to appear.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; revised 11-24-21.)

(625 ILCS 5/16-105) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 16-105)

Sec. 16-105. Disposition of fines and forfeitures.

(a) Except as provided in Section 15-113 of this Act and except those amounts subject to disbursement by the circuit clerk under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act, fines and penalties recovered under the provisions of Chapters 3 through 17 and 18b inclusive of this Code shall be paid and used as follows:

1. For offenses committed upon a highway within the limits of a city, village, or incorporated town or under the jurisdiction of any park district, to the treasurer of the particular city, village, incorporated town, or park district, if the violator was arrested by the authorities of the city, village, incorporated town, or park district, provided the police officers and officials of cities, villages, incorporated towns, and park districts shall seasonably prosecute for all fines and penalties under this Code. If the violation is prosecuted by the authorities of the county, any fines or penalties recovered shall be paid to the county treasurer, except that fines and penalties recovered from violations arrested by the Illinois State Police shall be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Police Law Enforcement Administration Fund. Provided further that if the violator was arrested by the Illinois State Police, fines and penalties recovered under the provisions of paragraph (a) of Section 15-113 of this Code or paragraph (e) of Section 15-316 of this Code shall be remitted Illinois to the State Treasurer who shall deposit the amount so remitted in the special fund in the State treasury known as the Road Fund except that if the violation is prosecuted by the State's Attorney, 10% of the fine or penalty recovered shall be paid to the State's Attorney as a fee of his office and the balance shall be remitted to the State Treasurer Illinois for remittance to and deposit by the State Treasurer as hereinabove provided.

2. Except as provided in paragraph 4, for offenses committed upon any highway outside the limits of a city, village, incorporated town, or park district, to the county treasurer of the county where the offense was committed except if such offense was committed on a highway maintained by or under the supervision of a township, township district, or a road district to the Treasurer thereof for deposit in the road and bridge fund of such township or other district, except that fines and penalties recovered from violations arrested by the Illinois State Police shall be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Police Law Enforcement Administration Fund; provided, that fines and penalties recovered under the provisions of paragraph (a) of Section 15-113, paragraph (d) of Section 3-401, or paragraph (e) of Section 15-316 of this Code shall be remitted Illinois to the State Treasurer who shall deposit the amount so remitted in the special fund in the State treasury known as the Road Fund except that if the violation is prosecuted by the State's Attorney, 10% of the fine or penalty recovered shall be paid to the State's Attorney as a fee of his office and the balance shall be remitted to the State Treasurer Illinois for remittance to and deposit by the State Treasurer as hereinabove provided.

3. Notwithstanding subsections 1 and 2 of this paragraph, for violations of overweight and overload limits found in Sections 15-101 through 15-203 of this Code, which are committed upon the highways belonging to the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, fines and penalties shall be remitted to the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority for deposit with the State Treasurer into that special fund known as the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority Fund, except that if the violation is prosecuted by the State's Attorney, 10% of the fine or penalty recovered shall be paid to the State's Attorney as a fee of his office and the balance shall be remitted to the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority for remittance to and deposit by the State Treasurer as hereinabove provided.

4. With regard to violations of overweight and overload limits found in Sections 15-101 through 15-203 of this Code committed by operators of vehicles registered as Special Hauling Vehicles, for offenses committed upon a highway within the limits of a city, village, or incorporated town or under the jurisdiction of any park district, all fines and penalties shall be paid over or retained as required in paragraph 1. However, with regard to the above offenses committed by operators of vehicles registered as Special Hauling Vehicles upon any highway outside the limits of a city, village, incorporated town, or park district, fines and penalties shall be paid over or retained by the entity having jurisdiction over the road or highway upon which the offense occurred, except that if the violation is prosecuted by the State's Attorney, 10% of the fine or penalty recovered shall be paid to the State's Attorney as a fee of his office.

(b) Failure, refusal, or neglect on the part of any judicial or other officer or employee receiving or having custody of any such fine or forfeiture either before or after a deposit with the proper official as defined in paragraph (a) of this Section, shall constitute misconduct in office and shall be grounds for removal therefrom.

(Source: P.A. 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

Section 580. The Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 5-7 as follows:

(625 ILCS 40/5-7)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 5-7. Operating a snowmobile while under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or a combination of them; criminal penalties; suspension of operating privileges.

(a) A person may not operate or be in actual physical control of a snowmobile within this State while:

1. The alcohol concentration in that person's blood, other bodily substance, or breath is a concentration at which driving a motor vehicle is prohibited under subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

2. The person is under the influence of alcohol;

3. The person is under the influence of any other drug or combination of drugs to a degree that renders that person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

3.1. The person is under the influence of any intoxicating compound or combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

4. The person is under the combined influence of alcohol and any other drug or drugs or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree that renders that person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

4.3. The person who is not a CDL holder has a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily substance at which driving a motor vehicle is prohibited under subdivision (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

4.5. The person who is a CDL holder has any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's breath, blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act; or

5. There is any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in that person's breath, blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or intoxicating compound listed in the use of Intoxicating Compounds Act.

(b) The fact that a person charged with violating this Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol, other drug or drugs, any intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination of them does not constitute a defense against a charge of violating this Section.

(c) Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(c-1) As used in this Section, "first time offender" means any person who has not had a previous conviction or been assigned supervision for violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or any person who has not had a suspension imposed under subsection (e) of Section 5-7.1.

(c-2) For purposes of this Section, the following are equivalent to a conviction:

(1) a forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure a defendant's appearance in court when forfeiture has not been vacated; or

(2) the failure of a defendant to appear for trial.

(d) Every person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony if:

1. The person has a previous conviction under this Section;

2. The offense results in personal injury where a person other than the operator suffers great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, when the violation was a proximate cause of the injuries. A person guilty of a Class 4 felony under this paragraph 2, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than one year nor more than 12 years; or

3. The offense occurred during a period in which the person's privileges to operate a snowmobile are revoked or suspended, and the revocation or suspension was for a violation of this Section or was imposed under Section 5-7.1.

(e) Every person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony if the offense results in the death of a person. A person guilty of a Class 2 felony under this subsection (e), if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(e-1) Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance who had a child under the age of 16 on board the snowmobile at the time of offense shall be subject to a mandatory minimum fine of $500 and shall be subject to a mandatory minimum of 5 days of community service in a program benefiting children. The assignment under this subsection shall not be subject to suspension nor shall the person be eligible for probation in order to reduce the assignment.

(e-2) Every person found guilty of violating this Section, whose operation of a snowmobile while in violation of this Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense of an emergency response as provided in subsection (i) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(e-3) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a person who is found guilty of violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision, shall be fined $100, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest or as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5 of the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act if the arresting agency is a State agency, unless more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under this subsection (e-3) shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment or to provide law enforcement training that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State. Law enforcement equipment shall include, but is not limited to, in-car video cameras, radar and laser speed detection devices, and alcohol breath testers.

(f) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed, the Department of Natural Resources shall suspend the snowmobile operation privileges of a person convicted or found guilty of a misdemeanor under this Section for a period of one year, except that first-time offenders are exempt from this mandatory one-year one year suspension.

(g) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed, the Department of Natural Resources shall suspend for a period of 5 years the snowmobile operation privileges of any person convicted or found guilty of a felony under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; revised 8-5-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 5-7. Operating a snowmobile while under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or a combination of them; criminal penalties; suspension of operating privileges.

(a) A person may not operate or be in actual physical control of a snowmobile within this State while:

1. The alcohol concentration in that person's blood, other bodily substance, or breath is a concentration at which driving a motor vehicle is prohibited under subdivision (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

2. The person is under the influence of alcohol;

3. The person is under the influence of any other drug or combination of drugs to a degree that renders that person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

3.1. The person is under the influence of any intoxicating compound or combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

4. The person is under the combined influence of alcohol and any other drug or drugs or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree that renders that person incapable of safely operating a snowmobile;

4.3. The person who is not a CDL holder has a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily substance at which driving a motor vehicle is prohibited under subdivision (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

4.5. The person who is a CDL holder has any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in the person's breath, blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act; or

5. There is any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in that person's breath, blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or intoxicating compound listed in the use of Intoxicating Compounds Act.

(b) The fact that a person charged with violating this Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol, other drug or drugs, any intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination of them does not constitute a defense against a charge of violating this Section.

(c) Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(c-1) As used in this Section, "first time offender" means any person who has not had a previous conviction or been assigned supervision for violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or any person who has not had a suspension imposed under subsection (e) of Section 5-7.1.

(c-2) For purposes of this Section, the following are equivalent to a conviction:

(1) a violation of the terms of pretrial release when the court has not relieved the defendant of complying with the terms of pretrial release; or

(2) the failure of a defendant to appear for trial.

(d) Every person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony if:

1. The person has a previous conviction under this Section;

2. The offense results in personal injury where a person other than the operator suffers great bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement, when the violation was a proximate cause of the injuries. A person guilty of a Class 4 felony under this paragraph 2, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than one year nor more than 12 years; or

3. The offense occurred during a period in which the person's privileges to operate a snowmobile are revoked or suspended, and the revocation or suspension was for a violation of this Section or was imposed under Section 5-7.1.

(e) Every person convicted of violating this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony if the offense results in the death of a person. A person guilty of a Class 2 felony under this subsection (e), if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to a term of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years.

(e-1) Every person convicted of violating this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance who had a child under the age of 16 on board the snowmobile at the time of offense shall be subject to a mandatory minimum fine of $500 and shall be subject to a mandatory minimum of 5 days of community service in a program benefiting children. The assignment under this subsection shall not be subject to suspension nor shall the person be eligible for probation in order to reduce the assignment.

(e-2) Every person found guilty of violating this Section, whose operation of a snowmobile while in violation of this Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense of an emergency response as provided in subsection (i) of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(e-3) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a person who is found guilty of violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision, shall be fined $100, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest or as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5 of the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act if the arresting agency is a State agency, unless more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under this subsection (e-3) shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment or to provide law enforcement training that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State. Law enforcement equipment shall include, but is not limited to, in-car video cameras, radar and laser speed detection devices, and alcohol breath testers.

(f) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed, the Department of Natural Resources shall suspend the snowmobile operation privileges of a person convicted or found guilty of a misdemeanor under this Section for a period of one year, except that first-time offenders are exempt from this mandatory one-year one year suspension.

(g) In addition to any criminal penalties imposed, the Department of Natural Resources shall suspend for a period of 5 years the snowmobile operation privileges of any person convicted or found guilty of a felony under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; revised 8-5-21.)

Section 585. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Section 27.1b as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.1b)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 27.1b. Circuit court clerk fees. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all fees charged by the clerks of the circuit court for the services described in this Section shall be established, collected, and disbursed in accordance with this Section. Except as otherwise specified in this Section, all fees under this Section shall be paid in advance and disbursed by each clerk on a monthly basis. In a county with a population of over 3,000,000, units of local government and school districts shall not be required to pay fees under this Section in advance and the clerk shall instead send an itemized bill to the unit of local government or school district, within 30 days of the fee being incurred, and the unit of local government or school district shall be allowed at least 30 days from the date of the itemized bill to pay; these payments shall be disbursed by each clerk on a monthly basis. Unless otherwise specified in this Section, the amount of a fee shall be determined by ordinance or resolution of the county board and remitted to the county treasurer to be used for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county. In a county with a population of over 3,000,000, any amount retained by the clerk of the circuit court or remitted to the county treasurer shall be subject to appropriation by the county board.

(a) Civil cases. The fee for filing a complaint, petition, or other pleading initiating a civil action shall be as set forth in the applicable schedule under this subsection in accordance with case categories established by the Supreme Court in schedules.

(1) SCHEDULE 1: not to exceed a total of $366 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $316 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $190 through December 31, 2021 and $184 on and after January 1, 2022. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $55 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $45 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit up to $21 to the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer shall deposit the appropriate amounts, in accordance with the clerk's instructions, as follows:

(i) up to $10, as specified by the Supreme Court in accordance with Part 10A of Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure, into the Mandatory Arbitration Fund;

(ii) $2 into the Access to Justice Fund; and

(iii) $9 into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $290 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $250 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(2) SCHEDULE 2: not to exceed a total of $357 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $266 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $190 through December 31, 2021 and $184 on and after January 1, 2022. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $55 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $45 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit up to $21 to the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer shall deposit the appropriate amounts, in accordance with the clerk's instructions, as follows:

(i) up to $10, as specified by the Supreme Court in accordance with Part 10A of Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure, into the Mandatory Arbitration Fund;

(ii) $2 into the Access to Justice Fund: and

(iii) $9 into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $281 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $200 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(3) SCHEDULE 3: not to exceed a total of $265 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $89 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $190 through December 31, 2021 and $184 on and after January 1, 2022. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $55 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $22 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit $11 to the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer shall deposit the appropriate amounts in accordance with the clerk's instructions, as follows:

(i) $2 into the Access to Justice Fund; and

(ii) $9 into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $199 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $56 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(4) SCHEDULE 4: $0.

(b) Appearance. The fee for filing an appearance in a civil action, including a cannabis civil law action under the Cannabis Control Act, shall be as set forth in the applicable schedule under this subsection in accordance with case categories established by the Supreme Court in schedules.

(1) SCHEDULE 1: not to exceed a total of $230 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $191 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $75. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $50 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $45 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit up to $21 to the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer shall deposit the appropriate amounts, in accordance with the clerk's instructions, as follows:

(i) up to $10, as specified by the Supreme Court in accordance with Part 10A of Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure, into the Mandatory Arbitration Fund;

(ii) $2 into the Access to Justice Fund; and

(iii) $9 into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $159 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $125 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(2) SCHEDULE 2: not to exceed a total of $130 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $109 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $75. The fees collected under this schedule shall be disbursed as follows:

(A) The clerk shall retain a sum, in an amount not to exceed $50 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $10 in any other county determined by the clerk with the approval of the Supreme Court, to be used for court automation, court document storage, and administrative purposes.

(B) The clerk shall remit $9 to the State Treasurer, which the State Treasurer shall deposit into the Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.

(C) The clerk shall remit a sum to the County Treasurer, in an amount not to exceed $71 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and in an amount not to exceed $90 in any other county, as specified by ordinance or resolution passed by the county board, for purposes related to the operation of the court system in the county.

(3) SCHEDULE 3: $0.

(b-5) Kane County and Will County. In Kane County and Will County civil cases, there is an additional fee of up to $30 as set by the county board under Section 5-1101.3 of the Counties Code to be paid by each party at the time of filing the first pleading, paper, or other appearance; provided that no additional fee shall be required if more than one party is represented in a single pleading, paper, or other appearance. Distribution of fees collected under this subsection (b-5) shall be as provided in Section 5-1101.3 of the Counties Code.

(c) Counterclaim or third party complaint. When any defendant files a counterclaim or third party complaint, as part of the defendant's answer or otherwise, the defendant shall pay a filing fee for each counterclaim or third party complaint in an amount equal to the filing fee the defendant would have had to pay had the defendant brought a separate action for the relief sought in the counterclaim or third party complaint, less the amount of the appearance fee, if any, that the defendant has already paid in the action in which the counterclaim or third party complaint is filed.

(d) Alias summons. The clerk shall collect a fee not to exceed $6 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $5 in any other county for each alias summons or citation issued by the clerk, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $5 for each alias summons or citation issued by the clerk.

(e) Jury services. The clerk shall collect, in addition to other fees allowed by law, a sum not to exceed $212.50, as a fee for the services of a jury in every civil action not quasi-criminal in its nature and not a proceeding for the exercise of the right of eminent domain and in every other action wherein the right of trial by jury is or may be given by law. The jury fee shall be paid by the party demanding a jury at the time of filing the jury demand. If the fee is not paid by either party, no jury shall be called in the action or proceeding, and the action or proceeding shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(f) Change of venue. In connection with a change of venue:

(1) The clerk of the jurisdiction from which the case is transferred may charge a fee, not to exceed $40, for the preparation and certification of the record; and

(2) The clerk of the jurisdiction to which the case is transferred may charge the same filing fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(g) Petition to vacate or modify.

(1) In a proceeding involving a petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order filed within 30 days after the judgment or order was entered, except for an eviction case, small claims case, petition to reopen an estate, petition to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support, or petition to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, the fee shall not exceed $60 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $50 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $50.

(2) In a proceeding involving a petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order filed more than 30 days after the judgment or order was entered, except for a petition to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support, or petition to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, the fee shall not exceed $75.

(3) In a proceeding involving a motion to vacate or amend a final order, motion to vacate an ex parte judgment, judgment of forfeiture, or "failure to appear" or "failure to comply" notices sent to the Secretary of State, the fee shall equal $40.

(h) Appeals preparation. The fee for preparation of a record on appeal shall be based on the number of pages, as follows:

(1) if the record contains no more than 100 pages, the fee shall not exceed $70 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $50 in any other county;

(2) if the record contains between 100 and 200 pages, the fee shall not exceed $100; and

(3) if the record contains 200 or more pages, the clerk may collect an additional fee not to exceed 25 cents per page.

(i) Remands. In any cases remanded to the circuit court from the Supreme Court or the appellate court for a new trial, the clerk shall reinstate the case with either its original number or a new number. The clerk shall not charge any new or additional fee for the reinstatement. Upon reinstatement, the clerk shall advise the parties of the reinstatement. Parties shall have the same right to a jury trial on remand and reinstatement that they had before the appeal, and no additional or new fee or charge shall be made for a jury trial after remand.

(j) Garnishment, wage deduction, and citation. In garnishment affidavit, wage deduction affidavit, and citation petition proceedings:

(1) if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is not more than $1,000, the fee may not exceed $35 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and may not exceed $15 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $15;

(2) if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is greater than $1,000 and not more than $5,000, the fee may not exceed $45 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and may not exceed $30 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $30; and

(3) if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is greater than $5,000, the fee may not exceed $65 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and may not exceed $50 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $50.

(j-5) Debt collection. In any proceeding to collect a debt subject to the exception in item (ii) of subparagraph (A-5) of paragraph (1) of subsection (z) of this Section, the circuit court shall order and the clerk shall collect from each judgment debtor a fee of:

(1) $35 if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is not more than $1,000;

(2) $45 if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is greater than $1,000 and not more than $5,000; and

(3) $65 if the amount in controversy in the proceeding is greater than $5,000.

(k) Collections.

(1) For all collections made of others, except the State and county and except in maintenance or child support cases, the clerk may collect a fee of up to 2.5% of the amount collected and turned over.

(2) In child support and maintenance cases, the clerk may collect an annual fee of up to $36 from the person making payment for maintaining child support records and the processing of support orders to the State of Illinois KIDS system and the recording of payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. This fee is in addition to and separate from amounts ordered to be paid as maintenance or child support and shall be deposited into a Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund, of which the clerk shall be the custodian, ex officio, to be used by the clerk to maintain child support orders and record all payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. The clerk may recover from the person making the maintenance or child support payment any additional cost incurred in the collection of this annual fee.

(3) The clerk may collect a fee of $5 for certifications made to the Secretary of State as provided in Section 7-703 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and this fee shall be deposited into the Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund.

(4) In proceedings to foreclose the lien of delinquent real estate taxes, State's Attorneys shall receive a fee of 10% of the total amount realized from the sale of real estate sold in the proceedings. The clerk shall collect the fee from the total amount realized from the sale of the real estate sold in the proceedings and remit to the County Treasurer to be credited to the earnings of the Office of the State's Attorney.

(l) Mailing. The fee for the clerk mailing documents shall not exceed $10 plus the cost of postage.

(m) Certified copies. The fee for each certified copy of a judgment, after the first copy, shall not exceed $10.

(n) Certification, authentication, and reproduction.

(1) The fee for each certification or authentication for taking the acknowledgment of a deed or other instrument in writing with the seal of office shall not exceed $6.

(2) The fee for reproduction of any document contained in the clerk's files shall not exceed:

(A) $2 for the first page;

(B) 50 cents per page for the next 19 pages; and

(C) 25 cents per page for all additional pages.

(o) Record search. For each record search, within a division or municipal district, the clerk may collect a search fee not to exceed $6 for each year searched.

(p) Hard copy. For each page of hard copy print output, when case records are maintained on an automated medium, the clerk may collect a fee not to exceed $10 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and not to exceed $6 in any other county, except as applied to units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants an amount not to exceed $6.

(q) Index inquiry and other records. No fee shall be charged for a single plaintiff and defendant index inquiry or single case record inquiry when this request is made in person and the records are maintained in a current automated medium, and when no hard copy print output is requested. The fees to be charged for management records, multiple case records, and multiple journal records may be specified by the Chief Judge pursuant to the guidelines for access and dissemination of information approved by the Supreme Court.

(r) Performing a marriage. There shall be a $10 fee for performing a marriage in court.

(s) Voluntary assignment. For filing each deed of voluntary assignment, the clerk shall collect a fee not to exceed $20. For recording a deed of voluntary assignment, the clerk shall collect a fee not to exceed 50 cents for each 100 words. Exceptions filed to claims presented to an assignee of a debtor who has made a voluntary assignment for the benefit of creditors shall be considered and treated, for the purpose of taxing costs therein, as actions in which the party or parties filing the exceptions shall be considered as party or parties plaintiff, and the claimant or claimants as party or parties defendant, and those parties respectively shall pay to the clerk the same fees as provided by this Section to be paid in other actions.

(t) Expungement petition. The clerk may collect a fee not to exceed $60 for each expungement petition filed and an additional fee not to exceed $4 for each certified copy of an order to expunge arrest records.

(u) Transcripts of judgment. For the filing of a transcript of judgment, the clerk may collect the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(v) Probate filings.

(1) For each account (other than one final account) filed in the estate of a decedent, or ward, the fee shall not exceed $25.

(2) For filing a claim in an estate when the amount claimed is greater than $150 and not more than $500, the fee shall not exceed $40 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $25 in any other county; when the amount claimed is greater than $500 and not more than $10,000, the fee shall not exceed $55 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $40 in any other county; and when the amount claimed is more than $10,000, the fee shall not exceed $75 in a county with a population of 3,000,000 or more and shall not exceed $60 in any other county; except the court in allowing a claim may add to the amount allowed the filing fee paid by the claimant.

(3) For filing in an estate a claim, petition, or supplemental proceeding based upon an action seeking equitable relief including the construction or contest of a will, enforcement of a contract to make a will, and proceedings involving testamentary trusts or the appointment of testamentary trustees, the fee shall not exceed $60.

(4) There shall be no fee for filing in an estate: (i) the appearance of any person for the purpose of consent; or (ii) the appearance of an executor, administrator, administrator to collect, guardian, guardian ad litem, or special administrator.

(5) For each jury demand, the fee shall not exceed $137.50.

(6) For each certified copy of letters of office, of court order, or other certification, the fee shall not exceed $2 per page.

(7) For each exemplification, the fee shall not exceed $2, plus the fee for certification.

(8) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay the cost of publication by the clerk directly to the newspaper.

(9) The person on whose behalf a charge is incurred for witness, court reporter, appraiser, or other miscellaneous fees shall pay the same directly to the person entitled thereto.

(10) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay to the clerk all postage charges incurred by the clerk in mailing petitions, orders, notices, or other documents pursuant to the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975.

(w) Corrections of numbers. For correction of the case number, case title, or attorney computer identification number, if required by rule of court, on any document filed in the clerk's office, to be charged against the party that filed the document, the fee shall not exceed $25.

(x) Miscellaneous.

(1) Interest earned on any fees collected by the clerk shall be turned over to the county general fund as an earning of the office.

(2) For any check, draft, or other bank instrument returned to the clerk for non-sufficient funds, account closed, or payment stopped, the clerk shall collect a fee of $25.

(y) Other fees. Any fees not covered in this Section shall be set by rule or administrative order of the circuit court with the approval of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts. The clerk of the circuit court may provide services in connection with the operation of the clerk's office, other than those services mentioned in this Section, as may be requested by the public and agreed to by the clerk and approved by the Chief Judge. Any charges for additional services shall be as agreed to between the clerk and the party making the request and approved by the Chief Judge. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require any clerk to provide any service not otherwise required by law.

(y-5) Unpaid fees. Unless a court ordered payment schedule is implemented or the fee requirements of this Section are waived under a court order, the clerk of the circuit court may add to any unpaid fees and costs under this Section a delinquency amount equal to 5% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 30 days, 10% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 60 days, and 15% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 90 days. Notice to those parties may be made by signage posting or publication. The additional delinquency amounts collected under this Section shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operations and Administration Fund and used to defray additional administrative costs incurred by the clerk of the circuit court in collecting unpaid fees and costs.

(z) Exceptions.

(1) No fee authorized by this Section shall apply to:

(A) police departments or other law enforcement agencies. In this Section, "law enforcement agency" means: an agency of the State or agency of a unit of local government which is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws or ordinances; the Attorney General; or any State's Attorney;

(A-5) any unit of local government or school district, except in counties having a population of 500,000 or more the county board may by resolution set fees for units of local government or school districts no greater than the minimum fees applicable in counties with a population less than 3,000,000; provided however, no fee may be charged to any unit of local government or school district in connection with any action which, in whole or in part, is: (i) to enforce an ordinance; (ii) to collect a debt; or (iii) under the Administrative Review Law;

(B) any action instituted by the corporate authority of a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants under Section 11-31-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code and any action instituted under subsection (b) of Section 11-31-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code by a private owner or tenant of real property within 1,200 feet of a dangerous or unsafe building seeking an order compelling the owner or owners of the building to take any of the actions authorized under that subsection;

(C) any commitment petition or petition for an order authorizing the administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(D) a petitioner in any order of protection proceeding, including, but not limited to, fees for filing, modifying, withdrawing, certifying, or photocopying petitions for orders of protection, issuing alias summons, any related filing service, or certifying, modifying, vacating, or photocopying any orders of protection; or

(E) proceedings for the appointment of a confidential intermediary under the Adoption Act.

(2) No fee other than the filing fee contained in the applicable schedule in subsection (a) shall be charged to any person in connection with an adoption proceeding.

(3) Upon good cause shown, the court may waive any fees associated with a special needs adoption. The term "special needs adoption" has the meaning provided by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(aa) This Section is repealed on January 1, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 101-645, eff. 6-26-20; 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-278, eff. 8-6-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

Section 590. The Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act is amended by changing Section 15-70 as follows:

(705 ILCS 135/15-70)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 15-70. Conditional assessments. In addition to payments under one of the Schedule of Assessments 1 through 13 of this Act, the court shall also order payment of any of the following conditional assessment amounts for each sentenced violation in the case to which a conditional assessment is applicable, which shall be collected and remitted by the Clerk of the Circuit Court as provided in this Section:

(1) arson, residential arson, or aggravated arson, $500 per conviction to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Fire Prevention Fund;

(2) child pornography under Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $500 per conviction, unless more than one agency is responsible for the arrest in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally:

(A) if the arresting agency is an agency of a unit of local government, $500 to the treasurer of the unit of local government for deposit into the unit of local government's General Fund, except that if the Illinois State Police provides digital or electronic forensic examination assistance, or both, to the arresting agency then $100 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund; or

(B) if the arresting agency is the Illinois State Police, $500 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund;

(3) crime laboratory drug analysis for a drug-related offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or possession or delivery of a controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, $100 reimbursement for laboratory analysis, as set forth in subsection (f) of Section 5-9-1.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) DNA analysis, $250 on each conviction in which it was used to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund as set forth in Section 5-9-1.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(5) DUI analysis, $150 on each sentenced violation in which it was used as set forth in subsection (f) of Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(6) drug-related offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or possession or delivery of a controlled substance, other than methamphetamine, as defined in the Cannabis Control Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an amount not less than the full street value of the cannabis or controlled substance seized for each conviction to be disbursed as follows:

(A) 12.5% of the street value assessment shall be paid into the Youth Drug Abuse Prevention Fund, to be used by the Department of Human Services for the funding of programs and services for drug-abuse treatment, and prevention and education services;

(B) 37.5% to the county in which the charge was prosecuted, to be deposited into the county General Fund;

(C) 50% to the treasurer of the arresting law enforcement agency of the municipality or county, or to the State Treasurer if the arresting agency was a state agency, to be deposited as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5;

(D) if the arrest was made in combination with multiple law enforcement agencies, the clerk shall equitably allocate the portion in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (6) among the law enforcement agencies involved in the arrest;

(6.5) Kane County or Will County, in felony, misdemeanor, local or county ordinance, traffic, or conservation cases, up to $30 as set by the county board under Section 5-1101.3 of the Counties Code upon the entry of a judgment of conviction, an order of supervision, or a sentence of probation without entry of judgment under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act; except in local or county ordinance, traffic, and conservation cases, if fines are paid in full without a court appearance, then the assessment shall not be imposed or collected. Distribution of assessments collected under this paragraph (6.5) shall be as provided in Section 5-1101.3 of the Counties Code;

(7) methamphetamine-related offense involving possession or delivery of methamphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine or possession of a methamphetamine manufacturing material as set forth in Section 10 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the intent to manufacture a substance containing methamphetamine or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine, an amount not less than the full street value of the methamphetamine or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine or methamphetamine manufacturing materials seized for each conviction to be disbursed as follows:

(A) 12.5% of the street value assessment shall be paid into the Youth Drug Abuse Prevention Fund, to be used by the Department of Human Services for the funding of programs and services for drug-abuse treatment, and prevention and education services;

(B) 37.5% to the county in which the charge was prosecuted, to be deposited into the county General Fund;

(C) 50% to the treasurer of the arresting law enforcement agency of the municipality or county, or to the State Treasurer if the arresting agency was a state agency, to be deposited as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5;

(D) if the arrest was made in combination with multiple law enforcement agencies, the clerk shall equitably allocate the portion in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (6) among the law enforcement agencies involved in the arrest;

(8) order of protection violation under Section 12-3.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, $200 for each conviction to the county treasurer for deposit into the Probation and Court Services Fund for implementation of a domestic violence surveillance program and any other assessments or fees imposed under Section 5-9-1.16 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(9) order of protection violation, $25 for each violation to the State Treasurer, for deposit into the Domestic Violence Abuser Services Fund;

(10) prosecution by the State's Attorney of a:

(A) petty or business offense, $4 to the county treasurer of which $2 deposited into the State's Attorney Records Automation Fund and $2 into the Public Defender Records Automation Fund;

(B) conservation or traffic offense, $2 to the county treasurer for deposit into the State's Attorney Records Automation Fund;

(11) speeding in a construction zone violation, $250 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund, unless (i) the violation occurred on a highway other than an interstate highway and (ii) a county police officer wrote the ticket for the violation, in which case to the county treasurer for deposit into that county's Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund;

(12) supervision disposition on an offense under the Illinois Vehicle Code or similar provision of a local ordinance, 50 cents, unless waived by the court, into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund;

(13) victim and offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 and offender pleads guilty or no contest to or is convicted of murder, voluntary manslaughter, involuntary manslaughter, burglary, residential burglary, criminal trespass to residence, criminal trespass to vehicle, criminal trespass to land, criminal damage to property, telephone harassment, kidnapping, aggravated kidnaping, unlawful restraint, forcible detention, child abduction, indecent solicitation of a child, sexual relations between siblings, exploitation of a child, child pornography, assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, heinous battery, aggravated battery of a child, domestic battery, reckless conduct, intimidation, criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, violation of an order of protection, disorderly conduct, endangering the life or health of a child, child abandonment, contributing to dependency or neglect of child, or cruelty to children and others, $200 for each sentenced violation to the State Treasurer for deposit as follows: (i) for sexual assault, as defined in Section 5-9-1.7 of the Unified Code of Corrections, when the offender and victim are family members, one-half to the Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Fund, and one-half to the Sexual Assault Services Fund; (ii) for the remaining offenses to the Domestic Violence Shelter and Service Fund;

(14) violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision, whose operation of a motor vehicle, snowmobile, or watercraft while in violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision proximately caused an incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, $1,000 maximum to the public agency that provided an emergency response related to the person's violation, or as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5 if the arresting agency was a State agency, unless more than one agency was responsible for the arrest, in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally;

(15) violation of Section 401, 407, or 407.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act that proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate drug-related emergency response, $1,000 as reimbursement for the emergency response to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest, or as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5 if the arresting agency was a State agency, unless more than one agency was responsible for the arrest, in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally;

(16) violation of reckless driving, aggravated reckless driving, or driving 26 miles per hour or more in excess of the speed limit that triggered an emergency response, $1,000 maximum reimbursement for the emergency response to be distributed in its entirety to a public agency that provided an emergency response related to the person's violation, or as provided in subsection (c) of Section 10-5 if the arresting agency was a State agency, unless more than one agency was responsible for the arrest, in which case the amount shall be remitted to each unit of government equally;

(17) violation based upon each plea of guilty, stipulation of facts, or finding of guilt resulting in a judgment of conviction or order of supervision for an offense under Section 10-9, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, or 11-18 of the Criminal Code of 2012 that results in the imposition of a fine, to be distributed as follows:

(A) $50 to the county treasurer for deposit into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to cover the costs in administering this paragraph (17);

(B) $300 to the State Treasurer who shall deposit the portion as follows:

(i) if the arresting or investigating agency is the Illinois State Police, into the State Police Law Enforcement Administration Fund;

(ii) if the arresting or investigating agency is the Department of Natural Resources, into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund;

(iii) if the arresting or investigating agency is the Secretary of State, into the Secretary of State Police Services Fund;

(iv) if the arresting or investigating agency is the Illinois Commerce Commission, into the Transportation Regulatory Fund; or

(v) if more than one of the State agencies in this subparagraph (B) is the arresting or investigating agency, then equal shares with the shares deposited as provided in the applicable items (i) through (iv) of this subparagraph (B); and

(C) the remainder for deposit into the Specialized Services for Survivors of Human Trafficking Fund;

(18) weapons violation under Section 24-1.1, 24-1.2, or 24-1.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $100 for each conviction to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund; and

(19) violation of subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, $250 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the Scott's Law Fund, unless a county or municipal police officer wrote the ticket for the violation, in which case to the county treasurer for deposit into that county's or municipality's Transportation Safety Highway Hire-back Fund to be used as provided in subsection (j) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-173, eff. 1-1-20; 101-636, eff. 6-10-20; 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

Section 595. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 1-4.2 and by changing Sections 1-7, 1-8, 2-10, 2-28, 5-501, and 5-901 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-4.2)

Sec. 1-4.2. Trauma-sensitive transport.

(a) The Department of Children and Family Services shall ensure the provision of trauma-sensitive transport to minors placed in its care in accordance with this Act. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, no minor shall be subjected to restraints, as defined in Section 4e of the Children and Family Services Act, during the provision of any transportation services provided or arranged by the Department of Children and Family Services or its contractual assigns.

(b) The Department of Children and Family Services' application to the court for approval of an individualized trauma-sensitive transportation plan must include a copy of the plan developed in accordance with Section 4e of the Children and Family Services Act and the written approval of the Department as required by paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 4e of the Children and Family Services Act.

(c) When considering whether to approve the individualized trauma-sensitive transportation plan, the court shall consider the minor's best interest and the following additional factors: the reason for the transport, the type of placement the minor is being transported from and to, the anticipated length of travel, the clinical needs of the minor, including any medical or emotional needs, any available less restrictive alternatives, and any other factor the court deems relevant. The court may require amendments to the minor's trauma-sensitive individualized transportation plan based on written findings of fact that the plan, as written, is not in the minor's best interest.

(Source: P.A. 102-649, eff. 8-27-21.)

(705 ILCS 405/1-4.3)

Sec. 1-4.3 1-4.2. Special immigrant minor.

(a) The court hearing a case under this Act has jurisdiction to make the findings necessary to enable a minor who has been adjudicated a ward of the court to petition the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services for classification as a special immigrant juvenile under 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(27)(J). A minor for whom the court finds under subsection (b) shall remain under the jurisdiction of the court until his or her special immigrant juvenile petition is filed with the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services, or its successor agency.

(b) If a motion requests findings regarding Special Immigrant Juvenile Status under 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(27)(J) and the evidence, which may consist solely of, but is not limited to, a declaration of the minor, supports the findings, the court shall issue an order that includes the following findings:

(1) the minor is:

(i) declared a dependent of the court; or

(ii) legally committed to, or placed under the custody of, a State agency or department, or an individual or entity appointed by the court;

(2) that reunification of the minor with one or both of the minor's parents is not viable due to abuse, neglect, abandonment, or other similar basis; and

(3) that it is not in the best interest of the minor to be returned to the minor's or parent's previous country of nationality or last habitual residence.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

"Abandonment" means, but is not limited to, the failure of a parent or legal guardian to maintain a reasonable degree of interest, concern, or responsibility for the welfare of his or her minor child or ward. "Abandonment" includes the definition of "dependency" provided in Section 2-4.

"Abuse" has the meaning provided in Section 2-3.

"Neglect" has the meaning provided in Section 2-3.

(Source: P.A. 102-259, eff. 8-6-21; revised 11-18-21.)

(705 ILCS 405/1-7)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 1-7. Confidentiality of juvenile law enforcement and municipal ordinance violation records.

(A) All juvenile law enforcement records which have not been expunged are confidential and may never be disclosed to the general public or otherwise made widely available. Juvenile law enforcement records may be obtained only under this Section and Section 1-8 and Part 9 of Article V of this Act, when their use is needed for good cause and with an order from the juvenile court, as required by those not authorized to retain them. Inspection, copying, and disclosure of juvenile law enforcement records maintained by law enforcement agencies or records of municipal ordinance violations maintained by any State, local, or municipal agency that relate to a minor who has been investigated, arrested, or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday shall be restricted to the following:

(0.05) The minor who is the subject of the juvenile law enforcement record, his or her parents, guardian, and counsel.

(0.10) Judges of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge.

(0.15) An administrative adjudication hearing officer or members of the staff designated to assist in the administrative adjudication process.

(1) Any local, State, or federal law enforcement officers or designated law enforcement staff of any jurisdiction or agency when necessary for the discharge of their official duties during the investigation or prosecution of a crime or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang, or, when necessary for the discharge of its official duties in connection with a particular investigation of the conduct of a law enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers. For purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(2) Prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, social workers, or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors under the order of the juvenile court, when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(3) Federal, State, or local prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, and designated staff:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805;

(b) when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and the minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of bail;

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and the minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation, fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) in the course of prosecution or administrative adjudication of a violation of a traffic, boating, or fish and game law, or a county or municipal ordinance.

(4) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Board.

(5) Authorized military personnel.

(5.5) Employees of the federal government authorized by law.

(6) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the Presiding Judge and the chief executive of the respective law enforcement agency; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the minor's record.

(7) Department of Children and Family Services child protection investigators acting in their official capacity.

(8) The appropriate school official only if the agency or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of physical harm to students, school personnel, or others who are present in the school or on school grounds.

(A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to juvenile law enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by a local law enforcement agency under a reciprocal reporting system established and maintained between the school district and the local law enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school within the school district who has been arrested or taken into custody for any of the following offenses:

(i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;

(vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or

(viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The information derived from the juvenile law enforcement records shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of that child and shall not be a public record. The information shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the safety of students and employees in the school. If the designated law enforcement and school officials deem it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student may be referred to in-school or community-based social services if those services are available. "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility for special education, referrals to community-based agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed appropriate for the student.

(B) Any information provided to appropriate school officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by local law enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation that is directly related to school safety shall consist of oral information only, and not written juvenile law enforcement records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials to protect the safety of students and employees in the school and aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child. The information derived orally from the local law enforcement officials shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of the child and shall not be a public record. This limitation on the use of information about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation shall in no way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in pursuing criminal charges arising out of the information disclosed during a police investigation of the minor. For purposes of this paragraph, "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected criminal activity.

(9) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile law enforcement records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act who is the subject of the juvenile law enforcement records sought. Any juvenile law enforcement records and any information obtained from those juvenile law enforcement records under this paragraph (9) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(10) The president of a park district. Inspection and copying shall be limited to juvenile law enforcement records transmitted to the president of the park district by the Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c) of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c) of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.

(11) Persons managing and designated to participate in a court diversion program as designated in subsection (6) of Section 5-105.

(12) The Public Access Counselor of the Office of the Attorney General, when reviewing juvenile law enforcement records under its powers and duties under the Freedom of Information Act.

(13) Collection agencies, contracted or otherwise engaged by a governmental entity, to collect any debts due and owing to the governmental entity.

(B)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), no law enforcement officer or other person or agency may knowingly transmit to the Department of Corrections, the Illinois State Police, or the Federal Bureau of Investigation any fingerprint or photograph relating to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday, unless the court in proceedings under this Act authorizes the transmission or enters an order under Section 5-805 permitting or requiring the institution of criminal proceedings.

(2) Law enforcement officers or other persons or agencies shall transmit to the Illinois State Police copies of fingerprints and descriptions of all minors who have been arrested or taken into custody before their 18th birthday for the offense of unlawful use of weapons under Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a Class X or Class 1 felony, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Chapter 4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department pursuant to this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files pursuant to Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act. Nothing in this Act prohibits a law enforcement agency from fingerprinting a minor taken into custody or arrested before his or her 18th birthday for an offense other than those listed in this paragraph (2).

(C) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 18 years of age must be maintained separate from the records of arrests and may not be open to public inspection or their contents disclosed to the public. For purposes of obtaining documents under this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(1) In cases where the law enforcement, or independent agency, records concern a pending juvenile court case, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(3) In determining whether the records should be available for inspection, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the moving party's interest in obtaining the information. Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office or securing employment, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(D) Nothing contained in subsection (C) of this Section shall prohibit the inspection or disclosure to victims and witnesses of photographs contained in the records of law enforcement agencies when the inspection and disclosure is conducted in the presence of a law enforcement officer for the purpose of the identification or apprehension of any person subject to the provisions of this Act or for the investigation or prosecution of any crime.

(E) Law enforcement officers, and personnel of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of any minor in releasing information to the general public as to the arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving a minor.

(F) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law enforcement agencies from communicating with each other by letter, memorandum, teletype, or intelligence alert bulletin or other means the identity or other relevant information pertaining to a person under 18 years of age if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the person poses a real and present danger to the safety of the public or law enforcement officers. The information provided under this subsection (F) shall remain confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed, except as otherwise allowed by law.

(G) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any federal government, state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department from obtaining and examining the records of any law enforcement agency relating to any record of the applicant having been arrested or taken into custody before the applicant's 18th birthday.

(G-5) Information identifying victims and alleged victims of sex offenses shall not be disclosed or open to the public under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense from voluntarily disclosing his or her own identity.

(H) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(H-5) Nothing in this Section shall require any court or adjudicative proceeding for traffic, boating, fish and game law, or municipal and county ordinance violations to be closed to the public.

(I) Willful violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor and each violation is subject to a fine of $1,000. This subsection (I) shall not apply to the person who is the subject of the record.

(J) A person convicted of violating this Section is liable for damages in the amount of $1,000 or actual damages, whichever is greater.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 1-7. Confidentiality of juvenile law enforcement and municipal ordinance violation records.

(A) All juvenile law enforcement records which have not been expunged are confidential and may never be disclosed to the general public or otherwise made widely available. Juvenile law enforcement records may be obtained only under this Section and Section 1-8 and Part 9 of Article V of this Act, when their use is needed for good cause and with an order from the juvenile court, as required by those not authorized to retain them. Inspection, copying, and disclosure of juvenile law enforcement records maintained by law enforcement agencies or records of municipal ordinance violations maintained by any State, local, or municipal agency that relate to a minor who has been investigated, arrested, or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday shall be restricted to the following:

(0.05) The minor who is the subject of the juvenile law enforcement record, his or her parents, guardian, and counsel.

(0.10) Judges of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge.

(0.15) An administrative adjudication hearing officer or members of the staff designated to assist in the administrative adjudication process.

(1) Any local, State, or federal law enforcement officers or designated law enforcement staff of any jurisdiction or agency when necessary for the discharge of their official duties during the investigation or prosecution of a crime or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang, or, when necessary for the discharge of its official duties in connection with a particular investigation of the conduct of a law enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers. For purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(2) Prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, social workers, or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors under the order of the juvenile court, when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(3) Federal, State, or local prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, and designated staff:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805;

(b) when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and the minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the conditions of pretrial release;

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and the minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation, fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) in the course of prosecution or administrative adjudication of a violation of a traffic, boating, or fish and game law, or a county or municipal ordinance.

(4) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Board.

(5) Authorized military personnel.

(5.5) Employees of the federal government authorized by law.

(6) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the Presiding Judge and the chief executive of the respective law enforcement agency; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the minor's record.

(7) Department of Children and Family Services child protection investigators acting in their official capacity.

(8) The appropriate school official only if the agency or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of physical harm to students, school personnel, or others who are present in the school or on school grounds.

(A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to juvenile law enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by a local law enforcement agency under a reciprocal reporting system established and maintained between the school district and the local law enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school within the school district who has been arrested or taken into custody for any of the following offenses:

(i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;

(vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or

(viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The information derived from the juvenile law enforcement records shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of that child and shall not be a public record. The information shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the safety of students and employees in the school. If the designated law enforcement and school officials deem it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student may be referred to in-school or community-based social services if those services are available. "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility for special education, referrals to community-based agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed appropriate for the student.

(B) Any information provided to appropriate school officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by local law enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation that is directly related to school safety shall consist of oral information only, and not written juvenile law enforcement records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials to protect the safety of students and employees in the school and aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child. The information derived orally from the local law enforcement officials shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of the child and shall not be a public record. This limitation on the use of information about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation shall in no way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in pursuing criminal charges arising out of the information disclosed during a police investigation of the minor. For purposes of this paragraph, "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected criminal activity.

(9) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile law enforcement records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act who is the subject of the juvenile law enforcement records sought. Any juvenile law enforcement records and any information obtained from those juvenile law enforcement records under this paragraph (9) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(10) The president of a park district. Inspection and copying shall be limited to juvenile law enforcement records transmitted to the president of the park district by the Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c) of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c) of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.

(11) Persons managing and designated to participate in a court diversion program as designated in subsection (6) of Section 5-105.

(12) The Public Access Counselor of the Office of the Attorney General, when reviewing juvenile law enforcement records under its powers and duties under the Freedom of Information Act.

(13) Collection agencies, contracted or otherwise engaged by a governmental entity, to collect any debts due and owing to the governmental entity.

(B)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), no law enforcement officer or other person or agency may knowingly transmit to the Department of Corrections, the Illinois State Police, or the Federal Bureau of Investigation any fingerprint or photograph relating to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday, unless the court in proceedings under this Act authorizes the transmission or enters an order under Section 5-805 permitting or requiring the institution of criminal proceedings.

(2) Law enforcement officers or other persons or agencies shall transmit to the Illinois State Police copies of fingerprints and descriptions of all minors who have been arrested or taken into custody before their 18th birthday for the offense of unlawful use of weapons under Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a Class X or Class 1 felony, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Chapter 4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department pursuant to this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files pursuant to Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act. Nothing in this Act prohibits a law enforcement agency from fingerprinting a minor taken into custody or arrested before his or her 18th birthday for an offense other than those listed in this paragraph (2).

(C) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 18 years of age must be maintained separate from the records of arrests and may not be open to public inspection or their contents disclosed to the public. For purposes of obtaining documents under this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(1) In cases where the law enforcement, or independent agency, records concern a pending juvenile court case, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(3) In determining whether the records should be available for inspection, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the moving party's interest in obtaining the information. Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office or securing employment, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(D) Nothing contained in subsection (C) of this Section shall prohibit the inspection or disclosure to victims and witnesses of photographs contained in the records of law enforcement agencies when the inspection and disclosure is conducted in the presence of a law enforcement officer for the purpose of the identification or apprehension of any person subject to the provisions of this Act or for the investigation or prosecution of any crime.

(E) Law enforcement officers, and personnel of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of any minor in releasing information to the general public as to the arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving a minor.

(F) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law enforcement agencies from communicating with each other by letter, memorandum, teletype, or intelligence alert bulletin or other means the identity or other relevant information pertaining to a person under 18 years of age if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the person poses a real and present danger to the safety of the public or law enforcement officers. The information provided under this subsection (F) shall remain confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed, except as otherwise allowed by law.

(G) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any federal government, state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department from obtaining and examining the records of any law enforcement agency relating to any record of the applicant having been arrested or taken into custody before the applicant's 18th birthday.

(G-5) Information identifying victims and alleged victims of sex offenses shall not be disclosed or open to the public under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense from voluntarily disclosing his or her own identity.

(H) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(H-5) Nothing in this Section shall require any court or adjudicative proceeding for traffic, boating, fish and game law, or municipal and county ordinance violations to be closed to the public.

(I) Willful violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor and each violation is subject to a fine of $1,000. This subsection (I) shall not apply to the person who is the subject of the record.

(J) A person convicted of violating this Section is liable for damages in the amount of $1,000 or actual damages, whichever is greater.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-13-21.)

(705 ILCS 405/1-8)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 1-8. Confidentiality and accessibility of juvenile court records.

(A) A juvenile adjudication shall never be considered a conviction nor shall an adjudicated individual be considered a criminal. Unless expressly allowed by law, a juvenile adjudication shall not operate to impose upon the individual any of the civil disabilities ordinarily imposed by or resulting from conviction. Unless expressly allowed by law, adjudications shall not prejudice or disqualify the individual in any civil service application or appointment, from holding public office, or from receiving any license granted by public authority. All juvenile court records which have not been expunged are sealed and may never be disclosed to the general public or otherwise made widely available. Sealed juvenile court records may be obtained only under this Section and Section 1-7 and Part 9 of Article V of this Act, when their use is needed for good cause and with an order from the juvenile court. Inspection and copying of juvenile court records relating to a minor who is the subject of a proceeding under this Act shall be restricted to the following:

(1) The minor who is the subject of record, his or her parents, guardian, and counsel.

(2) Law enforcement officers and law enforcement agencies when such information is essential to executing an arrest or search warrant or other compulsory process, or to conducting an ongoing investigation or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of 3 or more persons, whether formal or informal, having as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more criminal acts and that has a common name or common identifying sign, symbol or specific color apparel displayed, and whose members individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(3) Judges, hearing officers, prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, social workers, or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors under the order of the juvenile court when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(4) Judges, federal, State, and local prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, and designated staff:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805;

(b) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of bail;

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation or fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) when a minor becomes 18 years of age or older, and is the subject of criminal proceedings, including a hearing to determine the amount of bail, a pre-trial investigation, a pre-sentence investigation, a fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(5) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(6) Authorized military personnel.

(6.5) Employees of the federal government authorized by law.

(7) Victims, their subrogees and legal representatives; however, such persons shall have access only to the name and address of the minor and information pertaining to the disposition or alternative adjustment plan of the juvenile court.

(8) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular records; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record.

(9) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers.

(10) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court.

(11) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile court records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, who is the subject of juvenile court records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (11) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(12) Collection agencies, contracted or otherwise engaged by a governmental entity, to collect any debts due and owing to the governmental entity.

(A-1) Findings and exclusions of paternity entered in proceedings occurring under Article II of this Act shall be disclosed, in a manner and form approved by the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court, to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services when necessary to discharge the duties of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(B) A minor who is the victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record.

(C)(0.1) In cases where the records concern a pending juvenile court case, the requesting party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(0.2) In cases where the juvenile court records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the requesting party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.3) In determining whether juvenile court records should be made available for inspection and whether inspection should be limited to certain parts of the file, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the requesting party's interest in obtaining the information. The State's Attorney, the minor, and the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records.

(0.4) Any records obtained in violation of this Section shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(D) Pending or following any adjudication of delinquency for any offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the victim of any such offense shall receive the rights set out in Sections 4 and 6 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act; and the juvenile who is the subject of the adjudication, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, shall be treated as an adult for the purpose of affording such rights to the victim.

(E) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of the federal government, or any state, county, or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records of disposition or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(F) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the dispositional order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to the dispositional order shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any school counselor designated by him or her.

(G) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(H) When a court hearing a proceeding under Article II of this Act becomes aware that an earlier proceeding under Article II had been heard in a different county, that court shall request, and the court in which the earlier proceedings were initiated shall transmit, an authenticated copy of the juvenile court record, including all documents, petitions, and orders filed and the minute orders, transcript of proceedings, and docket entries of the court.

(I) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Illinois State Police, in the form and manner required by the Illinois State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(J) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to juvenile law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(K) Willful violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor and each violation is subject to a fine of $1,000. This subsection (K) shall not apply to the person who is the subject of the record.

(L) A person convicted of violating this Section is liable for damages in the amount of $1,000 or actual damages, whichever is greater.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 1-8. Confidentiality and accessibility of juvenile court records.

(A) A juvenile adjudication shall never be considered a conviction nor shall an adjudicated individual be considered a criminal. Unless expressly allowed by law, a juvenile adjudication shall not operate to impose upon the individual any of the civil disabilities ordinarily imposed by or resulting from conviction. Unless expressly allowed by law, adjudications shall not prejudice or disqualify the individual in any civil service application or appointment, from holding public office, or from receiving any license granted by public authority. All juvenile court records which have not been expunged are sealed and may never be disclosed to the general public or otherwise made widely available. Sealed juvenile court records may be obtained only under this Section and Section 1-7 and Part 9 of Article V of this Act, when their use is needed for good cause and with an order from the juvenile court. Inspection and copying of juvenile court records relating to a minor who is the subject of a proceeding under this Act shall be restricted to the following:

(1) The minor who is the subject of record, his or her parents, guardian, and counsel.

