SB0900 100TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB100 05737 SMS 15760 b

100TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2017 and 2018
SB0900

Introduced 2/7/2017, by Sen. Pamela J. Althoff

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Amends the Regulatory Sunset Act. Extends the repeal date of the Nurse Practice Act from January 1, 2018 to January 1, 2028. Amends the Nurse Practice Act. Eliminates the position of Assistant Nursing Coordinator. Eliminates the Advanced Practice Nursing Board. Provides that the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may provide notice to a licensee or applicant by certified or registered mail to the address of record or by email to the email address of record. Provides provisions for change of address of record and email address of record, application for license, confidentiality of any information collected by the Department in the course of an examination or investigation of a license or applicant, and disposition by a consent order. Changes references to "advanced practice nurse" to references to "advanced practice registered nurse" throughout the Act and other Acts. Changes references to "Illinois Center for Nursing" to references to "Illinois Nursing Workforce Center". Makes changes concerning definitions, application of the Act, unlicensed practice, prohibited acts, Department powers and duties, nursing delegation, qualifications for LPN, RN, and APRN licensure, RN education program requirements, grounds for disciplinary action, intoxication and drug abuse, the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund, investigations, notices, hearings, use of stenographers and transcripts, review under the Administrative Review Law, certification of records, the Center for Nursing Advisory Board, and medication aide licensure requirements. Removes provisions concerning registered nurse externship permits, rosters, liability of the State, hearing officers, and orders for rehearings. Makes other changes. Effective immediately.

FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT concerning regulation.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.28 and by adding Section 4.38 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.28)

Sec. 4.28. Acts repealed on January 1, 2018. The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2018:

The Illinois Petroleum Education and Marketing Act.

The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

The Acupuncture Practice Act.

The Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act.

The Interpreter for the Deaf Licensure Act of 2007.

The Nurse Practice Act.

The Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act.

The Pharmacy Practice Act.

The Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act.

The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act.

The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 95-187, eff. 8-16-07; 95-235, eff. 8-17-07; 95-450, eff. 8-27-07; 95-465, eff. 8-27-07; 95-617, eff. 9-12-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-687, eff. 10-23-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 95-703, eff. 12-31-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.38 new)

Sec. 4.38. Act repealed on January 1, 2028. The following Act is repealed on January 1, 2028:

The Nurse Practice Act.

Section 10. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11A as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.11A)

Sec. 6.11A. Physical therapy and occupational therapy.

(a) The program of health benefits provided under this Act shall provide coverage for medically necessary physical therapy and occupational therapy when that therapy is ordered for the treatment of autoimmune diseases or referred for the same purpose by (i) a physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, (ii) a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, "medically necessary" means any care, treatment, intervention, service, or item that will or is reasonably expected to:

(i) prevent the onset of an illness, condition, injury, disease, or disability;

(ii) reduce or ameliorate the physical, mental, or developmental effects of an illness, condition, injury, disease, or disability; or

(iii) assist the achievement or maintenance of maximum functional activity in performing daily activities.

(c) The coverage required under this Section shall be subject to the same deductible, coinsurance, waiting period, cost sharing limitation, treatment limitation, calendar year maximum, or other limitations as provided for other physical or rehabilitative or occupational therapy benefits covered by the policy.

(d) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, the provider of the physical therapy or occupational therapy shall furnish medical records, clinical notes, or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is medically necessary. When treatment is anticipated to require continued services to achieve demonstrable progress, the insurer may request a treatment plan consisting of the diagnosis, proposed treatment by type, proposed frequency of treatment, anticipated duration of treatment, anticipated outcomes stated as goals, and proposed frequency of updating the treatment plan.

(e) When making a determination of medical necessity for treatment, an insurer must make the determination in a manner consistent with the manner in which that determination is made with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process. During the appeals process, any challenge to medical necessity may be viewed as reasonable only if the review includes a licensed health care professional with the same category of license as the professional who ordered or referred the service in question and with expertise in the most current and effective treatment.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 15. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 19-12.1 and 19-13 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or a physician assistant's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's voter's identification card for persons with disabilities card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for voters with physical disabilities, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other vote by mail ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 6-28-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-13) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-13)

Sec. 19-13. Any qualified voter who has been admitted to a hospital, nursing home, or rehabilitation center due to an illness or physical injury not more than 14 days before an election shall be entitled to personal delivery of a vote by mail ballot in the hospital, nursing home, or rehabilitation center subject to the following conditions:

(1) The voter completes the Application for Physically Incapacitated Elector as provided in Section 19-3, stating as reasons therein that he is a patient in ............... (name of hospital/home/center), ............... located at, ............... (address of hospital/home/center), ............... (county, city/village), was admitted for ............... (nature of illness or physical injury), on ............... (date of admission), and does not expect to be released from the hospital/home/center on or before the day of election or, if released, is expected to be homebound on the day of the election and unable to travel to the polling place.

(2) The voter's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant completes a Certificate of Attending Health Care Professional in a form substantially as follows:

CERTIFICATE OF ATTENDING HEALTH CARE PROFESSIONAL

I state that I am a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, duly licensed to practice in the State of .........; that .......... is a patient in .......... (name of hospital/home/center), located at ............. (address of hospital/home/center), ................. (county, city/village); that such individual was admitted for ............. (nature of illness or physical injury), on ............ (date of admission); and that I have examined such individual in the State in which I am licensed to practice and do not expect such individual to be released from the hospital/home/center on or before the day of election or, if released, to be able to travel to the polling place on election day.

Under penalties as provided by law pursuant to Section 29-10 of The Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this certification are true and correct.

(Signature) ...............

(Date licensed) ............

(3) Any person who is registered to vote in the same precinct as the admitted voter or any legal relative of the admitted voter may present such voter's vote by mail ballot application, completed as prescribed in paragraph 1, accompanied by the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or a physician assistant's certificate, completed as prescribed in paragraph 2, to the election authority. Such precinct voter or relative shall execute and sign an affidavit furnished by the election authority attesting that he is a registered voter in the same precinct as the admitted voter or that he is a legal relative of the admitted voter and stating the nature of the relationship. Such precinct voter or relative shall further attest that he has been authorized by the admitted voter to obtain his or her vote by mail ballot from the election authority and deliver such ballot to him in the hospital, home, or center.

Upon receipt of the admitted voter's application, physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or a physician assistant's certificate, and the affidavit of the precinct voter or the relative, the election authority shall examine the registration records to determine if the applicant is qualified to vote and, if found to be qualified, shall provide the precinct voter or the relative the vote by mail ballot for delivery to the applicant.

Upon receipt of the vote by mail ballot, the admitted voter shall mark the ballot in secret and subscribe to the certifications on the vote by mail ballot return envelope. After depositing the ballot in the return envelope and securely sealing the envelope, such voter shall give the envelope to the precinct voter or the relative who shall deliver it to the election authority in sufficient time for the ballot to be delivered by the election authority to the election authority's central ballot counting location before 7 p.m. on election day.

Upon receipt of the admitted voter's vote by mail ballot, the ballot shall be counted in the manner prescribed in this Article.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 20. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-907)

Sec. 4. Identification card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of expedited identification card requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant, a determination of disability from an advanced practice registered nurse, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-907)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of expedited identification card requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(a-20) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a committed person upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, if the released person presents a certified copy of his or her birth certificate, social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, and 2 documents proving his or her Illinois residence address. Documents proving residence address may include any official document of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice showing the released person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed certificate of residency form, which may be executed by Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice personnel.

(a-25) The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card valid for 90 days to a committed person upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, if the released person is unable to present a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, but does present a Secretary of State prescribed verification form completed by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, verifying the released person's date of birth and social security number and 2 documents proving his or her Illinois residence address. The verification form must have been completed no more than 30 days prior to the date of application for the Illinois Identification Card. Documents proving residence address shall include any official document of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice showing the person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed certificate of residency, which may be executed by Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice personnel.

Prior to the expiration of the 90-day period of the limited-term Illinois Identification Card, if the released person submits to the Secretary of State a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and his or her social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, a standard Illinois Identification Card shall be issued. A limited-term Illinois Identification Card may not be renewed.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant, a determination of disability from an advanced practice registered nurse, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-907, eff. 7-1-17.)

Section 25. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-23)

Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.

(a) Reports of drug overdose.

(1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse shall publish annually a report on drug overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose. The report shall also provide information on interventions that would be effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose and shall include an analysis of drug overdose information reported to the Department of Public Health pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code, Section 6.14g of the Hospital Licensing Act, and subsection (j) of Section 22-30 of the School Code.

(2) The report may include:

(A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.

(B) Trends in emergency room utilization related to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room utilization.

(C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and emergency services and the cost impact of emergency services utilization.

(D) Suggested improvements in data collection.

(E) A description of other interventions effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(F) A description of efforts undertaken to educate the public about unused medication and about how to properly dispose of unused medication, including the number of registered collection receptacles in this State, mail-back programs, and drug take-back events.

(b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.

(1) The Director may establish a program to provide for the production and publication, in electronic and other formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response literature. The Director may develop and disseminate curricula for use by professionals, organizations, individuals, or committees interested in the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital staff, families and associates of drug users, peace officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to information regarding drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response, literature produced by the Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall provide information and resources for substance abuse treatment.

The Director may establish or authorize programs for prescribing, dispensing, or distributing opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may include the prescribing of opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose to a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist.

(2) The Director may provide advice to State and local officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, programs promoting the disposal of unused prescription drugs, trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose crisis.

(c) Grants.

(1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, universities, community-based organizations, and faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner the Director prescribes.

(2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the necessity for overdose prevention projects in various settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to develop interventions that will be effective and viable in their local areas.

(3) The Director shall give preference for grants to proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving interventions and responses, provide information to drug users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give preference to proposals that include one or more of the following elements:

(A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a potentially fatal drug overdose.

(B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response education projects in drug treatment centers, outreach programs, and other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(C) Drug overdose recognition and response training, including rescue breathing, in drug treatment centers and for other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(D) The production and distribution of targeted or mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and response, the potential dangers of keeping unused prescription drugs in the home, and methods to properly dispose of unused prescription drugs.

(E) Prescription and distribution of opioid antagonists.

(F) The institution of education and training projects on drug overdose response and treatment for emergency services and law enforcement personnel.

(G) A system of parent, family, and survivor education and mutual support groups.

(4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private foundations, the federal government, and other sources to fund the grants under this Section and to fund an evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.

(d) Health care professional prescription of opioid antagonists.

(1) A health care professional who, acting in good faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or dispenses an opioid antagonist to: (a) a patient who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is capable of administering the drug in an emergency, or (b) a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to: (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute or (ii) any criminal liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to administer an opioid antagonist may in an emergency administer without fee an opioid antagonist if the person has received the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be (i) liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute, or (ii) subject to any criminal prosecution or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid antagonist to a patient shall ensure that the patient receives the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided by the health care professional or a community-based organization, substance abuse program, or other organization with which the health care professional establishes a written agreement that includes a description of how the organization will provide patient information, how employees or volunteers providing information will be trained, and standards for documenting the provision of patient information to patients. Provision of patient information shall be documented in the patient's medical record or through similar means as determined by agreement between the health care professional and the organization. The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in consultation with statewide organizations representing physicians, pharmacists, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care professionals, community-based organizations, substance abuse programs, and other organizations training materials in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the provision of such patient information.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection:

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority, an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act, or a pharmacist licensed to practice pharmacy under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

"Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, may be in a position to assist another individual during an overdose and who has received patient information as required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the indications for and administration of an opioid antagonist.

"Patient information" includes information provided to the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid antagonist dosage and administration; the importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist; and other issues as necessary.

(e) Drug overdose response policy.

(1) Every State and local government agency that employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must possess opioid antagonists and must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and administration of such opioid antagonists and to provide training in the administration of opioid antagonists. A State or local government agency that employs a fireman as defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act but does not respond to emergency medical calls or provide medical services shall be exempt from this subsection.

(2) Every publicly or privately owned ambulance, special emergency medical services vehicle, non-transport vehicle, or ambulance assist vehicle, as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, which responds to requests for emergency services or transports patients between hospitals in emergency situations must possess opioid antagonists.

(3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and (2) to possess opioid antagonists may also apply to the Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid antagonists and training programs on the administration of opioid antagonists.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 9-19-16.)

Section 30. The Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 405-105 as follows:

(20 ILCS 405/405-105) (was 20 ILCS 405/64.1)

Sec. 405-105. Fidelity, surety, property, and casualty insurance. The Department shall establish and implement a program to coordinate the handling of all fidelity, surety, property, and casualty insurance exposures of the State and the departments, divisions, agencies, branches, and universities of the State. In performing this responsibility, the Department shall have the power and duty to do the following:

(1) Develop and maintain loss and exposure data on all State property.

(2) Study the feasibility of establishing a self-insurance plan for State property and prepare estimates of the costs of reinsurance for risks beyond the realistic limits of the self-insurance.

(3) Prepare a plan for centralizing the purchase of property and casualty insurance on State property under a master policy or policies and purchase the insurance contracted for as provided in the Illinois Purchasing Act.

(4) Evaluate existing provisions for fidelity bonds required of State employees and recommend changes that are appropriate commensurate with risk experience and the determinations respecting self-insurance or reinsurance so as to permit reduction of costs without loss of coverage.

(5) Investigate procedures for inclusion of school districts, public community college districts, and other units of local government in programs for the centralized purchase of insurance.

(6) Implement recommendations of the State Property Insurance Study Commission that the Department finds necessary or desirable in the performance of its powers and duties under this Section to achieve efficient and comprehensive risk management.

(7) Prepare and, in the discretion of the Director, implement a plan providing for the purchase of public liability insurance or for self-insurance for public liability or for a combination of purchased insurance and self-insurance for public liability (i) covering the State and drivers of motor vehicles owned, leased, or controlled by the State of Illinois pursuant to the provisions and limitations contained in the Illinois Vehicle Code, (ii) covering other public liability exposures of the State and its employees within the scope of their employment, and (iii) covering drivers of motor vehicles not owned, leased, or controlled by the State but used by a State employee on State business, in excess of liability covered by an insurance policy obtained by the owner of the motor vehicle or in excess of the dollar amounts that the Department shall determine to be reasonable. Any contract of insurance let under this Law shall be by bid in accordance with the procedure set forth in the Illinois Purchasing Act. Any provisions for self-insurance shall conform to subdivision (11).

The term "employee" as used in this subdivision (7) and in subdivision (11) means a person while in the employ of the State who is a member of the staff or personnel of a State agency, bureau, board, commission, committee, department, university, or college or who is a State officer, elected official, commissioner, member of or ex officio member of a State agency, bureau, board, commission, committee, department, university, or college, or a member of the National Guard while on active duty pursuant to orders of the Governor of the State of Illinois, or any other person while using a licensed motor vehicle owned, leased, or controlled by the State of Illinois with the authorization of the State of Illinois, provided the actual use of the motor vehicle is within the scope of that authorization and within the course of State service.

