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1 | | to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible |
2 | | disease or any information the disclosure of which is |
3 | | restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible |
4 | | Disease Control Act. |
5 | | (e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted |
6 | | under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act. |
7 | | (f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of |
8 | | the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying |
9 | | Qualifications Based Selection Act. |
10 | | (g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted |
11 | | and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid |
12 | | Tuition Act. |
13 | | (h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted |
14 | | under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and |
15 | | records of any lawfully created State or local inspector |
16 | | general's office that would be exempt if created or |
17 | | obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under |
18 | | that Act. |
19 | | (i) Information contained in a local emergency energy |
20 | | plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a |
21 | | local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted |
22 | | under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code. |
23 | | (j) Information and data concerning the distribution |
24 | | of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers |
25 | | under the Emergency Telephone System Act. |
26 | | (k) Law enforcement officer identification information |
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1 | | or driver identification information compiled by a law |
2 | | enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation |
3 | | under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. |
4 | | (l) Records and information provided to a residential |
5 | | health care facility resident sexual assault and death |
6 | | review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse |
7 | | Prevention Review Team Act. |
8 | | (m) Information provided to the predatory lending |
9 | | database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential |
10 | | Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent |
11 | | authorized under that Article. |
12 | | (n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of |
13 | | compensation and expenses for court appointed trial |
14 | | counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the |
15 | | Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall |
16 | | apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even |
17 | | if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty |
18 | | prior to trial or sentencing. |
19 | | (o) Information that is prohibited from being |
20 | | disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and |
21 | | Hazardous Substances Registry Act. |
22 | | (p) Security portions of system safety program plans, |
23 | | investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or |
24 | | information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the |
25 | | Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of |
26 | | the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair |
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1 | | County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety |
2 | | Act. |
3 | | (q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the |
4 | | Personnel Record Review Act. |
5 | | (r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the |
6 | | Illinois School Student Records Act. |
7 | | (s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted |
8 | | under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.
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9 | | (t) All identified or deidentified health information |
10 | | in the form of health data or medical records contained |
11 | | in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released |
12 | | from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and |
13 | | identified or deidentified health information in the form |
14 | | of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health |
15 | | Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois |
16 | | Health Information Exchange Office due to its |
17 | | administration of the Illinois Health Information |
18 | | Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall |
19 | | be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance |
20 | | Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law |
21 | | 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any |
22 | | regulations promulgated thereunder. |
23 | | (u) Records and information provided to an independent |
24 | | team of experts under the Developmental Disability and |
25 | | Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law). |
26 | | (v) Names and information of people who have applied |
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1 | | for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under |
2 | | the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act before the |
3 | | effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General |
4 | | Assembly or applied for or received a concealed carry |
5 | | license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless |
6 | | otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; |
7 | | and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, |
8 | | records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board |
9 | | under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement |
10 | | agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. |
11 | | (w) Personally identifiable information which is |
12 | | exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section |
13 | | 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act. |
14 | | (x) Information which is exempted from disclosure |
15 | | under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section |
16 | | 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code. |
17 | | (y) Confidential information under the Adult |
18 | | Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling |
19 | | statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including |
20 | | information about the identity and administrative finding |
21 | | against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated |
22 | | decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of |
23 | | an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established |
24 | | under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act. |
25 | | (z) Records and information provided to a fatality |
26 | | review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory |
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1 | | Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services |
2 | | Act. |
3 | | (aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure |
4 | | under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code. |
5 | | (bb) Information which is or was prohibited from |
6 | | disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. |
7 | | (cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement |
8 | | Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent |
9 | | authorized under that Act. |
10 | | (dd) Information that is prohibited from being |
11 | | disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common |
12 | | Interest Community Ombudsperson Act. |
13 | | (ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure |
14 | | under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. |
15 | | (ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure |
16 | | under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. |
17 | | (gg) Information that is prohibited from being |
18 | | disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle |
19 | | Code. |
20 | | (hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under |
21 | | Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code. |
22 | | (ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure |
23 | | under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of |
24 | | the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. |
25 | | (jj) Information and reports that are required to be |
26 | | submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day |
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1 | | and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from |
2 | | disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day |
3 | | and Temporary Labor Services Act. |
4 | | (kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the |
5 | | Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act. |
6 | | (ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted |
7 | | and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public |
8 | | Aid Code. |
9 | | (mm) Records that are exempt from disclosure under |
10 | | Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act. |
11 | | (nn) Information that is exempt from disclosure under |
12 | | Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act. |
13 | | (oo) Communications, notes, records, and reports |
14 | | arising out of a peer support counseling session |
15 | | prohibited from disclosure under the First Responders |
16 | | Suicide Prevention Act. |
17 | | (pp) Names and all identifying information relating to |
18 | | an employee of an emergency services provider or law |
19 | | enforcement agency under the First Responders Suicide |
20 | | Prevention Act. |
21 | | (qq) Information and records held by the Department of |
22 | | Public Health and its authorized representatives collected |
23 | | under the Reproductive Health Act. |
24 | | (rr) Information that is exempt from disclosure under |
25 | | the Cannabis Regulation and Tax Act. |
26 | | (ss) Data reported by an employer to the Department of |
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1 | | Human Rights pursuant to Section 2-108 of the Illinois |
2 | | Human Rights Act. |
3 | | (tt) Recordings made under the Children's Advocacy |
4 | | Center Act, except to the extent authorized under that |
5 | | Act. |
6 | | (uu) Information that is exempt from disclosure under |
7 | | Section 50 of the Sexual Assault Evidence Submission Act. |
8 | | (vv) Information that is exempt from disclosure under |
9 | | subsections (f) and (j) of Section 5-36 of the Illinois |
10 | | Public Aid Code. |
11 | | (ww) Information that is exempt from disclosure under |
12 | | Section 16.8 of the State Treasurer Act. |
13 | | (xx) Information that is exempt from disclosure or |
14 | | information that shall not be made public under the |
15 | | Illinois Insurance Code. |
16 | | (yy) Information prohibited from being disclosed under |
17 | | the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act. |
18 | | (zz) Information prohibited from being disclosed under |
19 | | the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act. |
20 | | (aaa) Information prohibited from being disclosed |
21 | | under Section 1-167 of the Illinois Pension Code. |
22 | | (Source: P.A. 100-20, eff. 7-1-17; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; |
23 | | 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-373, eff. 1-1-18; 100-464, eff. |
24 | | 8-28-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-517, |
25 | | eff. 6-1-18; 100-646, eff. 7-27-18; 100-690, eff. 1-1-19; |
26 | | 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-887, eff. 8-14-18; 101-13, eff. |
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1 | | 6-12-19; 101-27, eff. 6-25-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-221, |
2 | | eff. 1-1-20; 101-236, eff. 1-1-20; 101-375, eff. 8-16-19; |
3 | | 101-377, eff. 8-16-19; 101-452, eff. 1-1-20; 101-466, eff. |
4 | | 1-1-20; 101-600, eff. 12-6-19; 101-620, eff 12-20-19; 101-649, |
5 | | eff. 7-7-20.) |
6 | | Section 10. The Department of State Police Law of the
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7 | | Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing |
8 | | Sections 2605-45, 2605-300, and 2605-595 as follows:
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9 | | (20 ILCS 2605/2605-45) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a-5)
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10 | | Sec. 2605-45. Division of Justice Services. The Division |
11 | | of
Justice Services shall exercise the
following functions:
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12 | | (1) (Blank).
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13 | | (2) Pursue research and the publication of studies |
14 | | pertaining
to local
law enforcement activities.
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15 | | (3) (Blank).
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16 | | (4) Operate an electronic data processing and computer |
17 | | center
for the
storage and retrieval of data pertaining to |
18 | | criminal activity.
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19 | | (5) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested in
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20 | | the former Division of
State Troopers by Section 17 of the |
21 | | State Police
Act.
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22 | | (6) (Blank).
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23 | | (6.5) (Blank). Exercise the rights, powers, and duties |
24 | | vested in the Department
by the Firearm Owners |
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1 | | Identification Card Act.
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2 | | (7) Exercise other duties that may be assigned
by the |
3 | | Director to
fulfill the responsibilities and achieve the |
4 | | purposes of the Department.
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5 | | (8) Exercise the rights, powers, and duties vested by |
6 | | law in the Department by the Criminal Identification Act. |
7 | | (Source: P.A. 101-378, eff. 1-1-20 .)
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8 | | (20 ILCS 2605/2605-300) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)
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9 | | Sec. 2605-300. Records; crime laboratories; personnel. To |
10 | | do
the
following:
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11 | | (1) Be a central repository and custodian of criminal
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12 | | statistics for the State.
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13 | | (2) Be a central repository for criminal history
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14 | | record information.
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15 | | (3) Procure and file for record information that is
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16 | | necessary and helpful to plan programs of crime |
17 | | prevention, law
enforcement,
and criminal justice.
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18 | | (4) Procure and file for record copies of
fingerprints |
19 | | that may be required by law.
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20 | | (5) Establish general and field
crime laboratories.
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21 | | (6) Register and file for record information that
may |
22 | | be required by law for the issuance of firearm owner's |
23 | | identification
cards under the Firearm Owners |
24 | | Identification Card Act and concealed carry licenses under |
25 | | the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
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1 | | (7) Employ laboratory technicians
and
other
specially |
2 | | qualified persons to aid in the identification of criminal
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3 | | activity, and may employ polygraph operators.
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4 | | (8) Undertake other identification, information,
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5 | | laboratory, statistical, or registration activities that |
6 | | may be
required by law.
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7 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-801, eff. 1-1-17 .)
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8 | | (20 ILCS 2605/2605-595) |
9 | | Sec. 2605-595. State Police Firearm Services Fund. |
10 | | (a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund |
11 | | known as the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The Fund |
12 | | shall receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act |
13 | | and Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act . |
14 | | The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through |
15 | | grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source. |
16 | | (b) The Department of State Police may use moneys in the |
17 | | Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes, mandates, |
18 | | functions, and duties under the Firearm Owners Identification |
19 | | Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, including the |
20 | | cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's |
21 | | Identification Cards, concealed carry licenses, the prompt and |
22 | | efficient processing of applications under the Firearm Owners |
23 | | Identification Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, |
24 | | the improved efficiency and reporting of the LEADS and federal |
25 | | NICS law enforcement data systems, and support for |
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1 | | investigations required under that Act these Acts and law. Any |
2 | | surplus funds beyond what is needed to comply with the |
3 | | aforementioned purposes shall be used by the Department to |
4 | | improve the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) and |
5 | | criminal history background check system. |
6 | | (c) Investment income that is attributable to the |
7 | | investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund |
8 | | for the uses specified in this Section.
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9 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
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10 | | (20 ILCS 2605/2605-120 rep.)
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11 | | Section 15. The Department of State Police Law of the
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12 | | Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by repealing |
13 | | Section 2605-120. |
14 | | Section 20. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by |
15 | | changing Section 2.2 as follows: |
16 | | (20 ILCS 2630/2.2) |
17 | | Sec. 2.2. Notification to the Department. Upon judgment of |
18 | | conviction of a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, |
19 | | 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal |
20 | | Code of 2012 when the
defendant has been determined, pursuant |
21 | | to Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of |
22 | | 1963,
to be subject to the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. |
23 | | 922(g)(9), the circuit court clerk shall
include notification |
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1 | | and a copy of the written determination in a report
of the |
2 | | conviction to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's |
3 | | Identification Card Office to
enable the Department office to |
4 | | perform its duties under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and |
5 | | Sections 4 and 8 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act |
6 | | and to report that determination to the Federal Bureau
of |
7 | | Investigation to assist the Federal Bureau of Investigation in |
8 | | identifying persons prohibited
from purchasing and possessing |
9 | | a firearm pursuant to the provisions of
18 U.S.C. 922. The |
10 | | written determination described in this Section shall be |
11 | | included in the defendant's record of arrest and conviction in |
12 | | the manner and form prescribed by the Department of State |
13 | | Police.
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14 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.) |
15 | | Section 25. The State Finance Act is amended by changing |
16 | | Section 6z-99 as follows: |
17 | | (30 ILCS 105/6z-99) |
18 | | Sec. 6z-99. The Mental Health Reporting Fund. |
19 | | (a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund |
20 | | known as the Mental Health Reporting Fund. The Fund shall |
21 | | receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. The |
22 | | Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through |
23 | | grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source. |
24 | | (b) The Department of State Police and Department of Human |
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1 | | Services shall coordinate to use moneys in the Fund to finance |
2 | | their respective duties of collecting and reporting data on |
3 | | mental health records and ensuring that mental health firearm |
4 | | possession prohibitors are enforced as set forth under the |
5 | | Firearm Concealed Carry Act and the Firearm Owners |
6 | | Identification Card Act . Any surplus in the Fund beyond what |
7 | | is necessary to ensure compliance with mental health reporting |
8 | | under that Act these Acts shall be used by the Department of |
9 | | Human Services for mental health treatment programs. |
10 | | (c) Investment income that is attributable to the |
11 | | investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund |
12 | | for the uses specified in this Section.
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13 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.) |
14 | | Section 30. The Peace Officer Firearm Training Act is |
15 | | amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
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16 | | (50 ILCS 710/1) (from Ch. 85, par. 515)
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17 | | Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act: |
18 | | (a) "Peace officer"
means (i) any person who by virtue of |
19 | | his office or public employment is
vested by law with a primary |
20 | | duty to maintain public order or to make
arrests for offenses, |
21 | | whether that duty extends to all offenses or is
limited to |
22 | | specific offenses, and who is employed in such capacity by any
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23 | | county or municipality or (ii) any retired law enforcement |
24 | | officers qualified under federal law to carry a concealed |
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1 | | weapon. |
2 | | (a-5) "Probation officer" means a county probation officer |
3 | | authorized by the Chief Judge of the Circuit Court to carry a |
4 | | firearm as part of his or her duties under Section 12 of the |
5 | | Probation and Probation Officers Act and Section 24-2 of the |
6 | | Criminal Code of 2012. |
7 | | (b)
"Firearms" means any weapon or device defined as a |
8 | | firearm in Section
2-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of |
9 | | "An Act relating to the acquisition, possession and transfer |
10 | | of
firearms and firearm ammunition, to provide a penalty for |
11 | | the violation
thereof and to make an appropriation in |
12 | | connection therewith", approved
August 3, 1967, as amended .
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13 | | (Source: P.A. 98-725, eff. 1-1-15 .)
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14 | | Section 35. The School Code is amended by changing |
15 | | Sections 10-22.6, 10-27.1A and 34-8.05 as follows:
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16 | | (105 ILCS 5/10-22.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6)
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17 | | Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of pupils; school |
18 | | searches.
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19 | | (a) To expel pupils guilty of gross disobedience or |
20 | | misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct |
21 | | perpetuated by electronic means, pursuant to subsection (b-20) |
22 | | of this Section, and
no action shall lie against them for such |
23 | | expulsion. Expulsion shall
take place only after the parents |
24 | | have been requested to appear at a
meeting of the board, or |
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1 | | with a hearing officer appointed by it, to
discuss their |
2 | | child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered
or |
3 | | certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of |
4 | | the
meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, |
5 | | at such
meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the |
6 | | date on which the
expulsion is to become effective. If a |
7 | | hearing officer is appointed by
the board, he shall report to |
8 | | the board a written summary of the evidence
heard at the |
9 | | meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it
finds |
10 | | appropriate. If the board acts to expel a pupil, the written |
11 | | expulsion decision shall detail the specific reasons why |
12 | | removing the pupil from the learning environment is in the |
13 | | best interest of the school. The expulsion decision shall also |
14 | | include a rationale as to the specific duration of the |
15 | | expulsion. An expelled pupil may be immediately transferred to |
16 | | an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A |
17 | | or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer |
18 | | because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such |
19 | | transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students |
20 | | or staff in the alternative program.
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21 | | (b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the |
22 | | superintendent of
the district or the principal, assistant |
23 | | principal, or dean of students
of any school to suspend pupils |
24 | | guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or
to suspend |
25 | | pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the |
26 | | school bus
from riding the school bus, pursuant to subsections |
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1 | | (b-15) and (b-20) of this Section, and no action
shall lie |
2 | | against them for such suspension. The board may by policy
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3 | | authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, |
4 | | assistant
principal, or dean of students of any
school to |
5 | | suspend pupils guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed
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6 | | 10 school days. If a pupil is suspended due to gross |
7 | | disobedience or misconduct
on a school bus, the board may |
8 | | suspend the pupil in excess of 10
school
days for safety |
9 | | reasons. |
10 | | Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the
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11 | | parents or guardian of a pupil along with a full statement of |
12 | | the
reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to |
13 | | a review. The school board must be given a summary of the |
14 | | notice, including the reason for the suspension and the |
15 | | suspension length. Upon request of the
parents or guardian, |
16 | | the school board or a hearing officer appointed by
it shall |
17 | | review such action of the superintendent or principal, |
18 | | assistant
principal, or dean of students. At such
review, the |
19 | | parents or guardian of the pupil may appear and discuss the
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20 | | suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing |
21 | | officer
is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board |
22 | | a written summary
of the evidence heard at the meeting. After |
23 | | its hearing or upon receipt
of the written report of its |
24 | | hearing officer, the board may take such
action as it finds |
25 | | appropriate. If a student is suspended pursuant to this |
26 | | subsection (b), the board shall, in the written suspension |
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1 | | decision, detail the specific act of gross disobedience or |
2 | | misconduct resulting in the decision to suspend. The |
3 | | suspension decision shall also include a rationale as to the |
4 | | specific duration of the suspension. A pupil who is suspended |
5 | | in excess of 20 school days may be immediately transferred to |
6 | | an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A |
7 | | or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer |
8 | | because of the suspension, except in cases in which such |
9 | | transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students |
10 | | or staff in the alternative program.
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11 | | (b-5) Among the many possible disciplinary interventions |
12 | | and consequences available to school officials, school |
13 | | exclusions, such as out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, |
14 | | are the most serious. School officials shall limit the number |
15 | | and duration of expulsions and suspensions to the greatest |
16 | | extent practicable, and it is recommended that they use them |
17 | | only for legitimate educational purposes. To ensure that |
18 | | students are not excluded from school unnecessarily, it is |
19 | | recommended that school officials consider forms of |
20 | | non-exclusionary discipline prior to using out-of-school |
21 | | suspensions or expulsions. |
22 | | (b-10) Unless otherwise required by federal law or this |
23 | | Code, school boards may not institute zero-tolerance policies |
24 | | by which school administrators are required to suspend or |
25 | | expel students for particular behaviors. |
26 | | (b-15) Out-of-school suspensions of 3 days or less may be |
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1 | | used only if the student's continuing presence in school would |
2 | | pose a threat to school safety or a disruption to other |
3 | | students' learning opportunities. For purposes of this |
4 | | subsection (b-15), "threat to school safety or a disruption to |
5 | | other students' learning opportunities" shall be determined on |
6 | | a case-by-case basis by the school board or its designee. |
7 | | School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve |
8 | | such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the |
9 | | length of suspensions to the greatest extent practicable. |
10 | | (b-20) Unless otherwise required by this Code, |
11 | | out-of-school suspensions of longer than 3 days, expulsions, |
12 | | and disciplinary removals to alternative schools may be used |
13 | | only if other appropriate and available behavioral and |
14 | | disciplinary interventions have been exhausted and the |
15 | | student's continuing presence in school would either (i) pose |
16 | | a
threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of
|
17 | | the school community or (ii) substantially disrupt, impede, or
|
18 | | interfere with the operation of the school. For purposes of |
19 | | this subsection (b-20), "threat to the safety of other |
20 | | students, staff, or members of the school community" and |
21 | | "substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the |
22 | | operation of the school" shall be determined on a case-by-case |
23 | | basis by school officials. For purposes of this subsection |
24 | | (b-20), the determination of whether "appropriate and |
25 | | available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been |
26 | | exhausted" shall be made by school officials. School officials |
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1 | | shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, |
2 | | address such disruptions, and minimize the length of student |
3 | | exclusions to the greatest extent practicable. Within the |
4 | | suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this |
5 | | Section or the expulsion decision described in subsection (a) |
6 | | of this Section, it shall be documented whether other |
7 | | interventions were attempted or whether it was determined that |
8 | | there were no other appropriate and available interventions. |
9 | | (b-25) Students who are suspended out-of-school for longer |
10 | | than 4 school days shall be provided appropriate and available |
11 | | support services during the period of their suspension. For |
12 | | purposes of this subsection (b-25), "appropriate and available |
13 | | support services" shall be determined by school authorities. |
14 | | Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of |
15 | | this Section, it shall be documented whether such services are |
16 | | to be provided or whether it was determined that there are no |
17 | | such appropriate and available services. |
18 | | A school district may refer students who are expelled to |
19 | | appropriate and available support services. |
20 | | A school district shall create a policy to facilitate the |
21 | | re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school, |
22 | | expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting. |
23 | | (b-30) A school district shall create a policy by which |
24 | | suspended pupils, including those pupils suspended from the |
25 | | school bus who do not have alternate transportation to school, |
26 | | shall have the opportunity to make up work for equivalent |
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1 | | academic credit. It shall be the responsibility of a pupil's |
2 | | parent or guardian to notify school officials that a pupil |
3 | | suspended from the school bus does not have alternate |
4 | | transportation to school. |
5 | | (c) The Department of Human Services
shall be invited to |
6 | | send a representative to consult with the board at
such |
7 | | meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be |
8 | | the
cause for expulsion or suspension.
|
9 | | (c-5) School districts shall make reasonable efforts to |
10 | | provide ongoing professional development to teachers, |
11 | | administrators, school board members, school resource |
12 | | officers, and staff on the adverse consequences of school |
13 | | exclusion and justice-system involvement, effective classroom |
14 | | management strategies, culturally responsive discipline, the |
15 | | appropriate and available supportive services for the |
16 | | promotion of student attendance and engagement, and |
17 | | developmentally appropriate disciplinary methods that promote |
18 | | positive and healthy school climates. |
19 | | (d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of |
20 | | time not to
exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a |
21 | | case-by-case basis.
A student who
is determined to have |
22 | | brought one of the following objects to school, any |
23 | | school-sponsored activity
or event, or any activity or event |
24 | | that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be |
25 | | expelled for a period of not less than
one year: |
26 | | (1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, |
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1 | | "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined |
2 | | by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, |
3 | | firearm as defined in Section 2-7.5 1.1 of the Firearm |
4 | | Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in |
5 | | Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The expulsion |
6 | | period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the |
7 | | superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may |
8 | | be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. |
9 | | (2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon |
10 | | regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other |
11 | | object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily |
12 | | harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in |
13 | | subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion |
14 | | requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by |
15 | | the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination |
16 | | may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. |
17 | | Expulsion
or suspension
shall be construed in a
manner |
18 | | consistent with the federal Individuals with Disabilities |
19 | | Education
Act. A student who is subject to suspension or |
20 | | expulsion as provided in this
Section may be eligible for a |
21 | | transfer to an alternative school program in
accordance with |
22 | | Article 13A of the School Code.
|
23 | | (d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation
authorize the |
24 | | superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant
|
25 | | principal, or dean of students of any
school to suspend a |
26 | | student for a period not to exceed
10 school days or may expel |
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1 | | a student for a definite period of time not to
exceed 2 |
2 | | calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis, if (i) |
3 | | that student has been determined to have made an explicit |
4 | | threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a |
5 | | student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet |
6 | | website through which the threat was made is a site that was |
7 | | accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or |
8 | | was available to third parties who worked or studied within |
9 | | the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) |
10 | | the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to |
11 | | the safety and security of the threatened individual because |
12 | | of his or her duties or employment status or status as a |
13 | | student inside the school.
|
14 | | (e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school |
15 | | authorities may
inspect and search places and areas such as |
16 | | lockers, desks, parking lots, and
other school property and |
17 | | equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well
as |
18 | | personal effects left in those places and areas by students, |
19 | | without notice
to or the consent of the student, and without a |
20 | | search warrant. As a matter of
public policy, the General |
21 | | Assembly finds that students have no reasonable
expectation of |
22 | | privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects
|
23 | | left in these places and areas. School authorities may request |
24 | | the assistance
of law enforcement officials for the purpose of |
25 | | conducting inspections and
searches of lockers, desks, parking |
26 | | lots, and other school property and
equipment owned or |
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1 | | controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or
other
|
2 | | illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including |
3 | | searches conducted
through the use of specially trained dogs. |
4 | | If a search conducted in accordance
with this Section produces |
5 | | evidence that the student has violated or is
violating either |
6 | | the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules,
|
7 | | such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and |
8 | | disciplinary action may
be taken. School authorities may also |
9 | | turn over such evidence to law
enforcement authorities.
|
10 | | (f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or |
11 | | expulsion from
school and all school activities and a |
12 | | prohibition from being present on school
grounds.
|
13 | | (g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if |
14 | | a student
is suspended or expelled for any reason from any |
15 | | public or private school
in this or any other state, the |
16 | | student must complete the entire term of
the suspension or |
17 | | expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A |
18 | | of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program |
19 | | under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the |
20 | | school
district if there is no threat to the safety of students |
21 | | or staff in the alternative program.
|
22 | | (h) School officials shall not advise or encourage |
23 | | students to drop out voluntarily due to behavioral or academic |
24 | | difficulties. |
25 | | (i) A student may not be issued a monetary fine or fee as a |
26 | | disciplinary consequence, though this shall not preclude |
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1 | | requiring a student to provide restitution for lost, stolen, |
2 | | or damaged property. |
3 | | (j) Subsections (a) through (i) of this Section shall |
4 | | apply to elementary and secondary schools, charter schools, |
5 | | special charter districts, and school districts organized |
6 | | under Article 34 of this Code. |
7 | | (k) The expulsion of children enrolled in programs funded |
8 | | under Section 1C-2 of this Code is subject to the requirements |
9 | | under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 2-3.71 of |
10 | | this Code. |
11 | | (l) Beginning with the 2018-2019 school year, an in-school |
12 | | suspension program provided by a school district for any |
13 | | students in kindergarten through grade 12 may focus on |
14 | | promoting non-violent conflict resolution and positive |
15 | | interaction with other students and school personnel. A school |
16 | | district may employ a school social worker or a licensed |
17 | | mental health professional to oversee an in-school suspension |
18 | | program in kindergarten through grade 12. |
19 | | (Source: P.A. 100-105, eff. 1-1-18; 100-810, eff. 1-1-19; |
20 | | 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1035, eff. 8-22-18; 101-81, eff. |
21 | | 7-12-19.)
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22 | | (105 ILCS 5/10-27.1A)
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23 | | Sec. 10-27.1A. Firearms in schools.
|
24 | | (a) All school officials, including teachers, guidance |
25 | | counselors, and
support staff, shall immediately notify the |
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1 | | office of the principal in the
event that they observe any |
2 | | person in possession of a firearm on school
grounds; provided |
3 | | that taking such immediate action to notify the office of the
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4 | | principal would not immediately endanger the health, safety, |
5 | | or welfare of
students who are under the direct supervision of |
6 | | the school official or the
school official. If the health, |
7 | | safety, or welfare of students under the
direct supervision of |
8 | | the school official or of the school official is
immediately |
9 | | endangered, the school official shall notify the office of the
|
10 | | principal as soon as the students under his or her supervision |
11 | | and he or she
are no longer under immediate danger. A report is |
12 | | not required by this Section
when the school official knows |
13 | | that the person in possession of the firearm is
a law |
14 | | enforcement official engaged in the conduct of his or her |
15 | | official
duties. Any school official acting in good faith who |
16 | | makes such a report under
this Section shall have immunity |
17 | | from any civil or criminal liability that
might otherwise be |
18 | | incurred as a result of making the report. The identity of
the |
19 | | school official making such report shall not be disclosed |
20 | | except as
expressly and specifically authorized by law. |
21 | | Knowingly and willfully failing
to comply with this Section is |
22 | | a petty offense. A second or subsequent offense
is a Class C |
23 | | misdemeanor.
|
24 | | (b) Upon receiving a report from any school official |
25 | | pursuant to this
Section, or from any other person, the |
26 | | principal or his or her designee shall
immediately notify a |
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1 | | local law enforcement agency. If the person found to be
in |
2 | | possession of a firearm on school grounds is a student, the |
3 | | principal or
his or her designee shall also immediately notify |
4 | | that student's parent or
guardian. Any principal or his or her |
5 | | designee acting in good faith who makes
such reports under |
6 | | this Section shall have immunity from any civil or criminal
|
7 | | liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a |
8 | | result of making
the reports. Knowingly and willfully failing |
9 | | to comply with this Section is a
petty offense. A second or |
10 | | subsequent offense is a Class C misdemeanor. If
the person |
11 | | found to be in possession of the firearm on school grounds is a
|
12 | | minor, the law enforcement agency shall detain that minor |
13 | | until such time as
the agency makes a determination pursuant |
14 | | to clause (a) of subsection (1) of
Section 5-401 of the |
15 | | Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as to whether the agency
|
16 | | reasonably believes that the minor is delinquent. If the law |
17 | | enforcement
agency determines that probable cause exists to |
18 | | believe that the minor
committed a violation of item (4) of |
19 | | subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the
Criminal Code of 2012 |
20 | | while on school grounds, the agency shall detain the
minor for |
21 | | processing pursuant to Section 5-407 of the Juvenile Court Act |
22 | | of
1987.
|
23 | | (c) On or after January 1, 1997, upon receipt of any |
24 | | written,
electronic, or verbal report from any school |
25 | | personnel regarding a verified
incident involving a firearm in |
26 | | a school or on school owned or leased property,
including any |
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1 | | conveyance owned,
leased, or used by the school for the |
2 | | transport of students or school
personnel, the superintendent |
3 | | or his or her designee shall report all such
firearm-related |
4 | | incidents occurring in a school or on school property to the
|
5 | | local law enforcement authorities immediately and to the |
6 | | Department of State
Police in a form, manner, and frequency as |
7 | | prescribed by the Department of
State Police.
|
8 | | The State Board of Education shall receive an annual |
9 | | statistical compilation
and related data associated with |
10 | | incidents involving firearms in schools from
the Department of |
11 | | State Police. The State Board of Education shall compile
this |
12 | | information by school district and make it available to the |
13 | | public.
|
14 | | (d) As used in this Section, the term "firearm" shall have |
15 | | the meaning
ascribed to it in Section 2-7.5 of the Criminal |
16 | | Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card |
17 | | Act .
|
18 | | As used in this Section, the term "school" means any |
19 | | public or private
elementary or secondary school.
|
20 | | As used in this Section, the term "school grounds" |
21 | | includes the real property
comprising any school, any |
22 | | conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school
to |
23 | | transport students to or from school or a school-related |
24 | | activity, or any
public way within 1,000 feet of the real |
25 | | property comprising any school.