(2) Law enforcement officers and law enforcement agencies when such information is essential to executing an arrest or search warrant or other compulsory process, or to conducting an ongoing investigation or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of 3 or more persons, whether formal or informal, having as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more criminal acts and that has a common name or common identifying sign, symbol or specific color apparel displayed, and whose members individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(3) Judges, hearing officers, prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, social workers, or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors under the order of the juvenile court when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(4) Judges, federal, State, and local prosecutors, public defenders, probation officers, and designated staff:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805;

(b) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the conditions of pretrial release;

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation or fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation; or

(d) when a minor becomes 18 years of age or older, and is the subject of criminal proceedings, including a hearing to determine the conditions of pretrial release, a pre-trial investigation, a pre-sentence investigation, a fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(5) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(6) Authorized military personnel.

(6.5) Employees of the federal government authorized by law.

(7) Victims, their subrogees and legal representatives; however, such persons shall have access only to the name and address of the minor and information pertaining to the disposition or alternative adjustment plan of the juvenile court.

(8) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular records; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record.

(9) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers.

(10) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court.

(11) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile court records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, who is the subject of juvenile court records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (11) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(12) Collection agencies, contracted or otherwise engaged by a governmental entity, to collect any debts due and owing to the governmental entity.

(A-1) Findings and exclusions of paternity entered in proceedings occurring under Article II of this Act shall be disclosed, in a manner and form approved by the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court, to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services when necessary to discharge the duties of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(B) A minor who is the victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record.

(C)(0.1) In cases where the records concern a pending juvenile court case, the requesting party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(0.2) In cases where the juvenile court records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the requesting party seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(0.3) In determining whether juvenile court records should be made available for inspection and whether inspection should be limited to certain parts of the file, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the requesting party's interest in obtaining the information. The State's Attorney, the minor, and the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records.

(0.4) Any records obtained in violation of this Section shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(D) Pending or following any adjudication of delinquency for any offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or 12-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the victim of any such offense shall receive the rights set out in Sections 4 and 6 of the Bill of Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act; and the juvenile who is the subject of the adjudication, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, shall be treated as an adult for the purpose of affording such rights to the victim.

(E) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of the federal government, or any state, county, or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records of disposition or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(F) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the dispositional order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to the dispositional order shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any school counselor designated by him or her.

(G) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(H) When a court hearing a proceeding under Article II of this Act becomes aware that an earlier proceeding under Article II had been heard in a different county, that court shall request, and the court in which the earlier proceedings were initiated shall transmit, an authenticated copy of the juvenile court record, including all documents, petitions, and orders filed and the minute orders, transcript of proceedings, and docket entries of the court.

(I) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Illinois State Police, in the form and manner required by the Illinois State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(J) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to juvenile law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(K) Willful violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor and each violation is subject to a fine of $1,000. This subsection (K) shall not apply to the person who is the subject of the record.

(L) A person convicted of violating this Section is liable for damages in the amount of $1,000 or actual damages, whichever is greater.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-10) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-10)

Sec. 2-10. Temporary custody hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the temporary custody hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent, the court shall state in writing the factual basis supporting its finding and the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. The Department of Children and Family Services shall give testimony concerning indicated reports of abuse and neglect, of which they are aware through the central registry, involving the minor's parent, guardian or custodian. After such testimony, the court may, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of parent, guardian or custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody. If it is determined that a parent's, guardian's, or custodian's compliance with critical services mitigates the necessity for removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may enter an Order of Protection setting forth reasonable conditions of behavior that a parent, guardian, or custodian must observe for a specified period of time, not to exceed 12 months, without a violation; provided, however, that the 12-month period shall begin anew after any violation. "Custodian" includes the Department of Children and Family Services, if it has been given custody of the child, or any other agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child. If it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, the court may also prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; however, on and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 16 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists; and on and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 15 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

In placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. In determining the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court must find that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the safety and protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and must further find that reasonable efforts have been made or that, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, no efforts reasonably can be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home. The court shall require documentation from the Department of Children and Family Services as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home or the reasons why no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal. When a minor is placed in the home of a relative, the Department of Children and Family Services shall complete a preliminary background review of the members of the minor's custodian's household in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Child Care Act of 1969 within 90 days of that placement. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a parent-child visiting plan, within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The parent-child visiting plan shall set out the time and place of visits, the frequency of visits, the length of visits, who shall be present at the visits, and where appropriate, the minor's opportunities to have telephone and mail communication with the parents.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, and when the child has siblings in care, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a sibling placement and contact plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The sibling placement and contact plan shall set forth whether the siblings are placed together, and if they are not placed together, what, if any, efforts are being made to place them together. If the Department has determined that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. For siblings placed separately, the sibling placement and contact plan shall set the time and place for visits, the frequency of the visits, the length of visits, who shall be present for the visits, and where appropriate, the child's opportunities to have contact with their siblings in addition to in person contact. If the Department determines it is not in the best interest of a sibling to have contact with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. The sibling placement and contact plan shall specify a date for development of the Sibling Contact Support Plan, under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, and shall remain in effect until the Sibling Contact Support Plan is developed.

For good cause, the court may waive the requirement to file the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan, or extend the time for filing either plan. Any party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan to determine whether it is reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal. A party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan to determine whether it is consistent with the minor's best interest. The court may refer the parties to mediation where available. The frequency, duration, and locations of visitation shall be measured by the needs of the child and family, and not by the convenience of Department personnel. Child development principles shall be considered by the court in its analysis of how frequent visitation should be, how long it should last, where it should take place, and who should be present. If upon motion of the party to review either plan and after receiving evidence, the court determines that the parent-child visiting plan is not reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or that the restrictions placed on parent-child contact or sibling placement or contact are contrary to the child's best interests, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court shall enter an order for the Department to implement changes to the parent-child visiting plan or sibling placement or contact plan, consistent with the court's findings. At any stage of proceeding, any party may by motion request the court to enter any orders necessary to implement the parent-child visiting plan, sibling placement or contact plan or subsequently developed Sibling Contact Support Plan. Nothing under this subsection (2) shall restrict the court from granting discretionary authority to the Department to increase opportunities for additional parent-child contacts or sibling contacts, without further court orders. Nothing in this subsection (2) shall restrict the Department from immediately restricting or terminating parent-child contact or sibling contacts, without either amending the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling contact plan or obtaining a court order, where the Department or its assigns reasonably believe there is an immediate need to protect the child's health, safety, and welfare. Such restrictions or terminations must be based on available facts to the Department and its assigns when viewed in light of the surrounding circumstances and shall only occur on an individual case-by-case basis. The Department shall file with the court and serve on the parties any amendments to the plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, of the change of the visitation.

Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court shall state in writing (i) the factual basis supporting its findings concerning the immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another and (ii) the factual basis supporting its findings that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home or that no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child. The order together with the court's findings of fact in support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

If the child is placed in the temporary custody of the Department of Children and Family Services for his or her protection, the court shall admonish the parents, guardian, custodian or responsible relative that the parents must cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services, comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the conditions which require the child to be in care, or risk termination of their parental rights. The court shall ensure, by inquiring in open court of each parent, guardian, custodian or responsible relative, that the parent, guardian, custodian or responsible relative has had the opportunity to provide the Department with all known names, addresses, and telephone numbers of each of the minor's living maternal and paternal adult relatives, including, but not limited to, grandparents, aunts, uncles, and siblings. The court shall advise the parents, guardian, custodian or responsible relative to inform the Department if additional information regarding the minor's adult relatives becomes available.

(3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3 and 4-3 the moving party is unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter care hearing may proceed ex parte. A shelter care order from an ex parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last known address of the other person or persons entitled to notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State, including whether temporary custody is sought, and the consequences of failure to appear and shall contain a notice that the parties will not be entitled to further written notices or publication notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights, except as required by Supreme Court Rule 11; and shall explain the right of the parties and the procedures to vacate or modify a shelter care order as provided in this Section. The notice for a shelter care hearing shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN

OF SHELTER CARE HEARING

On ................ at ........., before the Honorable ................, (address:) ................., the State of Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child or children) ....................... are abused, neglected or dependent for the following reasons:

.............................................. and (2) whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child or children from the responsible relative.

YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a trial can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90 days. You will not be entitled to further notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights.

At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following rights:

1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they cannot afford one.

2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to allow them time to prepare.

3. To present evidence concerning:

a. Whether or not the child or children were abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether or not there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child from home (including: their ability to care for the child, conditions in the home, alternative means of protecting the child other than removal).

c. The best interests of the child.

4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.

The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS

TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY

If you were not present at and did not have adequate notice of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary custody of ............... was awarded to ................, you have the right to request a full rehearing on whether the State should have temporary custody of ................. To request this rehearing, you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court (address): ........................, in person or by mailing a statement (affidavit) setting forth the following:

1. That you were not present at the shelter care hearing.

2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining how the notice was inadequate).

3. Your signature.

4. Signature must be notarized.

The rehearing should be scheduled within 48 hours of your filing this affidavit.

At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains those rights.

At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the following rights:

1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.

2. To be declared competent as a witness and to present testimony concerning:

a. Whether they are abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to be removed from home.

c. Their best interests.

3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.

4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and orders of the court.

(4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, minor age 8 or over, or counsel of the minor did not have actual notice of or was not present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 48 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 2-9, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(8) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice, may file a motion that it is in the best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; or

(c) A person not a party to the alleged abuse, neglect or dependency, including a parent, relative or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety.

In ruling on the motion, the court shall determine whether it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order. If the minor is being restored to the custody of a parent, legal custodian, or guardian who lives outside of Illinois, and an Interstate Compact has been requested and refused, the court may order the Department of Children and Family Services to arrange for an assessment of the minor's proposed living arrangement and for ongoing monitoring of the health, safety, and best interest of the minor and compliance with any order of protective supervision entered in accordance with Section 2-20 or 2-25.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(10) When the court finds or has found that there is probable cause to believe a minor is an abused minor as described in subsection (2) of Section 2-3 and that there is an immediate and urgent necessity for the abused minor to be placed in shelter care, immediate and urgent necessity shall be presumed for any other minor residing in the same household as the abused minor provided:

(a) Such other minor is the subject of an abuse or neglect petition pending before the court; and

(b) A party to the petition is seeking shelter care for such other minor.

Once the presumption of immediate and urgent necessity has been raised, the burden of demonstrating the lack of immediate and urgent necessity shall be on any party that is opposing shelter care for the other minor.

(11) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(12) After the court has placed a minor in the care of a temporary custodian pursuant to this Section, any party may file a motion requesting the court to grant the temporary custodian the authority to serve as a surrogate decision maker for the minor under the Health Care Surrogate Act for purposes of making decisions pursuant to paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Health Care Surrogate Act. The court may grant the motion if it determines by clear and convincing evidence that it is in the best interests of the minor to grant the temporary custodian such authority. In making its determination, the court shall weigh the following factors in addition to considering the best interests factors listed in subsection (4.05) of Section 1-3 of this Act:

(a) the efforts to identify and locate the respondents and adult family members of the minor and the results of those efforts;

(b) the efforts to engage the respondents and adult family members of the minor in decision making on behalf of the minor;

(c) the length of time the efforts in paragraphs (a) and (b) have been ongoing;

(d) the relationship between the respondents and adult family members and the minor;

(e) medical testimony regarding the extent to which the minor is suffering and the impact of a delay in decision-making on the minor; and

(f) any other factor the court deems relevant.

If the Department of Children and Family Services is the temporary custodian of the minor, in addition to the requirements of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Health Care Surrogate Act, the Department shall follow its rules and procedures in exercising authority granted under this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 102-489, eff. 8-20-21; 102-502, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-14-21.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-28) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-28)

Sec. 2-28. Court review.

(1) The court may require any legal custodian or guardian of the person appointed under this Act to report periodically to the court or may cite him into court and require him or his agency, to make a full and accurate report of his or its doings in behalf of the minor. The custodian or guardian, within 10 days after such citation, or earlier if the court determines it to be necessary to protect the health, safety, or welfare of the minor, shall make the report, either in writing verified by affidavit or orally under oath in open court, or otherwise as the court directs. Upon the hearing of the report the court may remove the custodian or guardian and appoint another in his stead or restore the minor to the custody of his parents or former guardian or custodian. However, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian, or legal custodian in any case in which the minor is found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can be cared for at home without endangering the minor's health or safety and it is in the best interests of the minor, and if such neglect, abuse, or dependency is found by the court under paragraph (1) of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about due to the acts or omissions or both of such parent, guardian, or legal custodian, until such time as an investigation is made as provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue of the fitness of such parent, guardian, or legal custodian to care for the minor and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian, or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(1.5) The public agency that is the custodian or guardian of the minor shall file a written report with the court no later than 15 days after a minor in the agency's care remains:

(1) in a shelter placement beyond 30 days;

(2) in a psychiatric hospital past the time when the minor is clinically ready for discharge or beyond medical necessity for the minor's health; or

(3) in a detention center or Department of Juvenile Justice facility solely because the public agency cannot find an appropriate placement for the minor.

The report shall explain the steps the agency is taking to ensure the minor is placed appropriately, how the minor's needs are being met in the minor's shelter placement, and if a future placement has been identified by the Department, why the anticipated placement is appropriate for the needs of the minor and the anticipated placement date.

(1.6) Within 35 days after placing a child in its care in a qualified residential treatment program, as defined by the federal Social Security Act, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file a written report with the court and send copies of the report to all parties. Within 20 days of the filing of the report, the court shall hold a hearing to consider the Department's report and determine whether placement of the child in a qualified residential treatment program provides the most effective and appropriate level of care for the child in the least restrictive environment and if the placement is consistent with the short-term and long-term goals for the child, as specified in the permanency plan for the child. The court shall approve or disapprove the placement. If applicable, the requirements of Sections 2-27.1 and 2-27.2 must also be met. The Department's written report and the court's written determination shall be included in and made part of the case plan for the child. If the child remains placed in a qualified residential treatment program, the Department shall submit evidence at each status and permanency hearing:

(1) demonstrating that on-going assessment of the strengths and needs of the child continues to support the determination that the child's needs cannot be met through placement in a foster family home, that the placement provides the most effective and appropriate level of care for the child in the least restrictive, appropriate environment, and that the placement is consistent with the short-term and long-term permanency goal for the child, as specified in the permanency plan for the child;

(2) documenting the specific treatment or service needs that should be met for the child in the placement and the length of time the child is expected to need the treatment or services; and

(3) the efforts made by the agency to prepare the child to return home or to be placed with a fit and willing relative, a legal guardian, or an adoptive parent, or in a foster family home.

(2) The first permanency hearing shall be conducted by the judge. Subsequent permanency hearings may be heard by a judge or by hearing officers appointed or approved by the court in the manner set forth in Section 2-28.1 of this Act. The initial hearing shall be held (a) within 12 months from the date temporary custody was taken, regardless of whether an adjudication or dispositional hearing has been completed within that time frame, (b) if the parental rights of both parents have been terminated in accordance with the procedure described in subsection (5) of Section 2-21, within 30 days of the order for termination of parental rights and appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption, or (c) in accordance with subsection (2) of Section 2-13.1. Subsequent permanency hearings shall be held every 6 months or more frequently if necessary in the court's determination following the initial permanency hearing, in accordance with the standards set forth in this Section, until the court determines that the plan and goal have been achieved. Once the plan and goal have been achieved, if the minor remains in substitute care, the case shall be reviewed at least every 6 months thereafter, subject to the provisions of this Section, unless the minor is placed in the guardianship of a suitable relative or other person and the court determines that further monitoring by the court does not further the health, safety or best interest of the child and that this is a stable permanent placement. The permanency hearings must occur within the time frames set forth in this subsection and may not be delayed in anticipation of a report from any source or due to the agency's failure to timely file its written report (this written report means the one required under the next paragraph and does not mean the service plan also referred to in that paragraph).

The public agency that is the custodian or guardian of the minor, or another agency responsible for the minor's care, shall ensure that all parties to the permanency hearings are provided a copy of the most recent service plan prepared within the prior 6 months at least 14 days in advance of the hearing. If not contained in the agency's service plan, the agency shall also include a report setting forth (i) any special physical, psychological, educational, medical, emotional, or other needs of the minor or his or her family that are relevant to a permanency or placement determination and (ii) for any minor age 16 or over, a written description of the programs and services that will enable the minor to prepare for independent living. If not contained in the agency's service plan, the agency's report shall specify if a minor is placed in a licensed child care facility under a corrective plan by the Department due to concerns impacting the minor's safety and well-being. The report shall explain the steps the Department is taking to ensure the safety and well-being of the minor and that the minor's needs are met in the facility. The agency's written report must detail what progress or lack of progress the parent has made in correcting the conditions requiring the child to be in care; whether the child can be returned home without jeopardizing the child's health, safety, and welfare, and if not, what permanency goal is recommended to be in the best interests of the child, and why the other permanency goals are not appropriate. The caseworker must appear and testify at the permanency hearing. If a permanency hearing has not previously been scheduled by the court, the moving party shall move for the setting of a permanency hearing and the entry of an order within the time frames set forth in this subsection.

At the permanency hearing, the court shall determine the future status of the child. The court shall set one of the following permanency goals:

(A) The minor will be returned home by a specific date within 5 months.

(B) The minor will be in short-term care with a continued goal to return home within a period not to exceed one year, where the progress of the parent or parents is substantial giving particular consideration to the age and individual needs of the minor.

(B-1) The minor will be in short-term care with a continued goal to return home pending a status hearing. When the court finds that a parent has not made reasonable efforts or reasonable progress to date, the court shall identify what actions the parent and the Department must take in order to justify a finding of reasonable efforts or reasonable progress and shall set a status hearing to be held not earlier than 9 months from the date of adjudication nor later than 11 months from the date of adjudication during which the parent's progress will again be reviewed.

(C) The minor will be in substitute care pending court determination on termination of parental rights.

(D) Adoption, provided that parental rights have been terminated or relinquished.

(E) The guardianship of the minor will be transferred to an individual or couple on a permanent basis provided that goals (A) through (D) have been deemed inappropriate and not in the child's best interests. The court shall confirm that the Department has discussed adoption, if appropriate, and guardianship with the caregiver prior to changing a goal to guardianship.

(F) The minor over age 15 will be in substitute care pending independence. In selecting this permanency goal, the Department of Children and Family Services may provide services to enable reunification and to strengthen the minor's connections with family, fictive kin, and other responsible adults, provided the services are in the minor's best interest. The services shall be documented in the service plan.

(G) The minor will be in substitute care because he or she cannot be provided for in a home environment due to developmental disabilities or mental illness or because he or she is a danger to self or others, provided that goals (A) through (D) have been deemed inappropriate and not in the child's best interests.

In selecting any permanency goal, the court shall indicate in writing the reasons the goal was selected and why the preceding goals were deemed inappropriate and not in the child's best interest. Where the court has selected a permanency goal other than (A), (B), or (B-1), the Department of Children and Family Services shall not provide further reunification services, except as provided in paragraph (F) of this subsection (2), but shall provide services consistent with the goal selected.

(H) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, the court may select the goal of continuing foster care as a permanency goal if:

(1) The Department of Children and Family Services has custody and guardianship of the minor;

(2) The court has deemed all other permanency goals inappropriate based on the child's best interest;

(3) The court has found compelling reasons, based on written documentation reviewed by the court, to place the minor in continuing foster care. Compelling reasons include:

(a) the child does not wish to be adopted or to be placed in the guardianship of his or her relative or foster care placement;

(b) the child exhibits an extreme level of need such that the removal of the child from his or her placement would be detrimental to the child; or

(c) the child who is the subject of the permanency hearing has existing close and strong bonds with a sibling, and achievement of another permanency goal would substantially interfere with the subject child's sibling relationship, taking into consideration the nature and extent of the relationship, and whether ongoing contact is in the subject child's best interest, including long-term emotional interest, as compared with the legal and emotional benefit of permanence;

(4) The child has lived with the relative or foster parent for at least one year; and

(5) The relative or foster parent currently caring for the child is willing and capable of providing the child with a stable and permanent environment.

The court shall set a permanency goal that is in the best interest of the child. In determining that goal, the court shall consult with the minor in an age-appropriate manner regarding the proposed permanency or transition plan for the minor. The court's determination shall include the following factors:

(1) Age of the child.

(2) Options available for permanence, including both out-of-state and in-state placement options.

(3) Current placement of the child and the intent of the family regarding adoption.

(4) Emotional, physical, and mental status or condition of the child.

(5) Types of services previously offered and whether or not the services were successful and, if not successful, the reasons the services failed.

(6) Availability of services currently needed and whether the services exist.

(7) Status of siblings of the minor.

The court shall consider (i) the permanency goal contained in the service plan, (ii) the appropriateness of the services contained in the plan and whether those services have been provided, (iii) whether reasonable efforts have been made by all the parties to the service plan to achieve the goal, and (iv) whether the plan and goal have been achieved. All evidence relevant to determining these questions, including oral and written reports, may be admitted and may be relied on to the extent of their probative value.

The court shall make findings as to whether, in violation of Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, any portion of the service plan compels a child or parent to engage in any activity or refrain from any activity that is not reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that gave rise or which could give rise to any finding of child abuse or neglect. The services contained in the service plan shall include services reasonably related to remedy the conditions that gave rise to removal of the child from the home of his or her parents, guardian, or legal custodian or that the court has found must be remedied prior to returning the child home. Any tasks the court requires of the parents, guardian, or legal custodian or child prior to returning the child home, must be reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that gave rise to or which could give rise to any finding of child abuse or neglect.

If the permanency goal is to return home, the court shall make findings that identify any problems that are causing continued placement of the children away from the home and identify what outcomes would be considered a resolution to these problems. The court shall explain to the parents that these findings are based on the information that the court has at that time and may be revised, should additional evidence be presented to the court.

The court shall review the Sibling Contact Support Plan developed or modified under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, if applicable. If the Department has not convened a meeting to develop or modify a Sibling Contact Support Plan, or if the court finds that the existing Plan is not in the child's best interest, the court may enter an order requiring the Department to develop, modify or implement a Sibling Contact Support Plan, or order mediation.

If the goal has been achieved, the court shall enter orders that are necessary to conform the minor's legal custody and status to those findings.

If, after receiving evidence, the court determines that the services contained in the plan are not reasonably calculated to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court also shall enter an order for the Department to develop and implement a new service plan or to implement changes to the current service plan consistent with the court's findings. The new service plan shall be filed with the court and served on all parties within 45 days of the date of the order. The court shall continue the matter until the new service plan is filed. Except as authorized by subsection (2.5) of this Section and as otherwise specifically authorized by law, the court is not empowered under this Section to order specific placements, specific services, or specific service providers to be included in the service plan.

A guardian or custodian appointed by the court pursuant to this Act shall file updated case plans with the court every 6 months.

Rights of wards of the court under this Act are enforceable against any public agency by complaints for relief by mandamus filed in any proceedings brought under this Act.

(2.5) If, after reviewing the evidence, including evidence from the Department, the court determines that the minor's current or planned placement is not necessary or appropriate to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting its determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. If the court finds that the minor's current or planned placement is not necessary or appropriate, the court may enter an order directing the Department to implement a recommendation by the minor's treating clinician or a clinician contracted by the Department to evaluate the minor or a recommendation made by the Department. If the Department places a minor in a placement under an order entered under this subsection (2.5), the Department has the authority to remove the minor from that placement when a change in circumstances necessitates the removal to protect the minor's health, safety, and best interest. If the Department determines removal is necessary, the Department shall notify the parties of the planned placement change in writing no later than 10 days prior to the implementation of its determination unless remaining in the placement poses an imminent risk of harm to the minor, in which case the Department shall notify the parties of the placement change in writing immediately following the implementation of its decision. The Department shall notify others of the decision to change the minor's placement as required by Department rule.

(3) Following the permanency hearing, the court shall enter a written order that includes the determinations required under subsection (2) of this Section and sets forth the following:

(a) The future status of the minor, including the permanency goal, and any order necessary to conform the minor's legal custody and status to such determination; or

(b) If the permanency goal of the minor cannot be achieved immediately, the specific reasons for continuing the minor in the care of the Department of Children and Family Services or other agency for short term placement, and the following determinations:

(i) (Blank).

(ii) Whether the services required by the court and by any service plan prepared within the prior 6 months have been provided and (A) if so, whether the services were reasonably calculated to facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or (B) if not provided, why the services were not provided.

(iii) Whether the minor's current or planned placement is necessary, and appropriate to the plan and goal, recognizing the right of minors to the least restrictive (most family-like) setting available and in close proximity to the parents' home consistent with the health, safety, best interest and special needs of the minor and, if the minor is placed out-of-state, whether the out-of-state placement continues to be appropriate and consistent with the health, safety, and best interest of the minor.

(iv) (Blank).

(v) (Blank).

(4) The minor or any person interested in the minor may apply to the court for a change in custody of the minor and the appointment of a new custodian or guardian of the person or for the restoration of the minor to the custody of his parents or former guardian or custodian.

When return home is not selected as the permanency goal:

(a) The Department, the minor, or the current foster parent or relative caregiver seeking private guardianship may file a motion for private guardianship of the minor. Appointment of a guardian under this Section requires approval of the court.

(b) The State's Attorney may file a motion to terminate parental rights of any parent who has failed to make reasonable efforts to correct the conditions which led to the removal of the child or reasonable progress toward the return of the child, as defined in subdivision (D)(m) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act or for whom any other unfitness ground for terminating parental rights as defined in subdivision (D) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act exists.

When parental rights have been terminated for a minimum of 3 years and the child who is the subject of the permanency hearing is 13 years old or older and is not currently placed in a placement likely to achieve permanency, the Department of Children and Family Services shall make reasonable efforts to locate parents whose rights have been terminated, except when the Court determines that those efforts would be futile or inconsistent with the subject child's best interests. The Department of Children and Family Services shall assess the appropriateness of the parent whose rights have been terminated, and shall, as appropriate, foster and support connections between the parent whose rights have been terminated and the youth. The Department of Children and Family Services shall document its determinations and efforts to foster connections in the child's case plan.

Custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian, or legal custodian in any case in which the minor is found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can be cared for at home without endangering his or her health or safety and it is in the best interest of the minor, and if such neglect, abuse, or dependency is found by the court under paragraph (1) of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about due to the acts or omissions or both of such parent, guardian, or legal custodian, until such time as an investigation is made as provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue of the health, safety, and best interest of the minor and the fitness of such parent, guardian, or legal custodian to care for the minor and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian, or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor. If a motion is filed to modify or vacate a private guardianship order and return the child to a parent, guardian, or legal custodian, the court may order the Department of Children and Family Services to assess the minor's current and proposed living arrangements and to provide ongoing monitoring of the health, safety, and best interest of the minor during the pendency of the motion to assist the court in making that determination. In the event that the minor has attained 18 years of age and the guardian or custodian petitions the court for an order terminating his guardianship or custody, guardianship or custody shall terminate automatically 30 days after the receipt of the petition unless the court orders otherwise. No legal custodian or guardian of the person may be removed without his consent until given notice and an opportunity to be heard by the court.

When the court orders a child restored to the custody of the parent or parents, the court shall order the parent or parents to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services and comply with the terms of an after-care plan, or risk the loss of custody of the child and possible termination of their parental rights. The court may also enter an order of protective supervision in accordance with Section 2-24.

If the minor is being restored to the custody of a parent, legal custodian, or guardian who lives outside of Illinois, and an Interstate Compact has been requested and refused, the court may order the Department of Children and Family Services to arrange for an assessment of the minor's proposed living arrangement and for ongoing monitoring of the health, safety, and best interest of the minor and compliance with any order of protective supervision entered in accordance with Section 2-24.

(5) Whenever a parent, guardian, or legal custodian files a motion for restoration of custody of the minor, and the minor was adjudicated neglected, abused, or dependent as a result of physical abuse, the court shall cause to be made an investigation as to whether the movant has ever been charged with or convicted of any criminal offense which would indicate the likelihood of any further physical abuse to the minor. Evidence of such criminal convictions shall be taken into account in determining whether the minor can be cared for at home without endangering his or her health or safety and fitness of the parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(a) Any agency of this State or any subdivision thereof shall cooperate co-operate with the agent of the court in providing any information sought in the investigation.

(b) The information derived from the investigation and any conclusions or recommendations derived from the information shall be provided to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian seeking restoration of custody prior to the hearing on fitness and the movant shall have an opportunity at the hearing to refute the information or contest its significance.

(c) All information obtained from any investigation shall be confidential as provided in Section 5-150 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-63, eff. 10-1-19; 102-193, eff. 7-30-21; 102-489, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-501)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 102-654)

Sec. 5-501. Detention or shelter care hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the detention or shelter care hearing, the court shall receive all relevant information and evidence, including affidavits concerning the allegations made in the petition. Evidence used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with this Section may be by way of proffer based on reliable information offered by the State or minor. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at a trial. No hearing may be held unless the minor is represented by counsel and no hearing shall be held until the minor has had adequate opportunity to consult with counsel.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is a delinquent minor, it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is a delinquent minor, the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony may be examined before the court. The court may also consider any evidence by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or the minor. All evidence, including affidavits, shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at trial. After such evidence is presented, the court may enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of a parent, guardian or legal custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody.

If the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be detained or placed in a shelter care facility or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, the court may prescribe detention or shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; otherwise it shall release the minor from custody. If the court prescribes shelter care, then in placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. In making the determination of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) the nature and seriousness of the alleged offense; (b) the minor's record of delinquency offenses, including whether the minor has delinquency cases pending; (c) the minor's record of willful failure to appear following the issuance of a summons or warrant; (d) the availability of non-custodial alternatives, including the presence of a parent, guardian or other responsible relative able and willing to provide supervision and care for the minor and to assure his or her compliance with a summons. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the agency, appoint the appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody of the minor as it deems fit and proper.

The order together with the court's findings of fact in support of the order shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that the placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

(3) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a delinquent minor may the minor be kept or detained in a facility authorized for juvenile detention. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (4).

(4) (a) Minors 12 years of age or older must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room or yard with confined adults. This paragraph (4): (a) shall only apply to confinement pending an adjudicatory hearing and shall not exceed 40 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and court designated holidays. To accept or hold minors during this time period, county jails shall comply with all monitoring standards adopted by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(b) To accept or hold minors, 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in clause (a) of subsection (4) of this Section but not exceeding 7 days including Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, pending an adjudicatory hearing, county jails shall comply with all temporary detention standards adopted by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(c) To accept or hold minors 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in clause (a) and (b), of this subsection, county jails shall comply with all county juvenile detention standards adopted by the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(5) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 5-415, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(6) If neither the parent, guardian, or legal custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released from detention or shelter care, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian, or legal custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Human Services or a licensed child welfare agency. The time during which a minor is in custody after being released upon the request of a parent, guardian, or legal custodian shall be considered as time spent in detention for purposes of scheduling the trial.

(7) Any party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, may file a motion to modify or vacate a temporary custody order or vacate a detention or shelter care order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in detention or shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed; or

(c) A person, including a parent, relative, or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated on in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(8) Whenever a petition has been filed under Section 5-520, the court can, at any time prior to trial or sentencing, order that the minor be placed in detention or a shelter care facility after the court conducts a hearing and finds that the conduct and behavior of the minor may endanger the health, person, welfare, or property of himself or others or that the circumstances of his or her home environment may endanger his or her health, person, welfare, or property.

(Source: P.A. 98-685, eff. 1-1-15.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 102-654)

Sec. 5-501. Detention or shelter care hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the detention or shelter care hearing, the court shall receive all relevant information and evidence, including affidavits concerning the allegations made in the petition. Evidence used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with this Section may be by way of proffer based on reliable information offered by the State or minor. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at a trial. No hearing may be held unless the minor is represented by counsel and no hearing shall be held until the minor has had adequate opportunity to consult with counsel.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is a delinquent minor, it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is a delinquent minor, the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony may be examined before the court. The court may also consider any evidence by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or the minor. All evidence, including affidavits, shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at trial. After such evidence is presented, the court may enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of a parent, guardian or legal custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody.

If the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be detained or placed in a shelter care facility or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, the court may prescribe detention or shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; otherwise it shall release the minor from custody. If the court prescribes shelter care, then in placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. In making the determination of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity, the court shall consider among other matters: (a) the nature and seriousness of the alleged offense; (b) the minor's record of delinquency offenses, including whether the minor has delinquency cases pending; (c) the minor's record of willful failure to appear following the issuance of a summons or warrant; (d) the availability of non-custodial alternatives, including the presence of a parent, guardian or other responsible relative able and willing to provide supervision and care for the minor and to assure his or her compliance with a summons. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the agency, appoint the appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody of the minor as it deems fit and proper.

If the court Court prescribes detention, and the minor is a youth in care of the Department of Children and Family Services, a hearing shall be held every 14 days to determine whether there is an urgent and immediate necessity to detain the minor for the protection of the person or property of another. If urgent and immediate necessity is not found on the basis of the protection of the person or property of another, the minor shall be released to the custody of the Department of Children and Family Services. If the court Court prescribes detention based on the minor being likely to flee the jurisdiction, and the minor is a youth in care of the Department of Children and Family Services, a hearing shall be held every 7 days for status on the location of shelter care placement by the Department of Children and Family Services. Detention shall not be used as a shelter care placement for minors in the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services.

The order together with the court's findings of fact in support of the order shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that the placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

(3) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a delinquent minor may the minor be kept or detained in a facility authorized for juvenile detention. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (4).

(4) (a) Minors 12 years of age or older must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room or yard with confined adults. This paragraph (4): (a) shall only apply to confinement pending an adjudicatory hearing and shall not exceed 40 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and court designated holidays. To accept or hold minors during this time period, county jails shall comply with all monitoring standards adopted by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(b) To accept or hold minors, 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in clause (a) of subsection (4) of this Section but not exceeding 7 days including Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, pending an adjudicatory hearing, county jails shall comply with all temporary detention standards adopted by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(c) To accept or hold minors 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in clause (a) and (b), of this subsection, county jails shall comply with all county juvenile detention standards adopted by the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(5) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 5-415, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(6) If neither the parent, guardian, or legal custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released from detention or shelter care, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian, or legal custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Human Services or a licensed child welfare agency. The time during which a minor is in custody after being released upon the request of a parent, guardian, or legal custodian shall be considered as time spent in detention for purposes of scheduling the trial.

(7) Any party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, may file a motion to modify or vacate a temporary custody order or vacate a detention or shelter care order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in detention or shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed; or

(c) A person, including a parent, relative, or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated on in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(8) Whenever a petition has been filed under Section 5-520, the court can, at any time prior to trial or sentencing, order that the minor be placed in detention or a shelter care facility after the court conducts a hearing and finds that the conduct and behavior of the minor may endanger the health, person, welfare, or property of himself or others or that the circumstances of his or her home environment may endanger his or her health, person, welfare, or property.

(Source: P.A. 102-654, eff. 1-1-23; revised 11-24-21.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-901)

Sec. 5-901. Court file.

(1) The Court file with respect to proceedings under this Article shall consist of the petitions, pleadings, victim impact statements, process, service of process, orders, writs and docket entries reflecting hearings held and judgments and decrees entered by the court. The court file shall be kept separate from other records of the court.

(a) The file, including information identifying the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense, shall be disclosed only to the following parties when necessary for discharge of their official duties:

(i) A judge of the circuit court and members of the staff of the court designated by the judge;

(ii) Parties to the proceedings and their attorneys;

(iii) Victims and their attorneys, except in cases of multiple victims of sex offenses in which case the information identifying the nonrequesting victims shall be redacted;

(iv) Probation officers, law enforcement officers or prosecutors or their staff;

(v) Adult and juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

(b) The Court file redacted to remove any information identifying the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense shall be disclosed only to the following parties when necessary for discharge of their official duties:

(i) Authorized military personnel;

(ii) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the judge of the juvenile court and the chief executive of the agency that prepared the particular recording: provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the record;

(iii) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as required in Section 6-204 or Section 6-205.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported relative to these offenses shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and police officers;

(iv) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse student assistance program with the permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court;

(v) Any individual, or any public or private agency or institution, having custody of the juvenile under court order or providing educational, medical or mental health services to the juvenile or a court-approved advocate for the juvenile or any placement provider or potential placement provider as determined by the court.

(2) (Reserved).

(3) A minor who is the victim or alleged victim in a juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of record. Information identifying victims and alleged victims of sex offenses, shall not be disclosed or open to public inspection under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense from voluntarily disclosing his or her identity.

(4) Relevant information, reports and records shall be made available to the Department of Juvenile Justice when a juvenile offender has been placed in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(4.5) Relevant information, reports and records, held by the Department of Juvenile Justice, including social investigation, psychological and medical records, of any juvenile offender, shall be made available to any county juvenile detention facility upon written request by the Superintendent or Director of that juvenile detention facility, to the Chief Records Officer of the Department of Juvenile Justice where the subject youth is or was in the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice and is subsequently ordered to be held in a county juvenile detention facility.

(5) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (5), juvenile court records shall not be made available to the general public but may be inspected by representatives of agencies, associations and news media or other properly interested persons by general or special order of the court. The State's Attorney, the minor, his or her parents, guardian and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court files and records.

(a) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either of the following circumstances:

(i) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or

(ii) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the act was committed and the adjudication of delinquency was based upon the minor's commission of: (A) an act in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (B) an act involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (C) an act that would be a Class X felony offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act if committed by an adult, (D) an act that would be a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, (E) an act that would be an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an adult, or (F) an act that would be an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act if committed by an adult.

(b) The court shall allow the general public to have access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings permitted or required under Section 5-805, under either of the following circumstances:

(i) The minor has been convicted of first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault,

(ii) The court has made a finding that the minor was at least 13 years of age at the time the offense was committed and the conviction was based upon the minor's commission of: (A) an offense in furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (B) an offense involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (C) a Class X felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act or a second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act, (D) a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, (E) an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or (F) an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

(6) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the use of an adjudication of delinquency as evidence in any juvenile or criminal proceeding, where it would otherwise be admissible under the rules of evidence, including, but not limited to, use as impeachment evidence against any witness, including the minor if he or she testifies.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority examining the character and fitness of an applicant for a position as a law enforcement officer to ascertain whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to examine the records or evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.

(8) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section 24-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so, shall provide a copy of the sentencing order to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to such juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any school counselor designated by him or her.

(9) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is used to assist in the early identification and treatment of habitual juvenile offenders.

(10) (Reserved).

(11) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the Illinois State Police, in the form and manner required by the Illinois State Police, the final disposition of each minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday for those offenses required to be reported under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Illinois State Police Department under this Section may be maintained with records that the Illinois State Police Department files under Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(12) Information or records may be disclosed to the general public when the court is conducting hearings under Section 5-805 or 5-810.

(13) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to juvenile court records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-320, eff. 8-6-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

Section 600. The Court of Claims Act is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:

(705 ILCS 505/22) (from Ch. 37, par. 439.22)

Sec. 22. Every claim cognizable by the court and not otherwise sooner barred by law shall be forever barred from prosecution therein unless it is filed with the clerk of the court within the time set forth as follows:

(a) All claims arising out of a contract must be filed within 5 years after it first accrues, saving to minors, and persons under legal disability at the time the claim accrues, in which cases the claim must be filed within 5 years from the time the disability ceases.

(b) All claims cognizable against the State by vendors of goods or services under the Illinois Public Aid Code must be filed file within one year after the accrual of the cause of action, as provided in Section 11-13 of that Code.

(c) All claims arising under paragraph (c) of Section 8 of this Act must be automatically heard by the court within 120 days after the person asserting such claim is either issued a certificate of innocence from the circuit court as provided in Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or is granted a pardon by the Governor, whichever occurs later, without the person asserting the claim being required to file a petition under Section 11 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by the Crime Victims Compensation Act. Any claims filed by the claimant under paragraph (c) of Section 8 of this Act must be filed within 2 years after the person asserting such claim is either issued a certificate of innocence as provided in Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or is granted a pardon by the Governor, whichever occurs later.

(d) All claims arising under paragraph (f) of Section 8 of this Act must be filed within the time set forth in Section 3 of the Line of Duty Compensation Act.

(e) All claims arising under paragraph (h) of Section 8 of this Act must be filed within one year of the date of the death of the guardsman or militiaman as provided in Section 3 of the Illinois National Guardsman's Compensation Act.

(f) All claims arising under paragraph (g) of Section 8 of this Act must be filed within one year of the crime on which a claim is based as provided in Section 6.1 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(g) All claims arising from the Comptroller's refusal to issue a replacement warrant pursuant to Section 10.10 of the State Comptroller Act must be filed within 5 years after the date of the Comptroller's refusal.

(h) All other claims must be filed within 2 years after it first accrues, saving to minors, and persons under legal disability at the time the claim accrues, in which case the claim must be filed within 2 years from the time the disability ceases.

(i) The changes made by Public Act 86-458 apply to all warrants issued within the 5-year period preceding August 31, 1989 (the effective date of Public Act 86-458). The changes made to this Section by Public Act 100-1124 apply to claims pending on November 27, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1124) and to claims filed thereafter.

(j) All time limitations established under this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act shall be binding and jurisdictional, except upon extension authorized by law or rule and granted pursuant to a motion timely filed.

(Source: P.A. 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-24-21.)

Section 605. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 12-7.1, 24-3, and 24-8 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.1)

Sec. 12-7.1. Hate crime.

(a) A person commits hate crime when, by reason of the actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, citizenship, immigration status, or national origin of another individual or group of individuals, regardless of the existence of any other motivating factor or factors, he or she commits assault, battery, aggravated assault, intimidation, stalking, cyberstalking, misdemeanor theft, criminal trespass to residence, misdemeanor criminal damage to property, criminal trespass to vehicle, criminal trespass to real property, mob action, disorderly conduct, transmission of obscene messages, harassment by telephone, or harassment through electronic communications as these crimes are defined in Sections 12-1, 12-2, 12-3(a), 12-7.3, 12-7.5, 16-1, 19-4, 21-1, 21-2, 21-3, 25-1, 26-1, 26.5-1, 26.5-2, paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of Section 12-6, and paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(5) of Section 26.5-3 of this Code, respectively.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (b-5), hate crime is a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(b-5) Hate crime is a Class 3 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense if committed:

(1) in, or upon the exterior or grounds of, a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place identified or associated with a particular religion or used for religious worship or other religious purpose;

(2) in a cemetery, mortuary, or other facility used for the purpose of burial or memorializing the dead;

(3) in a school or other educational facility, including an administrative facility or public or private dormitory facility of or associated with the school or other educational facility;

(4) in a public park or an ethnic or religious community center;

(5) on the real property comprising any location specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5); or

(6) on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any location specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5).

(b-10) Upon imposition of any sentence, the trial court shall also either order restitution paid to the victim or impose a fine in an amount to be determined by the court based on the severity of the crime and the injury or damages suffered by the victim. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours if that service is established in the county where the offender was convicted of hate crime. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes involving the protected class identified in subsection (a) that gave rise to the offense the offender committed. The educational program must be attended by the offender in-person and may be administered, as determined by the court, by a university, college, community college, non-profit organization, the Illinois Holocaust and Genocide Commission, or any other organization that provides educational programs discouraging hate crimes, except that programs administered online or that can otherwise be attended remotely are prohibited. The court may also impose any other condition of probation or conditional discharge under this Section. If the court sentences the offender to imprisonment or periodic imprisonment for a violation of this Section, as a condition of the offender's mandatory supervised release, the court shall require that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours and enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes involving the protected class identified in subsection (a) that gave rise to the offense the offender committed.

(c) Independent of any criminal prosecution or the result of a criminal prosecution, any person suffering injury to his or her person, damage to his or her property, intimidation as defined in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of Section 12-6 of this Code, stalking as defined in Section 12-7.3 of this Code, cyberstalking as defined in Section 12-7.5 of this Code, disorderly conduct as defined in paragraph (a)(1), (a)(4), (a)(5), or (a)(6) of Section 26-1 of this Code, transmission of obscene messages as defined in Section 26.5-1 of this Code, harassment by telephone as defined in Section 26.5-2 of this Code, or harassment through electronic communications as defined in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(5) of Section 26.5-3 of this Code as a result of a hate crime may bring a civil action for damages, injunction or other appropriate relief. The court may award actual damages, including damages for emotional distress, as well as punitive damages. The court may impose a civil penalty up to $25,000 for each violation of this subsection (c). A judgment in favor of a person who brings a civil action under this subsection (c) shall include attorney's fees and costs. After consulting with the local State's Attorney, the Attorney General may bring a civil action in the name of the People of the State for an injunction or other equitable relief under this subsection (c). In addition, the Attorney General may request and the court may impose a civil penalty up to $25,000 for each violation under this subsection (c). The parents or legal guardians, other than guardians appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, of an unemancipated minor shall be liable for the amount of any judgment for all damages rendered against such minor under this subsection (c) in any amount not exceeding the amount provided under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(d) "Sexual orientation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (O-1) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-235, eff. 1-1-22; 102-468, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-18-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)

Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.

(A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:

(a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.

(b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.

(c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.

(d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.

(e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental institution within the past 5 years. In this subsection (e):

"Mental institution" means any hospital, institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.

(f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is a person with an intellectual disability.

(g) Delivers any firearm, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of the firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of the stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to: (1) the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) a mail order sale of a firearm from a federally licensed firearms dealer to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a federally licensed firearms dealer outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) (blank); (4) the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923); or (5) the transfer or sale of any rifle, shotgun, or other long gun to a resident registered competitor or attendee or non-resident registered competitor or attendee by any dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 at competitive shooting events held at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. For purposes of transfers or sales under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph (g), the Department of Natural Resources shall give notice to the Illinois State Police at least 30 calendar days prior to any competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. The notification shall be made on a form prescribed by the Illinois State Police. The sanctioning body shall provide a list of all registered competitors and attendees at least 24 hours before the events to the Illinois State Police. Any changes to the list of registered competitors and attendees shall be forwarded to the Illinois State Police as soon as practicable. The Illinois State Police must destroy the list of registered competitors and attendees no later than 30 days after the date of the event. Nothing in this paragraph (g) relieves a federally licensed firearm dealer from the requirements of conducting a NICS background check through the Illinois Point of Contact under 18 U.S.C. 922(t). For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm. For purposes of this paragraph (g), "national governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.

(h) While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.

(i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):

A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.

"With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.

(k) Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm either: (1) a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Illinois State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; or (2) a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Illinois State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card or license to carry a concealed firearm means receipt of an approval number issued in accordance with subsection (a-10) of Section subsection 3 or Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(1) In addition to the other requirements of this paragraph (k), all persons who are not federally licensed firearms dealers must also have complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(2) All sellers or transferors who have complied with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the transferee of the firearm transferred, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller or transferor.

(l) Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.

(B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.

(C) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.

(2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.

(4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.

(5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.

(6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.

(7) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.

(8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.

(9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.

(10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one-year one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2-year 2 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3-year 3 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4-year 4 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5-year 5 year period.

(D) For purposes of this Section:

"School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.

"School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-8)

Sec. 24-8. Firearm evidence.

(a) Upon recovering a firearm from the possession of anyone who is not permitted by federal or State law to possess a firearm, a law enforcement agency shall use the best available information, including a firearms trace when necessary, to determine how and from whom the person gained possession of the firearm. Upon recovering a firearm that was used in the commission of any offense classified as a felony or upon recovering a firearm that appears to have been lost, mislaid, stolen, or otherwise unclaimed, a law enforcement agency shall use the best available information, including a firearms trace, to determine prior ownership of the firearm.

(b) Law enforcement shall, when appropriate, use the National Tracing Center of the Federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms and the National Crime Information Center of the Federal Bureau of Investigation in complying with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) Law enforcement agencies shall use the Illinois State Police Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) Gun File to enter all stolen, seized, or recovered firearms as prescribed by LEADS regulations and policies.

(d) Whenever a law enforcement agency recovers a fired cartridge case at a crime scene or has reason to believe that the recovered fired cartridge case is related to or associated with the commission of a crime, the law enforcement agency shall submit the evidence to the National Integrated Ballistics Information Network (NIBIN) or an Illinois State Police laboratory for NIBIN processing. Whenever a law enforcement agency seizes or recovers a semiautomatic firearm that is deemed suitable to be entered into the NIBIN that was: (i) unlawfully possessed, (ii) used for any unlawful purpose, (iii) recovered from the scene of a crime, (iv) is reasonably believed to have been used or associated with the commission of a crime, or (v) is acquired by the law enforcement agency as an abandoned or discarded firearm, the law enforcement agency shall submit the evidence to the NIBIN or an Illinois State Police laboratory for NIBIN processing. When practicable, all NIBIN-suitable evidence and NIBIN-suitable test fires from recovered firearms shall be entered into the NIBIN within 2 business days of submission to Illinois State Police laboratories that have NIBIN access or another NIBIN site. Exceptions to this may occur if the evidence in question requires analysis by other forensic disciplines. The Illinois State Police laboratory, submitting agency, and relevant court representatives shall determine whether the request for additional analysis outweighs the 2 business-day requirement. Illinois State Police laboratories that do not have NIBIN access shall submit NIBIN-suitable evidence and test fires to an Illinois State Police laboratory with NIBIN access. Upon receipt at the laboratory with NIBIN access, when practicable, the evidence and test fires shall be entered into the NIBIN within 2 business days. Exceptions to this 2 business-day requirement may occur if the evidence in question requires analysis by other forensic disciplines. The Illinois State Police laboratory, submitting agency, and relevant court representatives shall determine whether the request for additional analysis outweighs the 2 business-day requirement. Nothing in this Section shall be interpreted to conflict with standards and policies for NIBIN sites as promulgated by the federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives or successor agencies.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

Section 610. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(720 ILCS 550/8) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 708)

Sec. 8. Except as otherwise provided in the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act and the Industrial Hemp Act, it is unlawful for any person knowingly to produce the Cannabis sativa plant or to possess such plants unless production or possession has been authorized pursuant to the provisions of Section 11 or 15.2 of the Act. Any person who violates this Section with respect to production or possession of:

(a) Not more than 5 plants is guilty of a civil violation punishable by a minimum fine of $100 and a maximum fine of $200. The proceeds of the fine are payable to the clerk of the circuit court. Within 30 days after the deposit of the fine, the clerk shall distribute the proceeds of the fine as follows:

(1) $10 of the fine to the circuit clerk and $10 of the fine to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation; the proceeds of each $10 fine distributed to the circuit clerk and each $10 fine distributed to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation for the violation shall be used to defer the cost of automatic expungements under paragraph (2.5) of subsection (a) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act;

(2) $15 to the county to fund drug addiction services;

(3) $10 to the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor for use in training programs;

(4) $10 to the State's Attorney; and

(5) any remainder of the fine to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation for the violation.

With respect to funds designated for the Illinois State Police, the moneys shall be remitted by the circuit court clerk to the State Treasurer Illinois within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. With respect to funds designated for the Department of Natural Resources, the Department of Natural Resources shall deposit the moneys into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(b) More than 5, but not more than 20 plants, is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(c) More than 20, but not more than 50 plants, is guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(d) More than 50, but not more than 200 plants, is guilty of a Class 2 felony for which a fine not to exceed $100,000 may be imposed and for which liability for the cost of conducting the investigation and eradicating such plants may be assessed. Compensation for expenses incurred in the enforcement of this provision shall be transmitted to and deposited in the treasurer's office at the level of government represented by the Illinois law enforcement agency whose officers or employees conducted the investigation or caused the arrest or arrests leading to the prosecution, to be subsequently made available to that law enforcement agency as expendable receipts for use in the enforcement of laws regulating controlled substances and cannabis. If such seizure was made by a combination of law enforcement personnel representing different levels of government, the court levying the assessment shall determine the allocation of such assessment. The proceeds of assessment awarded to the State treasury shall be deposited in a special fund known as the Drug Traffic Prevention Fund.

(e) More than 200 plants is guilty of a Class 1 felony for which a fine not to exceed $100,000 may be imposed and for which liability for the cost of conducting the investigation and eradicating such plants may be assessed. Compensation for expenses incurred in the enforcement of this provision shall be transmitted to and deposited in the treasurer's office at the level of government represented by the Illinois law enforcement agency whose officers or employees conducted the investigation or caused the arrest or arrests leading to the prosecution, to be subsequently made available to that law enforcement agency as expendable receipts for use in the enforcement of laws regulating controlled substances and cannabis. If such seizure was made by a combination of law enforcement personnel representing different levels of government, the court levying the assessment shall determine the allocation of such assessment. The proceeds of assessment awarded to the State treasury shall be deposited in a special fund known as the Drug Traffic Prevention Fund.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-593, eff. 12-4-19; 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-14-21.)

Section 615. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 102 and 316 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one,

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane,

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic

acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship. "Deliver" or "delivery" does not include the donation of drugs to the extent permitted under the Illinois Drug Reuse Opportunity Program Act.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank).

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including, but not limited to, alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an electronic record of health-related information on an individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by authorized health care clinicians and staff.