Subsequent to payment of a claim on behalf of an employee pursuant to this Section and after reasonable advance written notice to the employee, the Director may exclude the employee from future coverage or limit the coverage under the plan if (i) the Director determines that the claim resulted from an incident in which the employee was grossly negligent or had engaged in willful and wanton misconduct or (ii) the Director determines that the employee is no longer an acceptable risk based on a review of prior accidents in which the employee was at fault and for which payments were made pursuant to this Section.

The Director is authorized to promulgate administrative rules that may be necessary to establish and administer the plan.

Appropriations from the Road Fund shall be used to pay auto liability claims and related expenses involving employees of the Department of Transportation, the Illinois State Police, and the Secretary of State.

(8) Charge, collect, and receive from all other agencies of the State government fees or monies equivalent to the cost of purchasing the insurance.

(9) Establish, through the Director, charges for risk management services rendered to State agencies by the Department. The State agencies so charged shall reimburse the Department by vouchers drawn against their respective appropriations. The reimbursement shall be determined by the Director as amounts sufficient to reimburse the Department for expenditures incurred in rendering the service.

The Department shall charge the employing State agency or university for workers' compensation payments for temporary total disability paid to any employee after the employee has received temporary total disability payments for 120 days if the employee's treating physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant has issued a release to return to work with restrictions and the employee is able to perform modified duty work but the employing State agency or university does not return the employee to work at modified duty. Modified duty shall be duties assigned that may or may not be delineated as part of the duties regularly performed by the employee. Modified duties shall be assigned within the prescribed restrictions established by the treating physician and the physician who performed the independent medical examination. The amount of all reimbursements shall be deposited into the Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund which is hereby created as a revolving fund in the State treasury. In addition to any other purpose authorized by law, moneys in the Fund shall be used, subject to appropriation, to pay these or other temporary total disability claims of employees of State agencies and universities.

Beginning with fiscal year 1996, all amounts recovered by the Department through subrogation in workers' compensation and workers' occupational disease cases shall be deposited into the Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund created under this subdivision (9).

(10) Establish rules, procedures, and forms to be used by State agencies in the administration and payment of workers' compensation claims. For claims filed prior to July 1, 2013, the Department shall initially evaluate and determine the compensability of any injury that is the subject of a workers' compensation claim and provide for the administration and payment of such a claim for all State agencies. For claims filed on or after July 1, 2013, the Department shall retain responsibility for certain administrative payments including, but not limited to, payments to the private vendor contracted to perform services under subdivision (10b) of this Section, payments related to travel expenses for employees of the Office of the Attorney General, and payments to internal Department staff responsible for the oversight and management of any contract awarded pursuant to subdivision (10b) of this Section. Through December 31, 2012, the Director may delegate to any agency with the agreement of the agency head the responsibility for evaluation, administration, and payment of that agency's claims. Neither the Department nor the private vendor contracted to perform services under subdivision (10b) of this Section shall be responsible for providing workers' compensation services to the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority or to State universities that maintain self-funded workers' compensation liability programs.

(10a) By April 1 of each year prior to calendar year 2013, the Director must report and provide information to the State Workers' Compensation Program Advisory Board concerning the status of the State workers' compensation program for the next fiscal year. Information that the Director must provide to the State Workers' Compensation Program Advisory Board includes, but is not limited to, documents, reports of negotiations, bid invitations, requests for proposals, specifications, copies of proposed and final contracts or agreements, and any other materials concerning contracts or agreements for the program. By the first of each month prior to calendar year 2013, the Director must provide updated, and any new, information to the State Workers' Compensation Program Advisory Board until the State workers' compensation program for the next fiscal year is determined.

(10b) No later than January 1, 2013, the chief procurement officer appointed under paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 10-20 of the Illinois Procurement Code (hereinafter "chief procurement officer"), in consultation with the Department of Central Management Services, shall procure one or more private vendors to administer the program providing payments for workers' compensation liability with respect to the employees of all State agencies. The chief procurement officer may procure a single contract applicable to all State agencies or multiple contracts applicable to one or more State agencies. If the chief procurement officer procures a single contract applicable to all State agencies, then the Department of Central Management Services shall be designated as the agency that enters into the contract and shall be responsible for the contract. If the chief procurement officer procures multiple contracts applicable to one or more State agencies, each agency to which the contract applies shall be designated as the agency that shall enter into the contract and shall be responsible for the contract. If the chief procurement officer procures contracts applicable to an individual State agency, the agency subject to the contract shall be designated as the agency responsible for the contract.

(10c) The procurement of private vendors for the administration of the workers' compensation program for State employees is subject to the provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code and administration by the chief procurement officer.

(10d) Contracts for the procurement of private vendors for the administration of the workers' compensation program for State employees shall be based upon, but limited to, the following criteria: (i) administrative cost, (ii) service capabilities of the vendor, and (iii) the compensation (including premiums, fees, or other charges). A vendor for the administration of the workers' compensation program for State employees shall provide services, including, but not limited to:

(A) providing a web-based case management system and provide access to the Office of the Attorney General;

(B) ensuring claims adjusters are available to provide testimony or information as requested by the Office of the Attorney General;

(C) establishing a preferred provider program for all State agencies and facilities; and

(D) authorizing the payment of medical bills at the preferred provider discount rate.

(10e) By September 15, 2012, the Department of Central Management Services shall prepare a plan to effectuate the transfer of responsibility and administration of the workers' compensation program for State employees to the selected private vendors. The Department shall submit a copy of the plan to the General Assembly.

(11) Any plan for public liability self-insurance implemented under this Section shall provide that (i) the Department shall attempt to settle and may settle any public liability claim filed against the State of Illinois or any public liability claim filed against a State employee on the basis of an occurrence in the course of the employee's State employment; (ii) any settlement of such a claim is not subject to fiscal year limitations and must be approved by the Director and, in cases of settlements exceeding $100,000, by the Governor; and (iii) a settlement of any public liability claim against the State or a State employee shall require an unqualified release of any right of action against the State and the employee for acts within the scope of the employee's employment giving rise to the claim.

Whenever and to the extent that a State employee operates a motor vehicle or engages in other activity covered by self-insurance under this Section, the State of Illinois shall defend, indemnify, and hold harmless the employee against any claim in tort filed against the employee for acts or omissions within the scope of the employee's employment in any proper judicial forum and not settled pursuant to this subdivision (11), provided that this obligation of the State of Illinois shall not exceed a maximum liability of $2,000,000 for any single occurrence in connection with the operation of a motor vehicle or $100,000 per person per occurrence for any other single occurrence, or $500,000 for any single occurrence in connection with the provision of medical care by a licensed physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant employee.

Any claims against the State of Illinois under a self-insurance plan that are not settled pursuant to this subdivision (11) shall be heard and determined by the Court of Claims and may not be filed or adjudicated in any other forum. The Attorney General of the State of Illinois or the Attorney General's designee shall be the attorney with respect to all public liability self-insurance claims that are not settled pursuant to this subdivision (11) and therefore result in litigation. The payment of any award of the Court of Claims entered against the State relating to any public liability self-insurance claim shall act as a release against any State employee involved in the occurrence.

(12) Administer a plan the purpose of which is to make payments on final settlements or final judgments in accordance with the State Employee Indemnification Act. The plan shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund specifically designated for that purpose, except that indemnification expenses for employees of the Department of Transportation, the Illinois State Police, and the Secretary of State shall be paid from the Road Fund. The term "employee" as used in this subdivision (12) has the same meaning as under subsection (b) of Section 1 of the State Employee Indemnification Act. Subject to sufficient appropriation, the Director shall approve payment of any claim, without regard to fiscal year limitations, presented to the Director that is supported by a final settlement or final judgment when the Attorney General and the chief officer of the public body against whose employee the claim or cause of action is asserted certify to the Director that the claim is in accordance with the State Employee Indemnification Act and that they approve of the payment. In no event shall an amount in excess of $150,000 be paid from this plan to or for the benefit of any claimant.

(13) Administer a plan the purpose of which is to make payments on final settlements or final judgments for employee wage claims in situations where there was an appropriation relevant to the wage claim, the fiscal year and lapse period have expired, and sufficient funds were available to pay the claim. The plan shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund specifically designated for that purpose.

Subject to sufficient appropriation, the Director is authorized to pay any wage claim presented to the Director that is supported by a final settlement or final judgment when the chief officer of the State agency employing the claimant certifies to the Director that the claim is a valid wage claim and that the fiscal year and lapse period have expired. Payment for claims that are properly submitted and certified as valid by the Director shall include interest accrued at the rate of 7% per annum from the forty-fifth day after the claims are received by the Department or 45 days from the date on which the amount of payment is agreed upon, whichever is later, until the date the claims are submitted to the Comptroller for payment. When the Attorney General has filed an appearance in any proceeding concerning a wage claim settlement or judgment, the Attorney General shall certify to the Director that the wage claim is valid before any payment is made. In no event shall an amount in excess of $150,000 be paid from this plan to or for the benefit of any claimant.

Nothing in Public Act 84-961 shall be construed to affect in any manner the jurisdiction of the Court of Claims concerning wage claims made against the State of Illinois.

(14) Prepare and, in the discretion of the Director, implement a program for self-insurance for official fidelity and surety bonds for officers and employees as authorized by the Official Bond Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 35. The Regional Integrated Behavioral Health Networks Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1340/20)

Sec. 20. Steering Committee and Networks.

(a) To achieve these goals, the Department of Human Services shall convene a Regional Integrated Behavioral Health Networks Steering Committee (hereinafter "Steering Committee") comprised of State agencies involved in the provision, regulation, or financing of health, mental health, substance abuse, rehabilitation, and other services. These include, but shall not be limited to, the following agencies:

(1) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(2) The Department of Human Services and its Divisions of Mental Illness and Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Services.

(3) The Department of Public Health, including its Center for Rural Health.

The Steering Committee shall include a representative from each Network. The agencies of the Steering Committee are directed to work collaboratively to provide consultation, advice, and leadership to the Networks in facilitating communication within and across multiple agencies and in removing regulatory barriers that may prevent Networks from accomplishing the goals. The Steering Committee collectively or through one of its member Agencies shall also provide technical assistance to the Networks.

(b) There also shall be convened Networks in each of the Department of Human Services' regions comprised of representatives of community stakeholders represented in the Network, including when available, but not limited to, relevant trade and professional associations representing hospitals, community providers, public health care, hospice care, long term care, law enforcement, emergency medical service, physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, and physician assistants trained in psychiatry; an organization that advocates on behalf of federally qualified health centers, an organization that advocates on behalf of persons suffering with mental illness and substance abuse disorders, an organization that advocates on behalf of persons with disabilities, an organization that advocates on behalf of persons who live in rural areas, an organization that advocates on behalf of persons who live in medically underserved areas; and others designated by the Steering Committee or the Networks. A member from each Network may choose a representative who may serve on the Steering Committee.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 40. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Sections 5.1, 14, and 15.4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/5.1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-5.1)

Sec. 5.1. The Department shall develop, by rule, the procedures and standards by which it shall approve medications for clinical use in its facilities. A list of those drugs approved pursuant to these procedures shall be distributed to all Department facilities.

Drugs not listed by the Department may not be administered in facilities under the jurisdiction of the Department, provided that an unlisted drug may be administered as part of research with the prior written consent of the Secretary specifying the nature of the permitted use and the physicians authorized to prescribe the drug. Drugs, as used in this Section, mean psychotropic and narcotic drugs.

No physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant in the Department shall sign a prescription in blank, nor permit blank prescription forms to circulate out of his possession or control.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 1705/14) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-14)

Sec. 14. Chester Mental Health Center. To maintain and operate a facility for the care, custody, and treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities hereinafter designated, to be known as the Chester Mental Health Center.

Within the Chester Mental Health Center there shall be confined the following classes of persons, whose history, in the opinion of the Department, discloses dangerous or violent tendencies and who, upon examination under the direction of the Department, have been found a fit subject for confinement in that facility:

(a) Any male person who is charged with the commission of a crime but has been acquitted by reason of insanity as provided in Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b) Any male person who is charged with the commission of a crime but has been found unfit under Article 104 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) Any male person with mental illness or developmental disabilities or person in need of mental treatment now confined under the supervision of the Department or hereafter admitted to any facility thereof or committed thereto by any court of competent jurisdiction.

If and when it shall appear to the facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center that it is necessary to confine persons in order to maintain security or provide for the protection and safety of recipients and staff, the Chester Mental Health Center may confine all persons on a unit to their rooms. This period of confinement shall not exceed 10 hours in a 24 hour period, including the recipient's scheduled hours of sleep, unless approved by the Secretary of the Department. During the period of confinement, the persons confined shall be observed at least every 15 minutes. A record shall be kept of the observations. This confinement shall not be considered seclusion as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center may authorize the temporary use of handcuffs on a recipient for a period not to exceed 10 minutes when necessary in the course of transport of the recipient within the facility to maintain custody or security. Use of handcuffs is subject to the provisions of Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The facility shall keep a monthly record listing each instance in which handcuffs are used, circumstances indicating the need for use of handcuffs, and time of application of handcuffs and time of release therefrom. The facility director shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act, and the Department to examine and copy such record upon request.

The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center may authorize the temporary use of transport devices on a civil recipient when necessary in the course of transport of the civil recipient outside the facility to maintain custody or security. The decision whether to use any transport devices shall be reviewed and approved on an individualized basis by a physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant based upon a determination of the civil recipient's: (1) history of violence, (2) history of violence during transports, (3) history of escapes and escape attempts, (4) history of trauma, (5) history of incidents of restraint or seclusion and use of involuntary medication, (6) current functioning level and medical status, and (7) prior experience during similar transports, and the length, duration, and purpose of the transport. The least restrictive transport device consistent with the individual's need shall be used. Staff transporting the individual shall be trained in the use of the transport devices, recognizing and responding to a person in distress, and shall observe and monitor the individual while being transported. The facility shall keep a monthly record listing all transports, including those transports for which use of transport devices was not sought, those for which use of transport devices was sought but denied, and each instance in which transport devices are used, circumstances indicating the need for use of transport devices, time of application of transport devices, time of release from those devices, and any adverse events. The facility director shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act, and the Department to examine and copy the record upon request. This use of transport devices shall not be considered restraint as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. For the purpose of this Section "transport device" means ankle cuffs, handcuffs, waist chains or wrist-waist devices designed to restrict an individual's range of motion while being transported. These devices must be approved by the Division of Mental Health, used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, and used only by qualified staff members who have completed all training required to be eligible to transport patients and all other required training relating to the safe use and application of transport devices, including recognizing and responding to signs of distress in an individual whose movement is being restricted by a transport device.

If and when it shall appear to the satisfaction of the Department that any person confined in the Chester Mental Health Center is not or has ceased to be such a source of danger to the public as to require his subjection to the regimen of the center, the Department is hereby authorized to transfer such person to any State facility for treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities, as the nature of the individual case may require.

Subject to the provisions of this Section, the Department, except where otherwise provided by law, shall, with respect to the management, conduct and control of the Chester Mental Health Center and the discipline, custody and treatment of the persons confined therein, have and exercise the same rights and powers as are vested by law in the Department with respect to any and all of the State facilities for treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities, and the recipients thereof, and shall be subject to the same duties as are imposed by law upon the Department with respect to such facilities and the recipients thereof.