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26 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
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1 | | (105 ILCS 5/34-8.05)
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2 | | Sec. 34-8.05. Reporting firearms in schools. On or after |
3 | | January 1,
1997,
upon receipt of any written,
electronic, or |
4 | | verbal report from any school personnel regarding a verified
|
5 | | incident involving a firearm in a school or on school owned or |
6 | | leased property,
including any conveyance owned,
leased, or |
7 | | used by the school for the transport of students or school
|
8 | | personnel, the general superintendent or his or her designee |
9 | | shall report all
such
firearm-related incidents occurring in a |
10 | | school or on school property to the
local law enforcement |
11 | | authorities no later than 24 hours after the occurrence
of the |
12 | | incident and to the Department of State Police in a form, |
13 | | manner, and
frequency as prescribed by the Department of State |
14 | | Police.
|
15 | | The State Board of Education shall receive an annual |
16 | | statistical compilation
and related data associated with |
17 | | incidents involving firearms in schools from
the Department of |
18 | | State Police. As used in this Section, the term "firearm"
|
19 | | shall have the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2-7.5 of the |
20 | | Criminal Code of 2012
1.1 of the Firearm Owners
Identification |
21 | | Card Act .
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22 | | (Source: P.A. 89-498, eff. 6-27-96.)
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23 | | Section 40. The Illinois Explosives Act is amended by |
24 | | changing Section 2005 as follows:
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1 | | (225 ILCS 210/2005) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 1-2005)
|
2 | | Sec. 2005. Qualifications for licensure. |
3 | | (a) No person shall qualify to hold a license who: |
4 | | (1) is under 21 years of age; |
5 | | (2) has been convicted in any court of a crime |
6 | | punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year; |
7 | | (3) is under indictment for a crime punishable by |
8 | | imprisonment for a term exceeding one year; |
9 | | (4) is a fugitive from justice; |
10 | | (5) is an unlawful user of or addicted to any |
11 | | controlled substance as defined in Section 102 of the |
12 | | federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 802 et |
13 | | seq.); |
14 | | (6) has been adjudicated a person with a mental |
15 | | disability as defined in Section 6-103.1 of the Mental |
16 | | Health and Developmental Disabilities Code 1.1 of the |
17 | | Firearm Owners Identification Card Act ; or |
18 | | (7) is not a legal citizen of the United States or |
19 | | lawfully admitted for permanent residence. |
20 | | (b) A person who has been granted a "relief from |
21 | | disabilities" regarding criminal convictions and indictments, |
22 | | pursuant to the federal Safe Explosives Act (18 U.S.C. Sec. |
23 | | 845) may receive a license provided all other qualifications |
24 | | under this Act are met.
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25 | | (Source: P.A. 101-541, eff. 8-23-19.)
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1 | | Section 45. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private |
2 | | Security, and
Locksmith Act of 2004 is amended by changing |
3 | | Sections 35-30 and 35-35 as follows:
|
4 | | (225 ILCS 447/35-30)
|
5 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
6 | | Sec. 35-30. Employee requirements. All employees of a
|
7 | | licensed agency, other than those exempted, shall apply for a
|
8 | | permanent employee registration card. The holder of an agency
|
9 | | license issued under this Act, known in this Section as
|
10 | | "employer", may employ in the conduct of his or her business
|
11 | | employees under the following provisions:
|
12 | | (a) No person shall be issued a permanent employee
|
13 | | registration card who:
|
14 | | (1) Is younger than 18 years of age.
|
15 | | (2) Is younger than 21 years of age if the
services |
16 | | will include being armed.
|
17 | | (3) Has been determined by the Department to
be unfit |
18 | | by reason of conviction of an offense in this or
another |
19 | | state, including registration as a sex offender, but not |
20 | | including a traffic offense. Persons convicted of felonies |
21 | | involving bodily harm, weapons, violence, or theft within |
22 | | the previous 10 years shall be presumed to be unfit for |
23 | | registration. The Department
shall adopt rules for making |
24 | | those determinations that shall
afford the applicant due |
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1 | | process of law.
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2 | | (4) Has had a license or permanent employee
|
3 | | registration card denied, suspended, or revoked under this |
4 | | Act (i) within one
year before the date the
person's |
5 | | application for permanent employee registration card
is |
6 | | received by the Department; and (ii) that refusal, denial,
|
7 | | suspension, or revocation was based on any provision of |
8 | | this
Act other than Section 40-50,
item (6) or (8) of |
9 | | subsection (a) of Section 15-10, subsection (b) of Section
|
10 | | 15-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 20-10, |
11 | | subsection (b) of
Section 20-10, item (6) or (8) of |
12 | | subsection (a) of Section 25-10, subsection
(b) of Section |
13 | | 25-10, item (7) of subsection (a) of Section 30-10,
|
14 | | subsection (b) of Section 30-10, or Section 10-40.
|
15 | | (5) Has been declared incompetent by any court
of |
16 | | competent jurisdiction by reason of mental disease or
|
17 | | defect and has not been restored.
|
18 | | (6) Has been dishonorably discharged from the
armed |
19 | | services of the United States.
|
20 | | (b) No person may be employed by a private
detective |
21 | | agency, private security contractor agency, private
alarm |
22 | | contractor agency, fingerprint vendor agency, or locksmith |
23 | | agency under this
Section until he or she has executed and |
24 | | furnished to the
employer, on forms furnished by the |
25 | | Department, a verified
statement to be known as "Employee's |
26 | | Statement" setting forth:
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1 | | (1) The person's full name, age, and residence
|
2 | | address.
|
3 | | (2) The business or occupation engaged in for
the 5 |
4 | | years immediately before the date of the execution of
the |
5 | | statement, the place where the business or occupation was
|
6 | | engaged in, and the names of employers, if any.
|
7 | | (3) That the person has not had a license or
employee |
8 | | registration denied, revoked, or suspended under this
Act |
9 | | (i) within one year before the date the person's |
10 | | application
for permanent employee registration card is |
11 | | received by the
Department; and (ii) that refusal, denial, |
12 | | suspension, or
revocation was based on any provision of |
13 | | this Act other than
Section 40-50,
item (6) or (8) of |
14 | | subsection (a) of Section 15-10, subsection (b) of Section
|
15 | | 15-10, item (6) or (8) of subsection (a) of Section 20-10, |
16 | | subsection (b) of
Section 20-10, item (6) or (8) of |
17 | | subsection (a) of Section 25-10, subsection
(b) of Section |
18 | | 25-10, item (7) of subsection (a) of Section 30-10,
|
19 | | subsection (b) of Section 30-10, or Section 10-40.
|
20 | | (4) Any conviction of a felony or misdemeanor.
|
21 | | (5) Any declaration of incompetence by a court
of |
22 | | competent jurisdiction that has not been restored.
|
23 | | (6) Any dishonorable discharge from the armed
services |
24 | | of the United States.
|
25 | | (7) Any other information as may be required by
any |
26 | | rule of the Department to show the good character,
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1 | | competency, and integrity of the person executing the
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2 | | statement.
|
3 | | (c) Each applicant for a permanent employee registration
|
4 | | card shall have his or her fingerprints submitted to the
|
5 | | Department of State Police in an electronic format that
|
6 | | complies with the form and manner for requesting and
|
7 | | furnishing criminal history record information as prescribed
|
8 | | by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall
be |
9 | | checked against the Department of State Police and Federal
|
10 | | Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now
|
11 | | and hereafter filed. The Department of State Police shall
|
12 | | charge applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history
|
13 | | records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police
|
14 | | Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the
|
15 | | records check. The Department of State Police shall furnish,
|
16 | | pursuant to positive identification, records of Illinois
|
17 | | convictions to the Department. The Department may require
|
18 | | applicants to pay a separate fingerprinting fee, either to the
|
19 | | Department or directly to the vendor. The Department, in
its |
20 | | discretion, may allow an applicant who does not have
|
21 | | reasonable access to a designated vendor to provide his or her
|
22 | | fingerprints in an alternative manner. The
Department, in its |
23 | | discretion, may also use other
procedures in performing or |
24 | | obtaining criminal background
checks of applicants. Instead of |
25 | | submitting his or her
fingerprints, an individual may submit |
26 | | proof that is
satisfactory to the Department that an |
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1 | | equivalent security
clearance has been conducted. Also, an |
2 | | individual who has
retired as a peace officer within 12 months |
3 | | of application may
submit verification, on forms provided by |
4 | | the Department and
signed by his or her employer, of his or her |
5 | | previous full-time employment as a
peace officer.
|
6 | | (d) The Department shall issue a permanent employee
|
7 | | registration card, in a form the Department prescribes, to all
|
8 | | qualified applicants.
The holder of a permanent employee |
9 | | registration card shall
carry the card at all times while |
10 | | actually engaged in the
performance of the duties of his or her |
11 | | employment.
Expiration and requirements for renewal of |
12 | | permanent employee
registration cards shall be established by |
13 | | rule of the
Department. Possession of a permanent employee |
14 | | registration
card does not in any way imply that the holder of |
15 | | the card is
employed by an agency unless the permanent |
16 | | employee
registration card is accompanied by the employee
|
17 | | identification card required by subsection (f) of this
|
18 | | Section.
|
19 | | (e) Each employer shall maintain a record of each
employee |
20 | | that is accessible to the duly authorized
representatives of |
21 | | the Department. The record shall contain
the following |
22 | | information:
|
23 | | (1) A photograph taken within 10 days of the date
that |
24 | | the employee begins employment with the employer. The
|
25 | | photograph shall be replaced with a current photograph |
26 | | every 3
calendar years.
|
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1 | | (2) The Employee's Statement specified in
subsection |
2 | | (b) of this Section.
|
3 | | (3) All correspondence or documents relating to the
|
4 | | character and integrity of the employee received by the
|
5 | | employer from any official source or law enforcement |
6 | | agency.
|
7 | | (4) In the case of former employees, the employee
|
8 | | identification card of that person issued under subsection |
9 | | (f)
of this Section. Each employee record shall duly note |
10 | | if the
employee is employed in an armed capacity. Armed |
11 | | employee
files shall contain a copy of an active firearm |
12 | | owner's
identification card and a copy of an active |
13 | | firearm
control card. Each employer shall maintain a |
14 | | record for
each armed employee of each instance in which |
15 | | the employee's
weapon was discharged during the course of |
16 | | his or her
professional duties or activities. The record |
17 | | shall be
maintained on forms provided by the Department, a |
18 | | copy of
which must be filed with the Department within 15 |
19 | | days of an
instance. The record shall include the date and |
20 | | time of the
occurrence, the circumstances involved in the |
21 | | occurrence, and
any other information as the Department |
22 | | may require. Failure
to provide this information to the |
23 | | Department or failure to
maintain the record as a part of |
24 | | each armed employee's
permanent file is grounds for |
25 | | disciplinary action. The
Department, upon receipt of a |
26 | | report, shall have the authority
to make any investigation |
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1 | | it considers appropriate into any
occurrence in which an |
2 | | employee's weapon was discharged and to
take disciplinary |
3 | | action as may be appropriate.
|
4 | | (5) A copy of the employee's permanent employee |
5 | | registration card or a copy of the Department's "License |
6 | | Lookup" Webpage showing that the employee has been issued |
7 | | a valid permanent employee registration card by the |
8 | | Department.
|
9 | | The Department may, by rule, prescribe further
record |
10 | | requirements.
|
11 | | (f) Every employer shall furnish an employee
|
12 | | identification card to each of his or her employees. This
|
13 | | employee identification card shall contain a recent photograph
|
14 | | of the employee, the employee's name, the name and agency
|
15 | | license number of the employer, the employee's personal
|
16 | | description, the signature of the employer, the signature of
|
17 | | that employee, the date of issuance, and an employee
|
18 | | identification card number.
|
19 | | (g) No employer may issue an employee identification
card |
20 | | to any person who is not employed by the employer in
accordance |
21 | | with this Section or falsely state or represent
that a person |
22 | | is or has been in his or her employ. It is
unlawful for an |
23 | | applicant for registered employment to file
with the |
24 | | Department the fingerprints of a person other than
himself or |
25 | | herself.
|
26 | | (h) Every employer shall obtain the identification card
of |
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| | HB3364 | - 38 - | LRB102 16971 RLC 22389 b |
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1 | | every employee who terminates employment with him or her.
|
2 | | (i) Every employer shall maintain a separate roster of
the |
3 | | names of all employees currently working in an armed
capacity |
4 | | and submit the roster to the Department on request.
|
5 | | (j) No agency may employ any person to perform a
licensed |
6 | | activity under this Act unless the person possesses a
valid |
7 | | permanent employee registration card or a valid license
under |
8 | | this Act, or is exempt pursuant to subsection (n).
|
9 | | (k) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (j), an
|
10 | | agency may employ a person in a temporary capacity if all of
|
11 | | the following conditions are met:
|
12 | | (1) The agency completes in its entirety and
submits |
13 | | to the Department an application for a permanent
employee |
14 | | registration card, including the required fingerprint
|
15 | | receipt and fees.
|
16 | | (2) The agency has verification from the Department
|
17 | | that the applicant has no record of any criminal |
18 | | conviction
pursuant to the criminal history check |
19 | | conducted by the
Department of State Police. The agency |
20 | | shall maintain the
verification of the results of the |
21 | | Department of State Police
criminal history check as part |
22 | | of the employee record as
required under subsection (e) of |
23 | | this Section.
|
24 | | (3) The agency exercises due diligence to ensure
that |
25 | | the person is qualified under the requirements of the Act
|
26 | | to be issued a permanent employee registration card.
|
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1 | | (4) The agency maintains a separate roster of the
|
2 | | names of all employees whose applications are currently
|
3 | | pending with the Department and submits the roster to the
|
4 | | Department on a monthly basis. Rosters are to be |
5 | | maintained
by the agency for a period of at least 24 |
6 | | months.
|
7 | | An agency may employ only a permanent employee applicant
|
8 | | for which it either submitted a permanent employee application
|
9 | | and all required forms and fees or it confirms with the
|
10 | | Department that a permanent employee application and all
|
11 | | required forms and fees have been submitted by another agency,
|
12 | | licensee or the permanent employee and all other requirements
|
13 | | of this Section are met.
|
14 | | The Department shall have the authority to revoke,
without |
15 | | a hearing, the temporary authority of an individual to
work |
16 | | upon receipt of Federal Bureau of Investigation
fingerprint |
17 | | data or a report of another official authority
indicating a |
18 | | criminal conviction. If the Department has not
received a |
19 | | temporary employee's Federal Bureau of
Investigation |
20 | | fingerprint data within 120 days of the date the
Department |
21 | | received the Department of State Police fingerprint
data, the |
22 | | Department may, at its discretion, revoke the
employee's |
23 | | temporary authority to work with 15 days written
notice to the |
24 | | individual and the employing agency.
|
25 | | An agency may not employ a person in a temporary capacity
|
26 | | if it knows or reasonably should have known that the person
has |
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1 | | been convicted of a crime under the laws of this State,
has |
2 | | been convicted in another state of any crime that is a
crime |
3 | | under the laws of this State, has been convicted of any
crime |
4 | | in a federal court, or has been posted as an unapproved
|
5 | | applicant by the Department. Notice by the Department to the
|
6 | | agency, via certified mail, personal delivery, electronic
|
7 | | mail, or posting on the Department's Internet site accessible
|
8 | | to the agency that the person has been convicted of a crime
|
9 | | shall be deemed constructive knowledge of the conviction on
|
10 | | the part of the agency. The Department may adopt rules to
|
11 | | implement this
subsection (k).
|
12 | | (l) No person may be employed under this Section in any
|
13 | | capacity if:
|
14 | | (1) the person, while so employed, is being paid by
|
15 | | the United States or any political subdivision for the |
16 | | time so
employed in addition to any payments he or she may |
17 | | receive
from the employer; or
|
18 | | (2) the person wears any portion of his or her
|
19 | | official uniform, emblem of authority, or equipment while |
20 | | so
employed.
|
21 | | (m) If information is discovered affecting the
|
22 | | registration of a person whose fingerprints were submitted
|
23 | | under this Section, the Department shall so notify the agency
|
24 | | that submitted the fingerprints on behalf of that person.
|
25 | | (n) Peace officers shall be exempt from the requirements
|
26 | | of this Section relating to permanent employee registration
|
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1 | | cards. The agency shall remain responsible for any peace
|
2 | | officer employed under this exemption, regardless of whether
|
3 | | the peace officer is compensated as an employee or as an
|
4 | | independent contractor and as further defined by rule.
|
5 | | (o) Persons who have no access to confidential or
security |
6 | | information, who do not go to a client's or prospective |
7 | | client's residence or place of business, and who otherwise do |
8 | | not provide
traditional security services are exempt from |
9 | | employee
registration. Examples of exempt employees include, |
10 | | but are
not limited to, employees working in the capacity of |
11 | | ushers,
directors, ticket takers, cashiers, drivers, and |
12 | | reception
personnel. Confidential or security information is |
13 | | that which
pertains to employee files, scheduling, client |
14 | | contracts, or
technical security and alarm data.
|
15 | | (p) An applicant who is 21 years of age or older seeking a |
16 | | religious exemption to the photograph requirement of this |
17 | | Section shall furnish with the application an approved copy of |
18 | | United States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue |
19 | | Service Form 4029. Regardless of age, an applicant seeking a |
20 | | religious exemption to this photograph requirement shall |
21 | | submit fingerprints in a form and manner prescribed by the |
22 | | Department with his or her application in lieu of a |
23 | | photograph. |
24 | | (Source: P.A. 98-253, eff. 8-9-13; 98-848, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
25 | | (225 ILCS 447/35-35)
|
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1 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
2 | | Sec. 35-35. Requirement of a firearm control
card.
|
3 | | (a) No person shall perform duties that include the use,
|
4 | | carrying, or possession of a firearm in the performance of
|
5 | | those duties without complying with the provisions of this
|
6 | | Section and having been issued a valid firearm control
card by |
7 | | the Department.
|
8 | | (b) No employer shall employ any person to perform the
|
9 | | duties for which licensure or employee registration is |
10 | | required and allow
that person to carry a firearm unless that |
11 | | person has complied
with all the firearm training requirements |
12 | | of this Section and
has been issued a firearm control card. |
13 | | This Act
permits only the following to carry firearms while |
14 | | actually
engaged in the performance of their duties or while |
15 | | commuting
directly to or from their places of employment: |
16 | | persons
licensed as private detectives and their registered |
17 | | employees;
persons licensed as private security contractors |
18 | | and their
registered employees; persons licensed as private |
19 | | alarm
contractors and their registered employees; and |
20 | | employees of a
registered armed proprietary security force.
|
21 | | (c) Possession of a valid firearm control
card
allows a |
22 | | licensee or employee to carry a firearm not otherwise |
23 | | prohibited
by law while the licensee or employee is engaged in |
24 | | the performance of his
or her duties or while the licensee or |
25 | | employee is commuting directly to
or from the licensee's or |
26 | | employee's place or places of employment.
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1 | | (d) The Department shall issue a firearm control
card to a |
2 | | person who has passed an approved firearm training
course, who |
3 | | is currently licensed or employed by an agency licensed by
|
4 | | this Act and has met all the requirements of this Act, and who |
5 | | is not prohibited under State or federal law from possessing a |
6 | | firearm
possesses a valid firearm owner identification card .
|
7 | | Application for the firearm control card shall be made
by the |
8 | | employer to the Department on forms provided by the
|
9 | | Department. The Department shall forward the card to the
|
10 | | employer who shall be responsible for its issuance to the |
11 | | licensee or
employee. The firearm control card shall be issued |
12 | | by
the Department and shall identify the person holding it and
|
13 | | the name of the course where the licensee or employee received |
14 | | firearm
instruction and shall specify the type of weapon or |
15 | | weapons
the person is authorized by the Department to carry |
16 | | and for
which the person has been trained.
|
17 | | (e) Expiration and requirements for renewal of firearm |
18 | | control cards shall be determined by rule.
|
19 | | (f) The Department may, in addition to any other
|
20 | | disciplinary action permitted by this Act, refuse to issue,
|
21 | | suspend, or revoke a firearm control card if the
applicant or |
22 | | holder has been convicted of any felony or crime
involving the |
23 | | illegal use, carrying, or possession of a deadly
weapon or for |
24 | | a violation of this Act or rules adopted promulgated
under |
25 | | this Act. The Department shall refuse to issue or shall
revoke |
26 | | a firearm control card if the applicant or holder is |
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1 | | prohibited under State or federal law from possessing a |
2 | | firearm
fails to possess a valid firearm owners identification |
3 | | card without hearing .
The Secretary shall summarily suspend a |
4 | | firearm control
card if the Secretary finds that its continued |
5 | | use would
constitute an imminent danger to the public. A |
6 | | hearing shall
be held before the Board within 30 days if the |
7 | | Secretary
summarily suspends a firearm control card.
|
8 | | (g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the
|
9 | | contrary, all requirements relating to firearms control
cards |
10 | | do not apply to a peace officer. If an individual ceases to be |
11 | | employed as a peace officer and continues to perform services |
12 | | in an armed capacity under this Act that are licensed |
13 | | activities, then the individual is required to obtain a |
14 | | permanent employee registration card pursuant to Section 35-30 |
15 | | of this Act and must possess a valid Firearm Owner's |
16 | | Identification Card, but is not required to obtain a firearm |
17 | | control card if the individual is otherwise in continuing |
18 | | compliance with the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety |
19 | | Act of 2004. If an individual elects to carry a firearm |
20 | | pursuant to the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of |
21 | | 2004, then the agency employing the officer is required to |
22 | | submit a notice of that election to the Department along with a |
23 | | fee specified by rule.
|
24 | | (h) The Department may issue a temporary firearm control |
25 | | card pending issuance of a new firearm control card upon an |
26 | | agency's acquiring of an established armed account. An agency |
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1 | | that has acquired armed employees as a result of acquiring an |
2 | | established armed account may, on forms supplied by the |
3 | | Department, request the issuance of a temporary firearm |
4 | | control card for each acquired employee who held a valid |
5 | | firearm control card under his or her employment with the |
6 | | newly acquired established armed account immediately preceding |
7 | | the acquiring of the account and who continues to meet all of |
8 | | the qualifications for issuance of a firearm control card set |
9 | | forth in this Act and any rules adopted under this Act. The |
10 | | Department shall, by rule, set the fee for issuance of a |
11 | | temporary firearm control card.
|
12 | | (i) The Department shall not issue a firearm control card |
13 | | to a licensed fingerprint vendor or a licensed locksmith or |
14 | | employees of a licensed fingerprint vendor agency or a |
15 | | licensed locksmith agency.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 100-712, eff. 8-3-18.)
|
17 | | Section 50. The Mental Health and Developmental |
18 | | Disabilities Code is amended by changing Sections 6-103.1, |
19 | | 6-103.2, and 6-103.3 as follows: |
20 | | (405 ILCS 5/6-103.1) |
21 | | Sec. 6-103.1. Adjudication as a person with a mental |
22 | | disability. When a person has been adjudicated as a person |
23 | | with a mental disability as defined in Section 1.1 of the |
24 | | Firearm Owners Identification Card Act , including, but not |
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| | HB3364 | - 46 - | LRB102 16971 RLC 22389 b |
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1 | | limited to, an adjudication as a person with a disability as |
2 | | defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, the court |
3 | | shall direct
the circuit court clerk to notify the
Department |
4 | | of State Police , Firearm Owner's Identification
(FOID) Office , |
5 | | in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State |
6 | | Police, and shall forward a copy of the court order to the |
7 | | Department no later than 7 days after the entry of the order. |
8 | | Upon receipt of the order, the Department of State Police |
9 | | shall provide notification to the National Instant Criminal |
10 | | Background Check System. In this Section, "has been |
11 | | adjudicated as a mentally disabled person" means the person is |
12 | | the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission, |
13 | | or other lawful authority that the person, as a result of |
14 | | marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental |
15 | | impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:
|
16 | | (1) presents a clear and present danger to himself, |
17 | | herself, or to others;
|
18 | | (2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own |
19 | | affairs or is adjudicated a disabled person as defined in |
20 | | Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975; |
21 | | (3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of |
22 | | insanity, mental disease or defect; |
23 | | (3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in |
24 | | Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections; |
25 | | (4) is unfit to stand trial in a criminal case; |
26 | | (5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental |
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1 | | responsibility under Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform |
2 | | Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b; |
3 | | (6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) |
4 | | of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment |
5 | | Act; |
6 | | (7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually |
7 | | Dangerous Persons Act; |
8 | | (8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court |
9 | | Act of 1987; |
10 | | (9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the
|
11 | | Juvenile Court Act of 1987; |
12 | | (10) is a person subject to involuntary admission on |
13 | | an
inpatient basis as defined in Section 1-119 of the |
14 | | Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; |
15 | | (11) is a person subject to involuntary admission on |
16 | | an
outpatient basis as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the |
17 | | Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; |
18 | | (12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in
|
19 | | Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental |
20 | | Disabilities Code; or |
21 | | (13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate
|
22 | | Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act. |
23 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.) |
24 | | (405 ILCS 5/6-103.2) |
25 | | Sec. 6-103.2. Developmental disability; notice. If a |
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1 | | person 14 years old or older is determined to be a person with |
2 | | a developmental disability by a physician, clinical |
3 | | psychologist, or qualified examiner, the physician, clinical |
4 | | psychologist, or qualified examiner shall notify the |
5 | | Department of Human Services within 7 days of making the |
6 | | determination that the person has a developmental disability. |
7 | | The Department of Human Services shall immediately update its |
8 | | records and information relating to mental health and |
9 | | developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall notify |
10 | | the Department of State Police in a form and manner prescribed |
11 | | by the Department of State Police. Information disclosed under |
12 | | this Section shall remain privileged and confidential, and |
13 | | shall not be redisclosed, except as required under clause |
14 | | (e)(2) of Section 24-4.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 |
15 | | subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners |
16 | | Identification Card Act , nor used for any other purpose. The |
17 | | method of providing this information shall guarantee that the |
18 | | information is not released beyond that which is necessary for |
19 | | the purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by |
20 | | the Department of Human Services. The identity of the person |
21 | | reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the |
22 | | subject of the report. |
23 | | The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified |
24 | | examiner making the determination and his or her employer may |
25 | | not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for |
26 | | making or not making the notification required under this |
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1 | | Section, except for willful or wanton misconduct.
|
2 | | In this Section, "developmentally disabled" has the |
3 | | meaning ascribed to it in Section 12 of the Mental Health and |
4 | | Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act. |
5 | | In For purposes of this Section, "developmental |
6 | | disability" means a disability which is attributable to any |
7 | | other condition which results in impairment similar to that |
8 | | caused by an intellectual disability and which requires |
9 | | services similar to those required by intellectually disabled |
10 | | persons. The disability must originate before the age of 18 |
11 | | years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a |
12 | | substantial disability. This disability results, in the |
13 | | professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or |
14 | | qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3 |
15 | | or more of the following areas of major life activity: |
16 | | (i) self-care; |
17 | | (ii) receptive and expressive language; |
18 | | (iii) learning; |
19 | | (iv) mobility; or |
20 | | (v) self-direction. |
21 | | "Determined to be a person with a developmental disability |
22 | | by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner" |
23 | | means in the professional opinion of the physician, clinical |
24 | | psychologist, or qualified examiner, a person is diagnosed, |
25 | | assessed, or evaluated as having a developmental disability. |
26 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, |
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| | HB3364 | - 50 - | LRB102 16971 RLC 22389 b |
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1 | | eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.) |
2 | | (405 ILCS 5/6-103.3) |
3 | | Sec. 6-103.3. Clear and present danger; notice. If a |
4 | | person is determined to pose a clear and present danger to |
5 | | himself, herself, or to others by a physician, clinical |
6 | | psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether employed by the |
7 | | State, by any public or private mental health facility or part |
8 | | thereof, or by a law enforcement official or a school |
9 | | administrator, then the physician, clinical psychologist, |
10 | | qualified examiner shall notify the Department of Human |
11 | | Services and a law enforcement official or school |
12 | | administrator shall notify the Department of State Police, |
13 | | within 24 hours of making the determination that the person |
14 | | poses a clear and present danger. The Department of Human |
15 | | Services shall immediately update its records and information |
16 | | relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and |
17 | | if appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in |
18 | | a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State |
19 | | Police. Information disclosed under this Section shall remain |
20 | | privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, |
21 | | except as required under clause (e)(2) of Section 24-4.5 of |
22 | | the Criminal Code of 2012 subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the |
23 | | Firearm Owners Identification Card Act , nor used for any other |
24 | | purpose. The method of providing this information shall |
25 | | guarantee that the information is not released beyond that |
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| | HB3364 | - 51 - | LRB102 16971 RLC 22389 b |
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1 | | which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be |
2 | | provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The |
3 | | identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not |
4 | | be disclosed to the subject of the report. The physician, |
5 | | clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, law enforcement |
6 | | official, or school administrator making the determination and |
7 | | his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or |
8 | | professionally liable for making or not making the |
9 | | notification required under this Section, except for willful |
10 | | or wanton misconduct. This Section does not apply to a law |
11 | | enforcement official, if making the notification under this |
12 | | Section will interfere with an ongoing or pending criminal |
13 | | investigation. |
14 | | In For the purposes of this Section: |
15 | | "Clear and present danger" means a person who: |
16 | | (1) communicates a serious threat of physical
|
17 | | violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or |
18 | | poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical |
19 | | injury to himself, herself, or another person as |
20 | | determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or |
21 | | qualified examiner; or |
22 | | (2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal
|
23 | | behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive |
24 | | threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by |
25 | | a physician, clinical psychologist, qualified |
26 | | examiner, school administrator, or law enforcement |
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| | HB3364 | - 52 - | LRB102 16971 RLC 22389 b |
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1 | | official. |
2 | | "Physician", "clinical psychologist", and "qualified |
3 | | examiner" have the meanings ascribed to them in the Mental |
4 | | Health and Developmental Disabilities Code has the meaning |
5 | | ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners |
6 | | Identification Card Act . |
7 | | "Determined to pose a clear and present danger to |
8 | | himself, herself, or to others by a physician, clinical |
9 | | psychologist, or qualified examiner" means in the |
10 | | professional opinion of the physician, clinical |
11 | | psychologist, or qualified examiner, a person poses a |
12 | | clear and present danger. |
13 | | "School administrator" means the person required to |
14 | | report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental |
15 | | Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15.) |
17 | | Section 55. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended |
18 | | by changing Section 2 as follows:
|
19 | | (410 ILCS 45/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1302)
|
20 | | Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
21 | | "Child care facility" means any structure used by a child |
22 | | care
provider licensed by the Department of Children and |
23 | | Family Services or
public or private school structure |
24 | | frequented by children 6 years of
age or younger.