(t-3.5) "Electronic health record system" or "EHR system" means any computer-based system or combination of federally certified Health IT Modules (defined at 42 CFR 170.102 or its successor) used as a repository for electronic health records and accessed or updated by a prescriber or authorized surrogate in the ordinary course of his or her medical practice. For purposes of connecting to the Prescription Information Library maintained by the Bureau of Pharmacy and Clinical Support Systems or its successor, an EHR system may connect to the Prescription Information Library directly or through all or part of a computer program or system that is a federally certified Health IT Module maintained by a third party and used by the EHR system to secure access to the database.

(t-4) "Emergency medical services personnel" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards, including, but not limited to, the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the Illinois State Police or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use;

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale; or

(3) the packaging, repackaging, or labeling of drugs only to the extent permitted under the Illinois Drug Reuse Opportunity Program Act.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal euthanasia agency, or (v) a prescribing psychologist.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(2) (blank);

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, emergency medical services personnel, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, or an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, of an advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, of an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law, or of an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including, but not limited to, amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(rr-10) "Synthetic drug" includes, but is not limited to, any synthetic cannabinoids or piperazines or any synthetic cathinones as provided for in Schedule I.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 101-666, eff. 1-1-22; 102-389, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-22-21.)

(720 ILCS 570/316)

Sec. 316. Prescription Monitoring Program.

(a) The Department must provide for a Prescription Monitoring Program for Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances that includes the following components and requirements:

(1) The dispenser must transmit to the central repository, in a form and manner specified by the Department, the following information:

(A) The recipient's name and address.

(B) The recipient's date of birth and gender.

(C) The national drug code number of the controlled substance dispensed.

(D) The date the controlled substance is dispensed.

(E) The quantity of the controlled substance dispensed and days supply.

(F) The dispenser's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(G) The prescriber's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(H) The dates the controlled substance prescription is filled.

(I) The payment type used to purchase the controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party insurance).

(J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing home, outpatient, etc.) for the controlled substances other than those filled at a retail pharmacy.

(K) Any additional information that may be required by the department by administrative rule, including but not limited to information required for compliance with the criteria for electronic reporting of the American Society for Automation and Pharmacy or its successor.

(2) The information required to be transmitted under this Section must be transmitted not later than the end of the business day on which a controlled substance is dispensed, or at such other time as may be required by the Department by administrative rule.

(3) A dispenser must transmit the information required under this Section by:

(3.5) The requirements of paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection also apply to opioid treatment programs that are licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services' Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery and are authorized by the federal Drug Enforcement Administration to prescribe Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances for the treatment of opioid use disorders. Opioid treatment programs shall attempt to obtain written patient consent, shall document attempts to obtain the written consent, and shall not transmit information without patient consent. Documentation obtained under this paragraph shall not be utilized for law enforcement purposes, as proscribed under 42 CFR 2, as amended by 42 U.S.C. 290dd-2. Treatment of a patient shall not be conditioned upon his or her written consent.

(A) an electronic device compatible with the receiving device of the central repository;

(B) a computer diskette;

(C) a magnetic tape; or

(D) a pharmacy universal claim form or Pharmacy Inventory Control form.

(3.5) The requirements of paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection also apply to opioid treatment programs that are licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services' Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery and are authorized by the federal Drug Enforcement Administration to prescribe Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances for the treatment of opioid use disorders. Opioid treatment programs shall attempt to obtain written patient consent, shall document attempts to obtain the written consent, and shall not transmit information without patient consent. Documentation obtained under this paragraph shall not be utilized for law enforcement purposes, as proscribed under 42 CFR 2, as amended by 42 U.S.C. 290dd-2. Treatment of a patient shall not be conditioned upon his or her written consent.

(4) The Department may impose a civil fine of up to $100 per day for willful failure to report controlled substance dispensing to the Prescription Monitoring Program. The fine shall be calculated on no more than the number of days from the time the report was required to be made until the time the problem was resolved, and shall be payable to the Prescription Monitoring Program.

(a-5) Notwithstanding subsection (a), a licensed veterinarian is exempt from the reporting requirements of this Section. If a person who is presenting an animal for treatment is suspected of fraudulently obtaining any controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance, the licensed veterinarian shall report that information to the local law enforcement agency.

(b) The Department, by rule, may include in the Prescription Monitoring Program certain other select drugs that are not included in Schedule II, III, IV, or V. The Prescription Monitoring Program does not apply to controlled substance prescriptions as exempted under Section 313.

(c) The collection of data on select drugs and scheduled substances by the Prescription Monitoring Program may be used as a tool for addressing oversight requirements of long-term care institutions as set forth by Public Act 96-1372. Long-term care pharmacies shall transmit patient medication profiles to the Prescription Monitoring Program monthly or more frequently as established by administrative rule.

(d) The Department of Human Services shall appoint a full-time Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Within one year of January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-564), the Department shall adopt rules requiring all Electronic Health Records Systems to interface with the Prescription Monitoring Program application program on or before January 1, 2021 to ensure that all providers have access to specific patient records during the treatment of their patients. These rules shall also address the electronic integration of pharmacy records with the Prescription Monitoring Program to allow for faster transmission of the information required under this Section. The Department shall establish actions to be taken if a prescriber's Electronic Health Records System does not effectively interface with the Prescription Monitoring Program within the required timeline.

(g) The Department, in consultation with the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee, shall adopt rules allowing licensed prescribers or pharmacists who have registered to access the Prescription Monitoring Program to authorize a licensed or non-licensed designee employed in that licensed prescriber's office or a licensed designee in a licensed pharmacist's pharmacy who has received training in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and 42 CFR 2 to consult the Prescription Monitoring Program on their behalf. The rules shall include reasonable parameters concerning a practitioner's authority to authorize a designee, and the eligibility of a person to be selected as a designee. In this subsection (g), "pharmacist" shall include a clinical pharmacist employed by and designated by a Medicaid Managed Care Organization providing services under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code under a contract with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services for the sole purpose of clinical review of services provided to persons covered by the entity under the contract to determine compliance with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. A managed care entity pharmacist shall notify prescribers of review activities.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-414, eff. 8-16-19; 102-527, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-24-21.)

Section 620. The Prevention of Tobacco Use by Persons under 21 Years of Age and Sale and Distribution of Tobacco Products Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 675/1) (from Ch. 23, par. 2357)

Sec. 1. Prohibition on sale of tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, and alternative nicotine products to persons under 21 years of age; prohibition on the distribution of tobacco product samples, electronic cigarette samples, and alternative nicotine product samples to any person; use of identification cards; vending machines; lunch wagons; out-of-package sales.

(a) No person shall sell, buy for, distribute samples of or furnish any tobacco product, electronic cigarette, or alternative nicotine product to any person under 21 years of age.

(a-5) No person under 16 years of age may sell any tobacco product, electronic cigarette, or alternative nicotine product at a retail establishment selling tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, or alternative nicotine products. This subsection does not apply to a sales clerk in a family-owned business which can prove that the sales clerk is in fact a son or daughter of the owner.

(a-5.1) Before selling, offering for sale, giving, or furnishing a tobacco product, electronic cigarette, or alternative nicotine product to another person, the person selling, offering for sale, giving, or furnishing the tobacco product, electronic cigarette, or alternative nicotine product shall verify that the person is at least 21 years of age by:

(1) examining from any person that appears to be under 30 years of age a government-issued photographic identification that establishes the person to be 21 years of age or older; or

(2) for sales of tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, or alternative nicotine products made through the Internet or other remote sales methods, performing an age verification through an independent, third party age verification service that compares information available from public records to the personal information entered by the person during the ordering process that establishes the person is 21 years of age or older.

(a-6) No person under 21 years of age in the furtherance or facilitation of obtaining any tobacco product, electronic cigarette, or alternative nicotine product shall display or use a false or forged identification card or transfer, alter, or deface an identification card.

(a-7) (Blank).

(a-8) A person shall not distribute without charge samples of any tobacco product, alternative nicotine product, or electronic cigarette to any other person, regardless of age, except for smokeless tobacco in an adult-only facility.

This subsection (a-8) does not apply to the distribution of a tobacco product, electronic cigarette, or alternative nicotine product sample in any adult-only facility.

(a-9) For the purpose of this Section:

"Adult-only facility" means a facility or restricted area (whether open-air or enclosed) where the operator ensures or has a reasonable basis to believe (such as by checking identification as required under State law, or by checking the identification of any person appearing to be under the age of 30) that no person under legal age is present. A facility or restricted area need not be permanently restricted to persons under 21 years of age to constitute an adult-only facility, provided that the operator ensures or has a reasonable basis to believe that no person under 21 years of age is present during the event or time period in question.

"Alternative nicotine product" means a product or device not consisting of or containing tobacco that provides for the ingestion into the body of nicotine, whether by chewing, smoking, absorbing, dissolving, inhaling, snorting, sniffing, or by any other means. "Alternative nicotine product" does not include: cigarettes as defined in Section 1 of the Cigarette Tax Act and tobacco products as defined in Section 10-5 of the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995; tobacco product and electronic cigarette as defined in this Section; or any product approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for sale as a tobacco cessation product, as a tobacco dependence product, or for other medical purposes, and is being marketed and sold solely for that approved purpose.

"Electronic cigarette" means:

(1) any device that employs a battery or other mechanism to heat a solution or substance to produce a vapor or aerosol intended for inhalation;

(2) any cartridge or container of a solution or substance intended to be used with or in the device or to refill the device; or

(3) any solution or substance, whether or not it contains nicotine intended for use in the device.

"Electronic cigarette" includes, but is not limited to, any electronic nicotine delivery system, electronic cigar, electronic cigarillo, electronic pipe, electronic hookah, vape pen, or similar product or device, any components or parts that can be used to build the product or device, and any component, part, or accessory of a device used during the operation of the device, even if the part or accessory was sold separately. "Electronic cigarette" does not include: cigarettes as defined in Section 1 of the Cigarette Tax Act; tobacco product and alternative nicotine product as defined in this Section; any product approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for sale as a tobacco cessation product, as a tobacco dependence product, or for other medical purposes, and is being marketed and sold solely for that approved purpose; any asthma inhaler prescribed by a physician for that condition and is being marketed and sold solely for that approved purpose; any device that meets the definition of cannabis paraphernalia under Section 1-10 of the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act; or any cannabis product sold by a dispensing organization pursuant to the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act or the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Program Act.

"Lunch wagon" means a mobile vehicle designed and constructed to transport food and from which food is sold to the general public.

"Nicotine" means any form of the chemical nicotine, including any salt or complex, regardless of whether the chemical is naturally or synthetically derived.

"Tobacco product" means any product containing or made from tobacco that is intended for human consumption, whether smoked, heated, chewed, absorbed, dissolved, inhaled, snorted, sniffed, or ingested by any other means, including, but not limited to, cigarettes, cigars, little cigars, chewing tobacco, pipe tobacco, snuff, snus, and any other smokeless tobacco product which contains tobacco that is finely cut, ground, powdered, or leaf and intended to be placed in the oral cavity. "Tobacco product" includes any component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product, whether or not sold separately. "Tobacco product" does not include: an alternative nicotine product as defined in this Section; or any product that has been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for sale as a tobacco cessation product, as a tobacco dependence product, or for other medical purposes, and is being marketed and sold solely for that approved purpose.

(b) Tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, and alternative nicotine products may be sold through a vending machine only if such tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, and alternative nicotine products are not placed together with any non-tobacco product, other than matches, in the vending machine and the vending machine is in any of the following locations:

(1) (Blank).

(2) Places to which persons under 21 years of age are not permitted access at any time.

(3) Places where alcoholic beverages are sold and consumed on the premises and vending machine operation is under the direct supervision of the owner or manager.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) The sale or distribution by any person of a tobacco product as defined in this Section, including, but not limited to, a single or loose cigarette, that is not contained within a sealed container, pack, or package as provided by the manufacturer, which container, pack, or package bears the health warning required by federal law, is prohibited.

(e) It is not a violation of this Act for a person under 21 years of age to purchase a tobacco product, electronic cigarette, or alternative nicotine product if the person under the age of 21 purchases or is given the tobacco product, electronic cigarette, or alternative nicotine product in any of its forms from a retail seller of tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, or alternative nicotine products or an employee of the retail seller pursuant to a plan or action to investigate, patrol, or otherwise conduct a "sting operation" or enforcement action against a retail seller of tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, or alternative nicotine products or a person employed by the retail seller of tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, or alternative nicotine products or on any premises authorized to sell tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, or alternative nicotine products to determine if tobacco products, electronic cigarettes, or alternative nicotine products are being sold or given to persons under 21 years of age if the "sting operation" or enforcement action is approved by, conducted by, or conducted on behalf of the Illinois State Police, the county sheriff, a municipal police department, the Department of Revenue, the Department of Public Health, or a local health department. The results of any sting operation or enforcement action, including the name of the clerk, shall be provided to the retail seller within 7 business days.

(f) No person shall honor or accept any discount, coupon, or other benefit or reduction in price that is inconsistent with 21 CFR 1140, subsequent United States Food and Drug Administration industry guidance, or any rules adopted under 21 CFR 1140.

(g) Any peace officer or duly authorized member of the Illinois State Police, a county sheriff's department, a municipal police department, the Department of Revenue, the Department of Public Health, a local health department, or the Department of Human Services, upon discovering a violation of subsection (a), (a-5), (a-5.1), (a-8), (b), or (d) of this Section or a violation of the Preventing Youth Vaping Act, may seize any tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or electronic cigarettes of the specific type involved in that violation that are located at that place of business. The tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or electronic cigarettes so seized are subject to confiscation and forfeiture.

(h) If, within 60 days after any seizure under subsection (g), a person having any property interest in the seized property is charged with an offense under this Section or a violation of the Preventing Youth Vaping Act, the court that renders judgment upon the charge shall, within 30 days after the judgment, conduct a forfeiture hearing to determine whether the seized tobacco products or electronic cigarettes were part of the inventory located at the place of business when a violation of subsection (a), (a-5), (a-5.1), (a-8), (b), or (d) of this Section or a violation of the Preventing Youth Vaping Act occurred and whether any seized tobacco products or electronic cigarettes were of a type involved in that violation. The hearing shall be commenced by a written petition by the State, which shall include material allegations of fact, the name and address of every person determined by the State to have any property interest in the seized property, a representation that written notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing has been mailed to every such person by certified mail at least 10 days before the date, and a request for forfeiture. Every such person may appear as a party and present evidence at the hearing. The quantum of proof required shall be a preponderance of the evidence, and the burden of proof shall be on the State. If the court determines that the seized property was subject to forfeiture, an order of forfeiture and disposition of the seized property shall be entered and the property shall be received by the prosecuting office, who shall effect its destruction.

(i) If a seizure under subsection (g) is not followed by a charge under subsection (a), (a-5), (a-5.1), (a-8), (b), or (d) of this Section or under the Preventing Youth Vaping Act, or if the prosecution of the charge is permanently terminated or indefinitely discontinued without any judgment of conviction or acquittal:

(1) the prosecuting office may commence in the circuit court an in rem proceeding for the forfeiture and destruction of any seized tobacco products or electronic cigarettes; and

(2) any person having any property interest in the seized tobacco products or electronic cigarettes may commence separate civil proceedings in the manner provided by law.

(j) After the Department of Revenue has seized any tobacco product, nicotine product, or electronic cigarette as provided in subsection (g) and a person having any property interest in the seized property has not been charged with an offense under this Section or a violation of the Preventing Youth Vaping Act, the Department of Revenue must hold a hearing and determine whether the seized tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or electronic cigarettes were part of the inventory located at the place of business when a violation of subsection (a), (a-5), (a-5.1), (a-8), (b), or (d) of this Section or a violation of the Preventing Youth Vaping Act occurred and whether any seized tobacco product, alternative nicotine product, or electronic cigarette was of a type involved in that violation. The Department of Revenue shall give not less than 20 days' notice of the time and place of the hearing to the owner of the property, if the owner is known, and also to the person in whose possession the property was found if that person is known and if the person in possession is not the owner of the property. If neither the owner nor the person in possession of the property is known, the Department of Revenue must cause publication of the time and place of the hearing to be made at least once each week for 3 weeks successively in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where the hearing is to be held.

If, as the result of the hearing, the Department of Revenue determines that the tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or the electronic cigarettes were part of the inventory located at the place of business when a violation of subsection (a), (a-5), (a-5.1), (a-8), (b), or (d) of this Section or a violation of the Preventing Youth Vaping Act at the time of seizure, the Department of Revenue must enter an order declaring the tobacco product, alternative nicotine product, or electronic cigarette confiscated and forfeited to the State, to be held by the Department of Revenue for disposal by it as provided in Section 10-58 of the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995. The Department of Revenue must give notice of the order to the owner of the property, if the owner is known, and also to the person in whose possession the property was found if that person is known and if the person in possession is not the owner of the property. If neither the owner nor the person in possession of the property is known, the Department of Revenue must cause publication of the order to be made at least once each week for 3 weeks successively in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where the hearing was held.

(Source: P.A. 101-2, eff. 7-1-19; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-575, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-20-21.)

Section 625. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 106D-1, 107-4, 109-1, 110-1, 110-3, 110-5, 112A-14, 112A-20, and 112A-23 and by renumbering Section 123 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/106D-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 106D-1. Defendant's appearance by closed circuit television and video conference.

(a) Whenever the appearance in person in court, in either a civil or criminal proceeding, is required of anyone held in a place of custody or confinement operated by the State or any of its political subdivisions, including counties and municipalities, the chief judge of the circuit by rule may permit the personal appearance to be made by means of two-way audio-visual communication, including closed circuit television and computerized video conference, in the following proceedings:

(1) the initial appearance before a judge on a criminal complaint, at which bail will be set;

(2) the waiver of a preliminary hearing;

(3) the arraignment on an information or indictment at which a plea of not guilty will be entered;

(4) the presentation of a jury waiver;

(5) any status hearing;

(6) any hearing conducted under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act at which no witness testimony will be taken; and

(7) at any hearing at which no witness testimony will be taken conducted under the following:

(A) Section 104-20 of this Code (90-day hearings);

(B) Section 104-22 of this Code (trial with special provisions and assistance);

(C) Section 104-25 of this Code (discharge hearing); or

(D) Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections (proceedings after acquittal by reason of insanity).

(b) The two-way audio-visual communication facilities must provide two-way audio-visual communication between the court and the place of custody or confinement, and must include a secure line over which the person in custody and his or her counsel, if any, may communicate.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit other court appearances through the use of two-way audio-visual communication, upon waiver of any right the person in custody or confinement may have to be present physically.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to establish a right of any person held in custody or confinement to appear in court through two-way audio-visual communication or to require that any governmental entity, or place of custody or confinement, provide two-way audio-visual communication.

(Source: P.A. 102-486, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 106D-1. Defendant's appearance by closed circuit television and video conference.

(a) Whenever the appearance in person in court, in either a civil or criminal proceeding, is required of anyone held in a place of custody or confinement operated by the State or any of its political subdivisions, including counties and municipalities, the chief judge of the circuit by rule may permit the personal appearance to be made by means of two-way audio-visual communication, including closed circuit television and computerized video conference, in the following proceedings:

(1) the initial appearance before a judge on a criminal complaint, at which the conditions of pretrial release will be set;

(2) the waiver of a preliminary hearing;

(3) the arraignment on an information or indictment at which a plea of not guilty will be entered;

(4) the presentation of a jury waiver;

(5) any status hearing;

(6) any hearing conducted under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act at which no witness testimony will be taken; and

(7) at any hearing at which no witness testimony will be taken conducted under the following:

(A) Section 104-20 of this Code (90-day hearings);

(B) Section 104-22 of this Code (trial with special provisions and assistance);

(C) Section 104-25 of this Code (discharge hearing); or

(D) Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections (proceedings after acquittal by reason of insanity).

(b) The two-way audio-visual communication facilities must provide two-way audio-visual communication between the court and the place of custody or confinement, and must include a secure line over which the person in custody and his or her counsel, if any, may communicate.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit other court appearances through the use of two-way audio-visual communication, upon waiver of any right the person in custody or confinement may have to be present physically.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to establish a right of any person held in custody or confinement to appear in court through two-way audio-visual communication or to require that any governmental entity, or place of custody or confinement, provide two-way audio-visual communication.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-486, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/107-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 107-4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 107-4. Arrest by peace officer from other jurisdiction.

(a) As used in this Section:

(1) "State" means any State of the United States and the District of Columbia.

(2) "Peace Officer" means any peace officer or member of any duly organized State, County, or Municipal peace unit, any police force of another State, the United States Department of Defense, or any police force whose members, by statute, are granted and authorized to exercise powers similar to those conferred upon any peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State.

(3) "Fresh pursuit" means the immediate pursuit of a person who is endeavoring to avoid arrest.

(4) "Law enforcement agency" means a municipal police department or county sheriff's office of this State.

(a-3) Any peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State may conduct temporary questioning pursuant to Section 107-14 of this Code and may make arrests in any jurisdiction within this State: (1) if the officer is engaged in the investigation of criminal activity that occurred in the officer's primary jurisdiction and the temporary questioning or arrest relates to, arises from, or is conducted pursuant to that investigation; or (2) if the officer, while on duty as a peace officer, becomes personally aware of the immediate commission of a felony or misdemeanor violation of the laws of this State; or (3) if the officer, while on duty as a peace officer, is requested by an appropriate State or local law enforcement official to render aid or assistance to the requesting law enforcement agency that is outside the officer's primary jurisdiction; or (4) in accordance with Section 2605-580 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. While acting pursuant to this subsection, an officer has the same authority as within his or her own jurisdiction.

(a-7) The law enforcement agency of the county or municipality in which any arrest is made under this Section shall be immediately notified of the arrest.

(b) Any peace officer of another State who enters this State in fresh pursuit and continues within this State in fresh pursuit of a person in order to arrest him on the ground that he has committed an offense in the other State has the same authority to arrest and hold the person in custody as peace officers of this State have to arrest and hold a person in custody on the ground that he has committed an offense in this State.

(c) If an arrest is made in this State by a peace officer of another State in accordance with the provisions of this Section he shall without unnecessary delay take the person arrested before the circuit court of the county in which the arrest was made. Such court shall conduct a hearing for the purpose of determining the lawfulness of the arrest. If the court determines that the arrest was lawful it shall commit the person arrested, to await for a reasonable time the issuance of an extradition warrant by the Governor of this State, or admit him to bail for such purpose. If the court determines that the arrest was unlawful it shall discharge the person arrested.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 107-4. Arrest by peace officer from other jurisdiction.

(a) As used in this Section:

(1) "State" means any State of the United States and the District of Columbia.

(2) "Peace Officer" means any peace officer or member of any duly organized State, County, or Municipal peace unit, any police force of another State, the United States Department of Defense, or any police force whose members, by statute, are granted and authorized to exercise powers similar to those conferred upon any peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State.

(3) "Fresh pursuit" means the immediate pursuit of a person who is endeavoring to avoid arrest.

(4) "Law enforcement agency" means a municipal police department or county sheriff's office of this State.

(a-3) Any peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State may conduct temporary questioning pursuant to Section 107-14 of this Code and may make arrests in any jurisdiction within this State: (1) if the officer is engaged in the investigation of criminal activity that occurred in the officer's primary jurisdiction and the temporary questioning or arrest relates to, arises from, or is conducted pursuant to that investigation; or (2) if the officer, while on duty as a peace officer, becomes personally aware of the immediate commission of a felony or misdemeanor violation of the laws of this State; or (3) if the officer, while on duty as a peace officer, is requested by an appropriate State or local law enforcement official to render aid or assistance to the requesting law enforcement agency that is outside the officer's primary jurisdiction; or (4) in accordance with Section 2605-580 of the Illinois State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. While acting pursuant to this subsection, an officer has the same authority as within his or her own jurisdiction.

(a-7) The law enforcement agency of the county or municipality in which any arrest is made under this Section shall be immediately notified of the arrest.

(b) Any peace officer of another State who enters this State in fresh pursuit and continues within this State in fresh pursuit of a person in order to arrest him on the ground that he has committed an offense in the other State has the same authority to arrest and hold the person in custody as peace officers of this State have to arrest and hold a person in custody on the ground that he has committed an offense in this State.

(c) If an arrest is made in this State by a peace officer of another State in accordance with the provisions of this Section he shall without unnecessary delay take the person arrested before the circuit court of the county in which the arrest was made. Such court shall conduct a hearing for the purpose of determining the lawfulness of the arrest. If the court determines that the arrest was lawful it shall commit the person arrested, to await for a reasonable time the issuance of an extradition warrant by the Governor of this State, or admit him to pretrial release for such purpose. If the court determines that the arrest was unlawful it shall discharge the person arrested.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-20-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/109-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 109-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 109-1. Person arrested.

(a) A person arrested with or without a warrant shall be taken without unnecessary delay before the nearest and most accessible judge in that county, except when such county is a participant in a regional jail authority, in which event such person may be taken to the nearest and most accessible judge, irrespective of the county where such judge presides, and a charge shall be filed. Whenever a person arrested either with or without a warrant is required to be taken before a judge, a charge may be filed against such person by way of a two-way closed circuit television system, except that a hearing to deny bail to the defendant may not be conducted by way of closed circuit television.

(a-5) A person charged with an offense shall be allowed counsel at the hearing at which bail is determined under Article 110 of this Code. If the defendant desires counsel for his or her initial appearance but is unable to obtain counsel, the court shall appoint a public defender or licensed attorney at law of this State to represent him or her for purposes of that hearing.

(b) The judge shall:

(1) Inform the defendant of the charge against him and shall provide him with a copy of the charge;

(2) Advise the defendant of his right to counsel and if indigent shall appoint a public defender or licensed attorney at law of this State to represent him in accordance with the provisions of Section 113-3 of this Code;

(3) Schedule a preliminary hearing in appropriate cases;

(4) Admit the defendant to bail in accordance with the provisions of Article 110 of this Code; and

(5) Order the confiscation of the person's passport or impose travel restrictions on a defendant arrested for first degree murder or other violent crime as defined in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, if the judge determines, based on the factors in Section 110-5 of this Code, that this will reasonably ensure the appearance of the defendant and compliance by the defendant with all conditions of release.

(c) The court may issue an order of protection in accordance with the provisions of Article 112A of this Code.

(d) At the initial appearance of a defendant in any criminal proceeding, the court must advise the defendant in open court that any foreign national who is arrested or detained has the right to have notice of the arrest or detention given to his or her country's consular representatives and the right to communicate with those consular representatives if the notice has not already been provided. The court must make a written record of so advising the defendant.

(e) If consular notification is not provided to a defendant before his or her first appearance in court, the court shall grant any reasonable request for a continuance of the proceedings to allow contact with the defendant's consulate. Any delay caused by the granting of the request by a defendant shall temporarily suspend for the time of the delay the period within which a person shall be tried as prescribed by subsections (a), (b), or (e) of Section 103-5 of this Code and on the day of the expiration of delay the period shall continue at the point at which it was suspended.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-190, eff. 1-1-16; 100-1, eff. 1-1-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 109-1. Person arrested; release from law enforcement custody and court appearance; geographical constraints prevent in-person appearances.

(a) A person arrested with or without a warrant for an offense for which pretrial release may be denied under paragraphs (1) through (6) of Section 110-6.1 shall be taken without unnecessary delay before the nearest and most accessible judge in that county, except when such county is a participant in a regional jail authority, in which event such person may be taken to the nearest and most accessible judge, irrespective of the county where such judge presides, and a charge shall be filed. Whenever a person arrested either with or without a warrant is required to be taken before a judge, a charge may be filed against such person by way of a two-way closed circuit television system, except that a hearing to deny pretrial release to the defendant may not be conducted by way of closed circuit television.

(a-1) Law enforcement shall issue a citation in lieu of custodial arrest, upon proper identification, for those accused of traffic and Class B and C criminal misdemeanor offenses, or of petty and business offenses, who pose no obvious threat to the community or any person, or who have no obvious medical or mental health issues that pose a risk to their own safety. Those released on citation shall be scheduled into court within 21 days.

(a-3) A person arrested with or without a warrant for an offense for which pretrial release may not be denied may, except as otherwise provided in this Code, be released by the officer without appearing before a judge. The releasing officer shall issue the person a summons to appear within 21 days. A presumption in favor of pretrial release shall be by applied by an arresting officer in the exercise of his or her discretion under this Section.

(a-5) A person charged with an offense shall be allowed counsel at the hearing at which pretrial release is determined under Article 110 of this Code. If the defendant desires counsel for his or her initial appearance but is unable to obtain counsel, the court shall appoint a public defender or licensed attorney at law of this State to represent him or her for purposes of that hearing.

(b) Upon initial appearance of a person before the court, the judge shall:

(1) inform the defendant of the charge against him and shall provide him with a copy of the charge;

(2) advise the defendant of his right to counsel and if indigent shall appoint a public defender or licensed attorney at law of this State to represent him in accordance with the provisions of Section 113-3 of this Code;

(3) schedule a preliminary hearing in appropriate cases;

(4) admit the defendant to pretrial release in accordance with the provisions of Article 110 110/5 of this Code, or upon verified petition of the State, proceed with the setting of a detention hearing as provided in Section 110-6.1; and

(5) order Order the confiscation of the person's passport or impose travel restrictions on a defendant arrested for first degree murder or other violent crime as defined in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, if the judge determines, based on the factors in Section 110-5 of this Code, that this will reasonably ensure the appearance of the defendant and compliance by the defendant with all conditions of release.

(c) The court may issue an order of protection in accordance with the provisions of Article 112A of this Code. Crime victims shall be given notice by the State's Attorney's office of this hearing as required in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and shall be informed of their opportunity at this hearing to obtain an order of protection under Article 112A of this Code.

(d) At the initial appearance of a defendant in any criminal proceeding, the court must advise the defendant in open court that any foreign national who is arrested or detained has the right to have notice of the arrest or detention given to his or her country's consular representatives and the right to communicate with those consular representatives if the notice has not already been provided. The court must make a written record of so advising the defendant.

(e) If consular notification is not provided to a defendant before his or her first appearance in court, the court shall grant any reasonable request for a continuance of the proceedings to allow contact with the defendant's consulate. Any delay caused by the granting of the request by a defendant shall temporarily suspend for the time of the delay the period within which a person shall be tried as prescribed by subsection subsections (a), (b), or (e) of Section 103-5 of this Code and on the day of the expiration of delay the period shall continue at the point at which it was suspended.

(f) At the hearing at which conditions of pretrial release are determined, the person charged shall be present in person rather than by video phone or any other form of electronic communication, unless the physical health and safety of the person would be endangered by appearing in court or the accused waives the right to be present in person.

(g) Defense counsel shall be given adequate opportunity to confer with the defendant Defendant prior to any hearing in which conditions of release or the detention of the defendant Defendant is to be considered, with a physical accommodation made to facilitate attorney/client consultation.

(Source: P.A. 100-1, eff. 1-1-18; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; revised 11-24-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 110-1. Definitions.

(a) "Security" is that which is required to be pledged to insure the payment of bail.

(b) "Sureties" encompasses the monetary and nonmonetary requirements set by the court as conditions for release either before or after conviction. "Surety" is one who executes a bail bond and binds himself to pay the bail if the person in custody fails to comply with all conditions of the bail bond.

(c) The phrase "for which a sentence of imprisonment, without conditional and revocable release, shall be imposed by law as a consequence of conviction" means an offense for which a sentence of imprisonment, without probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge, is required by law upon conviction.

(d) "Real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons", as used in this Article, includes a threat to the community, person, persons or class of persons.

(Source: P.A. 85-892.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 110-1. Definitions. As used in this Article:

(a) (Blank).

(b) "Sureties" encompasses the monetary and nonmonetary requirements set by the court as conditions for release either before or after conviction.

(c) The phrase "for which a sentence of imprisonment, without conditional and revocable release, shall be imposed by law as a consequence of conviction" means an offense for which a sentence of imprisonment, without probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge, is required by law upon conviction.

(d) (Blank).)

(e) "Willful flight" means planning or attempting to intentionally evade prosecution by concealing oneself. Simple past non-appearance in court alone is not evidence of future intent to evade prosecution.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; revised 11-24-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 110-3. Issuance of warrant. Upon failure to comply with any condition of a bail bond or recognizance, the court having jurisdiction at the time of such failure may, in addition to any other action provided by law, issue a warrant for the arrest of the person at liberty on bail or his own recognizance. The contents of such a warrant shall be the same as required for an arrest warrant issued upon complaint. When a defendant is at liberty on bail or his own recognizance on a felony charge and fails to appear in court as directed, the court shall issue a warrant for the arrest of such person. Such warrant shall be noted with a directive to peace officers to arrest the person and hold such person without bail and to deliver such person before the court for further proceedings. A defendant who is arrested or surrenders within 30 days of the issuance of such warrant shall not be bailable in the case in question unless he shows by the preponderance of the evidence that his failure to appear was not intentional.

(Source: P.A. 86-298; 86-984; 86-1028; revised 12-13-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 110-3. Options for warrant alternatives.

(a) Upon failure to comply with any condition of pretrial release or recognizance, the court having jurisdiction at the time of such failure may, on its own motion or upon motion from the State, issue an order to show cause as to why he or she shall not be subject to revocation of pretrial release, or for sanctions, as provided in Section 110-6. Nothing in this Section prohibits the court from issuing a warrant under subsection (c) upon failure to comply with any condition of pretrial release or recognizance.

(b) The order issued by the court shall state the facts alleged to constitute the hearing to show cause or otherwise why the person is subject to revocation of pretrial release. A certified copy of the order shall be served upon the person at least 48 hours in advance of the scheduled hearing.

(c) If the person does not appear at the hearing to show cause or absconds, the court may, in addition to any other action provided by law, issue a warrant for the arrest of the person at liberty on pretrial release. The contents of such a warrant shall be the same as required for an arrest warrant issued upon complaint and may modify any previously imposed conditions placed upon the person, rather than revoking pretrial release or issuing a warrant for the person in accordance with the requirements in subsections (d) and (e) of Section 110-5. When a defendant is at liberty on pretrial release or his own recognizance on a felony charge and fails to appear in court as directed, the court may issue a warrant for the arrest of such person after his or her failure to appear at the show for cause hearing as provided in this Section. Such warrant shall be noted with a directive to peace officers to arrest the person and hold such person without pretrial release and to deliver such person before the court for further proceedings.

(d) If the order as described in subsection (b) Subsection B is issued, a failure to appear shall not be recorded until the defendant Defendant fails to appear at the hearing to show cause. For the purpose of any risk assessment or future evaluation of risk of willful flight or risk of failure to appear, a non-appearance in court cured by an appearance at the hearing to show cause shall not be considered as evidence of future likelihood of appearance in court.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; revised 12-13-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/110-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 110-5. Determining the amount of bail and conditions of release.

(a) In determining the amount of monetary bail or conditions of release, if any, which will reasonably assure the appearance of a defendant as required or the safety of any other person or the community and the likelihood of compliance by the defendant with all the conditions of bail, the court shall, on the basis of available information, take into account such matters as the nature and circumstances of the offense charged, whether the evidence shows that as part of the offense there was a use of violence or threatened use of violence, whether the offense involved corruption of public officials or employees, whether there was physical harm or threats of physical harm to any public official, public employee, judge, prosecutor, juror or witness, senior citizen, child, or person with a disability, whether evidence shows that during the offense or during the arrest the defendant possessed or used a firearm, machine gun, explosive or metal piercing ammunition or explosive bomb device or any military or paramilitary armament, whether the evidence shows that the offense committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, the condition of the victim, any written statement submitted by the victim or proffer or representation by the State regarding the impact which the alleged criminal conduct has had on the victim and the victim's concern, if any, with further contact with the defendant if released on bail, whether the offense was based on racial, religious, sexual orientation or ethnic hatred, the likelihood of the filing of a greater charge, the likelihood of conviction, the sentence applicable upon conviction, the weight of the evidence against such defendant, whether there exists motivation or ability to flee, whether there is any verification as to prior residence, education, or family ties in the local jurisdiction, in another county, state or foreign country, the defendant's employment, financial resources, character and mental condition, past conduct, prior use of alias names or dates of birth, and length of residence in the community, the consent of the defendant to periodic drug testing in accordance with Section 110-6.5, whether a foreign national defendant is lawfully admitted in the United States of America, whether the government of the foreign national maintains an extradition treaty with the United States by which the foreign government will extradite to the United States its national for a trial for a crime allegedly committed in the United States, whether the defendant is currently subject to deportation or exclusion under the immigration laws of the United States, whether the defendant, although a United States citizen, is considered under the law of any foreign state a national of that state for the purposes of extradition or non-extradition to the United States, the amount of unrecovered proceeds lost as a result of the alleged offense, the source of bail funds tendered or sought to be tendered for bail, whether from the totality of the court's consideration, the loss of funds posted or sought to be posted for bail will not deter the defendant from flight, whether the evidence shows that the defendant is engaged in significant possession, manufacture, or delivery of a controlled substance or cannabis, either individually or in consort with others, whether at the time of the offense charged he or she was on bond or pre-trial release pending trial, probation, periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge pursuant to this Code or the comparable Code of any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is on bond or pre-trial release pending the imposition or execution of sentence or appeal of sentence for any offense under the laws of Illinois or any other state or federal jurisdiction, whether the defendant is under parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, or work release from the Illinois Department of Corrections or Illinois Department of Juvenile Justice or any penal institution or corrections department of any state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's record of convictions, whether the defendant has been convicted of a misdemeanor or ordinance offense in Illinois or similar offense in other state or federal jurisdiction within the 10 years preceding the current charge or convicted of a felony in Illinois, whether the defendant was convicted of an offense in another state or federal jurisdiction that would be a felony if committed in Illinois within the 20 years preceding the current charge or has been convicted of such felony and released from the penitentiary within 20 years preceding the current charge if a penitentiary sentence was imposed in Illinois or other state or federal jurisdiction, the defendant's records of juvenile adjudication of delinquency in any jurisdiction, any record of appearance or failure to appear by the defendant at court proceedings, whether there was flight to avoid arrest or prosecution, whether the defendant escaped or attempted to escape to avoid arrest, whether the defendant refused to identify himself or herself, or whether there was a refusal by the defendant to be fingerprinted as required by law. Information used by the court in its findings or stated in or offered in connection with this Section may be by way of proffer based upon reliable information offered by the State or defendant. All evidence shall be admissible if it is relevant and reliable regardless of whether it would be admissible under the rules of evidence applicable at criminal trials. If the State presents evidence that the offense committed by the defendant was related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership in or allegiance to an organized gang, and if the court determines that the evidence may be substantiated, the court shall prohibit the defendant from associating with other members of the organized gang as a condition of bail or release. For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(a-5) There shall be a presumption that any conditions of release imposed shall be non-monetary in nature and the court shall impose the least restrictive conditions or combination of conditions necessary to reasonably assure the appearance of the defendant for further court proceedings and protect the integrity of the judicial proceedings from a specific threat to a witness or participant. Conditions of release may include, but not be limited to, electronic home monitoring, curfews, drug counseling, stay-away orders, and in-person reporting. The court shall consider the defendant's socio-economic circumstance when setting conditions of release or imposing monetary bail.

(b) The amount of bail shall be:

(1) Sufficient to assure compliance with the conditions set forth in the bail bond, which shall include the defendant's current address with a written admonishment to the defendant that he or she must comply with the provisions of Section 110-12 regarding any change in his or her address. The defendant's address shall at all times remain a matter of public record with the clerk of the court.

(2) Not oppressive.

(3) Considerate of the financial ability of the accused.

(4) When a person is charged with a drug related offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or possession or delivery of a controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the full street value of the drugs seized shall be considered. "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the basis of a proffer by the State based upon reliable information of a law enforcement official contained in a written report as to the amount seized and such proffer may be used by the court as to the current street value of the smallest unit of the drug seized.

(b-5) Upon the filing of a written request demonstrating reasonable cause, the State's Attorney may request a source of bail hearing either before or after the posting of any funds. If the hearing is granted, before the posting of any bail, the accused must file a written notice requesting that the court conduct a source of bail hearing. The notice must be accompanied by justifying affidavits stating the legitimate and lawful source of funds for bail. At the hearing, the court shall inquire into any matters stated in any justifying affidavits, and may also inquire into matters appropriate to the determination which shall include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of any surety; and

(2) the source of any money or property deposited by any surety, and whether any such money or property constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(3) the source of any money posted as cash bail, and whether any such money constitutes the fruits of criminal or unlawful conduct; and

(4) the background, character, reputation, and relationship to the accused of the person posting cash bail.

Upon setting the hearing, the court shall examine, under oath, any persons who may possess material information.

The State's Attorney has a right to attend the hearing, to call witnesses and to examine any witness in the proceeding. The court shall, upon request of the State's Attorney, continue the proceedings for a reasonable period to allow the State's Attorney to investigate the matter raised in any testimony or affidavit. If the hearing is granted after the accused has posted bail, the court shall conduct a hearing consistent with this subsection (b-5). At the conclusion of the hearing, the court must issue an order either approving or disapproving the bail.

(c) When a person is charged with an offense punishable by fine only the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the maximum penalty.

(d) When a person has been convicted of an offense and only a fine has been imposed the amount of the bail shall not exceed double the amount of the fine.

(e) The State may appeal any order granting bail or setting a given amount for bail.

(f) When a person is charged with a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or when a person is charged with domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, kidnapping, aggravated kidnaping, unlawful restraint, aggravated unlawful restraint, stalking, aggravated stalking, cyberstalking, harassment by telephone, harassment through electronic communications, or an attempt to commit first degree murder committed against an intimate partner regardless whether an order of protection has been issued against the person,

(1) whether the alleged incident involved harassment or abuse, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(2) whether the person has a history of domestic violence, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, or a history of other criminal acts;

(3) based on the mental health of the person;

(4) whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(5) whether the person has been, or is, potentially a threat to any other person;

(6) whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(7) whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(8) based on the severity of the alleged incident that is the basis of the alleged offense, including, but not limited to, the duration of the current incident, and whether the alleged incident involved the use of a weapon, physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim's pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(9) whether a separation of the person from the alleged victim or a termination of the relationship between the person and the alleged victim has recently occurred or is pending;

(10) whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the alleged victim, including, but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the alleged victim or victim's family member or members;

(11) whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(12) based on any information contained in the complaint and any police reports, affidavits, or other documents accompanying the complaint,

the court may, in its discretion, order the respondent to undergo a risk assessment evaluation using a recognized, evidence-based instrument conducted by an Illinois Department of Human Services approved partner abuse intervention program provider, pretrial service, probation, or parole agency. These agencies shall have access to summaries of the defendant's criminal history, which shall not include victim interviews or information, for the risk evaluation. Based on the information collected from the 12 points to be considered at a bail hearing under this subsection (f), the results of any risk evaluation conducted and the other circumstances of the violation, the court may order that the person, as a condition of bail, be placed under electronic surveillance as provided in Section 5-8A-7 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Upon making a determination whether or not to order the respondent to undergo a risk assessment evaluation or to be placed under electronic surveillance and risk assessment, the court shall document in the record the court's reasons for making those determinations. The cost of the electronic surveillance and risk assessment shall be paid by, or on behalf, of the defendant. As used in this subsection (f), "intimate partner" means a spouse or a current or former partner in a cohabitation or dating relationship.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-1, eff. 1-1-18; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 110-5. Determining the amount of bail and conditions of release.

(a) In determining which or conditions of pretrial release, if any, which will reasonably assure the appearance of a defendant as required or the safety of any other person or the community and the likelihood of compliance by the defendant with all the conditions of pretrial release, the court shall, on the basis of available information, take into account such matters as:

(1) the nature and circumstances of the offense charged;

(2) the weight of the evidence against the eligible defendant, except that the court may consider the admissibility of any evidence sought to be excluded;

(3) the history and characteristics of the eligible defendant, including:

(A) the eligible defendant's character, physical and mental condition, family ties, employment, financial resources, length of residence in the community, community ties, past relating to drug or alcohol abuse, conduct, history criminal history, and record concerning appearance at court proceedings; and

(B) whether, at the time of the current offense or arrest, the eligible defendant was on probation, parole, or on other release pending trial, sentencing, appeal, or completion of sentence for an offense under federal law, or the law of this or any other state;

(4) the nature and seriousness of the specific, real and present threat to any person that would be posed by the eligible defendant's release, if applicable, ; as required under paragraph (7.5) of Section 4 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act; and

(5) the nature and seriousness of the risk of obstructing or attempting to obstruct the criminal justice process that would be posed by the eligible defendant's release, if applicable.

(b) The court shall impose any conditions that are mandatory under Section 110-10. The court may impose any conditions that are permissible under Section 110-10.

(b-5) When a person is charged with a violation of an order of protection under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or when a person is charged with domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, kidnapping, aggravated kidnaping, unlawful restraint, aggravated unlawful restraint, stalking, aggravated stalking, cyberstalking, harassment by telephone, harassment through electronic communications, or an attempt to commit first degree murder committed against an intimate partner regardless whether an order of protection has been issued against the person,

(1) whether the alleged incident involved harassment or abuse, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986;

(2) whether the person has a history of domestic violence, as defined in the Illinois Domestic Violence Act, or a history of other criminal acts;

(3) based on the mental health of the person;

(4) whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(5) whether the person has been, or is, potentially a threat to any other person;

(6) whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(7) whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(8) based on the severity of the alleged incident that is the basis of the alleged offense, including, but not limited to, the duration of the current incident, and whether the alleged incident involved the use of a weapon, physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim's pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(9) whether a separation of the person from the victim of abuse or a termination of the relationship between the person and the victim of abuse has recently occurred or is pending;

(10) whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the victim of abuse, including, but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the victim of abuse or victim's family member or members;

(11) whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(11.5) any other factors deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior.

(c) In cases of stalking or aggravated stalking under Section 12-7.3 or 12-7.4 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court may consider the following additional factors:

(1) Any evidence of the defendant's prior criminal history indicative of violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior. The evidence may include testimony or documents received in juvenile proceedings, criminal, quasi-criminal, civil commitment, domestic relations or other proceedings;

(2) Any evidence of the defendant's psychological, psychiatric or other similar social history that tends to indicate a violent, abusive, or assaultive nature, or lack of any such history; .

(3) The nature of the threat which is the basis of the charge against the defendant;

(4) Any statements made by, or attributed to the defendant, together with the circumstances surrounding them;

(5) The age and physical condition of any person allegedly assaulted by the defendant;

(6) Whether the defendant is known to possess or have access to any weapon or weapons;

(7) Any other factors deemed by the court to have a reasonable bearing upon the defendant's propensity or reputation for violent, abusive or assaultive behavior, or lack of that behavior.

(d) The Court may use a regularly validated risk assessment tool to aid its determination of appropriate conditions of release as provided for in Section 110-6.4. Risk assessment tools may not be used as the sole basis to deny pretrial release. If a risk assessment tool is used, the defendant's counsel shall be provided with the information and scoring system of the risk assessment tool used to arrive at the determination. The defendant retains the right to challenge the validity of a risk assessment tool used by the court and to present evidence relevant to the defendant's challenge.

(e) If a person remains in pretrial detention after his or her pretrial conditions hearing after having been ordered released with pretrial conditions, the court shall hold a hearing to determine the reason for continued detention. If the reason for continued detention is due to the unavailability or the defendant's ineligibility for one or more pretrial conditions previously ordered by the court or directed by a pretrial services agency, the court shall reopen the conditions of release hearing to determine what available pretrial conditions exist that will reasonably assure the appearance of a defendant as required or the safety of any other person and the likelihood of compliance by the defendant with all the conditions of pretrial release. The inability of the defendant Defendant to pay for a condition of release or any other ineligibility for a condition of pretrial release shall not be used as a justification for the pretrial detention of that defendant Defendant.

(f) Prior to the defendant's first appearance, the Court shall appoint the public defender or a licensed attorney at law of this State to represent the defendant Defendant for purposes of that hearing, unless the defendant has obtained licensed counsel for themselves.

(g) Electronic monitoring, GPS monitoring, or home confinement can only be imposed as a condition of pretrial release if a no less restrictive condition of release or combination of less restrictive condition of release would reasonably ensure the appearance of the defendant for later hearings or protect an identifiable person or persons from imminent threat of serious physical harm.

(h) If the court imposes electronic monitoring, GPS monitoring, or home confinement, the court shall set forth in the record the basis for its finding. A defendant shall be given custodial credit for each day he or she was subjected to that program, at the same rate described in subsection (b) of Section 5-4.5-100 of the Unified Code of Corrections unified code of correction.

(i) If electronic monitoring, GPS monitoring, or home confinement is imposed, the court shall determine every 60 days if no less restrictive condition of release or combination of less restrictive conditions of release would reasonably ensure the appearance, or continued appearance, of the defendant for later hearings or protect an identifiable person or persons from imminent threat of serious physical harm. If the court finds that there are less restrictive conditions of release, the court shall order that the condition be removed. This subsection takes effect January 1, 2022.

(j) Crime Victims shall be given notice by the State's Attorney's office of this hearing as required in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 4.5 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and shall be informed of their opportunity at this hearing to obtain an order of protection under Article 112A of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-28, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-15-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14)

Sec. 112A-14. Domestic violence order of protection; remedies.

(a) (Blank).

(b) The court may order any of the remedies listed in this subsection (b). The remedies listed in this subsection (b) shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse, or willful deprivation, as defined in this Article, if such abuse has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in subsection (c-2) of Section 501 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the domestic violence order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

(A) If a domestic violence order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a domestic violence order of protection and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or change of program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. If the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. If the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers, or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If the respondent is charged with abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3 of this Code) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary allocation of parental responsibilities and significant decision-making responsibilities. Award temporary significant decision-making responsibility to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If the respondent is charged with abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3 of this Code) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary significant decision-making responsibility to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Parenting time. Determine the parenting time, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or temporary significant decision-making responsibility of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's parenting time with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following:

(i) abuse or endanger the minor child during parenting time;

(ii) use the parenting time as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members;

(iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or

(iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child.

The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 603.10 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants parenting time, the order shall specify dates and times for the parenting time to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for parenting time shall refer merely to the term "reasonable parenting time". Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for parenting time, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner. If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for parenting time, and the petitioner and respondent shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for parenting time. A person may be approved to supervise parenting time only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner, or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the petitioner and respondent own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging, or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the petitioner and respondent own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or over whom the petitioner has been allocated parental responsibility, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care of a child, prior to entry of an order allocating significant decision-making responsibility. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order allocating parental responsibility differently and vacating petitioner's significant decision-making responsibility unless otherwise provided in the order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs, and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support, or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including, but not limited to, legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(A) A person who is subject to an existing domestic violence order of protection issued under this Code may not lawfully possess weapons or a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(B) Any firearms in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (14.5), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to a person with a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card for safekeeping. The court shall issue an order that the respondent comply with Section 9.5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. Illinois

(C) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the domestic violence order of protection.

(D) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If a domestic violence order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 112A-5 of this Code, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary to establish that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(18) Telephone services.

(A) Unless a condition described in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph exists, the court may, upon request by the petitioner, order a wireless telephone service provider to transfer to the petitioner the right to continue to use a telephone number or numbers indicated by the petitioner and the financial responsibility associated with the number or numbers, as set forth in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph. In this paragraph (18), the term "wireless telephone service provider" means a provider of commercial mobile service as defined in 47 U.S.C. 332. The petitioner may request the transfer of each telephone number that the petitioner, or a minor child in his or her custody, uses. The clerk of the court shall serve the order on the wireless telephone service provider's agent for service of process provided to the Illinois Commerce Commission. The order shall contain all of the following:

(i) The name and billing telephone number of the account holder including the name of the wireless telephone service provider that serves the account.

(ii) Each telephone number that will be transferred.

(iii) A statement that the provider transfers to the petitioner all financial responsibility for and right to the use of any telephone number transferred under this paragraph.

(B) A wireless telephone service provider shall terminate the respondent's use of, and shall transfer to the petitioner use of, the telephone number or numbers indicated in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph unless it notifies the petitioner, within 72 hours after it receives the order, that one of the following applies:

(i) The account holder named in the order has terminated the account.

(ii) A difference in network technology would prevent or impair the functionality of a device on a network if the transfer occurs.

(iii) The transfer would cause a geographic or other limitation on network or service provision to the petitioner.

(iv) Another technological or operational issue would prevent or impair the use of the telephone number if the transfer occurs.

(C) The petitioner assumes all financial responsibility for and right to the use of any telephone number transferred under this paragraph. In this paragraph, "financial responsibility" includes monthly service costs and costs associated with any mobile device associated with the number.

(D) A wireless telephone service provider may apply to the petitioner its routine and customary requirements for establishing an account or transferring a number, including requiring the petitioner to provide proof of identification, financial information, and customer preferences.

(E) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a wireless telephone service provider is immune from civil liability for its actions taken in compliance with a court order issued under this paragraph.

(F) All wireless service providers that provide services to residential customers shall provide to the Illinois Commerce Commission the name and address of an agent for service of orders entered under this paragraph (18). Any change in status of the registered agent must be reported to the Illinois Commerce Commission within 30 days of such change.

(G) The Illinois Commerce Commission shall maintain the list of registered agents for service for each wireless telephone service provider on the Commission's website. The Commission may consult with wireless telephone service providers and the Circuit Court Clerks on the manner in which this information is provided and displayed.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern, and consequences of the respondent's past abuse of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly relocated from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State, or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location, and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church, and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection (c), the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (c).