The Department may elect to place persons who have been ordered by the court to be detained under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act in a distinct portion of the Chester Mental Health Center. The persons so placed shall be separated and shall not comingle with the recipients of the Chester Mental Health Center. The portion of Chester Mental Health Center that is used for the persons detained under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall not be a part of the mental health facility for the enforcement and implementation of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code nor shall their care and treatment be subject to the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The changes added to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are inoperative on and after June 30, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-79, eff. 7-15-13; 98-356, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 1705/15.4)

Sec. 15.4. Authorization for nursing delegation to permit direct care staff to administer medications.

(a) This Section applies to (i) all programs for persons with a developmental disability in settings of 16 persons or fewer that are funded or licensed by the Department of Human Services and that distribute or administer medications and (ii) all intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities with 16 beds or fewer that are licensed by the Department of Public Health. The Department of Human Services shall develop a training program for authorized direct care staff to administer medications under the supervision and monitoring of a registered professional nurse. This training program shall be developed in consultation with professional associations representing (i) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) registered professional nurses, and (iii) pharmacists.

(b) For the purposes of this Section:

"Authorized direct care staff" means non-licensed persons who have successfully completed a medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a nurse-trainer. This authorization is specific to an individual receiving service in a specific agency and does not transfer to another agency.

"Medications" means oral and topical medications, insulin in an injectable form, oxygen, epinephrine auto-injectors, and vaginal and rectal creams and suppositories. "Oral" includes inhalants and medications administered through enteral tubes, utilizing aseptic technique. "Topical" includes eye, ear, and nasal medications. Any controlled substances must be packaged specifically for an identified individual.

"Insulin in an injectable form" means a subcutaneous injection via an insulin pen pre-filled by the manufacturer. Authorized direct care staff may administer insulin, as ordered by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, if: (i) the staff has successfully completed a Department-approved advanced training program specific to insulin administration developed in consultation with professional associations listed in subsection (a) of this Section, and (ii) the staff consults with the registered nurse, prior to administration, of any insulin dose that is determined based on a blood glucose test result. The authorized direct care staff shall not: (i) calculate the insulin dosage needed when the dose is dependent upon a blood glucose test result, or (ii) administer insulin to individuals who require blood glucose monitoring greater than 3 times daily, unless directed to do so by the registered nurse.

"Nurse-trainer training program" means a standardized, competency-based medication administration train-the-trainer program provided by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a Department of Human Services master nurse-trainer for the purpose of training nurse-trainers to train persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the supervision and monitoring of the nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, and a curriculum overview, including the ethical and legal aspects of supervising those administering medications.

"Self-administration of medications" means an individual administers his or her own medications. To be considered capable to self-administer their own medication, individuals must, at a minimum, be able to identify their medication by size, shape, or color, know when they should take the medication, and know the amount of medication to be taken each time.

"Training program" means a standardized medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a registered professional nurse for the purpose of training persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the delegation and supervision of a nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, curriculum overview, including ethical-legal aspects, and standardized competency-based evaluations on administration of medications and self-administration of medication training programs.

(c) Training and authorization of non-licensed direct care staff by nurse-trainers must meet the requirements of this subsection.

(1) Prior to training non-licensed direct care staff to administer medication, the nurse-trainer shall perform the following for each individual to whom medication will be administered by non-licensed direct care staff:

(A) An assessment of the individual's health history and physical and mental status.

(B) An evaluation of the medications prescribed.

(2) Non-licensed authorized direct care staff shall meet the following criteria:

(A) Be 18 years of age or older.

(B) Have completed high school or have a high school equivalency certificate.

(C) Have demonstrated functional literacy.

(D) Have satisfactorily completed the Health and Safety component of a Department of Human Services authorized direct care staff training program.

(E) Have successfully completed the training program, pass the written portion of the comprehensive exam, and score 100% on the competency-based assessment specific to the individual and his or her medications.

(F) Have received additional competency-based assessment by the nurse-trainer as deemed necessary by the nurse-trainer whenever a change of medication occurs or a new individual that requires medication administration enters the program.

(3) Authorized direct care staff shall be re-evaluated by a nurse-trainer at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse. Any necessary retraining shall be to the extent that is necessary to ensure competency of the authorized direct care staff to administer medication.

(4) Authorization of direct care staff to administer medication shall be revoked if, in the opinion of the registered professional nurse, the authorized direct care staff is no longer competent to administer medication.

(5) The registered professional nurse shall assess an individual's health status at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse.

(d) Medication self-administration shall meet the following requirements:

(1) As part of the normalization process, in order for each individual to attain the highest possible level of independent functioning, all individuals shall be permitted to participate in their total health care program. This program shall include, but not be limited to, individual training in preventive health and self-medication procedures.

(A) Every program shall adopt written policies and procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining preventative health and self-medication skills in consultation with a registered professional nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

(B) Individuals shall be evaluated to determine their ability to self-medicate by the nurse-trainer through the use of the Department's required, standardized screening and assessment instruments.

(C) When the results of the screening and assessment indicate an individual not to be capable to self-administer his or her own medications, programs shall be developed in consultation with the Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team to provide individuals with self-medication administration.

(2) Each individual shall be presumed to be competent to self-administer medications if:

(A) authorized by an order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant; and

(B) approved to self-administer medication by the individual's Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team, which includes a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse.

(e) Quality Assurance.

(1) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, physician assistant, or pharmacist shall review the following for all individuals:

(A) Medication orders.

(B) Medication labels, including medications listed on the medication administration record for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure the labels match the orders issued by the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(C) Medication administration records for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure that the records are completed appropriately for:

(i) medication administered as prescribed;

(ii) refusal by the individual; and

(iii) full signatures provided for all initials used.

(2) Reviews shall occur at least quarterly, but may be done more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse or advanced practice registered nurse.

(3) A quality assurance review of medication errors and data collection for the purpose of monitoring and recommending corrective action shall be conducted within 7 days and included in the required annual review.

(f) Programs using authorized direct care staff to administer medications are responsible for documenting and maintaining records on the training that is completed.

(g) The absence of this training program constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, and welfare and necessitates emergency rulemaking by the Departments of Human Services and Public Health under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(h) Direct care staff who fail to qualify for delegated authority to administer medications pursuant to the provisions of this Section shall be given additional education and testing to meet criteria for delegation authority to administer medications. Any direct care staff person who fails to qualify as an authorized direct care staff after initial training and testing must within 3 months be given another opportunity for retraining and retesting. A direct care staff person who fails to meet criteria for delegated authority to administer medication, including, but not limited to, failure of the written test on 2 occasions shall be given consideration for shift transfer or reassignment, if possible. No employee shall be terminated for failure to qualify during the 3-month time period following initial testing. Refusal to complete training and testing required by this Section may be grounds for immediate dismissal.

(i) No authorized direct care staff person delegated to administer medication shall be subject to suspension or discharge for errors resulting from the staff person's acts or omissions when performing the functions unless the staff person's actions or omissions constitute willful and wanton conduct. Nothing in this subsection is intended to supersede paragraph (4) of subsection (c).

(j) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistant shall be on duty or on call at all times in any program covered by this Section.

(k) The employer shall be responsible for maintaining liability insurance for any program covered by this Section.

(l) Any direct care staff person who qualifies as authorized direct care staff pursuant to this Section shall be granted consideration for a one-time additional salary differential. The Department shall determine and provide the necessary funding for the differential in the base. This subsection (l) is inoperative on and after June 30, 2000.

(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-901, eff. 8-15-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 45. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-17)

Sec. 2105-17. Volunteer licenses.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, an optometrist licensed under the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, and a nurse or advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act. The Department may expand this definition by rule.

"Volunteer practice" means the practice of a licensed health care professional for the benefit of an individual or the public and without compensation for the health care services provided.

(b) The Department may grant a volunteer license to a health care professional who:

(1) meets all requirements of the State licensing Act that applies to his or her health care profession and the rules adopted under the Act; and

(2) agrees to engage in the volunteer practice of his or her health care profession in a free medical clinic, as defined in the Good Samaritan Act, or in a public health clinic, as defined in Section 6-101 of the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunities Act, and to not practice for compensation.

(c) A volunteer license shall be granted in accordance with the licensing Act that applies to the health care professional's given health care profession, and the licensure fee shall be set by rule in accordance with subsection (f).

(d) No health care professional shall hold a non-volunteer license in a health care profession and a volunteer license in that profession at the same time. In the event that the health care professional obtains a volunteer license in the profession for which he or she holds a non-volunteer license, that non-volunteer license shall automatically be placed in inactive status. In the event that a health care professional obtains a non-volunteer license in the profession for which he or she holds a volunteer license, the volunteer license shall be placed in inactive status. Practicing on an expired volunteer license constitutes the unlicensed practice of the health care professional's profession.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to waive or modify any statute, rule, or regulation concerning the licensure or practice of any health care profession. A health care professional who holds a volunteer license shall be subject to all statutes, rules, and regulations governing his or her profession. The Department shall waive the licensure fee for the first 500 volunteer licenses issued and may by rule provide for a fee waiver or fee reduction that shall apply to all licenses issued after the initial 500.

(f) The Department shall determine by rule the total number of volunteer licenses to be issued. The Department shall file proposed rules implementing this Section within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-659, eff. 6-23-14.)

Section 50. The Department of Public Health Act is amended by changing Sections 7 and 8.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2305/7) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 22.05)

Sec. 7. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall adopt rules requiring that upon death of a person who had or is suspected of having an infectious or communicable disease that could be transmitted through contact with the person's body or bodily fluids, the body shall be labeled "Infection Hazard", or with an equivalent term to inform persons having subsequent contact with the body, including any funeral director or embalmer, to take suitable precautions. Such rules shall require that the label shall be prominently displayed on and affixed to the outer wrapping or covering of the body if the body is wrapped or covered in any manner. Responsibility for such labeling shall lie with the attending physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant who certifies death, or if the death occurs in a health care facility, with such staff member as may be designated by the administrator of the facility. The Department may adopt rules providing for the safe disposal of human remains. To the extent feasible without endangering the public's health, the Department shall respect and accommodate the religious beliefs of individuals in implementing this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 2305/8.2)

Sec. 8.2. Osteoporosis Prevention and Education Program.

(a) The Department of Public Health, utilizing available federal funds, State funds appropriated for that purpose, or other available funding as provided for in this Section, shall establish, promote, and maintain an Osteoporosis Prevention and Education Program to promote public awareness of the causes of osteoporosis, options for prevention, the value of early detection, and possible treatments (including the benefits and risks of those treatments). The Department may accept, for that purpose, any special grant of money, services, or property from the federal government or any of its agencies or from any foundation, organization, or medical school.

(b) The program shall include the following:

(1) Development of a public education and outreach campaign to promote osteoporosis prevention and education, including, but not limited to, the following subjects:

(A) The cause and nature of the disease.

(B) Risk factors.

(C) The role of hysterectomy.

(D) Prevention of osteoporosis, including nutrition, diet, and physical exercise.

(E) Diagnostic procedures and appropriate indications for their use.

(F) Hormone replacement, including benefits and risks.

(G) Environmental safety and injury prevention.

(H) Availability of osteoporosis diagnostic treatment services in the community.

(2) Development of educational materials to be made available for consumers, particularly targeted to high-risk groups, through local health departments, local physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, or physician assistants, other providers (including, but not limited to, health maintenance organizations, hospitals, and clinics), and women's organizations.

(3) Development of professional education programs for health care providers to assist them in understanding research findings and the subjects set forth in paragraph (1).

(4) Development and maintenance of a list of current providers of specialized services for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Dissemination of the list shall be accompanied by a description of diagnostic procedures, appropriate indications for their use, and a cautionary statement about the current status of osteoporosis research, prevention, and treatment. The statement shall also indicate that the Department does not license, certify, or in any other way approve osteoporosis programs or centers in this State.

(c) The State Board of Health shall serve as an advisory board to the Department with specific respect to the prevention and education activities related to osteoporosis described in this Section. The State Board of Health shall assist the Department in implementing this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 55. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-145, 2310-397, 2310-410, 2310-600, 2310-677, and 2310-690 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-145)

Sec. 2310-145. Registry of health care professionals. The Department of Public Health shall maintain a registry of all active-status health care professionals, including nurses, nurse practitioners, advanced practice registered nurses, physicians, physician assistants, psychologists, professional counselors, clinical professional counselors, and pharmacists.

The registry must consist of information shared between the Department of Public Health and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation via a secure communication link. The registry must be updated on a quarterly basis.

The registry shall be accessed in the event of an act of bioterrorism or other public health emergency or for the planning for the possibility of such an event.

(Source: P.A. 96-377, eff. 1-1-10.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-397) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.90)

Sec. 2310-397. Prostate and testicular cancer program.

(a) The Department, subject to appropriation or other available funding, shall conduct a program to promote awareness and early detection of prostate and testicular cancer. The program may include, but need not be limited to:

(1) Dissemination of information regarding the incidence of prostate and testicular cancer, the risk factors associated with prostate and testicular cancer, and the benefits of early detection and treatment.

(2) Promotion of information and counseling about treatment options.

(3) Establishment and promotion of referral services and screening programs.

Beginning July 1, 2004, the program must include the development and dissemination, through print and broadcast media, of public service announcements that publicize the importance of prostate cancer screening for men over age 40.

(b) Subject to appropriation or other available funding, a Prostate Cancer Screening Program shall be established in the Department of Public Health.

(1) The Program shall apply to the following persons and entities:

(A) uninsured and underinsured men 50 years of age and older;

(B) uninsured and underinsured men between 40 and 50 years of age who are at high risk for prostate cancer, upon the advice of a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant or upon the request of the patient; and

(C) non-profit organizations providing assistance to persons described in subparagraphs (A) and (B).

(2) Any entity funded by the Program shall coordinate with other local providers of prostate cancer screening, diagnostic, follow-up, education, and advocacy services to avoid duplication of effort. Any entity funded by the Program shall comply with any applicable State and federal standards regarding prostate cancer screening.

(3) Administrative costs of the Department shall not exceed 10% of the funds allocated to the Program. Indirect costs of the entities funded by this Program shall not exceed 12%. The Department shall define "indirect costs" in accordance with applicable State and federal law.

(4) Any entity funded by the Program shall collect data and maintain records that are determined by the Department to be necessary to facilitate the Department's ability to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of the entities and the Program. Commencing with the Program's second year of operation, the Department shall submit an Annual Report to the General Assembly and the Governor. The report shall describe the activities and effectiveness of the Program and shall include, but not be limited to, the following types of information regarding those served by the Program:

(A) the number; and

(B) the ethnic, geographic, and age breakdown.

(5) The Department or any entity funded by the Program shall collect personal and medical information necessary to administer the Program from any individual applying for services under the Program. The information shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed other than for purposes directly connected with the administration of the Program or except as otherwise provided by law or pursuant to prior written consent of the subject of the information.

(6) The Department or any entity funded by the program may disclose the confidential information to medical personnel and fiscal intermediaries of the State to the extent necessary to administer the Program, and to other State public health agencies or medical researchers if the confidential information is necessary to carry out the duties of those agencies or researchers in the investigation, control, or surveillance of prostate cancer.