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1 | | "Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire" means the |
2 | | questionnaire developed by the Department for use by |
3 | | physicians and other health care providers to determine risk |
4 | | factors for children 6 years of age or younger residing in |
5 | | areas designated as low risk for lead exposure. |
6 | | "Delegate agency" means a unit of local government or |
7 | | health
department approved by the Department to carry out the |
8 | | provisions of this Act.
|
9 | | "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
|
10 | | "Director" means the Director of Public Health.
|
11 | | "Dwelling unit" means an individual unit within a |
12 | | residential building used as living quarters for one |
13 | | household. |
14 | | "Elevated blood lead level" means a blood lead level in |
15 | | excess of the limits established under State rules. |
16 | | "Exposed surface" means any interior or exterior surface |
17 | | of
a regulated facility. |
18 | | "High risk area" means an area in the State determined by |
19 | | the Department to
be high risk for lead exposure for children 6 |
20 | | years of age or younger. The
Department may consider, but is |
21 | | not limited to, the following factors to
determine a high risk |
22 | | area: age and condition (using Department of Housing and
Urban
|
23 | | Development definitions of "slum" and "blighted") of housing, |
24 | | proximity to
highway traffic or heavy local traffic or both, |
25 | | percentage of housing
determined as rental or vacant, |
26 | | proximity to industry using lead, established
incidence of |
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1 | | elevated blood lead levels in children, percentage of |
2 | | population
living
below 200% of federal poverty guidelines, |
3 | | and number of children residing in
the area who are 6 years of |
4 | | age or younger.
|
5 | | "Lead abatement" means any approved work practices that |
6 | | will permanently eliminate lead exposure or remove the |
7 | | lead-bearing substances in a regulated facility. The |
8 | | Department shall establish by rule which work practices are |
9 | | approved or prohibited for lead abatement. |
10 | | "Lead abatement contractor" means any person or entity |
11 | | licensed by the
Department to perform lead abatement and |
12 | | mitigation.
|
13 | | "Lead abatement supervisor" means any person employed by a |
14 | | lead abatement contractor and licensed by the Department to |
15 | | perform lead abatement and lead mitigation and to supervise |
16 | | lead workers who perform lead abatement and lead mitigation. |
17 | | "Lead abatement worker" means any person employed by a |
18 | | lead abatement
contractor and licensed by the Department to |
19 | | perform lead abatement and
mitigation.
|
20 | | "Lead activities" means the conduct of any lead services, |
21 | | including, lead inspection, lead risk assessment, lead |
22 | | mitigation, or lead abatement work or supervision in a |
23 | | regulated facility. |
24 | | "Lead-bearing substance" means any item containing or |
25 | | coated with lead such that the lead content is more than |
26 | | six-hundredths of one percent (0.06%) lead by total weight; or |
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1 | | any dust on surfaces or in
furniture or other nonpermanent |
2 | | elements of the regulated facility; or any paint or
other |
3 | | surface coating material containing more than five-tenths of |
4 | | one
percent (0.5%) lead by total weight (calculated as lead |
5 | | metal) in the total
non-volatile content of liquid paint; or |
6 | | lead-bearing substances containing
greater than one milligram |
7 | | per square centimeter or any lower standard for
lead content |
8 | | in residential paint as may be established by federal law or |
9 | | rule; or more than 1 milligram per square centimeter in the |
10 | | dried
film of paint or previously applied substance; or item |
11 | | or dust on item containing lead in
excess of the amount |
12 | | specified in the rules authorized by
this Act or a lower |
13 | | standard for lead content as may be established by
federal law |
14 | | or rule. "Lead-bearing substance" does not include firearm |
15 | | ammunition or components as defined by Section 2-7.1 of the |
16 | | Criminal Code of 2012 the Firearm Owners Identification Card |
17 | | Ac t.
|
18 | | "Lead hazard" means a lead-bearing substance that poses an
|
19 | | immediate health hazard to humans.
|
20 | | "Lead hazard screen" means a lead risk assessment that |
21 | | involves limited dust and paint sampling for lead-bearing |
22 | | substances and lead hazards. This service is used as a |
23 | | screening tool designed to determine if further lead |
24 | | investigative services are required for the regulated |
25 | | facility. |
26 | | "Lead inspection" means a surface-by-surface investigation |
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1 | | to determine the presence of lead-based paint. |
2 | | "Lead inspector" means an individual who has been trained |
3 | | by a Department-approved training program and is licensed by |
4 | | the Department to conduct lead inspections; to sample for the |
5 | | presence of lead in paint, dust, soil, and water; and to |
6 | | conduct compliance investigations. |
7 | | "Lead mitigation" means the remediation, in a
manner |
8 | | described in Section 9, of a lead hazard so that the
|
9 | | lead-bearing substance does not pose an immediate
health |
10 | | hazard to humans. |
11 | | "Lead poisoning" means having an elevated blood lead |
12 | | level.
|
13 | | "Lead risk assessment" means an on-site investigation to |
14 | | determine the existence, nature, severity, and location of |
15 | | lead hazards. "Lead risk assessment" includes any lead |
16 | | sampling and visual assessment associated with conducting a |
17 | | lead risk assessment and lead hazard screen and all lead |
18 | | sampling associated with compliance investigations. |
19 | | "Lead risk assessor" means an individual who has been |
20 | | trained by a Department-approved training program and is |
21 | | licensed by the Department to conduct lead risk assessments, |
22 | | lead inspections, and lead hazard screens; to sample for the |
23 | | presence of lead in paint, dust, soil, water, and sources for |
24 | | lead-bearing substances; and to conduct compliance |
25 | | investigations. |
26 | | "Lead training program provider" means any person |
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1 | | providing Department-approved lead training in Illinois to |
2 | | individuals seeking licensure in accordance with the Act. |
3 | | "Low risk area" means an area in the State determined by
|
4 | | the Department to be low risk for lead exposure for children 6 |
5 | | years of age or younger. The Department may consider the |
6 | | factors named in "high risk area" to determine low
risk areas. |
7 | | "Owner" means any person, who alone, jointly, or severally |
8 | | with
others:
|
9 | | (a) Has legal title to any regulated facility, with or
|
10 | | without actual possession of the regulated facility, or
|
11 | | (b) Has charge, care, or control of the regulated |
12 | | facility as owner or agent of the owner, or as executor, |
13 | | administrator,
trustee, or guardian of the estate of the |
14 | | owner.
|
15 | | "Person" means any individual, partnership, firm, company, |
16 | | limited liability company, corporation, association, joint |
17 | | stock company, trust, estate, political subdivision, State |
18 | | agency, or any other legal entity, or their legal |
19 | | representative, agent, or assign.
|
20 | | "Regulated facility" means a residential building or child |
21 | | care facility. |
22 | | "Residential building" means any room, group of rooms, or |
23 | | other
interior areas of a structure designed or used for human |
24 | | habitation; common
areas accessible by inhabitants; and the |
25 | | surrounding property or structures.
|
26 | | (Source: P.A. 100-723, eff. 1-1-19 .)
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1 | | (430 ILCS 65/Act rep.)
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2 | | Section 60. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is |
3 | | repealed. |
4 | | Section 65. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by |
5 | | changing Sections 25, 30, 40, 70, 80, and 105 as follows: |
6 | | (430 ILCS 66/25)
|
7 | | Sec. 25. Qualifications for a license. |
8 | | The Department shall issue a license to an applicant |
9 | | completing an application in accordance with Section 30 of |
10 | | this Act if the person: |
11 | | (1) is at least 21 years of age; |
12 | | (2) has a currently valid Firearm Owner's |
13 | | Identification Card and at the time of application meets |
14 | | the requirements for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's |
15 | | Identification Card and is not prohibited under State or |
16 | | the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or federal law |
17 | | from possessing or receiving a firearm; |
18 | | (3) has not been convicted or found guilty in this |
19 | | State or in any other state of: |
20 | | (A) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of |
21 | | physical force or violence to any person within the 5 |
22 | | years preceding the date of the license application; |
23 | | or |
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1 | | (B) 2 or more violations related to driving while |
2 | | under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, |
3 | | intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination |
4 | | thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the |
5 | | license application; |
6 | | (4) is not the subject of a pending arrest warrant, |
7 | | prosecution, or proceeding for an offense or action that |
8 | | could lead to disqualification to own or possess a |
9 | | firearm; |
10 | | (5) has not been in residential or court-ordered |
11 | | treatment for alcoholism, alcohol detoxification, or drug |
12 | | treatment within the 5 years immediately preceding the |
13 | | date of the license application; and |
14 | | (6) has completed firearms training and any education |
15 | | component required under Section 75 of this Act.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.) |
17 | | (430 ILCS 66/30)
|
18 | | Sec. 30. Contents of license application. |
19 | | (a) The license application shall be in writing, under |
20 | | penalty of perjury, on a standard form adopted by the |
21 | | Department and shall be accompanied by the documentation |
22 | | required in this Section and the applicable fee. Each |
23 | | application form shall include the following statement printed |
24 | | in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this |
25 | | form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the |
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1 | | Criminal Code of 2012." |
2 | | (b) The application shall contain the following: |
3 | | (1) the applicant's name, current address, date and |
4 | | year of birth, place of birth, height, weight, hair color, |
5 | | eye color, maiden name or any other name the applicant has |
6 | | used or identified with, and any address where the |
7 | | applicant resided for more than 30 days within the 10 |
8 | | years preceding the date of the license application; |
9 | | (2) the applicant's valid driver's license number or |
10 | | valid state identification card number; |
11 | | (3) a waiver of the applicant's privacy and |
12 | | confidentiality rights and privileges under all federal |
13 | | and state laws, including those limiting access to |
14 | | juvenile court, criminal justice, psychological, or |
15 | | psychiatric records or records relating to any |
16 | | institutionalization of the applicant, and an affirmative |
17 | | request that a person having custody of any of these |
18 | | records provide it or information concerning it to the |
19 | | Department. The waiver only applies to records sought in |
20 | | connection with determining whether the applicant |
21 | | qualifies for a license to carry a concealed firearm under |
22 | | this Act , or whether the applicant remains in compliance |
23 | | with the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act ; |
24 | | (4) an affirmation that the applicant is not |
25 | | prohibited under State or federal law from possessing or |
26 | | receiving a firearm possesses a currently valid Firearm |
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1 | | Owner's Identification Card and card number if possessed |
2 | | or notice the applicant is applying for a Firearm Owner's |
3 | | Identification Card in conjunction with the license |
4 | | application ; |
5 | | (5) an affirmation that the applicant has not been |
6 | | convicted or found guilty of: |
7 | | (A) a felony; |
8 | | (B) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of |
9 | | physical force or violence to any person within the 5 |
10 | | years preceding the date of the application; or |
11 | | (C) 2 or more violations related to driving while |
12 | | under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, |
13 | | intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination |
14 | | thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the |
15 | | license application; and |
16 | | (6) whether the applicant has failed a drug test for a |
17 | | drug for which the applicant did not have a prescription, |
18 | | within the previous year, and if so, the provider of the |
19 | | test, the specific substance involved, and the date of the |
20 | | test; |
21 | | (7) written consent for the Department to review and |
22 | | use the applicant's Illinois digital driver's license or |
23 | | Illinois identification card photograph and signature; |
24 | | (8) a full set of fingerprints submitted to the |
25 | | Department in electronic format, provided the Department |
26 | | may accept an application submitted without a set of |
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1 | | fingerprints in which case the Department shall be granted |
2 | | 30 days in addition to the 90 days provided under |
3 | | subsection (e) of Section 10 of this Act to issue or deny a |
4 | | license; |
5 | | (9) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size |
6 | | specified by the Department taken within the 30 days |
7 | | preceding the date of the license application; and |
8 | | (10) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence |
9 | | of compliance with the training requirements under this |
10 | | Act.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-29, eff. 7-10-15.) |
12 | | (430 ILCS 66/40)
|
13 | | Sec. 40. Non-resident license applications. |
14 | | (a) For the purposes of this Section, "non-resident" means |
15 | | a person who has not resided within this State for more than 30 |
16 | | days and resides in another state or territory. |
17 | | (b) The Department shall by rule allow for non-resident |
18 | | license applications from any state or territory of the United |
19 | | States with laws related to firearm ownership, possession, and |
20 | | carrying, that are substantially similar to the requirements |
21 | | to obtain a license under this Act. |
22 | | (c) A resident of a state or territory approved by the |
23 | | Department under subsection (b) of this Section may apply for |
24 | | a non-resident license. The applicant shall apply to the |
25 | | Department and must meet all of the qualifications established |
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1 | | in Section 25 of this Act , except for the Illinois residency |
2 | | requirement in item (xiv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) |
3 | | of Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act . |
4 | | The applicant shall submit: |
5 | | (1) the application and documentation required under |
6 | | Section 30 of this Act and the applicable fee; |
7 | | (2) a notarized document stating that the applicant: |
8 | | (A) is eligible under federal law and the laws of |
9 | | his or her state or territory of residence to own or |
10 | | possess a firearm; |
11 | | (B) if applicable, has a license or permit to |
12 | | carry a firearm or concealed firearm issued by his or |
13 | | her state or territory of residence and attach a copy |
14 | | of the license or permit to the application; |
15 | | (C) understands Illinois laws pertaining to the |
16 | | possession and transport of firearms; and |
17 | | (D) acknowledges that the applicant is subject to |
18 | | the jurisdiction of the Department and Illinois courts |
19 | | for any violation of this Act; |
20 | | (3) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence |
21 | | of compliance with the training requirements under Section |
22 | | 75 of this Act; and |
23 | | (4) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size |
24 | | specified by the Department taken within the 30 days |
25 | | preceding the date of the application. |
26 | | (d) In lieu of an Illinois driver's license or Illinois |
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1 | | identification card, a non-resident applicant shall provide |
2 | | similar documentation from his or her state or territory of |
3 | | residence. The applicant shall submit In lieu of a valid |
4 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the applicant shall |
5 | | submit documentation and information required by the |
6 | | Department to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, |
7 | | including an affidavit that the non-resident meets the mental |
8 | | health standards to obtain a firearm under Illinois law, and |
9 | | the Department shall ensure that the applicant would meet the |
10 | | eligibility criteria under State law to possess a firearm to |
11 | | obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification card if he or she was a |
12 | | resident of this State. |
13 | | (e) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a non-resident from |
14 | | transporting a concealed firearm within his or her vehicle in |
15 | | Illinois, if the concealed firearm remains within his or her |
16 | | vehicle and the non-resident: |
17 | | (1) is not prohibited from owning or possessing a |
18 | | firearm under federal law; |
19 | | (2) is eligible to carry a firearm in public under the |
20 | | laws of his or her state or territory of residence, as
|
21 | | evidenced by the possession of a concealed carry license |
22 | | or permit issued by his or her state of residence, if
|
23 | | applicable; and |
24 | | (3) is not in possession of a license under this Act. |
25 | | If the non-resident leaves his or her vehicle unattended, |
26 | | he or she shall store the firearm within a locked vehicle or |
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1 | | locked container within the vehicle in accordance with |
2 | | subsection (b) of Section 65 of this Act.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13; 99-78, |
4 | | eff. 7-20-15.) |
5 | | (430 ILCS 66/70) |
6 | | Sec. 70. Violations. |
7 | | (a) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be |
8 | | revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found to be ineligible |
9 | | for a license under this Act or the licensee is prohibited from |
10 | | possessing a firearm under State or federal law no longer |
11 | | meets the eligibility requirements of the Firearm Owners |
12 | | Identification Card Act . |
13 | | (b) A license shall be suspended if an order of |
14 | | protection, including an emergency order of protection, |
15 | | plenary order of protection, or interim order of protection |
16 | | under Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or |
17 | | under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, or if a |
18 | | firearms restraining order, including an emergency firearms |
19 | | restraining order, under the Firearms Restraining Order Act, |
20 | | is issued against a licensee for the duration of the order, or |
21 | | if the Department is made aware of a similar order issued |
22 | | against the licensee in any other jurisdiction. If an order of |
23 | | protection is issued against a licensee, the licensee shall |
24 | | surrender the license, as applicable, to the court at the time |
25 | | the order is entered or to the law enforcement agency or entity |
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1 | | serving process at the time the licensee is served the order. |
2 | | The court, law enforcement agency, or entity responsible for |
3 | | serving the order of protection shall notify the Department |
4 | | within 7 days and transmit the license to the Department. |
5 | | (c) A license is invalid upon expiration of the license, |
6 | | unless the licensee has submitted an application to renew the |
7 | | license, and the applicant is otherwise eligible to possess a |
8 | | license under this Act. |
9 | | (d) A licensee shall not carry a concealed firearm while |
10 | | under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, |
11 | | intoxicating compound or combination of compounds, or any |
12 | | combination thereof, under the standards set forth in |
13 | | subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. |
14 | | A licensee in violation of this subsection (d) shall be |
15 | | guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first or second violation |
16 | | and a Class 4 felony for a third violation. The Department may |
17 | | suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and |
18 | | shall permanently revoke a license for a third violation. |
19 | | (e) Except as otherwise provided, a licensee in violation |
20 | | of this Act shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. A second |
21 | | or subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor. The |
22 | | Department may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a |
23 | | second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for 3 |
24 | | or more violations of Section 65 of this Act. Any person |
25 | | convicted of a violation under this Section shall pay a $150 |
26 | | fee to be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund, |
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1 | | plus any applicable court costs or fees. |
2 | | (f) A licensee convicted or found guilty of a violation of |
3 | | this Act who has a valid license and is otherwise eligible to |
4 | | carry a concealed firearm shall only be subject to the |
5 | | penalties under this Section and shall not be subject to the |
6 | | penalties under Section 21-6, paragraph (4), (8), or (10) of |
7 | | subsection (a) of Section 24-1, or subparagraph (A-5) or (B-5) |
8 | | of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6 of the |
9 | | Criminal Code of 2012. Except as otherwise provided in this |
10 | | subsection, nothing in this subsection prohibits the licensee |
11 | | from being subjected to penalties for violations other than |
12 | | those specified in this Act. |
13 | | (g) A licensee whose license is revoked, suspended, or |
14 | | denied shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the |
15 | | revocation, suspension, or denial, surrender his or her |
16 | | concealed carry license to the local law enforcement agency |
17 | | where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency |
18 | | shall provide the licensee a receipt and transmit the |
19 | | concealed carry license to the Department of State Police. If |
20 | | the licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked, |
21 | | suspended, or denied fails to comply with the requirements of |
22 | | this subsection, the law enforcement agency where the person |
23 | | resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to |
24 | | search for and seize the concealed carry license in the |
25 | | possession and under the custody or control of the licensee |
26 | | whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or |
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1 | | denied. The observation of a concealed carry license in the |
2 | | possession of a person whose license has been revoked, |
3 | | suspended, or denied constitutes a sufficient basis for the |
4 | | arrest of that person for violation of this subsection. A |
5 | | violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor. |
6 | | (h) (Blank). A license issued or renewed under this Act |
7 | | shall be revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found |
8 | | ineligible for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the |
9 | | licensee no longer possesses a valid Firearm Owner's |
10 | | Identification Card. A licensee whose license is revoked under |
11 | | this subsection (h) shall surrender his or her concealed carry |
12 | | license as provided for in subsection (g) of this Section. |
13 | | This subsection shall not apply to a person who has filed |
14 | | an application with the State Police for renewal of a Firearm
|
15 | | Owner's Identification Card and who is not otherwise |
16 | | ineligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
|
17 | | (i) A certified firearms instructor who knowingly provides |
18 | | or offers to provide a false certification that an applicant |
19 | | has completed firearms training as required under this Act is |
20 | | guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person guilty of a violation |
21 | | of this subsection (i) is not eligible for court supervision. |
22 | | The Department shall permanently revoke the firearms |
23 | | instructor certification of a person convicted under this |
24 | | subsection (i). |
25 | | (Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19 .) |
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1 | | (430 ILCS 66/80) |
2 | | Sec. 80. Certified firearms instructors. |
3 | | (a) Within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, the |
4 | | Department shall begin approval of certified firearms |
5 | | instructors and enter certified firearms instructors into an |
6 | | online registry on the Department's website. |
7 | | (b) A person who is not a certified firearms instructor |
8 | | shall not teach applicant training courses or advertise or |
9 | | otherwise represent courses they teach as qualifying their |
10 | | students to meet the requirements to receive a license under |
11 | | this Act. Each violation of this subsection is a business |
12 | | offense with a fine of at least $1,000 per violation. |
13 | | (c) A person seeking to become a certified firearms |
14 | | instructor shall: |
15 | | (1) be at least 21 years of age; |
16 | | (2) be a legal resident of the United States; and |
17 | | (3) meet the requirements of Section 25 of this Act , |
18 | | except for the Illinois residency
requirement in item |
19 | | (xiv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of |
20 | | the Firearm
Owners Identification Card Act ; and any |
21 | | additional uniformly applied requirements established by |
22 | | the Department. |
23 | | (d) A person seeking to become a certified firearms |
24 | | instructor, in addition to the requirements of subsection (c) |
25 | | of this Section, shall: |
26 | | (1) possess a high school diploma or high school |
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1 | | equivalency certificate; and |
2 | | (2) have at least one of the following valid firearms |
3 | | instructor certifications: |
4 | | (A) certification from a law enforcement agency; |
5 | | (B) certification from a firearm instructor course |
6 | | offered by a State or federal governmental agency; |
7 | | (C) certification from a firearm instructor |
8 | | qualification course offered by the Illinois Law |
9 | | Enforcement Training Standards Board; or |
10 | | (D) certification from an entity approved by the |
11 | | Department that offers firearm instructor education |
12 | | and training in the use and safety of firearms. |
13 | | (e) A person may have his or her firearms instructor |
14 | | certification denied or revoked if he or she does not meet the |
15 | | requirements to obtain a license under this Act, provides |
16 | | false or misleading information to the Department, or has had |
17 | | a prior instructor certification revoked or denied by the |
18 | | Department.
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19 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13; |
20 | | 98-718, eff. 1-1-15 .) |
21 | | (430 ILCS 66/105)
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22 | | Sec. 105. Duty of school administrator. It is the duty of |
23 | | the principal
of a public elementary or secondary school, or |
24 | | his or her designee, and the
chief administrative officer of a |
25 | | private elementary or secondary school or a
public or private |
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1 | | community college, college, or university, or his or her
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2 | | designee, to report to the Department of State Police when a |
3 | | student is determined to pose a clear and present danger to |
4 | | himself, herself, or to others, within 24 hours of
the |
5 | | determination as provided in Section 6-103.3 of the Mental |
6 | | Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. "Clear and present |
7 | | danger" has the meaning as provided in paragraph (2) of the |
8 | | definition of "clear and present danger" in Section 6-103.3 of |
9 | | the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code 1.1 of |
10 | | the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act .
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.) |
12 | | Section 66. The Firearms Restraining Order Act is amended |
13 | | by changing Sections 35 and 40 as follows: |
14 | | (430 ILCS 67/35)
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15 | | Sec. 35. Ex parte orders and emergency hearings.
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16 | | (a) A petitioner may request an emergency firearms |
17 | | restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading |
18 | | alleging that the respondent poses an immediate and present |
19 | | danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or |
20 | | another by having in his or her custody or control, |
21 | | purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm. The petition |
22 | | shall also describe the type and location of any firearm or |
23 | | firearms presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed |
24 | | or controlled by the respondent.
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1 | | (b) If the respondent is alleged to pose an immediate and |
2 | | present danger of causing personal injury to an intimate |
3 | | partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the |
4 | | target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the |
5 | | petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to |
6 | | any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice |
7 | | must include that the petitioner intends to petition the court |
8 | | for an emergency firearms restraining order, and, if the |
9 | | petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant |
10 | | domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling |
11 | | resources, if appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to |
12 | | having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified |
13 | | pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner |
14 | | is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners, |
15 | | the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what |
16 | | efforts were made. |
17 | | (c) Every person who files a petition for an emergency |
18 | | firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided |
19 | | to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified |
20 | | pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 |
21 | | of the Criminal Code of 2012.
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22 | | (d) An emergency firearms restraining order shall be |
23 | | issued on an ex parte basis, that is, without notice to the |
24 | | respondent.
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25 | | (e) An emergency hearing held on an ex parte basis shall be |
26 | | held the same day that the petition is filed or the next day |
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1 | | that the court is in session.
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2 | | (f) If a circuit or associate judge finds probable cause |
3 | | to believe that the respondent poses an immediate and present |
4 | | danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or |
5 | | another by having in his or her custody or control, |
6 | | purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, the circuit or |
7 | | associate judge shall issue an emergency order.
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8 | | (f-5) If the court issues an emergency firearms |
9 | | restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause |
10 | | that the respondent possesses firearms, issue a search warrant |
11 | | directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's |
12 | | firearms. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the |
13 | | law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence |
14 | | and other places where the court finds there is probable cause |
15 | | to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms. |
16 | | (g) An emergency firearms restraining order shall require:
|
17 | | (1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or |
18 | | her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or |
19 | | receiving additional firearms for the duration of the |
20 | | order;
and |
21 | | (2) the respondent to turn over to the local law |
22 | | enforcement agency any Firearm Owner's Identification Card |
23 | | and concealed carry license in his or her possession. The |
24 | | local law enforcement agency shall immediately mail the |
25 | | card and concealed carry license to the Department of |
26 | | State Police Firearm Services Bureau for safekeeping. The |
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1 | | firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification |
2 | | Card and concealed carry license, if unexpired, shall be |
3 | | returned to the respondent after the firearms restraining |
4 | | order is terminated or expired. |
5 | | (h) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (h-5) of |
6 | | this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if |
7 | | the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card and |
8 | | concealed carry license cannot be returned to the respondent |
9 | | because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to |
10 | | requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible |
11 | | to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law |
12 | | enforcement agency, the court may order the local law |
13 | | enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms |
14 | | for training purposes, or use the firearms for any other |
15 | | application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement |
16 | | agency.
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17 | | (h-5) A respondent whose firearms have been turned over to |
18 | | a local law enforcement agency Firearm Owner's Identification |
19 | | Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if |
20 | | the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the |
21 | | respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm to |
22 | | a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm if the |
23 | | person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. |
24 | | Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person |
25 | | protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While |
26 | | the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the |
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1 | | respondent's firearms must swear or affirm by affidavit that |
2 | | he or she shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent or |
3 | | to anyone residing in the same residence as the respondent. |
4 | | (h-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title |
5 | | to any firearms surrendered under this Section, he or she may |
6 | | petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or |
7 | | has notice of the petition, to have the firearm returned to him |
8 | | or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful |
9 | | owner of the firearm, the firearm shall be returned to him or |
10 | | her, provided that: |
11 | | (1) the firearm is removed from the respondent's |
12 | | custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner |
13 | | agrees to store the firearm in a manner such that the |
14 | | respondent does not have access to or control of the |
15 | | firearm; and |
16 | | (2) the firearm is not otherwise unlawfully possessed |
17 | | by the owner. |
18 | | The person petitioning for the return of his or her |
19 | | firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) |
20 | | is the lawful owner of the firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the |
21 | | firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm in |
22 | | a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control |
23 | | of the firearm. |
24 | | (i) In accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, the |
25 | | court shall schedule a full hearing as soon as possible, but no |
26 | | longer than 14 days from the issuance of an ex parte firearms |
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1 | | restraining order, to determine if a 6-month firearms |
2 | | restraining order shall be issued. The court may extend an ex |
3 | | parte order as needed, but not to exceed 14 days, to effectuate |
4 | | service of the order or if necessary to continue protection. |
5 | | The court may extend the order for a greater length of time by |
6 | | mutual agreement of the parties.
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7 | | (Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.) |
8 | | (430 ILCS 67/40)
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9 | | Sec. 40. Six-month orders.
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10 | | (a) A petitioner may request a 6-month firearms |
11 | | restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading |
12 | | alleging that the respondent poses a significant danger of |
13 | | causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another in the |
14 | | near future by having in his or her custody or control, |
15 | | purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm. The petition |
16 | | shall also describe the number, types, and locations of any |
17 | | firearms presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed |
18 | | or controlled by the respondent.
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19 | | (b) If the respondent is alleged to pose a significant |
20 | | danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or |
21 | | an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a |
22 | | threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner |
23 | | shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all |
24 | | intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include |
25 | | that the petitioner intends to petition the court for a |
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1 | | 6-month firearms restraining order, and, if the petitioner is |
2 | | a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant domestic |
3 | | violence or stalking advocacy or counseling resources, if |
4 | | appropriate. The petitioner shall attest to having provided |
5 | | the notice in the filed affidavit or verified pleading. If, |
6 | | after making a good faith effort, the petitioner is unable to |
7 | | provide notice to any or all intimate partners, the affidavit |
8 | | or verified pleading should describe what efforts were made. |
9 | | (c) Every person who files a petition for a 6-month |
10 | | firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided |
11 | | to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified |
12 | | pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 |
13 | | of the Criminal Code of 2012.
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14 | | (d) Upon receipt of a petition for a 6-month firearms |
15 | | restraining order, the court shall order a hearing within 30 |
16 | | days.
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17 | | (e) In determining whether to issue a firearms restraining |
18 | | order under this Section, the court shall consider evidence |
19 | | including, but not limited to, the following:
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20 | | (1) The unlawful and reckless use, display, or |
21 | | brandishing of a firearm by the respondent.
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22 | | (2) The history of use, attempted use, or threatened |
23 | | use of physical force by the respondent against another |
24 | | person.
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25 | | (3) Any prior arrest of the respondent for a felony |
26 | | offense. |
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1 | | (4) Evidence of the abuse of controlled substances or |
2 | | alcohol by the respondent. |
3 | | (5) A recent threat of violence or act of violence by |
4 | | the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or |
5 | | another. |
6 | | (6) A violation of an emergency order of protection |
7 | | issued under Section 217 of the Illinois Domestic Violence |
8 | | Act of 1986 or Section 112A-17 of the Code of Criminal |
9 | | Procedure of 1963 or of an order of protection issued |
10 | | under Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of |
11 | | 1986 or Section 112A-14 of the Code of Criminal Procedure |
12 | | of 1963.