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 12 of the Vital Records Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Probate Act of 1975, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Expedited Child Support Act of 1990, any judicial, administrative, or other act of another state or territory, any other statute of this State, or by any foreign nation establishing the father and child relationship, any other proceeding substantially in conformity with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996, or when both parties appeared in open court or at an administrative hearing acknowledging under oath or admitting by affirmation the existence of a father and child relationship. Absent such an adjudication, no putative father shall be granted temporary allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent;

(6) petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent; or

(7) conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-2-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-20) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-20)

Sec. 112A-20. Duration and extension of final protective orders.

(a) (Blank).

(b) A final protective order shall remain in effect as follows:

(1) if entered during pre-trial release, until disposition, withdrawal, or dismissal of the underlying charge; if, however, the case is continued as an independent cause of action, the order's duration may be for a fixed period of time not to exceed 2 years;

(2) if in effect in conjunction with a bond forfeiture warrant, until final disposition or an additional period of time not exceeding 2 years; no domestic violence order of protection, however, shall be terminated by a dismissal that is accompanied by the issuance of a bond forfeiture warrant;

(3) until 2 years after the expiration of any supervision, conditional discharge, probation, periodic imprisonment, parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for domestic violence orders of protection and civil no contact orders;

(4) until 2 years after the date set by the court for expiration of any sentence of imprisonment and subsequent parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release for domestic violence orders of protection and civil no contact orders;

(5) permanent for a stalking no contact order if a judgment of conviction for stalking is entered; or

(6) permanent for a civil no contact order at the victim's request if a judgment of conviction for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual abuse, excluding a conviction under subsection (c) of Section 11-1.50 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse is entered.

(c) Computation of time. The duration of a domestic violence order of protection shall not be reduced by the duration of any prior domestic violence order of protection.

(d) Law enforcement records. When a protective order expires upon the occurrence of a specified event, rather than upon a specified date as provided in subsection (b), no expiration date shall be entered in Illinois State Police records. To remove the protective order from those records, either the petitioner or the respondent shall request the clerk of the court to file a certified copy of an order stating that the specified event has occurred or that the protective order has been vacated or modified with the sheriff, and the sheriff shall direct that law enforcement records shall be promptly corrected in accordance with the filed order.

(e) Extension of Orders. Any domestic violence order of protection or civil no contact order that expires 2 years after the expiration of the defendant's sentence under paragraph (2), (3), or (4) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-20 of this Article may be extended one or more times, as required. The petitioner, petitioner's counsel, or the State's Attorney on the petitioner's behalf shall file the motion for an extension of the final protective order in the criminal case and serve the motion in accordance with Supreme Court Rules 11 and 12. The court shall transfer the motion to the appropriate court or division for consideration under subsection (e) of Section 220 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, subsection (c) of Section 216 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or subsection (c) of Section 105 of the Stalking No Contact Order as appropriate.

(f) Termination date. Any final protective order which would expire on a court holiday shall instead expire at the close of the next court business day.

(g) Statement of purpose. The practice of dismissing or suspending a criminal prosecution in exchange for issuing a protective order undermines the purposes of this Article. This Section shall not be construed as encouraging that practice.

(Source: P.A. 102-184, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-20-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-23) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-23)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 112A-23. Enforcement of protective orders.

(a) When violation is crime. A violation of any protective order, whether issued in a civil, quasi-criminal proceeding, shall be enforced by a criminal court when:

(1) The respondent commits the crime of violation of a domestic violence order of protection pursuant to Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraph paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code,

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraph paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory, or

(iii) any other remedy when the act constitutes a crime against the protected parties as defined by the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Prosecution for a violation of a domestic violence order of protection shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the domestic violence order of protection; or

(2) The respondent commits the crime of child abduction pursuant to Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraph paragraphs (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code, or

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraph paragraphs (1), (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid domestic violence order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(3) The respondent commits the crime of violation of a civil no contact order when the respondent violates Section 12-3.8 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Prosecution for a violation of a civil no contact order shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the civil no contact order.

(4) The respondent commits the crime of violation of a stalking no contact order when the respondent violates Section 12-3.9 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Prosecution for a violation of a stalking no contact order shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the stalking no contact order.

(b) When violation is contempt of court. A violation of any valid protective order, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding, may be enforced through civil or criminal contempt procedures, as appropriate, by any court with jurisdiction, regardless where the act or acts which violated the protective order were committed, to the extent consistent with the venue provisions of this Article. Nothing in this Article shall preclude any Illinois court from enforcing any valid protective order issued in another state. Illinois courts may enforce protective orders through both criminal prosecution and contempt proceedings, unless the action which is second in time is barred by collateral estoppel or the constitutional prohibition against double jeopardy.

(1) In a contempt proceeding where the petition for a rule to show cause sets forth facts evidencing an immediate danger that the respondent will flee the jurisdiction, conceal a child, or inflict physical abuse on the petitioner or minor children or on dependent adults in petitioner's care, the court may order the attachment of the respondent without prior service of the rule to show cause or the petition for a rule to show cause. Bond shall be set unless specifically denied in writing.

(2) A petition for a rule to show cause for violation of a protective order shall be treated as an expedited proceeding.

(c) Violation of custody, allocation of parental responsibility, or support orders. A violation of remedies described in paragraph paragraphs (5), (6), (8), or (9) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code may be enforced by any remedy provided by Section 607.5 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. The court may enforce any order for support issued under paragraph (12) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code in the manner provided for under Parts V and VII of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(d) Actual knowledge. A protective order may be enforced pursuant to this Section if the respondent violates the order after the respondent has actual knowledge of its contents as shown through one of the following means:

(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(3) By service of a protective order under subsection (f) of Section 112A-17.5 or Section 112A-22 of this Code.

(4) By other means demonstrating actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

(e) The enforcement of a protective order in civil or criminal court shall not be affected by either of the following:

(1) The existence of a separate, correlative order entered under Section 112A-15 of this Code.

(2) Any finding or order entered in a conjoined criminal proceeding.

(e-5) If a civil no contact order entered under subsection (6) of Section 112A-20 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 conflicts with an order issued pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the conflicting order issued under subsection (6) of Section 112A-20 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 shall be void.

(f) Circumstances. The court, when determining whether or not a violation of a protective order has occurred, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), where the court finds the commission of a crime or contempt of court under subsection subsections (a) or (b) of this Section, the penalty shall be the penalty that generally applies in such criminal or contempt proceedings, and may include one or more of the following: incarceration, payment of restitution, a fine, payment of attorneys' fees and costs, or community service.

(2) The court shall hear and take into account evidence of any factors in aggravation or mitigation before deciding an appropriate penalty under paragraph (1) of this subsection (g).

(3) To the extent permitted by law, the court is encouraged to:

(i) increase the penalty for the knowing violation of any protective order over any penalty previously imposed by any court for respondent's violation of any protective order or penal statute involving petitioner as victim and respondent as defendant;

(ii) impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for respondent's first violation of any protective order; and

(iii) impose a minimum penalty of 48 hours imprisonment for respondent's second or subsequent violation of a protective order

unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or that period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust.

(4) In addition to any other penalties imposed for a violation of a protective order, a criminal court may consider evidence of any violations of a protective order:

(i) to increase, revoke, or modify the bail bond on an underlying criminal charge pursuant to Section 110-6 of this Code;

(ii) to revoke or modify an order of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, pursuant to Section 5-6-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(iii) to revoke or modify a sentence of periodic imprisonment, pursuant to Section 5-7-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 102-184, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 112A-23. Enforcement of protective orders.

(a) When violation is crime. A violation of any protective order, whether issued in a civil, quasi-criminal proceeding, shall be enforced by a criminal court when:

(1) The respondent commits the crime of violation of a domestic violence order of protection pursuant to Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraph paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code,

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraph paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (14), or (14.5) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory, or

(iii) any other remedy when the act constitutes a crime against the protected parties as defined by the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

Prosecution for a violation of a domestic violence order of protection shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the domestic violence order of protection; or

(2) The respondent commits the crime of child abduction pursuant to Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, by having knowingly violated:

(i) remedies described in paragraph paragraphs (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code, or

(ii) a remedy, which is substantially similar to the remedies authorized under paragraph paragraphs (1), (5), (6), or (8) of subsection (b) of Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, in a valid domestic violence order of protection, which is authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(3) The respondent commits the crime of violation of a civil no contact order when the respondent violates Section 12-3.8 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Prosecution for a violation of a civil no contact order shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the civil no contact order.

(4) The respondent commits the crime of violation of a stalking no contact order when the respondent violates Section 12-3.9 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Prosecution for a violation of a stalking no contact order shall not bar concurrent prosecution for any other crime, including any crime that may have been committed at the time of the violation of the stalking no contact order.

(b) When violation is contempt of court. A violation of any valid protective order, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding, may be enforced through civil or criminal contempt procedures, as appropriate, by any court with jurisdiction, regardless where the act or acts which violated the protective order were committed, to the extent consistent with the venue provisions of this Article. Nothing in this Article shall preclude any Illinois court from enforcing any valid protective order issued in another state. Illinois courts may enforce protective orders through both criminal prosecution and contempt proceedings, unless the action which is second in time is barred by collateral estoppel or the constitutional prohibition against double jeopardy.

(1) In a contempt proceeding where the petition for a rule to show cause sets forth facts evidencing an immediate danger that the respondent will flee the jurisdiction, conceal a child, or inflict physical abuse on the petitioner or minor children or on dependent adults in petitioner's care, the court may order the attachment of the respondent without prior service of the rule to show cause or the petition for a rule to show cause. Bond shall be set unless specifically denied in writing.

(2) A petition for a rule to show cause for violation of a protective order shall be treated as an expedited proceeding.

(c) Violation of custody, allocation of parental responsibility, or support orders. A violation of remedies described in paragraph paragraphs (5), (6), (8), or (9) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code may be enforced by any remedy provided by Section 607.5 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. The court may enforce any order for support issued under paragraph (12) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-14 of this Code in the manner provided for under Parts V and VII of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(d) Actual knowledge. A protective order may be enforced pursuant to this Section if the respondent violates the order after the respondent has actual knowledge of its contents as shown through one of the following means:

(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(3) By service of a protective order under subsection (f) of Section 112A-17.5 or Section 112A-22 of this Code.

(4) By other means demonstrating actual knowledge of the contents of the order.

(e) The enforcement of a protective order in civil or criminal court shall not be affected by either of the following:

(1) The existence of a separate, correlative order entered under Section 112A-15 of this Code.

(2) Any finding or order entered in a conjoined criminal proceeding.

(e-5) If a civil no contact order entered under subsection (6) of Section 112A-20 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 conflicts with an order issued pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the conflicting order issued under subsection (6) of Section 112A-20 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 shall be void.

(f) Circumstances. The court, when determining whether or not a violation of a protective order has occurred, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection (g), where the court finds the commission of a crime or contempt of court under subsection subsections (a) or (b) of this Section, the penalty shall be the penalty that generally applies in such criminal or contempt proceedings, and may include one or more of the following: incarceration, payment of restitution, a fine, payment of attorneys' fees and costs, or community service.

(2) The court shall hear and take into account evidence of any factors in aggravation or mitigation before deciding an appropriate penalty under paragraph (1) of this subsection (g).

(3) To the extent permitted by law, the court is encouraged to:

(i) increase the penalty for the knowing violation of any protective order over any penalty previously imposed by any court for respondent's violation of any protective order or penal statute involving petitioner as victim and respondent as defendant;

(ii) impose a minimum penalty of 24 hours imprisonment for respondent's first violation of any protective order; and

(iii) impose a minimum penalty of 48 hours imprisonment for respondent's second or subsequent violation of a protective order

unless the court explicitly finds that an increased penalty or that period of imprisonment would be manifestly unjust.

(4) In addition to any other penalties imposed for a violation of a protective order, a criminal court may consider evidence of any violations of a protective order:

(i) to modify the conditions of pretrial release on an underlying criminal charge pursuant to Section 110-6 of this Code;

(ii) to revoke or modify an order of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, pursuant to Section 5-6-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(iii) to revoke or modify a sentence of periodic imprisonment, pursuant to Section 5-7-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-184, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(725 ILCS 5/122-9)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 122-9 123. Motion to resentence by the People.

(a) The purpose of sentencing is to advance public safety through punishment, rehabilitation, and restorative justice. By providing a means to reevaluate a sentence after some time has passed, the General Assembly intends to provide the State's Attorney and the court with another tool to ensure that these purposes are achieved.

(b) At any time upon the recommendation of the State's Attorney of the county in which the defendant was sentenced, the State's Attorney may petition the sentencing court or the sentencing court's successor to resentence the offender if the original sentence no longer advances the interests of justice. The sentencing court or the sentencing court's successor may resentence the offender if it finds that the original sentence no longer advances the interests of justice.

(c) Upon the receipt of a petition for resentencing, the court may resentence the defendant in the same manner as if the offender had not previously been sentenced; however, the new sentence, if any, may not be greater than the initial sentence.

(d) The court may consider postconviction factors, including, but not limited to, the inmate's disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation while incarcerated; evidence that reflects whether age, time served, and diminished physical condition, if any, have reduced the inmate's risk for future violence; and evidence that reflects changed circumstances since the inmate's original sentencing such that the inmate's continued incarceration no longer serves the interests of justice. Credit shall be given for time served.

(e) Victims shall be afforded all rights as outlined in the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act.

(f) A resentencing under this Section shall not reopen the defendant's conviction to challenges that would otherwise be barred.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the power of the Governor under the Constitution to grant a reprieve, commutation of sentence, or pardon.

(Source: P.A. 102-102, eff. 1-1-22; revised 9-29-21.)

Section 630. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Section 4.5 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/4.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 4.5. Procedures to implement the rights of crime victims. To afford crime victims their rights, law enforcement, prosecutors, judges, and corrections will provide information, as appropriate, of the following procedures:

(a) At the request of the crime victim, law enforcement authorities investigating the case shall provide notice of the status of the investigation, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation, until such time as the alleged assailant is apprehended or the investigation is closed.

(a-5) When law enforcement authorities reopen a closed case to resume investigating, they shall provide notice of the reopening of the case, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation.

(b) The office of the State's Attorney:

(1) shall provide notice of the filing of an information, the return of an indictment, or the filing of a petition to adjudicate a minor as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(2) shall provide timely notice of the date, time, and place of court proceedings; of any change in the date, time, and place of court proceedings; and of any cancellation of court proceedings. Notice shall be provided in sufficient time, wherever possible, for the victim to make arrangements to attend or to prevent an unnecessary appearance at court proceedings;

(3) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information of social services and financial assistance available for victims of crime, including information of how to apply for these services and assistance;

(3.5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information about available victim services, including referrals to programs, counselors, and agencies that assist a victim to deal with trauma, loss, and grief;

(4) shall assist in having any stolen or other personal property held by law enforcement authorities for evidentiary or other purposes returned as expeditiously as possible, pursuant to the procedures set out in Section 115-9 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide appropriate employer intercession services to ensure that employers of victims will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(6) shall provide, whenever possible, a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require victims to be in close proximity to defendants or juveniles accused of a violent crime, and their families and friends;

(7) shall provide notice to the crime victim of the right to have a translator present at all court proceedings and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means;

(8) (blank);

(8.5) shall inform the victim of the right to be present at all court proceedings, unless the victim is to testify and the court determines that the victim's testimony would be materially affected if the victim hears other testimony at trial;

(9) shall inform the victim of the right to have present at all court proceedings, subject to the rules of evidence and confidentiality, an advocate and other support person of the victim's choice;

(9.3) shall inform the victim of the right to retain an attorney, at the victim's own expense, who, upon written notice filed with the clerk of the court and State's Attorney, is to receive copies of all notices, motions, and court orders filed thereafter in the case, in the same manner as if the victim were a named party in the case;

(9.5) shall inform the victim of (A) the victim's right under Section 6 of this Act to make a statement at the sentencing hearing; (B) the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent, and other immediate family and household members under Section 6 of this Act to present a statement at sentencing; and (C) if a presentence report is to be prepared, the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent, and other immediate family and household members to submit information to the preparer of the presentence report about the effect the offense has had on the victim and the person;

(10) at the sentencing shall make a good faith attempt to explain the minimum amount of time during which the defendant may actually be physically imprisoned. The Office of the State's Attorney shall further notify the crime victim of the right to request from the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice information concerning the release of the defendant;

(11) shall request restitution at sentencing and as part of a plea agreement if the victim requests restitution;

(12) shall, upon the court entering a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, inform the victim of the notification services available from the Department of Human Services, including the statewide telephone number, under subparagraph (d)(2) of this Section;

(13) shall provide notice within a reasonable time after receipt of notice from the custodian, of the release of the defendant on bail or personal recognizance or the release from detention of a minor who has been detained;

(14) shall explain in nontechnical language the details of any plea or verdict of a defendant, or any adjudication of a juvenile as a delinquent;

(15) shall make all reasonable efforts to consult with the crime victim before the Office of the State's Attorney makes an offer of a plea bargain to the defendant or enters into negotiations with the defendant concerning a possible plea agreement, and shall consider the written statement, if prepared prior to entering into a plea agreement. The right to consult with the prosecutor does not include the right to veto a plea agreement or to insist the case go to trial. If the State's Attorney has not consulted with the victim prior to making an offer or entering into plea negotiations with the defendant, the Office of the State's Attorney shall notify the victim of the offer or the negotiations within 2 business days and confer with the victim;

(16) shall provide notice of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information, or a petition to have a juvenile adjudicated as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(17) shall provide notice of any appeal taken by the defendant and information on how to contact the appropriate agency handling the appeal, and how to request notice of any hearing, oral argument, or decision of an appellate court;

(18) shall provide timely notice of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time and place of any hearing concerning the petition. Whenever possible, notice of the hearing shall be given within 48 hours of the court's scheduling of the hearing; and

(19) shall forward a copy of any statement presented under Section 6 to the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice to be considered in making a determination under Section 3-2.5-85 or subsection (b) of Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(c) The court shall ensure that the rights of the victim are afforded.

(c-5) The following procedures shall be followed to afford victims the rights guaranteed by Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution:

(1) Written notice. A victim may complete a written notice of intent to assert rights on a form prepared by the Office of the Attorney General and provided to the victim by the State's Attorney. The victim may at any time provide a revised written notice to the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney shall file the written notice with the court. At the beginning of any court proceeding in which the right of a victim may be at issue, the court and prosecutor shall review the written notice to determine whether the victim has asserted the right that may be at issue.

(2) Victim's retained attorney. A victim's attorney shall file an entry of appearance limited to assertion of the victim's rights. Upon the filing of the entry of appearance and service on the State's Attorney and the defendant, the attorney is to receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders filed thereafter in the case.

(3) Standing. The victim has standing to assert the rights enumerated in subsection (a) of Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and the statutory rights under Section 4 of this Act in any court exercising jurisdiction over the criminal case. The prosecuting attorney, a victim, or the victim's retained attorney may assert the victim's rights. The defendant in the criminal case has no standing to assert a right of the victim in any court proceeding, including on appeal.

(4) Assertion of and enforcement of rights.

(A) The prosecuting attorney shall assert a victim's right or request enforcement of a right by filing a motion or by orally asserting the right or requesting enforcement in open court in the criminal case outside the presence of the jury. The prosecuting attorney shall consult with the victim and the victim's attorney regarding the assertion or enforcement of a right. If the prosecuting attorney decides not to assert or enforce a victim's right, the prosecuting attorney shall notify the victim or the victim's attorney in sufficient time to allow the victim or the victim's attorney to assert the right or to seek enforcement of a right.

(B) If the prosecuting attorney elects not to assert a victim's right or to seek enforcement of a right, the victim or the victim's attorney may assert the victim's right or request enforcement of a right by filing a motion or by orally asserting the right or requesting enforcement in open court in the criminal case outside the presence of the jury.

(C) If the prosecuting attorney asserts a victim's right or seeks enforcement of a right, and the court denies the assertion of the right or denies the request for enforcement of a right, the victim or victim's attorney may file a motion to assert the victim's right or to request enforcement of the right within 10 days of the court's ruling. The motion need not demonstrate the grounds for a motion for reconsideration. The court shall rule on the merits of the motion.

(D) The court shall take up and decide any motion or request asserting or seeking enforcement of a victim's right without delay, unless a specific time period is specified by law or court rule. The reasons for any decision denying the motion or request shall be clearly stated on the record.

(5) Violation of rights and remedies.

(A) If the court determines that a victim's right has been violated, the court shall determine the appropriate remedy for the violation of the victim's right by hearing from the victim and the parties, considering all factors relevant to the issue, and then awarding appropriate relief to the victim.

(A-5) Consideration of an issue of a substantive nature or an issue that implicates the constitutional or statutory right of a victim at a court proceeding labeled as a status hearing shall constitute a per se violation of a victim's right.

(B) The appropriate remedy shall include only actions necessary to provide the victim the right to which the victim was entitled and may include reopening previously held proceedings; however, in no event shall the court vacate a conviction. Any remedy shall be tailored to provide the victim an appropriate remedy without violating any constitutional right of the defendant. In no event shall the appropriate remedy be a new trial, damages, or costs.

(6) Right to be heard. Whenever a victim has the right to be heard, the court shall allow the victim to exercise the right in any reasonable manner the victim chooses.

(7) Right to attend trial. A party must file a written motion to exclude a victim from trial at least 60 days prior to the date set for trial. The motion must state with specificity the reason exclusion is necessary to protect a constitutional right of the party, and must contain an offer of proof. The court shall rule on the motion within 30 days. If the motion is granted, the court shall set forth on the record the facts that support its finding that the victim's testimony will be materially affected if the victim hears other testimony at trial.

(8) Right to have advocate and support person present at court proceedings.

(A) A party who intends to call an advocate as a witness at trial must seek permission of the court before the subpoena is issued. The party must file a written motion at least 90 days before trial that sets forth specifically the issues on which the advocate's testimony is sought and an offer of proof regarding (i) the content of the anticipated testimony of the advocate; and (ii) the relevance, admissibility, and materiality of the anticipated testimony. The court shall consider the motion and make findings within 30 days of the filing of the motion. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that: (i) the anticipated testimony is not protected by an absolute privilege; and (ii) the anticipated testimony contains relevant, admissible, and material evidence that is not available through other witnesses or evidence, the court shall issue a subpoena requiring the advocate to appear to testify at an in camera hearing. The prosecuting attorney and the victim shall have 15 days to seek appellate review before the advocate is required to testify at an ex parte in camera proceeding.

The prosecuting attorney, the victim, and the advocate's attorney shall be allowed to be present at the ex parte in camera proceeding. If, after conducting the ex parte in camera hearing, the court determines that due process requires any testimony regarding confidential or privileged information or communications, the court shall provide to the prosecuting attorney, the victim, and the advocate's attorney a written memorandum on the substance of the advocate's testimony. The prosecuting attorney, the victim, and the advocate's attorney shall have 15 days to seek appellate review before a subpoena may be issued for the advocate to testify at trial. The presence of the prosecuting attorney at the ex parte in camera proceeding does not make the substance of the advocate's testimony that the court has ruled inadmissible subject to discovery.

(B) If a victim has asserted the right to have a support person present at the court proceedings, the victim shall provide the name of the person the victim has chosen to be the victim's support person to the prosecuting attorney, within 60 days of trial. The prosecuting attorney shall provide the name to the defendant. If the defendant intends to call the support person as a witness at trial, the defendant must seek permission of the court before a subpoena is issued. The defendant must file a written motion at least 45 days prior to trial that sets forth specifically the issues on which the support person will testify and an offer of proof regarding: (i) the content of the anticipated testimony of the support person; and (ii) the relevance, admissibility, and materiality of the anticipated testimony.

If the prosecuting attorney intends to call the support person as a witness during the State's case-in-chief, the prosecuting attorney shall inform the court of this intent in the response to the defendant's written motion. The victim may choose a different person to be the victim's support person. The court may allow the defendant to inquire about matters outside the scope of the direct examination during cross-examination. If the court allows the defendant to do so, the support person shall be allowed to remain in the courtroom after the support person has testified. A defendant who fails to question the support person about matters outside the scope of direct examination during the State's case-in-chief waives the right to challenge the presence of the support person on appeal. The court shall allow the support person to testify if called as a witness in the defendant's case-in-chief or the State's rebuttal.

If the court does not allow the defendant to inquire about matters outside the scope of the direct examination, the support person shall be allowed to remain in the courtroom after the support person has been called by the defendant or the defendant has rested. The court shall allow the support person to testify in the State's rebuttal.

If the prosecuting attorney does not intend to call the support person in the State's case-in-chief, the court shall verify with the support person whether the support person, if called as a witness, would testify as set forth in the offer of proof. If the court finds that the support person would testify as set forth in the offer of proof, the court shall rule on the relevance, materiality, and admissibility of the anticipated testimony. If the court rules the anticipated testimony is admissible, the court shall issue the subpoena. The support person may remain in the courtroom after the support person testifies and shall be allowed to testify in rebuttal.

If the court excludes the victim's support person during the State's case-in-chief, the victim shall be allowed to choose another support person to be present in court.

If the victim fails to designate a support person within 60 days of trial and the defendant has subpoenaed the support person to testify at trial, the court may exclude the support person from the trial until the support person testifies. If the court excludes the support person the victim may choose another person as a support person.

(9) Right to notice and hearing before disclosure of confidential or privileged information or records. A defendant who seeks to subpoena records of or concerning the victim that are confidential or privileged by law must seek permission of the court before the subpoena is issued. The defendant must file a written motion and an offer of proof regarding the relevance, admissibility and materiality of the records. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that: (A) the records are not protected by an absolute privilege and (B) the records contain relevant, admissible, and material evidence that is not available through other witnesses or evidence, the court shall issue a subpoena requiring a sealed copy of the records be delivered to the court to be reviewed in camera. If, after conducting an in camera review of the records, the court determines that due process requires disclosure of any portion of the records, the court shall provide copies of what it intends to disclose to the prosecuting attorney and the victim. The prosecuting attorney and the victim shall have 30 days to seek appellate review before the records are disclosed to the defendant. The disclosure of copies of any portion of the records to the prosecuting attorney does not make the records subject to discovery.

(10) Right to notice of court proceedings. If the victim is not present at a court proceeding in which a right of the victim is at issue, the court shall ask the prosecuting attorney whether the victim was notified of the time, place, and purpose of the court proceeding and that the victim had a right to be heard at the court proceeding. If the court determines that timely notice was not given or that the victim was not adequately informed of the nature of the court proceeding, the court shall not rule on any substantive issues, accept a plea, or impose a sentence and shall continue the hearing for the time necessary to notify the victim of the time, place and nature of the court proceeding. The time between court proceedings shall not be attributable to the State under Section 103-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(11) Right to timely disposition of the case. A victim has the right to timely disposition of the case so as to minimize the stress, cost, and inconvenience resulting from the victim's involvement in the case. Before ruling on a motion to continue trial or other court proceeding, the court shall inquire into the circumstances for the request for the delay and, if the victim has provided written notice of the assertion of the right to a timely disposition, and whether the victim objects to the delay. If the victim objects, the prosecutor shall inform the court of the victim's objections. If the prosecutor has not conferred with the victim about the continuance, the prosecutor shall inform the court of the attempts to confer. If the court finds the attempts of the prosecutor to confer with the victim were inadequate to protect the victim's right to be heard, the court shall give the prosecutor at least 3 but not more than 5 business days to confer with the victim. In ruling on a motion to continue, the court shall consider the reasons for the requested continuance, the number and length of continuances that have been granted, the victim's objections and procedures to avoid further delays. If a continuance is granted over the victim's objection, the court shall specify on the record the reasons for the continuance and the procedures that have been or will be taken to avoid further delays.

(12) Right to Restitution.

(A) If the victim has asserted the right to restitution and the amount of restitution is known at the time of sentencing, the court shall enter the judgment of restitution at the time of sentencing.

(B) If the victim has asserted the right to restitution and the amount of restitution is not known at the time of sentencing, the prosecutor shall, within 5 days after sentencing, notify the victim what information and documentation related to restitution is needed and that the information and documentation must be provided to the prosecutor within 45 days after sentencing. Failure to timely provide information and documentation related to restitution shall be deemed a waiver of the right to restitution. The prosecutor shall file and serve within 60 days after sentencing a proposed judgment for restitution and a notice that includes information concerning the identity of any victims or other persons seeking restitution, whether any victim or other person expressly declines restitution, the nature and amount of any damages together with any supporting documentation, a restitution amount recommendation, and the names of any co-defendants and their case numbers. Within 30 days after receipt of the proposed judgment for restitution, the defendant shall file any objection to the proposed judgment, a statement of grounds for the objection, and a financial statement. If the defendant does not file an objection, the court may enter the judgment for restitution without further proceedings. If the defendant files an objection and either party requests a hearing, the court shall schedule a hearing.

(13) Access to presentence reports.

(A) The victim may request a copy of the presentence report prepared under the Unified Code of Corrections from the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney shall redact the following information before providing a copy of the report:

(i) the defendant's mental history and condition;

(ii) any evaluation prepared under subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 5-3-2; and

(iii) the name, address, phone number, and other personal information about any other victim.

(B) The State's Attorney or the defendant may request the court redact other information in the report that may endanger the safety of any person.

(C) The State's Attorney may orally disclose to the victim any of the information that has been redacted if there is a reasonable likelihood that the information will be stated in court at the sentencing.

(D) The State's Attorney must advise the victim that the victim must maintain the confidentiality of the report and other information. Any dissemination of the report or information that was not stated at a court proceeding constitutes indirect criminal contempt of court.

(14) Appellate relief. If the trial court denies the relief requested, the victim, the victim's attorney, or the prosecuting attorney may file an appeal within 30 days of the trial court's ruling. The trial or appellate court may stay the court proceedings if the court finds that a stay would not violate a constitutional right of the defendant. If the appellate court denies the relief sought, the reasons for the denial shall be clearly stated in a written opinion. In any appeal in a criminal case, the State may assert as error the court's denial of any crime victim's right in the proceeding to which the appeal relates.

(15) Limitation on appellate relief. In no case shall an appellate court provide a new trial to remedy the violation of a victim's right.

(16) The right to be reasonably protected from the accused throughout the criminal justice process and the right to have the safety of the victim and the victim's family considered in denying or fixing the amount of bail, determining whether to release the defendant, and setting conditions of release after arrest and conviction. A victim of domestic violence, a sexual offense, or stalking may request the entry of a protective order under Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(d) Procedures after the imposition of sentence.

(1) The Prisoner Review Board shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen, upon written request, of the prisoner's release on parole, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian, other than the Department of Juvenile Justice, of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a crime from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall provide to a victim or any other concerned citizen a recent photograph of any person convicted of a felony, upon his or her release from custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen when feasible at least 7 days prior to the prisoner's release on furlough of the times and dates of such furlough. Upon written request by the victim or any other concerned citizen, the State's Attorney shall notify the person once of the times and dates of release of a prisoner sentenced to periodic imprisonment. Notification shall be based on the most recent information as to the victim's or other concerned citizen's residence or other location available to the notifying authority.

(2) When the defendant has been committed to the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections, the victim may request to be notified by the releasing authority of the approval by the court of an on-grounds pass, a supervised off-grounds pass, an unsupervised off-grounds pass, or conditional release; the release on an off-grounds pass; the return from an off-grounds pass; transfer to another facility; conditional release; escape; death; or final discharge from State custody. The Department of Human Services shall establish and maintain a statewide telephone number to be used by victims to make notification requests under these provisions and shall publicize this telephone number on its website and to the State's Attorney of each county.

(3) In the event of an escape from State custody, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of the escape and the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim. The notification shall be based upon the most recent information as to the victim's residence or other location available to the Board. When no such information is available, the Board shall make all reasonable efforts to obtain the information and make the notification. When the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the victim.

(4) The victim of the crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced has the right to register with the Prisoner Review Board's victim registry. Victims registered with the Board shall receive reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole hearing or target aftercare release date. The victim has the right to submit a victim statement for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice in writing, on film, videotape, or other electronic means, or in the form of a recording prior to the parole hearing or target aftercare release date, or in person at the parole hearing or aftercare release protest hearing, or by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section. The victim shall be notified within 7 days after the prisoner has been granted parole or aftercare release and shall be informed of the right to inspect the registry of parole decisions, established under subsection (g) of Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The provisions of this paragraph (4) are subject to the Open Parole Hearings Act. Victim statements provided to the Board shall be confidential and privileged, including any statements received prior to January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-288), except if the statement was an oral statement made by the victim at a hearing open to the public.

(4-1) The crime victim has the right to submit a victim statement for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice prior to or at a hearing to determine the conditions of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence or at a hearing on revocation of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence. A victim statement may be submitted in writing, on film, videotape, or other electronic means, or in the form of a recording, or orally at a hearing, or by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section. Victim statements provided to the Board shall be confidential and privileged, including any statements received prior to January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-288), except if the statement was an oral statement made by the victim at a hearing open to the public.

(4-2) The crime victim has the right to submit a victim statement to the Prisoner Review Board for consideration at an executive clemency hearing as provided in Section 3-3-13 of the Unified Code of Corrections. A victim statement may be submitted in writing, on film, videotape, or other electronic means, or in the form of a recording prior to a hearing, or orally at a hearing, or by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section. Victim statements provided to the Board shall be confidential and privileged, including any statements received prior to January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-288), except if the statement was an oral statement made by the victim at a hearing open to the public.

(5) If a statement is presented under Section 6, the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice shall inform the victim of any order of discharge pursuant to Section 3-2.5-85 or 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(6) At the written or oral request of the victim of the crime for which the prisoner was sentenced or the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted, the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice shall notify the victim and the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted of the death of the prisoner if the prisoner died while on parole or aftercare release or mandatory supervised release.

(7) When a defendant who has been committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services is released or discharged and subsequently committed to the Department of Human Services as a sexually violent person and the victim had requested to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge, conditional release, death, or escape from State custody, the releasing authority shall provide to the Department of Human Services such information that would allow the Department of Human Services to contact the victim.

(8) When a defendant has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act and has been sentenced to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall notify the victim of the sex offense of the prisoner's eligibility for release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a sex offense from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The notification shall be made to the victim at least 30 days, whenever possible, before release of the sex offender.

(e) The officials named in this Section may satisfy some or all of their obligations to provide notices and other information through participation in a statewide victim and witness notification system established by the Attorney General under Section 8.5 of this Act.

(f) The Prisoner Review Board shall establish a toll-free number that may be accessed by the crime victim to present a victim statement to the Board in accordance with paragraphs (4), (4-1), and (4-2) of subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-288, eff. 1-1-20; 102-22, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-13-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 4.5. Procedures to implement the rights of crime victims. To afford crime victims their rights, law enforcement, prosecutors, judges, and corrections will provide information, as appropriate, of the following procedures:

(a) At the request of the crime victim, law enforcement authorities investigating the case shall provide notice of the status of the investigation, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation, until such time as the alleged assailant is apprehended or the investigation is closed.

(a-5) When law enforcement authorities reopen a closed case to resume investigating, they shall provide notice of the reopening of the case, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation.

(b) The office of the State's Attorney:

(1) shall provide notice of the filing of an information, the return of an indictment, or the filing of a petition to adjudicate a minor as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(2) shall provide timely notice of the date, time, and place of court proceedings; of any change in the date, time, and place of court proceedings; and of any cancellation of court proceedings. Notice shall be provided in sufficient time, wherever possible, for the victim to make arrangements to attend or to prevent an unnecessary appearance at court proceedings;

(3) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information of social services and financial assistance available for victims of crime, including information of how to apply for these services and assistance;

(3.5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information about available victim services, including referrals to programs, counselors, and agencies that assist a victim to deal with trauma, loss, and grief;

(4) shall assist in having any stolen or other personal property held by law enforcement authorities for evidentiary or other purposes returned as expeditiously as possible, pursuant to the procedures set out in Section 115-9 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide appropriate employer intercession services to ensure that employers of victims will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(6) shall provide, whenever possible, a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require victims to be in close proximity to defendants or juveniles accused of a violent crime, and their families and friends;

(7) shall provide notice to the crime victim of the right to have a translator present at all court proceedings and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means;

(8) (blank);

(8.5) shall inform the victim of the right to be present at all court proceedings, unless the victim is to testify and the court determines that the victim's testimony would be materially affected if the victim hears other testimony at trial;

(9) shall inform the victim of the right to have present at all court proceedings, subject to the rules of evidence and confidentiality, an advocate and other support person of the victim's choice;

(9.3) shall inform the victim of the right to retain an attorney, at the victim's own expense, who, upon written notice filed with the clerk of the court and State's Attorney, is to receive copies of all notices, motions, and court orders filed thereafter in the case, in the same manner as if the victim were a named party in the case;

(9.5) shall inform the victim of (A) the victim's right under Section 6 of this Act to make a statement at the sentencing hearing; (B) the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent, and other immediate family and household members under Section 6 of this Act to present a statement at sentencing; and (C) if a presentence report is to be prepared, the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent, and other immediate family and household members to submit information to the preparer of the presentence report about the effect the offense has had on the victim and the person;

(10) at the sentencing shall make a good faith attempt to explain the minimum amount of time during which the defendant may actually be physically imprisoned. The Office of the State's Attorney shall further notify the crime victim of the right to request from the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice information concerning the release of the defendant;

(11) shall request restitution at sentencing and as part of a plea agreement if the victim requests restitution;

(12) shall, upon the court entering a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, inform the victim of the notification services available from the Department of Human Services, including the statewide telephone number, under subparagraph (d)(2) of this Section;

(13) shall provide notice within a reasonable time after receipt of notice from the custodian, of the release of the defendant on pretrial release or personal recognizance or the release from detention of a minor who has been detained;

(14) shall explain in nontechnical language the details of any plea or verdict of a defendant, or any adjudication of a juvenile as a delinquent;

(15) shall make all reasonable efforts to consult with the crime victim before the Office of the State's Attorney makes an offer of a plea bargain to the defendant or enters into negotiations with the defendant concerning a possible plea agreement, and shall consider the written statement, if prepared prior to entering into a plea agreement. The right to consult with the prosecutor does not include the right to veto a plea agreement or to insist the case go to trial. If the State's Attorney has not consulted with the victim prior to making an offer or entering into plea negotiations with the defendant, the Office of the State's Attorney shall notify the victim of the offer or the negotiations within 2 business days and confer with the victim;

(16) shall provide notice of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information, or a petition to have a juvenile adjudicated as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(17) shall provide notice of any appeal taken by the defendant and information on how to contact the appropriate agency handling the appeal, and how to request notice of any hearing, oral argument, or decision of an appellate court;

(18) shall provide timely notice of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time and place of any hearing concerning the petition. Whenever possible, notice of the hearing shall be given within 48 hours of the court's scheduling of the hearing;

(19) shall forward a copy of any statement presented under Section 6 to the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice to be considered in making a determination under Section 3-2.5-85 or subsection (b) of Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(20) shall, within a reasonable time, offer to meet with the crime victim regarding the decision of the State's Attorney not to charge an offense, and shall meet with the victim, if the victim agrees. The victim has a right to have an attorney, advocate, and other support person of the victim's choice attend this meeting with the victim; and

(21) shall give the crime victim timely notice of any decision not to pursue charges and consider the safety of the victim when deciding how to give such notice.

(c) The court shall ensure that the rights of the victim are afforded.

(c-5) The following procedures shall be followed to afford victims the rights guaranteed by Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution:

(1) Written notice. A victim may complete a written notice of intent to assert rights on a form prepared by the Office of the Attorney General and provided to the victim by the State's Attorney. The victim may at any time provide a revised written notice to the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney shall file the written notice with the court. At the beginning of any court proceeding in which the right of a victim may be at issue, the court and prosecutor shall review the written notice to determine whether the victim has asserted the right that may be at issue.

(2) Victim's retained attorney. A victim's attorney shall file an entry of appearance limited to assertion of the victim's rights. Upon the filing of the entry of appearance and service on the State's Attorney and the defendant, the attorney is to receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders filed thereafter in the case.

(3) Standing. The victim has standing to assert the rights enumerated in subsection (a) of Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and the statutory rights under Section 4 of this Act in any court exercising jurisdiction over the criminal case. The prosecuting attorney, a victim, or the victim's retained attorney may assert the victim's rights. The defendant in the criminal case has no standing to assert a right of the victim in any court proceeding, including on appeal.

(4) Assertion of and enforcement of rights.

(A) The prosecuting attorney shall assert a victim's right or request enforcement of a right by filing a motion or by orally asserting the right or requesting enforcement in open court in the criminal case outside the presence of the jury. The prosecuting attorney shall consult with the victim and the victim's attorney regarding the assertion or enforcement of a right. If the prosecuting attorney decides not to assert or enforce a victim's right, the prosecuting attorney shall notify the victim or the victim's attorney in sufficient time to allow the victim or the victim's attorney to assert the right or to seek enforcement of a right.

(B) If the prosecuting attorney elects not to assert a victim's right or to seek enforcement of a right, the victim or the victim's attorney may assert the victim's right or request enforcement of a right by filing a motion or by orally asserting the right or requesting enforcement in open court in the criminal case outside the presence of the jury.

(C) If the prosecuting attorney asserts a victim's right or seeks enforcement of a right, unless the prosecuting attorney objects or the trial court does not allow it, the victim or the victim's attorney may be heard regarding the prosecuting attorney's motion or may file a simultaneous motion to assert or request enforcement of the victim's right. If the victim or the victim's attorney was not allowed to be heard at the hearing regarding the prosecuting attorney's motion, and the court denies the prosecuting attorney's assertion of the right or denies the request for enforcement of a right, the victim or victim's attorney may file a motion to assert the victim's right or to request enforcement of the right within 10 days of the court's ruling. The motion need not demonstrate the grounds for a motion for reconsideration. The court shall rule on the merits of the motion.

(D) The court shall take up and decide any motion or request asserting or seeking enforcement of a victim's right without delay, unless a specific time period is specified by law or court rule. The reasons for any decision denying the motion or request shall be clearly stated on the record.

(E) No later than January 1, 2023, the Office of the Attorney General shall:

(i) designate an administrative authority within the Office of the Attorney General to receive and investigate complaints relating to the provision or violation of the rights of a crime victim as described in Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and in this Act;

(ii) create and administer a course of training for employees and offices of the State of Illinois that fail to comply with provisions of Illinois law pertaining to the treatment of crime victims as described in Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and in this Act as required by the court under Section 5 of this Act; and

(iii) have the authority to make recommendations to employees and offices of the State of Illinois to respond more effectively to the needs of crime victims, including regarding the violation of the rights of a crime victim.

(F) Crime victims' rights may also be asserted by filing a complaint for mandamus, injunctive, or declaratory relief in the jurisdiction in which the victim's right is being violated or where the crime is being prosecuted. For complaints or motions filed by or on behalf of the victim, the clerk of court shall waive filing fees that would otherwise be owed by the victim for any court filing with the purpose of enforcing crime victims' rights. If the court denies the relief sought by the victim, the reasons for the denial shall be clearly stated on the record in the transcript of the proceedings, in a written opinion, or in the docket entry, and the victim may appeal the circuit court's decision to the appellate court. The court shall issue prompt rulings regarding victims' rights. Proceedings seeking to enforce victims' rights shall not be stayed or subject to unreasonable delay via continuances.

(5) Violation of rights and remedies.

(A) If the court determines that a victim's right has been violated, the court shall determine the appropriate remedy for the violation of the victim's right by hearing from the victim and the parties, considering all factors relevant to the issue, and then awarding appropriate relief to the victim.

(A-5) Consideration of an issue of a substantive nature or an issue that implicates the constitutional or statutory right of a victim at a court proceeding labeled as a status hearing shall constitute a per se violation of a victim's right.

(B) The appropriate remedy shall include only actions necessary to provide the victim the right to which the victim was entitled. Remedies may include, but are not limited to: injunctive relief requiring the victim's right to be afforded; declaratory judgment recognizing or clarifying the victim's rights; a writ of mandamus; and may include reopening previously held proceedings; however, in no event shall the court vacate a conviction. Any remedy shall be tailored to provide the victim an appropriate remedy without violating any constitutional right of the defendant. In no event shall the appropriate remedy to the victim be a new trial or damages.

The court shall impose a mandatory training course provided by the Attorney General for the employee under item (ii) of subparagraph (E) of paragraph (4), which must be successfully completed within 6 months of the entry of the court order.

This paragraph (5) takes effect January 2, 2023.

(6) Right to be heard. Whenever a victim has the right to be heard, the court shall allow the victim to exercise the right in any reasonable manner the victim chooses.

(7) Right to attend trial. A party must file a written motion to exclude a victim from trial at least 60 days prior to the date set for trial. The motion must state with specificity the reason exclusion is necessary to protect a constitutional right of the party, and must contain an offer of proof. The court shall rule on the motion within 30 days. If the motion is granted, the court shall set forth on the record the facts that support its finding that the victim's testimony will be materially affected if the victim hears other testimony at trial.

(8) Right to have advocate and support person present at court proceedings.

(A) A party who intends to call an advocate as a witness at trial must seek permission of the court before the subpoena is issued. The party must file a written motion at least 90 days before trial that sets forth specifically the issues on which the advocate's testimony is sought and an offer of proof regarding (i) the content of the anticipated testimony of the advocate; and (ii) the relevance, admissibility, and materiality of the anticipated testimony. The court shall consider the motion and make findings within 30 days of the filing of the motion. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that: (i) the anticipated testimony is not protected by an absolute privilege; and (ii) the anticipated testimony contains relevant, admissible, and material evidence that is not available through other witnesses or evidence, the court shall issue a subpoena requiring the advocate to appear to testify at an in camera hearing. The prosecuting attorney and the victim shall have 15 days to seek appellate review before the advocate is required to testify at an ex parte in camera proceeding.

The prosecuting attorney, the victim, and the advocate's attorney shall be allowed to be present at the ex parte in camera proceeding. If, after conducting the ex parte in camera hearing, the court determines that due process requires any testimony regarding confidential or privileged information or communications, the court shall provide to the prosecuting attorney, the victim, and the advocate's attorney a written memorandum on the substance of the advocate's testimony. The prosecuting attorney, the victim, and the advocate's attorney shall have 15 days to seek appellate review before a subpoena may be issued for the advocate to testify at trial. The presence of the prosecuting attorney at the ex parte in camera proceeding does not make the substance of the advocate's testimony that the court has ruled inadmissible subject to discovery.

(B) If a victim has asserted the right to have a support person present at the court proceedings, the victim shall provide the name of the person the victim has chosen to be the victim's support person to the prosecuting attorney, within 60 days of trial. The prosecuting attorney shall provide the name to the defendant. If the defendant intends to call the support person as a witness at trial, the defendant must seek permission of the court before a subpoena is issued. The defendant must file a written motion at least 45 days prior to trial that sets forth specifically the issues on which the support person will testify and an offer of proof regarding: (i) the content of the anticipated testimony of the support person; and (ii) the relevance, admissibility, and materiality of the anticipated testimony.

If the prosecuting attorney intends to call the support person as a witness during the State's case-in-chief, the prosecuting attorney shall inform the court of this intent in the response to the defendant's written motion. The victim may choose a different person to be the victim's support person. The court may allow the defendant to inquire about matters outside the scope of the direct examination during cross-examination. If the court allows the defendant to do so, the support person shall be allowed to remain in the courtroom after the support person has testified. A defendant who fails to question the support person about matters outside the scope of direct examination during the State's case-in-chief waives the right to challenge the presence of the support person on appeal. The court shall allow the support person to testify if called as a witness in the defendant's case-in-chief or the State's rebuttal.

If the court does not allow the defendant to inquire about matters outside the scope of the direct examination, the support person shall be allowed to remain in the courtroom after the support person has been called by the defendant or the defendant has rested. The court shall allow the support person to testify in the State's rebuttal.

If the prosecuting attorney does not intend to call the support person in the State's case-in-chief, the court shall verify with the support person whether the support person, if called as a witness, would testify as set forth in the offer of proof. If the court finds that the support person would testify as set forth in the offer of proof, the court shall rule on the relevance, materiality, and admissibility of the anticipated testimony. If the court rules the anticipated testimony is admissible, the court shall issue the subpoena. The support person may remain in the courtroom after the support person testifies and shall be allowed to testify in rebuttal.

If the court excludes the victim's support person during the State's case-in-chief, the victim shall be allowed to choose another support person to be present in court.

If the victim fails to designate a support person within 60 days of trial and the defendant has subpoenaed the support person to testify at trial, the court may exclude the support person from the trial until the support person testifies. If the court excludes the support person the victim may choose another person as a support person.

(9) Right to notice and hearing before disclosure of confidential or privileged information or records.

(A) A defendant who seeks to subpoena testimony or records of or concerning the victim that are confidential or privileged by law must seek permission of the court before the subpoena is issued. The defendant must file a written motion and an offer of proof regarding the relevance, admissibility and materiality of the testimony or records. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that:

(i) the testimony or records are not protected by an absolute privilege and

(ii) the testimony or records contain relevant, admissible, and material evidence that is not available through other witnesses or evidence, the court shall issue a subpoena requiring the witness to appear in camera or a sealed copy of the records be delivered to the court to be reviewed in camera. If, after conducting an in camera review of the witness statement or records, the court determines that due process requires disclosure of any potential testimony or any portion of the records, the court shall provide copies of the records that it intends to disclose to the prosecuting attorney and the victim. The prosecuting attorney and the victim shall have 30 days to seek appellate review before the records are disclosed to the defendant, used in any court proceeding, or disclosed to anyone or in any way that would subject the testimony or records to public review. The disclosure of copies of any portion of the testimony or records to the prosecuting attorney under this Section does not make the records subject to discovery or required to be provided to the defendant.

(B) A prosecuting attorney who seeks to subpoena information or records concerning the victim that are confidential or privileged by law must first request the written consent of the crime victim. If the victim does not provide such written consent, including where necessary the appropriate signed document required for waiving privilege, the prosecuting attorney must serve the subpoena at least 21 days prior to the date a response or appearance is required to allow the subject of the subpoena time to file a motion to quash or request a hearing. The prosecuting attorney must also send a written notice to the victim at least 21 days prior to the response date to allow the victim to file a motion or request a hearing. The notice to the victim shall inform the victim (i) that a subpoena has been issued for confidential information or records concerning the victim, (ii) that the victim has the right to request a hearing prior to the response date of the subpoena, and (iii) how to request the hearing. The notice to the victim shall also include a copy of the subpoena. If requested, a hearing regarding the subpoena shall occur before information or records are provided to the prosecuting attorney.

(10) Right to notice of court proceedings. If the victim is not present at a court proceeding in which a right of the victim is at issue, the court shall ask the prosecuting attorney whether the victim was notified of the time, place, and purpose of the court proceeding and that the victim had a right to be heard at the court proceeding. If the court determines that timely notice was not given or that the victim was not adequately informed of the nature of the court proceeding, the court shall not rule on any substantive issues, accept a plea, or impose a sentence and shall continue the hearing for the time necessary to notify the victim of the time, place and nature of the court proceeding. The time between court proceedings shall not be attributable to the State under Section 103-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(11) Right to timely disposition of the case. A victim has the right to timely disposition of the case so as to minimize the stress, cost, and inconvenience resulting from the victim's involvement in the case. Before ruling on a motion to continue trial or other court proceeding, the court shall inquire into the circumstances for the request for the delay and, if the victim has provided written notice of the assertion of the right to a timely disposition, and whether the victim objects to the delay. If the victim objects, the prosecutor shall inform the court of the victim's objections. If the prosecutor has not conferred with the victim about the continuance, the prosecutor shall inform the court of the attempts to confer. If the court finds the attempts of the prosecutor to confer with the victim were inadequate to protect the victim's right to be heard, the court shall give the prosecutor at least 3 but not more than 5 business days to confer with the victim. In ruling on a motion to continue, the court shall consider the reasons for the requested continuance, the number and length of continuances that have been granted, the victim's objections and procedures to avoid further delays. If a continuance is granted over the victim's objection, the court shall specify on the record the reasons for the continuance and the procedures that have been or will be taken to avoid further delays.

(12) Right to Restitution.

(A) If the victim has asserted the right to restitution and the amount of restitution is known at the time of sentencing, the court shall enter the judgment of restitution at the time of sentencing.

(B) If the victim has asserted the right to restitution and the amount of restitution is not known at the time of sentencing, the prosecutor shall, within 5 days after sentencing, notify the victim what information and documentation related to restitution is needed and that the information and documentation must be provided to the prosecutor within 45 days after sentencing. Failure to timely provide information and documentation related to restitution shall be deemed a waiver of the right to restitution. The prosecutor shall file and serve within 60 days after sentencing a proposed judgment for restitution and a notice that includes information concerning the identity of any victims or other persons seeking restitution, whether any victim or other person expressly declines restitution, the nature and amount of any damages together with any supporting documentation, a restitution amount recommendation, and the names of any co-defendants and their case numbers. Within 30 days after receipt of the proposed judgment for restitution, the defendant shall file any objection to the proposed judgment, a statement of grounds for the objection, and a financial statement. If the defendant does not file an objection, the court may enter the judgment for restitution without further proceedings. If the defendant files an objection and either party requests a hearing, the court shall schedule a hearing.

(13) Access to presentence reports.