(c) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the Prostate Cancer Screening Program in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-87, eff. 1-1-14; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-410) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.42)

Sec. 2310-410. Sickle cell disease. To conduct a public information campaign for physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, hospitals, health facilities, public health departments, and the general public on sickle cell disease, methods of care, and treatment modalities available; to identify and catalogue sickle cell resources in this State for distribution and referral purposes; and to coordinate services with the established programs, including State, federal, and voluntary groups.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-600)

Sec. 2310-600. Advance directive information.

(a) The Department of Public Health shall prepare and publish the summary of advance directives law, as required by the federal Patient Self-Determination Act, and related forms. Publication may be limited to the World Wide Web. The summary required under this subsection (a) must include the Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form.

(b) The Department of Public Health shall publish Spanish language versions of the following:

(1) The statutory Living Will Declaration form.

(2) The Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Health Care.

(3) The statutory Declaration of Mental Health Treatment Form.

(4) The summary of advance directives law in Illinois.

(5) The Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form.

Publication may be limited to the World Wide Web.

(b-5) In consultation with a statewide professional organization representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, statewide organizations representing physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, nursing homes, registered professional nurses, and emergency medical systems, and a statewide organization representing hospitals, the Department of Public Health shall develop and publish a uniform form for practitioner cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) or life-sustaining treatment orders that may be utilized in all settings. The form shall meet the published minimum requirements to nationally be considered a practitioner orders for life-sustaining treatment form, or POLST, and may be referred to as the Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form. This form does not replace a physician's or other practitioner's authority to make a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Department of Public Health shall publish the Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form reflecting the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly no later than January 1, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-1110, eff. 8-26-14; 99-319, eff. 1-1-16; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-677)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2019)

Sec. 2310-677. Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome Advisory Committee.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome" or "NAS" means various adverse conditions that occur in a newborn infant who was exposed to addictive or prescription drugs while in the mother's womb.

(b) There is created the Advisory Committee on Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome. The Advisory Committee shall consist of up to 10 members appointed by the Director of Public Health. The Director shall make the appointments within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. Members shall receive no compensation for their services. The members of the Advisory Committee shall represent different racial, ethnic, and geographic backgrounds and consist of:

(1) at least one member representing a statewide association of hospitals;

(2) at least one member representing a statewide organization of pediatricians;

(3) at least one member representing a statewide organization of obstetricians;

(4) at least one member representing a statewide organization that advocates for the health of mothers and infants;

(5) at least one member representing a statewide organization of licensed physicians;

(6) at least one member who is a licensed practical nurse, registered professional nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse with expertise in the treatment of newborns in neonatal intensive care units;

(7) at least one member representing a local or regional public health agency; and

(8) at least one member with expertise in the treatment of drug dependency and addiction.

(c) In addition to the membership in subsection (a) of this Section, the following persons or their designees shall serve as ex officio members of the Advisory Committee: the Director of Public Health, the Secretary of Human Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, and the Director of Children and Family Services. The Director of Public Health, or his or her designee, shall serve as Chair of the Committee.

(d) The Advisory Committee shall meet at the call of the Chair. The Committee shall meet at least 3 times each year and its initial meeting shall take place within 120 days after the effective date of this Act. The Advisory Committee shall advise and assist the Department to:

(1) develop an appropriate standard clinical definition of "NAS";

(2) develop a uniform process of identifying NAS;

(3) develop protocols for training hospital personnel in implementing an appropriate and uniform process for identifying and treating NAS;

(4) identify and develop options for reporting NAS data to the Department by using existing or new data reporting options; and

(5) make recommendations to the Department on evidence-based guidelines and programs to improve the outcomes of pregnancies with respect to NAS.

(e) The Advisory Committee shall provide an annual report of its activities and recommendations to the Director, the General Assembly, and the Governor by March 31 of each year beginning in 2016. The final report of the Advisory Committee shall be submitted by March 31, 2019.

(f) This Section is repealed on June 30, 2019.

(Source: P.A. 99-320, eff. 8-7-15.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-690)

Sec. 2310-690. Cytomegalovirus public education.

(a) In this Section:

"CMV" means cytomegalovirus.

"Health care professional and provider" means any physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, hospital facility, or other person that is licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care services.

(b) The Department shall develop or approve and publish informational materials for women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants regarding:

(1) the incidence of CMV;

(2) the transmission of CMV to pregnant women and women who may become pregnant;

(3) birth defects caused by congenital CMV;

(4) methods of diagnosing congenital CMV; and

(5) available preventive measures to avoid the infection of women who are pregnant or may become pregnant.

(c) The Department shall publish the information required under subsection (b) on its Internet website.

(d) The Department shall publish information to:

(1) educate women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants about CMV; and

(2) raise awareness of CMV among health care professionals and providers who provide care to expectant mothers or infants.

(e) The Department may solicit and accept the assistance of any relevant health care professional associations or community resources, including faith-based resources, to promote education about CMV under this Section.

(f) If a newborn infant fails the 2 initial hearing screenings in the hospital, then the hospital performing that screening shall provide to the parents of the newborn infant information regarding: (i) birth defects caused by congenital CMV; (ii) testing opportunities and options for CMV, including the opportunity to test for CMV before leaving the hospital; and (iii) early intervention services. Health care professionals and providers may, but are not required to, use the materials developed by the Department for distribution to parents of newborn infants.

(Source: P.A. 99-424, eff. 1-1-16; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-26.)

Section 60. The Community Health Worker Advisory Board Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2335/10)

Sec. 10. Advisory Board.

(a) There is created the Advisory Board on Community Health Workers. The Board shall consist of 16 members appointed by the Director of Public Health. The Director shall make the appointments to the Board within 90 days after the effective date of this Act. The members of the Board shall represent different racial and ethnic backgrounds and have the qualifications as follows:

(1) four members who currently serve as community health workers in Cook County, one of whom shall have served as a health insurance marketplace navigator;

(2) two members who currently serve as community health workers in DuPage, Kane, Lake, or Will County;

(3) one member who currently serves as a community health worker in Bond, Calhoun, Clinton, Jersey, Macoupin, Madison, Monroe, Montgomery, Randolph, St. Clair, or Washington County;

(4) one member who currently serves as a community health worker in any other county in the State;

(5) one member who is a physician licensed to practice medicine in Illinois;

(6) one member who is a physician assistant;

(7) one member who is a licensed nurse or advanced practice registered nurse;

(8) one member who is a licensed social worker, counselor, or psychologist;

(9) one member who currently employs community health workers;

(10) one member who is a health policy advisor with experience in health workforce policy;

(11) one member who is a public health professional with experience with community health policy; and

(12) one representative of a community college, university, or educational institution that provides training to community health workers.

(b) In addition, the following persons or their designees shall serve as ex officio, non-voting members of the Board: the Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board, the Director of Children and Family Services, the Director of Aging, the Director of Public Health, the Director of Employment Security, the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, and the Secretary of Human Services.

(c) The voting members of the Board shall select a chairperson from the voting members of the Board. The Board shall consult with additional experts as needed. Members of the Board shall serve without compensation. The Department shall provide administrative and staff support to the Board. The meetings of the Board are subject to the provisions of the Open Meetings Act.

(d) The Board shall consider the core competencies of a community health worker, including skills and areas of knowledge that are essential to bringing about expanded health and wellness in diverse communities and reducing health disparities. As relating to members of communities and health teams, the core competencies for effective community health workers may include, but are not limited to:

(1) outreach methods and strategies;

(2) client and community assessment;

(3) effective community-based and participatory methods, including research;

(4) culturally competent communication and care;

(5) health education for behavior change;

(6) support, advocacy, and health system navigation for clients;

(7) application of public health concepts and approaches;

(8) individual and community capacity building and mobilization; and

(9) writing, oral, technical, and communication skills.

(Source: P.A. 98-796, eff. 7-31-14; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 65. The Illinois Housing Development Act is amended by changing Section 7.30 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3805/7.30)

Sec. 7.30. Foreclosure Prevention Program.

(a) The Authority shall establish and administer a Foreclosure Prevention Program. The Authority shall use moneys in the Foreclosure Prevention Program Fund, and any other funds appropriated for this purpose, to make grants to (i) approved counseling agencies for approved housing counseling and (ii) approved community-based organizations for approved foreclosure prevention outreach programs. The Authority shall promulgate rules to implement this Program and may adopt emergency rules as soon as practicable to begin implementation of the Program.

(b) Subject to appropriation and the annual receipt of funds, the Authority shall make grants from the Foreclosure Prevention Program Fund derived from fees paid as specified in subsection (a) of Section 15-1504.1 of the Code of Civil Procedure as follows:

(1) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be used to make grants to approved counseling agencies that provide services in Illinois outside of the City of Chicago. Grants shall be based upon the number of foreclosures filed in an approved counseling agency's service area, the capacity of the agency to provide foreclosure counseling services, and any other factors that the Authority deems appropriate.

(2) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be distributed to the City of Chicago to make grants to approved counseling agencies located within the City of Chicago for approved housing counseling or to support foreclosure prevention counseling programs administered by the City of Chicago.

(3) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be used to make grants to approved community-based organizations located outside of the City of Chicago for approved foreclosure prevention outreach programs.

(4) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be used to make grants to approved community-based organizations located within the City of Chicago for approved foreclosure prevention outreach programs, with priority given to programs that provide door-to-door outreach.

(b-1) Subject to appropriation and the annual receipt of funds, the Authority shall make grants from the Foreclosure Prevention Program Graduated Fund derived from fees paid as specified in paragraph (1) of subsection (a-5) of Section 15-1504.1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, as follows:

(1) 30% shall be used to make grants for approved housing counseling in Cook County outside of the City of Chicago;

(2) 25% shall be used to make grants for approved housing counseling in the City of Chicago;

(3) 30% shall be used to make grants for approved housing counseling in DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties; and

(4) 15% shall be used to make grants for approved housing counseling in Illinois in counties other than Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties provided that grants to provide approved housing counseling to borrowers residing within these counties shall be based, to the extent practicable, (i) proportionately on the amount of fees paid to the respective clerks of the courts within these counties and (ii) on any other factors that the Authority deems appropriate.

The percentages set forth in this subsection (b-1) shall be calculated after deduction of reimbursable administrative expenses incurred by the Authority, but shall not be greater than 4% of the annual appropriated amount.

(b-5) As used in this Section:

"Approved community-based organization" means a not-for-profit entity that provides educational and financial information to residents of a community through in-person contact. "Approved community-based organization" does not include a not-for-profit corporation or other entity or person that provides legal representation or advice in a civil proceeding or court-sponsored mediation services, or a governmental agency.

"Approved foreclosure prevention outreach program" means a program developed by an approved community-based organization that includes in-person contact with residents to provide (i) pre-purchase and post-purchase home ownership counseling, (ii) education about the foreclosure process and the options of a mortgagor in a foreclosure proceeding, and (iii) programs developed by an approved community-based organization in conjunction with a State or federally chartered financial institution.

"Approved counseling agency" means a housing counseling agency approved by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development.

"Approved housing counseling" means in-person counseling provided by a counselor employed by an approved counseling agency to all borrowers, or documented telephone counseling where a hardship would be imposed on one or more borrowers. A hardship shall exist in instances in which the borrower is confined to his or her home due to a medical condition, as verified in writing by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, or the borrower resides 50 miles or more from the nearest approved counseling agency. In instances of telephone counseling, the borrower must supply all necessary documents to the counselor at least 72 hours prior to the scheduled telephone counseling session.

(c) (Blank).

(c-5) Where the jurisdiction of an approved counseling agency is included within more than one of the geographic areas set forth in this Section, the Authority may elect to fully fund the applicant from one of the relevant geographic areas.

(Source: P.A. 98-20, eff. 6-11-13; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 70. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 15-168 and 15-172 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/15-168)

Sec. 15-168. Homestead exemption for persons with disabilities.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption is granted to persons with disabilities in the amount of $2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to be deducted from the property's value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable for paying the real estate taxes on the property.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of the property or have a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. In the case of a leasehold interest in property, the lease must be for a single family residence.

A person who has a disability during the taxable year is eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of residence. If a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "person with a disability" means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months. Persons with disabilities filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of disability in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall constitute proof of disability for purposes of this Act. Issuance of an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a person with a disability for purposes of this Act. A person with a disability not covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not presenting an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant designated by the Department, and his status as a person with a disability determined using the same standards as used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required examination shall be borne by the claimant.

(c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person with a disability. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable by contract with the owner or owners of record for paying the apportioned property taxes on the property of the cooperative or life care facility. In the case of a life care facility, the person with a disability must be liable for paying the apportioned property taxes under a life care contract as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building. A leasehold interest does not meet this requirement. If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the cooperative association or management firm shall credit the savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax liability of the qualifying person with a disability. The chief county assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the qualified person with a disability is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption according to guidelines established by the Department. After a person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall provide to each person granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed designation with the county collector, who shall issue the duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person with a disability in the manner required by the chief county assessment officer.

(e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

Section 75. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-14049, 3-15003.6, and 5-1069 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-14049) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-14049)

Sec. 3-14049. Appointment of physicians and nurses for the poor and mentally ill persons. The appointment, employment and removal by the Board of Commissioners of Cook County of all physicians and surgeons, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, and nurses for the care and treatment of the sick, poor, mentally ill or persons in need of mental treatment of said county shall be made only in conformity with rules prescribed by the County Civil Service Commission to accomplish the purposes of this Section.

The Board of Commissioners of Cook County may provide that all such physicians and surgeons who serve without compensation shall be appointed for a term to be fixed by the Board, and that the physicians and surgeons usually designated and known as interns shall be appointed for a term to be fixed by the Board: Provided, that there may also, at the discretion of the board, be a consulting staff of physicians and surgeons, which staff may be appointed by the president, subject to the approval of the board, and provided further, that the Board may contract with any recognized training school or any program for health professionals for health care services of any or all of such sick or mentally ill or persons in need of mental treatment.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-15003.6)

Sec. 3-15003.6. Pregnant female prisoners.

(a) Definitions. For the purpose of this Section:

(1) "Restraints" means any physical restraint or mechanical device used to control the movement of a prisoner's body or limbs, or both, including, but not limited to, flex cuffs, soft restraints, hard metal handcuffs, a black box, Chubb cuffs, leg irons, belly chains, a security (tether) chain, or a convex shield, or shackles of any kind.

(2) "Labor" means the period of time before a birth and shall include any medical condition in which a woman is sent or brought to the hospital for the purpose of delivering her baby. These situations include: induction of labor, prodromal labor, pre-term labor, prelabor rupture of membranes, the 3 stages of active labor, uterine hemorrhage during the third trimester of pregnancy, and caesarian delivery including pre-operative preparation.

(3) "Post-partum" means, as determined by her physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, the period immediately following delivery, including the entire period a woman is in the hospital or infirmary after birth.

(4) "Correctional institution" means any entity under the authority of a county law enforcement division of a county of more than 3,000,000 inhabitants that has the power to detain or restrain, or both, a person under the laws of the State.

(5) "Corrections official" means the official that is responsible for oversight of a correctional institution, or his or her designee.

(6) "Prisoner" means any person incarcerated or detained in any facility who is accused of, convicted of, sentenced for, or adjudicated delinquent for, violations of criminal law or the terms and conditions of parole, probation, pretrial release, or diversionary program, and any person detained under the immigration laws of the United States at any correctional facility.