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13 | | (7) A pattern of violent acts or violent threats, |
14 | | including, but not limited to, threats of violence or acts |
15 | | of violence by the respondent directed toward himself, |
16 | | herself, or another. |
17 | | (f) At the hearing, the petitioner shall have the burden |
18 | | of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, that the |
19 | | respondent poses a significant danger of personal injury to |
20 | | himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or |
21 | | control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm. |
22 | | (g) If the court finds that there is clear and convincing |
23 | | evidence to issue a firearms restraining order, the court |
24 | | shall issue a firearms restraining order that shall be in |
25 | | effect for 6 months subject to renewal under Section 45 of this |
26 | | Act or termination under that Section. |
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1 | | (g-5) If the court issues a 6-month firearms restraining |
2 | | order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the |
3 | | respondent possesses firearms, issue a search warrant |
4 | | directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's |
5 | | firearms. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the |
6 | | law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence |
7 | | and other places where the court finds there is probable cause |
8 | | to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms. |
9 | | (h) A 6-month firearms restraining order shall require: |
10 | | (1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or |
11 | | her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or |
12 | | receiving additional firearms for the duration of the |
13 | | order; and |
14 | | (2) the respondent to turn over to the local law |
15 | | enforcement agency any firearm or Firearm Owner's |
16 | | Identification Card and concealed carry license in his or |
17 | | her possession. The local law enforcement agency shall |
18 | | immediately mail the card and concealed carry license to |
19 | | the Department of State Police Firearm Services Bureau for |
20 | | safekeeping. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's |
21 | | Identification Card and concealed carry license, if |
22 | | unexpired, shall be returned to the respondent after the |
23 | | firearms restraining order is terminated or expired. |
24 | | (i) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (i-5) of |
25 | | this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if |
26 | | the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be |
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1 | | returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be |
2 | | located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the |
3 | | firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, |
4 | | upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court |
5 | | may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the |
6 | | firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or use the |
7 | | firearms for any other application as deemed appropriate by |
8 | | the local law enforcement agency. |
9 | | (i-5) A respondent whose firearms have been turned over to |
10 | | a local law enforcement agency Firearm Owner's Identification |
11 | | Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if |
12 | | the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the |
13 | | respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm to |
14 | | a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm if the |
15 | | person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. |
16 | | Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person |
17 | | protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While |
18 | | the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the |
19 | | respondent's firearms must swear or affirm by affidavit that |
20 | | he or she shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent or |
21 | | to anyone residing in the same residence as the respondent. |
22 | | (i-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title |
23 | | to any firearms surrendered under this Section, he or she may |
24 | | petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or |
25 | | has notice of the petition, to have the firearm returned to him |
26 | | or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful |
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1 | | owner of the firearm, the firearm shall be returned to him or |
2 | | her, provided that: |
3 | | (1) the firearm is removed from the respondent's |
4 | | custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner |
5 | | agrees to store the firearm in a manner such that the |
6 | | respondent does not have access to or control of the |
7 | | firearm; and |
8 | | (2) the firearm is not otherwise unlawfully possessed |
9 | | by the owner. |
10 | | The person petitioning for the return of his or her |
11 | | firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) |
12 | | is the lawful owner of the firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the |
13 | | firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm in |
14 | | a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control |
15 | | of the firearm. |
16 | | (j) If the court does not issue a firearms restraining |
17 | | order at the hearing, the court shall dissolve any emergency |
18 | | firearms restraining order then in effect. |
19 | | (k) When the court issues a firearms restraining order |
20 | | under this Section, the court shall inform the respondent that |
21 | | he or she is entitled to one hearing during the period of the |
22 | | order to request a termination of the order, under Section 45 |
23 | | of this Act, and shall provide the respondent with a form to |
24 | | request a hearing.
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25 | | (Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.) |
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1 | | Section 67. The Firearm Dealer License Certification Act |
2 | | is amended by changing Sections 5-20, 5-25, 5-40, and 5-85 as |
3 | | follows: |
4 | | (430 ILCS 68/5-20)
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5 | | Sec. 5-20. Additional licensee requirements. |
6 | | (a) A certified licensee shall make a photo copy of a |
7 | | buyer's or transferee's valid photo identification card |
8 | | whenever a firearm sale transaction takes place. The photo |
9 | | copy shall be attached to the documentation detailing the |
10 | | record of sale. |
11 | | (b) A certified licensee shall post in a conspicuous |
12 | | position on the premises where the licensee conducts business |
13 | | a sign that contains the following warning in block letters |
14 | | not less than one inch in height: |
15 | | "With few exceptions enumerated in the Criminal Code |
16 | | of 2012 Firearm Owners Identification Card Act , it is |
17 | | unlawful for you to: |
18 | | (A) store or leave an unsecured firearm in a place |
19 | | where a child can obtain access to it;
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20 | | (B) sell or transfer your firearm to someone else |
21 | | without receiving approval for the transfer from the |
22 | | Department of State Police, or |
23 | | (C) fail to report the loss or theft of your |
24 | | firearm to local law enforcement within 72 hours.". |
25 | | This sign shall be created by the Department and made |
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1 | | available for printing or downloading from the Department's |
2 | | website. |
3 | | (c) No retail location established after the effective |
4 | | date of this Act shall be located within 500 feet of any |
5 | | school, pre-school, or day care facility in existence at its |
6 | | location before the retail location is established as measured |
7 | | from the nearest corner of the building holding the retail |
8 | | location to the corner of the school, pre-school, or day care |
9 | | facility building nearest the retail location at the time the |
10 | | retail location seeks licensure.
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11 | | (Source: P.A. 100-1178, eff. 1-18-19.) |
12 | | (430 ILCS 68/5-25)
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13 | | Sec. 5-25. Exemptions. The provisions of this Act related
|
14 | | to the certification of a license do not apply to a
person or |
15 | | entity that engages in the following
activities: |
16 | | (1) temporary transfers of firearms solely for use at |
17 | | the
location or on the premises where the transfer takes |
18 | | place,
such as transfers at a shooting range for use at |
19 | | that location; |
20 | | (2) temporary transfers of firearms solely for use |
21 | | while in
the presence of the transferor or transfers for |
22 | | the
purposes of firearm safety training by a firearms |
23 | | safety training instructor; |
24 | | (3) transfers of firearms among immediate family or
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25 | | household members, as "immediate family or household |
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1 | | member" is
defined in Section 3-2.7-10 of the Unified Code |
2 | | of Corrections, provided that both the transferor and |
3 | | transferee are not prohibited from possessing a firearm |
4 | | under federal or State law have a currently valid Firearm |
5 | | Owner's Identification Card; however, this paragraph (3) |
6 | | does not limit the familial gift exemption under paragraph |
7 | | (2) of subsection (a-15) of Section 3 of the Firearm |
8 | | Owners Identification Card Act ; |
9 | | (4) transfers by persons or entities acting under |
10 | | operation
of law or a court order; |
11 | | (5) transfers by persons or entities liquidating all |
12 | | or
part of a collection. For purposes of this paragraph |
13 | | (5),
"collection" means 2 or more firearms which are of |
14 | | special
interest to collectors by reason of some quality |
15 | | other than is
associated with firearms intended for |
16 | | sporting use or as
offensive or defensive weapons; |
17 | | (6) transfers of firearms that have been rendered
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18 | | permanently inoperable to a nonprofit historical society,
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19 | | museum, or institutional collection; |
20 | | (7) transfers by a law enforcement or corrections |
21 | | agency or
a law enforcement or corrections officer acting |
22 | | within the
course and scope of his or her official duties; |
23 | | (8) (blank); transfers to a State or local law |
24 | | enforcement agency by a person who has his or her Firearm
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25 | | Owner's Identification Card revoked; |
26 | | (9) transfers of curios and relics, as defined under
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1 | | federal law, between collectors licensed under subsection |
2 | | (b)
of Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968; |
3 | | (10) transfers by a person or entity licensed as an |
4 | | auctioneer under the Auction License Act; |
5 | | (10.5) transfers of firearms to a resident registered |
6 | | competitor or attendee or non-resident registered |
7 | | competitor or attendee by a licensed federal firearms |
8 | | dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of |
9 | | 1968 at a competitive shooting event held at the World |
10 | | Shooting and Recreational Complex that is sanctioned by a |
11 | | national governing body; or |
12 | | (11) transfers between a pawnshop and a customer which |
13 | | amount to a bailment. For purposes of this paragraph (11), |
14 | | "bailment" means the act of placing property in the |
15 | | custody and control of another, by agreement in which the |
16 | | holder is responsible for the safekeeping and return of |
17 | | the property.
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18 | | (Source: P.A. 100-1178, eff. 1-18-19; 101-80, eff. 7-12-19.) |
19 | | (430 ILCS 68/5-40)
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20 | | Sec. 5-40. Qualifications for operation. |
21 | | (a) Each certified licensee shall submit with each |
22 | | application for certification or renewal an affidavit to the |
23 | | Department stating that each owner, employee, or other agent |
24 | | of the certified licensee who sells or conducts transfers of |
25 | | firearms for the certified licensee is at least 21 years of |
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1 | | age , has a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card |
2 | | and, for a renewal, has completed the training required under |
3 | | Section 5-30. The affidavit must also contain the name and |
4 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card number of each owner, |
5 | | employee, or other agent who sells or conducts transfers of |
6 | | firearms for the certified licensee. If an owner, employee, or |
7 | | other agent of the certified licensee is not otherwise a |
8 | | resident of this State, the certified licensee shall submit an |
9 | | affidavit stating that the owner, employee, or other agent has |
10 | | undergone a background check and is not prohibited from owning |
11 | | or possessing firearms. |
12 | | (b) In addition to the affidavit required under subsection |
13 | | (a), within 30 days of a new owner, employee, or other agent |
14 | | beginning selling or conducting transfers of firearms for the |
15 | | certified licensee, the certified licensee shall submit an |
16 | | affidavit to the Department stating the date that the new |
17 | | owner, employee, or other agent began selling or conducting |
18 | | transfers of firearms for the certified licensee, and |
19 | | providing the information required in subsection (a) for that |
20 | | new owner, employee, or other agent. |
21 | | (c) If a certified licensee has a license, certificate, or |
22 | | permit to sell, lease, transfer, purchase, or possess firearms |
23 | | issued by the federal government or the government of any |
24 | | state revoked or suspended for good cause within the preceding |
25 | | 4 years, the Department may consider revoking or suspending |
26 | | the certified licenses in this State. In making a |
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1 | | determination of whether or not to revoke or suspend a |
2 | | certified license in this State, the Department shall consider |
3 | | the number of retail locations the certified licensee or any |
4 | | related person or entity operates in this State or in other |
5 | | states under the same or different business names, and the |
6 | | severity of the infraction in the state in which a license was |
7 | | revoked or suspended. |
8 | | (d) Applications and affidavits required under this |
9 | | Section are not subject to disclosure by the Department under |
10 | | the Freedom of Information Act.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 100-1178, eff. 1-18-19.) |
12 | | (430 ILCS 68/5-85)
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13 | | Sec. 5-85. Disciplinary sanctions. |
14 | | (a) For violations of this Act not penalized under Section
|
15 | | 5-15, the Department may
refuse to renew or
restore, or may |
16 | | reprimand, place on probation, suspend, revoke,
or take other |
17 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against
any licensee, |
18 | | and may impose a fine commensurate with the severity of the |
19 | | violation not to exceed $10,000 for each
violation for any of |
20 | | the following, consistent with the Protection
of Lawful |
21 | | Commerce in Arms Act, 15 U.S.C. 7901 through 7903:
|
22 | | (1) Violations of this Act, or any law applicable to |
23 | | the sale or
transfer of firearms.
|
24 | | (2) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
|
25 | | demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under
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1 | | this Act.
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2 | | (3) Aiding or assisting another person in violating |
3 | | any
provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.
|
4 | | (4) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in
|
5 | | response to a written request made by the Department.
|
6 | | (5) Conviction of, plea of guilty to, or plea of nolo
|
7 | | contendere to any crime that disqualifies the person from
|
8 | | obtaining a firearm valid Firearm Owner's Identification |
9 | | Card .
|
10 | | (6) Continued practice, although the person has become
|
11 | | unfit to practice due to any of the following:
|
12 | | (A) Any circumstance that disqualifies the person
|
13 | | from obtaining a firearm valid Firearm Owner's |
14 | | Identification
Card or concealed carry license.
|
15 | | (B) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs
|
16 | | defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or
|
17 | | any other substance that results in the inability to
|
18 | | practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety. |
19 | | (7) Receiving, directly or indirectly, compensation
|
20 | | for any firearms sold or transferred illegally.
|
21 | | (8) Discipline by another United States jurisdiction,
|
22 | | foreign nation, or governmental agency, if at least one of
|
23 | | the grounds for the discipline is the same or |
24 | | substantially
equivalent to those set forth in this Act.
|
25 | | (9) Violation of any disciplinary order imposed on a
|
26 | | licensee by the Department.
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1 | | (10) A finding by the Department that the licensee,
|
2 | | after having his or her certified license placed on |
3 | | probationary
status, has violated the terms of probation.
|
4 | | (11) A fraudulent or material misstatement in the |
5 | | completion of an affirmative obligation or inquiry by law |
6 | | enforcement. |
7 | | (b) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid
|
8 | | within 90 days after the effective date of the final order |
9 | | imposing
the fine.
|
10 | | (Source: P.A. 100-1178, eff. 1-18-19.) |
11 | | Section 70. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing |
12 | | Sections 3.2 and 3.2a as follows:
|
13 | | (520 ILCS 5/3.2) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.2)
|
14 | | Sec. 3.2. Hunting license; application; instruction. |
15 | | Before the
Department or any county, city, village, township, |
16 | | incorporated town clerk
or his duly designated agent or any |
17 | | other person authorized or designated
by the Department to |
18 | | issue hunting licenses shall issue a hunting license
to any |
19 | | person, the person shall file his application with the |
20 | | Department or
other party authorized to issue licenses on a |
21 | | form provided by the
Department and further give definite |
22 | | proof of identity and place of legal
residence. Each clerk |
23 | | designating agents to issue licenses and stamps
shall furnish |
24 | | the Department, within 10 days following the appointment, the
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1 | | names and mailing addresses of the agents. Each clerk or his |
2 | | duly
designated agent shall be authorized to sell licenses and |
3 | | stamps only
within the territorial area for which he was |
4 | | elected or appointed. No duly
designated agent is authorized |
5 | | to furnish licenses or stamps for
issuance by any other |
6 | | business establishment. Each
application shall be executed and |
7 | | sworn to and shall set forth the name
and description of the |
8 | | applicant and place of residence.
|
9 | | No hunting license shall be issued to any person born on or |
10 | | after January
1,
1980
unless he presents the person authorized |
11 | | to issue the license
evidence that he has held a hunting |
12 | | license issued by the State of Illinois
or another state in a |
13 | | prior year, or a certificate of competency as
provided in this |
14 | | Section. Persons under 18 years of age may be issued a
Lifetime |
15 | | Hunting or Sportsmen's Combination License as provided under |
16 | | Section
20-45 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code but shall not |
17 | | be entitled to hunt alone, without the supervision of an adult |
18 | | age 21 or older,
unless they have a certificate of competency |
19 | | as provided in this Section and
the certificate is in their |
20 | | possession while hunting.
|
21 | | The Department of Natural Resources shall authorize
|
22 | | personnel of the
Department or certified volunteer instructors |
23 | | to conduct courses, of not
less than 10 hours in length, in |
24 | | firearms and hunter safety, which may include
training in bow |
25 | | and arrow safety, at regularly specified intervals throughout
|
26 | | the State. Persons successfully completing the course shall |
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1 | | receive a
certificate of competency. The Department of Natural |
2 | | Resources may further
cooperate with any reputable association |
3 | | or organization in establishing
courses if the organization |
4 | | has as one of its objectives the promotion of
safety in the |
5 | | handling of firearms or bow and arrow.
|
6 | | The Department of Natural Resources shall designate any
|
7 | | person found by it
to be competent to give instruction in the |
8 | | handling of firearms, hunter
safety, and bow and arrow. The |
9 | | persons so appointed shall give the
course of instruction and |
10 | | upon the successful completion shall
issue to the person |
11 | | instructed a certificate of competency in the safe
handling of |
12 | | firearms, hunter safety, and bow and arrow. No charge shall
be |
13 | | made for any course of instruction except for materials or |
14 | | ammunition
consumed. The Department of Natural Resources shall
|
15 | | furnish information on
the requirements of hunter safety |
16 | | education programs to be distributed
free of charge to |
17 | | applicants for hunting licenses by the persons
appointed and |
18 | | authorized to issue licenses. Funds for the conducting of
|
19 | | firearms and hunter safety courses shall be taken from the fee |
20 | | charged
for the Firearm Owners Identification Card.
|
21 | | The fee for a hunting license to hunt all species for a |
22 | | resident of
Illinois is $12. For residents age 65 or older, |
23 | | and, commencing with the 2012 license year, resident veterans |
24 | | of the United States Armed Forces after returning from service |
25 | | abroad or mobilization by the President of the United States, |
26 | | the fee is one-half of the
fee charged for a hunting license to |
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1 | | hunt all species for a resident of
Illinois. Veterans must |
2 | | provide to the Department, at one of the Department's 5 |
3 | | regional offices, verification of their service. The |
4 | | Department shall establish what constitutes suitable |
5 | | verification of service for the purpose of issuing resident |
6 | | veterans hunting
licenses at a reduced fee. The fee for a |
7 | | hunting license to hunt all species shall be $1 for residents |
8 | | over 75 years of age. Nonresidents shall be charged $57 for a |
9 | | hunting license.
|
10 | | Nonresidents may be issued a nonresident hunting license |
11 | | for a
period not to exceed 10 consecutive days' hunting in the |
12 | | State and shall
be charged a fee of $35.
|
13 | | A special nonresident hunting license authorizing a |
14 | | nonresident to
take game birds by hunting on a game breeding |
15 | | and hunting preserve
area only, established under Section |
16 | | 3.27, shall be issued upon proper
application being made and |
17 | | payment of a fee equal to that for a resident
hunting license. |
18 | | The expiration date of this license shall be on the same
date |
19 | | each year that game breeding and hunting preserve
area |
20 | | licenses expire.
|
21 | | Each applicant for a State Migratory Waterfowl Stamp, |
22 | | regardless of
his residence or other condition, shall pay a |
23 | | fee of $15 and
shall receive a stamp. The fee for a State |
24 | | Migratory Waterfowl Stamp shall be waived for residents over |
25 | | 75 years of age. Except as provided under
Section 20-45 of the |
26 | | Fish and Aquatic Life Code,
the stamp shall be signed by the |
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1 | | person or affixed to his license
or permit in a space |
2 | | designated by the Department for that purpose.
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3 | | Each applicant for a State Habitat Stamp, regardless of |
4 | | his residence
or other condition, shall pay a fee of $5 and |
5 | | shall receive a
stamp. The fee for a State Habitat Stamp shall |
6 | | be waived for residents over 75 years of age. Except as |
7 | | provided under Section 20-45 of the Fish and Aquatic Life
|
8 | | Code, the stamp shall be signed by the person or affixed to his |
9 | | license or
permit in a space designated by the Department for |
10 | | that purpose.
|
11 | | Nothing in this Section shall be construed as to require |
12 | | the purchase
of more than one State Habitat Stamp by any person |
13 | | in any one license year.
|
14 | | The fees for State Pheasant Stamps and State Furbearer |
15 | | Stamps shall be waived for residents over 75 years of age. |
16 | | The Department shall furnish the holders of hunting |
17 | | licenses and stamps
with an insignia as evidence of possession |
18 | | of license, or license and
stamp, as the Department may |
19 | | consider advisable. The insignia shall be
exhibited and used |
20 | | as the Department may order.
|
21 | | All other hunting licenses and all State stamps shall |
22 | | expire upon
March 31 of each year.
|
23 | | Every person holding any license, permit, or stamp issued |
24 | | under the
provisions of this Act shall have it in his |
25 | | possession for immediate
presentation for inspection to the |
26 | | officers and authorized employees of
the Department, any |
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1 | | sheriff, deputy sheriff, or any other peace officer making
a |
2 | | demand for it. This provision shall not apply to Department |
3 | | owned or
managed sites where it is required that all hunters |
4 | | deposit their license or ,
permit , or Firearm Owner's |
5 | | Identification Card at the check station upon
entering the |
6 | | hunting areas.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 100-638, eff. 1-1-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)
|
8 | | (520 ILCS 5/3.2a) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.2a)
|
9 | | Sec. 3.2a.
Every person holding any license, permit or |
10 | | stamp issued under the
provisions hereof shall have it in his |
11 | | possession for immediate
presentation for inspection to the |
12 | | officers and authorized employees of
the Department, any |
13 | | sheriff, deputy sheriff or any other peace officer making
a |
14 | | demand for it.
This provision shall not apply to Department |
15 | | owned or managed sites where
it is required that all hunters |
16 | | deposit their license or , permit or Firearm
Owner's |
17 | | Identification Card at the check station upon entering the |
18 | | hunting areas.
|
19 | | (Source: P.A. 85-152.)
|
20 | | Section 75. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by |
21 | | changing Sections 2-7.1, 2-7.5, 12-3.05, 16-0.1, 17-30, 24-1, |
22 | | 24-1.1, 24-1.6, 24-1.8, 24-2, 24-3, 24-3.1, 24-3.2, 24-3.4, |
23 | | 24-3.5, 24-3B, 24-4.1, and 24-9 and adding Section 24-4.5 as |
24 | | follows:
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1 | | (720 ILCS 5/2-7.1)
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2 | | Sec. 2-7.1. "Firearm
"Firearm" and "firearm ammunition". |
3 | | "Firearm
"Firearm" and "firearm
ammunition" means any |
4 | | self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name |
5 | | known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a |
6 | | firearm; excluding, however: |
7 | | (1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with
a |
8 | | device used exclusively for signaling or safety and required |
9 | | or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the |
10 | | Interstate Commerce Commission; and |
11 | | (2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with
a |
12 | | stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition
|
13 | | have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 1.1 of the |
14 | | Firearm
Owners Identification Card Act .
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 91-544, eff. 1-1-00.)
|
16 | | (720 ILCS 5/2-7.5)
|
17 | | Sec. 2-7.5. "Firearm". Except as otherwise provided in a |
18 | | specific
Section, "firearm" means any device, by whatever name |
19 | | known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles |
20 | | by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of |
21 | | gas; excluding, however: |
22 | | (1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B |
23 | | gun which
expels a single globular projectile not exceeding |
24 | | .18 inch in
diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of |
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1 | | less than 700 feet
per second; |
2 | | (1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or |
3 | | B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable |
4 | | marking colors; |
5 | | (2) any device used exclusively for signaling or
safety |
6 | | and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard |
7 | | or the Interstate Commerce Commission; |
8 | | (3) any device used exclusively for the firing of
stud |
9 | | cartridges, explosive rivets, or similar industrial |
10 | | ammunition; and |
11 | | (4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun)
which, |
12 | | although designed as a weapon, the Department of State Police |
13 | | finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, |
14 | | and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and |
15 | | is not likely to be used as a weapon has the meaning ascribed |
16 | | to it in Section 1.1 of the
Firearm Owners Identification Card |
17 | | Act .
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18 | | (Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)
|
19 | | (720 ILCS 5/12-3.05) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)
|
20 | | Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.
|
21 | | (a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated |
22 | | battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the |
23 | | discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the |
24 | | following: |
25 | | (1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability |
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1 | | or disfigurement. |
2 | | (2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great |
3 | | bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or |
4 | | flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological |
5 | | or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance, |
6 | | or a bomb or explosive compound. |
7 | | (3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability |
8 | | or disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to |
9 | | be a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman, |
10 | | private security officer, correctional institution |
11 | | employee, or Department of Human Services employee |
12 | | supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or |
13 | | sexually violent persons: |
14 | | (i) performing his or her official duties; |
15 | | (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her |
16 | | official duties; or |
17 | | (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his |
18 | | or her official duties. |
19 | | (4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability |
20 | | or disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or |
21 | | older. |
22 | | (5) Strangles another individual. |
23 | | (b) Offense based on injury to a child or person with an |
24 | | intellectual disability. A person who is at least 18 years of |
25 | | age commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, |
26 | | he or she knowingly and without legal justification by any |
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1 | | means: |
2 | | (1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability |
3 | | or disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or |
4 | | to any person with a severe or profound intellectual |
5 | | disability; or |
6 | | (2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement |
7 | | to any child under the age of 13 years or to any person |
8 | | with a severe or profound intellectual disability. |
9 | | (c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits |
10 | | aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than |
11 | | by the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person |
12 | | battered is on or about a public way, public property, a public |
13 | | place of accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a |
14 | | domestic violence shelter, or in a church, synagogue, mosque, |
15 | | or other building, structure, or place used for religious |
16 | | worship. |
17 | | (d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits |
18 | | aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than |
19 | | by discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual |
20 | | battered to be any of the following: |
21 | | (1) A person 60 years of age or older. |
22 | | (2) A person who is pregnant or has a physical |
23 | | disability. |
24 | | (3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds |
25 | | or grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a |
26 | | building used for school purposes. |
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1 | | (4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer, |
2 | | fireman, private security officer, correctional |
3 | | institution employee, or Department of Human Services |
4 | | employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous |
5 | | persons or sexually violent persons: |
6 | | (i) performing his or her official duties; |
7 | | (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her |
8 | | official duties; or |
9 | | (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his |
10 | | or her official duties. |
11 | | (5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency |
12 | | medical services personnel, or utility worker: |
13 | | (i) performing his or her official duties; |
14 | | (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her |
15 | | official duties; or |
16 | | (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his |
17 | | or her official duties. |
18 | | (6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a |
19 | | unit of local government, or a school district, while |
20 | | performing his or her official duties. |
21 | | (7) A transit employee performing his or her official |
22 | | duties, or a transit passenger. |
23 | | (8) A taxi driver on duty. |
24 | | (9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged |
25 | | commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 of this |
26 | | Code and the person without legal justification by any |
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1 | | means causes bodily harm to the merchant. |
2 | | (10) A person authorized to serve process under |
3 | | Section 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special |
4 | | process server appointed by the circuit court while that |
5 | | individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a |
6 | | process server. |
7 | | (11) A nurse while in the performance of his or her |
8 | | duties as a nurse. |
9 | | (12) A merchant: (i) while performing his or her |
10 | | duties, including, but not limited to, relaying directions |
11 | | for healthcare or safety from his or her supervisor or |
12 | | employer or relaying health or safety guidelines, |
13 | | recommendations, regulations, or rules from a federal, |
14 | | State, or local public health agency; and (ii) during a |
15 | | disaster declared by the Governor, or a state of emergency |
16 | | declared by the mayor of the municipality in which the |
17 | | merchant is located, due to a public health emergency and |
18 | | for a period of 6 months after such declaration. |
19 | | (e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits |
20 | | aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she |
21 | | knowingly does any of the following: |
22 | | (1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or |
23 | | a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury |
24 | | to another person. |
25 | | (2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or |
26 | | a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury |
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1 | | to a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, |
2 | | community policing volunteer, person summoned by a police |
3 | | officer, fireman, private security officer, correctional |
4 | | institution employee, or emergency management worker: |
5 | | (i) performing his or her official duties; |
6 | | (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her |
7 | | official duties; or |
8 | | (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his |
9 | | or her official duties. |
10 | | (3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or |
11 | | a firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury |
12 | | to a person he or she knows to be emergency medical |
13 | | services personnel: |
14 | | (i) performing his or her official duties; |
15 | | (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her |
16 | | official duties; or |
17 | | (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his |
18 | | or her official duties. |
19 | | (4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a |
20 | | person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a |
21 | | school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or |
22 | | employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a |
23 | | school or in any part of a building used for school |
24 | | purposes. |
25 | | (5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped |
26 | | with a silencer, and causes any injury to another person. |
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1 | | (6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped |
2 | | with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or |
3 | | she knows to be a peace officer, community policing |
4 | | volunteer, person summoned by a police officer, fireman, |
5 | | private security officer, correctional institution |
6 | | employee or emergency management worker: |
7 | | (i) performing his or her official duties; |
8 | | (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her |
9 | | official duties; or |
10 | | (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his |
11 | | or her official duties. |
12 | | (7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped |
13 | | with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or |
14 | | she knows to be emergency medical services personnel: |
15 | | (i) performing his or her official duties; |
16 | | (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her |
17 | | official duties; or |
18 | | (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his |
19 | | or her official duties. |
20 | | (8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped |
21 | | with a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or |
22 | | she knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a |
23 | | school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is |
24 | | upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in |
25 | | any part of a building used for school purposes. |
26 | | (f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person |
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1 | | commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he |
2 | | or she does any of the following: |
3 | | (1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a |
4 | | firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in Section |
5 | | 24.8-0.1 of this Code. |
6 | | (2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her |
7 | | identity. |
8 | | (3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines |
9 | | or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached |
10 | | to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that |
11 | | the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of |
12 | | another. |
13 | | (4) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with |
14 | | the intent to disseminate the recording. |
15 | | (g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits |
16 | | aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm, |
17 | | he or she does any of the following: |
18 | | (1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled |
19 | | Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled |
20 | | substance to another and any user experiences great bodily |
21 | | harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection, |
22 | | inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled |
23 | | substance. |
24 | | (2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes |
25 | | him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat |
26 | | or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any |
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1 | | intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, |
2 | | anesthetic, or controlled substance, or gives to another |
3 | | person any food containing any substance or object |
4 | | intended to cause physical injury if eaten. |
5 | | (3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a |
6 | | correctional institution employee or Department of Human |
7 | | Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal |
8 | | fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling |
9 | | the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a |
10 | | penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or |
11 | | sexually violent person in the custody of the Department |
12 | | of Human Services. |
13 | | (h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated |
14 | | battery is a Class 3 felony. |
15 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4), |
16 | | (d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony. |
17 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or |
18 | | (g)(1) is a Class 1 felony. |
19 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a |
20 | | Class 1 felony when the aggravated battery was intentional and |
21 | | involved the infliction of torture, as defined in paragraph |
22 | | (14) of subsection (b) of Section 9-1 of this Code, as the |
23 | | infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, |
24 | | motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, |
25 | | suffering, or agony of the victim. |
26 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a |
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1 | | Class 2 felony when the person causes great bodily harm or |
2 | | permanent disability to an individual whom the person knows to |
3 | | be a member of a congregation engaged in prayer or other |
4 | | religious activities at a church, synagogue, mosque, or other |
5 | | building, structure, or place used for religious worship. |
6 | | Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a
Class 1 |
7 | | felony if: |
8 | | (A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous
|
9 | | instrument while committing the offense; |
10 | | (B) the person caused great bodily harm or
permanent |
11 | | disability or disfigurement to the other
person while |
12 | | committing the offense; or |
13 | | (C) the person has been previously convicted of a
|
14 | | violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this
|
15 | | State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other
|
16 | | state. |
17 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a |
18 | | Class X felony. |
19 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a |
20 | | Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term |
21 | | of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45 |
22 | | years. |
23 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a |
24 | | Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term |
25 | | of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45 |
26 | | years. |
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1 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2), |
2 | | (e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall |
3 | | be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years |
4 | | and a maximum of 60 years. |
5 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6), |
6 | | (e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall |
7 | | be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years |
8 | | and a maximum of 60 years. |
9 | | Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a |
10 | | Class X felony, except that: |
11 | | (1) if the person committed the offense while armed |
12 | | with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of |
13 | | imprisonment imposed by the court; |
14 | | (2) if, during the commission of the offense, the |
15 | | person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be |
16 | | added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court; |
17 | | (3) if, during the commission of the offense, the |
18 | | person personally discharged a firearm that proximately |
19 | | caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent |
20 | | disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up |
21 | | to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of |
22 | | imprisonment imposed by the court. |
23 | | (i) Definitions. In this Section: |
24 | | "Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has |
25 | | the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic |
26 | | Violence Shelters Act. |
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1 | | "Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in |
2 | | Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986. |
3 | | "Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other |
4 | | structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims |
5 | | or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence |
6 | | pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the |
7 | | Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet |
8 | | of such a building or other structure in the case of a person |
9 | | who is going to or from such a building or other structure. |
10 | | "Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 2-7.5 of |
11 | | this Code 1.1
of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act , |
12 | | and does
not include an air rifle as defined by Section |
13 | | 24.8-0.1 of this Code. |
14 | | "Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section |
15 | | 24-1 of this Code. |
16 | | "Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section |
17 | | 16-0.1 of this Code. |
18 | | "Strangle" means
intentionally impeding the normal |
19 | | breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by |
20 | | applying pressure on the throat
or neck of that individual or |
21 | | by blocking the nose or mouth of
that individual.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 101-223, eff. 1-1-20; 101-651, eff. 8-7-20.)