(A) The victim may request a copy of the presentence report prepared under the Unified Code of Corrections from the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney shall redact the following information before providing a copy of the report:

(i) the defendant's mental history and condition;

(ii) any evaluation prepared under subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 5-3-2; and

(iii) the name, address, phone number, and other personal information about any other victim.

(B) The State's Attorney or the defendant may request the court redact other information in the report that may endanger the safety of any person.

(C) The State's Attorney may orally disclose to the victim any of the information that has been redacted if there is a reasonable likelihood that the information will be stated in court at the sentencing.

(D) The State's Attorney must advise the victim that the victim must maintain the confidentiality of the report and other information. Any dissemination of the report or information that was not stated at a court proceeding constitutes indirect criminal contempt of court.

(14) Appellate relief. If the trial court denies the relief requested, the victim, the victim's attorney, or the prosecuting attorney may file an appeal within 30 days of the trial court's ruling. The trial or appellate court may stay the court proceedings if the court finds that a stay would not violate a constitutional right of the defendant. If the appellate court denies the relief sought, the reasons for the denial shall be clearly stated in a written opinion. In any appeal in a criminal case, the State may assert as error the court's denial of any crime victim's right in the proceeding to which the appeal relates.

(15) Limitation on appellate relief. In no case shall an appellate court provide a new trial to remedy the violation of a victim's right.

(16) The right to be reasonably protected from the accused throughout the criminal justice process and the right to have the safety of the victim and the victim's family considered in determining whether to release the defendant, and setting conditions of release after arrest and conviction. A victim of domestic violence, a sexual offense, or stalking may request the entry of a protective order under Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(d) Procedures after the imposition of sentence.

(1) The Prisoner Review Board shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen, upon written request, of the prisoner's release on parole, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian, other than the Department of Juvenile Justice, of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a crime from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall provide to a victim or any other concerned citizen a recent photograph of any person convicted of a felony, upon his or her release from custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen when feasible at least 7 days prior to the prisoner's release on furlough of the times and dates of such furlough. Upon written request by the victim or any other concerned citizen, the State's Attorney shall notify the person once of the times and dates of release of a prisoner sentenced to periodic imprisonment. Notification shall be based on the most recent information as to the victim's or other concerned citizen's residence or other location available to the notifying authority.

(2) When the defendant has been committed to the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections, the victim may request to be notified by the releasing authority of the approval by the court of an on-grounds pass, a supervised off-grounds pass, an unsupervised off-grounds pass, or conditional release; the release on an off-grounds pass; the return from an off-grounds pass; transfer to another facility; conditional release; escape; death; or final discharge from State custody. The Department of Human Services shall establish and maintain a statewide telephone number to be used by victims to make notification requests under these provisions and shall publicize this telephone number on its website and to the State's Attorney of each county.

(3) In the event of an escape from State custody, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of the escape and the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim. The notification shall be based upon the most recent information as to the victim's residence or other location available to the Board. When no such information is available, the Board shall make all reasonable efforts to obtain the information and make the notification. When the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the victim.

(4) The victim of the crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced has the right to register with the Prisoner Review Board's victim registry. Victims registered with the Board shall receive reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole hearing or target aftercare release date. The victim has the right to submit a victim statement for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice in writing, on film, videotape, or other electronic means, or in the form of a recording prior to the parole hearing or target aftercare release date, or in person at the parole hearing or aftercare release protest hearing, or by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section. The victim shall be notified within 7 days after the prisoner has been granted parole or aftercare release and shall be informed of the right to inspect the registry of parole decisions, established under subsection (g) of Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The provisions of this paragraph (4) are subject to the Open Parole Hearings Act. Victim statements provided to the Board shall be confidential and privileged, including any statements received prior to January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-288), except if the statement was an oral statement made by the victim at a hearing open to the public.

(4-1) The crime victim has the right to submit a victim statement for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice prior to or at a hearing to determine the conditions of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence or at a hearing on revocation of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence. A victim statement may be submitted in writing, on film, videotape, or other electronic means, or in the form of a recording, or orally at a hearing, or by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section. Victim statements provided to the Board shall be confidential and privileged, including any statements received prior to January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-288), except if the statement was an oral statement made by the victim at a hearing open to the public.

(4-2) The crime victim has the right to submit a victim statement to the Prisoner Review Board for consideration at an executive clemency hearing as provided in Section 3-3-13 of the Unified Code of Corrections. A victim statement may be submitted in writing, on film, videotape, or other electronic means, or in the form of a recording prior to a hearing, or orally at a hearing, or by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section. Victim statements provided to the Board shall be confidential and privileged, including any statements received prior to January 1, 2020 (the effective date of Public Act 101-288), except if the statement was an oral statement made by the victim at a hearing open to the public.

(5) If a statement is presented under Section 6, the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice shall inform the victim of any order of discharge pursuant to Section 3-2.5-85 or 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(6) At the written or oral request of the victim of the crime for which the prisoner was sentenced or the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted, the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice shall notify the victim and the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted of the death of the prisoner if the prisoner died while on parole or aftercare release or mandatory supervised release.

(7) When a defendant who has been committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services is released or discharged and subsequently committed to the Department of Human Services as a sexually violent person and the victim had requested to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge, conditional release, death, or escape from State custody, the releasing authority shall provide to the Department of Human Services such information that would allow the Department of Human Services to contact the victim.

(8) When a defendant has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act and has been sentenced to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall notify the victim of the sex offense of the prisoner's eligibility for release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a sex offense from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The notification shall be made to the victim at least 30 days, whenever possible, before release of the sex offender.

(e) The officials named in this Section may satisfy some or all of their obligations to provide notices and other information through participation in a statewide victim and witness notification system established by the Attorney General under Section 8.5 of this Act.

(f) The Prisoner Review Board shall establish a toll-free number that may be accessed by the crime victim to present a victim statement to the Board in accordance with paragraphs (4), (4-1), and (4-2) of subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-288, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-22, eff. 6-25-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 12-13-21.)

Section 635. The Privacy of Child Victims of Criminal Sexual Offenses Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(725 ILCS 190/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1453)

Sec. 3. Confidentiality of Law Enforcement and Court Records. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, inspection and copying of law enforcement records maintained by any law enforcement agency or all circuit court records maintained by any circuit clerk relating to any investigation or proceeding pertaining to a criminal sexual offense, by any person, except a judge, state's attorney, assistant state's attorney, Attorney General, Assistant Attorney General, psychologist, psychiatrist, social worker, doctor, parent, parole agent, aftercare specialist, probation officer, defendant, defendant's attorney, advocate, or victim's attorney (as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act) in any criminal proceeding or investigation related thereto, shall be restricted to exclude the identity of any child who is a victim of such criminal sexual offense or alleged criminal sexual offense unless a court order is issued authorizing the removal of such restriction as provided under this Section of a particular case record or particular records of cases maintained by any circuit court clerk. A court may, for the child's protection and for good cause shown, prohibit any person or agency present in court from further disclosing the child's identity.

A court may prohibit such disclosure only after giving notice and a hearing to all affected parties. In determining whether to prohibit disclosure of the minor's identity, the court shall consider:

(1) the best interest of the child; and

(2) whether such nondisclosure would further a compelling State interest.

When a criminal sexual offense is committed or alleged to have been committed by a school district employee or any individual contractually employed by a school district, a copy of the criminal history record information relating to the investigation of the offense or alleged offense shall be transmitted to the superintendent of schools of the district immediately upon request or if the law enforcement agency knows that a school district employee or any individual contractually employed by a school district has committed or is alleged to have committed a criminal sexual offense, the superintendent of schools of the district shall be immediately provided a copy of the criminal history record information. The copy of the criminal history record information to be provided under this Section shall exclude the identity of the child victim. The superintendent shall be restricted from revealing the identity of the victim. Nothing in this Article precludes or may be used to preclude a mandated reporter from reporting child abuse or child neglect as required under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

For the purposes of this Act, "criminal history record information" means:

(i) chronologically maintained arrest information, such as traditional arrest logs or blotters;

(ii) the name of a person in the custody of a law enforcement agency and the charges for which that person is being held;

(iii) court records that are public;

(iv) records that are otherwise available under State or local law; or

(v) records in which the requesting party is the individual identified, except as provided under part (vii) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-651, eff. 1-1-22; revised 12-13-21.)

Section 640. The Privacy of Adult Victims of Criminal Sexual Offenses Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(725 ILCS 191/10)

Sec. 10. Victim privacy. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, inspection and copying of law enforcement records maintained by any law enforcement agency or all circuit court records maintained by any circuit clerk relating to any investigation or proceeding pertaining to a criminal sexual offense, by any person, except a judge, State's Attorney, Assistant State's Attorney, Attorney General, Assistant Attorney General, psychologist, psychiatrist, social worker, doctor, parole agent, aftercare specialist, probation officer, defendant, defendant's attorney, advocate, or victim's attorney (as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act) in any criminal proceeding or investigation related thereto shall be restricted to exclude the identity of any adult victim of such criminal sexual offense or alleged criminal sexual offense unless a court order is issued authorizing the removal of such restriction as provided under this Section of a particular case record or particular records of cases maintained by any circuit court clerk.

A court may, for the adult victim's protection and for good cause shown, prohibit any person or agency present in court from further disclosing the adult victim's identity. A court may prohibit such disclosure only after giving notice and a hearing to all affected parties. In determining whether to prohibit disclosure of the adult victim's identity, the court shall consider:

(1) the best interest of the adult victim; and

(2) whether such nondisclosure would further a compelling State interest.

(Source: P.A. 102-652, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-24-21.)

Section 645. The Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act is amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

(725 ILCS 202/50)

Sec. 50. Sexual assault evidence tracking system.

(a) On June 26, 2018, the Sexual Assault Evidence Tracking and Reporting Commission issued its report as required under Section 43. It is the intention of the General Assembly in enacting the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly to implement the recommendations of the Sexual Assault Evidence Tracking and Reporting Commission set forth in that report in a manner that utilizes the current resources of law enforcement agencies whenever possible and that is adaptable to changing technologies and circumstances.

(a-1) Due to the complex nature of a statewide tracking system for sexual assault evidence and to ensure all stakeholders, including, but not limited to, victims and their designees, health care facilities, law enforcement agencies, forensic labs, and State's Attorneys offices are integrated, the Commission recommended the purchase of an electronic off-the-shelf tracking system. The system must be able to communicate with all stakeholders and provide real-time information to a victim or his or her designee on the status of the evidence that was collected. The sexual assault evidence tracking system must:

(1) be electronic and web-based;

(2) be administered by the Illinois State Police;

(3) have help desk availability at all times;

(4) ensure the law enforcement agency contact information is accessible to the victim or his or her designee through the tracking system, so there is contact information for questions;

(5) have the option for external connectivity to evidence management systems, laboratory information management systems, or other electronic data systems already in existence by any of the stakeholders to minimize additional burdens or tasks on stakeholders;

(6) allow for the victim to opt in for automatic notifications when status updates are entered in the system, if the system allows;

(7) include at each step in the process, a brief explanation of the general purpose of that step and a general indication of how long the step may take to complete;

(8) contain minimum fields for tracking and reporting, as follows:

(A) for sexual assault evidence kit vendor fields:

(i) each sexual evidence kit identification number provided to each health care facility; and

(ii) the date the sexual evidence kit was sent to the health care facility.

(B) for health care facility fields:

(i) the date sexual assault evidence was collected; and

(ii) the date notification was made to the law enforcement agency that the sexual assault evidence was collected.

(C) for law enforcement agency fields:

(i) the date the law enforcement agency took possession of the sexual assault evidence from the health care facility, another law enforcement agency, or victim if he or she did not go through a health care facility;

(ii) the law enforcement agency complaint number;

(iii) if the law enforcement agency that takes possession of the sexual assault evidence from a health care facility is not the law enforcement agency with jurisdiction in which the offense occurred, the date when the law enforcement agency notified the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction that the agency has sexual assault evidence required under subsection (c) of Section 20 of the Sexual Assault Incident Procedure Act;

(iv) an indication if the victim consented for analysis of the sexual assault evidence;

(v) if the victim did not consent for analysis of the sexual assault evidence, the date on which the law enforcement agency is no longer required to store the sexual assault evidence;

(vi) a mechanism for the law enforcement agency to document why the sexual assault evidence was not submitted to the laboratory for analysis, if applicable;

(vii) the date the law enforcement agency received the sexual assault evidence results back from the laboratory;

(viii) the date statutory notifications were made to the victim or documentation of why notification was not made; and

(ix) the date the law enforcement agency turned over the case information to the State's Attorney office, if applicable.

(D) for forensic lab fields:

(i) the date the sexual assault evidence is received from the law enforcement agency by the forensic lab for analysis;

(ii) the laboratory case number, visible to the law enforcement agency and State's Attorney office; and

(iii) the date the laboratory completes the analysis of the sexual assault evidence.

(E) for State's Attorney office fields:

(i) the date the State's Attorney office received the sexual assault evidence results from the laboratory, if applicable; and

(ii) the disposition or status of the case.

(a-2) The Commission also developed guidelines for secure electronic access to a tracking system for a victim, or his or her designee to access information on the status of the evidence collected. The Commission recommended minimum guidelines in order to safeguard confidentiality of the information contained within this statewide tracking system. These recommendations are that the sexual assault evidence tracking system must:

(1) allow for secure access, controlled by an administering body who can restrict user access and allow different permissions based on the need of that particular user and health care facility users may include out-of-state border hospitals, if authorized by the Illinois State Police to obtain this State's kits from vendor;

(2) provide for users, other than victims, the ability to provide for any individual who is granted access to the program their own unique user ID and password;

(3) provide for a mechanism for a victim to enter the system and only access his or her own information;

(4) enable a sexual assault evidence to be tracked and identified through the unique sexual assault evidence kit identification number or barcode that the vendor applies to each sexual assault evidence kit per the Illinois State Police's contract;

(5) have a mechanism to inventory unused kits provided to a health care facility from the vendor;

(6) provide users the option to either scan the bar code or manually enter the sexual assault evidence kit number into the tracking program;

(7) provide a mechanism to create a separate unique identification number for cases in which a sexual evidence kit was not collected, but other evidence was collected;

(8) provide the ability to record date, time, and user ID whenever any user accesses the system;

(9) provide for real-time entry and update of data;

(10) contain report functions including:

(A) health care facility compliance with applicable laws;

(B) law enforcement agency compliance with applicable laws;

(C) law enforcement agency annual inventory of cases to each State's Attorney office; and

(D) forensic lab compliance with applicable laws; and

(11) provide automatic notifications to the law enforcement agency when:

(A) a health care facility has collected sexual assault evidence;

(B) unreleased sexual assault evidence that is being stored by the law enforcement agency has met the minimum storage requirement by law; and

(C) timelines as required by law are not met for a particular case, if not otherwise documented.

(b) The Illinois State Police may develop rules to implement a sexual assault evidence tracking system that conforms with subsections (a-1) and (a-2) of this Section. The Illinois State Police shall design the criteria for the sexual assault evidence tracking system so that, to the extent reasonably possible, the system can use existing technologies and products, including, but not limited to, currently available tracking systems. The sexual assault evidence tracking system shall be operational and shall begin tracking and reporting sexual assault evidence no later than one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. The Illinois State Police may adopt additional rules as it deems necessary to ensure that the sexual assault evidence tracking system continues to be a useful tool for law enforcement.

(c) A treatment hospital, a treatment hospital with approved pediatric transfer, an out-of-state hospital approved by the Department of Public Health to receive transfers of Illinois sexual assault survivors, or an approved pediatric health care facility defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act shall participate in the sexual assault evidence tracking system created under this Section and in accordance with rules adopted under subsection (b), including, but not limited to, the collection of sexual assault evidence and providing information regarding that evidence, including, but not limited to, providing notice to law enforcement that the evidence has been collected.

(d) The operations of the sexual assault evidence tracking system shall be funded by moneys appropriated for that purpose from the State Crime Laboratory Fund and funds provided to the Illinois State Police through asset forfeiture, together with such other funds as the General Assembly may appropriate.

(e) To ensure that the sexual assault evidence tracking system is operational, the Illinois State Police may adopt emergency rules to implement the provisions of this Section under subsection (ff) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(f) Information, including, but not limited to, evidence and records in the sexual assault evidence tracking system is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 101-377, eff. 8-16-19; 102-22, eff. 6-25-21; 102-523, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-20-21.)

Section 650. The Sexual Assault Incident Procedure Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(725 ILCS 203/35)

Sec. 35. Release of information.

(a) Upon the request of the victim who has consented to the release of sexual assault evidence for testing, the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall notify the victim about the Illinois State Police sexual assault evidence tracking system and provide the following information in writing:

(1) the date the sexual assault evidence was sent to an Illinois State Police forensic laboratory or designated laboratory;

(2) test results provided to the law enforcement agency by an Illinois State Police forensic laboratory or designated laboratory, including, but not limited to:

(A) whether a DNA profile was obtained from the testing of the sexual assault evidence from the victim's case;

(B) whether the DNA profile developed from the sexual assault evidence has been searched against the DNA Index System or any state or federal DNA database;

(C) whether an association was made to an individual whose DNA profile is consistent with the sexual assault evidence DNA profile, provided that disclosure would not impede or compromise an ongoing investigation; and

(D) whether any drugs were detected in a urine or blood sample analyzed for drug facilitated sexual assault and information about any drugs detected.

(b) The information listed in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section shall be provided to the victim within 7 days of the transfer of the evidence to the laboratory. The information listed in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section shall be provided to the victim within 7 days of the receipt of the information by the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(c) At the time the sexual assault evidence is released for testing, the victim shall be provided written information by the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction or the hospital providing emergency services and forensic services to the victim informing him or her of the right to request information under subsection (a) of this Section. A victim may designate another person or agency to receive this information.

(d) The victim or the victim's designee shall keep the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction informed of the name, address, telephone number, and email address of the person to whom the information should be provided, and any changes of the name, address, telephone number, and email address, if an email address is available.

(Source: P.A. 102-22, eff. 6-25-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-20-21.)

Section 655. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2-2, 3-3-14, 3-6-7.2, 3-14-1, 5-4-1, 5-4-3a, 5-5-3, 5-9-1.4, and 5-9-1.9 and the heading of Article 3 of Chapter III as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-2)

Sec. 3-2-2. Powers and duties of the Department.

(1) In addition to the powers, duties, and responsibilities which are otherwise provided by law, the Department shall have the following powers:

(a) To accept persons committed to it by the courts of this State for care, custody, treatment, and rehabilitation, and to accept federal prisoners and aliens over whom the Office of the Federal Detention Trustee is authorized to exercise the federal detention function for limited purposes and periods of time.

(b) To develop and maintain reception and evaluation units for purposes of analyzing the custody and rehabilitation needs of persons committed to it and to assign such persons to institutions and programs under its control or transfer them to other appropriate agencies. In consultation with the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse (now the Department of Human Services), the Department of Corrections shall develop a master plan for the screening and evaluation of persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug abuse problems, and for making appropriate treatment available to such persons; the Department shall report to the General Assembly on such plan not later than April 1, 1987. The maintenance and implementation of such plan shall be contingent upon the availability of funds.

(b-1) To create and implement, on January 1, 2002, a pilot program to establish the effectiveness of pupillometer technology (the measurement of the pupil's reaction to light) as an alternative to a urine test for purposes of screening and evaluating persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug problems. The pilot program shall require the pupillometer technology to be used in at least one Department of Corrections facility. The Director may expand the pilot program to include an additional facility or facilities as he or she deems appropriate. A minimum of 4,000 tests shall be included in the pilot program. The Department must report to the General Assembly on the effectiveness of the program by January 1, 2003.

(b-5) To develop, in consultation with the Illinois State Police, a program for tracking and evaluating each inmate from commitment through release for recording his or her gang affiliations, activities, or ranks.

(c) To maintain and administer all State correctional institutions and facilities under its control and to establish new ones as needed. Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may, with the written approval of the Governor, authorize the Department of Central Management Services to enter into an agreement of the type described in subsection (d) of Section 405-300 of the Department of Central Management Services Law. The Department shall designate those institutions which shall constitute the State Penitentiary System. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall maintain and administer all State youth centers pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 3-2.5-20.

Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may authorize the Department of Central Management Services to accept bids from counties and municipalities for the construction, remodeling, or conversion of a structure to be leased to the Department of Corrections for the purposes of its serving as a correctional institution or facility. Such construction, remodeling, or conversion may be financed with revenue bonds issued pursuant to the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act by the municipality or county. The lease specified in a bid shall be for a term of not less than the time needed to retire any revenue bonds used to finance the project, but not to exceed 40 years. The lease may grant to the State the option to purchase the structure outright.

Upon receipt of the bids, the Department may certify one or more of the bids and shall submit any such bids to the General Assembly for approval. Upon approval of a bid by a constitutional majority of both houses of the General Assembly, pursuant to joint resolution, the Department of Central Management Services may enter into an agreement with the county or municipality pursuant to such bid.

(c-5) To build and maintain regional juvenile detention centers and to charge a per diem to the counties as established by the Department to defray the costs of housing each minor in a center. In this subsection (c-5), "juvenile detention center" means a facility to house minors during pendency of trial who have been transferred from proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to prosecutions under the criminal laws of this State in accordance with Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether the transfer was by operation of law or permissive under that Section. The Department shall designate the counties to be served by each regional juvenile detention center.

(d) To develop and maintain programs of control, rehabilitation, and employment of committed persons within its institutions.

(d-5) To provide a pre-release job preparation program for inmates at Illinois adult correctional centers.

(d-10) To provide educational and visitation opportunities to committed persons within its institutions through temporary access to content-controlled tablets that may be provided as a privilege to committed persons to induce or reward compliance.

(e) To establish a system of supervision and guidance of committed persons in the community.

(f) To establish in cooperation with the Department of Transportation to supply a sufficient number of prisoners for use by the Department of Transportation to clean up the trash and garbage along State, county, township, or municipal highways as designated by the Department of Transportation. The Department of Corrections, at the request of the Department of Transportation, shall furnish such prisoners at least annually for a period to be agreed upon between the Director of Corrections and the Secretary of Transportation. The prisoners used on this program shall be selected by the Director of Corrections on whatever basis he deems proper in consideration of their term, behavior and earned eligibility to participate in such program - where they will be outside of the prison facility but still in the custody of the Department of Corrections. Prisoners convicted of first degree murder, or a Class X felony, or armed violence, or aggravated kidnapping, or criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, or forcible detention, or arson, or a prisoner adjudged a Habitual Criminal shall not be eligible for selection to participate in such program. The prisoners shall remain as prisoners in the custody of the Department of Corrections and such Department shall furnish whatever security is necessary. The Department of Transportation shall furnish trucks and equipment for the highway cleanup program and personnel to supervise and direct the program. Neither the Department of Corrections nor the Department of Transportation shall replace any regular employee with a prisoner.

(g) To maintain records of persons committed to it and to establish programs of research, statistics, and planning.

(h) To investigate the grievances of any person committed to the Department and to inquire into any alleged misconduct by employees or committed persons; and for these purposes it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of writings and papers, and may examine under oath any witnesses who may appear before it; to also investigate alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole or release; and for this purpose it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents only if there is reason to believe that such procedures would provide evidence that such violations have occurred.

If any person fails to obey a subpoena issued under this subsection, the Director may apply to any circuit court to secure compliance with the subpoena. The failure to comply with the order of the court issued in response thereto shall be punishable as contempt of court.

(i) To appoint and remove the chief administrative officers, and administer programs of training and development of personnel of the Department. Personnel assigned by the Department to be responsible for the custody and control of committed persons or to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or employees or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole shall be conservators of the peace for those purposes, and shall have the full power of peace officers outside of the facilities of the Department in the protection, arrest, retaking, and reconfining of committed persons or where the exercise of such power is necessary to the investigation of such misconduct or violations. This subsection shall not apply to persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on aftercare release.

(j) To cooperate with other departments and agencies and with local communities for the development of standards and programs for better correctional services in this State.

(k) To administer all moneys and properties of the Department.

(l) To report annually to the Governor on the committed persons, institutions, and programs of the Department.

(l-5) (Blank).

(m) To make all rules and regulations and exercise all powers and duties vested by law in the Department.

(n) To establish rules and regulations for administering a system of sentence credits, established in accordance with Section 3-6-3, subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(o) To administer the distribution of funds from the State Treasury to reimburse counties where State penal institutions are located for the payment of assistant state's attorneys' salaries under Section 4-2001 of the Counties Code.

(p) To exchange information with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services for the purpose of verifying living arrangements and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Code and the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(q) To establish a diversion program.

The program shall provide a structured environment for selected technical parole or mandatory supervised release violators and committed persons who have violated the rules governing their conduct while in work release. This program shall not apply to those persons who have committed a new offense while serving on parole or mandatory supervised release or while committed to work release.

Elements of the program shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) The staff of a diversion facility shall provide supervision in accordance with required objectives set by the facility.

(2) Participants shall be required to maintain employment.

(3) Each participant shall pay for room and board at the facility on a sliding-scale basis according to the participant's income.

(4) Each participant shall:

(A) provide restitution to victims in accordance with any court order;

(B) provide financial support to his dependents; and

(C) make appropriate payments toward any other court-ordered obligations.

(5) Each participant shall complete community service in addition to employment.

(6) Participants shall take part in such counseling, educational, and other programs as the Department may deem appropriate.

(7) Participants shall submit to drug and alcohol screening.

(8) The Department shall promulgate rules governing the administration of the program.

(r) To enter into intergovernmental cooperation agreements under which persons in the custody of the Department may participate in a county impact incarceration program established under Section 3-6038 or 3-15003.5 of the Counties Code.

(r-5) (Blank).

(r-10) To systematically and routinely identify with respect to each streetgang active within the correctional system: (1) each active gang; (2) every existing inter-gang affiliation or alliance; and (3) the current leaders in each gang. The Department shall promptly segregate leaders from inmates who belong to their gangs and allied gangs. "Segregate" means no physical contact and, to the extent possible under the conditions and space available at the correctional facility, prohibition of visual and sound communication. For the purposes of this paragraph (r-10), "leaders" means persons who:

(i) are members of a criminal streetgang;

(ii) with respect to other individuals within the streetgang, occupy a position of organizer, supervisor, or other position of management or leadership; and

(iii) are actively and personally engaged in directing, ordering, authorizing, or requesting commission of criminal acts by others, which are punishable as a felony, in furtherance of streetgang related activity both within and outside of the Department of Corrections.

"Streetgang", "gang", and "streetgang related" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(s) To operate a super-maximum security institution, in order to manage and supervise inmates who are disruptive or dangerous and provide for the safety and security of the staff and the other inmates.

(t) To monitor any unprivileged conversation or any unprivileged communication, whether in person or by mail, telephone, or other means, between an inmate who, before commitment to the Department, was a member of an organized gang and any other person without the need to show cause or satisfy any other requirement of law before beginning the monitoring, except as constitutionally required. The monitoring may be by video, voice, or other method of recording or by any other means. As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "unprivileged conversation" or "unprivileged communication" means a conversation or communication that is not protected by any privilege recognized by law or by decision, rule, or order of the Illinois Supreme Court.

(u) To establish a Women's and Children's Pre-release Community Supervision Program for the purpose of providing housing and services to eligible female inmates, as determined by the Department, and their newborn and young children.

(u-5) To issue an order, whenever a person committed to the Department absconds or absents himself or herself, without authority to do so, from any facility or program to which he or she is assigned. The order shall be certified by the Director, the Supervisor of the Apprehension Unit, or any person duly designated by the Director, with the seal of the Department affixed. The order shall be directed to all sheriffs, coroners, and police officers, or to any particular person named in the order. Any order issued pursuant to this subdivision (1)(u-5) shall be sufficient warrant for the officer or person named in the order to arrest and deliver the committed person to the proper correctional officials and shall be executed the same as criminal process.

(u-6) To appoint a point of contact person who shall receive suggestions, complaints, or other requests to the Department from visitors to Department institutions or facilities and from other members of the public.

(v) To do all other acts necessary to carry out the provisions of this Chapter.

(2) The Department of Corrections shall by January 1, 1998, consider building and operating a correctional facility within 100 miles of a county of over 2,000,000 inhabitants, especially a facility designed to house juvenile participants in the impact incarceration program.

(3) When the Department lets bids for contracts for medical services to be provided to persons committed to Department facilities by a health maintenance organization, medical service corporation, or other health care provider, the bid may only be let to a health care provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(4) When the Department lets bids for contracts for food or commissary services to be provided to Department facilities, the bid may only be let to a food or commissary services provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(5) On and after the date 6 months after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-488), as provided in the Executive Order 1 (2012) Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were transferred from the Department of Corrections to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred back to the Department of Corrections; however, powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were exercised by the Department of Corrections before the effective date of Executive Order 3 (2005) but that pertain to individuals resident in facilities operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice are transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(Source: P.A. 101-235, eff. 1-1-20; 102-350, eff. 8-13-21; 102-535, eff. 1-1-22; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/Ch. III Art. 3 heading)

ARTICLE 3. PRISONER REVIEW PAROLE AND PARDON BOARD

(730 ILCS 5/3-3-14)

Sec. 3-3-14. Procedure for medical release.

(a) Definitions. :

(1) As used in this Section, "medically incapacitated" means that an inmate has any diagnosable medical condition, including dementia and severe, permanent medical or cognitive disability, that prevents the inmate from completing more than one activity of daily living without assistance or that incapacitates the inmate to the extent that institutional confinement does not offer additional restrictions, and that the condition is unlikely to improve noticeably in the future.

(2) As used in this Section, "terminal illness" means a condition that satisfies all of the following criteria:

(i) the condition is irreversible and incurable; and

(ii) in accordance with medical standards and a reasonable degree of medical certainty, based on an individual assessment of the inmate, the condition is likely to cause death to the inmate within 18 months.

(b) The Prisoner Review Board shall consider an application for compassionate release on behalf of any inmate who meets any of the following:

(1) is suffering from a terminal illness; or

(2) has been diagnosed with a condition that will result in medical incapacity within the next 6 months; or

(3) has become medically incapacitated subsequent to sentencing due to illness or injury.

(c) Initial application. Application:

(1) An initial application for medical release may be filed with the Prisoner Review Board by an inmate, a prison official, a medical professional who has treated or diagnosed the inmate, or an inmate's spouse, parent, guardian, grandparent, aunt or uncle, sibling, child over the age of eighteen years, or attorney. If the initial application is made by someone other than the inmate, the inmate, or if the inmate is they are medically unable to consent, the guardian or family member designated to represent the inmate's their interests must consent to the application at the time of the institutional hearing.

(2) Application materials shall be maintained on the Prisoner Review Board's website and , the Department of Corrections' website, and maintained in a clearly visible place within the law library and the infirmary of every penal institution and facility operated by the Department of Corrections.

(3) The initial application need not be notarized, can be sent via email or facsimile, and must contain the following information:

(i) the inmate's name and Illinois Department of Corrections number;

(ii) the inmate's diagnosis;

(iii) a statement that the inmate meets one of the following diagnostic criteria:

(A) (a) the inmate is suffering from a terminal illness;

(B) (b) the inmate has been diagnosed with a condition that will result in medical incapacity within the next 6 months; or

(C) (c) the inmate has become medically incapacitated subsequent to sentencing due to illness or injury.

(4) Upon receiving the inmate's initial application, the Board shall order the Department of Corrections to have a physician or nurse practitioner evaluate the inmate and create a written evaluation within ten days of the Board's order. The evaluation shall include but need not be limited to:

(i) a concise statement of the inmate's medical diagnosis, including prognosis, likelihood of recovery, and primary symptoms, to include incapacitation; and

(ii) a statement confirming or denying that the inmate meets one of the criteria stated in subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) Institutional hearing. No public institutional hearing is required for consideration of a petition, but shall be granted at the request of the petitioner. The inmate may be represented by counsel and may present witnesses to the Board members. Hearings shall be governed by the Open Parole Hearings Act.

(e) Voting procedure. Petitions shall be considered by three-member panels, and decisions shall be made by simple majority.

(f) Consideration. In considering a petition for release under the statute, the Prisoner Review Board may consider the following factors:

(i) the inmate's diagnosis and likelihood of recovery;

(ii) the approximate cost of health care to the State should the inmate remain in custody;

(iii) the impact that the inmate's continued incarceration may have on the provision of medical care within the Department;

(iv) the present likelihood of and ability to pose a substantial danger to the physical safety of a specifically identifiable person or persons;

(v) any statements by the victim regarding release; and

(vi) whether the inmate's condition was explicitly disclosed to the original sentencing judge and taken into account at the time of sentencing.

(g) Inmates granted medical release shall be released on mandatory supervised release for a period of 5 years subject to Section 3-3-8, which shall operate to discharge any remaining term of years imposed upon him or her. However, in no event shall the eligible person serve a period of mandatory supervised release greater than the aggregate of the discharged underlying sentence and the mandatory supervised release period as set forth in Section 5-4.5-20.

(h) Within 90 days of the receipt of the initial application, the Prisoner Review Board shall conduct a hearing if a hearing is requested and render a decision granting or denying the petitioner's request for release.

(i) Nothing in this statute shall preclude a petitioner from seeking alternative forms of release, including clemency, relief from the sentencing court, post-conviction relief, or any other legal remedy.

(j) This act applies retroactively, and shall be applicable to all currently incarcerated people in Illinois.

(k) Data report. The Department of Corrections and the Prisoner Review Board shall release a report annually published on their websites that reports the following information about the Medical Release Program:

(1) The number of applications for medical release received by the Board in the preceding year, and information about those applications, including:

(i) demographic data about the individual, including race or ethnicity, gender, age, and institution;

(ii) the highest class of offense for which the individual is incarcerated;

(iii) the relationship of the applicant to the person completing the application;

(iv) whether the applicant had applied for medical release before and been denied, and, if so, when;

(v) whether the person applied as a person who is medically incapacitated or a person who is terminally ill; and

(vi) a basic description of the underlying medical condition that led to the application.

(2) The number of medical statements from the Department of Corrections received by the Board. ;

(3) The number of institutional hearings on medical release applications conducted by the Board. ;

(4) The number of people approved for medical release, and information about them, including:

(i) demographic data about the individual including race or ethnicity, gender, age, and zip code to which they were released;

(ii) whether the person applied as a person who is medically incapacitated or a person who is terminally ill;

(iii) a basic description of the underlying medical condition that led to the application; and

(iv) a basic description of the medical setting the person was released to.

(5) The number of people released on the medical release program. ;

(6) The number of people approved for medical release who experienced more than a one-month one month delay between release decision and ultimate release, including: ;

(i) demographic data about the individuals including race or ethnicity, gender and age;

(ii) the reason for the delay;

(iii) whether the person remains incarcerated; and

(iv) a basic description of the underlying medical condition of the applying person.

(7) For those individuals released on mandatory supervised release due to a granted application for medical release: ;

(i) the number of individuals who were serving terms of mandatory supervised release because of medical release applications during the previous year;

(ii) the number of individuals who had their mandatory supervised release revoked; and

(iii) the number of individuals who died during the previous year.

(8) Information on seriously ill individuals incarcerated at the Department of Corrections, including:

(i) the number of people currently receiving full-time one-on-one medical care or assistance with activities of daily living within Department of Corrections facilities and whether that care is provided by a medical practitioner or an inmate, along with the institutions at which they are incarcerated; and

(ii) the number of people who spent more than one month in outside hospital care during the previous year and their home institutions.

All the information provided in this report shall be provided in aggregate, and nothing shall be construed to require the public dissemination of any personal medical information.

(Source: P.A. 102-494, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-24-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-6-7.2)

Sec. 3-6-7.2. Educational programming programing for pregnant committed persons. The Department shall develop and provide to each pregnant committed person educational programming relating to pregnancy and parenting. The programming must include instruction regarding:

(1) appropriate prenatal care and hygiene;

(2) the effects of prenatal exposure to alcohol and drugs on a developing fetus;

(3) parenting skills; and

(4) medical and mental health issues applicable to children.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 7-1-21; revised 11-24-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-14-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-14-1)

Sec. 3-14-1. Release from the institution.

(a) Upon release of a person on parole, mandatory release, final discharge, or pardon, the Department shall return all property held for him, provide him with suitable clothing and procure necessary transportation for him to his designated place of residence and employment. It may provide such person with a grant of money for travel and expenses which may be paid in installments. The amount of the money grant shall be determined by the Department.

(a-1) The Department shall, before a wrongfully imprisoned person, as defined in Section 3-1-2 of this Code, is discharged from the Department, provide him or her with any documents necessary after discharge.

(a-2) The Department of Corrections may establish and maintain, in any institution it administers, revolving funds to be known as "Travel and Allowances Revolving Funds". These revolving funds shall be used for advancing travel and expense allowances to committed, paroled, and discharged prisoners. The moneys paid into such revolving funds shall be from appropriations to the Department for Committed, Paroled, and Discharged Prisoners.

(a-3) Upon release of a person who is eligible to vote on parole, mandatory release, final discharge, or pardon, the Department shall provide the person with a form that informs him or her that his or her voting rights have been restored and a voter registration application. The Department shall have available voter registration applications in the languages provided by the Illinois State Board of Elections. The form that informs the person that his or her rights have been restored shall include the following information:

(1) All voting rights are restored upon release from the Department's custody.

(2) A person who is eligible to vote must register in order to be able to vote.

The Department of Corrections shall confirm that the person received the voter registration application and has been informed that his or her voting rights have been restored.

(a-4) Prior to release of a person on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, or pardon, the Department shall screen every person for Medicaid eligibility. Officials of the correctional institution or facility where the committed person is assigned shall assist an eligible person to complete a Medicaid application to ensure that the person begins receiving benefits as soon as possible after his or her release. The application must include the eligible person's address associated with his or her residence upon release from the facility. If the residence is temporary, the eligible person must notify the Department of Human Services of his or her change in address upon transition to permanent housing.

(b) (Blank).

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this Code, the Department shall establish procedures to provide written notification of any release of any person who has been convicted of a felony to the State's Attorney and sheriff of the county from which the offender was committed, and the State's Attorney and sheriff of the county into which the offender is to be paroled or released. Except as otherwise provided in this Code, the Department shall establish procedures to provide written notification to the proper law enforcement agency for any municipality of any release of any person who has been convicted of a felony if the arrest of the offender or the commission of the offense took place in the municipality, if the offender is to be paroled or released into the municipality, or if the offender resided in the municipality at the time of the commission of the offense. If a person convicted of a felony who is in the custody of the Department of Corrections or on parole or mandatory supervised release informs the Department that he or she has resided, resides, or will reside at an address that is a housing facility owned, managed, operated, or leased by a public housing agency, the Department must send written notification of that information to the public housing agency that owns, manages, operates, or leases the housing facility. The written notification shall, when possible, be given at least 14 days before release of the person from custody, or as soon thereafter as possible. The written notification shall be provided electronically if the State's Attorney, sheriff, proper law enforcement agency, or public housing agency has provided the Department with an accurate and up to date email address.

(c-1) (Blank).

(c-2) The Department shall establish procedures to provide notice to the Illinois State Police of the release or discharge of persons convicted of violations of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a violation of the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act. The Illinois State Police shall make this information available to local, State, or federal law enforcement agencies upon request.

(c-5) If a person on parole or mandatory supervised release becomes a resident of a facility licensed or regulated by the Department of Public Health, the Illinois Department of Public Aid, or the Illinois Department of Human Services, the Department of Corrections shall provide copies of the following information to the appropriate licensing or regulating Department and the licensed or regulated facility where the person becomes a resident:

(1) The mittimus and any pre-sentence investigation reports.

(2) The social evaluation prepared pursuant to Section 3-8-2.

(3) Any pre-release evaluation conducted pursuant to subsection (j) of Section 3-6-2.

(4) Reports of disciplinary infractions and dispositions.

(5) Any parole plan, including orders issued by the Prisoner Review Board, and any violation reports and dispositions.

(6) The name and contact information for the assigned parole agent and parole supervisor.

This information shall be provided within 3 days of the person becoming a resident of the facility.

(c-10) If a person on parole or mandatory supervised release becomes a resident of a facility licensed or regulated by the Department of Public Health, the Illinois Department of Public Aid, or the Illinois Department of Human Services, the Department of Corrections shall provide written notification of such residence to the following:

(1) The Prisoner Review Board.

(2) The chief of police and sheriff in the municipality and county in which the licensed facility is located.

The notification shall be provided within 3 days of the person becoming a resident of the facility.

(d) Upon the release of a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, or pardon, the Department shall provide such person with information concerning programs and services of the Illinois Department of Public Health to ascertain whether such person has been exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any identified causative agent of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS).

(e) Upon the release of a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, final discharge, pardon, or who has been wrongfully imprisoned, the Department shall verify the released person's full name, date of birth, and social security number. If verification is made by the Department by obtaining a certified copy of the released person's birth certificate and the released person's social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, the Department shall provide the birth certificate and social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary to the released person. If verification by the Department is done by means other than obtaining a certified copy of the released person's birth certificate and the released person's social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, the Department shall complete a verification form, prescribed by the Secretary of State, and shall provide that verification form to the released person.

(f) Forty-five days prior to the scheduled discharge of a person committed to the custody of the Department of Corrections, the Department shall give the person:

(1) who is otherwise uninsured an opportunity to apply for health care coverage including medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 1-8.5 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, and the Department of Corrections shall provide assistance with completion of the application for health care coverage including medical assistance;

(2) information about obtaining a standard Illinois Identification Card or a limited-term Illinois Identification Card under Section 4 of the Illinois Identification Card Act;

(3) information about voter registration and may distribute information prepared by the State Board of Elections. The Department of Corrections may enter into an interagency contract with the State Board of Elections to participate in the automatic voter registration program and be a designated automatic voter registration agency under Section 1A-16.2 of the Election Code;

(4) information about job listings upon discharge from the correctional institution or facility;

(5) information about available housing upon discharge from the correctional institution or facility;

(6) a directory of elected State officials and of officials elected in the county and municipality, if any, in which the committed person intends to reside upon discharge from the correctional institution or facility; and

(7) any other information that the Department of Corrections deems necessary to provide the committed person in order for the committed person to reenter the community and avoid recidivism.

The Department may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-351, eff. 1-1-20; 101-442, eff. 1-1-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; 102-606, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-15-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-1)

Sec. 5-4-1. Sentencing hearing.

(a) Except when the death penalty is sought under hearing procedures otherwise specified, after a determination of guilt, a hearing shall be held to impose the sentence. However, prior to the imposition of sentence on an individual being sentenced for an offense based upon a charge for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the individual must undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol or other drug abuse problem exists and the extent of such a problem. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. However, if the individual is not a resident of Illinois, the court may, in its discretion, accept an evaluation from a program in the state of such individual's residence. The court shall make a specific finding about whether the defendant is eligible for participation in a Department impact incarceration program as provided in Section 5-8-1.1 or 5-8-1.3, and if not, provide an explanation as to why a sentence to impact incarceration is not an appropriate sentence. The court may in its sentencing order recommend a defendant for placement in a Department of Corrections substance abuse treatment program as provided in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of Section 3-2-2 conditioned upon the defendant being accepted in a program by the Department of Corrections. At the hearing the court shall:

(1) consider the evidence, if any, received upon the trial;

(2) consider any presentence reports;

(3) consider the financial impact of incarceration based on the financial impact statement filed with the clerk of the court by the Department of Corrections;

(4) consider evidence and information offered by the parties in aggravation and mitigation;

(4.5) consider substance abuse treatment, eligibility screening, and an assessment, if any, of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(5) hear arguments as to sentencing alternatives;

(6) afford the defendant the opportunity to make a statement in his own behalf;

(7) afford the victim of a violent crime or a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the opportunity to present an oral or written statement, as guaranteed by Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and provided in Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. The court shall allow a victim to make an oral statement if the victim is present in the courtroom and requests to make an oral or written statement. An oral or written statement includes the victim or a representative of the victim reading the written statement. The court may allow persons impacted by the crime who are not victims under subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act to present an oral or written statement. A victim and any person making an oral statement shall not be put under oath or subject to cross-examination. All statements offered under this paragraph (7) shall become part of the record of the court. In this paragraph (7), "victim of a violent crime" means a person who is a victim of a violent crime for which the defendant has been convicted after a bench or jury trial or a person who is the victim of a violent crime with which the defendant was charged and the defendant has been convicted under a plea agreement of a crime that is not a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act;

(7.5) afford a qualified person affected by: (i) a violation of Section 405, 405.1, 405.2, or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a violation of Section 55 or Section 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or (ii) a Class 4 felony violation of Section 11-14, 11-14.3 except as described in subdivisions (a)(2)(A) and (a)(2)(B), 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, or 11-19 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, committed by the defendant the opportunity to make a statement concerning the impact on the qualified person and to offer evidence in aggravation or mitigation; provided that the statement and evidence offered in aggravation or mitigation shall first be prepared in writing in conjunction with the State's Attorney before it may be presented orally at the hearing. Sworn testimony offered by the qualified person is subject to the defendant's right to cross-examine. All statements and evidence offered under this paragraph (7.5) shall become part of the record of the court. In this paragraph (7.5), "qualified person" means any person who: (i) lived or worked within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place; or (ii) is familiar with various public places within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place. "Qualified person" includes any peace officer or any member of any duly organized State, county, or municipal peace officer unit assigned to the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place;

(8) in cases of reckless homicide afford the victim's spouse, guardians, parents or other immediate family members an opportunity to make oral statements;

(9) in cases involving a felony sex offense as defined under the Sex Offender Management Board Act, consider the results of the sex offender evaluation conducted pursuant to Section 5-3-2 of this Act; and

(10) make a finding of whether a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense for which the defendant is being sentenced.

(b) All sentences shall be imposed by the judge based upon his independent assessment of the elements specified above and any agreement as to sentence reached by the parties. The judge who presided at the trial or the judge who accepted the plea of guilty shall impose the sentence unless he is no longer sitting as a judge in that court. Where the judge does not impose sentence at the same time on all defendants who are convicted as a result of being involved in the same offense, the defendant or the State's Attorney may advise the sentencing court of the disposition of any other defendants who have been sentenced.

(b-1) In imposing a sentence of imprisonment or periodic imprisonment for a Class 3 or Class 4 felony for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge is an available sentence, if the defendant has no prior sentence of probation or conditional discharge and no prior conviction for a violent crime, the defendant shall not be sentenced to imprisonment before review and consideration of a presentence report and determination and explanation of why the particular evidence, information, factor in aggravation, factual finding, or other reasons support a sentencing determination that one or more of the factors under subsection (a) of Section 5-6-1 of this Code apply and that probation or conditional discharge is not an appropriate sentence.

(c) In imposing a sentence for a violent crime or for an offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other drug or any combination thereof, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, when such offense resulted in the personal injury to someone other than the defendant, the trial judge shall specify on the record the particular evidence, information, factors in mitigation and aggravation or other reasons that led to his sentencing determination. The full verbatim record of the sentencing hearing shall be filed with the clerk of the court and shall be a public record.

(c-1) In imposing a sentence for the offense of aggravated kidnapping for ransom, home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, the trial judge shall make a finding as to whether the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, and shall enter that finding and the basis for that finding in the record.

(c-1.5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, in imposing a sentence for an offense that requires a mandatory minimum sentence of imprisonment, the court may instead sentence the offender to probation, conditional discharge, or a lesser term of imprisonment it deems appropriate if: (1) the offense involves the use or possession of drugs, retail theft, or driving on a revoked license due to unpaid financial obligations; (2) the court finds that the defendant does not pose a risk to public safety; and (3) the interest of justice requires imposing a term of probation, conditional discharge, or a lesser term of imprisonment. The court must state on the record its reasons for imposing probation, conditional discharge, or a lesser term of imprisonment.

(c-2) If the defendant is sentenced to prison, other than when a sentence of natural life imprisonment or a sentence of death is imposed, at the time the sentence is imposed the judge shall state on the record in open court the approximate period of time the defendant will serve in custody according to the then current statutory rules and regulations for sentence credit found in Section 3-6-3 and other related provisions of this Code. This statement is intended solely to inform the public, has no legal effect on the defendant's actual release, and may not be relied on by the defendant on appeal.

The judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, other than when the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(4) of Section 3-6-3, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, assuming the defendant receives all of his or her sentence credit, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months, less up to 180 days additional earned sentence credit. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations, does not receive those credits, the actual time served in prison will be longer. The defendant may also receive an additional one-half day sentence credit for each day of participation in vocational, industry, substance abuse, and educational programs as provided for by Illinois statute."

When the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of Section 3-6-3, other than first degree murder, and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, and when the sentence is imposed for reckless homicide as defined in subsection (e) of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1999, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated arson if the offense was committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176), and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is entitled to no more than 4 1/2 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment. Therefore, this defendant will serve at least 85% of his or her sentence. Assuming the defendant receives 4 1/2 days credit for each month of his or her sentence, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations receives lesser credit, the actual time served in prison will be longer."

When a sentence of imprisonment is imposed for first degree murder and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is not entitled to sentence credit. Therefore, this defendant will serve 100% of his or her sentence."

When the sentencing order recommends placement in a substance abuse program for any offense that results in incarceration in a Department of Corrections facility and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the judge's statement, in addition to any other judge's statement required under this Section, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant shall receive no earned sentence credit under clause (3) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3 until he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program or receives a waiver from the Director of Corrections pursuant to clause (4.5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3."

(c-4) Before the sentencing hearing and as part of the presentence investigation under Section 5-3-1, the court shall inquire of the defendant whether the defendant is currently serving in or is a veteran of the Armed Forces of the United States. If the defendant is currently serving in the Armed Forces of the United States or is a veteran of the Armed Forces of the United States and has been diagnosed as having a mental illness by a qualified psychiatrist or clinical psychologist or physician, the court may:

(1) order that the officer preparing the presentence report consult with the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs, or another agency or person with suitable knowledge or experience for the purpose of providing the court with information regarding treatment options available to the defendant, including federal, State, and local programming; and

(2) consider the treatment recommendations of any diagnosing or treating mental health professionals together with the treatment options available to the defendant in imposing sentence.

For the purposes of this subsection (c-4), "qualified psychiatrist" means a reputable physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all its branches, who has specialized in the diagnosis and treatment of mental and nervous disorders for a period of not less than 5 years.

(c-6) In imposing a sentence, the trial judge shall specify, on the record, the particular evidence and other reasons which led to his or her determination that a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense.

(c-7) In imposing a sentence for a Class 3 or 4 felony, other than a violent crime as defined in Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act, the court shall determine and indicate in the sentencing order whether the defendant has 4 or more or fewer than 4 months remaining on his or her sentence accounting for time served.

(d) When the defendant is committed to the Department of Corrections, the State's Attorney shall and counsel for the defendant may file a statement with the clerk of the court to be transmitted to the department, agency or institution to which the defendant is committed to furnish such department, agency or institution with the facts and circumstances of the offense for which the person was committed together with all other factual information accessible to them in regard to the person prior to his commitment relative to his habits, associates, disposition and reputation and any other facts and circumstances which may aid such department, agency or institution during its custody of such person. The clerk shall within 10 days after receiving any such statements transmit a copy to such department, agency or institution and a copy to the other party, provided, however, that this shall not be cause for delay in conveying the person to the department, agency or institution to which he has been committed.

(e) The clerk of the court shall transmit to the department, agency or institution, if any, to which the defendant is committed, the following:

(1) the sentence imposed;

(2) any statement by the court of the basis for imposing the sentence;

(3) any presentence reports;

(3.5) any sex offender evaluations;

(3.6) any substance abuse treatment eligibility screening and assessment of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(4) the number of days, if any, which the defendant has been in custody and for which he is entitled to credit against the sentence, which information shall be provided to the clerk by the sheriff;

(4.1) any finding of great bodily harm made by the court with respect to an offense enumerated in subsection (c-1);

(5) all statements filed under subsection (d) of this Section;

(6) any medical or mental health records or summaries of the defendant;

(7) the municipality where the arrest of the offender or the commission of the offense has occurred, where such municipality has a population of more than 25,000 persons;

(8) all statements made and evidence offered under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of this Section; and

(9) all additional matters which the court directs the clerk to transmit.

(f) In cases in which the court finds that a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense for which the defendant is being sentenced, the clerk of the court shall, within 5 days thereafter, forward a report of such conviction to the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 100-961, eff. 1-1-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-105, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, Article 10, Section 10-281, eff. 7-1-21; 101-652, Article 20, Section 20-5, eff. 7-1-21; revised 11-22-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-3a)

Sec. 5-4-3a. DNA testing backlog accountability.

(a) On or before August 1 of each year, the Illinois State Police shall report to the Governor and both houses of the General Assembly the following information:

(1) the extent of the backlog of cases awaiting testing or awaiting DNA analysis by the Illinois State Police that Department, including, but not limited to, those tests conducted under Section 5-4-3, as of June 30 of the previous fiscal year, with the backlog being defined as all cases awaiting forensic testing whether in the physical custody of the Illinois State Police or in the physical custody of local law enforcement, provided that the Illinois State Police have written notice of any evidence in the physical custody of local law enforcement prior to June 1 of that year; and

(2) what measures have been and are being taken to reduce that backlog and the estimated costs or expenditures in doing so.

(b) The information reported under this Section shall be made available to the public, at the time it is reported, on the official website web site of the Illinois State Police.