(7) "Extraordinary circumstance" means an extraordinary medical or security circumstance, including a substantial flight risk, that dictates restraints be used to ensure the safety and security of the prisoner, the staff of the correctional institution or medical facility, other prisoners, or the public.

(b) A county department of corrections shall not apply security restraints to a prisoner that has been determined by a qualified medical professional to be pregnant and is known by the county department of corrections to be pregnant or in postpartum recovery, which is the entire period a woman is in the medical facility after birth, unless the corrections official makes an individualized determination that the prisoner presents a substantial flight risk or some other extraordinary circumstance that dictates security restraints be used to ensure the safety and security of the prisoner, her child or unborn child, the staff of the county department of corrections or medical facility, other prisoners, or the public. The protections set out in clauses (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this Section shall apply to security restraints used pursuant to this subsection. The corrections official shall immediately remove all restraints upon the written or oral request of medical personnel. Oral requests made by medical personnel shall be verified in writing as promptly as reasonably possible.

(1) Qualified authorized health staff shall have the authority to order therapeutic restraints for a pregnant or postpartum prisoner who is a danger to herself, her child, unborn child, or other persons due to a psychiatric or medical disorder. Therapeutic restraints may only be initiated, monitored and discontinued by qualified and authorized health staff and used to safely limit a prisoner's mobility for psychiatric or medical reasons. No order for therapeutic restraints shall be written unless medical or mental health personnel, after personally observing and examining the prisoner, are clinically satisfied that the use of therapeutic restraints is justified and permitted in accordance with hospital policies and applicable State law. Metal handcuffs or shackles are not considered therapeutic restraints.

(2) Whenever therapeutic restraints are used by medical personnel, Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall apply.

(3) Leg irons, shackles or waist shackles shall not be used on any pregnant or postpartum prisoner regardless of security classification. Except for therapeutic restraints under clause (b)(2), no restraints of any kind may be applied to prisoners during labor.

(4) When a pregnant or postpartum prisoner must be restrained, restraints used shall be the least restrictive restraints possible to ensure the safety and security of the prisoner, her child, unborn child, the staff of the county department of corrections or medical facility, other prisoners, or the public, and in no case shall include leg irons, shackles or waist shackles.

(5) Upon the pregnant prisoner's entry into a hospital room, and completion of initial room inspection, a corrections official shall be posted immediately outside the hospital room, unless requested to be in the room by medical personnel attending to the prisoner's medical needs.

(6) The county department of corrections shall provide adequate corrections personnel to monitor the pregnant prisoner during her transport to and from the hospital and during her stay at the hospital.

(7) Where the county department of corrections requires prisoner safety assessments, a corrections official may enter the hospital room to conduct periodic prisoner safety assessments, except during a medical examination or the delivery process.

(8) Upon discharge from a medical facility, postpartum prisoners shall be restrained only with handcuffs in front of the body during transport to the county department of corrections. A corrections official shall immediately remove all security restraints upon written or oral request by medical personnel. Oral requests made by medical personnel shall be verified in writing as promptly as reasonably possible.

(c) Enforcement. No later than 30 days before the end of each fiscal year, the county sheriff or corrections official of the correctional institution where a pregnant prisoner has been restrained during that previous fiscal year, shall submit a written report to the Illinois General Assembly and the Office of the Governor that includes an account of every instance of prisoner restraint pursuant to this Section. The written report shall state the date, time, location and rationale for each instance in which restraints are used. The written report shall not contain any individually identifying information of any prisoner. Such reports shall be made available for public inspection.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1069)

Sec. 5-1069. Group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(a) The county board of any county may arrange to provide, for the benefit of employees of the county, group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, or the county board may self-insure, for the benefit of its employees, all or a portion of the employees' group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, including a combination of self-insurance and other types of insurance authorized by this Section, provided that the county board complies with all other requirements of this Section. The insurance may include provision for employees who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing in accordance with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination. The county board may provide for payment by the county of a portion or all of the premium or charge for the insurance with the employee paying the balance of the premium or charge, if any. If the county board undertakes a plan under which the county pays only a portion of the premium or charge, the county board shall provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent to join the plan the balance of the premium or charge for the insurance.

(b) If the county board does not provide for self-insurance or for a plan under which the county pays a portion or all of the premium or charge for a group insurance plan, the county board may provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent thereto the total premium or charge for any group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(c) The county board may exercise the powers granted in this Section only if it provides for self-insurance or, where it makes arrangements to provide group insurance through an insurance carrier, if the kinds of group insurance are obtained from an insurance company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois. The county board may enact an ordinance prescribing the method of operation of the insurance program.

(d) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include screening by low-dose mammography for all women 35 years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer unless the county elects to provide mammograms itself under Section 5-1069.1. The coverage shall be as follows:

(1) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(2) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(4) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

For purposes of this subsection, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

(d-5) Coverage as described by subsection (d) shall be provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to an annual or lifetime maximum benefit.

(d-10) When health care services are available through contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the requirements of subsection (d-5) are not applicable. When a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the policy or contract.

(d-15) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include mastectomy coverage, which includes coverage for prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy shall include:

(1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the mastectomy has been performed;

(2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and

(3) prostheses and treatment for physical complications at all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedemas. Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as determined by a licensed physician.

A county, including a home rule county, that is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this Section.

(d-20) The requirement that mammograms be included in health insurance coverage as provided in subsections (d) through (d-15) is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule county powers. A home rule county to which subsections (d) through (d-15) apply must comply with every provision of those subsections.

(e) The term "employees" as used in this Section includes elected or appointed officials but does not include temporary employees.

(f) The county board may, by ordinance, arrange to provide group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or a combination of those types of insurance, under this Section to retired former employees and retired former elected or appointed officials of the county.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 80. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 10-1-38.1 and 10-2.1-18 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-38.1) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-1-38.1)

Sec. 10-1-38.1. When the force of the Fire Department or of the Police Department is reduced, and positions displaced or abolished, seniority shall prevail, and the officers and members so reduced in rank, or removed from the service of the Fire Department or of the Police Department shall be considered furloughed without pay from the positions from which they were reduced or removed.

Such reductions and removals shall be in strict compliance with seniority and in no event shall any officer or member be reduced more than one rank in a reduction of force. Officers and members with the least seniority in the position to be reduced shall be reduced to the next lower rated position. For purposes of determining which officers and members will be reduced in rank, seniority shall be determined by adding the time spent at the rank or position from which the officer or member is to be reduced and the time spent at any higher rank or position in the Department. For purposes of determining which officers or members in the lowest rank or position shall be removed from the Department in the event of a layoff, length of service in the Department shall be the basis for determining seniority, with the least senior such officer or member being the first so removed and laid off. Such officers or members laid off shall have their names placed on an appropriate reemployment list in the reverse order of dates of layoff.

If any positions which have been vacated because of reduction in forces or displacement and abolition of positions, are reinstated, such members and officers of the Fire Department or of the Police Department as are furloughed from the said positions shall be notified by registered mail of such reinstatement of positions and shall have prior right to such positions if otherwise qualified, and in all cases seniority shall prevail. Written application for such reinstated position must be made by the furloughed person within 30 days after notification as above provided and such person may be required to submit to examination by physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, or physician assistants of both the commission and the appropriate pension board to determine his physical fitness.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-18) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-2.1-18)

Sec. 10-2.1-18. Fire or police departments - Reduction of force - Reinstatement. When the force of the fire department or of the police department is reduced, and positions displaced or abolished, seniority shall prevail and the officers and members so reduced in rank, or removed from the service of the fire department or of the police department shall be considered furloughed without pay from the positions from which they were reduced or removed.

Such reductions and removals shall be in strict compliance with seniority and in no event shall any officer or member be reduced more than one rank in a reduction of force. Officers and members with the least seniority in the position to be reduced shall be reduced to the next lower rated position. For purposes of determining which officers and members will be reduced in rank, seniority shall be determined by adding the time spent at the rank or position from which the officer or member is to be reduced and the time spent at any higher rank or position in the Department. For purposes of determining which officers or members in the lowest rank or position shall be removed from the Department in the event of a layoff, length of service in the Department shall be the basis for determining seniority, with the least senior such officer or member being the first so removed and laid off. Such officers or members laid off shall have their names placed on an appropriate reemployment list in the reverse order of dates of layoff.

If any positions which have been vacated because of reduction in forces or displacement and abolition of positions, are reinstated, such members and officers of the fire department or of the police department as are furloughed from the said positions shall be notified by the board by registered mail of such reinstatement of positions and shall have prior right to such positions if otherwise qualified, and in all cases seniority shall prevail. Written application for such reinstated position must be made by the furloughed person within 30 days after notification as above provided and such person may be required to submit to examination by physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, or physician assistants of both the board of fire and police commissioners and the appropriate pension board to determine his physical fitness.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 85. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 22-30, 22-80, 24-5, 24-6, 26-1, and 27-8.1 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/22-30)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of an opioid antagonist; asthma episode emergency response protocol.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma action plan" means a written plan developed with a pupil's medical provider to help control the pupil's asthma. The goal of an asthma action plan is to reduce or prevent flare-ups and emergency department visits through day-to-day management and to serve as a student-specific document to be referenced in the event of an asthma episode.

"Asthma episode emergency response protocol" means a procedure to provide assistance to a pupil experiencing symptoms of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, or breathing difficulty.

"Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.

"Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body.

"Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority for a pupil that pertains to the pupil's asthma and that has an individual prescription label.

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis.

"Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine auto-injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine auto-injector is to be administered.

The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; and (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose.

(c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for school epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(c-5) When a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction or administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector or the use of an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry an opioid antagonist on their person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in any secure location that is accessible before, during, and after school where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act may prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

(f-3) Whichever entity initiates the process of obtaining undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors and providing training to personnel for carrying and administering undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors shall pay for the costs of the undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated epinephrine auto-injector of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the health care professional who provided the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to their school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. their The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, trained personnel must submit to their school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in person.

Training shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis;

(2) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector; and

(3) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine auto-injector.

Training may also include, but is not limited to:

(A) a review of high-risk areas within a school and its related facilities;

(B) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(C) emergency follow-up procedures;

(D) how to respond to a student with a known allergy, as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy; and

(E) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State Board is not required to create new resource materials. The State Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose;

(2) information on drug overdose prevention and recognition;

(3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid overdose;

(5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration;

(6) the importance of calling 911;

(7) care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist;

(8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a dose of an opioid antagonist; and

(9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the State Board.

If a school district, public school, or nonpublic school maintains or has an independent contractor providing transportation to students who maintains a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, then the school district, public school, or nonpublic school must report that information to the State Board of Education upon adoption or change of the policy of the school district, public school, nonpublic school, or independent contractor, in a manner as prescribed by the State Board. The report must include the number of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in supply.

(i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school must report to the State Board of Education, in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid antagonist (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) the location where symptoms developed;

(3) the type of person administering the opioid antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and

(4) any other information required by the State Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration during the preceding academic year. Beginning with the 2017 report, the report shall also contain information on which school districts, public schools, and nonpublic schools maintain or have independent contractors providing transportation to students who maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(j-5) Annually, each school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall request an asthma action plan from the parents or guardians of a pupil with asthma. If provided, the asthma action plan must be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school administrator. Copies of the asthma action plan may be distributed to appropriate school staff who interact with the pupil on a regular basis, and, if applicable, may be attached to the pupil's federal Section 504 plan or individualized education program plan.

(j-10) To assist schools with emergency response procedures for asthma, the State Board of Education, in consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management and a statewide organization representing school administrators, shall develop a model asthma episode emergency response protocol before September 1, 2016. Each school district, charter school, and nonpublic school shall adopt an asthma episode emergency response protocol before January 1, 2017 that includes all of the components of the State Board's model protocol.

(j-15) Every 2 years, school personnel who work with pupils shall complete an in-person or online training program on the management of asthma, the prevention of asthma symptoms, and emergency response in the school setting. In consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials for educating school personnel about asthma and emergency response in the school setting.

(j-20) On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(l) Nothing in this Section shall limit the amount of epinephrine auto-injectors that any type of school or student may carry or maintain a supply of.

(Source: P.A. 98-795, eff. 8-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-711, eff. 1-1-17; 99-843, eff. 8-19-16; revised 9-8-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-80)

Sec. 22-80. Student athletes; concussions and head injuries.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes all of the following:

(1) Concussions are one of the most commonly reported injuries in children and adolescents who participate in sports and recreational activities. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimates that as many as 3,900,000 sports-related and recreation-related concussions occur in the United States each year. A concussion is caused by a blow or motion to the head or body that causes the brain to move rapidly inside the skull. The risk of catastrophic injuries or death are significant when a concussion or head injury is not properly evaluated and managed.

(2) Concussions are a type of brain injury that can range from mild to severe and can disrupt the way the brain normally works. Concussions can occur in any organized or unorganized sport or recreational activity and can result from a fall or from players colliding with each other, the ground, or with obstacles. Concussions occur with or without loss of consciousness, but the vast majority of concussions occur without loss of consciousness.

(3) Continuing to play with a concussion or symptoms of a head injury leaves a young athlete especially vulnerable to greater injury and even death. The General Assembly recognizes that, despite having generally recognized return-to-play standards for concussions and head injuries, some affected youth athletes are prematurely returned to play, resulting in actual or potential physical injury or death to youth athletes in this State.

(4) Student athletes who have sustained a concussion may need informal or formal accommodations, modifications of curriculum, and monitoring by medical or academic staff until the student is fully recovered. To that end, all schools are encouraged to establish a return-to-learn protocol that is based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines and conduct baseline testing for student athletes.

(b) In this Section:

"Athletic trainer" means an athletic trainer licensed under the Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act.

"Coach" means any volunteer or employee of a school who is responsible for organizing and supervising students to teach them or train them in the fundamental skills of an interscholastic athletic activity. "Coach" refers to both head coaches and assistant coaches.

"Concussion" means a complex pathophysiological process affecting the brain caused by a traumatic physical force or impact to the head or body, which may include temporary or prolonged altered brain function resulting in physical, cognitive, or emotional symptoms or altered sleep patterns and which may or may not involve a loss of consciousness.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Game official" means a person who officiates at an interscholastic athletic activity, such as a referee or umpire, including, but not limited to, persons enrolled as game officials by the Illinois High School Association or Illinois Elementary School Association.

"Interscholastic athletic activity" means any organized school-sponsored or school-sanctioned activity for students, generally outside of school instructional hours, under the direction of a coach, athletic director, or band leader, including, but not limited to, baseball, basketball, cheerleading, cross country track, fencing, field hockey, football, golf, gymnastics, ice hockey, lacrosse, marching band, rugby, soccer, skating, softball, swimming and diving, tennis, track (indoor and outdoor), ultimate Frisbee, volleyball, water polo, and wrestling. All interscholastic athletics are deemed to be interscholastic activities.

"Licensed healthcare professional" means a person who has experience with concussion management and who is a nurse, a psychologist who holds a license under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act and specializes in the practice of neuropsychology, a physical therapist licensed under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, an occupational therapist licensed under the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act.