|
23 | | (720 ILCS 5/16-0.1) |
24 | | Sec. 16-0.1. Definitions. In this Article, unless the |
25 | | context clearly requires otherwise, the following terms are |
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1 | | defined as indicated: |
2 | | "Access" means to use, instruct, communicate with, store |
3 | | data in, retrieve or intercept data from, or otherwise utilize |
4 | | any services of a computer. |
5 | | "Coin-operated machine" includes any automatic vending |
6 | | machine or any part thereof, parking meter, coin telephone, |
7 | | coin-operated transit turnstile, transit fare box, coin |
8 | | laundry machine, coin dry cleaning machine, amusement machine, |
9 | | music machine, vending machine dispensing goods or services, |
10 | | or money changer. |
11 | | "Communication device" means any type of instrument, |
12 | | device, machine, or equipment which is capable of |
13 | | transmitting, acquiring, decrypting, or receiving any |
14 | | telephonic, electronic, data, Internet access, audio, video, |
15 | | microwave, or radio transmissions, signals, communications, or |
16 | | services, including the receipt, acquisition, transmission, or |
17 | | decryption of all such communications, transmissions, signals, |
18 | | or services provided by or through any cable television, fiber |
19 | | optic, telephone, satellite, microwave, radio, Internet-based, |
20 | | data transmission, or wireless distribution network, system or |
21 | | facility; or any part, accessory, or component thereof, |
22 | | including any computer circuit, security module, smart card, |
23 | | software, computer chip, electronic mechanism or other |
24 | | component, accessory or part of any communication device which |
25 | | is capable of facilitating the transmission, decryption, |
26 | | acquisition or reception of all such communications, |
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1 | | transmissions, signals, or services. |
2 | | "Communication service" means any service lawfully |
3 | | provided for a charge or compensation to facilitate the lawful |
4 | | origination, transmission, emission, or reception of signs, |
5 | | signals, data, writings, images, and sounds or intelligence of |
6 | | any nature by telephone, including cellular telephones or a |
7 | | wire, wireless, radio, electromagnetic, photo-electronic or |
8 | | photo-optical system; and also any service lawfully provided |
9 | | by any radio, telephone, cable television, fiber optic, |
10 | | satellite, microwave, Internet-based or wireless distribution |
11 | | network, system, facility or technology, including, but not |
12 | | limited to, any and all electronic, data, video, audio, |
13 | | Internet access, telephonic, microwave and radio |
14 | | communications, transmissions, signals and services, and any |
15 | | such communications, transmissions, signals and services |
16 | | lawfully provided directly or indirectly by or through any of |
17 | | those networks, systems, facilities or technologies. |
18 | | "Communication service provider" means: (1) any person or |
19 | | entity providing any communication service, whether directly |
20 | | or indirectly, as a reseller, including, but not limited to, a |
21 | | cellular, paging or other wireless communications company or |
22 | | other person or entity which, for a fee, supplies the |
23 | | facility, cell site, mobile telephone switching office or |
24 | | other equipment or communication service; (2) any person or |
25 | | entity owning or operating any cable television, fiber optic, |
26 | | satellite, telephone, wireless, microwave, radio, data |
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1 | | transmission or Internet-based distribution network, system or |
2 | | facility; and (3) any person or entity providing any |
3 | | communication service directly or indirectly by or through any |
4 | | such distribution system, network or facility. |
5 | | "Computer" means a device that accepts, processes, stores, |
6 | | retrieves or outputs data, and includes but is not limited to |
7 | | auxiliary storage and telecommunications devices connected to |
8 | | computers. |
9 | | "Continuing
course of conduct" means a series of acts, and |
10 | | the accompanying
mental state necessary for the crime in |
11 | | question, irrespective
of whether the series of acts are |
12 | | continuous or intermittent. |
13 | | "Delivery container" means any bakery basket of wire or |
14 | | plastic used to transport or store bread or bakery products, |
15 | | any dairy case of wire or plastic used to transport or store |
16 | | dairy products, and any dolly or cart of 2 or 4 wheels used to |
17 | | transport or store any bakery or dairy product. |
18 | | "Document-making implement" means any implement, |
19 | | impression, template, computer file, computer disc, electronic |
20 | | device, computer hardware, computer software, instrument, or |
21 | | device that is used to make a real or fictitious or fraudulent |
22 | | personal identification document. |
23 | | "Financial transaction device" means any of the following: |
24 | | (1) An electronic funds transfer card. |
25 | | (2) A credit card. |
26 | | (3) A debit card. |
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1 | | (4) A point-of-sale card. |
2 | | (5) Any instrument, device, card, plate, code, account |
3 | | number, personal identification number, or a record or |
4 | | copy of a code, account number, or personal identification |
5 | | number or other means of access to a credit account or |
6 | | deposit account, or a driver's license or State |
7 | | identification card used to access a proprietary account, |
8 | | other than access originated solely by a paper instrument, |
9 | | that can be used alone or in conjunction with another |
10 | | access device, for any of the following purposes: |
11 | | (A) Obtaining money, cash refund or credit |
12 | | account, credit, goods, services, or any other thing |
13 | | of value. |
14 | | (B) Certifying or guaranteeing to a person or |
15 | | business the availability to the device holder of |
16 | | funds on deposit to honor a draft or check payable to |
17 | | the order of that person or business. |
18 | | (C) Providing the device holder access to a |
19 | | deposit account for the purpose of making deposits, |
20 | | withdrawing funds, transferring funds between deposit |
21 | | accounts, obtaining information pertaining to a |
22 | | deposit account, or making an electronic funds |
23 | | transfer. |
24 | | "Full retail value" means the merchant's stated or |
25 | | advertised price of the merchandise. "Full
retail value" |
26 | | includes the aggregate value of property obtained
from retail |
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1 | | thefts committed by the same person as part of a
continuing |
2 | | course of conduct from one or more mercantile
establishments |
3 | | in a single transaction or in separate
transactions over a |
4 | | period of one year. |
5 | | "Internet" means an interactive computer service or system |
6 | | or an information service, system, or access software provider |
7 | | that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to |
8 | | a computer server, and includes, but is not limited to, an |
9 | | information service, system, or access software provider that |
10 | | provides access to a network system commonly known as the |
11 | | Internet, or any comparable system or service and also |
12 | | includes, but is not limited to, a World Wide Web page, |
13 | | newsgroup, message board, mailing list, or chat area on any |
14 | | interactive computer service or system or other online |
15 | | service. |
16 | | "Library card" means a card or plate issued by a library |
17 | | facility for purposes of identifying the person to whom the |
18 | | library card was issued as authorized to borrow library |
19 | | material, subject to all limitations and conditions imposed on |
20 | | the borrowing by the library facility issuing such card. |
21 | | "Library facility" includes any public library or museum, |
22 | | or any library or museum of an educational, historical or |
23 | | eleemosynary institution, organization or society. |
24 | | "Library material" includes any book, plate, picture, |
25 | | photograph, engraving, painting, sculpture, statue, artifact, |
26 | | drawing, map, newspaper, pamphlet, broadside, magazine, |
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1 | | manuscript, document, letter, microfilm, sound recording, |
2 | | audiovisual material, magnetic or other tape, electronic data |
3 | | processing record or other documentary, written or printed |
4 | | material regardless of physical form or characteristics, or |
5 | | any part thereof, belonging to, or on loan to or otherwise in |
6 | | the custody of a library facility. |
7 | | "Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful access device" |
8 | | means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful access device |
9 | | or to modify, alter, program or re-program any instrument, |
10 | | device, machine, equipment or software so that it is capable |
11 | | of defeating or circumventing any technology, device or |
12 | | software used by the provider, owner or licensee of a |
13 | | communication service or of any data, audio or video programs |
14 | | or transmissions to protect any such communication, data, |
15 | | audio or video services, programs or transmissions from |
16 | | unauthorized access, acquisition, disclosure, receipt, |
17 | | decryption, communication, transmission or re-transmission. |
18 | | "Manufacture or assembly of an unlawful communication |
19 | | device" means to make, produce or assemble an unlawful |
20 | | communication or wireless device or to modify, alter, program |
21 | | or reprogram a communication or wireless device to be capable |
22 | | of acquiring, disrupting, receiving, transmitting, decrypting, |
23 | | or facilitating the acquisition, disruption, receipt, |
24 | | transmission or decryption of, a communication service without |
25 | | the express consent or express authorization of the |
26 | | communication service provider, or to knowingly assist others |
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1 | | in those activities. |
2 | | "Master sound recording" means the original physical |
3 | | object on which a given set of sounds were first recorded and |
4 | | which the original object from which all subsequent sound |
5 | | recordings embodying the same set of sounds are directly or |
6 | | indirectly derived. |
7 | | "Merchandise" means any item of tangible personal |
8 | | property, including motor fuel. |
9 | | "Merchant" means an owner or operator of any retail |
10 | | mercantile establishment or any agent, employee, lessee, |
11 | | consignee, officer, director, franchisee, or independent |
12 | | contractor of the owner or operator. "Merchant" also means a |
13 | | person who receives from an authorized user of a payment card, |
14 | | or someone the person believes to be an authorized user, a |
15 | | payment card or information from a payment card, or what the |
16 | | person believes to be a payment card or information from a |
17 | | payment card, as the instrument for obtaining, purchasing or |
18 | | receiving goods, services, money, or anything else of value |
19 | | from the person. |
20 | | "Motor fuel" means a liquid, regardless of its properties, |
21 | | used to propel a vehicle, including gasoline and diesel. |
22 | | "Online" means the use of any electronic or wireless |
23 | | device to access the Internet. |
24 | | "Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit |
25 | | card, or any other card that is issued to an authorized card |
26 | | user and that allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive |
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1 | | goods, services, money, or anything else of value from a |
2 | | merchant. |
3 | | "Person with a disability" means a person who
suffers from |
4 | | a physical or mental impairment resulting from
disease, |
5 | | injury, functional disorder or congenital condition that |
6 | | impairs the
individual's mental or physical ability to |
7 | | independently manage his or her
property or financial |
8 | | resources, or both. |
9 | | "Personal identification document" means a birth |
10 | | certificate, a driver's license, a State identification card, |
11 | | a public, government, or private employment identification |
12 | | card, a social security card, a license issued under the |
13 | | Firearm Concealed Carry Act firearm owner's identification |
14 | | card , a credit card, a debit card, or a passport issued to or |
15 | | on behalf of a person other than the offender, or any document |
16 | | made or issued, or falsely purported to have been made or |
17 | | issued, by or under the authority of the United States |
18 | | Government, the State of Illinois, or any other state |
19 | | political subdivision of any state, or any other governmental |
20 | | or quasi-governmental organization that is of a type intended |
21 | | for the purpose of identification of an individual, or any |
22 | | such document made or altered in a manner that it falsely |
23 | | purports to have been made on behalf of or issued to another |
24 | | person or by the authority of one who did not give that |
25 | | authority. |
26 | | "Personal identifying information" means any of the |
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1 | | following information: |
2 | | (1) A person's name. |
3 | | (2) A person's address. |
4 | | (3) A person's date of birth. |
5 | | (4) A person's telephone number. |
6 | | (5) A person's driver's license number or State of |
7 | | Illinois identification card as assigned by the Secretary |
8 | | of State of the State of Illinois or a similar agency of |
9 | | another state. |
10 | | (6) A person's social security number. |
11 | | (7) A person's public, private, or government |
12 | | employer, place of employment, or employment |
13 | | identification number. |
14 | | (8) The maiden name of a person's mother. |
15 | | (9) The number assigned to a person's depository |
16 | | account, savings account, or brokerage account. |
17 | | (10) The number assigned to a person's credit or debit |
18 | | card, commonly known as a "Visa Card", "MasterCard", |
19 | | "American Express Card", "Discover Card", or other similar |
20 | | cards whether issued by a financial institution, |
21 | | corporation, or business entity. |
22 | | (11) Personal identification numbers. |
23 | | (12) Electronic identification numbers. |
24 | | (13) Digital signals. |
25 | | (14) User names, passwords, and any other word, |
26 | | number, character or combination of the same usable in |
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1 | | whole or part to access information relating to a specific |
2 | | individual, or to the actions taken, communications made |
3 | | or received, or other activities or transactions of a |
4 | | specific individual. |
5 | | (15) Any other numbers or information which can be |
6 | | used to access a person's financial resources, or to |
7 | | identify a specific individual, or the actions taken, |
8 | | communications made or received, or other activities or |
9 | | transactions of a specific individual. |
10 | | "Premises of a retail mercantile establishment" includes, |
11 | | but is not limited to, the retail mercantile establishment; |
12 | | any common use areas in shopping centers; and all parking |
13 | | areas set aside by a merchant or on behalf of a merchant for |
14 | | the parking of vehicles for the convenience of the patrons of |
15 | | such retail mercantile establishment. |
16 | | "Public water, gas, or power supply, or other public |
17 | | services" mean any service subject to regulation by the |
18 | | Illinois Commerce Commission; any service furnished by a |
19 | | public utility that is owned and operated by any political |
20 | | subdivision, public institution of higher education or |
21 | | municipal corporation of this State; any service furnished by |
22 | | any public utility that is owned by such political |
23 | | subdivision, public institution of higher education, or |
24 | | municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or |
25 | | operating agents; any service furnished by an electric |
26 | | cooperative as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier |
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1 | | Act; or wireless service or other service regulated by the |
2 | | Federal Communications Commission. |
3 | | "Publish" means to communicate or disseminate information |
4 | | to any one or more persons, either orally, in person, or by |
5 | | telephone, radio or television or in writing of any kind, |
6 | | including, without limitation, a letter or memorandum, |
7 | | circular or handbill, newspaper or magazine article or book. |
8 | | "Radio frequency identification device" means any |
9 | | implement, computer file, computer disc, electronic device, |
10 | | computer hardware, computer software, or instrument that is |
11 | | used to activate, read, receive, or decode information stored |
12 | | on a RFID tag or transponder attached to a personal |
13 | | identification document. |
14 | | "RFID tag or transponder" means a chip or device that |
15 | | contains personal identifying information from which the |
16 | | personal identifying information can be read or decoded by |
17 | | another device emitting a radio frequency that activates or |
18 | | powers a radio frequency emission response from the chip or |
19 | | transponder. |
20 | | "Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded |
21 | | information from the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment |
22 | | card onto the magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment |
23 | | card. |
24 | | "Retail mercantile establishment" means any place where |
25 | | merchandise is displayed, held, stored or offered for sale to |
26 | | the public. |
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1 | | "Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other |
2 | | electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, |
3 | | memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information |
4 | | encoded on the magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card. |
5 | | "Shopping cart" means those push carts of the type or |
6 | | types which are commonly provided by grocery stores, drug |
7 | | stores or other retail mercantile establishments for the use |
8 | | of the public in transporting commodities in stores and |
9 | | markets and, incidentally, from the stores to a place outside |
10 | | the store. |
11 | | "Sound or audio visual recording" means any sound or audio |
12 | | visual phonograph record, disc, pre-recorded tape, film, wire, |
13 | | magnetic tape or other object, device or medium, now known or |
14 | | hereafter invented, by which sounds or images may be |
15 | | reproduced with or without the use of any additional machine, |
16 | | equipment or device. |
17 | | "Theft detection device remover" means any tool or device |
18 | | specifically designed and intended to be used to remove any |
19 | | theft detection device from any merchandise. |
20 | | "Under-ring" means to cause the cash register or other |
21 | | sales recording device to reflect less than the full retail |
22 | | value of the merchandise. |
23 | | "Unidentified sound or audio visual recording" means a |
24 | | sound or audio visual recording without the actual name and |
25 | | full and correct street address of the manufacturer, and the |
26 | | name of the actual performers or groups prominently and |
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1 | | legibly printed on the outside cover or jacket and on the label |
2 | | of such sound or audio visual recording. |
3 | | "Unlawful access device" means any type of instrument, |
4 | | device, machine, equipment, technology, or software which is |
5 | | primarily possessed, used, designed, assembled, manufactured, |
6 | | sold, distributed or offered, promoted or advertised for the |
7 | | purpose of defeating or circumventing any technology, device |
8 | | or software, or any component or part thereof, used by the |
9 | | provider, owner or licensee of any communication service or of |
10 | | any data, audio or video programs or transmissions to protect |
11 | | any such communication, audio or video services, programs or |
12 | | transmissions from unauthorized access, acquisition, receipt, |
13 | | decryption, disclosure, communication, transmission or |
14 | | re-transmission. |
15 | | "Unlawful communication device" means any electronic |
16 | | serial number, mobile identification number, personal |
17 | | identification number or any communication or wireless device |
18 | | that is capable of acquiring or facilitating the acquisition |
19 | | of a communication service without the express consent or |
20 | | express authorization of the communication service provider, |
21 | | or that has been altered, modified, programmed or |
22 | | reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with another |
23 | | communication or wireless device or other equipment, to so |
24 | | acquire or facilitate the unauthorized acquisition of a |
25 | | communication service. "Unlawful communication device" also |
26 | | means: |
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1 | | (1) any phone altered to obtain service without the |
2 | | express consent or express authorization of the |
3 | | communication service provider, tumbler phone, counterfeit |
4 | | or clone phone, tumbler microchip, counterfeit or clone |
5 | | microchip, scanning receiver of wireless communication |
6 | | service or other instrument capable of disguising its |
7 | | identity or location or of gaining unauthorized access to |
8 | | a communications or wireless system operated by a |
9 | | communication service provider; and |
10 | | (2) any communication or wireless device which is |
11 | | capable of, or has been altered, designed, modified, |
12 | | programmed or reprogrammed, alone or in conjunction with |
13 | | another communication or wireless device or devices, so as |
14 | | to be capable of, facilitating the disruption, |
15 | | acquisition, receipt, transmission or decryption of a |
16 | | communication service without the express consent or |
17 | | express authorization of the communication service |
18 | | provider, including, but not limited to, any device, |
19 | | technology, product, service, equipment, computer software |
20 | | or component or part thereof, primarily distributed, sold, |
21 | | designed, assembled, manufactured, modified, programmed, |
22 | | reprogrammed or used for the purpose of providing the |
23 | | unauthorized receipt of, transmission of, disruption of, |
24 | | decryption of, access to or acquisition of any |
25 | | communication service provided by any communication |
26 | | service provider. |
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1 | | "Vehicle" means a motor vehicle, motorcycle, or farm |
2 | | implement that is self-propelled and that uses motor fuel for |
3 | | propulsion. |
4 | | "Wireless device" includes any type of instrument, device, |
5 | | machine, or
equipment that is capable of transmitting or |
6 | | receiving telephonic, electronic
or
radio communications, or |
7 | | any part of such instrument, device, machine, or
equipment, or |
8 | | any computer circuit, computer chip, electronic mechanism, or
|
9 | | other component that is capable of facilitating the |
10 | | transmission or reception
of telephonic, electronic, or radio |
11 | | communications.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-388, eff. |
13 | | 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)
|
14 | | (720 ILCS 5/17-30) (was 720 ILCS 5/16C-2)
|
15 | | Sec. 17-30. Defaced, altered, or removed manufacturer or |
16 | | owner identification number. |
17 | | (a) Unlawful sale of household appliances. A person |
18 | | commits unlawful
sale of household
appliances when he or she |
19 | | knowingly, with the intent to defraud or deceive
another, |
20 | | keeps for sale, within any commercial
context, any household |
21 | | appliance with a missing, defaced, obliterated, or
otherwise |
22 | | altered manufacturer's identification number.
|
23 | | (b) Construction equipment identification defacement. A |
24 | | person commits construction equipment identification |
25 | | defacement when he or she knowingly changes,
alters, removes, |
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1 | | mutilates, or
obliterates a permanently affixed serial number, |
2 | | product identification number,
part number, component |
3 | | identification number, owner-applied identification,
or other |
4 | | mark of identification attached to or stamped, inscribed, |
5 | | molded,
or etched into a machine or other equipment, whether |
6 | | stationary or mobile
or self-propelled, or a part of such |
7 | | machine or equipment, used in the construction,
maintenance, |
8 | | or demolition of buildings, structures, bridges, tunnels, |
9 | | sewers,
utility pipes or lines, ditches or open cuts, roads, |
10 | | highways, dams, airports,
or waterways or in material handling |
11 | | for such projects. |
12 | | The trier of fact may infer that the defendant has |
13 | | knowingly changed, altered, removed, or obliterated the serial |
14 | | number, product identification number, part number, component |
15 | | identification number, owner-applied identification number, or |
16 | | other mark of identification, if the defendant was in |
17 | | possession of any machine or other equipment or a part of such |
18 | | machine
or equipment used in the construction, maintenance, or |
19 | | demolition of buildings,
structures, bridges, tunnels, sewers, |
20 | | utility pipes or lines, ditches or
open cuts, roads, highways, |
21 | | dams, airports, or waterways or in material handling
for such |
22 | | projects upon which any such serial number, product |
23 | | identification
number, part number, component identification |
24 | | number, owner-applied identification
number, or other mark of |
25 | | identification has been changed, altered,
removed, or |
26 | | obliterated. |
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1 | | (c) Defacement of manufacturer's serial number or |
2 | | identification mark. A person commits defacement of a |
3 | | manufacturer's serial number or identification mark when he or |
4 | | she knowingly removes, alters, defaces, covers, or destroys |
5 | | the
manufacturer's serial number or any other manufacturer's |
6 | | number or
distinguishing identification mark upon any machine |
7 | | or other article of
merchandise, other than a motor vehicle as |
8 | | defined in Section 1-146 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code or a |
9 | | firearm as defined in the Firearm Owners Identification Card |
10 | | Act , with the intent of concealing or destroying the
identity |
11 | | of such machine or other article of merchandise. |
12 | | (d) Sentence. |
13 | | (1) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a |
14 | | Class 4 felony if the value
of the appliance or appliances |
15 | | exceeds $1,000 and a Class B misdemeanor if
the value of |
16 | | the appliance or appliances is $1,000 or less.
|
17 | | (2) A violation of subsection (b) of this Section is a |
18 | | Class A misdemeanor. |
19 | | (3) A violation of subsection (c) of this Section is a |
20 | | Class B misdemeanor. |
21 | | (e) No liability shall be imposed upon any person for the |
22 | | unintentional
failure to comply with subsection (a).
|
23 | | (f) Definitions. In this Section: |
24 | | "Commercial context" means a continuing business |
25 | | enterprise conducted
for profit by any person whose primary |
26 | | business is the wholesale or retail
marketing of household |
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1 | | appliances, or a significant portion of whose business
or |
2 | | inventory consists of household appliances
kept or sold on a |
3 | | wholesale or retail basis. |
4 | | "Household appliance" means any gas or electric device or |
5 | | machine
marketed for use as home entertainment or for |
6 | | facilitating or expediting
household tasks or chores. The term |
7 | | shall include but not necessarily be
limited to refrigerators, |
8 | | freezers, ranges, radios, television sets, vacuum
cleaners, |
9 | | toasters, dishwashers, and other similar household items. |
10 | | "Manufacturer's identification number" means any serial |
11 | | number or
other similar numerical or alphabetical designation |
12 | | imprinted upon or attached
to or placed, stamped, or otherwise |
13 | | imprinted upon or attached to a household
appliance or item by |
14 | | the manufacturer for purposes of identifying a particular
|
15 | | appliance or item individually or by lot number. |
16 | | (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11 .)
|
17 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1)
|
18 | | Sec. 24-1. Unlawful use of weapons.
|
19 | | (a) A person commits the offense of unlawful use of |
20 | | weapons when
he knowingly:
|
21 | | (1) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or |
22 | | carries any bludgeon,
black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, |
23 | | sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon |
24 | | regardless of its composition, throwing star,
or any |
25 | | knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which |
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1 | | has a
blade that opens automatically by hand pressure |
2 | | applied to a button,
spring or other device in the handle |
3 | | of the knife, or a ballistic knife,
which is a device that |
4 | | propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means
of a |
5 | | coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or
|
6 | | (2) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same |
7 | | unlawfully
against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, |
8 | | dangerous knife, razor,
stiletto, broken bottle or other |
9 | | piece of glass, stun gun or taser or
any other dangerous or |
10 | | deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or
|
11 | | (2.5) Carries or possesses with intent to use the same |
12 | | unlawfully against another, any firearm in a church, |
13 | | synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place |
14 | | used for religious worship; or |
15 | | (3) Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a |
16 | | tear gas gun
projector or bomb or any object containing |
17 | | noxious liquid gas or
substance, other than an object |
18 | | containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas
or substance |
19 | | designed solely for personal defense carried by a person |
20 | | 18
years of age or older; or
|
21 | | (4) Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed |
22 | | on or about his
person except when on his land or in his |
23 | | own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of
business, or |
24 | | on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as |
25 | | an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, |
26 | | revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except
that
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1 | | this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect |
2 | | transportation of weapons
that meet one of the following |
3 | | conditions:
|
4 | | (i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
|
5 | | (ii) are not immediately accessible; or
|
6 | | (iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm |
7 | | carrying box,
shipping box, or other container by a |
8 | | person eligible under State and federal law to possess |
9 | | a firearm who has been issued a currently
valid |
10 | | Firearm Owner's
Identification Card ; or |
11 | | (iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with |
12 | | the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has |
13 | | been issued a currently valid license under the |
14 | | Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or
|
15 | | (5) Sets a spring gun; or
|
16 | | (6) Possesses any device or attachment of any kind |
17 | | designed, used or
intended for use in silencing the report |
18 | | of any firearm; or
|
19 | | (7) Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or |
20 | | carries:
|
21 | | (i) a machine gun, which shall be defined for the |
22 | | purposes of this
subsection as any weapon,
which |
23 | | shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily |
24 | | restored to shoot,
automatically more than one shot |
25 | | without manually reloading by a single
function of the |
26 | | trigger, including the frame or receiver
of any such |
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1 | | weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, |
2 | | or
carries any combination of parts designed or |
3 | | intended for
use in converting any weapon into a |
4 | | machine gun, or any combination or
parts from which a |
5 | | machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the
|
6 | | possession or under the control of a person;
|
7 | | (ii) any rifle having one or
more barrels less |
8 | | than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or |
9 | | more
barrels less than 18 inches in length or any |
10 | | weapon made from a rifle or
shotgun, whether by |
11 | | alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a |
12 | | weapon
as modified has an overall length of less than |
13 | | 26 inches; or
|
14 | | (iii) any
bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or |
15 | | other container containing an
explosive substance of |
16 | | over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such
as, but |
17 | | not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov |
18 | | cocktails or
artillery projectiles; or
|
19 | | (8) Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or |
20 | | taser or other
deadly weapon in any place which is |
21 | | licensed to sell intoxicating
beverages, or at any public |
22 | | gathering held pursuant to a license issued
by any |
23 | | governmental body or any public gathering at which an |
24 | | admission
is charged, excluding a place where a showing, |
25 | | demonstration or lecture
involving the exhibition of |
26 | | unloaded firearms is conducted.
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1 | | This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction |
2 | | or raffle of a firearm
held pursuant to
a license or permit |
3 | | issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to |
4 | | persons
engaged
in firearm safety training courses; or
|
5 | | (9) Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about |
6 | | his or her person any
pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser |
7 | | or firearm or ballistic knife, when
he or she is hooded, |
8 | | robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his or her |
9 | | identity; or
|
10 | | (10) Carries or possesses on or about his or her |
11 | | person, upon any public street,
alley, or other public |
12 | | lands within the corporate limits of a city, village,
or |
13 | | incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or |
14 | | therein, for the
purpose of the display of such weapon or |
15 | | the lawful commerce in weapons, or
except when on his land |
16 | | or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place |
17 | | of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of |
18 | | another person as an invitee with that person's |
19 | | permission, any
pistol, revolver, stun gun, or taser or |
20 | | other firearm, except that this
subsection (a) (10) does |
21 | | not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that
meet |
22 | | one of the following conditions:
|
23 | | (i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
|
24 | | (ii) are not immediately accessible; or
|
25 | | (iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm |
26 | | carrying box,
shipping box, or other container by a |
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1 | | person eligible under State and federal law to possess |
2 | | a firearm who has been issued a currently
valid |
3 | | Firearm Owner's
Identification Card ; or
|
4 | | (iv) are carried or possessed in accordance with |
5 | | the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has |
6 | | been issued a currently valid license under the |
7 | | Firearm Concealed Carry Act. |
8 | | A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) |
9 | | means (i) any device
which is powered by electrical |
10 | | charging units, such as, batteries, and
which fires one or |
11 | | several barbs attached to a length of wire and
which, upon |
12 | | hitting a human, can send out a current capable of |
13 | | disrupting
the person's nervous system in such a manner as |
14 | | to render him incapable of
normal functioning or (ii) any |
15 | | device which is powered by electrical
charging units, such |
16 | | as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or
|
17 | | clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of |
18 | | disrupting
the person's nervous system in such a manner as |
19 | | to render him incapable
of normal functioning; or
|
20 | | (11) Sells, manufactures, or purchases any explosive |
21 | | bullet. For purposes
of this paragraph (a) "explosive |
22 | | bullet" means the projectile portion of
an ammunition |
23 | | cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge |
24 | | which
will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human |
25 | | or an animal.
"Cartridge" means a tubular metal case |
26 | | having a projectile affixed at the
front thereof and a cap |
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1 | | or primer at the rear end thereof, with the
propellant |
2 | | contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; |
3 | | or
|
4 | | (12) (Blank); or
|
5 | | (13) Carries or possesses on or about his or her |
6 | | person while in a building occupied by a unit of |
7 | | government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, |
8 | | or other instrument of like character intended for use as |
9 | | a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" |
10 | | means a short stick or club commonly carried by police |
11 | | officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a |
12 | | solid piece of wood or other man-made material. |
13 | | (b) Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of |
14 | | subsection 24-1(a)(1)
through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10),
|
15 | | subsection 24-1(a)(11), or subsection 24-1(a)(13) commits a |
16 | | Class A
misdemeanor.