(c) Beginning January 1, 2016, the Illinois State Police shall quarterly report on the status of the processing of biology submitted to the Illinois State Police Laboratory for analysis. The report shall be submitted to the Governor and the General Assembly, and shall be posted on the Illinois State Police website. The report shall include the following for each Illinois State Police Laboratory location and any laboratory to which the Illinois State Police has outsourced evidence for testing:

(1) For biology submissions, report both total assignment and sexual assault or abuse assignment (as defined by the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act) figures for:

(A) The number of assignments received in the preceding quarter.

(B) The number of assignments completed in the preceding quarter.

(C) The number of assignments awaiting waiting analysis.

(D) The number of assignments sent for outsourcing.

(E) The number of assignments awaiting waiting analysis that were received within the past 30 days.

(F) The number of assignments awaiting waiting analysis that were received 31 to 90 days prior.

(G) The number of assignments awaiting waiting analysis that were received 91 to 180 days prior.

(H) The number of assignments awaiting waiting analysis that were received 181 to 365 days prior.

(I) The number of assignments awaiting waiting analysis that were received more than 365 days prior.

(J) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(3) For all other categories of testing (e.g., drug chemistry, firearms/toolmark, footwear/tire track, latent prints, toxicology, and trace chemistry analysis):

(A) The number of assignments received in the preceding quarter.

(B) The number of assignments completed in the preceding quarter.

(C) The number of assignments awaiting waiting analysis.

(D) The number of cases entered in the National Integrated Ballistic Information Network (NIBIN).

(E) The number of investigative leads developed from National Integrated Ballistic Information Network (NIBIN) analysis.

(4) For the Combined DNA Index System (CODIS), report both total assignment and sexual assault or abuse assignment (as defined by the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act) figures for subparagraphs (D), (E), and (F) of this paragraph (4):

(A) The number of new offender samples received in the preceding quarter.

(B) The number of offender samples uploaded to CODIS in the preceding quarter.

(C) The number of offender samples awaiting analysis.

(D) The number of unknown DNA case profiles uploaded to CODIS in the preceding quarter.

(E) The number of CODIS hits in the preceding quarter.

(F) The number of forensic evidence submissions submitted to confirm a previously reported CODIS hit.

(5) For each category of testing, report the number of trained forensic scientists and the number of forensic scientists in training.

As used in this subsection (c), "completed" means completion of both the analysis of the evidence and the provision of the results to the submitting law enforcement agency.

(d) The provisions of this subsection (d), other than this sentence, are inoperative on and after January 1, 2019 or 2 years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, whichever is later. In consultation with and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer, the Illinois State Police may obtain contracts for services, commodities, and equipment to assist in the timely completion of biology, drug chemistry, firearms/toolmark, footwear/tire track, latent prints, toxicology, microscopy, trace chemistry, and Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) analysis. Contracts to support the delivery of timely forensic science services are not subject to the provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code, except for Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of that Code, provided that the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of the Illinois Procurement Code. For any contracts for services which are currently provided by members of a collective bargaining agreement, the applicable terms of the collective bargaining agreement concerning subcontracting shall be followed.

(Source: P.A. 102-237, eff. 1-1-22; 102-278, eff. 8-6-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-15-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) (Blank).

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1.5) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing fentanyl or an analog thereof.

(D-5) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which relates to 3 or more grams of a substance containing heroin or an analog thereof.

(E) (Blank).

(F) A Class 1 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 1 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 1 or greater felony) classified as a Class 1 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(F-3) A Class 2 or greater felony sex offense or felony firearm offense if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 2 or greater felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(P-5) A violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the victim is a household or family member of the defendant.

(Q) A violation of subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 20-1, Section 20-1.2, or Section 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(S) (Blank).

(T) (Blank).

(U) A second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim is under 13 years of age and the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition.

(Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value.

(BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000.

(CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding for sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or counterfeit items having a retail value in the aggregate of $500,000 or more.

(DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the firearm is being used.

(EE) A conviction for a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 24-3B of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6), and (4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community service hours for participation in activities and treatment as determined by court services.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 30 consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service, shall be imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (b-5) of that Section.

(4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for a period of not less than 5 years from the date of his or her release from prison.

(4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4 and not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(5) The court may sentence a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation of that Section shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(6) (Blank).

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(13) A person convicted of or placed on court supervision for an assault or aggravated assault when the victim and the offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or convicted of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery may be required to attend a Partner Abuse Intervention Program under protocols set forth by the Illinois Department of Human Services under such terms and conditions imposed by the court. The costs of such classes shall be paid by the offender.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of this Code which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of this Code. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan, including, but not limited to, the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health, including, but not limited to, tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of high school equivalency testing. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional earned sentence credit as provided under Section 3-6-3.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person has a substance use disorder, as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, to a treatment program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 102-168, eff. 7-27-21; 102-531, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-12-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-9-1.4)

Sec. 5-9-1.4. (a) "Crime laboratory" means any not-for-profit laboratory registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration of the United States Department of Justice, substantially funded by a unit or combination of units of local government or the State of Illinois, which regularly employs at least one person engaged in the analysis of controlled substances, cannabis, methamphetamine, or steroids for criminal justice agencies in criminal matters and provides testimony with respect to such examinations.

(b) (Blank).

(c) In addition to any other disposition made pursuant to the provisions of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, any minor adjudicated delinquent for an offense which if committed by an adult would constitute a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Steroid Control Act shall be required to pay a criminal laboratory analysis assessment of $100 for each adjudication. Upon verified petition of the minor, the court may suspend payment of all or part of the assessment if it finds that the minor does not have the ability to pay the assessment. The parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of such assessment on the minor's behalf.

(d) All criminal laboratory analysis fees provided for by this Section shall be collected by the clerk of the court and forwarded to the appropriate crime laboratory fund as provided in subsection (f).

(e) Crime laboratory funds shall be established as follows:

(1) Any unit of local government which maintains a crime laboratory may establish a crime laboratory fund within the office of the county or municipal treasurer.

(2) Any combination of units of local government which maintains a crime laboratory may establish a crime laboratory fund within the office of the treasurer of the county where the crime laboratory is situated.

(3) The State Crime Laboratory Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, and in addition to any other transfers that may be provided by law, on August 20, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-505) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund into the State Crime Laboratory Fund. Upon completion of the transfer, the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund is dissolved, and any future deposits due to that Fund and any outstanding obligations or liabilities of that Fund shall pass to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

(f) The analysis assessment provided for in subsection (c) of this Section shall be forwarded to the office of the treasurer of the unit of local government that performed the analysis if that unit of local government has established a crime laboratory fund, or to the State Crime Laboratory Fund if the analysis was performed by a laboratory operated by the Illinois State Police. If the analysis was performed by a crime laboratory funded by a combination of units of local government, the analysis assessment shall be forwarded to the treasurer of the county where the crime laboratory is situated if a crime laboratory fund has been established in that county. If the unit of local government or combination of units of local government has not established a crime laboratory fund, then the analysis assessment shall be forwarded to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

(g) Moneys deposited into a crime laboratory fund created pursuant to paragraph paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (e) of this Section shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing law and shall be designated for the exclusive use of the crime laboratory. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) costs incurred in providing analysis for controlled substances in connection with criminal investigations conducted within this State;

(2) purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses; and

(3) continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(h) Moneys deposited in the State Crime Laboratory Fund created pursuant to paragraph (3) of subsection (d) of this Section shall be used by State crime laboratories as designated by the Director of the Illinois State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing law and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories or for the sexual assault evidence tracking system created under Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act. These uses may include those enumerated in subsection (g) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-377, eff. 8-16-19; 102-505, eff. 8-20-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.9)

Sec. 5-9-1.9. DUI analysis fee.

(a) "Crime laboratory" means a not-for-profit laboratory substantially funded by a single unit or combination of units of local government or the State of Illinois that regularly employs at least one person engaged in the DUI analysis of blood, other bodily substance, and urine for criminal justice agencies in criminal matters and provides testimony with respect to such examinations.

"DUI analysis" means an analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine for purposes of determining whether a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code has occurred.

(b) (Blank).

(c) In addition to any other disposition made under the provisions of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, any minor adjudicated delinquent for an offense which if committed by an adult would constitute a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall pay a crime laboratory DUI analysis assessment of $150 for each adjudication. Upon verified petition of the minor, the court may suspend payment of all or part of the assessment if it finds that the minor does not have the ability to pay the assessment. The parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the minor may pay some or all of the assessment on the minor's behalf.

(d) All crime laboratory DUI analysis assessments provided for by this Section shall be collected by the clerk of the court and forwarded to the appropriate crime laboratory DUI fund as provided in subsection (f).

(e) Crime laboratory funds shall be established as follows:

(1) A unit of local government that maintains a crime laboratory may establish a crime laboratory DUI fund within the office of the county or municipal treasurer.

(2) Any combination of units of local government that maintains a crime laboratory may establish a crime laboratory DUI fund within the office of the treasurer of the county where the crime laboratory is situated.

(3) (Blank).

(f) The analysis assessment provided for in subsection (c) of this Section shall be forwarded to the office of the treasurer of the unit of local government that performed the analysis if that unit of local government has established a crime laboratory DUI fund, or remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund if the analysis was performed by a laboratory operated by the Illinois State Police. If the analysis was performed by a crime laboratory funded by a combination of units of local government, the analysis assessment shall be forwarded to the treasurer of the county where the crime laboratory is situated if a crime laboratory DUI fund has been established in that county. If the unit of local government or combination of units of local government has not established a crime laboratory DUI fund, then the analysis assessment shall be remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

(g) Moneys deposited into a crime laboratory DUI fund created under paragraphs (1) and (2) of subsection (e) of this Section shall be in addition to any allocations made pursuant to existing law and shall be designated for the exclusive use of the crime laboratory. These uses may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) Costs incurred in providing analysis for DUI investigations conducted within this State.

(2) Purchase and maintenance of equipment for use in performing analyses.

(3) Continuing education, training, and professional development of forensic scientists regularly employed by these laboratories.

(h) Moneys deposited in the State Crime Laboratory Fund shall be used by State crime laboratories as designated by the Director of the Illinois State Police. These funds shall be in addition to any allocations made according to existing law and shall be designated for the exclusive use of State crime laboratories. These uses may include those enumerated in subsection (g) of this Section.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary and in addition to any other transfers that may be provided by law, on June 17, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-16) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the State Police DUI Fund into the State Police Operations Assistance Fund. Upon completion of the transfer, the State Police DUI Fund is dissolved, and any future deposits due to that Fund and any outstanding obligations or liabilities of that Fund shall pass to the State Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(Source: P.A. 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-145, eff. 7-23-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-20-21.)

Section 660. The Sex Offender Community Notification Law is amended by changing Section 121 as follows:

(730 ILCS 152/121)

Sec. 121. Notification regarding juvenile offenders.

(a) The Illinois State Police and any law enforcement agency having jurisdiction may, in the Illinois State Police's Department's or agency's discretion, only provide the information specified in subsection (b) of Section 120 of this Act, with respect to an adjudicated juvenile delinquent, to any person when that person's safety may be compromised for some reason related to the juvenile sex offender.

(b) The local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction to register the juvenile sex offender shall ascertain from the juvenile sex offender whether the juvenile sex offender is enrolled in school; and if so, shall provide a copy of the sex offender registration form only to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any school counselor designated by him or her. The registration form shall be kept separately from any and all school records maintained on behalf of the juvenile sex offender.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-18-21.)

Section 665. The Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act is amended by changing Sections 85, 95, 100, and 105 as follows:

(730 ILCS 154/85)

Sec. 85. Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(a) The Illinois State Police shall establish and maintain a Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database for the purpose of identifying violent offenders against youth and making that information available to the persons specified in Section 95. The Database shall be created from the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) established under Section 6 of the Intergovernmental Missing Child Recovery Act of 1984. The Illinois State Police shall examine its LEADS database for persons registered as violent offenders against youth under this Act and shall identify those who are violent offenders against youth and shall add all the information, including photographs if available, on those violent offenders against youth to the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database.

(b) The Illinois State Police must make the information contained in the Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database accessible on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Information" on the Illinois State Police's Department's World Wide Web home page. The Illinois State Police must update that information as it deems necessary.

The Illinois State Police may require that a person who seeks access to the violent offender against youth information submit biographical information about himself or herself before permitting access to the violent offender against youth information. The Illinois State Police must promulgate rules in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act to implement this subsection (b) and those rules must include procedures to ensure that the information in the database is accurate.

(c) The Illinois State Police must develop and conduct training to educate all those entities involved in the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Program.

(d) The Illinois State Police shall commence the duties prescribed in the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act within 12 months after the effective date of this Act.

(e) The Illinois State Police shall collect and annually report, on or before December 31 of each year, the following information, making it publicly accessible on the Illinois State Police website:

(1) the number of registrants;

(2) the number of registrants currently registered for each offense requiring registration; and

(3) biographical data, such as age of the registrant, race of the registrant, and age of the victim.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-24-21.)

(730 ILCS 154/95)

Sec. 95. Community notification of violent offenders against youth.

(a) The sheriff of the county, except Cook County, shall disclose to the following the name, address, date of birth, place of employment, school attended, and offense or adjudication of all violent offenders against youth required to register under Section 10 of this Act:

(1) The boards of institutions of higher education or other appropriate administrative offices of each nonpublic non-public institution of higher education located in the county where the violent offender against youth is required to register, resides, is employed, or is attending an institution of higher education; and

(2) School boards of public school districts and the principal or other appropriate administrative officer of each nonpublic school located in the county where the violent offender against youth is required to register or is employed; and

(3) Child care facilities located in the county where the violent offender against youth is required to register or is employed; and

(4) Libraries located in the county where the violent offender against youth is required to register or is employed.

(a-2) The sheriff of Cook County shall disclose to the following the name, address, date of birth, place of employment, school attended, and offense or adjudication of all violent offenders against youth required to register under Section 10 of this Act:

(1) School boards of public school districts and the principal or other appropriate administrative officer of each nonpublic school located within the region of Cook County, as those public school districts and nonpublic schools are identified in LEADS, other than the City of Chicago, where the violent offender against youth is required to register or is employed; and

(2) Child care facilities located within the region of Cook County, as those child care facilities are identified in LEADS, other than the City of Chicago, where the violent offender against youth is required to register or is employed; and

(3) The boards of institutions of higher education or other appropriate administrative offices of each nonpublic non-public institution of higher education located in the county, other than the City of Chicago, where the violent offender against youth is required to register, resides, is employed, or attending an institution of higher education; and

(4) Libraries located in the county, other than the City of Chicago, where the violent offender against youth is required to register, resides, is employed, or is attending an institution of higher education.

(a-3) The Chicago Police Department shall disclose to the following the name, address, date of birth, place of employment, school attended, and offense or adjudication of all violent offenders against youth required to register under Section 10 of this Act:

(1) School boards of public school districts and the principal or other appropriate administrative officer of each nonpublic school located in the police district where the violent offender against youth is required to register or is employed if the offender is required to register or is employed in the City of Chicago; and

(2) Child care facilities located in the police district where the violent offender against youth is required to register or is employed if the offender is required to register or is employed in the City of Chicago; and

(3) The boards of institutions of higher education or other appropriate administrative offices of each nonpublic non-public institution of higher education located in the police district where the violent offender against youth is required to register, resides, is employed, or attending an institution of higher education in the City of Chicago; and

(4) Libraries located in the police district where the violent offender against youth is required to register or is employed if the offender is required to register or is employed in the City of Chicago.

(a-4) The Illinois State Police shall provide a list of violent offenders against youth required to register to the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(b) The Illinois State Police and any law enforcement agency may disclose, in the Illinois State Police's Department's or agency's discretion, the following information to any person likely to encounter a violent offender against youth:

(1) The offender's name, address, and date of birth.

(2) The offense for which the offender was convicted.

(3) The offender's photograph or other such information that will help identify the violent offender against youth.

(4) Offender employment information, to protect public safety.

(c) The name, address, date of birth, and offense or adjudication for violent offenders against youth required to register under Section 10 of this Act shall be open to inspection by the public as provided in this Section. Every municipal police department shall make available at its headquarters the information on all violent offenders against youth who are required to register in the municipality under this Act. The sheriff shall also make available at his or her headquarters the information on all violent offenders against youth who are required to register under this Act and who live in unincorporated areas of the county. Violent offender against youth information must be made available for public inspection to any person, no later than 72 hours or 3 business days from the date of the request. The request must be made in person, in writing, or by telephone. Availability must include giving the inquirer access to a facility where the information may be copied. A department or sheriff may charge a fee, but the fee may not exceed the actual costs of copying the information. An inquirer must be allowed to copy this information in his or her own handwriting. A department or sheriff must allow access to the information during normal public working hours. The sheriff or a municipal police department may publish the photographs of violent offenders against youth where any victim was 13 years of age or younger and who are required to register in the municipality or county under this Act in a newspaper or magazine of general circulation in the municipality or county or may disseminate the photographs of those violent offenders against youth on the Internet or on television. The law enforcement agency may make available the information on all violent offenders against youth residing within any county.

(d) The Illinois State Police and any law enforcement agency having jurisdiction may, in the Illinois State Police's Department's or agency's discretion, place the information specified in subsection (b) on the Internet or in other media.

(Source: P.A. 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-24-21.)

(730 ILCS 154/100)

Sec. 100. Notification regarding juvenile offenders.

(a) The Illinois State Police and any law enforcement agency having jurisdiction may, in the Illinois State Police's Department's or agency's discretion, only provide the information specified in subsection (b) of Section 95, with respect to an adjudicated juvenile delinquent, to any person when that person's safety may be compromised for some reason related to the juvenile violent offender against youth.

(b) The local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction to register the juvenile violent offender against youth shall ascertain from the juvenile violent offender against youth whether the juvenile violent offender against youth is enrolled in school; and if so, shall provide a copy of the violent offender against youth registration form only to the principal or chief administrative officer of the school and any school counselor designated by him or her. The registration form shall be kept separately from any and all school records maintained on behalf of the juvenile violent offender against youth.

(Source: P.A. 102-197, eff. 7-30-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-20-21.)

(730 ILCS 154/105)

Sec. 105. Special alerts. A law enforcement agency having jurisdiction may provide to the public a special alert list warning parents to be aware that violent offenders against youth may attempt to contact children during holidays involving children, such as Halloween, Christmas, and Easter and informing parents that information containing the names and addresses of registered violent offenders against youth are accessible on the Internet by means of a hyperlink labeled "Violent Offender Against Youth Information" on the Illinois Department of State Police's World Wide Web home page and are available for public inspection at the agency's headquarters.

(Source: P.A. 94-945, eff. 6-27-06; revised 11-24-21.)

Section 670. The No Representation Without Population Act is amended by changing Sections 2-1 and 2-10 as follows:

(730 ILCS 205/2-1)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 2-1. Short title. This Article Act may be cited as the No Representation Without Population Act. References in this Article to "this Act" mean this Article.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-2-21.)

(730 ILCS 205/2-10)

Sec. 2-10. Reports to the State Board of Elections.

(a) Within 30 days after the effective date of this Act, and thereafter, on or before May 1 of each year in which where the federal decennial census is taken but in which the United States Bureau of the Census allocates incarcerated persons as residents of correctional facilities, the Department shall deliver to the State Board of Elections the following information:

(1) A unique identifier, not including the name or Department-assigned inmate number, for each incarcerated person subject to the jurisdiction of the Department on the date for which the decennial census reports population. The unique identifier shall enable the State Board of Elections to address inquiries about specific address records to the Department, without making it possible for anyone outside of the Department to identify the inmate to whom the address record pertains.

(2) The street address of the correctional facility where the person was incarcerated at the time of the report.

(3) The last known address of the person prior to incarceration or other legal residence, if known.

(4) The person's race, whether the person is of Hispanic or Latino origin, and whether the person is age 18 or older, if known.

(5) Any additional information as the State Board of Elections may request pursuant to law.

(b) The Department shall provide the information specified in subsection (a) in the form that the State Board of Elections shall specify.

(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the information required to be provided to the State Board of Elections pursuant to this Section shall not include the name of any incarcerated person and shall not allow for the identification of any person therefrom, except to the Department. The information shall be treated as confidential and shall not be disclosed by the State Board of Elections except as redistricting data aggregated by census block for purposes specified in Section 2-20.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-25; revised 12-2-21.)

Section 675. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Sections 2-1401 and 21-103 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/2-1401) (from Ch. 110, par. 2-1401)

Sec. 2-1401. Relief from judgments.

(a) Relief from final orders and judgments, after 30 days from the entry thereof, may be had upon petition as provided in this Section. Writs of error coram nobis and coram vobis, bills of review, and bills in the nature of bills of review are abolished. All relief heretofore obtainable and the grounds for such relief heretofore available, whether by any of the foregoing remedies or otherwise, shall be available in every case, by proceedings hereunder, regardless of the nature of the order or judgment from which relief is sought or of the proceedings in which it was entered. Except as provided in the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, there shall be no distinction between actions and other proceedings, statutory or otherwise, as to availability of relief, grounds for relief, or the relief obtainable.

(b) The petition must be filed in the same proceeding in which the order or judgment was entered but is not a continuation thereof. The petition must be supported by an affidavit or other appropriate showing as to matters not of record. A petition to reopen a foreclosure proceeding must include as parties to the petition, but is not limited to, all parties in the original action in addition to the current record title holders of the property, current occupants, and any individual or entity that had a recorded interest in the property before the filing of the petition. All parties to the petition shall be notified as provided by rule.

(b-5) A movant may present a meritorious claim under this Section if the allegations in the petition establish each of the following by a preponderance of the evidence:

(1) the movant was convicted of a forcible felony;

(2) the movant's participation in the offense was related to him or her previously having been a victim of domestic violence as perpetrated by an intimate partner;

(3) no evidence of domestic violence against the movant was presented at the movant's sentencing hearing;

(4) the movant was unaware of the mitigating nature of the evidence of the domestic violence at the time of sentencing and could not have learned of its significance sooner through diligence; and

(5) the new evidence of domestic violence against the movant is material and noncumulative to other evidence offered at the sentencing hearing, and is of such a conclusive character that it would likely change the sentence imposed by the original trial court.

Nothing in this subsection (b-5) shall prevent a movant from applying for any other relief under this Section or any other law otherwise available to him or her.

As used in this subsection (b-5):

"Domestic violence" means abuse as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

"Forcible felony" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Intimate partner" means a spouse or former spouse, persons who have or allegedly have had a child in common, or persons who have or have had a dating or engagement relationship.

(b-10) A movant may present a meritorious claim under this Section if the allegations in the petition establish each of the following by a preponderance of the evidence:

(A) she was convicted of a forcible felony;

(B) her participation in the offense was a direct result of her suffering from post-partum depression or post-partum psychosis;

(C) no evidence of post-partum depression or post-partum psychosis was presented by a qualified medical person at trial or sentencing, or both;

(D) she was unaware of the mitigating nature of the evidence or, if aware, was at the time unable to present this defense due to suffering from post-partum depression or post-partum psychosis, or, at the time of trial or sentencing, neither was a recognized mental illness and as such, she was unable to receive proper treatment; and

(E) evidence of post-partum depression or post-partum psychosis as suffered by the person is material and noncumulative to other evidence offered at the time of trial or sentencing, and it is of such a conclusive character that it would likely change the sentence imposed by the original court.

Nothing in this subsection (b-10) prevents a person from applying for any other relief under this Article or any other law otherwise available to her.

As used in this subsection (b-10):

"Post-partum depression" means a mood disorder which strikes many women during and after pregnancy and usually occurs during pregnancy and up to 12 months after delivery. This depression can include anxiety disorders.

"Post-partum psychosis" means an extreme form of post-partum depression which can occur during pregnancy and up to 12 months after delivery. This can include losing touch with reality, distorted thinking, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, paranoia, hyperactivity and rapid speech, or mania.

(c) Except as provided in Section 20b of the Adoption Act and Section 2-32 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or in a petition based upon Section 116-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or subsection (b-10) of this Section, or in a motion to vacate and expunge convictions under the Cannabis Control Act as provided by subsection (i) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act, the petition must be filed not later than 2 years after the entry of the order or judgment. Time during which the person seeking relief is under legal disability or duress or the ground for relief is fraudulently concealed shall be excluded in computing the period of 2 years.

(c-5) Any individual may at any time file a petition and institute proceedings under this Section, if his or her final order or judgment, which was entered based on a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, has potential consequences under federal immigration law.

(d) The filing of a petition under this Section does not affect the order or judgment, or suspend its operation.

(e) Unless lack of jurisdiction affirmatively appears from the record proper, the vacation or modification of an order or judgment pursuant to the provisions of this Section does not affect the right, title, or interest in or to any real or personal property of any person, not a party to the original action, acquired for value after the entry of the order or judgment but before the filing of the petition, nor affect any right of any person not a party to the original action under any certificate of sale issued before the filing of the petition, pursuant to a sale based on the order or judgment. When a petition is filed pursuant to this Section to reopen a foreclosure proceeding, notwithstanding the provisions of Section 15-1701 of this Code, the purchaser or successor purchaser of real property subject to a foreclosure sale who was not a party to the mortgage foreclosure proceedings is entitled to remain in possession of the property until the foreclosure action is defeated or the previously foreclosed defendant redeems from the foreclosure sale if the purchaser has been in possession of the property for more than 6 months.

(f) Nothing contained in this Section affects any existing right to relief from a void order or judgment, or to employ any existing method to procure that relief.

(Source: P.A. 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-411, eff. 8-16-19; 102-639, eff. 8-27-21; revised 11-24-21.)

(735 ILCS 5/21-103)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 21-103. Notice by publication.

(a) Previous notice shall be given of the intended application by publishing a notice thereof in some newspaper published in the municipality in which the person resides if the municipality is in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if the person does not reside in a municipality in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if no newspaper is published in the municipality or if the person resides in a county with a population of 2,000,000 or more, then in some newspaper published in the county where the person resides, or if no newspaper is published in that county, then in some convenient newspaper published in this State. The notice shall be inserted for 3 consecutive weeks after filing, the first insertion to be at least 6 weeks before the return day upon which the petition is to be heard, and shall be signed by the petitioner or, in case of a minor, the minor's parent or guardian, and shall set forth the return day of court on which the petition is to be heard and the name sought to be assumed.

(b) The publication requirement of subsection (a) shall not be required in any application for a change of name involving a minor if, before making judgment under this Article, reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard is given to any parent whose parental rights have not been previously terminated and to any person who has physical custody of the child. If any of these persons are outside this State, notice and opportunity to be heard shall be given under Section 21-104.

(b-3) The publication requirement of subsection (a) shall not be required in any application for a change of name involving a person who has received a judgment for dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage and wishes to change his or her name to resume the use of his or her former or maiden name.

(b-5) Upon motion, the court may issue an order directing that the notice and publication requirement be waived for a change of name involving a person who files with the court a written declaration that the person believes that publishing notice of the name change would put the person at risk of physical harm or discrimination. The person must provide evidence to support the claim that publishing notice of the name change would put the person at risk of physical harm or discrimination.

(c) The Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designee may apply to the circuit court for an order directing that the notice and publication requirements of this Section be waived if the Director or his or her designee certifies that the name change being sought is intended to protect a witness during and following a criminal investigation or proceeding.

(c-1) The court may enter a written order waiving the publication requirement of subsection (a) if:

(i) the petitioner is 18 years of age or older; and

(ii) concurrent with the petition, the petitioner files with the court a statement, verified under oath as provided under Section 1-109 of this Code, attesting that the petitioner is or has been a person protected under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, the Stalking No Contact Order Act, the Civil No Contact Order Act, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a condition of bail under subsections (b) through (d) of Section 110-10 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or a similar provision of a law in another state or jurisdiction.

The petitioner may attach to the statement any supporting documents, including relevant court orders.

(c-2) If the petitioner files a statement attesting that disclosure of the petitioner's address would put the petitioner or any member of the petitioner's family or household at risk or reveal the confidential address of a shelter for domestic violence victims, that address may be omitted from all documents filed with the court, and the petitioner may designate an alternative address for service.

(c-3) Court administrators may allow domestic abuse advocates, rape crisis advocates, and victim advocates to assist petitioners in the preparation of name changes under subsection (c-1).

(c-4) If the publication requirements of subsection (a) have been waived, the circuit court shall enter an order impounding the case.

(d) The maximum rate charged for publication of a notice under this Section may not exceed the lowest classified rate paid by commercial users for comparable space in the newspaper in which the notice appears and shall include all cash discounts, multiple insertion discounts, and similar benefits extended to the newspaper's regular customers.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-203, eff. 1-1-20; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 21-103. Notice by publication.

(a) Previous notice shall be given of the intended application by publishing a notice thereof in some newspaper published in the municipality in which the person resides if the municipality is in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if the person does not reside in a municipality in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if no newspaper is published in the municipality or if the person resides in a county with a population of 2,000,000 or more, then in some newspaper published in the county where the person resides, or if no newspaper is published in that county, then in some convenient newspaper published in this State. The notice shall be inserted for 3 consecutive weeks after filing, the first insertion to be at least 6 weeks before the return day upon which the petition is to be heard, and shall be signed by the petitioner or, in case of a minor, the minor's parent or guardian, and shall set forth the return day of court on which the petition is to be heard and the name sought to be assumed.

(b) The publication requirement of subsection (a) shall not be required in any application for a change of name involving a minor if, before making judgment under this Article, reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard is given to any parent whose parental rights have not been previously terminated and to any person who has physical custody of the child. If any of these persons are outside this State, notice and opportunity to be heard shall be given under Section 21-104.

(b-3) The publication requirement of subsection (a) shall not be required in any application for a change of name involving a person who has received a judgment for dissolution of marriage or declaration of invalidity of marriage and wishes to change his or her name to resume the use of his or her former or maiden name.

(b-5) Upon motion, the court may issue an order directing that the notice and publication requirement be waived for a change of name involving a person who files with the court a written declaration that the person believes that publishing notice of the name change would put the person at risk of physical harm or discrimination. The person must provide evidence to support the claim that publishing notice of the name change would put the person at risk of physical harm or discrimination.

(c) The Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designee may apply to the circuit court for an order directing that the notice and publication requirements of this Section be waived if the Director or his or her designee certifies that the name change being sought is intended to protect a witness during and following a criminal investigation or proceeding.

(c-1) The court may enter a written order waiving the publication requirement of subsection (a) if:

(i) the petitioner is 18 years of age or older; and

(ii) concurrent with the petition, the petitioner files with the court a statement, verified under oath as provided under Section 1-109 of this Code, attesting that the petitioner is or has been a person protected under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, the Stalking No Contact Order Act, the Civil No Contact Order Act, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a condition of pretrial release under subsections (b) through (d) of Section 110-10 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or a similar provision of a law in another state or jurisdiction.

The petitioner may attach to the statement any supporting documents, including relevant court orders.

(c-2) If the petitioner files a statement attesting that disclosure of the petitioner's address would put the petitioner or any member of the petitioner's family or household at risk or reveal the confidential address of a shelter for domestic violence victims, that address may be omitted from all documents filed with the court, and the petitioner may designate an alternative address for service.

(c-3) Court administrators may allow domestic abuse advocates, rape crisis advocates, and victim advocates to assist petitioners in the preparation of name changes under subsection (c-1).

(c-4) If the publication requirements of subsection (a) have been waived, the circuit court shall enter an order impounding the case.

(d) The maximum rate charged for publication of a notice under this Section may not exceed the lowest classified rate paid by commercial users for comparable space in the newspaper in which the notice appears and shall include all cash discounts, multiple insertion discounts, and similar benefits extended to the newspaper's regular customers.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-203, eff. 1-1-20; 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

Section 680. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 25-5-80 as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-80)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on April 2, 2024)

Sec. 25-5-80. Quick-take; City of Woodstock; Madison Street, South Street, and Lake Avenue.

(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no more than 2 years after April 2, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 101-665) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly by Will County for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of the 80th Avenue Improvements project:

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FB

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0001A Station 76+09.95 To Station 80+90.00

Index No.: 19-09-02-400-012

Parcel 0001A

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Southeast Quarter of Section 2, all in Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Section 2; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West on the east line of said Southeast Quarter, 69.28 feet to the north right of way line of 191st Street as described in Document No. R94-114863; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 50.29 feet to the west right of way line of 80th Avenue per Document No. R66-13830, and to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 10.14 feet to an angle point in said north right of way line; thence South 43 degrees 24 minutes 14 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 27.67 feet to an angle point in said north right of way line; thence South 88 degrees 24 minutes 14 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 1038.30 feet; thence North 01 degree 36 minutes 18 seconds West, 6.27 feet; thence North 87 degrees 57 minutes 50 seconds East, 930.35 feet to a point 63.00 feet North of, as measured perpendicular to, the south line of said Southeast Quarter; thence North 50 degrees 35 minutes 39 seconds East, 117.47 feet to the west line of the East 95.00 feet of said Southeast Quarter; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 304.58 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 28 seconds East, 10.00 feet to the west line of the East 85.00 feet of said Southeast Quarter; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 90.00 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 26 seconds East, 20.89 feet to the west right of way line of 80th Avenue per Document No. R66-13830; thence South 03 degrees 28 minutes 04 seconds East, on said west right of way line, 460.75 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.706 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0001B Station 88+00.00 To Station 88+89.62

Index No.: 19-09-02-400-012

Parcel 0001B

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Southeast Quarter of Section 2, all in Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the intersection of the north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Southeast Quarter with the west right of way line of 80th Avenue per Document No. R66-13830; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said west right of way line, 89.60 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 29 seconds West, 6.78 feet; thence North 02 degrees 31 minutes 36 seconds West, 89.63 feet to the north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Southeast Quarter; thence North 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds East, on said north line, 8.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.015 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0001TE-A Station 88+00.00 To Station 88+89.64

Index No.: 19-09-02-400-012

Parcel 0001TE-A

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Southeast Quarter of Section 2, all in Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at a point on the north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Southeast Quarter that is 88.00 feet West of, the east line of said Southeast Quarter, as measured on said north line; thence South 02 degrees 31 minutes 36 seconds East, 89.63 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 29 seconds West, 5.00 feet; thence North 02 degrees 31 minutes 36 seconds West, 89.65 feet to the north line of the Southeast Quarter of said Southeast Quarter; thence North 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds East, on said north line, 5.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.010 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0001TE-B Station 82+99.90 To Station 88+00.00

Index No.: 19-09-02-400-012

Parcel 0001TE-B

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Southeast Quarter of Section 2, all in Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the Southeast corner of said Section 2; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on the east line of said Southeast Quarter, 69.28 feet to the north right of way line of 191st Street as described in Document No. R94-114863; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 50.29 feet to the west right of way line of 80th Avenue per Document No. R66-13830; thence North 03 degrees 28 minutes 04 seconds West, on said west right of way line, 670.74 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds West, 9.59 feet; thence North 02 degrees 31 minutes 36 seconds West, 500.15 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 29 seconds East, 6.78 feet to said west right of way line; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said west right of way line, 180.42 feet to an angle point in said west right of way line; thence South 03 degrees 28 minutes 04 seconds East, on said west right of way line, 319.82 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.074 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0001TE-C Station 76+91.56 To Station 81+34.98

Index No.: 19-09-02-400-012

Parcel 0001TE-C

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Southeast Quarter of Section 2, all in Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the Southeast corner of said Section 2; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on the east line of said Southeast Quarter, 69.28 feet to the north right of way line of 191st Street as described in Document No. R94-114863; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 50.29 feet to the west right of way line of 80th Avenue per Document No. R66-13830; thence North 03 degrees 28 minutes 04 seconds West, on said west right of way line, 460.75 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 26 seconds West, 20.89 feet to the west line of the East 85.00 feet of said Southeast Quarter; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said west line, 90.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 28 seconds West, 10.00 feet to the west line of the East 95.00 feet of said Southeast Quarter; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said west line, 304.58 feet; thence South 50 degrees 35 minutes 39 seconds West, 6.32 feet to the west line of the East 100.00 feet of said Southeast Quarter; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 313.44 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 28 seconds East, 10.00 feet to the west line of the east 90.00 feet of said Southeast Quarter; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 96.19 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 35 seconds West, 9.50 feet to the west line of the East 99.50 feet of said Southeast Quarter; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 33.80 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 25 seconds East, 34.04 feet to the west right of way line of 80th Avenue per Document No. R66-13830; thence South 03 degrees 28 minutes 04 seconds East, on said west right of way line, 45.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.080 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0002 Station 76+09.53 To Station 89+10.71

Index No.: 19-09-01-300-024

Parcel 0002

That part of the Southwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 1, also 2/3rds of an acre off the south end of the Northwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Section 1; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on the west line of said Southwest Quarter, 68.94 feet to the north right of way line of 191st Street as described in Document No. R94-114861; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds East, on said north right of way line, 50.33 feet to the east right of way line of 80th Avenue per Document No. R66-13830, and to the Point of Beginning; thence North 00 degrees 15 minutes 19 seconds East, on said east right of way line, 991.07 feet to an angle point in said east right of way line; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said east right of way line, 291.11 feet to the north line of the South 2/3rd of an acre, of the northwest quarter of said Southwest Quarter; thence North 88 degrees 30 minutes 01 second East, on said north line, 27.00 feet to the east line of the West 112.00 feet of said Southwest Quarter; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 195.59 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 27 seconds West, 16.00 feet to the east line of the West 96.00 feet of said Southwest Quarter; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 240.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 27 seconds West, 5.00 feet to the east line of the West 91.00 feet of said Southwest Quarter; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 151.34 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 36 seconds West, 11.00 feet to the east line of the West 80.00 feet of said Southwest Quarter; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 323.66 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 29 seconds East, 5.00 feet to the east line of the West 85.00 feet of said Southwest Quarter; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 251.00 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 08 seconds East, 6.00 feet; thence South 24 degrees 56 minute 10 seconds East, 124.46 feet to the north line of the South 75.00 feet of said Southwest Quarter; thence North 88 degrees 29 minutes 57 seconds East, on said north line, 376.67 feet; thence South 84 degrees 46 minutes 29 seconds East, 183.57 feet to a point 53.50 feet North of, as measured perpendicular to, the south line of said Southwest Quarter; thence South 01 degree 30 minutes 03 seconds East, 2.85 feet to the north right of way line of 191st Street as described in Document No. R94-114861; thence South 88 degrees 24 minutes 33 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 618.63 feet to an angle point in said north right of way line; thence North 46 degrees 35 minutes 28 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 27.66 feet to an angle point in said north right of way line; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 10.40 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.951 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0002TE-A Station 77+49.00 To Station 81+30.94

Index No.: 19-09-01-300-024

Parcel 0002TE-A

That part of the Southwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 1, also 2/3rds of an acre off the south end of the Northwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Section 1; thence North 01 degrees 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on the west line of said Southwest Quarter, 68.94 feet to the north right of way line of 191st Street as described in Document No. R94-114861; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds East, on said north right of way line, 50.33 feet to the east right of way line of 80th Avenue per Document No. R66-13830; thence North 00 degrees 15 minutes 19 seconds East, on said east right of way line, 502.11 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 36 seconds East, 12.10 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing North 88 degrees 15 minutes 36 seconds East, 11.00 feet to the west line of the East 91.00 feet of said Southwest Quarter; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 381.94 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 08 seconds West, 6.00 feet to the east line of the West 85.00 feet of said Southwest Quarter; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said east line, 251.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 29 seconds West, 5.00 feet to the east line of the West 80.00 feet of said Southwest Quarter; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said east line, 130.94 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.068 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0002TE-B Station 3023+00.64 To Station 3025+99.98

Index No.: 19-09-01-300-024

Parcel 0002TE-B

That part of the Southwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 1, also 2/3rds of an acre off the south end of the Northwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Section 1; thence North 88 degrees 29 minutes 57 seconds East, on the south line of said Southwest Quarter, 698.65 feet; thence North 01 degree 30 minutes 03 seconds West, perpendicular to said south line, 50.65 feet to the north right of way line of 191st Street as described in Document No. R94-114861, and to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing North 01 degree 30 minutes 03 seconds West, 2.85 feet; thence North 88 degrees 13 minutes 47 seconds East, 299.34 feet; thence South 01 degree 30 minutes 03 seconds East, 4.00 feet to the north right of way line of 191st Street per Document No. R2003-260494; thence South 88 degrees 29 minutes 57 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 133.46 feet to the west line of said Document No. R2003-260494; thence South 88 degrees 24 minutes 33 seconds West, on the north right of way line of 191st Street per Document No. R94-114861, a distance of 165.89 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.023 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0003 Station 88+89.50 To Station 91+36.65

Index No.: 19-09-02-402-003

Parcel 0003

That part of Outlot A in 80th Avenue Industrial Center in the east half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 27, 1976 as Document No. R1976-015768, Township of Frankfort, Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Outlot A; thence South 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds West, on the south line of said Outlot A, 38.00 feet; thence North 22 degrees 20 minutes 14 seconds East, 66.16 feet to the west line of the East 11.00 feet of said Outlot A; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 159.51 feet to a point 27.00 feet South of, as measured perpendicular to, the south right of way line of 189th Street; thence South 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds West, parallel with said south right of way line, 39.00 feet; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, parallel with the east line of said Outlot A, 27.00 feet to the south right of way line of 189th Street; thence North 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds East, on said south right of way line, 50.00 feet to the east line of said Outlot A; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 246.99 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.105 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0003TE Station 88+89.62 To Station 91+09.54

Index No.: 19-09-02-402-003

Parcel 0003TE

That part of Outlot A in 80th Avenue Industrial Center in the east half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 27, 1976 as Document No. R1976-015768, Township of Frankfort, Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Outlot A; thence South 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds West, on the south line of said Outlot A, 38.00 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds West, on said south line, 5.00 feet; thence North 01 degrees 44 minutes 58 seconds West, parallel with the east line of said Outlot A, a distance of 60.49 feet; thence North 88 degrees 26minutes 40 seconds East, 27.00 feet to the west line of the East 16.00 feet of said Outlot A; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 159.51 feet to a point 27.00 feet South of, as measured perpendicular to, the south right of way line of 189th Street; thence North 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds East, parallel to said south right of way line, 5.00 feet to the west line of the East 11.00 feet of said Outlot A; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said west line, 159.51 feet; thence South 22 degrees 20 minutes 14 seconds West, 66.16 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.044 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0004A Station 89+10.59 To Station 91+36.89

Index No.: 19-09-01-301-001

Parcel 0004A

That part of Lot 1 in Panduit Corp Planned Unit Development Subdivision, being a subdivision in part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 31, 2012 as Document No. R2012-096238, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the southwest corner of said lot; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on the west line of said lot, 226.18 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 33 seconds East, 10.00 feet to the east line of the West 10.00 feet of said lot; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 186.95 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 28 seconds East, 17.00 feet to the east line of the West 27.00 feet of said lot; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 39.35 feet to the south line of said lot; thence South 88 degrees 30 minutes 01 second West, on said south line, 27.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.067 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0004B Station 92+15.00 To Station 99+94.90

Index No.: 19-09-01-301-001

Parcel 0004B

That part of Lot 1 in Panduit Corp Planned Unit Development Subdivision, being a subdivision in part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 31, 2012 as Document No. R2012-096238, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said lot; thence North 88 degrees 32 minutes 27 seconds East, on the north line of said lot, 53.09 feet; thence South 02 degrees 19 minutes 11 seconds West, 586.19 feet to a point 20.00 feet East of, as measured perpendicular to, the west line of said lot; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds West, 11.00 feet to the east line of the West 9.00 feet of said lot; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 194.80 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds West, 9.00 feet to the west line of said lot; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 505.26 feet to an angle point in said west line; thence North 00 degrees 01 minute 33 seconds East, on said west line, 274.64 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.561 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0004TE Station 89+49.94 To Station 92+15.00

Index No.: 19-09-01-301-001

Parcel 0004TE

That part of Lot 1 in Panduit Corp Planned Unit Development Subdivision, being a subdivision in part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 31, 2012 as Document No. R2012-096238, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said lot; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on the west line of said lot, 226.18 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing North 01 degrees 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 78.11 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds East, 9.00 feet; thence South 50 degrees 58 minutes 14 seconds East, 27.73 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 33 seconds East, 25.00 feet to the east line of the West 55.00 feet of said lot; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 60.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 33 seconds West, 40.00 feet to the east line of the West 15.00 feet of said lot; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 186.94 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 28 second West, 5.00 feet to the east line of the West 10.00 feet of said lot; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said east line, 186.95 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 33 seconds West, 10.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.105 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0005 Station 92+02.49 To Station 99+94.90

Index No.: 19-09-02-402-003

Parcel 0005

That part of Outlot A in 80th Avenue Industrial Center in the east half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 27, 1976 as Document No. R1976-015768, Township of Frankfort, Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois Sate Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Outlot A, said northeast corner being the intersection of the east line of said Outlot A with the south right of way line of Interstate 80; thence South 05 degrees 42 minutes 13 seconds East, on the east line of said Outlot A, 526.56 feet to an angle point in said east line; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds East, on said east line, 266.93 feet to the north right of way line of 189th Street; thence South 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds West, on said north right of way line, 50.00 feet; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, parallel with said east line, 32.00 feet; thence North 88 degrees 26 minutes 40 seconds East, parallel with said north right of way line, 37.00 feet to the west line of the East 13.00 feet of said Outlot A; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 58 seconds West, on said west line, 279.26 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 02 seconds West, 22.00 feet; thence North 01 degree 43 minutes 58 seconds West, 238.59 feet; thence North 04 degrees 43 minutes 36 seconds West, 197.47 feet; thence North 01 degree 54 minutes 17 seconds West, 45.18 feet to the north line of said Outlot A; thence North 88 degrees 31 minutes 27 seconds East, on said north line, 9.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.321 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0006 Station 102+41.97 To Station 115+07.14

Index No.: 19-09-01-100-013

Parcel 0006

The West 60 acres (Except the East 40 acres thereof) of the south half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in Will County, Illinois.

Excepting therefrom that part described for street purposes by Plat of Dedication and ordinance approving the same record as Document R2002-010141.

Also excepting therefrom that part taken for Interstate 80 in Case 66 G 1592H the Lis Pendes of which was recorded as Document R66-13830.