"Nurse" means a person who is employed by or volunteers at a school and is licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as a registered nurse, practical nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse.

"Physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"School" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, including a charter school.

"Student" means an adolescent or child enrolled in a school.

(c) This Section applies to any interscholastic athletic activity, including practice and competition, sponsored or sanctioned by a school, the Illinois Elementary School Association, or the Illinois High School Association. This Section applies beginning with the 2016-2017 school year.

(d) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall appoint or approve a concussion oversight team. Each concussion oversight team shall establish a return-to-play protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to interscholastic athletics practice or competition following a force or impact believed to have caused a concussion. Each concussion oversight team shall also establish a return-to-learn protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to the classroom after that student is believed to have experienced a concussion, whether or not the concussion took place while the student was participating in an interscholastic athletic activity.

Each concussion oversight team must include to the extent practicable at least one physician. If a school employs an athletic trainer, the athletic trainer must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. If a school employs a nurse, the nurse must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. At a minimum, a school shall appoint a person who is responsible for implementing and complying with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols adopted by the concussion oversight team. A school may appoint other licensed healthcare professionals to serve on the concussion oversight team.

(e) A student may not participate in an interscholastic athletic activity for a school year until the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student have signed a form for that school year that acknowledges receiving and reading written information that explains concussion prevention, symptoms, treatment, and oversight and that includes guidelines for safely resuming participation in an athletic activity following a concussion. The form must be approved by the Illinois High School Association.

(f) A student must be removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition immediately if one of the following persons believes the student might have sustained a concussion during the practice or competition:

(1) a coach;

(2) a physician;

(3) a game official;

(4) an athletic trainer;

(5) the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student;

(6) the student; or

(7) any other person deemed appropriate under the school's return-to-play protocol.

(g) A student removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition under this Section may not be permitted to practice or compete again following the force or impact believed to have caused the concussion until:

(1) the student has been evaluated, using established medical protocols based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, by a treating physician (chosen by the student or the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student) or an athletic trainer working under the supervision of a physician;

(2) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-play protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to play;

(3) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-learn protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to learn;

(4) the treating physician or athletic trainer working under the supervision of a physician has provided a written statement indicating that, in the physician's professional judgment, it is safe for the student to return to play and return to learn; and

(5) the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student:

(A) have acknowledged that the student has completed the requirements of the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols necessary for the student to return to play;

(B) have provided the treating physician's or athletic trainer's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) to the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols under this subsection (g) and the person who has supervisory responsibilities under this subsection (g); and

(C) have signed a consent form indicating that the person signing:

(i) has been informed concerning and consents to the student participating in returning to play in accordance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols;

(ii) understands the risks associated with the student returning to play and returning to learn and will comply with any ongoing requirements in the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols; and

(iii) consents to the disclosure to appropriate persons, consistent with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191), of the treating physician's or athletic trainer's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) and, if any, the return-to-play and return-to-learn recommendations of the treating physician or the athletic trainer, as the case may be.

A coach of an interscholastic athletics team may not authorize a student's return to play or return to learn.

The district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school shall supervise an athletic trainer or other person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play protocol and shall supervise the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-learn protocol. The person who has supervisory responsibilities under this paragraph may not be a coach of an interscholastic athletics team.

(h)(1) The Illinois High School Association shall approve, for coaches and game officials of interscholastic athletic activities, training courses that provide for not less than 2 hours of training in the subject matter of concussions, including evaluation, prevention, symptoms, risks, and long-term effects. The Association shall maintain an updated list of individuals and organizations authorized by the Association to provide the training.

(2) The following persons must take a training course in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) from an authorized training provider at least once every 2 years:

(A) a coach of an interscholastic athletic activity;

(B) a nurse who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team and is an employee, representative, or agent of a school;

(C) a game official of an interscholastic athletic activity; and

(D) a nurse who serves on a volunteer basis as a member of a concussion oversight team for a school.

(3) A physician who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team shall, to the greatest extent practicable, periodically take an appropriate continuing medical education course in the subject matter of concussions.

(4) For purposes of paragraph (2) of this subsection (h):

(A) a coach or game officials, as the case may be, must take a course described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (h).

(B) an athletic trainer must take a concussion-related continuing education course from an athletic trainer continuing education sponsor approved by the Department; and

(C) a nurse must take a course concerning the subject matter of concussions that has been approved for continuing education credit by the Department.

(5) Each person described in paragraph (2) of this subsection (h) must submit proof of timely completion of an approved course in compliance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) to the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school.

(6) A physician, athletic trainer, or nurse who is not in compliance with the training requirements under this subsection (h) may not serve on a concussion oversight team in any capacity.

(7) A person required under this subsection (h) to take a training course in the subject of concussions must initially complete the training not later than September 1, 2016.

(i) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall develop a school-specific emergency action plan for interscholastic athletic activities to address the serious injuries and acute medical conditions in which the condition of the student may deteriorate rapidly. The plan shall include a delineation of roles, methods of communication, available emergency equipment, and access to and a plan for emergency transport. This emergency action plan must be:

(1) in writing;

(2) reviewed by the concussion oversight team;

(3) approved by the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school;

(4) distributed to all appropriate personnel;

(5) posted conspicuously at all venues utilized by the school; and

(6) reviewed annually by all athletic trainers, first responders, coaches, school nurses, athletic directors, and volunteers for interscholastic athletic activities.

(j) The State Board of Education may adopt rules as necessary to administer this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-486, eff. 11-20-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)

Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth.

(a) In this Section, "employee" means any employee of a school district, a student teacher, an employee of a contractor that provides services to students or in schools, or any other individual subject to the requirements of Section 10-21.9 or 34-18.5 of this Code.

(b) School boards shall require of new employees evidence of physical fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from communicable disease. Such evidence shall consist of a physical examination by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other state to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant not more than 90 days preceding time of presentation to the board, and the cost of such examination shall rest with the employee. A new or existing employee may be subject to additional health examinations, including screening for tuberculosis, as required by rules adopted by the Department of Public Health or by order of a local public health official. The board may from time to time require an examination of any employee by a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant and shall pay the expenses thereof from school funds.

(c) School boards may require teachers in their employ to furnish from time to time evidence of continued professional growth.

(Source: P.A. 98-716, eff. 7-16-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-6)

Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school districts, including special charter districts, but not including school districts in municipalities of 500,000 or more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall grant such of their other employees as are eligible to participate in the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the "600-Hour Standard" established, or under such other eligibility participation standard as may from time to time be established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick leave provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in each school year. If any such teacher or employee does not use the full amount of annual leave thus allowed, the unused amount shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum available leave of 180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current year. Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness, quarantine at home, serious illness or death in the immediate family or household, or birth, adoption, or placement for adoption. The school board may require a certificate from a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, or, if the treatment is by prayer or spiritual means, a spiritual adviser or practitioner of the teacher's or employee's faith as a basis for pay during leave after an absence of 3 days for personal illness or 30 days for birth or as the school board may deem necessary in other cases. If the school board does require a certificate as a basis for pay during leave of less than 3 days for personal illness, the school board shall pay, from school funds, the expenses incurred by the teachers or other employees in obtaining the certificate. For paid leave for adoption or placement for adoption, the school board may require that the teacher or other employee provide evidence that the formal adoption process is underway, and such leave is limited to 30 days unless a longer leave has been negotiated with the exclusive bargaining representative.

If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school districts, or by reason of the creation of a new school district, the employment of a teacher is transferred to a new or different board, the accumulated sick leave of such teacher is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new or different district.

For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall include parents, spouse, brothers, sisters, children, grandparents, grandchildren, parents-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)

Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age-Exemptions. Whoever has custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or (ii) between the ages of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) beginning with the 2014-2015 school year shall cause such child to attend some public school in the district wherein the child resides the entire time it is in session during the regular school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during a required summer school program established under Section 10-22.33B; provided, that the following children shall not be required to attend the public schools:

1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school where children are taught the branches of education taught to children of corresponding age and grade in the public schools, and where the instruction of the child in the branches of education is in the English language;

2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to attend school, such disability being certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, or a Christian Science practitioner residing in this State and listed in the Christian Science Journal; or who is excused for temporary absence for cause by the principal or teacher of the school which the child attends; the exemptions in this paragraph (2) do not apply to any female who is pregnant or the mother of one or more children, except where a female is unable to attend school due to a complication arising from her pregnancy and the existence of such complication is certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician;

3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed according to the provisions of the law regulating child labor may be excused from attendance at school by the county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of the public school which the child should be attending, on certification of the facts by and the recommendation of the school board of the public school district in which the child resides. In districts having part time continuation schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at least 8 hours each week;

4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in attendance at confirmation classes;

5. Any child absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the reason that he is unable to attend classes or to participate in any examination, study or work requirements on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day, because the tenets of his religion forbid secular activity on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day. Each school board shall prescribe rules and regulations relative to absences for religious holidays including, but not limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it shall be mandatory to excuse a child; but nothing in this paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit the right of any school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on any other day by reason of the observance of a religious holiday. A school board may require the parent or guardian of a child who is to be excused from attending school due to the observance of a religious holiday to give notice, not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from attending school under this paragraph 5 shall not be required to submit a written excuse for such absence after returning to school;

6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii) is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B of this Code; and

7. A child in any of grades 6 through 12 absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the purpose of sounding "Taps" at a military honors funeral held in this State for a deceased veteran. In order to be excused under this paragraph 7, the student shall notify the school's administration at least 2 days prior to the date of the absence and shall provide the school's administration with the date, time, and location of the military honors funeral. The school's administration may waive this 2-day notification requirement if the student did not receive at least 2 days advance notice, but the student shall notify the school's administration as soon as possible of the absence. A student whose absence is excused under this paragraph 7 shall be counted as if the student attended school for purposes of calculating the average daily attendance of students in the school district. A student whose absence is excused under this paragraph 7 must be allowed a reasonable time to make up school work missed during the absence. If the student satisfactorily completes the school work, the day of absence shall be counted as a day of compulsory attendance and he or she may not be penalized for that absence.

(Source: P.A. 98-544, eff. 7-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-804, eff. 1-1-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)

Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.

(1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a health examination as follows: within one year prior to entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private, or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child who received a health examination within one year prior to entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not required to receive an additional health examination in order to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the child is attending school for the first time as provided in this paragraph.

A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, including eye examinations, may be required when deemed necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in time required for health examinations.

(1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the child presents proof that a dental examination will take place within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.

(1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the child presents proof that an eye examination will take place within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the child.

(2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures that constitute a health examination, which shall include the collection of data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing is not required.

Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed advanced practice registered nurses, or licensed physician assistants shall be responsible for the performance of the health examinations, other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions of the health examination for which the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant is responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a health examination, then a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, as well as any other tests or observations that in the professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's parent or guardian written notification, before the vision screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed and signed a report form indicating that an examination has been administered within the previous 12 months."

(3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of this Section, present to the local school proof of having received such immunizations against preventable communicable diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.

(4) The individuals conducting the health examination, dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of having conducted the examination, and such additional information as required, including for a health examination data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special services, including for a health examination factors relating to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the immunizations were administered.

(5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either the health examination or the immunization as required, then the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year established by a school district. To establish a date before October 15 of the current school year for the health examination or immunization as required, a school district must give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or more of the required immunizations must be given after October 15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established date of the current school year, then the child shall present, by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health department that will be responsible for administration of the remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the local school authority shall exclude that child from school until such time as the child presents proof of having had the health examination as required and presents proof of having received those required immunizations which are medically possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations and eye examinations. If the student is an out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the current year or whatever date is set by the school district, then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or employee of a school district shall be held liable for any injury or illness to another person that results from admitting an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).

(6) Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall require, the number of children who have received the necessary immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of those who have not received the immunizations and examination as required, the number of children who are exempt from health examination and immunization requirements on religious or medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before December 1 of each year, every public school district and registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the immunization data they are required to submit to the State Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made publicly available must be identical to the data the school district or school has reported to the State Board of Education.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required dental examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required dental examination, the number of children who are exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of this Section.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required eye examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this Section, the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number of children in noncompliance with the eye examination requirement.

The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board of Education.

(7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable specified percentage or higher.

(8) Children of parents or legal guardians who object to health, dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, to immunizations, or to vision and hearing screening tests on religious grounds shall not be required to undergo the examinations, tests, or immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a signed Certificate of Religious Exemption detailing the grounds for objection and the specific immunizations, tests, or examinations to which they object. The grounds for objection must set forth the specific religious belief that conflicts with the examination, test, immunization, or other medical intervention. The signed certificate shall also reflect the parent's or legal guardian's understanding of the school's exclusion policies in the case of a vaccine-preventable disease outbreak or exposure. The certificate must also be signed by the authorized examining health care provider responsible for the performance of the child's health examination confirming that the provider provided education to the parent or legal guardian on the benefits of immunization and the health risks to the student and to the community of the communicable diseases for which immunization is required in this State. However, the health care provider's signature on the certificate reflects only that education was provided and does not allow a health care provider grounds to determine a religious exemption. Those receiving immunizations required under this Code shall be provided with the relevant vaccine information statements that are required to be disseminated by the federal National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, which may contain information on circumstances when a vaccine should not be administered, prior to administering a vaccine. A healthcare provider may consider including without limitation the nationally accepted recommendations from federal agencies such as the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, the information outlined in the relevant vaccine information statement, and vaccine package inserts, along with the healthcare provider's clinical judgment, to determine whether any child may be more susceptible to experiencing an adverse vaccine reaction than the general population, and, if so, the healthcare provider may exempt the child from an immunization or adopt an individualized immunization schedule. The Certificate of Religious Exemption shall be created by the Department of Public Health and shall be made available and used by parents and legal guardians by the beginning of the 2015-2016 school year. Parents or legal guardians must submit the Certificate of Religious Exemption to their local school authority prior to entering kindergarten, sixth grade, and ninth grade for each child for which they are requesting an exemption. The religious objection stated need not be directed by the tenets of an established religious organization. However, general philosophical or moral reluctance to allow physical examinations, eye examinations, immunizations, vision and hearing screenings, or dental examinations does not provide a sufficient basis for an exception to statutory requirements. The local school authority is responsible for determining if the content of the Certificate of Religious Exemption constitutes a valid religious objection. The local school authority shall inform the parent or legal guardian of exclusion procedures, in accordance with the Department's rules under Part 690 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code, at the time the objection is presented.

If the physical condition of the child is such that any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be administered, the examining physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health examination form.

Exempting a child from the health, dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from participation in the program of physical education training provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

(9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" means those nursery schools operated by elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning.

(Source: P.A. 98-673, eff. 6-30-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-249, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

Section 90. The Care of Students with Diabetes Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(105 ILCS 145/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Delegated care aide" means a school employee who has agreed to receive training in diabetes care and to assist students in implementing their diabetes care plan and has entered into an agreement with a parent or guardian and the school district or private school.

"Diabetes care plan" means a document that specifies the diabetes-related services needed by a student at school and at school-sponsored activities and identifies the appropriate staff to provide and supervise these services.

"Health care provider" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice registered nurse who has a written agreement with a collaborating physician who authorizes the provision of diabetes care, or a physician assistant who has a written supervision agreement with a supervising physician who authorizes the provision of diabetes care.