A person convicted of a violation of |
17 | | subsection
24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a
Class 4 felony; |
18 | | a person
convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6) or |
19 | | 24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii)
commits a Class 3 felony. A person |
20 | | convicted of a violation of subsection
24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a |
21 | | Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment |
22 | | of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the |
23 | | weapon is possessed in the
passenger compartment of a motor |
24 | | vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the
Illinois Vehicle |
25 | | Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which
|
26 | | case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a
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1 | | second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), |
2 | | 24-1(a)(8),
24-1(a)(9), or
24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3 |
3 | | felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection |
4 | | 24-1(a)(2.5) commits a Class 2 felony. The possession of each |
5 | | weapon in violation of this Section constitutes a single and |
6 | | separate violation.
|
7 | | (c) Violations in specific places.
|
8 | | (1) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or |
9 | | 24-1(a)(7) in any
school, regardless of the time of day or |
10 | | the time of year, in residential
property owned, operated |
11 | | or managed by a public housing agency or
leased by
a public |
12 | | housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income
|
13 | | development, in a
public park, in a courthouse, on the |
14 | | real property comprising any school,
regardless of the
|
15 | | time of day or the time of year, on residential property |
16 | | owned, operated
or
managed by a public housing agency
or |
17 | | leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered |
18 | | site or
mixed-income development,
on the real property |
19 | | comprising any
public park, on the real property |
20 | | comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance
owned, leased |
21 | | or contracted by a school to
transport students to or from |
22 | | school or a school related activity, in any conveyance
|
23 | | owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation |
24 | | agency, or on any
public way within 1,000 feet of the real |
25 | | property comprising any school,
public park, courthouse, |
26 | | public transportation facility, or residential property |
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1 | | owned, operated, or managed
by a public housing agency
or |
2 | | leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered |
3 | | site or
mixed-income development
commits a Class 2 felony |
4 | | and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not |
5 | | less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.
|
6 | | (1.5) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), |
7 | | 24-1(a)(9), or
24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of |
8 | | the time of day or the time of year,
in residential |
9 | | property owned, operated, or managed by a public
housing
|
10 | | agency
or leased by a public housing agency as part of a |
11 | | scattered site or
mixed-income development,
in
a public
|
12 | | park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any |
13 | | school, regardless
of the time of day or the time of year, |
14 | | on residential property owned,
operated, or managed by a |
15 | | public housing agency
or leased by a public housing agency |
16 | | as part of a scattered site or
mixed-income development,
|
17 | | on the real property
comprising any public park, on the |
18 | | real property comprising any courthouse, in
any conveyance |
19 | | owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport |
20 | | students
to or from school or a school related activity, |
21 | | in any conveyance
owned, leased, or contracted by a public |
22 | | transportation agency, or on any public way within
1,000 |
23 | | feet of the real property comprising any school, public |
24 | | park, courthouse,
public transportation facility, or |
25 | | residential property owned, operated, or managed by a |
26 | | public
housing agency
or leased by a public housing agency |
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1 | | as part of a scattered site or
mixed-income development
|
2 | | commits a Class 3 felony.
|
3 | | (2) A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), |
4 | | 24-1(a)(2), or
24-1(a)(3)
in any school, regardless of the |
5 | | time of day or the time of year, in
residential property |
6 | | owned, operated or managed by a public housing
agency
or |
7 | | leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered |
8 | | site or
mixed-income development,
in
a public park, in a |
9 | | courthouse, on the real property comprising any school,
|
10 | | regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on |
11 | | residential property
owned, operated or managed by a |
12 | | public housing agency
or leased by a public housing agency |
13 | | as part of a scattered site or
mixed-income development,
|
14 | | on the real property
comprising any public park, on the |
15 | | real property comprising any courthouse, in
any conveyance |
16 | | owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport |
17 | | students
to or from school or a school related activity, |
18 | | in any conveyance
owned, leased, or contracted by a public |
19 | | transportation agency, or on any public way within
1,000 |
20 | | feet of the real property comprising any school, public |
21 | | park, courthouse,
public transportation facility, or |
22 | | residential property owned, operated, or managed by a |
23 | | public
housing agency or leased by a public housing agency |
24 | | as part of a scattered
site or mixed-income development |
25 | | commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse"
means any building |
26 | | that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court |
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1 | | of
this State for the conduct of official business.
|
2 | | (3) Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection |
3 | | (c) shall not
apply to law
enforcement officers or |
4 | | security officers of such school, college, or
university |
5 | | or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in |
6 | | training
courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on |
7 | | school ranges, or otherwise with
the consent of school |
8 | | authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded
|
9 | | enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation |
10 | | package.
|
11 | | (4) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" |
12 | | means any public or
private elementary or secondary |
13 | | school, community college, college, or
university.
|
14 | | (5) For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public |
15 | | transportation agency" means a public or private agency |
16 | | that provides for the transportation or conveyance of
|
17 | | persons by means available to the general public, except |
18 | | for transportation
by automobiles not used for conveyance |
19 | | of the general public as passengers; and "public |
20 | | transportation facility" means a terminal or other place
|
21 | | where one may obtain public transportation.
|
22 | | (d) The presence in an automobile other than a public |
23 | | omnibus of any
weapon, instrument or substance referred to in |
24 | | subsection (a)(7) is
prima facie evidence that it is in the |
25 | | possession of, and is being
carried by, all persons occupying |
26 | | such automobile at the time such
weapon, instrument or |
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1 | | substance is found, except under the following
circumstances: |
2 | | (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is
found |
3 | | upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if |
4 | | such
weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile |
5 | | operated for
hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful |
6 | | and proper pursuit of
his or her trade, then such presumption |
7 | | shall not apply to the driver.
|
8 | | (e) Exemptions. |
9 | | (1) Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater
|
10 | | Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic |
11 | | knife as defined in
paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of |
12 | | this Section. |
13 | | (2) The provision of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) |
14 | | of this Section prohibiting the sale, manufacture, |
15 | | purchase, possession, or carrying of any knife, commonly |
16 | | referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a
blade that |
17 | | opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button,
|
18 | | spring or other device in the handle of the knife, does not |
19 | | apply to a person eligible under State and federal law to |
20 | | possess a firearm who possesses a currently valid Firearm |
21 | | Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or |
22 | | her name by the Department of State Police or to a person |
23 | | or an entity engaged in the business of selling or |
24 | | manufacturing switchblade knives.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 100-82, eff. 8-11-17; 101-223, eff. 1-1-20 .)
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1 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-1.1)
|
2 | | Sec. 24-1.1. Unlawful use or possession of weapons by |
3 | | felons or
persons in the custody of the
Department of |
4 | | Corrections facilities. |
5 | | (a) It is unlawful
for a person to knowingly possess on or |
6 | | about his person or on his land or
in his own abode or fixed |
7 | | place of business any weapon prohibited under
Section 24-1 of |
8 | | this Act or any firearm or any firearm ammunition if the
person |
9 | | has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State or |
10 | | any
other jurisdiction. This Section shall not apply if the |
11 | | person has been
granted relief under this subsection by the |
12 | | Director of the Department of State Police
under Section 10 of |
13 | | the Firearm Owners Identification
Card Act . A person |
14 | | prohibited from possessing a firearm under this subsection (a) |
15 | | may petition the Director of State Police for a hearing and |
16 | | relief from the prohibition, unless the prohibition was based |
17 | | upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, |
18 | | domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled |
19 | | Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community |
20 | | Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified |
21 | | as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation of Article |
22 | | 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, |
23 | | or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the commission |
24 | | of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony, |
25 | | in which case the person may petition the circuit court in |
26 | | writing in the county of his or her residence for a hearing and |
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1 | | relief from the prohibition. The Director or court may grant |
2 | | the relief if it is established by the petitioner to the |
3 | | court's or Director's satisfaction that:
|
4 | | (1) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney |
5 | | has been served with a written copy of the petition at |
6 | | least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court and |
7 | | at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an |
8 | | opportunity to present evidence and object to the |
9 | | petition; |
10 | | (2) the petitioner has not been convicted of a
|
11 | | forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other |
12 | | jurisdiction within 20 years of the filing of the |
13 | | petition, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of |
14 | | any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that |
15 | | conviction; |
16 | | (3) the circumstances regarding a criminal
conviction, |
17 | | where applicable, the petitioner's criminal history and |
18 | | his or her reputation are such that the petitioner will |
19 | | not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public |
20 | | safety; |
21 | | (4) granting relief would not be contrary to the
|
22 | | public interest; and |
23 | | (5) granting relief would not be contrary to federal
|
24 | | law. |
25 | | (b) It is unlawful for any person confined in a penal |
26 | | institution,
which is a facility of the Illinois Department of |
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1 | | Corrections, to possess
any weapon prohibited under Section |
2 | | 24-1 of this Code or any firearm or
firearm ammunition, |
3 | | regardless of the intent with which he possesses it.
|
4 | | (c) It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of |
5 | | subsection (b), that such possession was specifically |
6 | | authorized by rule,
regulation, or directive of the Illinois |
7 | | Department of Corrections or order
issued pursuant thereto.
|
8 | | (d) The defense of necessity is not available to a person |
9 | | who is charged
with a violation of subsection (b) of this |
10 | | Section.
|
11 | | (e) Sentence. Violation of this Section by a person not |
12 | | confined
in a penal institution shall be a Class 3 felony
for |
13 | | which the person shall be sentenced to no less than 2 years and |
14 | | no
more than 10 years. A second or subsequent violation of this |
15 | | Section shall be a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be |
16 | | sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years |
17 | | and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section |
18 | | 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of |
19 | | this Section by a person not confined in a
penal institution |
20 | | who has been convicted of a forcible felony, a felony
|
21 | | violation of Article 24 of this Code or of the Firearm Owners |
22 | | Identification
Card Act , stalking or aggravated stalking, or a |
23 | | Class 2 or greater felony
under the Illinois Controlled |
24 | | Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the |
25 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is a
|
26 | | Class 2 felony for which the person
shall be sentenced to not |
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1 | | less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as |
2 | | provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of |
3 | | Corrections.
Violation of this Section by a person who is on |
4 | | parole or mandatory supervised
release is a Class 2 felony for |
5 | | which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years |
6 | | and not more than 14
years, except as provided for in Section |
7 | | 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of |
8 | | this Section by a person not confined in a penal
institution is |
9 | | a Class X felony when the firearm possessed is a machine gun.
|
10 | | Any person who violates this Section while confined in a penal
|
11 | | institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of
|
12 | | Corrections, is guilty of a Class 1
felony, if he possesses any |
13 | | weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this
Code regardless |
14 | | of the intent with which he possesses it, a Class X
felony if |
15 | | he possesses any firearm, firearm ammunition or explosive, and |
16 | | a
Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to |
17 | | not less than 12
years and not more than 50 years when the |
18 | | firearm possessed is a machine
gun. A violation of this |
19 | | Section while wearing or in possession of body armor as |
20 | | defined in Section 33F-1 is a Class X felony punishable by a |
21 | | term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more |
22 | | than 40 years.
The possession of each firearm or firearm |
23 | | ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single |
24 | | and separate violation.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 100-3, eff. 1-1-18 .)
|
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1 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-1.6) |
2 | | Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon. |
3 | | (a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful |
4 | | use of a weapon when
he or she knowingly: |
5 | | (1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any |
6 | | vehicle or concealed
on or about his or her person except |
7 | | when on his or her land or in his or her
abode, legal |
8 | | dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in |
9 | | the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with |
10 | | that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun |
11 | | or taser or
other firearm; or |
12 | | (2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her |
13 | | person, upon any public
street, alley, or other public |
14 | | lands within the corporate limits of a city,
village or |
15 | | incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or |
16 | | therein, for
the purpose of the display of such weapon or |
17 | | the lawful commerce in weapons, or
except when on his or |
18 | | her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or |
19 | | fixed place of
business, or on the land or in the legal |
20 | | dwelling of another person as an invitee with that |
21 | | person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or |
22 | | taser or other firearm; and |
23 | | (3) One of the following factors is present: |
24 | | (A) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or |
25 | | handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and |
26 | | immediately accessible
at the time of the offense; or |
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1 | | (A-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed |
2 | | was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible
at the |
3 | | time of the offense and the person possessing the |
4 | | pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a |
5 | | currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed |
6 | | Carry Act; or |
7 | | (B) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or |
8 | | handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the |
9 | | ammunition for
the weapon was immediately accessible |
10 | | at the time of the offense; or |
11 | | (B-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed |
12 | | was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for
the |
13 | | weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the |
14 | | offense and the person possessing the pistol, |
15 | | revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently |
16 | | valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; |
17 | | or |
18 | | (C) (blank); or the person possessing the firearm |
19 | | has not been issued a currently
valid Firearm Owner's |
20 | | Identification Card; or |
21 | | (D) the person possessing the weapon was |
22 | | previously adjudicated
a delinquent minor under the |
23 | | Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if
committed |
24 | | by an adult would be a felony; or |
25 | | (E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged |
26 | | in a misdemeanor
violation of the Cannabis
Control |
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1 | | Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois |
2 | | Controlled Substances
Act, or in a misdemeanor |
3 | | violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community |
4 | | Protection Act; or |
5 | | (F) (blank); or |
6 | | (G) the person possessing the weapon had an order |
7 | | of protection issued
against him or her within the |
8 | | previous 2 years; or |
9 | | (H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged |
10 | | in the commission or
attempted commission of
a |
11 | | misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence |
12 | | against
the person or property of another; or |
13 | | (I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21 |
14 | | years of age and in
possession of a handgun, unless the |
15 | | person under 21
is engaged in lawful activities under |
16 | | the Wildlife Code or described in
subsection |
17 | | 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f). |
18 | | (a-5) "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning |
19 | | given to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. |
20 | | (b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the |
21 | | same definition
given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code. |
22 | | (c) This Section does not apply to or affect the |
23 | | transportation or
possession
of weapons that: |
24 | | (i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or |
25 | | (ii) are not immediately accessible; or |
26 | | (iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm |
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1 | | carrying box,
shipping box, or other container by a person |
2 | | is eligible under State and federal law to possess a |
3 | | firearm who has been issued a currently
valid Firearm |
4 | | Owner's
Identification Card . |
5 | | (d) Sentence. |
6 | | (1) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4 |
7 | | felony;
a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony |
8 | | for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of |
9 | | imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 |
10 | | years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the |
11 | | Unified Code of Corrections. |
12 | | (2) (Blank). Except as otherwise provided in |
13 | | paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (d), a first |
14 | | offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon committed |
15 | | with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or older where |
16 | | the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) or both items |
17 | | (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are |
18 | | present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person shall be |
19 | | sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than one |
20 | | year and not more than 3 years. |
21 | | (3) Aggravated unlawful use of
a weapon by a person |
22 | | who has been previously
convicted of a felony in this |
23 | | State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2
felony for |
24 | | which the person shall be sentenced to a term of |
25 | | imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 |
26 | | years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the |
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1 | | Unified Code of Corrections. |
2 | | (4) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing |
3 | | or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 |
4 | | by a person who is prohibited under State or federal law |
5 | | from possessing a firearm has not been issued a valid |
6 | | Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with |
7 | | Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is |
8 | | a Class X felony.
|
9 | | (e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this |
10 | | Section constitutes a single and separate violation. |
11 | | (Source: P.A. 100-3, eff. 1-1-18; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17 .) |
12 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-1.8) |
13 | | Sec. 24-1.8. Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street |
14 | | gang member. |
15 | | (a) A person
commits unlawful possession of a firearm by a |
16 | | street gang member when he or she knowingly: |
17 | | (1) possesses, carries, or conceals on or about his or |
18 | | her person a firearm and firearm ammunition while on any |
19 | | street, road, alley, gangway, sidewalk, or any other |
20 | | lands, except when inside his or her own abode or inside |
21 | | his or her fixed place of business, and has not been issued |
22 | | a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and |
23 | | is a member of a street gang; or |
24 | | (2) possesses or carries in any vehicle a firearm and |
25 | | firearm ammunition which are both immediately accessible |
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1 | | at the time of the offense while on any street, road, |
2 | | alley, or any other lands, except when inside his or her |
3 | | own abode or garage, and has not been issued a currently |
4 | | valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member |
5 | | of a street gang. |
6 | | (b) Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang |
7 | | member is a Class 2 felony for which the person, if sentenced |
8 | | to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to no less than 3 |
9 | | years and no more than 10 years. A period of probation, a term |
10 | | of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be |
11 | | imposed for the offense of unlawful possession of a firearm by |
12 | | a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained |
13 | | firearm ammunition and the court shall sentence the offender |
14 | | to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment authorized |
15 | | for the Class 2 felony. |
16 | | (c) For purposes of this Section: |
17 | | "Street gang" or "gang" has the meaning ascribed to it |
18 | | in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus |
19 | | Prevention Act. |
20 | | "Street gang member" or "gang member" has the meaning |
21 | | ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang |
22 | | Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
|
23 | | (Source: P.A. 96-829, eff. 12-3-09.)
|
24 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-2)
|
25 | | Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.
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1 | | (a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and |
2 | | 24-1(a)(13) and Section
24-1.6 do not apply to
or affect any of |
3 | | the following:
|
4 | | (1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace |
5 | | officer to
assist in making arrests or preserving the |
6 | | peace, while actually engaged in
assisting such officer.
|
7 | | (2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,
|
8 | | penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the |
9 | | detention of persons
accused or convicted of an offense, |
10 | | while in the performance of their
official duty, or while |
11 | | commuting between their homes and places of employment.
|
12 | | (3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of |
13 | | the United States
or the Illinois National Guard or the |
14 | | Reserve Officers Training Corps,
while in the performance |
15 | | of their official duty.
|
16 | | (4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public |
17 | | utility to
perform police functions, and guards of armored |
18 | | car companies, while
actually engaged in the performance |
19 | | of the duties of their employment or
commuting between |
20 | | their homes and places of employment; and watchmen
while |
21 | | actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their |
22 | | employment.
|
23 | | (5) Persons licensed as private security contractors, |
24 | | private
detectives, or private alarm contractors, or |
25 | | employed by a private security contractor, private |
26 | | detective, or private alarm contractor agency licensed
by |
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1 | | the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, |
2 | | if their duties
include the carrying of a weapon under the |
3 | | provisions of the Private
Detective, Private Alarm,
|
4 | | Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of |
5 | | 2004,
while actually
engaged in the performance of the |
6 | | duties of their employment or commuting
between their |
7 | | homes and places of employment. A person shall be |
8 | | considered eligible for this
exemption if he or she has |
9 | | completed the required 20
hours of training for a private |
10 | | security contractor, private
detective, or private alarm |
11 | | contractor, or employee of a licensed private security |
12 | | contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor |
13 | | agency and 20 hours of required firearm
training, and has |
14 | | been issued a firearm control card by
the Department of |
15 | | Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the |
16 | | renewal of
firearm control cards issued under the |
17 | | provisions of this Section
shall be the same as for those |
18 | | cards issued under the provisions of the
Private |
19 | | Detective, Private Alarm,
Private Security, Fingerprint |
20 | | Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The
firearm control |
21 | | card shall be carried by the private security contractor, |
22 | | private
detective, or private alarm contractor, or |
23 | | employee of the licensed private security contractor, |
24 | | private detective, or private alarm contractor agency at |
25 | | all
times when he or she is in possession of a concealable |
26 | | weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.
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1 | | (6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or |
2 | | industrial
operation as a security guard for the |
3 | | protection of persons employed
and private property |
4 | | related to such commercial or industrial
operation, while |
5 | | actually engaged in the performance of his or her
duty or |
6 | | traveling between sites or properties belonging to the
|
7 | | employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a |
8 | | security force registered with the Department of Financial |
9 | | and Professional
Regulation; provided that such security |
10 | | guard has successfully completed a
course of study, |
11 | | approved by and supervised by the Department of
Financial |
12 | | and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than |
13 | | 40 hours of training
that includes the theory of law |
14 | | enforcement, liability for acts, and the
handling of |
15 | | weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this
|
16 | | exemption if he or she has completed the required 20
hours |
17 | | of training for a security officer and 20 hours of |
18 | | required firearm
training, and has been issued a firearm |
19 | | control card by
the Department of Financial and |
20 | | Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of
|
21 | | firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this |
22 | | Section
shall be the same as for those cards issued under |
23 | | the provisions of the
Private Detective, Private Alarm,
|
24 | | Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of |
25 | | 2004. The
firearm control card shall be carried by the |
26 | | security guard at all
times when he or she is in possession |
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1 | | of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm |
2 | | control card.
|
3 | | (7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois |
4 | | Legislative Investigating
Commission authorized by the |
5 | | Commission to carry the weapons specified in
subsections |
6 | | 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of
|
7 | | any investigation for the Commission.
|
8 | | (8) Persons employed by a financial institution as a |
9 | | security guard for the protection of
other employees and |
10 | | property related to such financial institution, while
|
11 | | actually engaged in the performance of their duties, |
12 | | commuting between
their homes and places of employment, or |
13 | | traveling between sites or
properties owned or operated by |
14 | | such financial institution, and who, as a security guard, |
15 | | is a member of a security force registered with the |
16 | | Department; provided that
any person so employed has |
17 | | successfully completed a course of study,
approved by and |
18 | | supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional |
19 | | Regulation,
consisting of not less than 40 hours of |
20 | | training which includes theory of
law enforcement, |
21 | | liability for acts, and the handling of weapons.
A person |
22 | | shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if |
23 | | he or
she has completed the required 20 hours of training |
24 | | for a security officer
and 20 hours of required firearm |
25 | | training, and has been issued a
firearm control card by |
26 | | the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
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1 | | Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued |
2 | | under the
provisions of this Section shall be the same as |
3 | | for those issued under the
provisions of the Private |
4 | | Detective, Private Alarm,
Private Security, Fingerprint |
5 | | Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The
firearm control |
6 | | card shall be carried by the security guard at all times |
7 | | when he or she is in possession of a concealable
weapon |
8 | | permitted by his or her firearm control card. For purposes |
9 | | of this subsection, "financial institution" means a
bank, |
10 | | savings and loan association, credit union or company |
11 | | providing
armored car services.
|
12 | | (9) Any person employed by an armored car company to |
13 | | drive an armored
car, while actually engaged in the |
14 | | performance of his duties.
|
15 | | (10) Persons who have been classified as peace |
16 | | officers pursuant
to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation |
17 | | Act.
|
18 | | (11) Investigators of the Office of the State's |
19 | | Attorneys Appellate
Prosecutor authorized by the board of |
20 | | governors of the Office of the
State's Attorneys Appellate |
21 | | Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to
Section 7.06 of |
22 | | the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.
|
23 | | (12) Special investigators appointed by a State's |
24 | | Attorney under
Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.
|
25 | | (12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of |
26 | | their duties, or
while commuting between their homes, |
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1 | | places of employment or specific locations
that are part |
2 | | of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief |
3 | | judge of
the circuit for which they are employed, if they |
4 | | have received weapons training according
to requirements |
5 | | of the Peace Officer and Probation Officer Firearm |
6 | | Training Act.
|
7 | | (13) Court Security Officers while in the performance |
8 | | of their official
duties, or while commuting between their |
9 | | homes and places of employment, with
the
consent of the |
10 | | Sheriff.
|
11 | | (13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at |
12 | | a nuclear energy,
storage, weapons or development site or |
13 | | facility regulated by the Nuclear
Regulatory Commission |
14 | | who has completed the background screening and training
|
15 | | mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear |
16 | | Regulatory Commission.
|
17 | | (14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons |
18 | | to
persons
authorized under subdivisions (1) through |
19 | | (13.5) of this
subsection
to
possess those weapons.
|
20 | | (a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply |
21 | | to
or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver, |
22 | | or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid |
23 | | license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of |
24 | | the commission of the offense. |
25 | | (a-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply |
26 | | to
or affect a qualified current or retired law enforcement |
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1 | | officer qualified under the laws of this State or under the |
2 | | federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act. |
3 | | (b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section |
4 | | 24-1.6 do not
apply to or affect
any of the following:
|
5 | | (1) Members of any club or organization organized for |
6 | | the purpose of
practicing shooting at targets upon |
7 | | established target ranges, whether
public or private, and |
8 | | patrons of such ranges, while such members
or patrons are |
9 | | using their firearms on those target ranges.
|
10 | | (2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations |
11 | | while parading,
with the special permission of the |
12 | | Governor.
|
13 | | (3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or
|
14 | | permit while engaged in hunting,
trapping or fishing.
|
15 | | (4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in |
16 | | a
non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.
|
17 | | (5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun |
18 | | gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal |
19 | | dwelling of another person as an invitee with that |
20 | | person's permission. |
21 | | (c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any |
22 | | of the
following:
|
23 | | (1) Peace officers while in performance of their |
24 | | official duties.
|
25 | | (2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, |
26 | | penitentiaries,
jails and other institutions for the |
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1 | | detention of persons accused or
convicted of an offense.
|
2 | | (3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of |
3 | | the United States
or the Illinois National Guard, while in |
4 | | the performance of their official
duty.
|
5 | | (4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine |
6 | | guns to persons
authorized under subdivisions (1) through |
7 | | (3) of this subsection to
possess machine guns, if the |
8 | | machine guns are broken down in a
non-functioning state or |
9 | | are not immediately accessible.
|
10 | | (5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture |
11 | | any weapon from
which 8 or more shots or bullets can be |
12 | | discharged by a
single function of the firing device, or |
13 | | ammunition for such weapons, and
actually engaged in the |
14 | | business of manufacturing such weapons or
ammunition, but |
15 | | only with respect to activities which are within the |
16 | | lawful
scope of such business, such as the manufacture, |
17 | | transportation, or testing
of such weapons or ammunition. |
18 | | This exemption does not authorize the
general private |
19 | | possession of any weapon from which 8 or more
shots or |
20 | | bullets can be discharged by a single function of the |
21 | | firing
device, but only such possession and activities as |
22 | | are within the lawful
scope of a licensed manufacturing |
23 | | business described in this paragraph.
|
24 | | During transportation, such weapons shall be broken |
25 | | down in a
non-functioning state or not immediately |
26 | | accessible.
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1 | | (6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, |
2 | | transfer or sale,
and all lawful commercial or |
3 | | experimental activities necessary thereto, of
rifles, |
4 | | shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns,
or |
5 | | ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where |
6 | | engaged in
by a person operating as a contractor or |
7 | | subcontractor pursuant to a
contract or subcontract for |
8 | | the development and supply of such rifles,
shotguns, |
9 | | weapons or ammunition to the United States government or |
10 | | any
branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when |
11 | | such activities are
necessary and incident to fulfilling |
12 | | the terms of such contract.
|
13 | | The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6)
|
14 | | shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such |
15 | | contractor or
subcontractor who is operating within the |
16 | | scope of his employment, where
such activities involving |
17 | | such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary
and |
18 | | incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.
|
19 | | (7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or |
20 | | barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person |
21 | | has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. |
22 | | Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or |
23 | | (B) the person is an active member of a bona fide, |
24 | | nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the |
25 | | modification is required and necessary to accurately |
26 | | portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; |
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1 | | the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current |
2 | | re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall |
3 | | length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 |
4 | | inches. |
5 | | (d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, |
6 | | possession
or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a |
7 | | peace officer.
|
8 | | (e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, |
9 | | manager or
authorized employee of any place specified in that |
10 | | subsection nor to any
law enforcement officer.
|
11 | | (f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and |
12 | | Section 24-1.6
do not apply
to members of any club or |
13 | | organization organized for the purpose of practicing
shooting |
14 | | at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or |
15 | | private,
while using their firearms on those target ranges.
|
16 | | (g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply |
17 | | to:
|
18 | | (1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of |
19 | | the United
States or the Illinois National Guard, while in |
20 | | the performance of their
official duty.
|
21 | | (2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military |
22 | | ordnance.
|
23 | | (3) Laboratories having a department of forensic |
24 | | ballistics, or
specializing in the development of |
25 | | ammunition or explosive ordnance.
|
26 | | (4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of |
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1 | | explosive
bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed |
2 | | by the federal government,
in connection with the supply |
3 | | of those organizations and persons exempted
by subdivision |
4 | | (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons
|
5 | | outside this State, or the transportation of explosive |
6 | | bullets to any
organization or person exempted in this |
7 | | Section by a common carrier or by a
vehicle owned or leased |
8 | | by an exempted manufacturer.
|
9 | | (g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect |
10 | | persons licensed
under federal law to manufacture any device |
11 | | or attachment of any kind designed,
used, or intended for use |
12 | | in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or
|
13 | | ammunition
for those firearms equipped with those devices, and |
14 | | actually engaged in the
business of manufacturing those |
15 | | devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with
respect to
|
16 | | activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, |
17 | | such as the
manufacture, transportation, or testing of those |
18 | | devices, firearms, or
ammunition. This
exemption does not |
19 | | authorize the general private possession of any device or
|
20 | | attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in |
21 | | silencing the
report of any firearm, but only such possession |
22 | | and activities as are within
the
lawful scope of a licensed |
23 | | manufacturing business described in this subsection
(g-5). |
24 | | During transportation, these devices shall be detached from |
25 | | any weapon
or
not immediately accessible.
|
26 | | (g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section
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1 | | 24-1.6 do not apply to
or affect any parole agent or parole |
2 | | supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions |
3 | | prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of |
4 | | Corrections. |
5 | | (g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace |
6 | | officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team |
7 | | or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally |
8 | | own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any |
9 | | kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the |
10 | | report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and |
11 | | maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose |
12 | | duties include the investigation of criminal acts. |
13 | | (g-10) Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and |
14 | | 24-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an |
15 | | athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and |
16 | | Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of |
17 | | competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic |
18 | | Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the |
19 | | International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in |
20 | | connection with such athlete's training for and participation |
21 | | in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic |
22 | | Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 |
23 | | Olympic and Paralympic Games. |
24 | | (h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of |
25 | | any
subsection of this Article need not negative any |
26 | | exemptions contained in
this Article. The defendant shall have |
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1 | | the burden of proving such an
exemption.
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2 | | (i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or |
3 | | affect
the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any |
4 | | pistol or revolver,
stun gun, taser, or other firearm |
5 | | consigned to a common carrier operating
under license of the |
6 | | State of Illinois or the federal government, where
such |
7 | | transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the |
8 | | lawful
transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; |
9 | | and nothing in this
Article shall prohibit, apply to, or |
10 | | affect the transportation, carrying,
or possession of any |
11 | | pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm,
not the |
12 | | subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or |
13 | | subsection
24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and |
14 | | enclosed in a case, firearm
carrying box, shipping box, or |
15 | | other container, by a person eligible under State and federal |
16 | | law to possess a firearm the possessor of a valid
Firearm |
17 | | Owners Identification Card .
|
18 | | (Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 101-80, eff. 7-12-19.)
|
19 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3)
|
20 | | Sec. 24-3. Unlawful sale or delivery of firearms.
|
21 | | (A) A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or |
22 | | delivery of firearms when he
or she knowingly does any of the |
23 | | following:
|
24 | | (a) Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be |
25 | | concealed upon the
person to any person under 18 years of |
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1 | | age.
|
2 | | (b) Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 |
3 | | years of age who has
been convicted of a misdemeanor other |
4 | | than a traffic offense or adjudged
delinquent.
|
5 | | (c) Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.
|
6 | | (d) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has |
7 | | been convicted of a
felony under the laws of this or any |
8 | | other jurisdiction.
|
9 | | (e) Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has |
10 | | been a patient in a
mental institution within the past 5 |
11 | | years. In this subsection (e): |
12 | | "Mental institution" means any hospital, |
13 | | institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental |
14 | | health center, or part thereof, which is used |
15 | | primarily for the care or treatment of persons with |
16 | | mental illness. |
17 | | "Patient in a mental institution" means the person |
18 | | was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to |
19 | | a mental institution for mental health treatment, |
20 | | unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an |
21 | | alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary |
22 | | substance abuse disorder or mental illness.
|
23 | | (f) Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is a |
24 | | person with an intellectual disability.
|
25 | | (g) Delivers any firearm, incidental to a sale, |
26 | | without withholding delivery of the firearm
for at least |
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1 | | 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, |
2 | | or
delivers a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale,
|
3 | | without withholding delivery of the stun gun or taser for
|
4 | | at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has |
5 | | been made.