Said parcel containing 16.618 acres, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0007TE Station 110+41.32 To Station 110+49.57

Index No.: 19-09-02-203-003

Parcel 0007TE

That part of Lot 9 in Mercury Business Center, being a subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of the Northeast Quarter of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 26, 1994 as Document No. R94-82441, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scaled factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said lot; thence South 84 degrees 03 minutes 06 seconds West, on the south line of said lot, 74.77 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 84 degrees 03 minutes 06 seconds West, on said south line, 44.50 feet; thence North 05 degrees 56 minutes 54 seconds West, perpendicular to said south line, 5.00 feet; thence North 84 degrees 03 minutes 06 seconds East, parallel with said south line, 44.50 feet; thence South 05 degrees 56 minutes 54 seconds East, perpendicular to said south line, 5.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.005 acre (223 square feet), more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0008TE-A Station 118+98.39 To Station 120+86.46

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-034

Parcel 0008TE-A

That part of Lot 1 in Speedway Tinley Park Subdivision, being a consolidation of Parcels 1, 2 and 3 in the north half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded March 1, 2016, as Document No. R2016-015413, all in Will County, Illinois bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said lot; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 seconds East, on the east line of said lot, 235.96 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, on said east line, 106.00 feet to an angle point in said east line; thence South 88 degrees 30 minutes 13 seconds West, on said east line, 9.00 feet to an angle point in said east line; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, on said east line, 82.11 feet to an angle point in said east line; thence South 88 degrees 30 minutes 13 seconds West, on said east line, 5.00 feet; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, parallel with said east line, 82.11 feet; thence South 88 degrees 30 minutes 13 seconds West, 10.00 feet; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, parallel with said east line, 106.00 feet; thence North 88 degrees 14 minutes 59 seconds East, 24.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.068 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0008TE-B Station 115+88.46 To Station 116+03.46

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-034

Parcel 0008TE-B

That part of Lot 1 in Speedway Tinley Park Subdivision, being a consolidation of Parcels 1, 2 and 3 in the north half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded March 1, 2016, as Document No. R2016-015413, all in Will County, Illinois bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said lot; thence South 88 degrees 30 minutes 13 seconds West, on the south line of said lot, 15.00 feet; thence North 43 degrees 22 minutes 36 seconds East, 21.17 feet to the east line of said lot; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, on said east line, 15.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.003 acre (112 square feet), more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0009 Station 115+92.91 To Station 122+04.37

Index No.: 19-09-01-101-009

Parcel 0009

That part of Lot 9 in Hickory Creek Corporate Center Unit 2, being a subdivision of that part of the north half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded October 31, 2001 as Document No. R2001-148202 and amended by Certificate of Correction Numbers R2001- 157981, R2001-161607 and R2001-161608, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said lot; thence North 88 degrees 36 minutes 17 seconds East, on the north line of said lot, 15.70 feet; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, 575.55 feet to a point 5.00 feet Northeasterly of, as measured perpendicular to, the southwesterly line of said lot; thence South 46 degrees 35 minutes 11 seconds East, parallel with said southwesterly line, 40.81 feet; thence South 00 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, 6.88 feet to said southwesterly line; thence North 46 degrees 35 minutes 11 seconds West, on said southwesterly line, 62.92 feet to the west line of said lot; thence North 01 degree 44 minutes 24 seconds West, on said west line, 566.85 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.212 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0009TE-A Station 115+86.83 To Station 115+98.12

Index No.: 19-09-01-101-009

Parcel 0009TE-A

That part of Lot 9 in Hickory Creek Corporate Center Unit 2, being a subdivision of that part of the north half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded October 31, 2001 as Document No. R2001-148202 and amended by Certificate of Correction Numbers R2001- 157981, R2001-161607 and R2001-161608, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said lot; thence South 88 degrees 35 minutes 00 seconds West, 264.49 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 88 degrees 35 minutes 00 seconds West, on said south line, 45.50 feet to the southwesterly line of said lot; thence North 46 degrees 35 minutes 11 seconds West, 8.21 feet; thence North 00 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, 5.21 feet to a point 11.00 feet North of, as measured perpendicular to, the south line of said lot; thence North 88 degrees 35 minutes 00 seconds East, parallel with said south line, 48.31 feet; thence South 16 degrees 07 minutes 24 seconds East, 11.37 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.012 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0009TE-B Station 2013+44.28 To Station 2013+90.28

Index No.: 19-09-01-101-009

Parcel 0009TE-B

That part of Lot 9 in Hickory Creek Corporate Center Unit 2, being a subdivision of that part of the north half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded October 31, 2001 as Document No. R2001-148202 and amended by Certificate of Correction Numbers R2001- 157981, R2001-161607 and R2001-161608, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said lot; thence South 88 degrees 35 minutes 00 seconds West, on said south line, 35.00 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 88 degrees 35 minutes 00 seconds West, on said south line, 46.00 feet; thence North 01 degrees 25 minutes 00 seconds West, 5.00 feet to the north line of the South 5.00 feet of said lot; thence North 88 degrees 35 minutes 00 seconds East, on said north line, 46.00 feet; thence South 01 degree 25 minutes 00 seconds East, 5.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.005 acre (230 square feet), more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0010A Station 122+04.27 To Station 122+34.00

Index No.: 19-09-01-101-007

Parcel 0010A

That part of Lot 10 in Hickory Creek Corporate Center Unit 2, being a subdivision of that part of the north half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded October 31, 2001 as Document No. R2001-148202 and amended by Certificate of Correction Numbers R2001-157981, R2001-161607 and R2001-161608, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the southwest corner of said lot; thence North 01 degree 48 minutes 13 seconds West, on the west line of said lot, 29.63 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 04 seconds East, 15.73 feet; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, 29.73 feet to the south line of said lot; thence South 88 degrees 36 minutes 17 seconds West, 15.70 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.011 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0010B Station 122+93.00 To Station 128+25.81

Index No.: 19-09-01-101-007

Parcel 0010B

That part of Lot 10 in Hickory Creek Corporate Center Unit 2, being a subdivision of that part of the north half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded October 31, 2001 as Document No. R2001-148202 and amended by Certificate of Correction Numbers R2001-157981, R2001-161607 and R2001-161608, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said lot; thence North 01 degree 48 minutes 13 seconds West, on the west line of said lot, 88.63 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing North 01 degree 48 minutes 13 seconds West, on said west line, 127.27 feet to an angle point in said west line; thence North 01 degree 04 minutes 30 seconds East, on said west line, 199.86 feet to an angle point in said west line; thence North 01 degree 42 minutes 21 seconds West, on said west line, 156.34 feet to an angle point in said west line; thence North 43 degrees 31 minutes 05 seconds East, on a northwesterly line of said lot, 70.43 feet to the north line of said lot; thence North 88 degrees 39 minutes 56 seconds East, on said north line, 613.66 feet; thence South 01 degree 20 minutes 04 seconds East, perpendicular to said north line, 5.00 feet; thence South 87 degrees 05 minutes 13 seconds West, 232.71 feet; thence South 86 degrees 35 minutes 31 seconds West, 357.63 feet; thence South 50 degrees 50 minutes 19 seconds West, 56.86 feet; thence South 07 degrees 02 minutes 04 seconds West, 130.48 feet; thence South 00 degrees 00 minutes 30 seconds East, 344.94 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 04 seconds West, 7.78 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.376 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0010TE Station 122+29.00 To Station 127+72.90

Index No.: 19-09-01-101-007

Parcel 0010TE

That part of Lot 10 in Hickory Creek Corporate Center Unit 2, being a subdivision of that part of the north half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 1, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded October 31, 2001 as Document No. R2001-148202 and amended by Certificate of Correction Numbers R2001-157981, R2001-161607 and R2001-161608, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said lot; thence North 01 degree 48 minutes 13 seconds West, on the west line of said lot, 29.63 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing North 01 degree 48 minutes 13 seconds West, on said west line, 59.00 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 04 seconds East, 7.78 feet; thence North 00 degree 00 minutes 30 seconds West, 344.94; thence North 07 degrees 02 minutes 04 seconds East, 130.48 feet; thence North 50 degrees 50 minutes 19 seconds East, 10.14 feet; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 33 seconds East, 72.90 feet; thence South 18 degrees 40 minutes 18 seconds East, 68.68 feet; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 34 seconds East, 134.29 feet; thence South 13 degrees 46 minutes 54 seconds West, 186.82 feet; thence South 01 degree 44 minutes 30 seconds East, 27.00 feet; thence North 88 degrees 15 minutes 04 seconds East, 39.81 feet; thence South 01 degree 48 minutes 13 seconds East, 64.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 04 seconds West, 40.28 feet; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, 5.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 04 seconds West, 15.73 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.435 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0011TE Station 123+22.42 To Station 125+60.84

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-025

Parcel 0011TE

That part of Lot 31 in Tinley Crossings Corporate Center, Phase 3, a resubdivision of part of the north half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 27, 2001 as Document No. R2001-021137, all in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said lot, said southeast corner being on the west right of way line of 80th Avenue; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 09 seconds West, on a south line of said lot, 16.00 feet to the west line of the East 16.00 feet of said lot; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, on said west line, 47.30 feet; thence North 88 degrees 14 minutes 59 seconds East, 12.00 feet to the west line of the East 4.00 feet of said lot; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, on said west line, 142.42 feet; thence South 88 degrees 14 minutes 59 seconds West, 5.00 feet to the west line of the East 9.00 feet of said lot; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, on said west line, 48.70 feet; thence North 88 degrees 14 minutes 59 seconds East, 9.00 feet to the east line of said lot; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, on said east line, 238.42 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.041 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0012 Station 126+69.25 To Station 128+28.53

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-010

Parcel 0012

That part of Lot 25 in Tinley Crossings Corporate Center Unit 1, being a subdivision of part of the North half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the Plat of Subdivision thereof recorded October 16, 1998 as Document R98-122885, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said lot; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, on the east line of said lot, 98.41 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 50 seconds West, 6.00 feet; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, parallel with said east line, 31.47 feet to a point of curvature; thence Northwesterly, on a 110.00 foot radius curve, concave Southwesterly, 172.12 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 46 degrees 34 minutes 30 seconds West, 155.09 feet to the south line of the North 17.00 feet of said lot, and to a point of tangency; thence South 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds West, on said south line, 119.66 feet; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, 7.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds West, parallel with said north line, 20.00 feet to the west line of said lot; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, on said west line, 24.00 feet to the northwest corner of said lot; thence North 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds East, on the north line of said lot, 204.99 feet to the northeasterly line of said lot; thence South 46 degrees 34 minutes 31 seconds East, on said northeasterly line, 70.93 feet to the east line of said lot; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, on said east line, 107.77 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.152 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0012TE Station 126+69.25 To Station 128+11.41

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-010

Parcel 0012TE

That part of Lot 25 in Tinley Crossings Corporate Center Unit 1, being a subdivision of part of the North half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the Plat of Subdivision thereof recorded October 16, 1998 as Document R98-122885, in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said lot; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, on the east line of said lot, 98.41 feet; thence South 88 degrees 15 minutes 50 seconds West, 6.00 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 88 degrees 15 minutes 50 seconds West, 5.00 feet; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, parallel with the east line of said lot, 31.47 feet; thence North 28 degrees 47 minutes 08 seconds West, 72.92 feet; thence North 57 degrees 01 minute 36 seconds West, 57.77 feet to the south line of the North 29.00 feet of said lot; thence South 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds West, on said south line, 143.37 feet; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, 10.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds West, parallel with the north line of said lot, 20.00 feet to the west line of said lot; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, on said west line, 15.00 feet; thence North 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds East, parallel with the north line of said lot, 20.00 feet; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second West, 7.00 feet to the south line of the North 17.00 feet of said lot; thence North 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds East, on said south line, 119.66 feet to a point of curvature; thence Southeasterly, on a 110.00 foot radius curve, concave Southwesterly, 172.12 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 46 degrees 34 minutes 30 seconds East, 155.09 feet to the west line of the East 6.00 feet of said lot, and to a point of tangency; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, on said west line, 31.47 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.093 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0013 Station 95+54.70 To Station 98+85.07

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-028

Parcel 0013

All common areas in the 8021 Condominium, as delineated on a survey of the following described real estate: Lot 30 in Tinley Crossings Corporate Center, Phase 3, a resubdivision of part of the North half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 27, 2001 as Document No. R2001-021137, which survey is attached as Exhibit "B" to the Declaration of Condominium recorded as Document Number R2004-22962, and as amended, all in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 30; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, on the east line of said lot, 24.00 feet to the south line of the North 24.00 feet of said lot; thence South 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds West, on said south line, 97.77 feet; thence North 87 degrees 12 minutes 48 seconds West, 136.96 feet; thence South 89 degrees 41 minutes 13 seconds West, 52.69 feet to a point of curvature; thence Westerly, on a 787.00 foot radius curve, concave Southerly, 39.84 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 87 degrees 08 minutes 58 seconds West, 39.83 feet to the west line of said lot; thence North 01 degree 45 minutes 03 seconds West, on said west line, 13.01 feet to the northwest corner of said lot; thence Easterly, on the north line of said lot, being an 800.00 foot radius curve, concave Southerly, 39.91 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 87 degrees 10 minutes 13 seconds East, 39.91 feet to a point of tangency in said north line; thence North 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds East, on said north line, 286.90 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.142 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0013TE-A Station 97+87.30 To Station 98+85.18

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-028

Parcel 0013TE-A

All common areas in the 8021 Condominium, as delineated on a survey of the following described real estate: Lot 30 in Tinley Crossings Corporate Center, Phase 3, a resubdivision of part of the North half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 27, 2001 as Document No. R2001-021137, which survey is attached as Exhibit "B" to the Declaration of Condominium recorded as Document Number R2004-22962, and as amended, all in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 30; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, on the east line of said lot, 24.00 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing South 01 degree 45 minutes 01 second East, on said east line, 15.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds West, parallel with the north line of said lot, 30.17 feet; thence North 01 degree 24 minutes 02 seconds West, 10.00 feet to the south line of the North 29.00 feet of said lot; thence South 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds West, on said south line, 67.70 feet; thence North 01 degree 24 minutes 02 seconds West, 5.00 feet to the south line of the North 24.00 feet of said lot; thence North 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds East, on said south line, 97.77 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.018 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0013TE-B Station 95+72.95 To Station 96+39.71

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-028

Parcel 0013TE-B

All common areas in the 8021 Condominium, as delineated on a survey of the following described real estate: Lot 30 in Tinley Park Crossings Corporate Center, Phase 3, a resubdivision of part of the North half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 27, 2001 as Document No. R2001-021137, which survey is attached as Exhibit "B" to the Declaration of Condominium recorded as Document Number R2004-22962, and as amended, all in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 30; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 03 seconds East, on the west line of said lot, 13.01 feet; thence Easterly, on a 787.00 foot radius curve, concave Southerly, 16.92 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 86 degrees 18 minutes 55 seconds East, 16.92 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing Easterly, on said 787.00 foot radius curve, 22.92 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 87 degrees 45 minutes 55 seconds East, 22.92 feet; thence North 89 degrees 41 minutes 13 seconds East, 41.67 feet; thence South 01 degree 39 minutes 18 seconds East, 6.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 41 minutes 10 seconds West, 41.70 feet to a point of curvature; thence Westerly, on a 781.00 foot radius curve, concave Southerly, 22.74 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 87 degrees 45 minutes 55 seconds West, 22.74 feet; thence North 03 degrees 04 minutes 08 seconds West, 6.00 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.009 acre (387 square feet), more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0014 Station 93+10.05 To Station 95+55.36

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-023

Parcel 0014

That part of Lot 29 in Tinley Crossings Corporate Center Phase 3, being a subdivision of part of the North half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 27, 2001 as Document No. R2001-021137, all in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 29; thence South 01 degree 45 minutes 03 second East, 13.01 feet to the southerly line of the Northerly 13.00 feet of said lot; thence Southwesterly, on said southerly line, being a 787.00 foot radius curve, concave Southerly, 226.63 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 77 degrees 26 minutes 59 seconds West, 225.85 feet; thence North 20 degrees 48 minutes 00 seconds West, 13.00 feet to the northerly line of said lot; thence Northeasterly, on said northerly line, being a 800.00 foot radius curve, concave Southerly, 230.96 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 77 degrees 28 minutes 14 seconds East, 230.15 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.068 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0014TE Station 92+71.20 To Station 93+10.05

Index No.: 19-09-02-205-023

Parcel 0014TE

That part of Lot 29 in Tinley Crossings Corporate Center Phase 3, being a subdivision of part of the North half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 27, 2001 as Document No. R2001-021137, all in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 29; thence Southwesterly, on the northerly line of said lot, being a 800.00 foot radius curve, concave Southerly, 230.96 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 77 degrees 28 minutes 14 seconds West, 230.15 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence South 20 degrees 48 minutes 00 seconds East, 13.00 feet to the southerly line of the Northerly 13.00 feet of said lot; thence Southwesterly, on said southerly line, being a 787.00 foot radius curve, concave Southerly, 35.99 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 67 degrees 53 minutes 24 seconds West, 35.98 feet; thence North 23 degrees 25 minutes 11 seconds West, 13.00 feet to the northerly line of said lot; thence Northeasterly, on said northerly line, being a 800.00 foot radius curve, concave Southerly, 36.58 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 67 degrees 53 minutes 24 seconds East, 36.58 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.011 acre, more or less.

Route: 80th Avenue (CH 83)

Section: 06-00122-16-FP

County: Will

Job No.: R-55-001-97

Parcel No.: 0015TE Station 91+38.62 To Station 93+13.16

Index No.: 19-09-02-204-003

Parcel 0015TE

That part of Outlot A in Tinley Crossings Corporate Center Unit 1, being a subdivision of part of the North half of Section 2, Township 35 North, Range 12 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded October 16, 1998 as Document No. R98- 122885, all in Will County, Illinois, bearings and distances based on the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone, NAD 83 (2011 Adjustment) with a combined scale factor of 0.9999641157 described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Outlot A; thence Southwesterly, on the southerly line of said Outlot A, being a 900.00 foot radius curve, concave Southeasterly, 117.40 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 65 degrees 40 minutes 28 seconds West, 117.32 feet to a point of tangency in said southerly line; thence South 61 degrees 56 minutes 15 seconds West, on said southerly line, 63.70 feet; thence North 28 degrees 03 minutes 45 seconds West, 9.00 feet to the northerly line of the Southerly 9.00 feet of said Outlot A; thence North 61 degrees 56 minutes 15 seconds East, on said northerly line, 63.70 feet to a point of curvature; thence Northeasterly, on a 909.00 foot radius curve, concave Southeasterly, 93.69 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 64 degrees 53 minutes 25 seconds East, 93.65 feet to the north line of said Outlot A; thence North 88 degrees 35 minutes 58 seconds East, on said north line, 26.35 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.035 acre, more or less.

(b) This Section is repealed April 2, 2024 (3 years after the effective date of Public Act 101-665) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 101-665, eff. 4-2-21; revised 11-18-21.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-85)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 9, 2024)

Sec. 25-5-85 25-5-80. Quick-take; City of Woodstock; Madison Street, South Street, and Lake Avenue.

(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no more than 2 years after July 9, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-53) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly by the City of Woodstock for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of widening the right-of-way proximate to the intersection of Madison Street, South Street, and Lake Avenue to construct a traffic roundabout:

That part of the north 47.5 feet of the south 87.5 feet of Lots 7 and 8 in Block 18 in the Original Town of Centerville, now City of Woodstock, a subdivision of part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 5, Township 44 North, Range 7 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat recorded June 10, 1844, in Book D of Deeds, page 201, in the City of Woodstock, McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows using bearings as referenced to Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone North American Datum 1983 (2011 Adjustment):

Commencing at a 5/8-inch iron pipe found at the southwest corner of said Lot 7; thence North 0 degrees 22 minutes 24 seconds West, 40.00 feet on the west line of said Lot 7 to the south line of said north 47.5 feet of the south 87.5 feet of Lots 7 and 8 for the Point of Beginning; thence North 89 degrees 14 minutes 44 seconds East, 15.06 feet along said south line; thence northwesterly, 27.31 feet on a curve to the right having a radius of 69.42 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 34 degrees 05 minutes 52 seconds West, 27.13 feet to the aforesaid west line of Lot 7; thence South 0 degrees 22 minutes 24 seconds East, 22.67 feet along said west line to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.003 acre or 145 square feet, more or less.

***

The north 47.5 feet of the south 87.5 feet of Lots 7 and 8 in Block 18 in the Original Town of Centerville, now City of Woodstock, a subdivision of part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 5, Township 44 North, Range 7 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat recorded June 10, 1844, in Book D of Deeds, page 201, situated in the County of McHenry, in the State of Illinois, described as follows, using bearings as referenced to Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone North American Datum 1983 (2011 Adjustment):

Commencing at a 5/8-inch iron pipe found at the southwest corner of said Lot 7; thence North 0 degrees 22 minutes 24 seconds West, 62.67 feet along the west line of said Lot 7 to the Point of Beginning; thence continuing North 0 degrees 22 minutes 24 seconds West, 20.41 feet along said west line; thence North 89 degrees 42 minutes 37 seconds East, 12.36 feet; thence South 0 degrees 17 minutes 23 seconds East, 29.21 feet; thence South 89 degrees 57 minutes 09 seconds East, 26.25 feet; thence South 0 degrees 10 minutes 38 seconds West, 13.45 feet to the south line of said 47.5 feet of the south 87.5 feet of Lots 7 and 8; thence South 89 degrees 14 minutes 44 seconds West, 23.38 feet along said south line; thence northwesterly, 27.31 feet on a curve to the right, having a radius of 69.42 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 34 degrees 05 minutes 52 seconds West, 27.13 feet to the Point of Beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.017 acre, more or less.

***

The south 40 feet of Lots 7 and 8 in Block 18 in the Original Plat of Town of Centerville, now City of Woodstock, a subdivision of part of the Southwest Quarter of Section 5, Township 44 North, Range 7 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat recorded June 10, 1844, in Book D of Deeds, page 201, in the City of Woodstock, McHenry County, Illinois.

Said parcel containing 0.110 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 204 of the Assessor's Plat of Section 8, Township 44 North, Range 7 East of the Third Principal Meridian described as follows, using bearings as referenced to Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, East Zone North American Datum 1983 (2011 Adjustment):

Beginning at the most westerly point of said Lot 204; thence South 89 degrees 50 minutes 58 seconds East, 72.00 feet along the north line of said Lot 204, said line also being the south right-of-way line of East South Street; thence South 22 degrees 00 minutes 17 seconds West, 47.64 feet to the southwesterly line of said Lot 204, said line also being the northeasterly right-of-way line of Lake Avenue; thence North 50 degrees 40 minutes 20 seconds West, 70.00 feet along said southwesterly line to the Point of Beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.036 acre, more or less.

(b) This Section is repealed July 9, 2024 (3 years after the effective date of Public Act 102-53) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-53, eff. 7-9-21; revised 11-18-21.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-90)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on August 20, 2024)

Sec. 25-5-90 25-5-80. Quick-take; Moultrie County; Township Road 185A.

(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no more than 2 years after August 20, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-564) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly by Moultrie County for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of replacing a structure and constructing an associated roadway on Township Road 185A:

A part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 11, Township 12 North, Range 6 East of the Third Principal Meridian located in Moultrie County, Illinois, more particularly described as follows:

Commencing at the Southeast corner of the said Northeast Quarter; thence North 88°48'50" West along the South line of said Northeast Quarter, 966.15 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 00°09'24" West, 13.14 feet to the centerline of proposed improvement; thence continuing North 00°09'24" West, 30.00 feet to a point being 30 feet distant measured and perpendicular to the North of said centerline; thence North 84°54'18" West, 109.25 feet to a point being 40 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and North of said centerline; thence parallel with said centerline 169.29 feet along a circular curve to the right having a chord bearing of North 68°09'28" West with a chord length of 165.14 feet and a radius of 220.12 feet; thence parallel with said centerline North 46°09'33" West, 296.16 feet: thence parallel with said centerline 73.65 feet along a circular curve to the left having a chord bearing of North 53°10'55" West with a chord length of 73.47 feet and a radius of 300.44 feet to the South line of the North 70 acres of the West Half of the said Northeast Quarter; thence North 88°59'47" West along the South line of said North 70 acres, 620.26 feet; thence South 01°25'31" East, 29.21 feet to the existing South right-of-way line of the East-West public road; thence South 82°37'17" East, 75.89 feet to the point being 30 feet distant measured and perpendicular to the South of the said centerline; thence parallel with said centerline North 88°34'29" East, 100 feet; thence South 63°13'29" East, 42.32 feet to a point being 50 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and South of the said centerline; thence parallel with said centerline 109.31 feet along a circular curve to the right having a chord bearing of South 89°44'30" East, with a chord length of 109.29 feet and a radius of 1859.51 feet; thence North 89°05'34" East,100.58 feet to a point being 45 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and South of said centerline; thence parallel with said centerline South 88°03'29" East, 54.61 feet; thence parallel with said centerline 157.54 feet along a circular curve to the right having a chord bearing of South 67°06'30" East with a chord length of 165.14 feet and a radius of 220.12 feet,; thence parallel with said centerline South 46°09'33" East, 79.94 feet; thence North 43°50'27" East, 5.00 feet to a point being 40 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and South of said centerline; thence parallel with said centerline South 46°09'33" East, 161.15 feet to the West line of Southeast Quarter of said Northeast Quarter; thence South 01°05'23" East along the West line of said Southeast Quarter of the Northeast Quarter, 87.37 feet to the Southwest corner of said Southeast Quarter of the Northeast Quarter; thence Easterly along the South line said Northeast Quarter, 355.8 feet to the point of beginning.

ALSO,

A part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 11, Township 12 North, Range 6 East of the Third Principal Meridian located in Moultrie County, Illinois, more particularly described as follows:

Commencing at the Southeast corner of the said Northeast Quarter; thence North 88°48'50" West along the South line of said Northeast Quarter, 1319.84 feet; thence North 01°11'10" East, 190.97 feet to a point being 40 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and North of the centerline of proposed improvement and the point of beginning; thence North 43°50'27" East, 50.00 feet to a point being 90 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and North of said centerline: thence parallel with said centerline North 46°09'33" West, 120.00 feet; thence South 43°50'27" West, 50.00 feet to the proposed right-of-way line of proposed improvement, said point being 40 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and North of said centerline; thence South 46°09'33" East along said proposed right-of-way line, 120.00 feet to the point of beginning.

ALSO,

A part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 11, Township 12 North, Range 6 East of the Third Principal Meridian located in Moultrie County, Illinois, more particularly described as follows:

Commencing at the Southeast corner of the said Northeast Quarter; thence North 88°48'50" West along the South line of said Northeast Quarter, 1351.98 feet; thence North 01°11'10" East, 111.80 feet to the proposed right-of-way line of the proposed improvement, said point being 40 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and South of the centerline of proposed improvement and the point of beginning; thence parallel with said centerline North 46°09'33" West along said proposed right-of-way line, 125.00 feet; thence South 43°50'27" West along said proposed right-of-way line, 5.00 feet to a point being 45 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and South of said centerline; thence parallel with said centerline North 46°09'33" West along said proposed right-of-way, 25.00 feet; thence South 43°50'27" West. 35.00 feet to a point being 80 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and South of said centerline; thence parallel with said centerline South 46°09'33" East, 150.00 feet; North 43°50'27" East, 40.00 feet to the point of beginning.

ALSO,

A part of the Northeast Quarter of Section 11, Township 12 North, Range 6 East of the Third Principal Meridian located in Moultrie County, Illinois, more particularly described as follows:

Commencing at the Southeast corner of the said Northeast Quarter; thence North 88°48'50" West along the South line of said Northeast Quarter, 1527.33 feet; thence North 01°11'30" East, 264.11 feet to the proposed right-of-way line of the proposed improvement, said point being 45 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and South of the centerline of proposed improvement and the point of beginning; thence parallel with said centerline 73.33 feet along a circular curve to the left having a chord bearing of North 63°12'22" West with a chord length of 72.94 feet and a radius of 215.44 feet; thence South 17°06'20" West, 35.00 feet to a point being 80 feet distant measured and perpendicular to and South of said centerline; thence parallel with said centerline 61.41 feet along a circular curve to the right having a chord bearing of South 63°08'38" East with a chord length of 61.12 feet and a radius of 180.44 feet; thence North 36°36'25" East, 35.00 feet to the point of beginning.

(b) This Section is repealed August 20, 2024 (3 years after the effective date of Public Act 102-564) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-564, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-18-21.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-95)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on August 27, 2023)

Sec. 25-5-95 25-5-80. Quick-take; City of Decatur; Brush College Road.

(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of one year after August 27, 2021 (the effective date of Public Act 102-624) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly by the City of Decatur and Macon County for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of obtaining the necessary right-of-way for the construction of a grade separation of Brush College Road over Faries Parkway and the Norfolk Southern Railroad in Decatur, Illinois.

PARCEL 57b

A part of the East 108.9 feet of Lot One (1) of Westlake 2nd Addition of Outlots to the City of Decatur, Illinois, per Plat recorded in Book 335, Page 591 of the Records in the Recorder's Office of Macon County, Illinois and described as follows:

Commencing at an Illinois Department of Transportation Vault found at the northwest corner of Section 8, Township 16 North, Range 3 East of the Third Principal Meridian per Monument Record recorded as Document 1894076 of the records aforesaid; thence, along bearings reference to the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, NAD83 (2011 Adjustment), East Zone, North 89 degrees 06 minutes 39 seconds East 1204.57 feet, along the north line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 8; thence South 0 degrees 11 minutes 07 seconds East 7.33 feet to the intersection of the west line of the East 108.9 feet of said Lot One (1) with the north line of said Lot One (1) and the Point of Beginning; thence North 87 degrees 53 minutes 06 seconds East 108.90 feet, along said north line, also being the existing south right of way line of East Faries Parkway per said Book 335, Page 591, to the northeast corner of said Lot One (1); thence South 0 degrees 11 minutes 07 seconds East 389.96 feet, along the east line of said Lot One (1), to the southeast corner of said Lot One (1); thence South 87 degrees 53 minutes 21 seconds West 108.90 feet, along the south line of said Lot One (1), also being the existing north right of way line of East Logan Street per said Book 335, Page 591, to the southwest corner of the East 108.9 feet of said Lot One (1); thence North 0 degrees 11 minutes 07 seconds West 34.92 feet along the west line of the East 108.9 feet of said Lot One (1); thence North 42 degrees 59 minutes 54 seconds East 85.21 feet; thence North 02 degrees 28 minutes 18 seconds East 182.00 feet; thence North 33 degrees 26 minutes 49 seconds West 88.33 feet; thence South 83 degrees 08 minutes 31 seconds West 18.43 feet to the west line of the East 108.9 feet of said Lot One (1); thence North 0 degrees 11 minutes 07 seconds West 39.38 feet, along said west line, to the Point of Beginning. Said parcel contains 0.600 acres, more or less.

Temporary Construction Easement

A part of the East 108.9 feet of Lot One (1) of Westlake 2nd Addition of Outlots to the City of Decatur, Illinois, per Plat recorded in Book 335, Page 591 of the Records in the Recorder's Office of Macon County, Illinois and described as follows:

Commencing at an Illinois Department of Transportation Vault found at the northwest corner of Section 8, Township 16 North, Range 3 East of the Third Principal Meridian per Monument Record recorded as Document 1894076 of the records aforesaid; thence, along bearings reference to the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, NAD83 (2011 Adjustment), East Zone, North 89 degrees 06 minutes 39 seconds East 1204.57 feet, along the north line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 8, to the intersection of the northerly extension of the west line of the East 108.9 feet of said Lot One (1) with said north line; thence South 0 degrees 11 minutes 07 seconds East 46.71 feet along said northerly extension and said west line; thence North 83 degrees 08 minutes 31 seconds East 18.43 feet; thence South 33 degrees 26 minutes 49 seconds East 12.23 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence continue South 33 degrees 26 minutes 49 seconds East 41.57 feet; thence North 89 degrees 34 minutes 37 seconds West 23.33 feet; thence North 0 degrees 41 minutes 26 seconds East 34.52 feet to the Point of Beginning. Said parcel contains 0.009 acres (403 square feet), more or less.

PARCEL 57a

A part of the East one half of the West 446.77 feet of the East 1003.67 feet of Lot One (1) and a part of the West 224 feet of the East 556.9 feet of Lot One (1) all of Westlake 2nd Addition of Outlots to the City of Decatur, Illinois, per Plat recorded in Book 335, Page 591 of the Records in the Recorder's Office of Macon County, Illinois and described as follows:

Commencing at an Illinois Department of Transportation Vault found at the northwest corner of Section 8, Township 16 North, Range 3 East of the Third Principal Meridian per Monument Record recorded as Document 1894076 of the records aforesaid; thence, along bearings reference to the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, NAD83 (2011 Adjustment), East Zone, North 89 degrees 06 minutes 39 seconds East 533.51 feet, along the north line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 8; thence South 0 degrees 11 minutes 07 seconds East 36.17 feet to the intersection of the west line of the East one half of the West 446.77 feet of the East 1003.67 feet of said Lot One (1) with the existing south right of way line of East Faries Parkway per Book 2515, Page 103 of the records aforesaid and the Point of Beginning; thence North 81 degrees 39 minutes 51 seconds East 16.50 feet along said existing right of way line; thence North 84 degrees 23 minutes 14 seconds East 207.86 feet, along said existing right of way line, to intersection of the north line of said Lot One (1) with the west line of the East 556.9 feet of said Lot One (1); thence North 87 degrees 53 minutes 06 seconds East 224.00 feet, along said north line, also being the existing south right of way line of East Faries Parkway per said Book 335, Page 591, to the east line of the West 224 feet of the East 556.9 feet of said Lot One (1); thence South 0 degrees 11 minutes 07 seconds East 58.03 feet along said east line; thence South 83 degrees 08 minutes 31 seconds West 145.41 feet; thence South 86 degrees 40 minutes 37 seconds West 208.00 feet; thence South 58 degrees 45 minutes 06 seconds West 110.93 feet to the west line of the East one half of the West 446.77 feet of the East 1003.67 feet of said Lot One (1); thence North 0 degrees 11 minutes 07 seconds West 114.00 feet, along said west line, to the Point of Beginning. Said parcel contains 0.743 acres, more or less.

Temporary Construction Easement

A part of the West 224 feet of the East 556.9 feet of Lot One (1) of Westlake 2nd Addition of Outlots to the City of Decatur, Illinois, per Plat recorded in Book 335, Page 591 of the Records in the Recorder's Office of Macon County, Illinois and described as follows:

Commencing at an Illinois Department of Transportation Vault found at the northwest corner of Section 8, Township 16 North, Range 3 East of the Third Principal Meridian per Monument Record recorded as Document 1894076 of the records aforesaid; thence, along bearings reference to the Illinois State Plane Coordinate System, NAD83 (2011 Adjustment), East Zone, North 89 degrees 06 minutes 39 seconds East 533.51 feet, along the north line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 8, to the intersection of the northerly extension of the west line of the East one half of the West 446.77 feet of the East 1003.67 feet of said Lot One (1) with said north line; thence South 0 degrees 11 minutes 07 seconds East 150.17 feet along said northerly extension and said west line; thence North 58 degrees 45 minutes 06 seconds East 110.93 feet; thence North 86 degrees 40 minutes 37 seconds East 208.00 feet to the Point of Beginning; thence North 83 degrees 08 minutes 31 seconds East 91.78 feet; thence South 2 degrees 02 minutes 57 seconds East 5.66 feet; thence South 86 degrees 40 minutes 37 seconds West 91.48 feet to the Point of Beginning. Said parcel contains 0.006 acres (259 square feet), more or less.

PARCEL 39

Lot 8 of Westlake 2nd Addition of Outlots to the City of Decatur, as per Plat recorded in Book 335, Page 591 of the Records in the Recorder's Office of Macon County, Illinois also known as 1880 North Brush College Road.

(b) This Section is repealed August 27, 2023 (2 years after the effective date of Public Act 102-624) this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 102-624, eff. 8-27-21; revised 11-18-21.)

Section 685. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 221 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/221)

Sec. 221. Name change on marriage certificate. For a person married in any county in this State, the county clerk shall issue a new marriage certificate when it receives legal documentation indicating that one of the parties listed on the certificate has legally changed names. An order for name change issued pursuant to Section 21-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall be the only legal documentation that a county clerk may require. The new marriage certificate shall reflect the legal name change and shall bear no additional markings.

(Source: P.A. 102-169, eff. 7-27-21.)

(750 ILCS 5/222)

Sec. 222 221. Request for changing or removing gender identifying language on a marriage certificate.

(a) Upon completion of an affidavit provided by the county clerk and confirmation of identity, a person, still currently married, may request a certificate of the person's current marriage free of any gender identifying language. The person may request a change from terms such as "bride" and "groom" to a nongendered term such as "spouse" or a variant of "Spouse 1" or "Spouse A". Upon such request, both parties shall be listed with a nongendered identifier on a certificate. The request shall not permanently change the gender identifying language in the clerk's records, and the affidavit and issuance shall be kept in the permanent records of the clerk.

The affidavit shall be created by the county clerk, may appear on a combined form with the form under subsection (b), and shall be substantially as follows:

REQUEST FOR NONGENDERED COPY OF A MARRIAGE CERTIFICATE

I, .........., state that I am a named spouse on a marriage license held in this office, that I am still married to the other named spouse on that marriage license as of the date of this request, and hereby request the holder of this record provide me, and only me, with a marriage certificate with any gender-identifying language removed or changed to "spouse". I affirm that this change is for purposes of this certified copy, the change will not be made to permanent records, and a record of this request shall be held by the holder of this marriage record.

Date..........

Signature..........

(b) If 2 parties currently married request a marriage certificate with gender identifiers changed, such as "bride" to "groom" or "groom" to "bride", both parties shall appear before the clerk, indicate consent, and complete an affidavit. If the clerk is technologically able and the parties desire, the change in gender is permanent.

The affidavit shall be created by the county clerk, may appear on a combined form with the form under subsection (a), and shall be substantially as follows:

REQUEST FOR NONGENDERED COPY OF A MARRIAGE CERTIFICATE

We, ..........[Spouse A] and ..........[Spouse B], the still-married named persons on a marriage license held in this office as of the date of this request, hereby request the holder of this record to provide a marriage certificate with gender-identifying terms such as "bride" and "groom" changed as follows:

..........[Name of Spouse A] Bride, Groom, or Spouse (select one).

..........[Name of Spouse B] Bride, Groom, or Spouse (select one).

We affirm that this change is for purposes of this certified copy, and the change will not be made to permanent records, unless indicated by selecting Yes or No (select one) and a record of this request shall be held by the holder of this marriage record.

Date..........

Signature of Spouse A..........

Signature of Spouse B..........

(c) If a county provides a certified record, photocopy, or reproduction of an original record in lieu of a summary data sheet, the county clerk shall work with the Department of Public Health to develop a new certificate that can be issued in lieu of a reproduction of the prior record. Nothing in this subsection authorizes the county clerk to permanently mark or deface a prior record in lieu of a summary data sheet certificate.

(d) When a clerk issues a nongendered marriage certificate under subsection (a), the certificate shall not include any language indicating it has been amended nor that it is not a true and accurate record of the facts stated therein.

(Source: P.A. 102-171, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-18-21.)

Section 690. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 301 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/301) (from Ch. 40, par. 2313-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 301. Arrest without warrant.

(a) Any law enforcement officer may make an arrest without warrant if the officer has probable cause to believe that the person has committed or is committing any crime, including but not limited to violation of an order of protection, under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, even if the crime was not committed in the presence of the officer.

(b) The law enforcement officer may verify the existence of an order of protection by telephone or radio communication with his or her law enforcement agency or by referring to the copy of the order, or order of protection described on a Hope Card under Section 219.5, provided by the petitioner or respondent.

(c) Any law enforcement officer may make an arrest without warrant if the officer has reasonable grounds to believe a defendant at liberty under the provisions of subdivision (d)(1) or (d)(2) of Section 110-10 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 has violated a condition of his or her bail bond or recognizance.

(Source: P.A. 102-481, eff. 1-1-22.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 101-652)

Sec. 301. Arrest without warrant.

(a) Any law enforcement officer may make an arrest without warrant if the officer has probable cause to believe that the person has committed or is committing any crime, including but not limited to violation of an order of protection, under Section 12-3.4 or 12-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, even if the crime was not committed in the presence of the officer.

(b) The law enforcement officer may verify the existence of an order of protection by telephone or radio communication with his or her law enforcement agency or by referring to the copy of the order, or order of protection described on a Hope Card under Section 219.5, provided by the petitioner or respondent.

(c) Any law enforcement officer may make an arrest without warrant if the officer has reasonable grounds to believe a defendant at liberty under the provisions of subdivision (d)(1) or (d)(2) of Section 110-10 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 has violated a condition of his or her pretrial release or recognizance.

(Source: P.A. 101-652, eff. 1-1-23; 102-481, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-14-21.)

Section 695. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 11a-2, 11a-10, and 11a-17 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/11a-2) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-2)

Sec. 11a-2. "Person with a disability" defined.) "Person with a disability" means a person 18 years or older who (a) because of mental deterioration or physical incapacity is not fully able to manage his person or estate, or (b) is a person with mental illness or a person with a developmental disability and who because of his mental illness or developmental disability is not fully able to manage his person or estate, or (c) because of gambling, idleness, debauchery, or excessive use of intoxicants or drugs, so spends or wastes his estate as to expose himself or his family to want or suffering, or (d) is diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome or fetal alcohol effects.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 11-24-21.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-10)

Sec. 11a-10. Procedures preliminary to hearing.

(a) Upon the filing of a petition pursuant to Section 11a-8, the court shall set a date and place for hearing to take place within 30 days. The court shall appoint a guardian ad litem to report to the court concerning the respondent's best interests consistent with the provisions of this Section, except that the appointment of a guardian ad litem shall not be required when the court determines that such appointment is not necessary for the protection of the respondent or a reasonably informed decision on the petition. If the guardian ad litem is not a licensed attorney, he or she shall be qualified, by training or experience, to work with or advocate for persons with developmental disabilities, the mentally ill, persons with physical disabilities, the elderly, or persons with a disability due to mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged in the petition. The court may allow the guardian ad litem reasonable compensation. The guardian ad litem may consult with a person who by training or experience is qualified to work with persons with a developmental disability, persons with mental illness, persons with physical disabilities, or persons with a disability due to mental deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is alleged. The guardian ad litem shall personally observe the respondent prior to the hearing and shall inform him orally and in writing of the contents of the petition and of his rights, including providing a copy of the notice of rights required under subsection (e). The guardian ad litem shall also attempt to elicit the respondent's position concerning the adjudication of disability, the proposed guardian, a proposed change in residential placement, changes in care that might result from the guardianship, and other areas of inquiry deemed appropriate by the court. Notwithstanding any provision in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act or any other law, a guardian ad litem shall have the right to inspect and copy any medical or mental health record of the respondent which the guardian ad litem deems necessary, provided that the information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with the proceedings. At or before the hearing, the guardian ad litem shall file a written report detailing his or her observations of the respondent, the responses of the respondent to any of the inquiries detailed in this Section, the opinion of the guardian ad litem or other professionals with whom the guardian ad litem consulted concerning the appropriateness of guardianship, and any other material issue discovered by the guardian ad litem. The guardian ad litem shall appear at the hearing and testify as to any issues presented in his or her report.

(b) The court (1) may appoint counsel for the respondent, if the court finds that the interests of the respondent will be best served by the appointment, and (2) shall appoint counsel upon the respondent's request or if the respondent takes a position adverse to that of the guardian ad litem. The respondent shall be permitted to obtain the appointment of counsel either at the hearing or by any written or oral request communicated to the court prior to the hearing. The summons shall inform the respondent of this right to obtain appointed counsel. The court may allow counsel for the respondent reasonable compensation.

(c) The allocation of guardian ad litem fees and costs is within the discretion of the court. No legal fees, appointed counsel fees, guardian ad litem fees, or costs shall be assessed against the Office of the State Guardian, the public guardian, an adult protective services agency, the Department of Children and Family Services, or the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act.

(d) The hearing may be held at such convenient place as the court directs, including at a facility in which the respondent resides.

(e) Unless he is the petitioner, the respondent shall be personally served with a copy of the petition and a summons not less than 14 days before the hearing. The summons shall be printed in large, bold type and shall include the following:

NOTICE OF RIGHTS OF RESPONDENT

You have been named as a respondent in a guardianship petition asking that you be declared a person with a disability. If the court grants the petition, a guardian will be appointed for you. A copy of the guardianship petition is attached for your convenience.

The date and time of the hearing are: The place where the hearing will occur is: The Judge's name and phone number is:

If a guardian is appointed for you, the guardian may be given the right to make all important personal decisions for you, such as where you may live, what medical treatment you may receive, what places you may visit, and who may visit you. A guardian may also be given the right to control and manage your money and other property, including your home, if you own one. You may lose the right to make these decisions for yourself.

You have the following legal rights:

(1) You have the right to be present at the court hearing.

(2) You have the right to be represented by a lawyer, either one that you retain, or one appointed by the Judge.

(3) You have the right to ask for a jury of six persons to hear your case.

(4) You have the right to present evidence to the court and to confront and cross-examine witnesses.

(5) You have the right to ask the Judge to appoint an independent expert to examine you and give an opinion about your need for a guardian.

(6) You have the right to ask that the court hearing be closed to the public.

(7) You have the right to tell the court whom you prefer to have for your guardian.

(8) You have the right to ask a judge to find that although you lack some capacity to make your own decisions, you can make other decisions, and therefore it is best for the court to appoint only a limited guardian for you.

You do not have to attend the court hearing if you do not want to be there. If you do not attend, the Judge may appoint a guardian if the Judge finds that a guardian would be of benefit to you. The hearing will not be postponed or canceled if you do not attend. If you are unable to attend the hearing in person or you will suffer harm if you attend, the Judge can decide to hold the hearing at a place that is convenient. The Judge can also follow the rule of the Supreme Court of this State, or its local equivalent, and decide if a video conference is appropriate.

IT IS VERY IMPORTANT THAT YOU ATTEND THE HEARING IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OR IF YOU WANT SOMEONE OTHER THAN THE PERSON NAMED IN THE GUARDIANSHIP PETITION TO BE YOUR GUARDIAN. IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OR IF YOU HAVE ANY OTHER PROBLEMS, YOU SHOULD CONTACT AN ATTORNEY OR COME TO COURT AND TELL THE JUDGE.

Service of summons and the petition may be made by a private person 18 years of age or over who is not a party to the action.

[END OF FORM] .

(f) Notice of the time and place of the hearing shall be given by the petitioner by mail or in person to those persons, including the proposed guardian, whose names and addresses appear in the petition and who do not waive notice, not less than 14 days before the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 102-72, eff. 1-1-22; 102-191, eff. 1-1-22; revised 9-22-21.)

(755 ILCS 5/11a-17) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-17)

Sec. 11a-17. Duties of personal guardian.

(a) To the extent ordered by the court and under the direction of the court, the guardian of the person shall have custody of the ward and the ward's minor and adult dependent children and shall procure for them and shall make provision for their support, care, comfort, health, education and maintenance, and professional services as are appropriate, but the ward's spouse may not be deprived of the custody and education of the ward's minor and adult dependent children, without the consent of the spouse, unless the court finds that the spouse is not a fit and competent person to have that custody and education. The guardian shall assist the ward in the development of maximum self-reliance and independence. The guardian of the person may petition the court for an order directing the guardian of the estate to pay an amount periodically for the provision of the services specified by the court order. If the ward's estate is insufficient to provide for education and the guardian of the ward's person fails to provide education, the court may award the custody of the ward to some other person for the purpose of providing education. If a person makes a settlement upon or provision for the support or education of a ward, the court may make an order for the visitation of the ward by the person making the settlement or provision as the court deems proper. A guardian of the person may not admit a ward to a mental health facility except at the ward's request as provided in Article IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code and unless the ward has the capacity to consent to such admission as provided in Article IV of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(a-3) If a guardian of an estate has not been appointed, the guardian of the person may, without an order of court, open, maintain, and transfer funds to an ABLE account on behalf of the ward and the ward's minor and adult dependent children as specified under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act.

(a-5) If the ward filed a petition for dissolution of marriage under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act before the ward was adjudicated a person with a disability under this Article, the guardian of the ward's person and estate may maintain that action for dissolution of marriage on behalf of the ward. Upon petition by the guardian of the ward's person or estate, the court may authorize and direct a guardian of the ward's person or estate to file a petition for dissolution of marriage or to file a petition for legal separation or declaration of invalidity of marriage under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act on behalf of the ward if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the relief sought is in the ward's best interests. In making its determination, the court shall consider the standards set forth in subsection (e) of this Section.

(a-10) Upon petition by the guardian of the ward's person or estate, the court may authorize and direct a guardian of the ward's person or estate to consent, on behalf of the ward, to the ward's marriage pursuant to Part II of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the marriage is in the ward's best interests. In making its determination, the court shall consider the standards set forth in subsection (e) of this Section. Upon presentation of a court order authorizing and directing a guardian of the ward's person and estate to consent to the ward's marriage, the county clerk shall accept the guardian's application, appearance, and signature on behalf of the ward for purposes of issuing a license to marry under Section 203 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(b) If the court directs, the guardian of the person shall file with the court at intervals indicated by the court, a report that shall state briefly: (1) the current mental, physical, and social condition of the ward and the ward's minor and adult dependent children; (2) their present living arrangement, and a description and the address of every residence where they lived during the reporting period and the length of stay at each place; (3) a summary of the medical, educational, vocational, and other professional services given to them; (4) a resume of the guardian's visits with and activities on behalf of the ward and the ward's minor and adult dependent children; (5) a recommendation as to the need for continued guardianship; (6) any other information requested by the court or useful in the opinion of the guardian. The Office of the State Guardian shall assist the guardian in filing the report when requested by the guardian. The court may take such action as it deems appropriate pursuant to the report.

(c) Absent court order pursuant to the Illinois Power of Attorney Act directing a guardian to exercise powers of the principal under an agency that survives disability, the guardian has no power, duty, or liability with respect to any personal or health care matters covered by the agency. This subsection (c) applies to all agencies, whenever and wherever executed.

(d) A guardian acting as a surrogate decision maker under the Health Care Surrogate Act shall have all the rights of a surrogate under that Act without court order including the right to make medical treatment decisions such as decisions to forgo or withdraw life-sustaining treatment. Any decisions by the guardian to forgo or withdraw life-sustaining treatment that are not authorized under the Health Care Surrogate Act shall require a court order. Nothing in this Section shall prevent an agent acting under a power of attorney for health care from exercising his or her authority under the Illinois Power of Attorney Act without further court order, unless a court has acted under Section 2-10 of the Illinois Power of Attorney Act. If a guardian is also a health care agent for the ward under a valid power of attorney for health care, the guardian acting as agent may execute his or her authority under that act without further court order.

(e) Decisions made by a guardian on behalf of a ward shall be made in accordance with the following standards for decision making. The guardian shall consider the ward's current preferences to the extent the ward has the ability to participate in decision making when those preferences are known or reasonably ascertainable by the guardian. Decisions by the guardian shall conform to the ward's current preferences: (1) unless the guardian reasonably believes that doing so would result in substantial harm to the ward's welfare or personal or financial interests; and (2) so long as such decisions give substantial weight to what the ward, if competent, would have done or intended under the circumstances, taking into account evidence that includes, but is not limited to, the ward's personal, philosophical, religious and moral beliefs, and ethical values relative to the decision to be made by the guardian. Where possible, the guardian shall determine how the ward would have made a decision based on the ward's previously expressed preferences, and make decisions in accordance with the preferences of the ward. If the ward's wishes are unknown and remain unknown after reasonable efforts to discern them, or if the guardian reasonably believes that a decision made in conformity with the ward's preferences would result in substantial harm to the ward's welfare or personal or financial interests, the decision shall be made on the basis of the ward's best interests as determined by the guardian. In determining the ward's best interests, the guardian shall weigh the reason for and nature of the proposed action, the benefit or necessity of the action, the possible risks and other consequences of the proposed action, and any available alternatives and their risks, consequences and benefits, and shall take into account any other information, including the views of family and friends, that the guardian believes the ward would have considered if able to act for herself or himself.

(f) Upon petition by any interested person (including the standby or short-term guardian), with such notice to interested persons as the court directs and a finding by the court that it is in the best interests of the person with a disability, the court may terminate or limit the authority of a standby or short-term guardian or may enter such other orders as the court deems necessary to provide for the best interests of the person with a disability. The petition for termination or limitation of the authority of a standby or short-term guardian may, but need not, be combined with a petition to have another guardian appointed for the person with a disability.

(g)(1) Unless there is a court order to the contrary, the guardian, consistent with the standards set forth in subsection (e) of this Section, shall use reasonable efforts to notify the ward's known adult children, who have requested notification and provided contact information, of the ward's admission to a hospital, hospice, or palliative care program, the ward's death, and the arrangements for the disposition of the ward's remains.

(2) If a guardian unreasonably prevents an adult child, spouse, adult grandchild, parent, or adult sibling of the ward from visiting the ward, the court, upon a verified petition, may order the guardian to permit visitation between the ward and the adult child, spouse, adult grandchild, parent, or adult sibling. In making its determination, the court shall consider the standards set forth in subsection (e) of this Section. The court shall not allow visitation if the court finds that the ward has capacity to evaluate and communicate decisions regarding visitation and expresses a desire not to have visitation with the petitioner. This subsection (g) does not apply to duly appointed public guardians or the Office of State Guardian.

(Source: P.A. 101-329, eff. 8-9-19; 102-72, eff. 1-1-22; 102-258, eff. 8-6-21; revised 9-22-21.)

Section 700. The Real Property Transfer on Death Instrument Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(755 ILCS 27/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Beneficiary" means a person that receives real property under a transfer on death instrument.

"Designated beneficiary" means a person designated to receive real property under a transfer on death instrument.

"Joint owner" means an individual who owns real property concurrently with one or more other individuals with a right of survivorship. The term includes a joint tenant or a tenant by the entirety. The term does not include a tenant in common.

"Owner" means an individual who owns an interest in real property. "Owner" does not include a trustee or an individual acting in a fiduciary, representative, or agency capacity who holds an interest in real property.

"Person" means: an individual; a corporation; a business trust; a trustee of a land trust, a revocable or irrevocable trust, a trust created under a will or under a transfer on death instrument; a partnership; a limited liability company; an association; a joint venture; a public corporation; a government or governmental subdivision; an agency; an instrumentality; a guardian; a custodian designated or to be designated under any state's uniform transfers to minors act; or any other legal entity. inter vivos

"Real property" means an interest in realty located in this State capable of being transferred on the death of the owner.

"Residential real estate" means real property improved with not less than one nor more than 4 residential dwelling units; a residential condominium unit, including but not limited to the common elements allocated to the exclusive use thereof that form an integral part of the condominium unit and any parking unit or units specified by the declaration to be allocated to a specific residential condominium unit; or a single tract of agriculture real estate consisting of 40 acres or less which is improved with a single family residence. If a declaration of condominium ownership provides for individually owned and transferable parking units, "residential real estate" does not include the parking unit of a specific residential condominium unit unless the parking unit is included in the legal description of the property being transferred by a transfer on death instrument.

"Transfer on death instrument" means an instrument authorized under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-68, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-12-21.)

Section 705. The Illinois Power of Attorney Act is amended by changing Sections 4-6 and 4-10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 45/4-6) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 804-6)

Sec. 4-6. Revocation and amendment of health care agencies.

(a) Unless the principal elects a delayed revocation period pursuant to subsection (a-5), every health care agency may be revoked by the principal at any time, without regard to the principal's mental or physical condition, by any of the following methods:

1. By being obliterated, burnt, torn, or otherwise destroyed or defaced in a manner indicating intention to revoke;

2. By a written revocation of the agency signed and dated by the principal or person acting at the direction of the principal, regardless of whether the written revocation is in an electronic or hard copy format;

3. By an oral or any other expression of the intent to revoke the agency in the presence of a witness 18 years of age or older who signs and dates a writing confirming that such expression of intent was made; or

4. For an electronic health care agency, by deleting in a manner indicating the intention to revoke. An electronic health care agency may be revoked electronically using a generic, technology-neutral system in which each user is assigned a unique identifier that is securely maintained and in a manner that meets the regulatory requirements for a digital or electronic signature. Compliance with the standards defined in the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act or the implementing rules of the Hospital Licensing Act for medical record entry authentication for author validation of the documentation, content accuracy, and completeness meets this standard.

(a-5) A principal may elect a 30-day delay of the revocation of the principal's health care agency. If a principal makes this election, the principal's revocation shall be delayed for 30 days after the principal communicates his or her intent to revoke.

(b) Every health care agency may be amended at any time by a written amendment signed and dated by the principal or person acting at the direction of the principal.

(c) Any person, other than the agent, to whom a revocation or amendment is communicated or delivered shall make all reasonable efforts to inform the agent of that fact as promptly as possible.

(Source: P.A. 101-163, eff. 1-1-20; 102-38, eff. 6-25-21; 102-181, eff. 7-30-21; revised 9-22-21.)

(755 ILCS 45/4-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 804-10)

Sec. 4-10. Statutory short form power of attorney for health care.

(a) The form prescribed in this Section (sometimes also referred to in this Act as the "statutory health care power") may be used to grant an agent powers with respect to the principal's own health care; but the statutory health care power is not intended to be exclusive nor to cover delegation of a parent's power to control the health care of a minor child, and no provision of this Article shall be construed to invalidate or bar use by the principal of any other or different form of power of attorney for health care. Nonstatutory health care powers must be executed by the principal, designate the agent and the agent's powers, and comply with the limitations in Section 4-5 of this Article, but they need not be witnessed or conform in any other respect to the statutory health care power.

No specific format is required for the statutory health care power of attorney other than the notice must precede the form. The statutory health care power may be included in or combined with any other form of power of attorney governing property or other matters.

The signature and execution requirements set forth in this Article are satisfied by: (i) written signatures or initials; or (ii) electronic signatures or computer-generated signature codes. Electronic documents under this Act may be created, signed, or revoked electronically using a generic, technology-neutral system in which each user is assigned a unique identifier that is securely maintained and in a manner that meets the regulatory requirements for a digital or electronic signature. Compliance with the standards defined in the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act or the implementing rules of the Hospital Licensing Act for medical record entry authentication for author validation of the documentation, content accuracy, and completeness meets this standard.

(b) The Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Health Care shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO THE INDIVIDUAL SIGNING

THE POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE

No one can predict when a serious illness or accident might occur. When it does, you may need someone else to speak or make health care decisions for you. If you plan now, you can increase the chances that the medical treatment you get will be the treatment you want.

In Illinois, you can choose someone to be your "health care agent". Your agent is the person you trust to make health care decisions for you if you are unable or do not want to make them yourself. These decisions should be based on your personal values and wishes.

It is important to put your choice of agent in writing. The written form is often called an "advance directive". You may use this form or another form, as long as it meets the legal requirements of Illinois. There are many written and online on-line resources to guide you and your loved ones in having a conversation about these issues. You may find it helpful to look at these resources while thinking about and discussing your advance directive.

WHAT ARE THE THINGS I WANT MY

HEALTH CARE AGENT TO KNOW?

The selection of your agent should be considered carefully, as your agent will have the ultimate decision-making authority once this document goes into effect, in most instances after you are no longer able to make your own decisions. While the goal is for your agent to make decisions in keeping with your preferences and in the majority of circumstances that is what happens, please know that the law does allow your agent to make decisions to direct or refuse health care interventions or withdraw treatment. Your agent will need to think about conversations you have had, your personality, and how you handled important health care issues in the past. Therefore, it is important to talk with your agent and your family about such things as:

(i) What is most important to you in your life?

(ii) How important is it to you to avoid pain and suffering?

(iii) If you had to choose, is it more important to you to live as long as possible, or to avoid prolonged suffering or disability?

(iv) Would you rather be at home or in a hospital for the last days or weeks of your life?

(v) Do you have religious, spiritual, or cultural beliefs that you want your agent and others to consider?

(vi) Do you wish to make a significant contribution to medical science after your death through organ or whole body donation?

(vii) Do you have an existing advance directive, such as a living will, that contains your specific wishes about health care that is only delaying your death? If you have another advance directive, make sure to discuss with your agent the directive and the treatment decisions contained within that outline your preferences. Make sure that your agent agrees to honor the wishes expressed in your advance directive.

WHAT KIND OF DECISIONS CAN MY AGENT MAKE?