"Principal" means the principal of the school.

"School" means any primary or secondary public, charter, or private school located in this State.

"School employee" means a person who is employed by a public school district or private school, a person who is employed by a local health department and assigned to a school, or a person who contracts with a school or school district to perform services in connection with a student's diabetes care plan. This definition must not be interpreted as requiring a school district or private school to hire additional personnel for the sole purpose of serving as a designated care aide.

(Source: P.A. 96-1485, eff. 12-1-10.)

Section 95. The Nursing Education Scholarship Law is amended by changing Sections 3, 5, and 6.5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 975/3) (from Ch. 144, par. 2753)

Sec. 3. Definitions.

The following terms, whenever used or referred to, have the following meanings except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:

(1) "Board" means the Board of Higher Education created by the Board of Higher Education Act.

(2) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(3) "Approved institution" means a public community college, private junior college, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, or public or private college or university located in this State that has approval by the Department of Professional Regulation for an associate degree in nursing program, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or certificate in practical nursing program.

(4) "Baccalaureate degree in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to a bachelor of science degree in nursing.

(5) "Enrollment" means the establishment and maintenance of an individual's status as a student in an approved institution, regardless of the terms used at the institution to describe such status.

(6) "Academic year" means the period of time from September 1 of one year through August 31 of the next year or as otherwise defined by the academic institution.

(7) "Associate degree in nursing program or hospital-based diploma in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to an associate degree in nursing, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing, or hospital-based diploma in nursing.

(8) "Graduate degree in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to a master of science degree in nursing or a doctorate of philosophy or doctorate of nursing degree in nursing.

(9) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(10) "Accepted for admission" means a student has completed the requirements for entry into an associate degree in nursing program, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or certificate in practical nursing program at an approved institution, as documented by the institution.

(11) "Fees" means those mandatory charges, in addition to tuition, that all enrolled students must pay, including required course or lab fees.

(12) "Full-time student" means a student enrolled for at least 12 hours per term or as otherwise determined by the academic institution.

(13) "Law" means the Nursing Education Scholarship Law.

(14) "Nursing employment obligation" means employment in this State as a registered professional nurse, licensed practical nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse in direct patient care for at least one year for each year of scholarship assistance received through the Nursing Education Scholarship Program.

(15) "Part-time student" means a person who is enrolled for at least one-third of the number of hours required per term by a school for its full-time students.

(16) "Practical nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution leading to a certificate in practical nursing.

(17) "Registered professional nurse" means a person who is currently licensed as a registered professional nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act.

(18) "Licensed practical nurse" means a person who is currently licensed as a licensed practical nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act.

(19) "School term" means an academic term, such as a semester, quarter, trimester, or number of clock hours, as defined by an approved institution.

(20) "Student in good standing" means a student maintaining a cumulative grade point average equivalent to at least the academic grade of a "C".

(21) "Total and permanent disability" means a physical or mental impairment, disease, or loss of a permanent nature that prevents nursing employment with or without reasonable accommodation. Proof of disability shall be a declaration from the social security administration, Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, Department of Defense, or an insurer authorized to transact business in Illinois who is providing disability insurance coverage to a contractor.

(22) "Tuition" means the established charges of an institution of higher learning for instruction at that institution.

(23) "Nurse educator" means a person who is currently licensed as a registered nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act, who has a graduate degree in nursing, and who is employed by an approved academic institution to educate registered nursing students, licensed practical nursing students, and registered nurses pursuing graduate degrees.

(24) "Nurse educator employment obligation" means employment in this State as a nurse educator for at least 2 years for each year of scholarship assistance received under Section 6.5 of this Law.

Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 96-805, eff. 10-30-09.)

(110 ILCS 975/5) (from Ch. 144, par. 2755)

Sec. 5. Nursing education scholarships. Beginning with the fall term of the 2004-2005 academic year, the Department, in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by it for this program, shall provide scholarships to individuals selected from among those applicants who qualify for consideration by showing:

(1) that he or she has been a resident of this State for at least one year prior to application, and is a citizen or a lawful permanent resident alien of the United States;

(2) that he or she is enrolled in or accepted for admission to an associate degree in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or practical nursing program at an approved institution; and

(3) that he or she agrees to meet the nursing employment obligation.

If in any year the number of qualified applicants exceeds the number of scholarships to be awarded, the Department shall, in consultation with the Illinois Nursing Workforce Center for Nursing Advisory Board, consider the following factors in granting priority in awarding scholarships:

(A) Financial need, as shown on a standardized financial needs assessment form used by an approved institution, of students who will pursue their education on a full-time or close to full-time basis and who already have a certificate in practical nursing, a diploma in nursing, or an associate degree in nursing and are pursuing a higher degree.

(B) A student's status as a registered nurse who is pursuing a graduate degree in nursing to pursue employment in an approved institution that educates licensed practical nurses and that educates registered nurses in undergraduate and graduate nursing programs.

(C) A student's merit, as shown through his or her grade point average, class rank, and other academic and extracurricular activities. The Department may add to and further define these merit criteria by rule.

Unless otherwise indicated, scholarships shall be awarded to recipients at approved institutions for a period of up to 2 years if the recipient is enrolled in an associate degree in nursing program, up to 3 years if the recipient is enrolled in a hospital-based diploma in nursing program, up to 4 years if the recipient is enrolled in a baccalaureate degree in nursing program, up to 5 years if the recipient is enrolled in a graduate degree in nursing program, and up to one year if the recipient is enrolled in a certificate in practical nursing program. At least 40% of the scholarships awarded shall be for recipients who are pursuing baccalaureate degrees in nursing, 30% of the scholarships awarded shall be for recipients who are pursuing associate degrees in nursing or a diploma in nursing, 10% of the scholarships awarded shall be for recipients who are pursuing a certificate in practical nursing, and 20% of the scholarships awarded shall be for recipients who are pursuing a graduate degree in nursing.

(Source: P.A. 93-879, eff. 1-1-05; 94-1020, eff. 7-11-06.)

(110 ILCS 975/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Nurse educator scholarships.

(a) Beginning with the fall term of the 2009-2010 academic year, the Department shall provide scholarships to individuals selected from among those applicants who qualify for consideration by showing the following:

(1) that he or she has been a resident of this State for at least one year prior to application and is a citizen or a lawful permanent resident alien of the United States;

(2) that he or she is enrolled in or accepted for admission to a graduate degree in nursing program at an approved institution; and

(3) that he or she agrees to meet the nurse educator employment obligation.

(b) If in any year the number of qualified applicants exceeds the number of scholarships to be awarded under this Section, the Department shall, in consultation with the Illinois Nursing Workforce Center for Nursing Advisory Board, consider the following factors in granting priority in awarding scholarships:

(1) Financial need, as shown on a standardized financial needs assessment form used by an approved institution, of students who will pursue their education on a full-time or close to full-time basis and who already have a diploma in nursing and are pursuing a higher degree.

(2) A student's status as a registered nurse who is pursuing a graduate degree in nursing to pursue employment in an approved institution that educates licensed practical nurses and that educates registered nurses in undergraduate and graduate nursing programs.

(3) A student's merit, as shown through his or her grade point average, class rank, experience as a nurse, including supervisory experience, experience as a nurse in the United States military, and other academic and extracurricular activities.

(c) Unless otherwise indicated, scholarships under this Section shall be awarded to recipients at approved institutions for a period of up to 3 years.

(d) Within 12 months after graduation from a graduate degree in nursing program for nurse educators, any recipient who accepted a scholarship under this Section shall begin meeting the required nurse educator employment obligation. In order to defer his or her continuous employment obligation, a recipient must request the deferment in writing from the Department. A recipient shall receive a deferment if he or she notifies the Department, within 30 days after enlisting, that he or she is spending up to 4 years in military service. A recipient shall receive a deferment if he or she notifies the Department, within 30 days after enrolling, that he or she is enrolled in an academic program leading to a graduate degree in nursing. The recipient must begin meeting the required nurse educator employment obligation no later than 6 months after the end of the deferment or deferments.

Any person who fails to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation shall pay to the Department an amount equal to the amount of scholarship funds received per year for each unfulfilled year of the nurse educator employment obligation, together with interest at 7% per year on the unpaid balance. Payment must begin within 6 months following the date of the occurrence initiating the repayment. All repayments must be completed within 6 years from the date of the occurrence initiating the repayment. However, this repayment obligation may be deferred and re-evaluated every 6 months when the failure to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation results from involuntarily leaving the profession due to a decrease in the number of nurses employed in this State or when the failure to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation results from total and permanent disability. The repayment obligation shall be excused if the failure to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation results from the death or adjudication as incompetent of the person holding the scholarship. No claim for repayment may be filed against the estate of such a decedent or incompetent.

The Department may allow a nurse educator employment obligation fulfillment alternative if the nurse educator scholarship recipient is unsuccessful in finding work as a nurse educator. The Department shall maintain a database of all available nurse educator positions in this State.

(e) Each person applying for a scholarship under this Section must be provided with a copy of this Section at the time of application for the benefits of this scholarship.

(f) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 96-805, eff. 10-30-09.)

Section 100. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:

(210 ILCS 5/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Clinical privileges; advanced practice registered nurses. All ambulatory surgical treatment centers (ASTC) licensed under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) No ASTC policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical privileges granted by the consulting committee of the ASTC. A licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may be assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery by the consulting committee of the ASTC. Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not an ambulatory surgical treatment center employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same services been provided by a physician.

(2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an invasive or operative procedure.

(3) An advanced practice registered nurse is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice registered nursing services in an ambulatory surgical treatment center. An advanced practice registered nurse must possess clinical privileges granted by the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice registered nurses may also be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The attending physician must determine the advanced practice registered nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in the consulting staff policies. The consulting medical staff committee shall periodically review the services of advanced practice registered nurses granted privileges.

(4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed podiatric physician.

(A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges granted by the medical staff and ASTC, may administer anesthesia services are limited to the following:

(i) an anesthesiologist; or

(ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(iii) a dentist with authority to administer anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(iv) a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist; or

(v) a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(B) For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of anesthesiologists with clinical privileges, an alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical staff consulting committee in consultation with the anesthesia service and included in the medical staff consulting committee policies.

(C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating podiatric physician in accordance with the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

Section 105. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(210 ILCS 9/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:

"Activities of daily living" means eating, dressing, bathing, toileting, transferring, or personal hygiene.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" means a home, building, residence, or any other place where sleeping accommodations are provided for at least 3 unrelated adults, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and where the following are provided consistent with the purposes of this Act:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit in assisted living and shared housing is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident;

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or resident's representative; and

(4) a physical environment that is a homelike setting that includes the following and such other elements as established by the Department: individual living units each of which shall accommodate small kitchen appliances and contain private bathing, washing, and toilet facilities, or private washing and toilet facilities with a common bathing room readily accessible to each resident. Units shall be maintained for single occupancy except in cases in which 2 residents choose to share a unit. Sufficient common space shall exist to permit individual and group activities.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a facility licensed under the MC/DD Act. However, a facility licensed under any of those Acts may convert distinct parts of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) The portion of a life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act not licensed as an assisted living establishment under this Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) A shared housing establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Emergency situation" means imminent danger of death or serious physical harm to a resident of an establishment.

"License" means any of the following types of licenses issued to an applicant or licensee by the Department:

(1) "Probationary license" means a license issued to an applicant or licensee that has not held a license under this Act prior to its application or pursuant to a license transfer in accordance with Section 50 of this Act.

(2) "Regular license" means a license issued by the Department to an applicant or licensee that is in substantial compliance with this Act and any rules promulgated under this Act.

"Licensee" means a person, agency, association, corporation, partnership, or organization that has been issued a license to operate an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Licensed health care professional" means a registered professional nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant, and a licensed practical nurse.

"Mandatory services" include the following:

(1) 3 meals per day available to the residents prepared by the establishment or an outside contractor;

(2) housekeeping services including, but not limited to, vacuuming, dusting, and cleaning the resident's unit;

(3) personal laundry and linen services available to the residents provided or arranged for by the establishment;

(4) security provided 24 hours each day including, but not limited to, locked entrances or building or contract security personnel;

(5) an emergency communication response system, which is a procedure in place 24 hours each day by which a resident can notify building management, an emergency response vendor, or others able to respond to his or her need for assistance; and

(6) assistance with activities of daily living as required by each resident.

"Negotiated risk" is the process by which a resident, or his or her representative, may formally negotiate with providers what risks each are willing and unwilling to assume in service provision and the resident's living environment. The provider assures that the resident and the resident's representative, if any, are informed of the risks of these decisions and of the potential consequences of assuming these risks.

"Owner" means the individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other person who owns an assisted living or shared housing establishment. In the event an assisted living or shared housing establishment is operated by a person who leases or manages the physical plant, which is owned by another person, "owner" means the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment, except that if the person who owns the physical plant is an affiliate of the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment and has significant control over the day to day operations of the assisted living or shared housing establishment, the person who owns the physical plant shall incur jointly and severally with the owner all liabilities imposed on an owner under this Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its branches.

"Resident" means a person residing in an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Resident's representative" means a person, other than the owner, agent, or employee of an establishment or of the health care provider unless related to the resident, designated in writing by a resident to be his or her representative. This designation may be accomplished through the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, pursuant to the guardianship process under the Probate Act of 1975, or pursuant to an executed designation of representative form specified by the Department.

"Self" means the individual or the individual's designated representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" means a publicly or privately operated free-standing residence for 16 or fewer persons, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and who are unrelated to the owners and one manager of the residence, where the following are provided:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including housing and personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident; and

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or the resident's representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a facility licensed under the MC/DD Act. A facility licensed under any of those Acts may, however, convert sections of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) An assisted living establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Total assistance" means that staff or another individual performs the entire activity of daily living without participation by the resident.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 110. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:

(210 ILCS 25/7-101) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)

Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical laboratory shall examine specimens only at the request of (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed optometrist, (v) a licensed physician assistant, (v-A) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, (vi) an authorized law enforcement agency or, in the case of blood alcohol, at the request of the individual for whom the test is to be performed in compliance with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic counselor with the specific authority from a referral to order a test or tests pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Genetic Counselor Licensing Act. If the request to a laboratory is oral, the physician or other authorized person shall submit a written request to the laboratory within 48 hours. If the laboratory does not receive the written request within that period, it shall note that fact in its records. For purposes of this Section, a request made by electronic mail or fax constitutes a written request.

(Source: P.A. 98-185, eff. 1-1-14; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-767, eff. 1-1-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 115. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Section 3-206.05 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/3-206.05)

Sec. 3-206.05. Safe resident handling policy.

(a) In this Section:

"Health care worker" means an individual providing direct resident care services who may be required to lift, transfer, reposition, or move a resident.

"Nurse" means an advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Safe lifting equipment and accessories" means mechanical equipment designed to lift, move, reposition, and transfer residents, including, but not limited to, fixed and portable ceiling lifts, sit-to-stand lifts, slide sheets and boards, slings, and repositioning and turning sheets.

"Safe lifting team" means at least 2 individuals who are trained and proficient in the use of both safe lifting techniques and safe lifting equipment and accessories.