However,
this paragraph (g) does not apply to: |
6 | | (1) the sale of a firearm
to a law enforcement officer if |
7 | | the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he |
8 | | or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer |
9 | | or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to |
10 | | purchase a firearm for
use in promoting the public |
11 | | interest incident to his or her employment as a
bank |
12 | | guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment; (2) |
13 | | a mail
order sale of a firearm from a federally licensed |
14 | | firearms dealer to a nonresident of Illinois under which |
15 | | the firearm
is mailed to a federally licensed firearms |
16 | | dealer outside the boundaries of Illinois; (3) (blank); |
17 | | (4) the sale of a
firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal |
18 | | firearms dealer under Section 923
of the federal Gun |
19 | | Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923); or (5) the transfer or |
20 | | sale of any rifle, shotgun, or other long gun to a resident |
21 | | registered competitor or attendee or non-resident |
22 | | registered competitor or attendee by any dealer licensed |
23 | | as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the |
24 | | federal Gun Control Act of 1968 at competitive shooting |
25 | | events held at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a |
26 | | national governing body. For purposes of transfers or |
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1 | | sales under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph (g), the |
2 | | Department of Natural Resources shall give notice to the |
3 | | Department of State Police at least 30 calendar days prior |
4 | | to any competitive shooting events at the World Shooting |
5 | | Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. The |
6 | | notification shall be made on a form prescribed by the |
7 | | Department of State Police. The sanctioning body shall |
8 | | provide a list of all registered competitors and attendees |
9 | | at least 24 hours before the events to the Department of |
10 | | State Police. Any changes to the list of registered |
11 | | competitors and attendees shall be forwarded to the |
12 | | Department of State Police as soon as practicable. The |
13 | | Department of State Police must destroy the list of |
14 | | registered competitors and attendees no later than 30 days |
15 | | after the date of the event. Nothing in this paragraph (g) |
16 | | relieves a federally licensed firearm dealer from the |
17 | | requirements of conducting a NICS background check through |
18 | | the Illinois Point of Contact under 18 U.S.C. 922(t). For |
19 | | purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when |
20 | | the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a |
21 | | firearm.
For purposes of this paragraph (g), "national |
22 | | governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules |
23 | | and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm |
24 | | sporting organization.
|
25 | | (h) While holding any license
as a dealer,
importer, |
26 | | manufacturer or pawnbroker
under the federal Gun Control |
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1 | | Act of 1968,
manufactures, sells or delivers to any |
2 | | unlicensed person a handgun having
a barrel, slide, frame |
3 | | or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or
any |
4 | | other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a |
5 | | temperature
of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For |
6 | | purposes of this paragraph, (1)
"firearm" is defined as in |
7 | | the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2)
|
8 | | "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held
and |
9 | | fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a |
10 | | combination of parts from
which such a firearm can be |
11 | | assembled.
|
12 | | (i) Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person |
13 | | under 18 years of
age who is not eligible under State or |
14 | | federal law to possess a firearm does not possess a valid |
15 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card .
|
16 | | (j) Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the |
17 | | business of selling
firearms at wholesale or retail |
18 | | without being licensed as a federal firearms
dealer under |
19 | | Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 |
20 | | U.S.C.
923). In this paragraph (j):
|
21 | | A person "engaged in the business" means a person who |
22 | | devotes time,
attention, and
labor to
engaging in the |
23 | | activity as a regular course of trade or business with the
|
24 | | principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not |
25 | | include a person who
makes occasional repairs of firearms |
26 | | or who occasionally fits special barrels,
stocks, or |
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1 | | trigger mechanisms to firearms.
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2 | | "With the principal objective of livelihood and |
3 | | profit" means that the
intent
underlying the sale or |
4 | | disposition of firearms is predominantly one of
obtaining |
5 | | livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other |
6 | | intents, such as
improving or liquidating a personal |
7 | | firearms collection; however, proof of
profit shall not be |
8 | | required as to a person who engages in the regular and
|
9 | | repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for |
10 | | criminal purposes or
terrorism.
|
11 | | (k) (Blank). Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm |
12 | | to a person who does not display to the seller or |
13 | | transferor of the firearm either: (1) a currently valid |
14 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously |
15 | | been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of |
16 | | State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners |
17 | | Identification Card Act; or (2) a currently valid license |
18 | | to carry a concealed firearm that has previously been |
19 | | issued in the transferee's name by the
Department of State |
20 | | Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. This |
21 | | paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm |
22 | | to a person who is exempt from the requirement of |
23 | | possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under |
24 | | Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. |
25 | | For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid |
26 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card means (i) a Firearm |
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1 | | Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or (ii) |
2 | | an approval number issued in accordance with subsection |
3 | | (a-10) of subsection 3 or Section 3.1 of the Firearm |
4 | | Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the |
5 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid. |
6 | | (1) (Blank). In addition to the other requirements |
7 | | of this paragraph (k), all persons who are not |
8 | | federally licensed firearms dealers must also have |
9 | | complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the |
10 | | Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining |
11 | | the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's |
12 | | Identification Card. |
13 | | (2) (Blank). All sellers or transferors who have |
14 | | complied with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of |
15 | | this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in |
16 | | any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the |
17 | | transferee of the firearm transferred, except for |
18 | | willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller |
19 | | or transferor. |
20 | | (l) Not
being entitled to the possession of a firearm, |
21 | | delivers the
firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or |
22 | | converted. It may be inferred that
a person who possesses |
23 | | a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has
been |
24 | | removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is |
25 | | stolen or converted. |
26 | | (B) Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include |
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1 | | firearms sold within 6
months after enactment of Public
Act |
2 | | 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), |
3 | | nor is any
firearm legally owned or
possessed by any citizen or |
4 | | purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the
enactment |
5 | | of Public Act 78-355 subject
to confiscation or seizure under |
6 | | the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in
Public Act |
7 | | 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of
any |
8 | | firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 |
9 | | months after
the enactment of that Public Act.
|
10 | | (C) Sentence.
|
11 | | (1) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery |
12 | | of firearms in violation of
paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), |
13 | | or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class
4
felony.
|
14 | | (2) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery |
15 | | of firearms in violation of
paragraph (b) or (i) of |
16 | | subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.
|
17 | | (3) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery |
18 | | of firearms in violation of
paragraph (a) of subsection |
19 | | (A) commits a Class 2 felony.
|
20 | | (4) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery |
21 | | of firearms in violation of
paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of |
22 | | subsection (A) in any school, on the real
property |
23 | | comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real |
24 | | property comprising
a school, at a school related |
25 | | activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any
conveyance |
26 | | owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school |
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1 | | district to
transport students to or from school or a |
2 | | school related activity,
regardless of the time of day or |
3 | | time of year at which the offense
was committed, commits a |
4 | | Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second
or |
5 | | subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of |
6 | | firearms in violation of paragraph
(a), (b), or (i) of |
7 | | subsection (A) in any school, on the real property
|
8 | | comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real |
9 | | property comprising a
school, at a school related |
10 | | activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any
conveyance |
11 | | owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school |
12 | | district to
transport students to or from school or a |
13 | | school related activity,
regardless of the time of day or |
14 | | time of year at which the offense
was committed, commits a |
15 | | Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a
term of |
16 | | imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 |
17 | | years.
|
18 | | (5) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery |
19 | | of firearms in violation of
paragraph (a) or (i) of |
20 | | subsection (A) in residential property owned,
operated, or |
21 | | managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public |
22 | | housing
agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income |
23 | | development, in a public
park, in a
courthouse, on |
24 | | residential property owned, operated, or managed by a |
25 | | public
housing agency or leased by a public housing agency |
26 | | as part of a scattered site
or mixed-income development, |
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1 | | on the real property comprising any public park,
on the |
2 | | real
property comprising any courthouse, or on any public |
3 | | way within 1,000 feet
of the real property comprising any |
4 | | public park, courthouse, or residential
property owned, |
5 | | operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased |
6 | | by a
public housing agency as part of a scattered site or |
7 | | mixed-income development
commits a
Class 2 felony.
|
8 | | (6) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery |
9 | | of firearms in violation of
paragraph (j) of subsection |
10 | | (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or
subsequent |
11 | | violation is a Class 4 felony. |
12 | | (7) (Blank). Any person convicted of unlawful sale or |
13 | | delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of |
14 | | subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a |
15 | | violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of |
16 | | subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty |
17 | | offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation |
18 | | of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.
|
19 | | (8) A person 18 years of age or older convicted of |
20 | | unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of |
21 | | paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm |
22 | | that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of |
23 | | age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a |
24 | | forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, |
25 | | not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious |
26 | | forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person |
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1 | | under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm. |
2 | | (9) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery |
3 | | of firearms in violation of
paragraph (d) of subsection |
4 | | (A) commits a Class 3 felony. |
5 | | (10) Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery |
6 | | of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection |
7 | | (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one |
8 | | firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery |
9 | | of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection |
10 | | (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less |
11 | | than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the
same time or |
12 | | within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful |
13 | | sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) |
14 | | of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or |
15 | | she shall be sentenced
to a term of imprisonment of not |
16 | | less than 6 years and not more than 30
years if the |
17 | | delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 |
18 | | firearms at the
same time or within a 2 year period. Any |
19 | | person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms |
20 | | in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a |
21 | | Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced
to a |
22 | | term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more |
23 | | than 40
years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and |
24 | | not more than 20 firearms at the
same time or within a 3 |
25 | | year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or |
26 | | delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of |
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1 | | subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she |
2 | | shall be sentenced
to a term of imprisonment of not less |
3 | | than 6 years and not more than 50
years if the delivery is |
4 | | of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the
|
5 | | same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted |
6 | | of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of |
7 | | paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony |
8 | | for which he or she shall be sentenced
to a term of |
9 | | imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60
|
10 | | years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the
same |
11 | | time or within a 5 year period. |
12 | | (D) For purposes of this Section:
|
13 | | "School" means a public or private elementary or secondary |
14 | | school,
community college, college, or university.
|
15 | | "School related activity" means any sporting, social, |
16 | | academic, or
other activity for which students' attendance or |
17 | | participation is sponsored,
organized, or funded in whole or |
18 | | in part by a school or school district.
|
19 | | (E) A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of |
20 | | subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years |
21 | | after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a |
22 | | violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of |
23 | | subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years |
24 | | after the commission of the offense defined in the particular |
25 | | paragraph.
|
26 | | (Source: P.A. 99-29, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; |
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1 | | 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-606, eff. 1-1-19 .)
|
2 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.1)
|
3 | | Sec. 24-3.1. Unlawful possession of firearms and firearm |
4 | | ammunition.
|
5 | | (a) A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of |
6 | | firearms
or firearm ammunition when:
|
7 | | (1) He is under 18 years of age and has in his |
8 | | possession
any firearm of
a size which may be concealed |
9 | | upon the person; or
|
10 | | (2) He is under 21 years of age, has been convicted of |
11 | | a misdemeanor
other than a traffic offense or adjudged |
12 | | delinquent and has
any firearms or
firearm ammunition in |
13 | | his possession; or
|
14 | | (3) He is a narcotic addict and has
any firearms or |
15 | | firearm ammunition
in his possession; or
|
16 | | (4) He has been a patient in a mental institution |
17 | | within the past 5 years
and has
any firearms or firearm |
18 | | ammunition in his possession. For purposes of this |
19 | | paragraph (4): |
20 | | "Mental institution" means any hospital, |
21 | | institution, clinic, evaluation facility, mental |
22 | | health center, or part thereof, which is used |
23 | | primarily for the care or treatment of persons with |
24 | | mental illness. |
25 | | "Patient in a mental institution" means the person |
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1 | | was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to |
2 | | a mental institution for mental health treatment, |
3 | | unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an |
4 | | alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary |
5 | | substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or
|
6 | | (5) He is a person with an intellectual disability and |
7 | | has
any firearms or firearm ammunition
in his possession; |
8 | | or
|
9 | | (6) He has in his possession any explosive bullet.
|
10 | | For purposes of this paragraph "explosive bullet" means |
11 | | the projectile
portion of an ammunition cartridge which |
12 | | contains or carries an explosive
charge which will explode |
13 | | upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal.
|
14 | | "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile |
15 | | affixed at the
front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear |
16 | | end thereof, with the propellant
contained in such tube |
17 | | between the projectile and the cap.
|
18 | | (a-5) A person prohibited from possessing a firearm under |
19 | | this Section may petition the Director of State Police for a |
20 | | hearing and relief from the prohibition, unless the |
21 | | prohibition was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, |
22 | | aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the |
23 | | Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine |
24 | | Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control |
25 | | Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any |
26 | | felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or |
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1 | | the Criminal Code of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent |
2 | | minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an |
3 | | adult would be a felony, in which case the person may petition |
4 | | the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her |
5 | | residence for a hearing and relief from the prohibition. The |
6 | | Director or court may grant the relief if it is established by |
7 | | the petitioner to the court's or Director's satisfaction that: |
8 | | (1) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney |
9 | | has been served with a written copy of the petition at |
10 | | least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court and |
11 | | at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an |
12 | | opportunity to present evidence and object to the |
13 | | petition; |
14 | | (2) the petitioner has not been convicted of a
|
15 | | forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other |
16 | | jurisdiction within 20 years of the filing of the |
17 | | petition, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of |
18 | | any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that |
19 | | conviction; |
20 | | (3) the circumstances regarding a criminal
conviction, |
21 | | where applicable, the petitioner's criminal history and |
22 | | his reputation are such that the petitioner will not be |
23 | | likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety; |
24 | | (4) granting relief would not be contrary to the
|
25 | | public interest; and |
26 | | (5) granting relief would not be contrary to federal
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1 | | law. |
2 | | (b) Sentence.
|
3 | | Unlawful possession of firearms, other than handguns, and |
4 | | firearm
ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor. Unlawful |
5 | | possession of handguns is a
Class 4 felony. The possession of |
6 | | each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this |
7 | | Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
|
8 | | (c) Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this |
9 | | Section prohibits
a person under 18 years of age from |
10 | | participating in any lawful recreational
activity with a |
11 | | firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at
|
12 | | targets upon established public or private target ranges or |
13 | | hunting, trapping,
or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife |
14 | | Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life
Code.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
|
16 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-3.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.2)
|
17 | | Sec. 24-3.2. Unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles.
|
18 | | (a) A person
commits the offense of unlawful discharge of |
19 | | firearm projectiles when he
or she knowingly
or recklessly |
20 | | uses an armor piercing bullet, dragon's
breath shotgun shell, |
21 | | bolo shell, or flechette
shell
in violation of
this Section.
|
22 | | For purposes of this Section:
|
23 | | "Armor piercing bullet" means
any handgun bullet or |
24 | | handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores
|
25 | | constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of |
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1 | | other substances)
from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, |
2 | | bronze, beryllium copper
or depleted uranium, or fully |
3 | | jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber whose
jacket
has a |
4 | | weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile, |
5 | | and
excluding those handgun
projectiles whose cores are |
6 | | composed of soft materials such as lead or lead
alloys, zinc or |
7 | | zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for
|
8 | | sporting purposes, and any
other projectiles or projectile |
9 | | cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury
finds to be |
10 | | primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or |
11 | | industrial
purposes or that otherwise does not constitute |
12 | | "armor piercing ammunition" as
that term is defined by federal |
13 | | law.
|
14 | | "Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell |
15 | | that contains
exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the |
16 | | projectile and is designed for the
purpose of throwing or |
17 | | spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.
|
18 | | "Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm |
19 | | and expels as
projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by |
20 | | solid metal wire.
|
21 | | "Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a |
22 | | firearm and expels
2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid |
23 | | metal wire or 2 or more solid
dart-type
projectiles.
|
24 | | (b) A person commits a Class X felony when he or she, |
25 | | knowing that a
firearm ,
as defined in Section
1.1 of the |
26 | | Firearm Owners Identification Card
Act, is loaded with an |
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1 | | armor
piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo
|
2 | | shell, or flechette
shell,
intentionally or recklessly |
3 | | discharges such firearm and such bullet or
shell strikes
any |
4 | | other person.
|
5 | | (c) Any person who possesses, concealed on or about his or |
6 | | her person,
an armor
piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun |
7 | | shell, bolo
shell, or flechette
shell
and a firearm suitable |
8 | | for the discharge thereof is guilty
of a Class 2 felony.
|
9 | | (d) This Section does not apply to or affect any of the |
10 | | following:
|
11 | | (1) Peace officers;
|
12 | | (2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, |
13 | | penitentiaries, jails
and other institutions for the |
14 | | detention of persons accused or convicted of an
offense;
|
15 | | (3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of |
16 | | the United States
or the Illinois National Guard while in |
17 | | the performance of their official
duties;
|
18 | | (4) Federal officials required to carry firearms, |
19 | | while engaged in the
performance of their official duties;
|
20 | | (5) United States Marshals, while engaged in the |
21 | | performance of their
official duties.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)
|
23 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-3.4) (from Ch. 38, par. 24-3.4)
|
24 | | Sec. 24-3.4. Unlawful sale of firearms by liquor licensee.
|
25 | | (a) It shall be unlawful for any person who holds a license |
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1 | | to sell at
retail any alcoholic liquor issued by the Illinois |
2 | | Liquor Control
Commission or local liquor control commissioner |
3 | | under the Liquor Control Act
of 1934 or an agent or employee of |
4 | | the licensee to sell or deliver to any
other person a firearm |
5 | | in or on the real property of the establishment
where the |
6 | | licensee is licensed to sell alcoholic liquors unless the sale |
7 | | or
delivery of the firearm is otherwise lawful under this |
8 | | Article and under the
Firearm Owners Identification Card Act .
|
9 | | (b) Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) of this |
10 | | Section is a
Class 4 felony.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 87-591.)
|
12 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-3B) |
13 | | Sec. 24-3B. Firearms trafficking. |
14 | | (a) A person commits firearms trafficking when he or she |
15 | | is prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a
|
16 | | firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's |
17 | | Identification Card and knowingly: |
18 | | (1) brings, or causes to be brought, into this State, |
19 | | a firearm or firearm ammunition for the purpose of sale, |
20 | | delivery, or transfer to any other person or with the |
21 | | intent to sell, deliver, or transfer the firearm or |
22 | | firearm ammunition to any other person; or |
23 | | (2) brings, or causes to be brought, into this State, |
24 | | a firearm and firearm ammunition for the purpose of sale, |
25 | | delivery, or transfer to any other person or with the |
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1 | | intent to sell, deliver, or transfer the firearm and |
2 | | firearm ammunition to any other person. |
3 | | (a-5) (Blank). This Section does not apply to: |
4 | | (1) a person exempt under Section 2 of the Firearm |
5 | | Owners Identification Card Act from the requirement of |
6 | | having possession of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card |
7 | | previously issued in his or her name by the Department of |
8 | | State Police in order to acquire or possess a firearm or |
9 | | firearm ammunition; |
10 | | (2) a common carrier under subsection (i) of Section |
11 | | 24-2 of this Code; or |
12 | | (3) a non-resident who may lawfully possess a firearm |
13 | | in his or her resident state. |
14 | | (b) Sentence. |
15 | | (1) Firearms trafficking is a Class 1 felony for which |
16 | | the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall |
17 | | be sentenced to not less than 4 years and not more than 20 |
18 | | years. |
19 | | (2) Firearms trafficking by a person who has been |
20 | | previously convicted of firearms trafficking, gunrunning, |
21 | | or a felony offense for the unlawful sale, delivery, or |
22 | | transfer of a firearm or firearm ammunition in this State |
23 | | or another jurisdiction is a Class X felony.
|
24 | | (Source: P.A. 99-885, eff. 8-23-16.)
|
25 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-3.5)
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1 | | Sec. 24-3.5. Unlawful purchase of a firearm.
|
2 | | (a) For purposes of this Section,
"firearms transaction |
3 | | record form" means a form:
|
4 | | (1) executed by a transferee
of a firearm stating: (i) |
5 | | the transferee's name and address (including county
or |
6 | | similar political subdivision); (ii) whether the |
7 | | transferee is a citizen of
the United States;
(iii) the |
8 | | transferee's State of residence; and (iv) the date and |
9 | | place of
birth, height, weight, and race of the |
10 | | transferee; and
|
11 | | (2) on which the transferee certifies that he or she |
12 | | is not
prohibited by federal law from transporting or |
13 | | shipping a firearm
in interstate or foreign commerce or |
14 | | receiving a firearm that has been shipped
or transported |
15 | | in interstate or foreign commerce or possessing a firearm |
16 | | in or
affecting commerce.
|
17 | | (b) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a |
18 | | firearm who
knowingly purchases or attempts to purchase a
|
19 | | firearm with the intent to deliver that firearm to another |
20 | | person who
is prohibited by federal or State law from |
21 | | possessing a firearm.
|
22 | | (c) A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a |
23 | | firearm when he
or she, in purchasing or attempting to |
24 | | purchase a firearm, intentionally
provides false or
misleading |
25 | | information on a United States Department of the Treasury, |
26 | | Bureau of
Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms firearms transaction |
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1 | | record form.
|
2 | | (d) Exemption. It is not a violation of subsection (b) of |
3 | | this Section for a
person to make a gift or loan of a firearm |
4 | | to a
person who is not
prohibited by federal or State law from |
5 | | possessing a firearm
if the transfer of the firearm
is made in |
6 | | accordance with Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification |
7 | | Card
Act .
|
8 | | (e) Sentence.
|
9 | | (1) A person who commits the offense of unlawful |
10 | | purchase of a
firearm:
|
11 | | (A) is guilty of a Class 2 felony for purchasing or |
12 | | attempting to
purchase one firearm;
|
13 | | (B) is guilty of a Class 1 felony for purchasing or |
14 | | attempting to
purchase not less than 2
firearms and |
15 | | not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a |
16 | | one
year period;
|
17 | | (C) is guilty of a Class X felony for which the |
18 | | offender shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment |
19 | | of not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years for |
20 | | purchasing or attempting to
purchase not less than 6
|
21 | | firearms at the same time or within a 2
year period.
|
22 | | (2) In addition to any other penalty that may be |
23 | | imposed for a violation
of this Section, the court may |
24 | | sentence a person convicted of a violation of
subsection |
25 | | (c) of this Section to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for |
26 | | each
violation.
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1 | | (f) A prosecution for unlawful purchase of a firearm may |
2 | | be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the |
3 | | offense.
|
4 | | (Source: P.A. 95-882, eff. 1-1-09.)
|
5 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-4.1)
|
6 | | Sec. 24-4.1. Report of lost or stolen firearms.
|
7 | | (a) If a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's |
8 | | Identification Card and who possesses or acquires a firearm |
9 | | thereafter loses the firearm, or if the firearm is stolen from |
10 | | the person, the person must report the loss or theft to the |
11 | | local law enforcement agency within 72 hours after obtaining |
12 | | knowledge of the loss or theft. |
13 | | (b) A law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall |
14 | | take a written report and shall, as soon as practical, enter |
15 | | the firearm's serial number as stolen into the Law Enforcement |
16 | | Agencies Data System (LEADS). |
17 | | (c) A person shall not be in violation of this Section if: |
18 | | (1) the failure to report is due to an act of God, act |
19 | | of war, or inability of a law enforcement agency to |
20 | | receive the report; |
21 | | (2) the person is hospitalized, in a coma, or is |
22 | | otherwise seriously physically or mentally impaired as to |
23 | | prevent the person from reporting; or |
24 | | (3) the person's designee makes a report if the person |
25 | | is unable to make the report. |
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1 | | (d) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty |
2 | | of a petty offense for a first violation. A second or |
3 | | subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
|
4 | | (Source: P.A. 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.) |
5 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-4.5 new)
|
6 | | Sec. 24-4.5. Dial up system. |
7 | | (a) The Department of State Police shall provide
a dial up |
8 | | telephone system or utilize other existing technology which |
9 | | shall be used by any federally licensed
firearm dealer, gun |
10 | | show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm, |
11 | | stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this
Code. The |
12 | | Department of State Police may utilize existing technology |
13 | | which
allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. |
14 | | Fees collected by the Department of
State Police shall be |
15 | | deposited in the State Police Services Fund and used
to |
16 | | provide the service. |
17 | | (b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed |
18 | | firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the
|
19 | | Department of State Police shall immediately approve, or |
20 | | within the time
period established by Section 24-3 of this |
21 | | Code regarding
the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and tasers |
22 | | notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show |
23 | | vendor of any objection that
would disqualify the transferee |
24 | | from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or taser. In
|
25 | | conducting the inquiry, the Department of State Police shall |
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1 | | initiate and
complete an automated search of its criminal |
2 | | history record information
files and those of the Federal |
3 | | Bureau of Investigation, including the
National Instant |
4 | | Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of
the |
5 | | Department of Human Services relating to mental health and
|
6 | | developmental disabilities to obtain
any felony conviction or |
7 | | patient hospitalization information which would
disqualify a |
8 | | person from obtaining a firearm. |
9 | | (c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3 |
10 | | of this Code or federal law, the Department of State Police |
11 | | shall:
|
12 | | (1) assign a unique identification number to the |
13 | | transfer; and |
14 | | (2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun |
15 | | show vendor with the number. |
16 | | (d) Approvals issued by the Department of State Police for |
17 | | the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date |
18 | | of issue.
|
19 | | (e)(1) The Department of State Police must act as the |
20 | | Illinois Point of Contact
for the National Instant Criminal |
21 | | Background Check System. |
22 | | (2) The Department of State Police and the Department of |
23 | | Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law |
24 | | regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of |
25 | | understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the |
26 | | purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal |
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1 | | Background Check System in the State. The Department of State |
2 | | Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical |
3 | | description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm |
4 | | under this Code or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National |
5 | | Instant Criminal Background Check System Index, Denied Persons |
6 | | Files. |
7 | | (f) The Department of State Police shall adopt rules not |
8 | | inconsistent with this Section to implement this
system.
|
9 | | (720 ILCS 5/24-9)
|
10 | | Sec. 24-9. Firearms; Child Protection.
|
11 | | (a) Except as provided in
subsection (c), it is unlawful
|
12 | | for any person to
store or leave, within premises under his or |
13 | | her control, a firearm if
the
person knows or has reason to |
14 | | believe that a minor under the age of 14
years who does not |
15 | | have a Firearm Owners Identification Card is likely to gain
|
16 | | access to the firearm without the lawful permission
of the |
17 | | person possessing the firearm, minor's parent, guardian, or |
18 | | person having charge of the minor, and
the minor causes death |
19 | | or great bodily harm with the firearm, unless
the firearm is:
|
20 | | (1) secured by a device or mechanism, other than the |
21 | | firearm safety,
designed to render a firearm temporarily |
22 | | inoperable; or
|
23 | | (2) placed in a securely locked box or container; or
|
24 | | (3) placed in some other location that a reasonable |
25 | | person would
believe to be secure from a minor under the |
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1 | | age of 14 years.
|
2 | | (b) Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty |
3 | | of a Class C
misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than |
4 | | $1,000. A second or subsequent
violation of this Section is a |
5 | | Class A misdemeanor.
|
6 | | (c) Subsection (a) does not apply:
|
7 | | (1) if the minor under 14 years of age gains access to |
8 | | a
firearm and uses it in a lawful act of self-defense or |
9 | | defense of another; or
|
10 | | (2) to any firearm obtained by a minor under the age of |
11 | | 14 because of
an unlawful entry of the premises by the |
12 | | minor or another person.
|
13 | | (d) (Blank). For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" |
14 | | has the meaning ascribed
to it in Section
1.1 of the Firearm |
15 | | Owners Identification Card Act.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 91-18, eff. 1-1-00.)
|
17 | | Section 80. The Methamphetamine Control and Community |
18 | | Protection Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows: |
19 | | (720 ILCS 646/10)
|
20 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act: |
21 | | "Anhydrous ammonia" has the meaning provided in subsection |
22 | | (d) of Section 3 of the Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961.
|
23 | | "Anhydrous ammonia equipment" means all items used to |
24 | | store, hold, contain, handle, transfer, transport, or apply |
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1 | | anhydrous ammonia for lawful purposes.
|
2 | | "Booby trap" means any device designed to cause physical |
3 | | injury when triggered by an act of a person approaching, |
4 | | entering, or moving through a structure, a vehicle, or any |
5 | | location where methamphetamine has been manufactured, is being |
6 | | manufactured, or is intended to be manufactured.
|
7 | | "Deliver" or "delivery" has the meaning provided in |
8 | | subsection (h) of Section 102 of the Illinois Controlled |
9 | | Substances Act.
|
10 | | "Director" means the Director of State Police or the |
11 | | Director's designated agents.
|
12 | | "Dispose" or "disposal" means to abandon, discharge, |
13 | | release, deposit, inject, dump, spill, leak, or place |
14 | | methamphetamine waste onto or into any land, water, or well of |
15 | | any type so that the waste has the potential to enter the |
16 | | environment, be emitted into the air, or be discharged into |
17 | | the soil or any waters, including groundwater.
|
18 | | "Emergency response" means the act of collecting evidence |
19 | | from or securing a methamphetamine laboratory site, |
20 | | methamphetamine waste site or other methamphetamine-related |
21 | | site and cleaning up the site, whether these actions are |
22 | | performed by public entities or private contractors paid by |
23 | | public entities.
|
24 | | "Emergency service provider" means a local, State, or |
25 | | federal peace officer, firefighter, emergency medical |
26 | | technician-ambulance, emergency
medical |
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1 | | technician-intermediate, emergency medical |
2 | | technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical or |
3 | | first aid personnel rendering aid, or any agent or designee of |
4 | | the foregoing.
|
5 | | "Finished methamphetamine" means methamphetamine in a form |
6 | | commonly used for personal consumption. |
7 | | "Firearm" has the meaning provided in Section 2-7.5 of the |
8 | | Criminal Code of 2012 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification |
9 | | Card Act .
|
10 | | "Manufacture" means to produce, prepare, compound, |
11 | | convert, process, synthesize, concentrate, purify, separate, |
12 | | extract, or package any methamphetamine, methamphetamine |
13 | | precursor, methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, |
14 | | methamphetamine manufacturing reagent, methamphetamine |
15 | | manufacturing solvent, or any substance containing any of the |
16 | | foregoing.
|
17 | | "Methamphetamine" means the chemical methamphetamine (a |
18 | | Schedule II controlled substance under the Illinois Controlled |
19 | | Substances Act) or any salt, optical isomer, salt of optical |
20 | | isomer, or analog thereof, with the exception of |
21 | | 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) or any other |
22 | | scheduled substance with a separate listing under the Illinois |
23 | | Controlled Substances Act. |
24 | | "Methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst" means any |
25 | | substance that has been used, is being used, or is intended to |
26 | | be used to activate, accelerate, extend, or improve a chemical |
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1 | | reaction involved in the manufacture of methamphetamine.
|
2 | | "Methamphetamine manufacturing environment" means a |
3 | | structure or vehicle in which:
|
4 | | (1) methamphetamine is being or has been manufactured;
|
5 | | (2) chemicals that are being used, have been used, or |
6 | | are intended to be used to manufacture methamphetamine are |
7 | | stored;
|
8 | | (3) methamphetamine manufacturing materials that have |
9 | | been used to manufacture methamphetamine are stored; or
|
10 | | (4) methamphetamine manufacturing waste is stored.