If there is ever a period of time when your physician determines that you cannot make your own health care decisions, or if you do not want to make your own decisions, some of the decisions your agent could make are to:

(i) talk with physicians and other health care providers about your condition.

(ii) see medical records and approve who else can see them.

(iii) give permission for medical tests, medicines, surgery, or other treatments.

(iv) choose where you receive care and which physicians and others provide it.

(v) decide to accept, withdraw, or decline treatments designed to keep you alive if you are near death or not likely to recover. You may choose to include guidelines and/or restrictions to your agent's authority.

(vi) agree or decline to donate your organs or your whole body if you have not already made this decision yourself. This could include donation for transplant, research, and/or education. You should let your agent know whether you are registered as a donor in the First Person Consent registry maintained by the Illinois Secretary of State or whether you have agreed to donate your whole body for medical research and/or education.

(vii) decide what to do with your remains after you have died, if you have not already made plans.

(viii) talk with your other loved ones to help come to a decision (but your designated agent will have the final say over your other loved ones).

Your agent is not automatically responsible for your health care expenses.

WHOM SHOULD I CHOOSE TO BE MY HEALTH CARE AGENT?

You can pick a family member, but you do not have to. Your agent will have the responsibility to make medical treatment decisions, even if other people close to you might urge a different decision. The selection of your agent should be done carefully, as he or she will have ultimate decision-making authority for your treatment decisions once you are no longer able to voice your preferences. Choose a family member, friend, or other person who:

(i) is at least 18 years old;

(ii) knows you well;

(iii) you trust to do what is best for you and is willing to carry out your wishes, even if he or she may not agree with your wishes;

(iv) would be comfortable talking with and questioning your physicians and other health care providers;

(v) would not be too upset to carry out your wishes if you became very sick; and

(vi) can be there for you when you need it and is willing to accept this important role.

WHAT IF MY AGENT IS NOT AVAILABLE OR IS

UNWILLING TO MAKE DECISIONS FOR ME?

If the person who is your first choice is unable to carry out this role, then the second agent you chose will make the decisions; if your second agent is not available, then the third agent you chose will make the decisions. The second and third agents are called your successor agents and they function as back-up agents to your first choice agent and may act only one at a time and in the order you list them.

WHAT WILL HAPPEN IF I DO NOT

CHOOSE A HEALTH CARE AGENT?

If you become unable to make your own health care decisions and have not named an agent in writing, your physician and other health care providers will ask a family member, friend, or guardian to make decisions for you. In Illinois, a law directs which of these individuals will be consulted. In that law, each of these individuals is called a "surrogate".

There are reasons why you may want to name an agent rather than rely on a surrogate:

(i) The person or people listed by this law may not be who you would want to make decisions for you.

(ii) Some family members or friends might not be able or willing to make decisions as you would want them to.

(iii) Family members and friends may disagree with one another about the best decisions.

(iv) Under some circumstances, a surrogate may not be able to make the same kinds of decisions that an agent can make.

WHAT IF THERE IS NO ONE AVAILABLE

WHOM I TRUST TO BE MY AGENT?

In this situation, it is especially important to talk to your physician and other health care providers and create written guidance about what you want or do not want, in case you are ever critically ill and cannot express your own wishes. You can complete a living will. You can also write your wishes down and/or discuss them with your physician or other health care provider and ask him or her to write it down in your chart. You might also want to use written or online on-line resources to guide you through this process.

WHAT DO I DO WITH THIS FORM ONCE I COMPLETE IT?

Follow these instructions after you have completed the form:

(i) Sign the form in front of a witness. See the form for a list of who can and cannot witness it.

(ii) Ask the witness to sign it, too.

(iii) There is no need to have the form notarized.

(iv) Give a copy to your agent and to each of your successor agents.

(v) Give another copy to your physician.

(vi) Take a copy with you when you go to the hospital.

(vii) Show it to your family and friends and others who care for you.

WHAT IF I CHANGE MY MIND?

You may change your mind at any time. If you do, tell someone who is at least 18 years old that you have changed your mind, and/or destroy your document and any copies. If you wish, fill out a new form and make sure everyone you gave the old form to has a copy of the new one, including, but not limited to, your agents and your physicians. If you are concerned you may revoke your power of attorney at a time when you may need it the most, you may initial the box at the end of the form to indicate that you would like a 30-day waiting period after you voice your intent to revoke your power of attorney. This means if your agent is making decisions for you during that time, your agent can continue to make decisions on your behalf. This election is purely optional, and you do not have to choose it. If you do not choose this option, you can change your mind and revoke the power of attorney at any time.

WHAT IF I DO NOT WANT TO USE THIS FORM?

In the event you do not want to use the Illinois statutory form provided here, any document you complete must be executed by you, designate an agent who is over 18 years of age and not prohibited from serving as your agent, and state the agent's powers, but it need not be witnessed or conform in any other respect to the statutory health care power.

If you have questions about the use of any form, you may want to consult your physician, other health care provider, and/or an attorney.

MY POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE

THIS POWER OF ATTORNEY REVOKES ALL PREVIOUS POWERS OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE. (You must sign this form and a witness must also sign it before it is valid)

My name (Print your full name):.......... My address:..................................................

I WANT THE FOLLOWING PERSON TO BE MY HEALTH CARE AGENT

(an agent is your personal representative under state and federal law): (Agent name)................. (Agent address)............. (Agent phone number).........................................

(Please check box if applicable) .... If a guardian of my person is to be appointed, I nominate the agent acting under this power of attorney as guardian.

SUCCESSOR HEALTH CARE AGENT(S) (optional):

If the agent I selected is unable or does not want to make health care decisions for me, then I request the person(s) I name below to be my successor health care agent(s). Only one person at a time can serve as my agent (add another page if you want to add more successor agent names):

.....................

(Successor agent #1 name, address and phone number)

..........

(Successor agent #2 name, address and phone number)

MY AGENT CAN MAKE HEALTH CARE DECISIONS FOR ME, INCLUDING:

(i) Deciding to accept, withdraw, or decline treatment for any physical or mental condition of mine, including life-and-death decisions.

(ii) Agreeing to admit me to or discharge me from any hospital, home, or other institution, including a mental health facility.

(iii) Having complete access to my medical and mental health records, and sharing them with others as needed, including after I die.

(iv) Carrying out the plans I have already made, or, if I have not done so, making decisions about my body or remains, including organ, tissue or whole body donation, autopsy, cremation, and burial.

The above grant of power is intended to be as broad as possible so that my agent will have the authority to make any decision I could make to obtain or terminate any type of health care, including withdrawal of nutrition and hydration and other life-sustaining measures.

I AUTHORIZE MY AGENT TO (please check any one box):

.... Make decisions for me only when I cannot make them for myself. The physician(s) taking care of me will determine when I lack this ability.

(If no box is checked, then the box above shall be implemented.) OR

.... Make decisions for me only when I cannot make them for myself. The physician(s) taking care of me will determine when I lack this ability. Starting now, for the purpose of assisting me with my health care plans and decisions, my agent shall have complete access to my medical and mental health records, the authority to share them with others as needed, and the complete ability to communicate with my personal physician(s) and other health care providers, including the ability to require an opinion of my physician as to whether I lack the ability to make decisions for myself. OR

.... Make decisions for me starting now and continuing after I am no longer able to make them for myself. While I am still able to make my own decisions, I can still do so if I want to.

The subject of life-sustaining treatment is of particular importance. Life-sustaining treatments may include tube feedings or fluids through a tube, breathing machines, and CPR. In general, in making decisions concerning life-sustaining treatment, your agent is instructed to consider the relief of suffering, the quality as well as the possible extension of your life, and your previously expressed wishes. Your agent will weigh the burdens versus benefits of proposed treatments in making decisions on your behalf.

Additional statements concerning the withholding or removal of life-sustaining treatment are described below. These can serve as a guide for your agent when making decisions for you. Ask your physician or health care provider if you have any questions about these statements.

SELECT ONLY ONE STATEMENT BELOW THAT BEST EXPRESSES YOUR WISHES (optional):

.... The quality of my life is more important than the length of my life. If I am unconscious and my attending physician believes, in accordance with reasonable medical standards, that I will not wake up or recover my ability to think, communicate with my family and friends, and experience my surroundings, I do not want treatments to prolong my life or delay my death, but I do want treatment or care to make me comfortable and to relieve me of pain.

.... Staying alive is more important to me, no matter how sick I am, how much I am suffering, the cost of the procedures, or how unlikely my chances for recovery are. I want my life to be prolonged to the greatest extent possible in accordance with reasonable medical standards.

SPECIFIC LIMITATIONS TO MY AGENT'S DECISION-MAKING AUTHORITY:

The above grant of power is intended to be as broad as possible so that your agent will have the authority to make any decision you could make to obtain or terminate any type of health care. If you wish to limit the scope of your agent's powers or prescribe special rules or limit the power to authorize autopsy or dispose of remains, you may do so specifically in this form. ..................................

..............................

My signature:.................. Today's date:................................................

DELAYED REVOCATION

.... I elect to delay revocation of this power of attorney for 30 days after I communicate my intent to revoke it.

.... I elect for the revocation of this power of attorney to take effect immediately if I communicate my intent to revoke it.

HAVE YOUR WITNESS AGREE TO WHAT IS WRITTEN BELOW, AND THEN COMPLETE THE SIGNATURE PORTION:

I am at least 18 years old. (check one of the options below):

.... I saw the principal sign this document, or

.... the principal told me that the signature or mark on the principal signature line is his or hers.

I am not the agent or successor agent(s) named in this document. I am not related to the principal, the agent, or the successor agent(s) by blood, marriage, or adoption. I am not the principal's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, dentist, podiatric physician, optometrist, psychologist, or a relative of one of those individuals. I am not an owner or operator (or the relative of an owner or operator) of the health care facility where the principal is a patient or resident. Witness printed name:............ Witness address:.............. Witness signature:............... Today's date:................................................

(c) The statutory short form power of attorney for health care (the "statutory health care power") authorizes the agent to make any and all health care decisions on behalf of the principal which the principal could make if present and under no disability, subject to any limitations on the granted powers that appear on the face of the form, to be exercised in such manner as the agent deems consistent with the intent and desires of the principal. The agent will be under no duty to exercise granted powers or to assume control of or responsibility for the principal's health care; but when granted powers are exercised, the agent will be required to use due care to act for the benefit of the principal in accordance with the terms of the statutory health care power and will be liable for negligent exercise. The agent may act in person or through others reasonably employed by the agent for that purpose but may not delegate authority to make health care decisions. The agent may sign and deliver all instruments, negotiate and enter into all agreements, and do all other acts reasonably necessary to implement the exercise of the powers granted to the agent. Without limiting the generality of the foregoing, the statutory health care power shall include the following powers, subject to any limitations appearing on the face of the form:

(1) The agent is authorized to give consent to and authorize or refuse, or to withhold or withdraw consent to, any and all types of medical care, treatment, or procedures relating to the physical or mental health of the principal, including any medication program, surgical procedures, life-sustaining treatment, or provision of food and fluids for the principal.

(2) The agent is authorized to admit the principal to or discharge the principal from any and all types of hospitals, institutions, homes, residential or nursing facilities, treatment centers, and other health care institutions providing personal care or treatment for any type of physical or mental condition. The agent shall have the same right to visit the principal in the hospital or other institution as is granted to a spouse or adult child of the principal, any rule of the institution to the contrary notwithstanding.

(3) The agent is authorized to contract for any and all types of health care services and facilities in the name of and on behalf of the principal and to bind the principal to pay for all such services and facilities, and to have and exercise those powers over the principal's property as are authorized under the statutory property power, to the extent the agent deems necessary to pay health care costs; and the agent shall not be personally liable for any services or care contracted for on behalf of the principal.

(4) At the principal's expense and subject to reasonable rules of the health care provider to prevent disruption of the principal's health care, the agent shall have the same right the principal has to examine and copy and consent to disclosure of all the principal's medical records that the agent deems relevant to the exercise of the agent's powers, whether the records relate to mental health or any other medical condition and whether they are in the possession of or maintained by any physician, psychiatrist, psychologist, therapist, hospital, nursing home, or other health care provider. The authority under this paragraph (4) applies to any information governed by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 ("HIPAA") and regulations thereunder. The agent serves as the principal's personal representative, as that term is defined under HIPAA and regulations thereunder.

(5) The agent is authorized: to direct that an autopsy be made pursuant to Section 2 of the Autopsy Act; to make a disposition of any part or all of the principal's body pursuant to the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act, as now or hereafter amended; and to direct the disposition of the principal's remains.

(6) At any time during which there is no executor or administrator appointed for the principal's estate, the agent is authorized to continue to pursue an application or appeal for government benefits if those benefits were applied for during the life of the principal.

(d) A physician may determine that the principal is unable to make health care decisions for himself or herself only if the principal lacks decisional capacity, as that term is defined in Section 10 of the Health Care Surrogate Act.

(e) If the principal names the agent as a guardian on the statutory short form, and if a court decides that the appointment of a guardian will serve the principal's best interests and welfare, the court shall appoint the agent to serve without bond or security.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-163, eff. 1-1-20; 102-38, eff. 6-25-21; 102-181, eff. 7-30-21; revised 9-22-21.)

Section 710. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Sections 1-103, 2-105, and 6-101 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/1-103) (from Ch. 68, par. 1-103)

Sec. 1-103. General definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise, the term:

(A) Age. "Age" means the chronological age of a person who is at least 40 years old, except with regard to any practice described in Section 2-102, insofar as that practice concerns training or apprenticeship programs. In the case of training or apprenticeship programs, for the purposes of Section 2-102, "age" means the chronological age of a person who is 18 but not yet 40 years old.

(B) Aggrieved party. "Aggrieved party" means a person who is alleged or proved to have been injured by a civil rights violation or believes he or she will be injured by a civil rights violation under Article 3 that is about to occur.

(B-5) Arrest record. "Arrest record" means:

(1) an arrest not leading to a conviction;

(2) a juvenile record; or

(3) criminal history record information ordered expunged, sealed, or impounded under Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(C) Charge. "Charge" means an allegation filed with the Department by an aggrieved party or initiated by the Department under its authority.

(D) Civil rights violation. "Civil rights violation" includes and shall be limited to only those specific acts set forth in Sections 2-102, 2-103, 2-105, 3-102, 3-102.1, 3-103, 3-102.10, 3-104.1, 3-105, 3-105.1, 4-102, 4-103, 5-102, 5A-102, 6-101, 6-101.5, and 6-102 of this Act.

(E) Commission. "Commission" means the Human Rights Commission created by this Act.

(F) Complaint. "Complaint" means the formal pleading filed by the Department with the Commission following an investigation and finding of substantial evidence of a civil rights violation.

(G) Complainant. "Complainant" means a person including the Department who files a charge of civil rights violation with the Department or the Commission.

(G-5) Conviction record. "Conviction record" means information indicating that a person has been convicted of a felony, misdemeanor or other criminal offense, placed on probation, fined, imprisoned, or paroled pursuant to any law enforcement or military authority.

(H) Department. "Department" means the Department of Human Rights created by this Act.

(I) Disability.

(1) "Disability" means a determinable physical or mental characteristic of a person, including, but not limited to, a determinable physical characteristic which necessitates the person's use of a guide, hearing or support dog, the history of such characteristic, or the perception of such characteristic by the person complained against, which may result from disease, injury, congenital condition of birth or functional disorder and which characteristic:

(a) For purposes of Article 2, is unrelated to the person's ability to perform the duties of a particular job or position and, pursuant to Section 2-104 of this Act, a person's illegal use of drugs or alcohol is not a disability;

(b) For purposes of Article 3, is unrelated to the person's ability to acquire, rent, or maintain a housing accommodation;

(c) For purposes of Article 4, is unrelated to a person's ability to repay;

(d) For purposes of Article 5, is unrelated to a person's ability to utilize and benefit from a place of public accommodation;

(e) For purposes of Article 5, also includes any mental, psychological, or developmental disability, including autism spectrum disorders.

(2) Discrimination based on disability includes unlawful discrimination against an individual because of the individual's association with a person with a disability.

(J) Marital status. "Marital status" means the legal status of being married, single, separated, divorced, or widowed.

(J-1) Military status. "Military status" means a person's status on active duty in or status as a veteran of the armed forces of the United States, status as a current member or veteran of any reserve component of the armed forces of the United States, including the United States Army Reserve, United States Marine Corps Reserve, United States Navy Reserve, United States Air Force Reserve, and United States Coast Guard Reserve, or status as a current member or veteran of the Illinois Army National Guard or Illinois Air National Guard.

(K) National origin. "National origin" means the place in which a person or one of his or her ancestors was born.

(K-5) "Order of protection status" means a person's status as being a person protected under an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or the Civil No Contact Order Act, or an order of protection issued by a court of another state.

(L) Person. "Person" includes one or more individuals, partnerships, associations or organizations, labor organizations, labor unions, joint apprenticeship committees, or union labor associations, corporations, the State of Illinois and its instrumentalities, political subdivisions, units of local government, legal representatives, trustees in bankruptcy or receivers.

(L-5) Pregnancy. "Pregnancy" means pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth.

(M) Public contract. "Public contract" includes every contract to which the State, any of its political subdivisions, or any municipal corporation is a party.

(N) Religion. "Religion" includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief, except that with respect to employers, for the purposes of Article 2, "religion" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (F) of Section 2-101.

(O) Sex. "Sex" means the status of being male or female.

(O-1) Sexual orientation. "Sexual orientation" means actual or perceived heterosexuality, homosexuality, bisexuality, or gender-related identity, whether or not traditionally associated with the person's designated sex at birth. "Sexual orientation" does not include a physical or sexual attraction to a minor by an adult.

(P) Unfavorable military discharge. "Unfavorable military discharge" includes discharges from the Armed Forces of the United States, their Reserve components, or any National Guard or Naval Militia which are classified as RE-3 or the equivalent thereof, but does not include those characterized as RE-4 or "Dishonorable".

(Q) Unlawful discrimination. "Unlawful discrimination" means discrimination against a person because of his or her actual or perceived: race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, age, sex, marital status, order of protection status, disability, military status, sexual orientation, pregnancy, or unfavorable discharge from military service as those terms are defined in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-221, eff. 1-1-20; 101-565, eff. 1-1-20; 101-656, eff. 3-23-21; 102-362, eff. 1-1-22; 102-419, eff. 1-1-22; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 9-29-21.)

(775 ILCS 5/2-105) (from Ch. 68, par. 2-105)

Sec. 2-105. Equal Employment Opportunities; Affirmative Action.

(A) Public Contracts. Every party to a public contract and every eligible bidder shall:

(1) Refrain from unlawful discrimination and discrimination based on citizenship status in employment and undertake affirmative action to assure equality of employment opportunity and eliminate the effects of past discrimination;

(2) Comply with the procedures and requirements of the Department's regulations concerning equal employment opportunities and affirmative action;

(3) Provide such information, with respect to its employees and applicants for employment, and assistance as the Department may reasonably request;

(4) Have written sexual harassment policies that shall include, at a minimum, the following information: (i) the illegality of sexual harassment; (ii) the definition of sexual harassment under State law; (iii) a description of sexual harassment, utilizing examples; (iv) the vendor's internal complaint process including penalties; (v) the legal recourse, investigative, and complaint process available through the Department and the Commission; (vi) directions on how to contact the Department and Commission; and (vii) protection against retaliation as provided by Sections 6-101 and 6-101.5 of this Act. A copy of the policies shall be provided to the Department upon request. Additionally, each bidder who submits a bid or offer for a State contract under the Illinois Procurement Code shall have a written copy of the bidder's sexual harassment policy as required under this paragraph (4). A copy of the policy shall be provided to the State agency entering into the contract upon request.

(B) State Agencies. Every State executive department, State agency, board, commission, and instrumentality shall:

(1) Comply with the procedures and requirements of the Department's regulations concerning equal employment opportunities and affirmative action. ;

(2) Provide such information and assistance as the Department may request.

(3) Establish, maintain, and carry out a continuing affirmative action plan consistent with this Act and the regulations of the Department designed to promote equal opportunity for all State residents in every aspect of agency personnel policy and practice. For purposes of these affirmative action plans, the race and national origin categories to be included in the plans are: American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Hispanic or Latino, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander.

This plan shall include a current detailed status report:

(a) indicating, by each position in State service, the number, percentage, and average salary of individuals employed by race, national origin, sex and disability, and any other category that the Department may require by rule;

(b) identifying all positions in which the percentage of the people employed by race, national origin, sex and disability, and any other category that the Department may require by rule, is less than four-fifths of the percentage of each of those components in the State work force;

(c) specifying the goals and methods for increasing the percentage by race, national origin, sex, and disability, and any other category that the Department may require by rule, in State positions;

(d) indicating progress and problems toward meeting equal employment opportunity goals, including, if applicable, but not limited to, Department of Central Management Services recruitment efforts, publicity, promotions, and use of options designating positions by linguistic abilities;

(e) establishing a numerical hiring goal for the employment of qualified persons with disabilities in the agency as a whole, to be based on the proportion of people with work disabilities in the Illinois labor force as reflected in the most recent employment data made available by the United States Census Bureau.

(4) If the agency has 1000 or more employees, appoint a full-time Equal Employment Opportunity officer, subject to the Department's approval, whose duties shall include:

(a) Advising the head of the particular State agency with respect to the preparation of equal employment opportunity programs, procedures, regulations, reports, and the agency's affirmative action plan.

(b) Evaluating in writing each fiscal year the sufficiency of the total agency program for equal employment opportunity and reporting thereon to the head of the agency with recommendations as to any improvement or correction in recruiting, hiring or promotion needed, including remedial or disciplinary action with respect to managerial or supervisory employees who have failed to cooperate fully or who are in violation of the program.

(c) Making changes in recruitment, training and promotion programs and in hiring and promotion procedures designed to eliminate discriminatory practices when authorized.

(d) Evaluating tests, employment policies, practices, and qualifications and reporting to the head of the agency and to the Department any policies, practices and qualifications that have unequal impact by race, national origin as required by Department rule, sex, or disability or any other category that the Department may require by rule, and to assist in the recruitment of people in underrepresented classifications. This function shall be performed in cooperation with the State Department of Central Management Services.

(e) Making any aggrieved employee or applicant for employment aware of his or her remedies under this Act.

In any meeting, investigation, negotiation, conference, or other proceeding between a State employee and an Equal Employment Opportunity officer, a State employee (1) who is not covered by a collective bargaining agreement and (2) who is the complaining party or the subject of such proceeding may be accompanied, advised and represented by (1) an attorney licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois or (2) a representative of an employee organization whose membership is composed of employees of the State and of which the employee is a member. A representative of an employee, other than an attorney, may observe but may not actively participate, or advise the State employee during the course of such meeting, investigation, negotiation, conference, or other proceeding. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to permit any person who is not licensed to practice law in Illinois to deliver any legal services or otherwise engage in any activities that would constitute the unauthorized practice of law. Any representative of an employee who is present with the consent of the employee, shall not, during or after termination of the relationship permitted by this Section with the State employee, use or reveal any information obtained during the course of the meeting, investigation, negotiation, conference, or other proceeding without the consent of the complaining party and any State employee who is the subject of the proceeding and pursuant to rules and regulations governing confidentiality of such information as promulgated by the appropriate State agency. Intentional or reckless disclosure of information in violation of these confidentiality requirements shall constitute a Class B misdemeanor.

(5) Establish, maintain, and carry out a continuing sexual harassment program that shall include the following:

(a) Develop a written sexual harassment policy that includes at a minimum the following information: (i) the illegality of sexual harassment; (ii) the definition of sexual harassment under State law; (iii) a description of sexual harassment, utilizing examples; (iv) the agency's internal complaint process including penalties; (v) the legal recourse, investigative, and complaint process available through the Department and the Commission; (vi) directions on how to contact the Department and Commission; and (vii) protection against retaliation as provided by Section 6-101 of this Act. The policy shall be reviewed annually.

(b) Post in a prominent and accessible location and distribute in a manner to assure notice to all agency employees without exception the agency's sexual harassment policy. Such documents may meet, but shall not exceed, the 6th grade literacy level. Distribution shall be effectuated within 90 days of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1992 and shall occur annually thereafter.

(c) Provide training on sexual harassment prevention and the agency's sexual harassment policy as a component of all ongoing or new employee training programs.

(6) Notify the Department 30 days before effecting any layoff. Once notice is given, the following shall occur:

(a) No layoff may be effective earlier than 10 working days after notice to the Department, unless an emergency layoff situation exists.

(b) The State executive department, State agency, board, commission, or instrumentality in which the layoffs are to occur must notify each employee targeted for layoff, the employee's union representative (if applicable), and the State Dislocated Worker Unit at the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(c) The State executive department, State agency, board, commission, or instrumentality in which the layoffs are to occur must conform to applicable collective bargaining agreements.

(d) The State executive department, State agency, board, commission, or instrumentality in which the layoffs are to occur should notify each employee targeted for layoff that transitional assistance may be available to him or her under the Economic Dislocation and Worker Adjustment Assistance Act administered by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity. Failure to give such notice shall not invalidate the layoff or postpone its effective date.

As used in this subsection (B), "disability" shall be defined in rules promulgated under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(C) Civil Rights Violations. It is a civil rights violation for any public contractor or eligible bidder to:

(1) fail to comply with the public contractor's or eligible bidder's duty to refrain from unlawful discrimination and discrimination based on citizenship status in employment under subsection (A)(1) of this Section; or

(2) fail to comply with the public contractor's or eligible bidder's duties of affirmative action under subsection (A) of this Section, provided however, that the Department has notified the public contractor or eligible bidder in writing by certified mail that the public contractor or eligible bidder may not be in compliance with affirmative action requirements of subsection (A). A minimum of 60 days to comply with the requirements shall be afforded to the public contractor or eligible bidder before the Department may issue formal notice of non-compliance.

(D) As used in this Section:

(1) "American Indian or Alaska Native" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment.

(2) "Asian" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam.

(3) "Black or African American" means a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa.

(4) "Hispanic or Latino" means a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race.

(5) "Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander" means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands.

(Source: P.A. 102-362, eff. 1-1-22; 102-465, eff. 1-1-22; revised 9-22-21.)

(775 ILCS 5/6-101) (from Ch. 68, par. 6-101)

Sec. 6-101. Additional civil rights violations under Articles 2, 4, 5, and 5A. It is a civil rights violation for a person, or for 2 or more persons, to conspire, to:

(A) Retaliation. Retaliate against a person because he or she has opposed that which he or she reasonably and in good faith believes to be unlawful discrimination, sexual harassment in employment, sexual harassment in elementary, secondary, and higher education, or discrimination based on arrest record, or citizenship status, or work authorization status in employment under Articles 2, 4, 5, and 5A, because he or she has made a charge, filed a complaint, testified, assisted, or participated in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under this Act, or because he or she has requested, attempted to request, used, or attempted to use a reasonable accommodation as allowed by this Act;

(B) Aiding and Abetting; Coercion. Aid, abet, compel, or coerce a person to commit any violation of this Act;

(C) Interference. Wilfully interfere with the performance of a duty or the exercise of a power by the Commission or one of its members or representatives or the Department or one of its officers or employees.

Definitions. For the purposes of this Section, "sexual harassment", "citizenship status", and "work authorization status" shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 2-101 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-233, eff. 8-2-21; 102-362, eff. 1-1-22; revised 10-12-21.)

Section 715. The Human Trafficking Resource Center Notice Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(775 ILCS 50/5)

Sec. 5. Posted notice required.

(a) Each of the following businesses and other establishments shall, upon the availability of the model notice described in Section 15 of this Act, post a notice that complies with the requirements of this Act in a conspicuous place near the public entrance of the establishment, in all restrooms open to the public, or in another conspicuous location in clear view of the public and employees where similar notices are customarily posted:

(1) On premise consumption retailer licensees under the Liquor Control Act of 1934 where the sale of alcoholic liquor is the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises and primary to the sale of food.

(2) Adult entertainment facilities, as defined in Section 5-1097.5 of the Counties Code.

(3) Primary airports, as defined in Section 47102(16) of Title 49 of the United States Code.

(4) Intercity passenger rail or light rail stations.

(5) Bus stations.

(6) Truck stops. For purposes of this Act, "truck stop" means a privately-owned and operated facility that provides food, fuel, shower or other sanitary facilities, and lawful overnight truck parking.

(7) Emergency rooms within general acute care hospitals, in which case the notice may be posted by electronic means.

(8) Urgent care centers, in which case the notice may be posted by electronic means.

(9) Farm labor contractors. For purposes of this Act, "farm labor contractor" means: (i) any person who for a fee or other valuable consideration recruits, supplies, or hires, or transports in connection therewith, into or within the State, any farmworker not of the contractor's immediate family to work for, or under the direction, supervision, or control of, a third person; or (ii) any person who for a fee or other valuable consideration recruits, supplies, or hires, or transports in connection therewith, into or within the State, any farmworker not of the contractor's immediate family, and who for a fee or other valuable consideration directs, supervises, or controls all or any part of the work of the farmworker or who disburses wages to the farmworker. However, "farm labor contractor" does not include full-time regular employees of food processing companies when the employees are engaged in recruiting for the companies if those employees are not compensated according to the number of farmworkers they recruit.

(10) Privately-operated job recruitment centers.

(11) Massage establishments. As used in this Act, "massage establishment" means a place of business in which any method of massage therapy is administered or practiced for compensation. "Massage establishment" does not include: an establishment at which persons licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, or the Naprapathic Practice Act engage in practice under one of those Acts; a business owned by a sole licensed massage therapist; or a cosmetology or esthetics salon registered under the Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair Braiding, and Nail Technology Act of 1985.

(b) The Department of Transportation shall, upon the availability of the model notice described in Section 15 of this Act, post a notice that complies with the requirements of this Act in a conspicuous place near the public entrance of each roadside rest area or in another conspicuous location in clear view of the public and employees where similar notices are customarily posted.

(c) The owner of a hotel or motel shall, upon the availability of the model notice described in Section 15 of this Act, post a notice that complies with the requirements of this Act in a conspicuous and accessible place in or about the premises in clear view of the employees where similar notices are customarily posted.

(d) The organizer of a public gathering or special event that is conducted on property open to the public and requires the issuance of a permit from the unit of local government shall post a notice that complies with the requirements of this Act in a conspicuous and accessible place in or about the premises in clear view of the public and employees where similar notices are customarily posted.

(e) The administrator of a public or private elementary school or public or private secondary school shall post a printout of the downloadable notice provided by the Department of Human Services under Section 15 that complies with the requirements of this Act in a conspicuous and accessible place chosen by the administrator in the administrative office or another location in view of school employees. School districts and personnel are not subject to the penalties provided under subsection (a) of Section 20.

(f) The owner of an establishment registered under the Tattoo and Body Piercing Establishment Registration Act shall post a notice that complies with the requirements of this Act in a conspicuous and accessible place in clear view of establishment employees.

(Source: P.A. 102-4, eff. 4-27-21; 102-131, eff. 1-1-22; revised 8-3-21.)

Section 720. The Business Corporation Act of 1983 is amended by changing Sections 8.12 and 15.65 as follows:

(805 ILCS 5/8.12)

Sec. 8.12. Female, minority, and LGBTQ directors.

(a) Findings and purpose. The General Assembly finds that women, minorities, and LGBTQ people are still largely underrepresented nationally in positions of corporate authority, such as serving as a director on a corporation's board of directors. This low representation could be contributing to the disparity seen in wages made by females and minorities versus their white male counterparts. Increased representation of these individuals as directors on boards of directors for corporations may boost the Illinois economy, improve opportunities for women, minorities, and LGBTQ people in the workplace, and foster an environment in Illinois where the business community is representative of our residents. Therefore, it is the intent of the General Assembly to gather more data and study this issue within the State so that effective policy changes may be implemented to eliminate this disparity.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Annual report" means the report submitted annually to the Secretary of State pursuant to this Act.

"Female" means a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who self-identifies as a woman, without regard to the individual's designated sex at birth.

"Minority person" means a person who is a citizen or lawful permanent resident of the United States and who is any of the following races or ethnicities:

(1) American Indian or Alaska Native (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America, including Central America, and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment).

(2) Asian (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, but not limited to, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam).

(3) Black or African American (a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa). Terms such as "Haitian" or "Negro" can be used in addition to "Black" or "African American".

(4) Hispanic or Latino (a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race).

(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander (a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands).

(6) "Publicly held domestic or foreign corporation" means a corporation with outstanding shares listed on a major United States stock exchange.

(c) Reporting to the Secretary of State. As soon as practical after August 27, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 101-589) this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly, but no later than January 1, 2021, the following information shall be provided in a corporation's annual report submitted to the Secretary of State under this Act and made available by the Secretary of State to the public online as it is received:

(1) Whether the corporation is a publicly held domestic or foreign corporation with its principal executive office located in Illinois.

(2) Where the corporation is a publicly held domestic or foreign corporation with its principal executive office located in Illinois, data on specific qualifications, skills, and experience that the corporation considers for its board of directors, nominees for the board of directors, and executive officers.

(3) Where the corporation is a publicly held domestic or foreign corporation with its principal executive office located in Illinois, the self-identified gender of each member of its board of directors.

(4) Where the corporation is a publicly held domestic or foreign corporation with its principal executive office located in Illinois, whether each member of its board of directors self-identifies as a minority person and, if so, which race or ethnicity to which the member belongs.

(5) Where the corporation is a publicly held domestic or foreign corporation with its principal executive office located in Illinois, the self-identified sexual orientation of each member of its board of directors.

(6) Where the corporation is a publicly held domestic or foreign corporation with its principal executive office located in Illinois, the self-identified gender identity of each member of its board of directors.

(7) 7 Where the corporation is a publicly held domestic or foreign corporation with its principal executive office located in Illinois, a description of the corporation's process for identifying and evaluating nominees for the board of directors, including whether and, if so, how demographic diversity is considered.

(8) 8 Where the corporation is a publicly held domestic or foreign corporation with its principal executive office located in Illinois, a description of the corporation's process for identifying and appointing executive officers, including whether and, if so, how demographic diversity is considered.

(9) 9 Where the corporation is a publicly held domestic or foreign corporation with its principal executive office located in Illinois, a description of the corporation's policies and practices for promoting diversity, equity, and inclusion among its board of directors and executive officers.

Information reported under this subsection shall be updated in each annual report filed with the Secretary of State thereafter.

(d) Beginning no later than March 1, 2021, and every March 1 thereafter, the University of Illinois Systems shall review the information reported and published under subsection (c) and shall publish on its website a report that provides aggregate data on the demographic characteristics of the boards of directors and executive officers of corporations filing an annual report for the preceding year along with an individualized rating for each corporation. The report shall also identify strategies for promoting diversity and inclusion among boards of directors and corporate executive officers.

(e) The University of Illinois System shall establish a rating system assessing the representation of women, minorities, and LGBTQ people on corporate boards of directors of those corporations that are publicly held domestic or foreign corporations with their principal executive office located in Illinois based on the information gathered under this Section. The rating system shall consider, among other things: compliance with the demographic reporting obligations in subsection (c); the corporation's policies and practices for encouraging diversity in recruitment, board membership, and executive appointments; and the demographic diversity of board seats and executive positions.

(Source: P.A. 101-589, eff. 8-27-19; 102-223, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-24-21.)

(805 ILCS 5/15.65) (from Ch. 32, par. 15.65)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2024)

Sec. 15.65. Franchise taxes payable by foreign corporations. For the privilege of exercising its authority to transact such business in this State as set out in its application therefor or any amendment thereto, each foreign corporation shall pay to the Secretary of State the following franchise taxes, computed on the basis, at the rates and for the periods prescribed in this Act:

(a) An initial franchise tax at the time of filing its application for authority to transact business in this State.

(b) An additional franchise tax at the time of filing (1) a report of the issuance of additional shares, or (2) a report of an increase in paid-in capital without the issuance of shares, or (3) a report of cumulative changes in paid-in capital or a report of an exchange or reclassification of shares, whenever any such report discloses an increase in its paid-in capital over the amount thereof last reported in any document, other than an annual report, interim annual report or final transition annual report, required by this Act to be filed in the office of the Secretary of State.

(c) Whenever the corporation shall be a party to a statutory merger and shall be the surviving corporation, an additional franchise tax at the time of filing its report following merger, if such report discloses that the amount represented in this State of its paid-in capital immediately after the merger is greater than the aggregate of the amounts represented in this State of the paid-in capital of such of the merged corporations as were authorized to transact business in this State at the time of the merger, as last reported by them in any documents, other than annual reports, required by this Act to be filed in the office of the Secretary of State; and in addition, the surviving corporation shall be liable for a further additional franchise tax on the paid-in capital of each of the merged corporations as last reported by them in any document, other than an annual report, required by this Act to be filed with the Secretary of State, from their taxable year end to the next succeeding anniversary month or, in the case of a corporation which has established an extended filing month, the extended filing month of the surviving corporation; however if the taxable year ends within the 2-month period immediately preceding the anniversary month or the extended filing month of the surviving corporation, the tax will be computed to the anniversary or, extended filing month of the surviving corporation in the next succeeding calendar year.

(d) An annual franchise tax payable each year with any annual report which the corporation is required by this Act to file.

On or after January 1, 2020 and prior to January 1, 2021, the first $30 in liability is exempt from the tax imposed under this Section. On or after January 1, 2021, the first $1,000 in liability is exempt from the tax imposed under this Section. Public Act 101-9

(Source: P.A. 101-9, eff. 6-5-19; 102-16, eff. 6-17-21; 102-558, eff. 8-20-21; revised 10-21-21.)

Section 725. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2WWW as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2WWW)

Sec. 2WWW. Termination or early cancellation fees for deceased persons.

(a) Subject to federal law and regulation, no provider of telephone, cellular telephone, television, Internet, energy, medical alert system, or water services shall impose a fee for termination or early cancellation of a service contract in the event the customer has deceased before the end of the contract.

(b) Every violation of this Section is an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-112, eff. 1-1-22.)

(815 ILCS 505/2XXX)

Sec. 2XXX 2WWW. Disclosure requirements for manufactured homes.

(a) A lender, or agent of a lending company, when offering terms for a mortgage note for the purchase of a manufactured home, as defined in the Mobile Home Park Act, that has not been caused to be deemed to be real property by satisfying the requirements of the Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act, shall disclose:

(1) any affiliation between the landlord and the lending company;

(2) that the loan is a chattel loan;

(3) that the terms of a chattel loan prohibit refinancing;

(4) that, depending on where the consumer affixes the manufactured home (be it property owned by the consumer or on certain types of leased land), the manufactured home may qualify as real property under the Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act; and

(5) any other reason that prohibits refinancing.

(b) A violation of this Section constitutes an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-365, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-12-21.)

(815 ILCS 505/2YYY)

Sec. 2YYY 2WWW. Deceptive practices targeting veterans and military members.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Veteran or military benefits services" means any services offered or provided to a veteran, military member, or family member who is entitled to receive benefits under federal, State, or local law, policy, or practice as a result of, at least in part, qualifying military service. Such services include assistance in obtaining benefits, increasing benefits, or appealing a decision related to obtaining or increasing benefits.

"Veteran's services disclosure" means providing, in upper case type in size at least as large as the type size of the written communication or by voice-over, the following statement: "VETERAN AND MILITARY BENEFITS SERVICES ARE AVAILABLE FREE OF CHARGE FROM COUNTY VETERAN SERVICE OFFICERS, THE ILLINOIS DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS, AND FEDERALLY CHARTERED VETERAN SERVICE ORGANIZATIONS. TO LEARN MORE, CONTACT THESE ORGANIZATIONS OR THE ILLINOIS ATTORNEY GENERAL'S OFFICE AT 1-800-382-3000.".

(b) It is an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act for any person providing veteran or military benefits services to:

(1) Fail in any advertising to conspicuously disclose a veteran's services disclosure when veteran or military benefits services are provided in exchange for a benefit or thing of value.

(2) Fail to obtain, or to obtain a pending application for, all veteran or military benefits services qualifications, certifications, and accreditations required under State or federal law.

(3) Fail, when acting as a fiduciary for a veteran receiving benefits, to meet the responsibilities of fiduciaries under 38 CFR 13.140.

(4) Fail, when providing representation before the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, to meet the standards of conduct under 38 CFR 14.632.

(5) Charge fees or expenses in violation of 38 CFR 14.636 or 14.637.

(Source: P.A. 102-386, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-12-21.)

(815 ILCS 505/2ZZZ)

Sec. 2ZZZ 2WWW. Violations of the Educational Planning Services Consumer Protection Act. Any person who violates the Educational Planning Services Consumer Protection Act commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 102-571, eff. 1-1-22; revised 11-12-21.)

Section 730. The Prevailing Wage Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(820 ILCS 130/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-2)

Sec. 2. This Act applies to the wages of laborers, mechanics and other workers employed in any public works, as hereinafter defined, by any public body and to anyone under contracts for public works. This includes any maintenance, repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment whether owned, leased, or rented.

As used in this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise:

"Public works" means all fixed works constructed or demolished by any public body, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" as defined herein includes all projects financed in whole or in part with bonds, grants, loans, or other funds made available by or through the State or any of its political subdivisions, including but not limited to: bonds issued under the Industrial Project Revenue Bond Act (Article 11, Division 74 of the Illinois Municipal Code), the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act, the Illinois Finance Authority Act, the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, or the Build Illinois Bond Act; loans or other funds made available pursuant to the Build Illinois Act; loans or other funds made available pursuant to the Riverfront Development Fund under Section 10-15 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act; or funds from the Fund for Illinois' Future under Section 6z-47 of the State Finance Act, funds for school construction under Section 5 of the General Obligation Bond Act, funds authorized under Section 3 of the School Construction Bond Act, funds for school infrastructure under Section 6z-45 of the State Finance Act, and funds for transportation purposes under Section 4 of the General Obligation Bond Act. "Public works" also includes (i) all projects financed in whole or in part with funds from the Environmental Protection Agency under the Illinois Renewable Fuels Development Program Act for which there is no project labor agreement; (ii) all work performed pursuant to a public private agreement under the Public Private Agreements for the Illiana Expressway Act or the Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act; and (iii) all projects undertaken under a public-private agreement under the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act. "Public works" also includes all projects at leased facility property used for airport purposes under Section 35 of the Local Government Facility Lease Act. "Public works" also includes the construction of a new wind power facility by a business designated as a High Impact Business under Section 5.5(a)(3)(E) and the construction of a new utility-scale solar power facility by a business designated as a High Impact Business under Section 5.5(a)(3)(E-5) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act. "Public works" also includes electric vehicle charging station projects financed pursuant to the Electric Vehicle Act and renewable energy projects required to pay the prevailing wage pursuant to the Illinois Power Agency Act. "Public works" does not include work done directly by any public utility company, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" also includes construction projects performed by a third party contracted by any public utility, as described in subsection (a) of Section 2.1, in public rights-of-way, as defined in Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" also includes construction projects that exceed 15 aggregate miles of new fiber optic cable, performed by a third party contracted by any public utility, as described in subsection (b) of Section 2.1, in public rights-of-way, as defined in Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act, whether or not done under public supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds. "Public works" also includes any corrective action performed pursuant to Title XVI of the Environmental Protection Act for which payment from the Underground Storage Tank Fund is requested. "Public works" does not include projects undertaken by the owner at an owner-occupied single-family residence or at an owner-occupied unit of a multi-family residence. "Public works" does not include work performed for soil and water conservation purposes on agricultural lands, whether or not done under public supervision or paid for wholly or in part out of public funds, done directly by an owner or person who has legal control of those lands.

"Construction" means all work on public works involving laborers, workers or mechanics. This includes any maintenance, repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment whether owned, leased, or rented.

"Locality" means the county where the physical work upon public works is performed, except (1) that if there is not available in the county a sufficient number of competent skilled laborers, workers and mechanics to construct the public works efficiently and properly, "locality" includes any other county nearest the one in which the work or construction is to be performed and from which such persons may be obtained in sufficient numbers to perform the work and (2) that, with respect to contracts for highway work with the Department of Transportation of this State, "locality" may at the discretion of the Secretary of the Department of Transportation be construed to include two or more adjacent counties from which workers may be accessible for work on such construction.

"Public body" means the State or any officer, board or commission of the State or any political subdivision or department thereof, or any institution supported in whole or in part by public funds, and includes every county, city, town, village, township, school district, irrigation, utility, reclamation improvement or other district and every other political subdivision, district or municipality of the state whether such political subdivision, municipality or district operates under a special charter or not.

"Labor organization" means an organization that is the exclusive representative of an employer's employees recognized or certified pursuant to the National Labor Relations Act.

The terms "general prevailing rate of hourly wages", "general prevailing rate of wages" or "prevailing rate of wages" when used in this Act mean the hourly cash wages plus annualized fringe benefits for training and apprenticeship programs approved by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, health and welfare, insurance, vacations and pensions paid generally, in the locality in which the work is being performed, to employees engaged in work of a similar character on public works.

(Source: P.A. 102-9, eff. 1-1-22; 102-444, eff. 8-20-21; 102-673, eff. 11-30-21; revised 12-9-21.)

Section 735. The Unemployment Insurance Act is amended by changing Section 1900 as follows:

(820 ILCS 405/1900) (from Ch. 48, par. 640)

Sec. 1900. Disclosure of information.

A. Except as provided in this Section, information obtained from any individual or employing unit during the administration of this Act shall:

1. be confidential,

2. not be published or open to public inspection,

3. not be used in any court in any pending action or proceeding,

4. not be admissible in evidence in any action or proceeding other than one arising out of this Act.

B. No finding, determination, decision, ruling, or order (including any finding of fact, statement or conclusion made therein) issued pursuant to this Act shall be admissible or used in evidence in any action other than one arising out of this Act, nor shall it be binding or conclusive except as provided in this Act, nor shall it constitute res judicata, regardless of whether the actions were between the same or related parties or involved the same facts.

C. Any officer or employee of this State, any officer or employee of any entity authorized to obtain information pursuant to this Section, and any agent of this State or of such entity who, except with authority of the Director under this Section or as authorized pursuant to subsection P-1, shall disclose information shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor and shall be disqualified from holding any appointment or employment by the State.

D. An individual or his duly authorized agent may be supplied with information from records only to the extent necessary for the proper presentation of his claim for benefits or with his existing or prospective rights to benefits. Discretion to disclose this information belongs solely to the Director and is not subject to a release or waiver by the individual. Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, an individual or his or her duly authorized agent may be supplied with a statement of the amount of benefits paid to the individual during the 18 months preceding the date of his or her request.

E. An employing unit may be furnished with information, only if deemed by the Director as necessary to enable it to fully discharge its obligations or safeguard its rights under the Act. Discretion to disclose this information belongs solely to the Director and is not subject to a release or waiver by the employing unit.

F. The Director may furnish any information that he may deem proper to any public officer or public agency of this or any other State or of the federal government dealing with:

1. the administration of relief,

2. public assistance,

3. unemployment compensation,

4. a system of public employment offices,

5. wages and hours of employment, or

6. a public works program.

The Director may make available to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission information regarding employers for the purpose of verifying the insurance coverage required under the Workers' Compensation Act and Workers' Occupational Diseases Act.

G. The Director may disclose information submitted by the State or any of its political subdivisions, municipal corporations, instrumentalities, or school or community college districts, except for information which specifically identifies an individual claimant.

H. The Director shall disclose only that information required to be disclosed under Section 303 of the Social Security Act, as amended, including:

1. any information required to be given the United States Department of Labor under Section 303(a)(6); and

2. the making available upon request to any agency of the United States charged with the administration of public works or assistance through public employment, the name, address, ordinary occupation, and employment status of each recipient of unemployment compensation, and a statement of such recipient's right to further compensation under such law as required by Section 303(a)(7); and

3. records to make available to the Railroad Retirement Board as required by Section 303(c)(1); and

4. information that will assure reasonable cooperation with every agency of the United States charged with the administration of any unemployment compensation law as required by Section 303(c)(2); and

5. information upon request and on a reimbursable basis to the United States Department of Agriculture and to any State food stamp agency concerning any information required to be furnished by Section 303(d); and

6. any wage information upon request and on a reimbursable basis to any State or local child support enforcement agency required by Section 303(e); and

7. any information required under the income eligibility and verification system as required by Section 303(f); and

8. information that might be useful in locating an absent parent or that parent's employer, establishing paternity or establishing, modifying, or enforcing child support orders for the purpose of a child support enforcement program under Title IV of the Social Security Act upon the request of and on a reimbursable basis to the public agency administering the Federal Parent Locator Service as required by Section 303(h); and

9. information, upon request, to representatives of any federal, State, or local governmental public housing agency with respect to individuals who have signed the appropriate consent form approved by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development and who are applying for or participating in any housing assistance program administered by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development as required by Section 303(i).

I. The Director, upon the request of a public agency of Illinois, of the federal government, or of any other state charged with the investigation or enforcement of Section 10-5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 (or a similar federal law or similar law of another State), may furnish the public agency information regarding the individual specified in the request as to:

1. the current or most recent home address of the individual, and

2. the names and addresses of the individual's employers.

J. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to interfere with the disclosure of certain records as provided for in Section 1706 or with the right to make available to the Internal Revenue Service of the United States Department of the Treasury, or the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois, information obtained under this Act. With respect to each benefit claim that appears to have been filed other than by the individual in whose name the claim was filed or by the individual's authorized agent and with respect to which benefits were paid during the prior calendar year, the Director shall annually report to the Department of Revenue information that is in the Director's possession and may assist in avoiding negative income tax consequences for the individual in whose name the claim was filed.

K. The Department shall make available to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission, upon request, information in the possession of the Department that may be necessary or useful to the Commission in the collection of defaulted or delinquent student loans which the Commission administers.

L. The Department shall make available to the State Employees' Retirement System, the State Universities Retirement System, the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, and the Department of Central Management Services, Risk Management Division, upon request, information in the possession of the Department that may be necessary or useful to the System or the Risk Management Division for the purpose of determining whether any recipient of a disability benefit from the System or a workers' compensation benefit from the Risk Management Division is gainfully employed.

M. This Section shall be applicable to the information obtained in the administration of the State employment service, except that the Director may publish or release general labor market information and may furnish information that he may deem proper to an individual, public officer, or public agency of this or any other State or the federal government (in addition to those public officers or public agencies specified in this Section) as he prescribes by Rule.

N. The Director may require such safeguards as he deems proper to insure that information disclosed pursuant to this Section is used only for the purposes set forth in this Section.

O. Nothing in this Section prohibits communication with an individual or entity through unencrypted e-mail or other unencrypted electronic means as long as the communication does not contain the individual's or entity's name in combination with any one or more of the individual's or entity's entire or partial social security number; driver's license or State identification number; credit or debit card number; or any required security code, access code, or password that would permit access to further information pertaining to the individual or entity.

P. (Blank).

P-1. With the express written consent of a claimant or employing unit and an agreement not to publicly disclose, the Director shall provide requested information related to a claim to an elected official performing constituent services or his or her agent.

Q. The Director shall make available to an elected federal official the name and address of an individual or entity that is located within the jurisdiction from which the official was elected and that, for the most recently completed calendar year, has reported to the Department as paying wages to workers, where the information will be used in connection with the official duties of the official and the official requests the information in writing, specifying the purposes for which it will be used. For purposes of this subsection, the use of information in connection with the official duties of an official does not include use of the information in connection with the solicitation of contributions or expenditures, in money or in kind, to or on behalf of a candidate for public or political office or a political party or with respect to a public question, as defined in Section 1-3 of the Election Code, or in connection with any commercial solicitation. Any elected federal official who, in submitting a request for information covered by this subsection, knowingly makes a false statement or fails to disclose a material fact, with the intent to obtain the information for a purpose not authorized by this subsection, shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

R. The Director may provide to any State or local child support agency, upon request and on a reimbursable basis, information that might be useful in locating an absent parent or that parent's employer, establishing paternity, or establishing, modifying, or enforcing child support orders.

S. The Department shall make available to a State's Attorney of this State or a State's Attorney's investigator, upon request, the current address or, if the current address is unavailable, current employer information, if available, of a victim of a felony or a witness to a felony or a person against whom an arrest warrant is outstanding.

T. The Director shall make available to the Illinois State Police, a county sheriff's office, or a municipal police department, upon request, any information concerning the current address and place of employment or former places of employment of a person who is required to register as a sex offender under the Sex Offender Registration Act that may be useful in enforcing the registration provisions of that Act.

U. The Director shall make information available to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services for the purpose of determining eligibility for public benefit programs authorized under the Illinois Public Aid Code and related statutes administered by those departments, for verifying sources and amounts of income, and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of those programs.

V. The Director shall make information available to the State Board of Elections as may be required by an agreement the State Board of Elections has entered into with a multi-state voter registration list maintenance system.

W. The Director shall make information available to the State Treasurer's office and the Department of Revenue for the purpose of facilitating compliance with the Illinois Secure Choice Savings Program Act, including employer contact information for employers with 25 or more employees and any other information the Director deems appropriate that is directly related to the administration of this program.

X. The Director shall make information available, upon request, to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for the purpose of determining eligibility for the adult vocational community college scholarship program under Section 65.105 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

Y. Except as required under State or federal law, or unless otherwise provided for in this Section, the Department shall not disclose an individual's entire social security number in any correspondence physically mailed to an individual or entity.

(Source: P.A. 101-315, eff. 1-1-20; 102-26, eff. 6-25-21; 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; revised 11-8-21.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.