"Adjustable equipment" means products and devices that may be adapted for use by individuals with physical and other disabilities in order to optimize accessibility. Adjustable equipment includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(1) Wheelchairs with adjustable footrest height and seat width and depth.

(2) Height-adjustable, drop-arm commode chairs and height-adjustable shower gurneys or shower benches to enable individuals with mobility disabilities to use a toilet and to shower safely and with increased comfort.

(3) Accessible weight scales that accommodate wheelchair users.

(4) Height-adjustable beds that can be lowered to accommodate individuals with mobility disabilities in getting in and out of bed and that utilize drop-down side railings for stability and positioning support.

(5) Universally designed or adaptable call buttons and motorized bed position and height controls that can be operated by persons with limited or no reach range, fine motor ability, or vision.

(6) Height-adjustable platform tables for physical therapy with drop-down side railings for stability and positioning support.

(7) Therapeutic rehabilitation and exercise machines with foot straps to secure the user's feet to the pedals and with cuffs or splints to augment the user's grip strength on handles.

(b) A facility must adopt and ensure implementation of a policy to identify, assess, and develop strategies to control risk of injury to residents and nurses and other health care workers associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a resident. The policy shall establish a process that, at a minimum, includes all of the following:

(1) Analysis of the risk of injury to residents and nurses and other health care workers taking into account the resident handling needs of the resident populations served by the facility and the physical environment in which the resident handling and movement occurs.

(2) Education and training of nurses and other direct resident care providers in the identification, assessment, and control of risks of injury to residents and nurses and other health care workers during resident handling and on safe lifting policies and techniques and current lifting equipment.

(3) Evaluation of alternative ways to reduce risks associated with resident handling, including evaluation of equipment and the environment.

(4) Restriction, to the extent feasible with existing equipment and aids, of manual resident handling or movement of all or most of a resident's weight except for emergency, life-threatening, or otherwise exceptional circumstances.

(5) Procedures for a nurse to refuse to perform or be involved in resident handling or movement that the nurse in good faith believes will expose a resident or nurse or other health care worker to an unacceptable risk of injury.

(6) Development of strategies to control risk of injury to residents and nurses and other health care workers associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a resident.

(7) In developing architectural plans for construction or remodeling of a facility or unit of a facility in which resident handling and movement occurs, consideration of the feasibility of incorporating resident handling equipment or the physical space and construction design needed to incorporate that equipment.

(8) Fostering and maintaining resident safety, dignity, self-determination, and choice, including the following policies, strategies, and procedures:

(A) The existence and availability of a trained safe lifting team.

(B) A policy of advising residents of a range of transfer and lift options, including adjustable diagnostic and treatment equipment, mechanical lifts, and provision of a trained safe lifting team.

(C) The right of a competent resident, or the guardian of a resident adjudicated incompetent, to choose among the range of transfer and lift options consistent with the procedures set forth under subdivision (b)(5) and the policies set forth under this paragraph (8), subject to the provisions of subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (8).

(D) Procedures for documenting, upon admission and as status changes, a mobility assessment and plan for lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a resident, including the choice of the resident or the resident's guardian among the range of transfer and lift options.

(E) Incorporation of such safe lifting procedures, techniques, and equipment as are consistent with applicable federal law.

(c) Safe lifting teams must receive specialized, in-depth training that includes, but need not be limited to, the following:

(1) Types and operation of equipment.

(2) Safe manual lifting and moving techniques.

(3) Ergonomic principles in the assessment of risk both to nurses and other workers and to residents.

(4) The selection, safe use, location, and condition of appropriate pieces of equipment individualized to each resident's medical and physical conditions and preferences.

(5) Procedures for advising residents of the full range of transfer and lift options and for documenting individualized lifting plans that include resident choice.

Specialized, in-depth training may rely on federal standards and guidelines such as the United States Department of Labor Guidelines for Nursing Homes, supplemented by federal requirements for barrier removal, independent access, and means of accommodation optimizing independent movement and transfer.

(Source: P.A. 96-389, eff. 1-1-10; 97-866, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 120. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Sections 3.10 and 3.117 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.10)

Sec. 3.10. Scope of Services.

(a) "Advanced Life Support (ALS) Services" means an advanced level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and non-emergency medical services that includes basic life support care, cardiac monitoring, cardiac defibrillation, electrocardiography, intravenous therapy, administration of medications, drugs and solutions, use of adjunctive medical devices, trauma care, and other authorized techniques and procedures, as outlined in the provisions of the National EMS Education Standards relating to Advanced Life Support and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

That care shall be initiated as authorized by the EMS Medical Director in a Department approved advanced life support EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or under the verbal direction of an Emergency Communications Registered Nurse.

(b) "Intermediate Life Support (ILS) Services" means an intermediate level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and non-emergency medical services that includes basic life support care plus intravenous cannulation and fluid therapy, invasive airway management, trauma care, and other authorized techniques and procedures, as outlined in the Intermediate Life Support national curriculum of the United States Department of Transportation and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

That care shall be initiated as authorized by the EMS Medical Director in a Department approved intermediate or advanced life support EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or under the verbal direction of an Emergency Communications Registered Nurse.

(c) "Basic Life Support (BLS) Services" means a basic level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and non-emergency medical services that includes medical monitoring, clinical observation, airway management, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), control of shock and bleeding and splinting of fractures, as outlined in the provisions of the National EMS Education Standards relating to Basic Life Support and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

That care shall be initiated, where authorized by the EMS Medical Director in a Department approved EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or under the verbal direction of an Emergency Communications Registered Nurse.

(d) "Emergency Medical Responder Services" means a preliminary level of pre-hospital emergency care that includes cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), monitoring vital signs and control of bleeding, as outlined in the Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) curriculum of the National EMS Education Standards and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

(e) "Pre-hospital care" means those medical services rendered to patients for analytic, resuscitative, stabilizing, or preventive purposes, precedent to and during transportation of such patients to health care facilities.

(f) "Inter-hospital care" means those medical services rendered to patients for analytic, resuscitative, stabilizing, or preventive purposes, during transportation of such patients from one hospital to another hospital.

(f-5) "Critical care transport" means the pre-hospital or inter-hospital transportation of a critically injured or ill patient by a vehicle service provider, including the provision of medically necessary supplies and services, at a level of service beyond the scope of the Paramedic. When medically indicated for a patient, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician's assistant, in compliance with subsections (b) and (c) of Section 3.155 of this Act, critical care transport may be provided by:

(1) Department-approved critical care transport providers, not owned or operated by a hospital, utilizing Paramedics with additional training, nurses, or other qualified health professionals; or

(2) Hospitals, when utilizing any vehicle service provider or any hospital-owned or operated vehicle service provider. Nothing in Public Act 96-1469 requires a hospital to use, or to be, a Department-approved critical care transport provider when transporting patients, including those critically injured or ill. Nothing in this Act shall restrict or prohibit a hospital from providing, or arranging for, the medically appropriate transport of any patient, as determined by a physician licensed to practice in all of its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician's assistant.

(g) "Non-emergency medical services" means medical care, clinical observation, or medical monitoring rendered to patients whose conditions do not meet this Act's definition of emergency, before or during transportation of such patients to or from health care facilities visited for the purpose of obtaining medical or health care services which are not emergency in nature, using a vehicle regulated by this Act.

(g-5) The Department shall have the authority to promulgate minimum standards for critical care transport providers through rules adopted pursuant to this Act. All critical care transport providers must function within a Department-approved EMS System. Nothing in Department rules shall restrict a hospital's ability to furnish personnel, equipment, and medical supplies to any vehicle service provider, including a critical care transport provider. Minimum critical care transport provider standards shall include, but are not limited to:

(1) Personnel staffing and licensure.

(2) Education, certification, and experience.

(3) Medical equipment and supplies.

(4) Vehicular standards.

(5) Treatment and transport protocols.

(6) Quality assurance and data collection.

(h) The provisions of this Act shall not apply to the use of an ambulance or SEMSV, unless and until emergency or non-emergency medical services are needed during the use of the ambulance or SEMSV.

(Source: P.A. 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 99-661, eff. 1-1-17.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.117)

Sec. 3.117. Hospital Designations.

(a) The Department shall attempt to designate Primary Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Primary Stroke Centers as apply for that designation provided they are certified by a nationally-recognized certifying body, approved by the Department, and certification criteria are consistent with the most current nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines related to reducing the occurrence, disabilities, and death associated with stroke.

(2) A hospital certified as a Primary Stroke Center by a nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department, shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 business days of its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Primary Stroke Center.

(3) A center designated as a Primary Stroke Center shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(3.5) With respect to a hospital that is a designated Primary Stroke Center, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Suspend or revoke a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that the hospital's Primary Stroke Center certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized certifying body.

(B) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation, in extreme circumstances where patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such time as the certifying body investigates and makes a final determination regarding certification.

(C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Primary Stroke Center certification of that previously designated hospital.

(D) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(4) Primary Stroke Center designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as a Primary Stroke Center, in good standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a Primary Stroke Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its Primary Stroke Center certification. Each designated Primary Stroke Center shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the accrediting body's certification renewal.

(5) A hospital that no longer meets nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for Primary Stroke Centers, or loses its Primary Stroke Center certification, shall notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business days.

(a-5) The Department shall attempt to designate Comprehensive Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Comprehensive Stroke Centers as apply for that designation, provided that the Comprehensive Stroke Centers are certified by a nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department, and provided that the certifying body's certification criteria are consistent with the most current nationally-recognized and evidence-based stroke guidelines for reducing the occurrence of stroke and the disabilities and death associated with stroke.

(2) A hospital certified as a Comprehensive Stroke Center shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 business days of its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Comprehensive Stroke Center.

(3) A hospital designated as a Comprehensive Stroke Center shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(4) With respect to a hospital that is a designated Comprehensive Stroke Center, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Suspend or revoke the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized certifying body.

(B) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation, in extreme circumstances in which patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such time as the certifying body investigates and makes a final determination regarding certification.

(C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Comprehensive Stroke Center certification of that previously designated hospital.

(D) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(5) Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as a Comprehensive Stroke Center, in good standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its Comprehensive Stroke Center certification. Each designated Comprehensive Stroke Center shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's certification renewal.

(6) A hospital that no longer meets nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for Comprehensive Stroke Centers, or loses its Comprehensive Stroke Center certification, shall notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business days.

(b) Beginning on the first day of the month that begins 12 months after the adoption of rules authorized by this subsection, the Department shall attempt to designate hospitals as Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals in all areas of the State. Designation may be approved by the Department after a hospital has been certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital or through application and designation by the Department. For any hospital that is designated as an Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital at the time that the Department begins the designation of Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, the Emergent Stroke Ready designation shall remain intact for the duration of the 12-month period until that designation expires. Until the Department begins the designation of hospitals as Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, hospitals may achieve Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation utilizing the processes and criteria provided in Public Act 96-514.

(1) (Blank).

(2) Hospitals may apply for, and receive, Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, provided that the hospital attests, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that it meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation and pays an annual fee.

A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(2.5) A hospital may apply for, and receive, Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, provided that the hospital provides proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification and the hospital pays an annual fee.

(A) Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, in good standing, with the certifying body.

(B) The duration of an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation shall coincide with the duration of its Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification.

(C) Each designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's certification renewal and Application for Stroke Center Designation form.

(D) A hospital must submit a copy of its certification renewal from the certifying body as soon as practical but no later than 30 business days after that certification is received by the hospital. Upon the Department's receipt of the renewal certification, the Department shall renew the hospital's Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation.

(E) A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(3) Hospitals seeking Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation that do not have certification shall develop policies and procedures that are consistent with nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols for the provision of emergent stroke care. Hospital policies relating to emergent stroke care and stroke patient outcomes shall be reviewed at least annually, or more often as needed, by a hospital committee that oversees quality improvement. Adjustments shall be made as necessary to advance the quality of stroke care delivered. Criteria for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of hospitals shall be limited to the ability of a hospital to:

(A) create written acute care protocols related to emergent stroke care;

(A-5) participate in the data collection system provided in Section 3.118, if available;

(B) maintain a written transfer agreement with one or more hospitals that have neurosurgical expertise;

(C) designate a Clinical Director of Stroke Care who shall be a clinical member of the hospital staff with training or experience, as defined by the facility, in the care of patients with cerebrovascular disease. This training or experience may include, but is not limited to, completion of a fellowship or other specialized training in the area of cerebrovascular disease, attendance at national courses, or prior experience in neuroscience intensive care units. The Clinical Director of Stroke Care may be a neurologist, neurosurgeon, emergency medicine physician, internist, radiologist, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician's assistant;

(C-5) provide rapid access to an acute stroke team, as defined by the facility, that considers and reflects nationally-recognized, evidenced-based protocols or guidelines;

(D) administer thrombolytic therapy, or subsequently developed medical therapies that meet nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines;

(E) conduct brain image tests at all times;

(F) conduct blood coagulation studies at all times;

(G) maintain a log of stroke patients, which shall be available for review upon request by the Department or any hospital that has a written transfer agreement with the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital;

(H) admit stroke patients to a unit that can provide appropriate care that considers and reflects nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols or guidelines or transfer stroke patients to an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, Primary Stroke Center, or Comprehensive Stroke Center, or another facility that can provide the appropriate care that considers and reflects nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols or guidelines; and

(I) demonstrate compliance with nationally-recognized quality indicators.

(4) With respect to Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Require hospitals applying for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation to attest, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that the hospital meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital.

(A-5) Require hospitals applying for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation via national Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification to provide proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification, in good standing.

The Department shall require a hospital that is already certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital to send a copy of the Certificate to the Department.

Within 30 business days of the Department's receipt of a hospital's Acute Stroke-Ready Certificate and Application for Stroke Center Designation form that indicates that the hospital is a certified Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, in good standing, the hospital shall be deemed a State-designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital. The Department shall send a designation notice to each hospital that it designates as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital and shall add the names of designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals to the website listing immediately upon designation. The Department shall immediately remove the name of a hospital from the website listing when a hospital loses its designation after notice and, if requested by the hospital, a hearing.

The Department shall develop an Application for Stroke Center Designation form that contains a statement that "The above named facility meets the requirements for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital Designation as provided in Section 3.117 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act" and shall instruct the applicant facility to provide: the hospital name and address; the hospital CEO or Administrator's typed name and signature; the hospital Clinical Director of Stroke Care's typed name and signature; and a contact person's typed name, email address, and phone number.

The Application for Stroke Center Designation form shall contain a statement that instructs the hospital to "Provide proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification from a nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department".

(B) Designate a hospital as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital no more than 30 business days after receipt of an attestation that meets the requirements for attestation, unless the Department, within 30 days of receipt of the attestation, chooses to conduct an onsite survey prior to designation. If the Department chooses to conduct an onsite survey prior to designation, then the onsite survey shall be conducted within 90 days of receipt of the attestation.

(C) Require annual written attestation, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, by Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals to indicate compliance with Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria, as described in this Section, and automatically renew Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of the hospital.

(D) Issue an Emergency Suspension of Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation when the Director, or his or her designee, has determined that the hospital no longer meets the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria and an immediate and serious danger