|
11 | | "Methamphetamine manufacturing material" means any |
12 | | methamphetamine precursor, substance containing any |
13 | | methamphetamine precursor, methamphetamine manufacturing |
14 | | catalyst, substance containing any methamphetamine |
15 | | manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine manufacturing |
16 | | reagent, substance containing any methamphetamine |
17 | | manufacturing reagent, methamphetamine manufacturing solvent, |
18 | | substance containing any methamphetamine manufacturing |
19 | | solvent, or any other chemical, substance, ingredient, |
20 | | equipment, apparatus, or item that is being used, has been |
21 | | used, or is intended to be used in the manufacture of |
22 | | methamphetamine.
|
23 | | "Methamphetamine manufacturing reagent" means any |
24 | | substance other than a methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst |
25 | | that has been used, is being used, or is intended to be used to |
26 | | react with and chemically alter any methamphetamine precursor. |
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1 | | "Methamphetamine manufacturing solvent" means any |
2 | | substance that has been used, is being used, or is intended to |
3 | | be used as a medium in which any methamphetamine precursor, |
4 | | methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine |
5 | | manufacturing reagent, or any substance containing any of the |
6 | | foregoing is dissolved, diluted, or washed during any part of |
7 | | the methamphetamine manufacturing process.
|
8 | | "Methamphetamine manufacturing waste" means any chemical, |
9 | | substance, ingredient, equipment, apparatus, or item that is |
10 | | left over from, results from, or is produced by the process of |
11 | | manufacturing methamphetamine, other than finished |
12 | | methamphetamine.
|
13 | | "Methamphetamine precursor" means ephedrine, |
14 | | pseudoephedrine, benzyl methyl ketone, methyl benzyl ketone, |
15 | | phenylacetone, phenyl-2-propanone, P2P, or any salt, optical |
16 | | isomer, or salt of an optical isomer of any of these chemicals.
|
17 | | "Multi-unit dwelling" means a unified structure used or |
18 | | intended for use as a habitation, home, or residence that |
19 | | contains 2 or more condominiums, apartments, hotel rooms, |
20 | | motel rooms, or other living units.
|
21 | | "Package" means an item marked for retail sale that is not |
22 | | designed to be further broken down or subdivided for the |
23 | | purpose of retail sale.
|
24 | | "Participate" or "participation" in the manufacture of |
25 | | methamphetamine means to produce, prepare, compound, convert, |
26 | | process, synthesize, concentrate, purify, separate, extract, |
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1 | | or package any methamphetamine, methamphetamine precursor, |
2 | | methamphetamine manufacturing catalyst, methamphetamine |
3 | | manufacturing reagent, methamphetamine manufacturing solvent, |
4 | | or any substance containing any of the foregoing, or to assist |
5 | | in any of these actions, or to attempt to take any of these |
6 | | actions, regardless of whether this action or these actions |
7 | | result in the production of finished methamphetamine.
|
8 | | "Person with a disability" means a person who suffers from |
9 | | a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from |
10 | | disease, injury, functional disorder, or congenital condition |
11 | | which renders the person incapable of adequately providing for |
12 | | his or her own health and personal care.
|
13 | | "Procure" means to purchase, steal, gather, or otherwise |
14 | | obtain, by legal or illegal means, or to cause another to take |
15 | | such action.
|
16 | | "Second or subsequent offense" means an offense under this |
17 | | Act committed by an offender who previously committed an |
18 | | offense under this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances |
19 | | Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or another Act of this State, |
20 | | another state, or the United States relating to |
21 | | methamphetamine, cannabis, or any other controlled substance.
|
22 | | "Standard dosage form", as used in relation to any |
23 | | methamphetamine precursor, means that the methamphetamine |
24 | | precursor is contained in a pill, tablet, capsule, caplet, gel |
25 | | cap, or liquid cap that has been manufactured by a lawful |
26 | | entity and contains a standard quantity of methamphetamine |
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1 | | precursor.
|
2 | | "Unauthorized container", as used in relation to anhydrous |
3 | | ammonia, means any container that is not designed for the |
4 | | specific and sole purpose of holding, storing, transporting, |
5 | | or applying anhydrous ammonia. "Unauthorized container" |
6 | | includes, but is not limited to, any propane tank, fire |
7 | | extinguisher, oxygen cylinder, gasoline can, food or beverage |
8 | | cooler, or compressed gas cylinder used in dispensing fountain |
9 | | drinks. "Unauthorized container" does not encompass anhydrous |
10 | | ammonia manufacturing plants, refrigeration systems
where |
11 | | anhydrous ammonia is used solely as a refrigerant, anhydrous |
12 | | ammonia transportation pipelines, anhydrous ammonia tankers, |
13 | | or anhydrous ammonia barges.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 97-434, eff. 1-1-12.) |
15 | | Section 85. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is |
16 | | amended by changing Sections 102-7.1, 110-10, 112A-11.1, |
17 | | 112A-11.2, and 112A-14 as follows: |
18 | | (725 ILCS 5/102-7.1) |
19 | | Sec. 102-7.1. "Category A offense". "Category A offense" |
20 | | means a Class 1 felony, Class 2 felony, Class X felony, first |
21 | | degree murder, a violation of Section 11-204 of the Illinois |
22 | | Vehicle Code, a second or subsequent violation of Section |
23 | | 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of subsection |
24 | | (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a |
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1 | | violation of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if |
2 | | the accident results in injury and the person failed to report |
3 | | the accident within 30 minutes, a violation of Section 9-3, |
4 | | 9-3.4, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-5, 11-6, 11-9.2, 11-20.1, 11-23.5, |
5 | | 11-25, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-4.4a, 12-5, |
6 | | 12-6, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12C-5, 24-1.1, 24-1.5, |
7 | | 24-3, 25-1, 26.5-2, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a |
8 | | second or subsequent violation of 12-3.2 or 12-3.4 of the |
9 | | Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of paragraph (5) or (6) of |
10 | | subsection (b) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a |
11 | | violation of subsection (b) or (c) or paragraph (1) or (2) of |
12 | | subsection (a) of Section 11-1.50 of the Criminal Code of |
13 | | 2012, a violation of Section 12-7 of the Criminal Code of 2012 |
14 | | if the defendant inflicts bodily harm on the victim to obtain a |
15 | | confession, statement, or information, a violation of Section |
16 | | 12-7.5 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if the action results in |
17 | | bodily harm, a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of |
18 | | Section 17-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a violation of |
19 | | subdivision (a)(7)(ii) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of |
20 | | 2012, a violation of paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of |
21 | | Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, a first violation of |
22 | | Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 by a person 18 |
23 | | years of age or older where the factors listed in both items |
24 | | (A) and (C) or both items (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of |
25 | | subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 |
26 | | are present, a Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of
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1 | | subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners |
2 | | Identification Card Act committed before the effective date of |
3 | | this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly , or a |
4 | | violation of Section 10 of the Sex Offender Registration Act.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 100-1, eff. 1-1-18; 100-929, eff. 1-1-19 .)
|
6 | | (725 ILCS 5/110-10) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-10)
|
7 | | Sec. 110-10. Conditions of bail bond.
|
8 | | (a) If a person is released prior to conviction, either |
9 | | upon payment of
bail security or on his or her own |
10 | | recognizance, the conditions of the bail
bond shall be that he |
11 | | or she will:
|
12 | | (1) Appear to answer the charge in the court having |
13 | | jurisdiction on
a day certain and thereafter as ordered by |
14 | | the court until discharged or
final order of the court;
|
15 | | (2) Submit himself or herself to the orders and |
16 | | process of the court;
|
17 | | (3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;
|
18 | | (4) Not violate any criminal statute of any |
19 | | jurisdiction;
|
20 | | (5) At a time and place designated by the court, |
21 | | surrender all firearms
in his or her possession to a law |
22 | | enforcement officer designated by the court
to take |
23 | | custody of and impound the firearms
and physically
|
24 | | surrender his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card |
25 | | to the clerk of the
circuit court
when the offense the |
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1 | | person has
been charged with is a forcible felony, |
2 | | stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic
battery, any |
3 | | violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the |
4 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or |
5 | | the
Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or |
6 | | greater felony, or any
felony violation of Article 24 of |
7 | | the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; the |
8 | | court
may,
however, forgo the imposition of this condition |
9 | | when the
circumstances of the
case clearly do not warrant |
10 | | it or when its imposition would be
impractical;
if the |
11 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card is confiscated, the |
12 | | clerk of the circuit court shall mail the confiscated card |
13 | | to the Illinois State Police; all legally possessed |
14 | | firearms shall be returned to the person upon
the charges |
15 | | being dismissed, or if the person is found not guilty, |
16 | | unless the
finding of not guilty is by reason of insanity; |
17 | | and
|
18 | | (6) At a time and place designated by the court, |
19 | | submit to a
psychological
evaluation when the person has |
20 | | been charged with a violation of item (4) of
subsection
|
21 | | (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the |
22 | | Criminal Code of 2012 and that violation occurred in
a |
23 | | school
or in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted |
24 | | by a school to transport
students to or
from school or a |
25 | | school-related activity, or on any public way within 1,000
|
26 | | feet of real
property comprising any school.
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1 | | Psychological evaluations ordered pursuant to this Section |
2 | | shall be completed
promptly
and made available to the State, |
3 | | the defendant, and the court. As a further
condition of bail |
4 | | under
these circumstances, the court shall order the defendant |
5 | | to refrain from
entering upon the
property of the school, |
6 | | including any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted
by a |
7 | | school to
transport students to or from school or a |
8 | | school-related activity, or on any public way within
1,000 |
9 | | feet of real property comprising any school. Upon receipt of |
10 | | the psychological evaluation,
either the State or the |
11 | | defendant may request a change in the conditions of bail, |
12 | | pursuant to
Section 110-6 of this Code. The court may change |
13 | | the conditions of bail to include a
requirement that the |
14 | | defendant follow the recommendations of the psychological |
15 | | evaluation,
including undergoing psychiatric treatment. The |
16 | | conclusions of the
psychological evaluation and
any statements |
17 | | elicited from the defendant during its administration are not
|
18 | | admissible as evidence
of guilt during the course of any trial |
19 | | on the charged offense, unless the
defendant places his or her
|
20 | | mental competency in issue.
|
21 | | (b) The court may impose other conditions, such as the |
22 | | following, if the
court finds that such conditions are |
23 | | reasonably necessary to assure the
defendant's appearance in |
24 | | court, protect the public from the defendant, or
prevent the |
25 | | defendant's unlawful interference with the orderly |
26 | | administration
of justice:
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1 | | (1) Report to or appear in person before such person |
2 | | or agency as the
court may direct;
|
3 | | (2) Refrain from possessing a firearm or other |
4 | | dangerous weapon;
|
5 | | (3) Refrain from approaching or communicating with |
6 | | particular persons or
classes of persons;
|
7 | | (4) Refrain from going to certain described |
8 | | geographical areas or
premises;
|
9 | | (5) Refrain from engaging in certain activities or |
10 | | indulging in
intoxicating liquors or in certain drugs;
|
11 | | (6) Undergo treatment for drug addiction or |
12 | | alcoholism;
|
13 | | (7) Undergo medical or psychiatric treatment;
|
14 | | (8) Work or pursue a course of study or vocational |
15 | | training;
|
16 | | (9) Attend or reside in a facility designated by the |
17 | | court;
|
18 | | (10) Support his or her dependents;
|
19 | | (11) If a minor resides with his or her parents or in a |
20 | | foster home,
attend school, attend a non-residential |
21 | | program for youths, and contribute
to his or her own |
22 | | support at home or in a foster home;
|
23 | | (12) Observe any curfew ordered by the court;
|
24 | | (13) Remain in the custody of such designated person |
25 | | or organization
agreeing to supervise his release. Such |
26 | | third party custodian shall be
responsible for notifying |
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1 | | the court if the defendant fails to observe the
conditions |
2 | | of release which the custodian has agreed to monitor, and |
3 | | shall
be subject to contempt of court for failure so to |
4 | | notify the court;
|
5 | | (14) Be placed under direct supervision of the |
6 | | Pretrial Services
Agency, Probation Department or Court |
7 | | Services Department in a pretrial
bond home supervision |
8 | | capacity with or without the use of an approved
electronic |
9 | | monitoring device subject to Article 8A of Chapter V of |
10 | | the
Unified Code of Corrections;
|
11 | | (14.1) The court shall impose upon a defendant who is |
12 | | charged with any
alcohol, cannabis, methamphetamine, or |
13 | | controlled substance violation and is placed under
direct |
14 | | supervision of the Pretrial Services Agency, Probation |
15 | | Department or
Court Services Department in a pretrial bond |
16 | | home supervision capacity with
the use of an approved |
17 | | monitoring device, as a condition of such bail bond,
a fee |
18 | | that represents costs incidental to the electronic |
19 | | monitoring for each
day of such bail supervision ordered |
20 | | by the
court, unless after determining the inability of |
21 | | the defendant to pay the
fee, the court assesses a lesser |
22 | | fee or no fee as the case may be. The fee
shall be |
23 | | collected by the clerk of the circuit court, except as |
24 | | provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of |
25 | | the circuit court. The clerk of the
circuit court shall |
26 | | pay all monies collected from this fee to the county
|
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1 | | treasurer for deposit in the substance abuse services fund |
2 | | under Section
5-1086.1 of the Counties Code, except as |
3 | | provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of |
4 | | the circuit court. |
5 | | The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county may |
6 | | by administrative order establish a program for electronic |
7 | | monitoring of offenders with regard to drug-related and |
8 | | alcohol-related offenses, in which a vendor supplies and |
9 | | monitors the operation of the electronic monitoring |
10 | | device, and collects the fees on behalf of the county. The |
11 | | program shall include provisions for indigent offenders |
12 | | and the collection of unpaid fees. The program shall not |
13 | | unduly burden the offender and shall be subject to review |
14 | | by the Chief Judge. |
15 | | The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend any |
16 | | additional charges or fees for late payment, interest, or |
17 | | damage to any device;
|
18 | | (14.2) The court shall impose upon all defendants, |
19 | | including those
defendants subject to paragraph (14.1) |
20 | | above, placed under direct supervision
of the Pretrial |
21 | | Services Agency, Probation Department or Court Services
|
22 | | Department in a pretrial bond home supervision capacity |
23 | | with the use of an
approved monitoring device, as a |
24 | | condition of such bail bond, a fee
which shall represent |
25 | | costs incidental to such
electronic monitoring for each |
26 | | day of such bail supervision ordered by the
court, unless |
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1 | | after determining the inability of the defendant to pay |
2 | | the fee,
the court assesses a lesser fee or no fee as the |
3 | | case may be. The fee shall be
collected by the clerk of the |
4 | | circuit court, except as provided in an administrative |
5 | | order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The clerk of |
6 | | the circuit court
shall pay all monies collected from this |
7 | | fee to the county treasurer who shall
use the monies |
8 | | collected to defray the costs of corrections. The county
|
9 | | treasurer shall deposit the fee collected in the county |
10 | | working cash fund under
Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 |
11 | | of the Counties Code, as the case may
be, except as |
12 | | provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of |
13 | | the circuit court. |
14 | | The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county may |
15 | | by administrative order establish a program for electronic |
16 | | monitoring of offenders with regard to drug-related and |
17 | | alcohol-related offenses, in which a vendor supplies and |
18 | | monitors the operation of the electronic monitoring |
19 | | device, and collects the fees on behalf of the county. The |
20 | | program shall include provisions for indigent offenders |
21 | | and the collection of unpaid fees. The program shall not |
22 | | unduly burden the offender and shall be subject to review |
23 | | by the Chief Judge. |
24 | | The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend any |
25 | | additional charges or fees for late payment, interest, or |
26 | | damage to any device;
|
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1 | | (14.3) The Chief Judge of the Judicial Circuit may |
2 | | establish reasonable
fees to be paid by a person receiving |
3 | | pretrial services while under supervision
of a pretrial |
4 | | services agency, probation department, or court services
|
5 | | department. Reasonable fees may be charged for pretrial |
6 | | services
including, but not limited to, pretrial |
7 | | supervision, diversion programs,
electronic monitoring, |
8 | | victim impact services, drug and alcohol testing, DNA |
9 | | testing, GPS electronic monitoring, assessments and |
10 | | evaluations related to domestic violence and other |
11 | | victims, and
victim mediation services. The person |
12 | | receiving pretrial services may be
ordered to pay all |
13 | | costs incidental to pretrial services in accordance with |
14 | | his
or her ability to pay those costs;
|
15 | | (14.4) For persons charged with violating Section |
16 | | 11-501 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code, refrain from |
17 | | operating a motor vehicle not equipped with an
ignition |
18 | | interlock device, as defined in Section 1-129.1 of the |
19 | | Illinois
Vehicle Code,
pursuant to the rules promulgated |
20 | | by the Secretary of State for the
installation of ignition
|
21 | | interlock devices. Under this condition the court may |
22 | | allow a defendant who is
not
self-employed to operate a |
23 | | vehicle owned by the defendant's employer that is
not |
24 | | equipped with an ignition interlock device in the course |
25 | | and scope of the
defendant's employment;
|
26 | | (15) Comply with the terms and conditions of an order |
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1 | | of protection
issued by the court under the Illinois |
2 | | Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an
order of protection |
3 | | issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United
|
4 | | States territory;
|
5 | | (16) Under Section 110-6.5 comply with the conditions |
6 | | of the drug testing
program; and
|
7 | | (17) Such other reasonable conditions as the court may |
8 | | impose.
|
9 | | (c) When a person is charged with an offense under Section |
10 | | 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14,
|
11 | | 12-14.1,
12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the |
12 | | Criminal Code of 2012, involving a victim who is a
minor under |
13 | | 18 years of age living in the same household with the defendant
|
14 | | at the time of the offense, in granting bail or releasing the |
15 | | defendant on
his own recognizance, the judge shall impose |
16 | | conditions to restrict the
defendant's access to the victim |
17 | | which may include, but are not limited to
conditions that he |
18 | | will:
|
19 | | 1. Vacate the household.
|
20 | | 2. Make payment of temporary support to his |
21 | | dependents.
|
22 | | 3. Refrain from contact or communication with the |
23 | | child victim, except
as ordered by the court.
|
24 | | (d) When a person is charged with a criminal offense and |
25 | | the victim is
a family or household member as defined in |
26 | | Article 112A, conditions shall
be imposed at the time of the |
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1 | | defendant's release on bond that restrict the
defendant's |
2 | | access to the victim.
Unless provided otherwise by the court, |
3 | | the
restrictions shall include
requirements that the defendant |
4 | | do the following:
|
5 | | (1) refrain from contact or communication with the |
6 | | victim for a
minimum period of 72 hours following the |
7 | | defendant's release; and
|
8 | | (2) refrain from entering or remaining at the victim's |
9 | | residence for a
minimum period of 72 hours following the |
10 | | defendant's release.
|
11 | | (e) Local law enforcement agencies shall develop |
12 | | standardized bond forms
for use in cases involving family or |
13 | | household members as defined in
Article 112A, including |
14 | | specific conditions of bond as provided in
subsection (d). |
15 | | Failure of any law enforcement department to develop or use
|
16 | | those forms shall in no way limit the applicability and |
17 | | enforcement of
subsections (d) and (f).
|
18 | | (f) If the defendant is admitted to bail after conviction |
19 | | the
conditions of the bail bond shall be that he will, in |
20 | | addition to the
conditions set forth in subsections (a) and |
21 | | (b) hereof:
|
22 | | (1) Duly prosecute his appeal;
|
23 | | (2) Appear at such time and place as the court may |
24 | | direct;
|
25 | | (3) Not depart this State without leave of the court;
|
26 | | (4) Comply with such other reasonable conditions as |
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1 | | the court may
impose; and
|
2 | | (5) If the judgment is affirmed or the cause reversed |
3 | | and remanded
for a new trial, forthwith surrender to the |
4 | | officer from whose custody
he was bailed.
|
5 | | (g) Upon a finding of guilty for any felony offense, the |
6 | | defendant shall
physically surrender, at a time and place |
7 | | designated by the court,
any and all firearms in his or her |
8 | | possession and his or her Firearm Owner's
Identification Card |
9 | | as a condition of remaining on bond pending sentencing.
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10 | | (h) In the event the defendant is unable to post bond, the |
11 | | court may impose a no contact provision with the victim or |
12 | | other interested party that shall be enforced while the |
13 | | defendant remains in custody. |
14 | | (Source: P.A. 101-138, eff. 1-1-20 .)
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15 | | (725 ILCS 5/112A-11.1) |
16 | | Sec. 112A-11.1. Procedure for determining whether certain |
17 | | misdemeanor crimes
are crimes of domestic violence for |
18 | | purposes of federal
law. |
19 | | (a) When a defendant has been charged with a violation of |
20 | | Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the |
21 | | Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the State |
22 | | may, at arraignment or no later than 45 days after |
23 | | arraignment, for the purpose of notification to the Department |
24 | | of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office , |
25 | | serve on the defendant and file with the court a notice |
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1 | | alleging that conviction of the offense would subject the |
2 | | defendant to the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) because |
3 | | of the relationship between the defendant and the alleged |
4 | | victim and the nature of the alleged offense. |
5 | | (b) The notice shall include the name of the person |
6 | | alleged to be the victim of the crime and shall specify the |
7 | | nature of the alleged relationship as set forth in 18 U.S.C. |
8 | | 921(a)(33)(A)(ii). It shall also specify the element of the |
9 | | charged offense which requires the use or attempted use of |
10 | | physical force, or the threatened use of a deadly weapon, as |
11 | | set forth 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(33)(A)(ii). It shall also include |
12 | | notice that the defendant is entitled to a hearing on the |
13 | | allegation contained in the notice and that if the allegation |
14 | | is sustained, that determination and conviction shall be |
15 | | reported to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's |
16 | | Identification Card Office . |
17 | | (c) After having been notified as provided in subsection |
18 | | (b) of this Section, the defendant may stipulate or admit, |
19 | | orally on the record or in writing, that conviction of the |
20 | | offense would subject the defendant to the prohibitions of 18 |
21 | | U.S.C. 922(g)(9). In that case, the applicability of 18 U.S.C. |
22 | | 922(g)(9) shall be deemed established for purposes of Section |
23 | | 112A-11.2. If the defendant denies the applicability of 18 |
24 | | U.S.C. 922(g)(9) as alleged in the notice served by the State, |
25 | | or stands mute with respect to that allegation, then the State |
26 | | shall bear the burden to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that |
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1 | | the offense is one to which the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. |
2 | | 922(g)(9) apply. The court may consider reliable hearsay |
3 | | evidence submitted by either party provided that it is |
4 | | relevant to the determination of the allegation. Facts |
5 | | previously proven at trial or elicited at the time of entry of |
6 | | a plea of guilty shall be deemed established beyond a |
7 | | reasonable doubt and shall not be relitigated. At the |
8 | | conclusion of the hearing, or upon a stipulation or admission, |
9 | | as applicable, the court shall make a specific written |
10 | | determination with respect to the allegation.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.) |
12 | | (725 ILCS 5/112A-11.2) |
13 | | Sec. 112A-11.2. Notification to the Department of State |
14 | | Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office of
|
15 | | determinations in certain misdemeanor cases. Upon judgment of |
16 | | conviction of a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.2, |
17 | | 12-3.4, or 12-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal |
18 | | Code of 2012 when the defendant has been determined, under |
19 | | Section 112A-11.1, to be subject to the prohibitions of 18 |
20 | | U.S.C. 922(g)(9), the circuit court clerk shall include |
21 | | notification and a copy of the written determination in a |
22 | | report of the conviction to the Department of State Police |
23 | | Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office to enable the |
24 | | office to report that determination to the Federal Bureau of |
25 | | Investigation and assist the Bureau in identifying persons |
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1 | | prohibited from purchasing and possessing a firearm pursuant |
2 | | to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 922.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
|
4 | | (725 ILCS 5/112A-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14)
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5 | | Sec. 112A-14. Domestic violence order of protection; |
6 | | remedies.
|
7 | | (a) (Blank).
|
8 | | (b) The court may order any of the remedies listed in this |
9 | | subsection (b).
The remedies listed in this subsection (b) |
10 | | shall be in addition to other civil
or criminal remedies |
11 | | available to petitioner.
|
12 | | (1) Prohibition of abuse. Prohibit respondent's |
13 | | harassment,
interference with personal liberty, |
14 | | intimidation of a dependent, physical
abuse, or willful |
15 | | deprivation, as defined in this Article, if such abuse has
|
16 | | occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not |
17 | | prohibited.
|
18 | | (2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. |
19 | | Prohibit respondent
from entering or remaining in any |
20 | | residence, household, or premises of the petitioner,
|
21 | | including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner |
22 | | has a right
to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive |
23 | | possession of the residence, household, or premises
shall |
24 | | not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be |
25 | | limited by
the standard set forth in subsection (c-2) of |
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1 | | Section 501 of the Illinois Marriage and
Dissolution of |
2 | | Marriage Act.
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3 | | (A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to |
4 | | occupancy of a
residence or household if it is
solely |
5 | | or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's |
6 | | spouse, a
person with a legal duty to support that |
7 | | party or a minor child in that
party's care, or by any |
8 | | person or entity other than the opposing party that
|
9 | | authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic |
10 | | violence shelter).
Standards set forth in subparagraph |
11 | | (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.
|
12 | | (B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and |
13 | | respondent
each has the right to occupancy of a |
14 | | residence or household, the court
shall balance (i) |
15 | | the hardships to respondent and any minor child or
|
16 | | dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from |
17 | | entry of this remedy with (ii)
the hardships to |
18 | | petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in
|
19 | | petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to |
20 | | the risk of abuse (should
petitioner remain at the |
21 | | residence or household) or from loss of possession
of |
22 | | the residence or household (should petitioner leave to |
23 | | avoid the risk
of abuse). When determining the balance |
24 | | of hardships, the court shall also
take into account |
25 | | the accessibility of the residence or household.
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26 | | Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not |
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1 | | have a right to occupancy.
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2 | | The balance of hardships is presumed to favor |
3 | | possession by
petitioner unless the presumption is |
4 | | rebutted by a preponderance of the
evidence, showing |
5 | | that the hardships to respondent substantially |
6 | | outweigh
the hardships to petitioner and any minor |
7 | | child or dependent adult in petitioner's
care. The |
8 | | court, on the request of petitioner or on its own |
9 | | motion,
may order respondent to provide suitable, |
10 | | accessible, alternate housing
for petitioner instead |
11 | | of
excluding respondent from a mutual residence or |
12 | | household.
|
13 | | (3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions.
Order |
14 | | respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other |
15 | | person
protected by the domestic violence order of |
16 | | protection, or prohibit respondent from entering
or |
17 | | remaining present at petitioner's school, place of |
18 | | employment, or other
specified places at times when |
19 | | petitioner is present, or both, if
reasonable, given
the |
20 | | balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for |
21 | | the court
to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry
if |
22 | | respondent has no right to enter the premises.
|
23 | | (A) If a domestic violence order of protection |
24 | | grants petitioner exclusive possession
of the |
25 | | residence, prohibits respondent from entering the |
26 | | residence,
or orders respondent to stay away from |
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1 | | petitioner or other
protected persons, then the court |
2 | | may allow respondent access to the
residence to remove |
3 | | items of clothing and personal adornment
used |
4 | | exclusively by respondent, medications, and other |
5 | | items as the court directs.
The right to access shall |
6 | | be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs
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7 | | and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third |
8 | | party or law enforcement officer.
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9 | | (B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend |
10 | | the same public, private, or non-public elementary, |
11 | | middle, or high school, the court when issuing a |
12 | | domestic violence order of protection and providing |
13 | | relief shall consider the severity of the act, any |
14 | | continuing physical danger or emotional distress to |
15 | | the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to |
16 | | the petitioner and respondent under federal and State |
17 | | law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent |
18 | | to another school, a change of placement or a change of |
19 | | program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, |
20 | | and educational disruption that would be caused by a |
21 | | transfer of the respondent to another school, and any |
22 | | other relevant facts of the case. The court may order |
23 | | that the respondent not attend the public, private, or |
24 | | non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended |
25 | | by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a |
26 | | change of placement or change of program, as |
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1 | | determined by the school district or private or |
2 | | non-public school, or place restrictions on the |
3 | | respondent's movements within the school attended by |
4 | | the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of |
5 | | proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a |
6 | | transfer, change of placement, or change of program of |
7 | | the respondent is not available. The respondent also |
8 | | bears the burden of production with respect to the |
9 | | expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that |
10 | | would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to |
11 | | another school. A transfer, change of placement, or |
12 | | change of program is not unavailable to the respondent |
13 | | solely on the ground that the respondent does not |
14 | | agree with the school district's or private or |
15 | | non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or |
16 | | change of program or solely on the ground that the |
17 | | respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise |
18 | | does not take an action required to effectuate a |
19 | | transfer, change of placement, or change of program. |
20 | | When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the |
21 | | public, private, or non-public school attended by the |
22 | | petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to |
23 | | another attendance center within the respondent's |
24 | | school district or private or non-public school, the |
25 | | school district or private or non-public school shall |
26 | | have sole discretion to determine the attendance |
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1 | | center to which the respondent is transferred. If the |
2 | | court order results in a transfer of the minor |
3 | | respondent to another attendance center, a change in |
4 | | the respondent's placement, or a change of the |
5 | | respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal |
6 | | custodian of the respondent is responsible for |
7 | | transportation and other costs associated with the |
8 | | transfer or change. |
9 | | (C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or |
10 | | legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain |
11 | | actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to |
12 | | ensure that the respondent complies with the order. If |
13 | | the court orders a transfer of the respondent to |
14 | | another school, the parents, guardian, or legal |
15 | | custodian of the respondent is responsible for |
16 | | transportation and other costs associated with the |
17 | | change of school by the respondent. |
18 | | (4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to |
19 | | undergo
counseling for a specified duration with a social |
20 | | worker, psychologist,
clinical psychologist, |
21 | | psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or
substance |
22 | | abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, |
23 | | agency
providing services to elders, program designed for |
24 | | domestic violence
abusers, or any other guidance service |
25 | | the court deems appropriate. The court may order the |
26 | | respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report |
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1 | | to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol |
2 | | approved partner abuse intervention program for an |
3 | | assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.
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4 | | (5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. |
5 | | In order to protect
the minor child from abuse, neglect, |
6 | | or unwarranted separation from the person
who has been the |
7 | | minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect |
8 | | the
well-being of the minor child, the court may do either |
9 | | or both of the following:
(i) grant petitioner physical |
10 | | care or possession of the minor child, or both, or
(ii) |
11 | | order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove |
12 | | a minor child
from, the physical care of a parent or person |
13 | | in loco parentis.
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14 | | If the respondent is charged with abuse
(as defined in |
15 | | Section 112A-3 of this Code) of a minor child, there shall |
16 | | be a
rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to |
17 | | respondent would not
be in the minor child's best |
18 | | interest.
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19 | | (6) Temporary allocation of parental responsibilities |
20 | | and significant decision-making responsibilities.
Award |
21 | | temporary significant decision-making responsibility to |
22 | | petitioner in accordan |